DAVAO MEDICAL SCHOOL FOUNDATION

College of Medicine

PREVENTIVE MEDICINE

Multiple Choice: Encircle the correct answer.

1. The main thrust in the control of diarrhea cases by the Department of Health is:
A. Environmental Sanitation
B. Oral Rehydration Therapy with ORESOL
C. Public education
D. Immunization

2. Which of the following child survival strategies complement Oral Rehydration by decreasing
the incidence and severity of diarrheal infection?
A. Growth Monitoring
B. Immunization
C. Breastfeeding
D. Mother’s education on child care

3. The probability that a positive result is truly indicative of the disease or condition is:
A. None of these
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. positive

4. Public health services must give emphasis on:

A. Prevention, promotion and maintenance of health
B. Treatment of diseases
C. Rehabilitation of the differently abled individuals
D. Provision of emergency and first aid services

5. In public health, the most frequent problem is scarcity of resources. This can be best met by:
A. Transfer of funds
B. Compete for national funds
C. Allocate resources according to needs
D. Increase human resources training

6. In primary prevention the emphasis of health education should be on:

A. Recognition of health habits and customs
B. Case finding
C. Rehabilitation
D. Early diagnosis

7. The level of prevention directed towards preventing progression of the disease in community
is:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Primordial prevention

8. The best route to block to prevent disease transmission is:

A. Portal of exit
B. Portal of entry
C. Migration in the body host
D. Vector control

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9. Control measure/s directed against the vector:
A. Biological control
B. Mechanical control
C. Chemical control
D. All of the above

10. Some of the advantages of cohort:

A. Establish timing and directionality of events
B. Ideal to study rare exposure
C. Ability to evaluate several clinical outcomes
D. Ease in identifying comparison subjects

11. The DOH has ordered closure/cessation of all commercial blood banking facilities. Blood
requirements of patients can be had by:
A. Blood substitutes
B. Voluntary blood donation
C. Component blood production
D. Hospital blood banks

12. In public health, the rate that is used measure illness is known as:
A. Morbidity rate
B. Natality rate
C. Mortality rate
D. Infectivity

13. The rate that reflects socio-economic condition of the community is:
A. Fertility rate
B. Infant mortality
C. Maternal mortality rate
D. A and B

14. Effective preventive medicine means stopping the morbid process when the:
A. Disease is progressing
B. Signs and symptoms are manifest
C. Patient is convalescing
D. Disease has not yet set in

15. The primary level of prevention includes:

A. Early case finding
B. Immunization
C. Disability limitation
D. Rehabilitation

16. The first level of preventions is most applicable:

A. Before host and agent interaction occur
B. During the initial interaction between the agent, the host and environment
C. During the convalescent stage of the disease
D. Al of the above

17. Which is the correct statement about Maternal Mortality

A. Higher among the very old and the very young
B. Higher among the primis than secundis
C. Higher among the secundis than the multipara
D. Lower in rural areas

18. Settling tank is a type of:

A. Preliminary treatment of water
B. Primary treatment of water
C. Tertiary treatment of water
D. Secondary treatment of water

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19. Water is contaminated with fecal material when the test shows the presence of:
A. Planktons
B. Algae
C. Virus
D. Eschirichia coli

20. It is the most important single test to determine safety of water:

A. Bacteriological exam
B. Physical exam
C. Chemical e exam
D. Biological exam

21. The correct sequence in the process of water purification:

A. Coagulation, sedimentation, filtration distribution
B. Coagulation, sedimentation, filtration, disinfection
C. Sedimentation, coagulation, filtration distribution
D. Filtration, sedimentation, flocculation, disinfection

22. The principal carcinogens related to smoking:

A. Hydrocarbons
B. Nicotine
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Tar

23. Proportion of clinical cases resulting in severe clinical manifestations:

A. Pathogenecity
B. Virulence
C. Immunogenecity
D. Infectivity

24. Ability to produce clinically apparent illness:

A. Pathogenecity
B. Virulence
C. Immunogenecity
D. Infectivity

25. The most useful indicator of long-term nutritional deficiency:

A. Height for age
B. Middle-upper arm circumference
C. Weight for height
D. Weight for age

26. The most useful index for energy nutrient malnutrition in field Dudies relies on:
A. Questionnaire on dietary recall
B. Clinical signs of abnormal bed function
C. Anthropometrics measurement
D. Biochemical test

27. Laws and regulations on food sanitation are implemented to protect the public against fraud
and deceit. Some of the restraints are the following EXCEPT:
A. Misbranding
B. Sale of damaged food
C. Food adulteration
D. Adequate food storage

28. The Code of Sanitation of the Philippines is referred to as:

A. PD 1519
B. RA 3573
C. PD 965
D. PD 856

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29. The distance of the burial ground from the source of water should be:
A. 100 meters
B. 75 meters
C. 30 feet
D. 10 feet

30. The period between the receipt of infection by a host and maximal communicability:
A. Herd immunity
B. Generation time
C. Lead time bias
D. Latency

31. STI has increased in an institute for the last 4 weeks. As public health officer, you should
advice:
A. Better sanitation
B. Vaccination
C. Surveillance
D. Chemoprophylaxis

32. A 24 year old male presents with a 4-day history of burning sensation on urination. He also
developed profuse creamy urethral discharge. What would most likely be seen on the gram
stain?
A. Numerous WBCs with intracellular gram-negative diplococci
B. Numerous WBCs with intracellular gram-positive diplococci
C. Numerous WBCs
D. Numerous WBCs with no bacteria

33. Resistance of a group to invasion and spread of an infectious agent, based on the immunity of
a high proportion of individual members of the group:
A. Protective factors
B. Active immunization
C. Passive Immunization
D. Herd immunity

34. In view of the cardiovascular disease, the principal strategy for their control should be:
A. Health education
B. Environmental control
C. Early diagnosis and treatment
D. Intensive therapy of cases

35. The minimum distance of a pit privy from a well in sandy soil is:
A. 10 meters
B. 15 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 25 meters

36. An essential health services that is available, accessible, affordable and culturally
acceptable by the community:
A. Social Care
B. Preventive medicine
C. Medical care
D. Primary health care

37. The essential elements of primary health care:

A. Health education
B. Maternal and child birth
C. Control communicable diseases
D All of these.

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38. Separation for the period of communicability
A. Quarantine
B. Isolation
C. Segregation
D. Personal surveillance

39. Which of the following has the greatest impact on community health?
A. Improvement of the standard of living
B. Provision of broad preventive medical measures
C. Provision of specific preventive measures
D. Provision of hospital care

40. The following activities and program supportive of CARI:

A. Nutrition
B. Anti-smoking and anti-pollution
C. Measles immunization
D. All of the above

41. Maternal and Child Health is concern with the health and well being of:
A. Child bearing women
B. Children
C. Potential parents
D. All of the above

42. Limitation of freedom of movement of such well persons

A. Quarantine
B. Isolation
C. Segregation
D. Personal surveillance

43. Requisites for successful parasitism include the following, EXCEPT:

A. Agent
B. Susceptible host
C. Proper climate
D. Satisfactory reservoir

44. The following are forms of quarantine EXCEPT:

A. Segregation
B. Modified quarantine
C. Segregation
D. No exceptions

45. The ultimate goal of malaria control eradication is:

A. Complete eradication of the plasmodium parasite
B. Total eradication of the mosquito vector
C. Treatment of all known cases
D. Vigilance against re-introduction

46. Immune globulin is given as preventive measure for many infectious diseases when:
A. Symptoms of the disease first appear
B. Exposure to a frank case has occurred
C. Recovery is taking place
D. Routine immunization is being instituted as well in baby clinics

47. In the Expanded Program of Immunization, BCG is given to:

A. Whenever the health of the child permits
B. Grade I children
C. Newborns
D. children 3-14 months of age

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48. The recommended WHO schedule for measles vaccination is at weeks:
A. 6 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 3 months
D. 9 months

49. The most important initial management of rabies is:

A. Use of anti-biotic
B. Use of human diploid-cell
C. Irrigate saliva-containing bite wound
D. Catch and kill the dog

50. A 30 year old housemaid complains of progressive abdominal swelling, vague abdominal
pain, low fever and weight loss. On PE the abdomen is distended with a positive shifting
dullness, aspiration reveals xanthochromic fluid with a gm/m PROTEIN (blood protein is 5).
This suggests:
A. Liver malignancy
B. TB peritonitis
C. Liver cirrhosis
D. Schistosomiasis

51. The following are different characteristics of hepatitis B from hepatitis A. EXCEPT:
A. Longer incubation period
B. Route of entry is mainly parental
C. Onset is more gradual
D. Occurs more in the younger age group

52. The planning of health education activity starts with:

A. Social preparation
B. Hypothesis formulation
C. Needs analysis
D. Budget setting

53. The primary objective of health education is to:

A. Transfer technology to lay personnel
B. Promote health in general
C. Impart knowledge
D. Improve health practices

54. The following is NOT included in the EPI Program of DOH:

A. Chickenpox
B. Measles
C. Diphtheria
D. Pertussis

55. The priority or target group in the anti-TB Program is:

A. Sputum negative but with suggestive of TB
B. Sputum negative cases but with possible x-ray findings
C. Sputum positive cases
D. Sputum negative but with clinical findings suggestive of TB

56. In TB symptomatic patient, how many sputum smears are recommended to establish
diagnosis of TB?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
D. One

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57. The DOH program “tutok gamutan” refers to:
A. Anti-tetanus vaccination
B. Polio vaccination
C. Micronutrient administration
D. Directly observed treatment strategy for TB

58. The following are forms to reduce susceptibility EXCEPT

A. Health promotion
B. Personal hygiene
C. Treatment
D. Prophylaxis

59. In measles, the period from exposure to appearance of rash is:

A. 3-6 days
B. 7-10 days
C. 12-14 days
D. 16-22 days

60. The vector of dengue fever is:

A. Aedes polcilus
B. Anpheles minimus
C. Aedes aegypti
D. Aedes seriation

61. Prevention of hepatitis can be achieved by:

A. Proper hygiene and sanitation
B. Needle and syringe sterilization
C. Screening of blood donors
D. Surveillance of all post-hepatitis
E. All of the above

62. Control has the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Cessation of transmission
B. Reduction of incidence
C. Prioritizes areas where transmission is high
D. Does not require total coverage of area

63. The first contact of the community to the health claim as defined by the PHC system is the:
A. Hospital personnel
B. Village health workers
C. Intermediate level health workers
D. Barangay captain

64. The following are true for volunteer community health workers, EXCEPT:
A. Establish linkage between government and non-government organizations
B. Are residents of the community
C. Provide only curative care
D. All of the above

65. The prime yardstick of child health level in the community is:
A. Infant and child mortality rate
B. Number of live births
C. Number of pre-school children
D. Number of health centers

66. Due to occurrence of flood and unsafe water supply, the most useful services that the local
health unit can offer is/are:
A. Environmental sanitation
B. Communicable disease control
C. Health education
D. All of the above
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67. In investigating an epidemic, cases should be categorized according to:
A. time, place and person
B. agent, host and environment
C. agent, host and date of onset
D. time, person and date of onset

68. At the beginning of the study, the participants are disease free individuals:
A. Cross-sectional
B. Cohort
C. Case-control using prevalent cases
D. Experimental study design

69. The strongest form of medical research study design is:

A. Clinical trial
B. Case report
C. Case-control study design
D. Cohort study design

70. One of the following is not an Analytical Study Design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study Design
B. Retrospective Cohort Study Design
C. Case Control Study Design
D. Population-Based Survey

71. Which of the following study designs may be prematurely terminated if interim
analysis are found conclusive:
A. Case-control study design
B. Randomized Controlled Trial
C. Retrospective Cohort Study Design
D. Cross-Sectional Study Design

72. Study design in which exposure to a factor is known to all the study participants:
A. Cross-sectional
B. Cohort
C. Case-control using prevalent cases
D. Experimental study design

73. A study design used to provide prevalence of disease or other health outcomes in certain
populations:
A. CASE report
B. Case series
C. Retrospective Cohort Study Design
D. Cross-sectional study design

74. One can be reasonably sure that the hypothesized cause preceded the occurrence of the
disease and that disease status did not differentially influence the selection of subjects by
study factor level.
A. Cross-sectional
B. Cohort
C. Case-control using prevalent cases
D. Experimental study design

75. The preferred measure to determine causal association:

A. Ratio
B. Difference
C. Prevalence
D. None of the above

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76. The measure that reflect the absolute number of cases attributable to the exposure:
A. Ratio
B. Difference
C. Prevalence
D. None of the above

77. The following decreases the prevalence of disease, except:

A. Out migration of susceptible cases
B. Improved immunization against the disease (if the disease is immunizable)
C. Treatment of the disease
D. None of the above

78. The following increases the prevalence of disease:

A. The disease has long duration but the incidence is low
B. The incidence is high but the duration of the disease is very short
C. The duration of the disease is long and the incidence is high
D. None of the above

79. This distribution is widely used because of its capacity to approximate other probabilities.
A. Binomial probability distribution
B. Poisson probability distribution
C. Normal probability distribution
D. None of the above

80. The group that we wish to study

A. Reference population
B. Target population
C. Study population
D. All of the above

81. Definition of mean

A. Summation of all values of sample points divided by the sample size
B. May have exactly the same sample points on both sides of the mean
C. A measure of central location
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

82. The difference between the highest observed value and the lowest observed value
A. Standard deviation
B. Mean
C. Range
D. Median
E. None of the above

83. The definition of variance

A. A measure of how the individual data points behave around the mean.
B. The square of a standard deviation
C. A measure of spread
D. Both b and c is correct
E. All of the above

84. This is an ordered display of each value in a data set together with its frequency, that is, the
number of times that value occurs in the data set.
A. Mean
B. Statistical table
C. Proportion
D. None of the above

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85. What graphic methods that can be used if a variable is characterized by a numerical attribute,
such as systolic blood pressure or birth weight?
A. Horizontal bar diagram
B. Pie chart
C. Histogram
D. Vertical bar diagram

86. The following statement/s are true of bar diagram

A. For comparison of frequencies, whether absolute or relative
B. The magnitude for comparison is represented as bars whose lengths are proportionate to
the values.
C. This is used of qualitative variables
D. All of the above

87. Which is true of the histogram

A. This is used for a qualitative variable
B. This is used for a quantitative discrete variable
C. This has the same use as the component bar
D. This is used for a quantitative continuous variable.
E. None of the above

88. The line diagram can be applied to this situation:

A. Qualitative variable
B. Time series
C. Discontinuous variable
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

89. Use/s of a scatterplot

A. Correlation data for two quantitative variable
B. Discontinuous variable
C. This is used for qualitative data
D. Both A and C are correct

90. What graphical presentation/s is/are best suited for distributions having a discrete basis of
classification?
A. Pie diagram
B. Horizontal bar diagram
C. Vertical bar diagram
D. Both B and C are correct

91. What is a frequency polygon?

A. Used for qualitative data
B. Used for discontinuous data
C. Used for trend data
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

92. Which of the following is/are true of the principles of tabulation.

A. The tables should be simple. Two or three tables is better than one table with many
variables
B. Each row and column should be labeled properly with specific units or measures for the
data
C. The title should answer the questions what? Where? And when?
D. Totals should be shown
E. All of the above

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93. The following descriptive statistics are very sensitive to extreme values.
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Standard deviation
D. Coefficient of variation
E. None of the above

94. The rationale of this measure is to ensure an equal number of sample points on both sides of
the central location.
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Coefficient of variation
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

95. The principal strength of the sample is that it is insensitive to very large or very small values
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Coefficient of variation
E. None of the above

96. For distribution of infants according to the number of illness episodes experienced during the
calendar year, this presentation is appropriate.
A. Histogram
B. Frequency polygon
C. Vertical bar diagram
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

97. What presentation/s is/are appropriate for the distribution of children enrolled in the feeding
program according to sex?
A. Frequency polygon
B. Pie chart
C. Vertical bar diagram
D. All of the above

98. The definition of variance

A. A measure of how the individual data points behave around the mean.
B. The square of a standard deviation
C. A measure of spread
D. All of the above

99. Large data sets are best describe using this/these:

A. Measure of spread
B. Measure of central tendency
C. Tabular presentation
D. Both a and b
E. All of the above

100. When one is interested to compare the variability of the height and the weight of the third
year medical student, the best statistics to use is/are:
A. Standard deviation
B. Variance
C. Coefficient of variation
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

***END***

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