Ajmer Daswani Classes Re – AIPMT 2015

RE - AIPMT 2015 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTION

( HELD ON SATURDAY 25TH JULY , 2015
1. 2,3- Dimethyl -2- butene can be prepared by heating 4. The number of structural isomers possible from the
which of the following compounds with a strong acid? molecular formula C3H9N is
(1) (CH3)2 C=CH-CH2-CH3 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(2) (CH3)2CH-CH2-CH=CH2 Ans. (3)
(3) (CH3)2CH-CH-CH=CH2 Sol.
|
CH3
(4) (CH3)3C- CH =CH2
Ans. (4)
Sol.

5. If the equilibrium constant for

N2(g) +O2(g) 2NO(g) is K, the equilibrium
1 1
constant for N2(g) + O2(g) NO(g) will be :-
2 2
(1) K (2) K2
1
2. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series . It's atomic number is
(3) K1/2
(4) 2 K
64 . Which of the following is the correct electronic
Ans. (3)
configuration of gadolinium?
Sol. N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g); K
(1) [Xe] 4f75d16s2 (2)[Xe] 4f65d26s2
8 2 1/2 N2(g) + ½ O2(g) NO(g); K`
(3) [Xe] 4f 6d (4) [Xe] 4f9 5s1
When a reaction is multiplied by 1/2 then K` = (k)1/2
Ans. (1)
2 7 1 6. Which one of the following pairs of solution is not an
Sol. 64 Gd =54[Xe]6s 4f 5d
acidic buffer?
3. The formation of the oxide ion, O2- (g), from oxygen
(1) H2CO3 and Na2CO3
atom requires first and exothermic and then an
(2) H3PO4 and Na3PO4
endothermic step as shown below :-
Θ
(3) HClO4 and NaClO4
O(g) + e- →O-(g) ; ∆fH = -141 kJ mol-1 (4) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
Θ
O-(g) +e- →O2-(g) ; ∆fH =+780 kJ mol-1 Ans. (3)
Thus process of formation of O2- in gas phase in Sol. HClO4 and NaClO4 cannot at as an acidic buffer .
unfavorable even through O2- is isoelectronic with neon 7. Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds
. It is due to the fact that . is the best conductor of electric current ?
(1) Oxygen is more electronegative (1) Ammonia , NH3
(2) Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size (2) Frutose, C6H12O6
of the ion (3) Acetic acid, CH4O2
(3) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by (4) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
achieving noble gas configuration Ans. (4)
(4) O- ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen Sol. Aqueous solution of HCl is the best conductor of electric
atom current because HCl is strong acid , so it dissociates
Ans. (3) completely into ions.

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8. Caprolatam is used for the manufacture of : O2+1 O2 O2-1 O2-2
(1) Terylene (3) Nylon -6,6 Bond order 2,5 2 1.5 1
(3) Nylon -6 (4) Teflon Stability x B.O.
Ans. (3) * Stability order [O2+1 > O2 >O2-1 > O22-]
12. The number of water molecules is maximum in :-
Sol. (1) 18 gram of water
(2) 18 moles of water
(3) 18 molecules of water
(4) 1.8 gram of water
Ans. (2)
Sol. Q 1 Mole water = 6.02 X 1023 molecules
∴ 18 mole water = 18 X 6.02 X 1023 molecules
so, 18 mole water has maximum number of molecules
13. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not
isostructural ?
(1) NH3 , PH3 (2) XeF4, XeO4
9. On heating which of the following releases CO2 most (3) SiCl4, PCl4 (4) Dimond , silicon carbide
easily ? Ans. (2)
(1) MgCO3 (3) CaCO3 Sol. (i) Hybridiation of NH3 [ σ=3, lp=1]
(3) K2CO3 (4) Na2CO3 sp3 geometry : tetrahedral
Ans. (1)
Sol. Thermal stability order
K2CO3>Na2CO3>CaCO3>MgCO3
Therefore MgCO3 releases CO2 most easily
∆
MgCO3 → MgO + CO2 (ii) Structures of XeF4 is square planar.
10. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to :
(1) High oxidation state of phosphorus
(2) Presence of two .OH groups and one P.H bond
(3) Presence of one .OH group and two P.H bonds
(4) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
Ans. (3) Structure of XeO4 is tetrahedral
Sol. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 All oxy- acid
phosphorus which contain P-H bond act as reductant .

So XeF4 and XeO4 are not isostructural

Presence of one –OH group and two P-H bonds

11. Decreasing order of stability of O2, O-2, O+2 and O2-2 is :-
(1) O2 > O+2 > O2-2 > O-2
(2) O-2 > O2-2 > O+2 > O2
(iii) Structure of SiCl4 is tetrahedral
(3) O+2 > O2 > O-2 > O2-2
(4) O2-2 > O-2 > O2 > O+2
Ans. (3)
Sol. Given species : O2 O2-1 , O2+1, O22-
Total number of electrons
O2 → 16e-
O2-1 → 17e- Structural of PCl4+ is tetrahedral
O2+1 → 15e- (iv) Diamond & SiC are isostructural because both have
O22- → 18e- tetrahedral arrangement and central atom is sp3
hybridised

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14. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in 18. Which of the statements given below is incorrect ?
accordance with the Markovnikov's rule, to give a (1) ONF is isoelectronic with O2N.
product 1.chloro.1.methylcyclohexane. The (2) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine
possible alkene is :- (3) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid
(4) O3 molecule is bent
Ans. (2)
Sol. (i) No. of electron in ONF = 24
No. of electron in NO2- = 24
(1) (2)
both are isoelectronic
(ii) OF2= is fluoride of oxygen not oxide of fluorine
because EN of fluorine is more than oxygen
OF2= oxygen difluoride
(3)(a) and (b) (4)
(iii) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid
Ans. (3)
2HClO4   ∆
 → Cl 2 O 7
Sol. − H 2O

(iv) O3 molecules in bent bent shape

19. The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN)6]3- is :-

(a) Tricyanoferrate (III) ion
(b) Hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
(c) Hexacyanoiron (III) ion
(d) Hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion
Ans. (2)
Sol. [Fe(CN)6]3-
Hexacyanido ferrate (III) ion
15. Assuming complete ionization, same moles of which
20. If avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 × 1023
of the following compounds will require the least
mol.1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol.1, this would change :
amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation?
(a) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a
(1) FeC2O4 (2) Fe(NO2)2
balanced equation
(3) FeSO4 (4) FeSO3
(b) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
Ans. (3)
(c) the definition of mass in units of grams
16. Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of (d) the mass of one mole of carbon
dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces which one Ans. (4)
of the following functional group ? Sol. Q mass of 1 mol (6.022 × 1023 atoms) of carbon = 12g
(1) – CHCl2 (2) -CHO
If Avogadro Number (NA) is changed
(3) - CH2Cl (4) -COOH than mass of 1 mol (6.022 × 1020 atom) of carbon
Ans. (2)
Reimer Tieman reaction 12 X 6.022 X 1020
= =12X10-3 g
Sol. 6.022 X 1023
Therefore the mass of 1 mol of carbon is changed
21. Which of the following statements is not correct for
a nucleophile ?
(1) Nucleophiles attack low e. density sites
(2) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking
17. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is : (3) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid
(1) 23% (3) 32% (4) Ammonia is a nucleophile
(3) 26% (4) 48% Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) Sol. Reason : Nucleophiles are electron rich species so
Sol. Packing efficiency in bcc lattice = 68% act as Lewis base.
∴ vacant space in back lattice = 100 – 68 = 32%

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Ajmer Daswani Classes Re – AIPMT 2015
22. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely ∴ 0.238 mole MgCO3 will give 0.238 mole MgO
to obey the ideal gas law at : =0.238 X 40 g = 9.523 g MgO
(1) high temperatures and high pressures Practical yield of MgO = 8 MgO
(2) low temperatures and low pressures
∴ % Purity = 8/9.523 X 100 = 84%
(3) high temperatures and low pressures
(4) low temperatures and high pressures 26. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m
Ans. (3) aqueous solution ?
(1) 0.0354 (2) 0.0177
Sol. [Ni(CN)4]2-
(3) 0.177 (4) 1.770
Oxidation state of Ni is +2 Ans. (2)
x -4 = 2 Sol. 1.00 m solution means 1 mole solute is present in
x = +2 1000 g water.
Ni2+→ |Ar|18 3d84s0 1000
nµO = = 55.5 mol H 2O
18
nsolute 1
X solute = = = 0.0177
nsolute + nH 2 O 1 + 55.5
27. The correct statement regarding defects in
crystalline solids is :-
(1) Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect
(2) Frenkel defect is found in hallides of alkaline
metals
(3) Schottky defects have no effect on the density
Hybridisation of [Ni(CN)4]2- is dsp2 of crystalline solids
(4) Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline
24. The heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 is
solids
-393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon formation
of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and oxygen gas is: Ans. (1)
(1) -630 kJ (2) -3.15 kJ Sol. Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect
(3) -315 kJ (4) +315 kJ 28. The stability of +1 oxidationstate among. Al , Ga, In
Ans. (3) and TI increases in the sequence
Sol. Formation of CO2 from carbon and dioxygen gas can be (1) TI < In < Ga < Al
represented as (2) In < TI < Ga < Al
C(s) +O2(g) →CO2(g) ;∆f H =-393.5 kJ mol-1 (3) Ga < In < Al < Tl
(1mol = 44g) (4) Al < Ga < In < TI
Heat released on formation of 44 g CO2 Ans. (4)
= -393.5 kJ mol-1 Sol. Stability of +1 oxidation state due to inert pair effect Tl
> In > Ga > Al
− 393.5 kJ mol −1
= X 35.2 g 29. Two possible stereo-structures of CH3CHOH.COOH,
44 g which are optically active, are called :-
= -315 kJ (1) Enantiomers
25. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample (2) Mesomers
decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and (3) Diastereomers
8.0g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage (4) Atropisomers
purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample ? Ans. (1)
(1) 60 (2) 84 Sol.
(3) 75 (4) 96
(At. Wt. : Mg = 24)
Ans. (2)
Sol. MgCO3(s) → MgO(s) + CO2(g)
20 Both are enantiomers
Moles of MgCO3= = -0.238 mol
84
From above equation
1 mole mgCO3 gives 1 mole mgO

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30. The following reaction 34. In an SN1 reaction on chiral centres, there is :
(1) 100% retention
(2) 100% inversion
(3) 100% racemization
(4) inversion more than retention leading to partial
is known by the name : recemization
(1) Acetylation reaction Ans. (4)
(2) Schotten-Baumen reaction Sol. SN1 reaction gives racemic mixture with slight
(3) Friedel.Craft's reaction predominance of that isomer which corresponds to
(4) Perkin's reaction inversion because SN1 also depends upon the
Ans. (2) degree of 'shielding' of the front side of the reacting
Sol. Benzoylation of aniline is an example of Schotten carbon.
Bauman reaction. 35. The rate constant of the reaction A → B is
31. The sum of coordination number and oxidation 0.6 × 10-3 mole per second. If the concentration
number of the metal M in the complex of A is 5 M, then concentration of B after
[M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl (where en is ethylenediamine) is :- 20 minutes is :-
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 6 (1) 0.36 M (2) 0.72 M
Ans. (3) (3) 1.08 M (4) 3.60 M
Sol. [M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl Ans. (2)
oxidation state of M = + 3 Sol. For zero order reaction:
Coordination number of M = 6 x= K.t. =0.6 X 10-3 X 20 X 60
Sum of oxidation state + coordination number
x=0.72 M
=3 + 6 = 9
36. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal
32. Reaction of carbonyl compound with one of the
volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed ?
following reagents involves nucleophilic addition
followed by elimination of water. The reagent is : (1) 7.0 (2) 1.04
(1) hydrocyanic acid (3) 12.65 (4) 2.0
(2) sodium hydrogen sulphite Ans. (3)
(3) a Grignard reagent Sol. N1V1 – N2V2 = N.V.
(4) hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution 0.1 X 1 -0.01 X 1 = N X 2
Ans. (4)
[OH-] = NR = 0.09 /2 = 0.045 N
Sol. Reaction of carbonyl compounds with ammonia
derivatives is an example of Nucleophilic addition pOH = -log (0.045) = 1.35
elimination reaction. ∴pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 1.35 = 12.65
33. Which one of the following esters gets hydrolysed 37. Number of possible isomers for the complex
most easily under alkaline conditions ? [Co(en)2Cl2] Cl will be : (en = ethylenediamine)
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) Ans. (1)
Sol. [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
Possible isomers -
(2) (i) Geometrical isomers

(3)

(4)

Ans. (3)
Sol. EWG (electron withdrawing group) increases
reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.
.NO2 is strong electron withdrawing group. (ii) In trans form plane of symmetry present, so trans
form is optically inactive but cis is optically active.
Total number of stereoisomer = 2+1 =3

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38. The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen Ans. (4)
halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl. Sol.
What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen
fluoride ?
(1) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than
in other hydrogen halides
(2) The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced
in fluorine which polarises the HF molecule
(3) The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher
than for other elements in the group.
(4) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF
molecules
Ans. (4) 42. Method by which Aniline cannot be prepared is :-
Sol. Due to strong H-bonding in HF molecule, boiling (1) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in ethanol
point is highest for HF (2) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with
HF > HI > HBr > HI chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with
39. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when aqueous NaOH solution
50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with (3) hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic
50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution ? solution
(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl =35.5) (4) degradation of benzamide with bromine in
(1) 7 g (2) 14 g (3) 28 g (4) 3.5 g alkaline solution
Ans. (1)
Sol. Ans. (2)
Sol.

due to resonance C- Cl bond acquires double bond

character.
43. Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the
preparation of alkyl halides?
(i) CH3CH2 OH + HCl   →
anh.ZnCl2

(ii) CH3CH2OH + HCl →

40. The oxidation of benzene by V2O5 in the presence of air
produces? (iii) (CH3)3 CHOH + HCl →
(iv) (CH3)2 CHOH + HCl    →
anh.ZnCl2
(1) benzoic acid (2) benzaldehyde
(3) benzoic anhydride (4) maleic anhydride (1) (iv) only (2) (iii) and (iv) only
Ans. (4) (3) (i) ,(iii) and (iv) only (4) (i) and (ii) only
Ans. (3)
Sol.
Sol. (i) and (iv) can be used due to presence of anhydrous
ZnCl2 (iii) gives alkyl halide due to formation of more
stable carbocation
44. Which is the correct order of increasing energy of the
listed orbitals in the atoms of titanium?
(1) 3s , 3p , 3d 4s (2) 3s 3p 4s 3d
41. Which of the following is not the product of dehydration
(3) 3s 4s 3p 3d (4) 4s 3s 3p 3d
Ans. (2)
of Sol. Ti(22) = 1s22s22p6 3s23p6 4s@3d2
order of energy is 3s 3p 4s 3d
45. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore,
the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of
(1) (2) cuprous oxide with :-
(1) copper(I) sulphide (2) sulphur dioxide
(3) iron(II) sulphide (4) carbon monoxide
Ans. (1)
(3) (4) Sol. Self reduction
Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu SO2↑

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46. Root pressure develops due to : 54. In which of the following both pairs have correct
(1) Increase in transpiration combination :
(2) Active absorption Gaseous nutrient cycle sulphur and phosphorus
(3) Low osmotic potential in soil 1 Sedimentary nutrient Carbon and Nitrogen
(4) Passive absorption cycle
Ans. (2) Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and Nitrogen
47. Which one is a wrong statement ? 2 Sedimentary nutrient Sulphur and Phosphorus
(1) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c, and cycle
fucoxanthin Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and sulphur
(2) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta 3 Sedimentary nutrient Nitrogen and phosphorus
and Gymnosperms cycle
(3) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores Gaseous nutrient cycle Nitrogen and sulphur
4 Sedimentary nutrient Carbon and Phosphorus
(4) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of
gymnosperms cycle
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
48. Which of the following structures is not found in 55. In mammalian eye, the 'fovea' is the center of the
prokaryotic cells? visual field, where :
(1) Plasma membrane (1) more rods than cones are found.
(2) Nuclear envelope (2) high density of cones occur, but has no rods
(3) Ribosome (3) the optic nerve leaves the eye
(4) Mesosome (4) only rods are present
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
49. Which one of the following animals has two separate 56. Choose the wrong statement :
circulatory pathways ? (1) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation
(1) Shark (2) Frog (2) Penicillium is multicellular and produces
(3) Lizard (4) Whale antibiotics
Ans. (4) (3) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical
50. Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are: genetics
(1) Detritivores (4) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms
(2) Primary consumers Ans. (4)
(3) Secondary consumers 57. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?
(4) Tertiary consumers (1) Mesosomes
Ans. (1) (2) Vacuoles
51. An association of individuals of different species (3) Ribosomes
living in the same habitat and having functional (4) Lysosomes
interactions is : Ans. (3)
(1) Population 58. In which of the following interactions both partners
(2) Ecological niche are adversely affected ?
(3) Biotic community (1) Mutualism
(4) Ecosystem (2) Competition
Ans. (3) (3) Predation
52. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes (4) Parasitism
from water molecules. Which one of the following Ans. (2)
pairs of elements is involved in this reaction? 59. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal
(1) Magnesium and Chlorine sight who has no history of colour blindness in her
(2) Manganese and Chlorine family. What is the probability of their grandson
(3) Manganese and Potassium being colour blind ?
(4) Magnesium and Molybdenum (1) 0.25 (2) 0.5
Ans. (2) (3) 1 (4) Nil
53. Axile placentation is present in : Ans. (4)
(1) Argemone 60. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as :
(2) Dianthus (1) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal
(3) Lemon imbalance
(4) Pea (2) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality.
Ans. (3) (3) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.
(4) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus
Ans. (3)

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Ajmer Daswani Classes Re – AIPMT 2015
61. Cellular organelles with membranes are : 71. The species confined to a particular region and not
(1) Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria found elsewhere is termed as :
(2) Nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria (1) Rare (2) Keystone (3) Alien (4) Endemic
(3) Chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic Ans. (4)
reticulum 72. Metagenesis refers to :
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei (1) Presence of a segmented body and
Ans. (1) parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
62. Cell wall is absent in : (2) Presence of different morphic forms
(1) Nostoc (2) Aspergillus (3) Alternation of generation between asexual and
(3) Funaria (4) Mycoplasma sexual phases of an organism
Ans. (4) (4) Occurrence of a drastic change in form during
63. The term "linkage" was coined by : post-embryonic development
(1) W.Sutton (2) T.H. Morgan Ans. (3)
(3) T.Boveri (4) G.Mendel 73. The enzymes that is not present in succus entericus
Ans. (2) is :
64. Which of the following biomolecules does have a (1) lipase (2) maltase
phosphodiester bond ? (3) nucleases (4) nucleosidase
(1) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide Ans. (3)
(2) Fatty acids in a diglyceride 74. Eutrophication of water bodies leading to killing of
(3) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide fishes is mainly due to non-availability of :
(4) Amino acids in a polypeptide (1) oxygen (2) food
Ans. (1) (3) light (4) essential minerals
65. The primary dentition in human differs from Ans. (1)
permanent dentition in not having one of the 75. The function of the gap junction is to :
following type of teeth : (1) stop substance from leaking across a tissue
(1) Incisors (2) Canine (2) performing cementing to keep neighbouring
(3) Premolars (4) Molars cells together
Ans. (3) (3) Facilitate communication between adjoining cells
66. A protoplast is a cell : by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(1) without cell wall of ions, small molecules and some large
(2) without plasma membrane molecules
(3) without nucleus (4) separate two cells from each other.
(4) undergoing division Ans. (3)
Ans. (1) 76. Match the following list of microbes and their
67. In which group of organisms the cells walls form two importance :
thin overlapping shells which fit together ? (a) Saccharomyces (i) Production of
(1) Slime moulds (2) Chrysophytes cerevisiae immunosuppressive
(3) Euglenoids (4) Dinoflagellates agents
Ans. (2) (b) Monascus (ii) Ripening of Swiss
purpureus cheese
68. The DNA molecules to which the gene of interest
is integrated for cloning is called : (c) Trichoderma (iii) Commercial
(1) Carrier (2) Transformer polysporum production of ethanol
(3) Vector (4) Template (d) Propionibacterium (iv) Production of blood
Ans. (3) sharmanii cholesterol lowering
69. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces : agents
(1) Three sperms
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Single sperm and a vegetative cell
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans. (2)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
70. Coconut water from a tender coconut is :
Ans. (2)
(1) Degenerated nucellus
77. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct
(2) Immature embryo
sequence :
(3) Free nuclear endosperm
(a) Crossing over
(4) Innermost layers of the seed coat
(b) Synapsis
Ans. (3)
(c) Terminalisation of chaismata
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus

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(1) (b), (c), (d), (a) 87. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant
(2) (b), (a), (d), (c) where the incorporated gene is meant for
(3) (b), (a), (c), (d) biosynthesis of :
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) (1) Vitamin A
Ans. (3) (2) Vitamin B
78. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became (3) Vitamin C
possible with the discovery of : (4) Omega 3
(1) Ligases (2) Restriction enzymes Ans. (1)
(3) Probes (4) Selectable markers 88. Chromatophores take part in :
Ans. (2) (1) Respiration (2) Photosynthesis
79. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of (3) Growth (4) Movement
nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning prevented by : Ans. (2)
(1) Cytochrome (2) Leghaemoglobin 89. Select the wrong statement :
(3) Xanthophyll (4) Carotene (1) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human
Ans. (2) being are caused by viruses
80. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to (2) The viroids were discovered by D.J. Ivanowski
(1) Innate immune response (3) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be
(2) Humoral immune response crystallized
(3) Cell-mediated immune response (4) The term 'contagium vivum fluidum' was coined
(4) Passive immune response by M.W. Beijerinek
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
81. The body cells in cockroach discharge their 90. A pleiotropic gene :
nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the (1) controls multiple traits in an individual
form of : (2) is expressed only in primitive plants
(1) Calcium carbonate (2) Ammonia (3) is a gene evolved during Pliocene
(3) Potassium urate (4) Urea (4) controls a trait only in combination with another
Ans. (3) gene
82. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of : Ans. (1)
(1) Synergids 91. Human urine is usually acidic because :
(2) Generative cell (1) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the
(3) Nucellar embryo filtrate.
(4) Aleurone cell (2) the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen
Ans. (1) ion for each sodium ion, in peritubular
83. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric capillaries.
concentration of : (3) excreted plasma proteins are acidic
(1) O3 and dust (2) SO2 and NO2 (4) potassium and sodium exchange generates
(3) SO3 and CO (4) CO2 and CO acidity
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)
84. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, 92. Auxin can be bioassayed by :
shield-shaped cotyledon known as : (1) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation
(1) Coleoptile (2) Epiblast (2) Avena coleoptile curvature
(3) Coleorrhiza (4) Scutellum (3) Hydroponics
Ans. (4) (4) Potometer
85. Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, Ans. (2)
cucumber, onion and tulip, how many plants have 93. Which of the following events is not associated with
superior ovary? ovulation in human female?
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three (1) LH surge (2) Decrease in estradiol
Ans. (3) (3) Full development of Graafian follicle
86. Which of the following is not a function of the (4) Release of secondary oocyte
skeletal system? Ans. (2)
(1) Locomotion 94. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined
(2) Production of erythrocytes with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect
(3) Storage of minerals development are the characteristics of phylum :
(4) Production of body heat (1) Protozoa (2) Coelenterata
Ans. (4) (3) Porifera (4) Mollusca
Ans. (3)

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95. Which one of the following hormones is not involved 104. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did
in sugar metabolism ? not use :
(1) Glucagon (2) Cortisone (1) Flower position (2) Seed colour
(3) Aldosterone (4) Insulin (3) Pod length (4) Seed shape
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
96. Which of the following diseases is caused by a 105. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic?
protozoan ? (1) Banana (2) Brinjal
(1) Blastomycosis (2) Syphilis (3) Apple (4) Jackfruit
(3) Influenza (4) Babesiosis Ans. (1)
Ans. (4) 106. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and
97. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal megasporogenesis :
husbandry because it : (1) occur in ovule
(1) exposes harmful recessive genes that are (2) occur in anther
eliminated by selection (3) form gametes without furthers divisions
(2) helps in accumulation of superior genes. (4) involve meiosis
(3) is useful in producing purelines of animals. Ans. (4)
(4) is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression 107. A gene showing codominance has :
Ans. (4) (1) both alleles independently expressed in the
98. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child heterozygote
through a technique called GIFT. The full form of (2) one allele dominant on the other
this technique is : (3) alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
(1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer (4) alleles that are recessive to each other
(2) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer Ans. (1)
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer 108. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed
(4) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer by the polymerisation of :
Ans. (3) (1) lipoglycans
99. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and (2) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis (3) D-glucosamine
return to the ocean is : (4) N-acetyl glucosamine
(1) Petromyzon Ans. (4)
(2) Eptatretus 109. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter
(3) Myxine and help in mineral cycling belong to :
(4) Neomyxine (1) Ascomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
Ans. (1) (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Phycomycetes
100. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to Ans. (2)
rocks and/or host tissues are : 110. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect
(1) Holdfast (2) Rhizoids are :
(3) Fimbriae (4) Mesosomes (1) homologous structures and represent convergent
Ans. (3) evolution
101. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a (2) homologous structures and represent divergent
person, to which of the following would you look for evolution
confirmatory evidence? (3) analogous structures and represent convergent
(1) Serum globulins evolution
(2) Fibrinogin in plasma (4) phylogenetic structures and represent divergent
(3) Serum albumins evolution
(4) Haemocytes Ans. (3)
Ans. (1) 111. Flowers are unisexual in :
102. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until? (1) Onion (2) Pea
(1) birth (2) puberty (3) Cucumber (4) China rose
(3) fertilization (4) uterine implantation Ans. (3)
Ans. (3) 112. Increase in concentration of the toxicant at
103. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is successive trophic levels is known as :
acellular ? (1) Biogeochemical cycling
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Granulosa (2) Biomagnification
(3) Theca interna (4) Stroma (3) Biodeterioration
Ans. (1) (4) Biotransformation
Ans. (2)

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113. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal 119. Which of the following joints would allow no
cord would result in loss of :- movement ?
(1) Integrating impulses (1) Ball and Socket joint
(2) Sensory impulses (2) Fibrous joint
(3) voluntary motor impulses (3) Cartilaginous joint
(4) Commissural impulses (4) Synovial joint
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
114. Roots play insignificant role in absorption of water 120. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?
in : (1) Chargaff's rule
(1) Wheat (2) Sunflower (3) Pistia (4) Pea (2) Complementary base pairing
Ans. (3) (3) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends
115. Match the columns and identify the correct option: (4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
Column-I Column-II Ans. (1)
(a) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in 121. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound;
Golgi apparatus produced during each cardiac cycle. The second
(b) Cristae (ii) Condensed sound is heard when :
structure of DNA (1) AV node receives signal from SA node
(c) Cisternae (iii)Flat membranous (2) AV valves open up
sacs in stroma (3) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing of blood
(d) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in from atria
mitochondria (4) Semilunar valves close down after the blood
(a) (b) (c) (d) flows into vessels from ventricles
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) Ans. (4)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 122. During ecological succession :
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) the changes lead to a community that is in near
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) equilibrium with the environment and is called
Ans. (3) pioneer community
116. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic (2) the gradual and predictable change in species
material from largest to smallest : composition occurs in a given area
(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene (3) the establishment of a new biotic community is
(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide very fast in its primary phase
(3) Genome, chromosomes, nucleotide, gene (4) the number and types of animals remain
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide constant
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)
117. Which one of the following hormones though 123. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols
synthesised elsewhere, is stored and released by the represent the affected individuals. Identify the type
master gland ? of given pedigree.
(1) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(2) Antidiuretic hormone
(3) Luteinizing hormone
(4) Prolactin
Ans. (2)
118. Read the different components from (a) to (d) in the
list given below and tell the correct order of the
components with reference to their arrangement
from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stem: (1) X-linked dominant
(a) Secondary cortex (2) Autosomal dominant
(b) Wood (3) X-linked recessive
(c) Secondary phloem (4) Autosomal recessive
(d) Phellem Ans. (4)
The correct order is : 124. Balbiani rings are sites of :
(1) (d), (c), (a), (b) (1) RNA and protein synthesis
(2) (c), (d), (b), (a) (2) Lipid synthesis
(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) (3) Nucleotide synthesis
(4) (d), (a), (c), (b) (4) Polysaccharide synthesis
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)

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125. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar 134. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically matched?
reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls :
(1) Asthma (2) Pleurisy Mode of Example
(3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia reproduction
Ans. (3) (1) Conidia penicilium
126. Which the following are most suitable indicator of
(2) Offset Water hyacinth
SO2 pollution in the environment ?
(1) Fungi (2) Lichens (3) Rhizome Banana
(3) Conifers (4) Algae (4) Binary fission Sargassum
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)
127. Satellite DNA is important because it : 135. The UN conference of Parties on climate change
(1) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication in the year 2012 was held at :
(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle (1) Warsaw (2) Durban
(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in (3) Doha (4) Lima
population and also the same degree of Ans. (3)
polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable 136. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest
from parents to children wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest
(4) Does not code for proteins and is same in all wavelength in the Balmer series is :
members of the population (1) 5/27 (2) 4/9
Ans. (3) (3) 9/4 (4) 27/5
128. Industrial melanism is an example of : Ans. (1)
(1) Neo Lamarckism (2) Neo Darwinism
Sol. For Lyman series
(3) Natural selection (4) Mutation
(1/λms) = R (1)2 [1/(1)2 – 1/(2)2]
Ans. (3)
(λmax)L = 4/3R
129. A column of water within xylem vessels of tall trees
For Balmar series
does not break under its weight because of :
(1/λmax)B = R(1)2 [1/(2)2 – 1/(3)2]
(1) Positive root pressure
(λmax)t / (λmax)B = 4/3R X 5R/3R = 5/27
(2) Dissolved sugars in water
137. The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15 keV.
(3) Tensile strength of water
To which part of the spectrum does it belong?
(4) Lignification of xylem vessels
(1) g-rays (2) X-rays
Ans. (3)
(3) Infra-red rays (4) Ultraviolet rays
130. The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves :
Ans. (2)
(1) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
Sol. Wavelengh of the ray
(2) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium
λ = hc/E
tumefaciens
= 0.826 Å
(3) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking
since λ < 100 Å
the plants
so it is X ray
(4) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
138. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as
Ans. (2)
shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of
131. Pick up the wrong statement :
electron. What will be the direction of current, if any,
(1) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera
induced in the coil ?
(2) Cell wall is absent in Animalia
(3) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic
modes of nutrition
(4) Some fungi are edible
Ans. (1)
132. In photosynthesis, the light-independent reactions
take place at :
(1) Stromal matrix (2) Thylakoid lumen (1) No current induced (2) abcd
(3) Photosystem – I (4) Photosystem-II (3) adcd
Ans. (1) (4) The current will reverse its direction as the
133. Which of the following immunoglobulins does electron goes past the coil
constitute the largest percentage in human milk? Ans. (4)
(1) IgG (2) IgD Sol. First current develops in direction of abcd but when
(3) IgM (4) IgA electron moves away, then magnetic field inside loop
Ans. (4) decreases & current changes its direction.

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Ajmer Daswani Classes
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Re – AIPMT 2015
s
139. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, 143. If vectors A = cosωt ˆ
i + sinωt ĵ and B = cos ωt/2 ˆi
one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r.
If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed + sinωt/2 ĵ are functions of time , then the value of t at
of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is : which they are orthogonal to each other is :
(1) V2R/nr (b) VR2/n2r2 (1) t=0 (2) t = π/4ω
2 2
(3) VR /nr (d) VR2 /n3r-2 (3) t= π/2ω (4) t=π/ω
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
Sol. r r
Sol. A.B =0
cos ωt cos ωt/2 + sin ωt/2 = 0
cos (ωt - ωt/2) =0 ⇒ cos ωt/2 =0
⇒ωt/2 = π/2 ⇒ t = π/ω
144. A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz
and an observer O are located at some distance from
each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4
ms.1 at an angle of 60° with the source observer line as
shown in the figure. The observer is at rest. The
140. The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. apparent frequency observed by the observer (velocity
Two wires of same lenght and of same area of cross of sound in air 330 ms.1) is :-
section, one of steel and another of brass are
suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower
ends of the wires to be at the same level, then the
weights added to the steel and brass wires must be
in the ratio of :
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
Ans. (3) (1) 97 Hz (2) 100 Hz
Fl Fl (3) 103 Hz (4) 106 Hz
Sol. Y=F ⇒ ∆l =
A∆l AY Ans. (3)
(∆ l )steel = (∆ l )Brans  
 v   330 
⇒ Ws l /AYs = WB l / AYB Sol. F0 = fs   = 100  ≈ 103 Hz
⇒ Ws/ WB = Ys/YB =2  v − vs  
 330 −
19 .4 

141. A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance  2 
r are connected in series with a battery of e.m.f. E0
145. An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54
and a resistance r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced
kmh.1. The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and the
at a length l of the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f.
moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis of rotation
E will be given by :
is 3 kgm2. If the vehicle is brought to rest in 15s, the
(1) LE0r/(r+r1) l (2) LE0r/ l r2 magnitude of average torque transmitted by its brakes to
(3) E0r/(r+r1) . l /L (4) E0 l /L wheel is :-
Ans. (3) (1) 2.86 kg ms2s-2
ir E0 r (2) 6.66 kg ms2s-2
Sol. Potential gradient x= = (3) 8.58 kg ms2s-2
L ( r1 + r ) L
(4) 10.86 kg ms2s-2
∴ e.m.f. E = x l = E0r/(r+r1) . r/L Ans. (2)
142. A particle is executive a simple harmonic motion. Its Sol. Velocity of the automobile
maximum acceleration is α and maximum velocity is β 5
Then, its time period of vibration will be:- v= 54 X = 15m / s
(1) 2πβ/α (2) β2/α2 18
(3) α/β (4) β2/α ω0 = v/R = 15/0.45 = 100/3 rad/s2
So angular acceleration
Ans. (1) α = ∆ω/t = ωt - ω0 /t = - 100/45 rad/s2
Sol. For S.H.M
Maximum acceleration = ω2A = α so Torque = = Iα= 3 X 100/45 = 6.66 kg-m2s-2
Maximum velocity ωA = B
⇒ ω =α/β ⇒ T = 2π/ω=2πB/α

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146. A rectangular coil of length 0.12m and width 0.1m Sol. According to ideal gas equation
having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a
uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 Weber/m2. ρRT ρRT
The coil carries a current of 2 A. If the plane of the P= ⇒M =
coil is inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction
M P
of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in M A ρ A TA PB 1
so = . . = (1.5)(1) 
stable equilibrium will be : MB ρ B TB PA 2
(1) 0.12 Nm (2) 0.15 Nm
(3) 0.20 Nm (4) 0.24 Nm M 3
⇒ A =
Ans (3) MB 4
149. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around
the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small
compared to the mass of the earth. Then,
(1) the acceleration of S is always directed towards
the centre of the earth.
(2) the angular momentum of S about the centre
of the earth changes in direction, but its
Sol. magnitude remains constant.
(3) the total mechanical energy of S varies
periodically with time.
(4) the linear momentum of S remains constant in
magnitude.
Ans. (1)
147. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity 'C' 150. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an
distance of separation between plates is 'd' and external resistance R =100 Ω and an e.m.f of 3.5V.
potential difference 'V' is applied between the plates If the barrier potential developed across the diode
force of attraction between the plates of the parallel is 0.5 V, the current in the circuit will be :
plate air capacitor is :
C 2V 2 C 2V 2
(1) (2)
2d 3 2d
CV 2 CV 2
(3) (4)
2d d

Ans. (3)
(1) 35 mA (2) 30 mA
Sol. (3) 40 mA (4) 20 mA
Ans. (2)
Sol. Potential difference on R = 3.5 -0.5 = 3.0 volt
Current in circuit I = V/R = 3/100 = 30 mA
151. A remote sensing satellite of earth revolves in a circular
orbit at a height of 0.25 X 106 m above the surface of
earth . If earth . If earth's radius is 6.38 X 106 m and g =
9.8 ms-2 , then the orbital speed of the satellite is :
(1) 6.67 km s-1 (2) 7.76 km s-1
(3) 8.56 kms-1 (4) 9.13 km s-1
Ans. (3)
148. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A Sol. For the satellite revolving around earth
and B at the same temperature, the pressure of A GM e GM e gRe
being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the v0 = = =
density of A is found to be 1.5 times the density of ( Re th )  h  1 + Rhe
Re  a + 
B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is : Re 

(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3
(3) 3/4 (4) 2 Substituting the value
Ans. (3) 6
v0 = 60 X 10 m / s
v0= 7.76 X 103 m/s = 7.76 km/s

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r
152. The position vector of a particle R as a function of time
is given by
r
R = 4 sin ( 2πt) ˆ
i +4cos (2πt) ĵ
ˆi ĵ
Where R is in meters , t is in seconds and and
denotes unit vectors along x and y – directions
respectively. which one of the following statements is
wrong for the motion of particle ? m2 L m1 L
(1) x = (2) x =
(1) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter m1 + m2 m1 + m2
r
(2) Acceleration vectors is along - R m m
r (3) x = 1 L (4) x = 2 L
R Magnetude of acceleration vector is v2/R Where v m2 m1
(3)
Ans. (1)
is the velocity of particle
(4) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter /
second
Ans. (4)
Sol.
Sol.
The position of point P on rod through which the axis
should pass so that the work required to set the rod
rotating with minimum angular velocity w0 is their centre
of mass
so M1x = m2(L-x) ⇒ x = m2L / m1+m2
155. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of
153. A string is stretched between fixed points separated
a single slit diffraction pattern the phase difference
by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant between the Huygen's wavelet from the edge of the slit
frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no and the wavelet from mid point of the slit is :-
other resonant frequencies between these two. The (1) π/8 radian (2) π/4 radian
lowest resonant frequencies for this string is : (3) π/2 radian (4) π radian
(1) 105 Hz (2) 155 Hz Ans. (4)
(3) 205 Hz (4) 10.5 Hz Sol.
Ans. (1)
Sol. Two consecutive resonant frequencies for a string
fixed at both ends will be
nv ( n + 1)v
and
2l 2l
( n + 1)v nv
⇒ − = 420 − 315
2l 2l
v
= 105 Hz
2l
Which is the minimum resonant frequency
154. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite
ends of a rigid rod of length L, and negligible mass.
The rod is to be set rotating about an axis
perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this
rod through which the axis should pass so that the
work required to set the rod rotating with angular
velocity w0 is minimum, is given by :-

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Ajmer Daswani Classes Re – AIPMT 2015
r r
156. A force F = αˆ i + 3 ˆj + 6kˆ is acting at a point r = Ans. (2)
Sol.
2ˆi + 6 ˆj + 12kˆ . The value of α for which angular
momentum about origin is conserved is:-
(1) 1 (2) -1
(3) 2 (4) zero
Ans. (2)
Sol. For conservation of angular momentum about origin
160 Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal
r with work function 2.28 eV. The de Broglie wavelength
157. Two particle A and B , move with constant velocity v1
r of the emitted electron is :-
and v 2 .At the initial movement their position vector are (1) ≤ 2.8 × 10.12m (2) < 2.8 × 10.10m
r r
r1 and r2 respectively The condition for particle A and (3) < 2.8 × 10.9 m (4) ≥ 2.8 × 10.9 m
B for their collision is :- Ans. (4)
r r r r Sol. Energy of photon (E)= 12400 / 5000 = 2.48 eV
(1) r1 - r2 = v1 - v 2
r r r r Work function ( φ0) =2.28 eV
r1 − r2 v1 − v2 According to elenstein equation
(2) r r = r r
| r1 − r2 | | v1 − v2 | E = φ0 + (K.E.) max
r r r r ⇒ 2.48 = 2.28 + (K.E.) max
(3) r1 . v1 = r2 . v 2
r r r r ⇒ (K.E.) max = 0.20 eV
(4) r1 x v1 = r2 x v 2
For electron λ = h/ 2mE ⇒λ ≈ 28 Å
Ans. (2)
Sol. For two particle of collide , the direction of the relative So λ ≥ 2.8 X 10-9 m
velocity of one with respect to other should be directed 161. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific
towards the relative position of the other particle heat capacity of the gas at constant volume is 5.0 JK-
r r 1
mol-1 . If the speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952
r1 − r2
i.e. r r → direction of relative position of 1 w.r.t. ms.1, then the heat capacity at constant pressure is (Take
| r1 − r2 | gas constant R = 8.3 JK.1 mol.1)
2. (1) 8.5 JK-1mol-1 (2) 8.0 JK-1mol-1
r r -1
(3) 7.5 JK mol -1
(4) 7.0 JK-1mol-1
v2 − v1
& r r → direction of velocity 2 w.r.t. 1 Ans. (2)
| v2 − v1 | Sol. Molecular mass M = 4.0 g
so for collision of A & B
r r r r λRT Mv 2
r1 − r2 v1 − v2 Vsound = ⇒λ = = 1.6
r r = r r M RT
| r1 − r2 | | v1 − v2 |
So, Cp = γCv = 1.6 × 5.0 = 8.0 J K mol-1 -1

158. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of

162. A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage
thorium and helium. Then :-
(1) The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than source. Consider two situations :-
the thorium nucleus (a) When capacitor is air filled.
(2) The helium has more kinetic energy than the (b) When capacitor is mica filled.
thorium nucleus. Current through resistor is i and voltage across
(3) The helium nucleus has less momentum than the capacitor is V then :-
thorium nucleus. (1) Va = Vb (2) Va < Vb
(4) The helium nucleus has more momentum than (3) Va > Vb (4) ia > ib
the thorium nucleus. Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) Sol. When capacitor is filled with mica then capacitance
Sol. By COLM
C increases so XC decreases
Pf = P1 =0
⇒ PHe – PTh =0 ⇒PHe = PTh In case (b) XC ↓ so voltage across capacitor
but K ∝ 1/m and mHe < mTh so KHe > KTh decreases. so Va > Vb
159. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected 163. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised
in series . If σ1 and σ2 are the conductivity of the metal about the other end. As the angle of inclination with the
wires respectively. the effective conductivity of the horizontal reaches 30°, the box starts to slip and slides
combination is 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0s. The coefficients of static
(1) σ1σ2 / σ1+σ2 (2) 2σ1σ2/σ1+σ2
and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will
(3) σ1 + σ2/ 2σ1σ2 (3) σ1+σ2 / σ1σ2
be, respectively :
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Ajmer Daswani Classes Re – AIPMT 2015
Work done on the gas
Wisochoric =0
and W adiabatic > Wisothermal > Wisobaric
167. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of
20 m with an initial velocity υ0. It collides with the
ground, loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and
(1) 0.4 and 0.3 (2) 0.6 and 0.6 rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity υ 0 is :
(3) 0.6 and 0.5 (4) 0.5 and 0.6 (Take g = 10 ms-2)
Ans. (3) (1) 10 ms.1 (2) 14 ms.1
Sol. Coefficient of static friction, (3) 20 ms.1 (4) 28 ms.1
Ans. (3)
Sol. Let ball rebounds with speed V so
v= 2 gh = 2 X 10 X 20 = 20m / s
Energy just after rebeound
E = ½ x m x v2 = 200 m
50% energy loses in collision means just before collision
energy 400 m
By using energy conservation
½ mv02 + mgh = 400 m
164. Two stones of masses m and 2 m are whirled in ⇒ ½ mv02 + m x 10 x 20 = 400 m ⇒ v0 = 20 m/s
horizontal circles, the heavier one in a radius r/2 and 168. On a frictionless surface, a block of mass. M moving
the lighter one in radius r. The tangential speed of lighter at speed v collides elastically with another block of same
stone is n times that of the value of heavier stone when mass M which is initially at rest. After collision the first
they experience same centripetal forces. The value of n block moves at an angle θ to its initial direction and has
is a speed v/3. The second block's speed after the collision
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 is
Ans. (2) (1) 3 /2 υ (2) 2 2 /3 υ
Sol. (FC)heavier = (FC)lighter
⇒ 2mV2/(r/2) = m(mV2) /r ⇒ n2 = 4 ⇒ n = 2 (3) 3/4 υ (4) 3/ 2 υ
165. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is Ans. (2)
5. If the temperature inside freezer is -20°C, the Sol. In elastic collision energy of system remains same so.
temperature of the surroundings to which it rejects (K.E. )before collision =(K.E.)after collision
heat is : 169. If potential ( in volts) in a region is expressed as V (x,y,z)
(1) 21°C (2) 31°C = 6xy – y + 2yz , the electric field ( in N/C) at point
(3) 41°C (4) 11°C ( 1,1,0) is :
Ans. (2) i + 9 ˆj +
(1) –(6 ˆ kˆ ) i + 5 ˆj + 3kˆ )
(2) –(3 ˆ
Sol. Coefficient of performance of refrigerator
COP = TL / TH - TL i + 5 ˆj + 2kˆ )
(3) –(6 ˆ i + 3 ˆj +
(4) –(2 ˆ kˆ )
Where TL → lower Temperature Ans. (3)
TH → Higher Temperature r − ∂V ∂V ∂V
So. 5= TL / TH – TL E= ˆi ˆj kˆ
Sol. ∂x ∂y ∂z
⇒ TH = 6/5 TL = 6/5 (253) = 303.6K r
166. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by E = −(6 y )ˆi − (6 x − 1 + 2 z ) ˆj − ( 2 y )kˆ
means of several processes. Which of the process results at point (1,1,0)
in the maximum work done on the gas ? r
(1) Isothermal (2) Adiabatic E = −6ˆi − 5 ˆj − 2kˆ = −(6ˆi + 5 ˆj + 2kˆ )
(3) Isobaric (4) Isochoric at point (1,1,0)
r
Ans. (2) E = −6ˆi − 5 ˆj − 2kˆ = −(6ˆi + 5 ˆj + 2kˆ)
Sol.
170. Two slits in Young's experiment have width in the ratio 1
: 25 . The ratio of intensity at the maxima and minima in
the interference pattern , Imax / Imin is .
(1) 4/9 (2) 9/4
(3) 121/49 (4) 49/121
Ans. (2)
Sol. I1/I2 = W1/W2 = 1/25 ⇒ I2/I1 = 25/1

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Ajmer Daswani Classes Re – AIPMT 2015
2 174. In dimension of critical velocity νc, of liquid following
 I2 
 + 1 through a tube are expressed as (ηx ρy rz), where η, ρ

Imax/Imin =
( I 2 + I1 )
2
 I
= 1
 and r are the coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density of

( I 2 − I1 )
2 
 I2 − 1
liquid and radius of the tube respectively, then the
values of x, y and z are given by :
 I  (1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 1, .1, .1
 1 
(3) .1, .1, 1 (4) .1, .1, .1
 5 + 1
2 2
6 9 Ans. (2)
=  =  = νc ∝ [ηx ρy rz]
 5 −1 4 4 Sol.
171. The heart of a man pumps 5 litres of blood through [L1 T-1 ] ∝ [M-1 L-1T-1]x [M1L-3]y [L1]2
the arteries per minute at a pressure of 150 mm of [L1T-1 ]∝ [Mx+y] [L-x -3y-z ] [T-x]
mercury. If the density of mercury be 13.6 × 103 kg/m3 taking comparison on both size
and g = 10m/s2 then the power of heart in watt is: x + y = 0 , -x -3y +z =1 , -x =-1
(1) 1.50 (2) 1.70 (3) 2.35 (4) 3.0 ⇒ x =1 , y = -1 , z = -1
Ans. (2) 175. A circuit contains an ammeter , a battery of 30 V and a
Sol. Pressure = 150 mm Hg resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in series in the
Pumping rate = dV/dt = 5X 10-3 / 60 m3/s ammeter has a coil of résistance 480 ohm and a shunt of
Power of Heart = P. dV / dt = ρgh X dV /dt 20 ohm, the reading in the ammeter will be :-
=(13.6 X 103 kg / m3 ) (10) X (0.15) X 5 X 10-3/60 (1) 1 A (2) 0.5 A
= 13.6 X 5X 0.15 / 6 = 1.70 watt (3) 0.25 A (4) 2A
172. A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of Ans. (2)
uniform magnetic field, B, moving at right angles to the Sol.
field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both the
particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by
proton is 1 MeV, the energy acquired by the alpha
particle will be :-
(1) 1 MeV (2) 4 MeV
(3) 0.5 MeV (4) 1.5 MeV
Ans. (1)
mv 2mK
Sol. R= =
qB qB
480 X 20
4m k 4m p k p Reff = 40.8 + = 40.8 + 19.2 = 60 Ω
Q Rα = RP ∴ 2 α 2s = 2 2 480 + 20
qα B qpB 1 = Veff / Reff = 0.5 A
4m p k a m p (1MeV ) 176. Water rises to height 'h' in capillary tube. If the length
⇒ 2
= ⇒ k a = 1MeV of capillary tube above the surface of water is made
4e e2 less than 'h', then -
173. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage (1) water does not rise at all.
gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos ( 15t + π/3) . The (2) water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then
corresponding output signal will be – starts overflowing like a fountain.
(1) 300 cos (15 t + 4π/3) (3) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and
(2) 300 cos (15t + π/3) stays there without overflowing.
(3) 75 cos (15 t + 2 π/3) (4) water rises upto a point a little below the top
(4) 2 cos (15 t + 5 π/3) and stays there.
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)
Sol. Input signal vin = 2 cos ( 15t + π/3) 177. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment
Voltage Gain = 150 a straight black line of length L is drawn on inside part of
CE amplifier gives phase difference of π between objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this
Input and out put signal line. The length of this image is I. The magnification of
Av = V0 / Vin So V0 AV Vin the telescope is :
So V0 = 150 X 2 cos (15 t +π/3 +π) (1) L/I (2) L/I + 1
V0 = 300 cos (15t + 4π/3) (3) L / I -1 (4) L + 1 / L – 1
Ans. (1)

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Ajmer Daswani Classes Re – AIPMT 2015
Sol.  hc 
⇒ 2hc/λ - φ = 3  −φ
λ 
⇒ 2φ = hc/λ
⇒ φ = hc /2λ
180. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours
is incident on a right angled prism. The refractive index
of the material of the prism for the above red, green and
blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47, respectively.

the prism will :-

(1) Separate the red colour part from the green and
blue colour
(2) Separate the blue colour part from the red and
green colour
(3) separate all the three colour from one another
178. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of (4) not separate the three colours at all
glycerin is 5 × 10.4 K1 The fractional change in the Ans. (1)
density of glycerin for a rise of 40°C in its temperature, is 1 1
:-
µ= = = 2 = 1.414
Sol. sin ic sin 450
(1) 0.010
(2) 0.015 Q ( µ red = 1.39) < µ, µ v , > µ; µ g > µ
(3) 0.020 only red colour do not suffer total internal reflection
(4) 0.025
Ans. (3)
di
Sol. df =
(1 + γ∆T )
fractional change
= di – df / di = 1 – df/di
= 1 – (1+ γ∆T)-1 =1-(1-x∆T)
Q(1+x)n ≈ 1 + nx
= γ∆T
= 5 X 10-4 X 40
= 0.020
179. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by
monochromatic light of wavelength γ and γ/2 . If the
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the
work function of the surface of the material is :
( h = Plank's constant , c = speed of light )
(1) hc/3λ (2) hc /2λ
(3) hc /λ (4) 2hc/λ
Ans. (2)
Sol. KE1 = hc/λ - φ
hc
KE2 = - φ = 2hc/λ - φ
λ/2
KE2 = 3KE1

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