Name: ___________________________ Student ID Number: _________________________

Section E
EXAM VERSION A
BioSci 93
Final Exam
KEY
December 10, 2012
1. Ensure that you are sitting at your assigned seat.

2. Record your Name and Student ID on the cover of the exam

booklet. Keep your student ID out and visible. We will be checking during
the exam.

3. You must use pencils only; exams completed with pens will not be scored.

4. Write in your name, lecture, exam version AND bubble and write in your student
ID # on the scantron.

5. Select the best answer for each question. Each question is worth 2 points except
question number 1, which is not worth any points but you will likely fail if you get it
wrong.

Acts of dishonesty during the examination will result in disqualification (score of 0

points) and a permanent letter added to your university transcript file.
1. I am taking exam version
a. A
b. B

2. A karyotype can give you the following information, EXCEPT:

a. number of autosomes of the organism
b. information about nondisjunction events
c. sex of the organism
d. banding patterns of chromosomes
e. if the individual has sickle cell anemia

3. The "selectivity" of a particular ion channel refers to its

a. permitting passage by positive but not negative ions.
b. permitting passage by negative but not positive ions.
c. ability to change its size depending on the ion needing transport.
d. binding with only one type of neurotransmitter.
e. permitting passage only to a specific ion.

4. Which answer below contributes most to genetic variability?

a. codominance relationships
b. cell division
c. chromosome separation at metaphase II
d. independent assortment
e. cell cycle inhibition

5. At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the
chain opens to form a replication fork: 3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5' An RNA primer
is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents
the primer sequence?
a. 5'GCCTAGG3'
b. 3'GCCTAGG5'
c. 5'ACGTTAGG3'
d. 5'ACGUUAGG3'
e. 5'GCCUAGG3'

6. Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are
a. DNA methylation and histone amplification.
b. DNA amplification and histone methylation.
c. DNA methylation and histone modification.
d. histone amplification and DNA acetylation.

7. How many water molecules would be formed while linking 8 monomers with dehydration
reactions?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
e. 9
8. Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?
a. elongation of the polypeptide
b. base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
c. binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
d. covalent bonding between the first two amino acids
e. the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA

9. Muscle cells require large amounts of ATP. Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis
in eukaryotic cells?
a. Lysosome
b. Chloroplast
c. Mitochondrion
d. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
e. Peroxisome

10. When does independent assortment NOT hold true for two genes?
a. when two genes are close together on the same chromosome
b. when two genes are far apart on the same chromosome
c. when two genes are on different autosomes
d. when two genes are on different sex chromosomes

11. The surface on a neuron that discharges the contents of synaptic vesicles is the
a. dendrite.
b. axon hillock.
c. node of Ranvier.
d. postsynaptic membrane.
e. presynaptic membrane.

12. A couple have one child and then three years later have a second child. The probability of the
first child being male is _______. The probability of the second child being male is _________.
a. 50%, 25%
b. 25%, 75%
c. 50%, 50%
d. 75%, 25%

13. Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules, consisting of nine
doublets of microtubules surrounding a pair of single microtubules?
a. Spindle fibers
b. Centrioles
c. Flagella
d. Basal bodies
e. Both centrioles and basal bodies

14. Genomic imprinting refers to the ___________________________________ where as barr

body formation refers to ______________________________.
a. silencing of almost all genes on x chromosome; silencing of one allele on x chromosome
b. silencing of one allele of a certain gene; silencing of one allele on x chromosome
c. silencing of almost all genes on an autosome; silencing of one allele on x chromosome
d. expression of one allele of a certain gene; silencing of one allele of a certain gene
e. silencing of one allele of a certain gene; silencing of almost all genes on x chromosome
15. Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a
consequence of which of the following?
a. the evolution of telomerase enzyme
b. gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand
c. gaps left at the 3' end of the lagging strand because of the need for a primer
d. the "no ends" of a circular chromosome

16. If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely effect?
a. There would be an increase in the amount of "satellite" DNA produced during
centrifugation.
b. The cell's DNA couldn't be packed into its nucleus.
c. Spindle fibers would not form during prophase.
d. Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones.
e. Pseudogenes would be transcribed to compensate for the decreased protein in the cell.

17. In the cross PpRRYy X ppRrYy, what fraction of the offspring will have purple flowers and
round, yellow seeds? P=dominant allele for purple, R=dominant allele for round, Y=dominant
allele for yellow, p=recessive allele for purple, r=recessive allele for round, y=recessive allele for
yellow
a. 1/32
b. 3/16
c. 1/2
d. 3/8
e. 3/4

18. What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting
the plasmid into a bacterium?
I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule.
II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.

V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.

a. I, II, IV, III, V
b. II, III, V, IV, I
c. III, II, IV, V, I
d. III, IV, V, I, II
e. IV, V, I, II, III

19. Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase?
a. the protein product of the promoter
b. start and stop codons
c. ribosomes and tRNA
d. several transcription factors (TFs)
e. aminoacyl synthetase
20. For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment,
with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the phosphate.
They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus,
labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why
won't this experiment work?
a. There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen.
b. Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be
too dangerous for too long.
c. Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16
extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive.
d. Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would
not distinguish between DNA and proteins.

21. The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a
single codon. This results in
a. a base-pair substitution.
b. a nucleotide mismatch.
c. a frameshift mutation.
d. a polypeptide missing an amino acid.
e. a nonsense mutation.

Use this representation to answer the following question.

DNA template strand 5' ____________________________ 3' DNA
complementary strand 3' ____________________________ 5'
22. Given the locally unwound double strand above, in which direction does the RNA polymerase
move?
a. 3' → 5' along the template strand
b. 5' → 3' along the template strand
c. 3' → 5' along the complementary strand
d. 5' → 3' along the complementary strand
e. 5' → 3' along the double-stranded DNA

23. True or False: a genotypic ratio of 3:1 dictates a phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1.
a. True
b. False

24. A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is TTT. The anticodon on the tRNA
that binds the mRNA codon is
a. TTT.
b. UUA.
c. UUU.
d. AAA.
 The following questions refer to this table of codons.

25. What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence?
5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'
a. met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
b. met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
c. met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
d. met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
e. met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu

26. A peptide has the sequence NH2-phe-pro-lys-gly-phe-pro-COOH. Which of the following

sequences in the coding strand of the DNA could code for this peptide?
a. 3' UUU-CCC-AAA-GGG-UUU-CCC
b. 3' AUG-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG
c. 5' TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC
d. 5' GGG-AAA-TTT-AAA-CCC-ACT-GGG
e. 5' ACT-TAC-CAT-AAA-CAT-TAC-UGA
 27. What happens at the 3` end of a tRNA ?
a. The codon and anticodon complement one another.
b. The amino acid binds covalently.
c. The excess nucleotides (ACCA) will be cleaved off at the ribosome.
d. The small and large subunits of the ribosome will attach to it.
e. The 5' cap of the mRNA will become covalently bound.

A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCG- ACG 3' (mRNA). The
following charged transfer RNA molecules (with their anticodons shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them
can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form.
tRNA Anticodon Amino Acid
GGC Proline
CGU Alanine
UGC Threonine
CCG Glycine
ACG Cysteine
CGG Alanine

28. The dipeptide that will form will be

a. cysteine-alanine.
b. proline-threonine.
c. glycine-cysteine.
d. alanine-alanine.
e. threonine-glycine.

29. One statement below was particularly important to Mendel’s success in discovering the laws of
segregation and independent assortment.
a. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics such as purple flowers, yellow seeds, and round
seeds.
b. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics with codominance relationships.
c. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics where one gene has pleiotropic effects.
d. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics that he quantified in the F2 generation
e. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics in which environment affects flower color.

Use the following information to answer the next question.

A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to
the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already.
30. Where does tRNA #2 move to after this bonding of lysine to the polypeptide?
a. A site
b. P site
c. E site
d. exit tunnel
e. directly to the cytosol
31. Which component of the complex described enters the exit tunnel through the large subunit
of the ribosome?
a. tRNA with attached lysine (#1)
b. tRNA with polypeptide (#2)
c. tRNA that no longer has attached amino acid
d. newly formed polypeptide
e. initiation and elongation factors

32. Chemiosmosis in mitochondria is used to generate ATP by creating a high H+ concentration in

the _________________, which ultimately yields ATP being produced in the
________________.
a. intermembrane space; matrix
b. matrix; chloroplast
c. stroma; intermembrane space
d. intermembrane space; stroma
e. mitochondrion; thylakoid space

33. The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription.
This most probably relates to which of the following?
a. the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA
b. the triplet nature of the codon
c. the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site
d. the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site
e. the 3-D shape of a DNA molecule

34. Why do chromosomes condense during mitosis:

a. to increase their potential energy
b. to provide haploid cell formation
c. to allow chromosomes to move without breaking
d. to allow chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope

35. In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by

a. the dendritic membrane.
b. the presynaptic membrane.
c. axon hillocks.
d. cell bodies.
e. ducts on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

36. A protein is made that is destined to be a transmembrane receptor. What is the order of the
pathway this protein will travel as it is being synthesized?
a. ER, Golgi, nucleus
b. Golgi, ER, lysosome
c. Nucleus, ER, cytoplasm
d. ER, Golgi, vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane
e. ER, lysosomes, vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane
Use the following list of choices for the following questions:
I. primase
II. DNA polymerase I
III. helicase
IV. DNA polymerase III
V. ligase
37. Which of the enzymes removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA
nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

38. Which of the enzymes separates the DNA strands during replication?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

39. Which of the enzymes covalently connects segments of DNA?

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

40. Which of the enzymes synthesizes short segments of RNA?

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

41. Anne was given a pet fish for her birthday, but she didn’t know if it was a freshwater or a
saltwater fish. She decided to test the water in the bowl the fish came in by submerging a
piece of celery. An hour later the celery is super firm. What has she learned?
a. The celery was hypotonic to the solution, so the fish is a saltwater fish.
b. The celery was hypertonic to the solution, so the fish is a freshwater fish.
c. The celery was hypotonic to the solution, so the fish is a freshwater fish.
d. The celery was hypertonic to the solution so the fish is a saltwater fish.
42. What type of inheritance is characterized by one gene altering the phenotypic expression of a
gene at a second locus?
a. recessive inheritance
b. epistasis
c. codominance
d. pleiotropy
e. incomplete dominance

43. MPF is an active complex that triggers the cells passage past the G2 checkpoint into
mitosis. MPF is composed of:
a. PDGF, activated by amylase
b. Cyclin, activated by synthetase
c. Cdk, activated by cyclin
d. G1 protein, activated by cyclin
e. MAP Kinase, activated by Cdk

44. A toxin that binds specifically to voltage-gated sodium channels in axons would be expected to
a. prevent the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential.
b. prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential.
c. prevent graded potentials.
d. increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules.
e. have most of its effects on the dendritic region of a neuron.

45. Morgan hypothesized that the eye color gene in Drosophila is located on the X chromosome
because of the unique inheritance pattern observed in males. If a white eyed female was
crossed to a red-eyed male, what would the offspring look like?
a. no white eyed females; all white eyed males
b. ½ of females would have white eyes; no males would have white eyes
c. no white eyed females; ½ of males would have white eyes
d. ½ of females would have white eyes; ½ of males would have white eyes
e. all off spring regardless of sex will have white eyes

46. How do we describe transformation in bacteria?

a. the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule
b. the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule
c. the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule
d. the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA
e. assimilation of external DNA into a cell

47. Cytosine makes up 22% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism.
Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?
a. 28%
b. 16%
c. 31%
d. 42%
e. It cannot be determined from the information provided.
 48. What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?
a. The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
b. The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other
strand.
c. Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
d. One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
e. One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.

49. Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which
radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in
the presence of this radioactive base?
a. One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA.
b. Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive.
c. All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive.
d. Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine.
e. DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

50. If nondisjunction occurs in Meiosis I for chromosome ‘n’, what would the haploid cells look like?
a. n+1, n+1, n, n
b. n+1, n+1, n-1, n-1
c. n-1, n-1, n, n
d. n+1, n-1, n, n
e. all haploid cells are normal: n, n, n, n

51. When several IPSPs arrive at the axon hillock rapidly in sequence from a single dendritic
location, hyperpolarizing the postsynaptic cell more and more and thus preventing an action
potential, this is an example of
a. temporal summation.
b. spatial summation.
c. tetanus.
d. the refractory state.
e. an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization.

REMEMBER TO WRITE AND BUBBLE IN YOUR STUDENT ID NUMBER ON YOUR SCANTRON!