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Test 4
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PSYCHOLOGICAL ASSESSMENT
MOCK EXAM 1 – Test 4 – Set A
INSTRUCTIONS: Read each questions carefully and choose the best answer among the given choices. Shade
your answers on the corresponding item number on your answer sheet. Avoid erasures.
1. All psychological tests fundamentally depend upon the measurement of .
A. basic mental processes
B. aptitudes
C. behavior samples
D. traits
2. In the final analysis, the worth of a test item or an entire test depends upon
A. how closely the material covered by the test resembles the behavior that is to be predicted
B. the norms that are published in the test manual
C. the standardization procedure
D. its empirical correspondence with the criterion
3. The major distinction between “diagnosis” and “prediction” centers upon .
A. time factors
B. whether behavior external to the test is involved
C. whether a physician is involved
D. accuracy
4. Standardization in testing basically refers to .
A. a printed test form
B. the use of trained examiners to evaluate performance
C. measurement against a proven standard
D. complete uniformity of procedure
5. A ten-year-old boy takes an intelligence test and gets only 8 out of 40 questions correct. Based on this we can say .
A. that the test was too difficult for him
B. that he is definitely below average in IQ
C. that he should be retested
D. nothing, since we do not know the norms
6. A person scores exactly at the norm on an aptitude test. This means that the person .
A. achieved an “average” score
B. had the highest score possible
C. answered 50% of the questions correctly
D. showed “ideal” performance
7. The standardization sample is used in test development to .
A. test the test
B. generate test items
C. establish the norms
D. determine test validity
8. It has been said that persons who score well on a medical aptitude test also do well in medical school. This would that the
medical aptitude test is .
A. reliable
B. valid
C. qualified
D. standardized
9. A test is designed to predict success in graduate school. Success in graduate is therefore the .
A. criterion
B. validation factor
C. empirical validity
D. objective
10. Some controls must be placed on the availability of psychological test in order to .
A. protect the content from disclosure
B. ensure that the test is administered by qualified people
C. prevent test misuse
D. all of the above
11. Rapport is best defined in the testing situation as .
A. ensuring total objectivity
B. arousing the examinee’s interest and cooperation
C. making special efforts to motivate those students who do not show normal interest
D. being especially friendly to the examinees
12. Most criticisms of psychological tests are directed to .
A. intrinsic features of the tests themselves
B. the publishers and developers of tests
C. professional associations concerned with testing
D. misuses of test results by poorly qualified users
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Test 4
+639226791941, (02) 906-9839 Set A
13. According to the Binet test, if a child had a mental level of six, his performance .
A. Was definitely retarded
B. Matched that of the average six-year-old
C. Indicated a readiness for school
D. Showed he was incapable of making judgments based on reason
14. Compared with the Army Alpha, the Army Beta placed more emphasis on .
A. nonlanguage items
B. verbal items
C. discrimination items
D. reading
15. Multiple aptitude test batteries .
A. were among the first group tests developed
B. are based mostly on numerical reasoning items
C. were a practical outcome of factor analysis
D. are not suitable for different diagnosis
16. The major difference between aptitude and achievement tests is that aptitude tests .
A. place more emphasis on performance-type skills
B. go through more rigorous technical development
C. depend less on specific content learning
D. none of the above
17. Which of the following is the best example of an achievement test?
A. The Stanford-Binet
B. A final exam in Physics
C. The Army Alpha
D. A sentence completion test
18. Some person are placed in a setting in which it would be very easy for them to cheat. They do not know that their behavior is
being closely observed. This type of test is best classified as a .
A. situational test
B. self-report
C. predictive test
D. the association evaluation
19. Norms for an educational or psychological test are established by .
A. the opinion of experts in the field covered by the test
B. testing a representative sample of people
C. examining the performance of the top and bottom 10% of the population
D. using item analysis procedures for each item and combining the results for those taking the test
20. The major advantage of converting raw test scores to derived scores is that .
A. derived scores show a test taker’s relative standing compared with others taking the test
B. some derived scores permits the direct comparison of scores made on different tests
C. derived scores show the test taker’s score in relation to perfect performance
D. a and b
21. The normal curve is .
A. bilaterally symmetrical
B. more likely to be approximated when small groups are used
C. one that has a mean value that is less than 10% higher than the median
D. one that shows only positive standard scores
22. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?
A. Standard deviation
B. Average deviation
C. Mean
D. Variance
23. The simplest measure of variability is the .
A. average deviation
B. mean
C. variance
D. range
24. The major problem associated with the use of percentiles is that .
A. they are difficult to interpret
B. they are more difficult to calculate than most other derived scores
C. in a normal distribution percentile ranks are not equal throughout the scale
D. they show little relationship to other derived scores
25. Linearly derived standard scores or z scores are based on .
A. a raw score’s distance from the mean in SD units
B. derived percentile ranks
C. the relation of raw score to a normalized distribution
D. expectancy scores
26. A stanine is an example of a (an) .
A. ordinal scale value
B. standard score
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C. z score
D. norm-equivalent score
27. A person obtains a percentile score of 76. This means that the person .
A. answered 76% of the items correctly
B. did not score as well as 76% of those taking the test
C. has z score of -0.76
D. outperformed 76% of those who also took the test
28. Systematic variations among the scores obtained by a single individual on different tests might be due to ________.
A. differences in test content
B. differences in scale units among the tests
C. the composition of the standardization samples of the different tests
D. any or all of the above
29. The main focus of domain-referenced testing is on .
A. score comparisons with a known group
B. what individuals know within a specified field of knowledge
C. how students compare with their classmates
D. expectancies of how a person will do in the future
30. An expectancy table .
A. gives the probabilities of different criterion outcomes for persons who obtain each test score
B. shows the relationship between raw scores and expected standard scores
C. is presented in terms of z scores
D. is an important feature in mastery testing
31. A correlation of -1.24 means .
A. an inverse relationship between two variables
B. a direct negative correlation
C. a moderate negative correlation
D. an error has been made
32. A correlation of +0.32 is found to be significant at the .01 level. This means that .
A. the correlation is definitely real
B. the correlation is significant at the 99% level
C. there is a 1% chance or less that the true r is zero
D. the minimum real value for r is greater than zero
33. The most basic method of determining reliability involves the administration of the test on more than one occasion and is
known as .
A. coefficient alpha
B. test-retest reliability
C. Kuder-Richardson 21
D. the Ruton method
34. If a test shows high split-half reliability, it probably means that .
A. the test is valid
B. the correlation is negative
C. variation due to content sampling is not a large problem
D. the proportion of error variance to true variance is high
35. The time interval between the first and second administration for test-retest reliability should be _________.
A. one hour or less
B. between one hour and two days
C. reported along with the obtained coefficient
D. determined by the validity coefficient
36. When reliability is determined by the delayed alternate-form method, error variance is contributed by each of the following
except .
A. test taker’s differences in what is being measured
B. content sampling
C. time between form 1 and form 2
D. differences in the test taker’s emotional state
37. A test with 30 items and a reliability of .60 is lengthened to 60 items. What is its expected reliability?
A. 0.75
B. -0.75
C. 0.69
D. 0.84
38. The coefficient alpha is used to determine the interitem consistency of tests with items .
A. that are extremely heterogeneous
B. of varying levels of difficulty
C. that can receive different numerical scores
D. that are scored simply as right or wrong, pass or fail
39. The reliability for a speeded test .
A. can be calculated in the same way as for an unspeeded test
B. will be lower than for an unspeeded test
C. is found by the split-half method
D. will be spuriously high if found by the usual single-trial methods
Test 4
+639226791941, (02) 906-9839 Set A
40. A test writer wishes to ensure that his test will show the highest reliability possible. He should _______.
A. increase the number of items on the test
B. try to maintain item homogeneity
C. administer the test to a very heterogeneous standardization sample
D. all of the above will increase reliability
41. Which of the following activities would be especially suitable for investigating the content validity of an achievement test?
A. reading the manual
B. looking up the test in the Mental Measurements Yearbook
C. studying the test items
D. looking at the norms
42. The test specifications drawn up for the purpose of preparing an achievement test should __________
A. list all the content areas to be included
B. reflect the importance of each topic
C. indicate the important instructional objectives
D. all of the above
43. Content validation is most appropriate for .
A. aptitude tests
B. achievement tests
C. personality tests
D. all of the above
44. Criterion validation procedures include .
A. content validation
B. concurrent, predictive and construct validation
C. construct validation
D. predictive and concurrent validation
45. Test A has been in use for many years. It is highly respected as a test of intelligence. Test B is a new intelligence test which is
much shorter and easier to administer than Test A. The use of Test A to validate Test B would constitute
validation.
A. content
B. concurrent
C. predictive
D. discriminant
46. Criterion contamination occurs when .
A. a test is lacking in construct validity
B. the criterion measure is found to be invalid
C. knowledge of the test scores influences decision-making
D. errors are made in predicting criterion performance
47. The ultimate criterion for most tests would be .
A. academic achievement
B. personality as assessed by other tests
C. actual performance in real life or on the job
D. convergent validation with moderator tests
48. A musical aptitude test is given, at the same time, to a number music majors and to a group of college students in other
majors. This method of validating musical aptitude test is known as .
A. concurrent validation
B. contrasted group method
C. both of the above
D. neither a nor b
49. Analyses of developmental changes, age differentiation, factor analysis, and internal consistency data are all especially
important to validity.
A. predictive
B. construct
C. synthetic
D. content
50. A new reading test is found to correlate very highly with an intelligence test, but near zero with a personality test. This
information is important for .
A. convergent and discriminant validation
B. predictive validity
C. establishing normative standards
D. internal consistency analysis
51. If two or more traits are measured by two or more different techniques, all of which claim to measure the traits, validity is
established through .
A. the predictive approach
B. the factorial approach
C. the multitrait-multimethod approach
52. Validity has come to be recognized as the fundamental and all-encompassing validity concept.
A. construct
B. criterion
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C. content
D. face
53. A situation wherein low-scoring and high-scoring applicants who take a selection test show more variability than middle-
scoring applicants in terms of job performance would produce an example of .
A. an invalid test
B. an unfair test
C. homoscedasticity
D. heteroscedasticity
54. The purpose of a regression equation is to .
A. establish validity for a test
B. adjust test validity for criterion factors
C. predict criterion performance
D. determine test reliability
55. The multiple cutoff procedure would be more appropriate than the use of multiple regression equation for ________.
A. counseling an individual who has no clear occupational pattern or plans
B. selecting --- for whom auditory discrimination is of critical importance
C. assigning clinical patients to particular types of therapy
D. planning a remedial program for a child with reading disability
56. Assume the military drafts 1000 people. They are all tested to determine their best role in the service. Which of the following
types of decisions are being made?
A. selection
B. placement
C. classification
D. positioning
57. The principal function of item analysis is to .
A. identify test items that may be faulty or superfluous
B. determine the discrimination index for a test
C. shorten a test
D. calculate the validity coefficient for each item on the test
58. Item difficulty is customarily defined as the .
A. percentage of examinees who fail an item
B. percentage of examinees who pass an item
C. biserial correlation for an item
D. correlation of the item with the criterion
59. The ideal value for item difficulty is .
A. less than 50%
B. about 50%
C. greater 70%
D. dependent on many factors
60. Item discrimination means .
A. the extent to which an item correctly discriminates against some examinees
B. the extent to which an item correctly discriminates among examinees on the appropriate behavior
C. the amount of reliability in an item
61. Intelligence tests are usually validated against .
A. personality tests
B. tests of problem-solving skills
C. individual success in life
D. scholastic success
62. Performance tests can normally be distinguished by their .
A. total nonreliance on language
B. emphasis on object manipulation
C. nonverbal characteristics
D. unbiased nature
63. The ability to take responsibility for one’s behavior and to take care of one’s own needs can be evaluated by________.
A. Gesell scale
B. Hiskey-Nebraska test
C. Vineland scale
D. Interim Hayes-Binet
64. Tests used in the evaluation of individuals with disabilities .
A. always require special procedural alterations
B. cannot involve manipulation of objects
C. usually require reconsideration of reliability, validity, and norms
D. should not be altered in any way that will affect the established norms
65. The testing of children with hearing impairments is complicated by the fact that ______.
A. these children are usually handicapped by verbal tests
B. one cannot assume that the norms of standard tests apply
C. the idea of speed is hard to convey to them
D. all of the above
Test 4
+639226791941, (02) 906-9839 Set A
66. In preparing tests specifically for blind or visually-impaired individuals, it seems advisable to emphasize_________.
A. performance items
B. numerical items
C. the learning process
D. the products of past learning
67. Tests for persons with severe motor disabilities should be .
A. individually modified in whatever way is necessary to meet the needs of the test taker, without regard to norms
B. administered in sessions that are as long as possible, so that all the testing is done at once
C. presented only through visual means
D. presented so the test taker only has to point or nod at the correct answer
68. Tests that are designed to minimize cultural influences emphasize .
A. speed of response rather than content
B. questions that are not specific to any given culture
C. performance-type responses
D. questions relating to minority subcultures
69. Compared to individual tests, group tests, on the whole, have the following advantage(s):_______
A. more narrowly based norms
B. more objective scoring procedures
C. an expanded role for the examiner
D. all of the above
70. Most group tests use the type of test items.
A. completion
B. multiple choice
C. free response
D. omnibus
71. Group tests are often correctly criticized because .
A. they are not long enough
B. their norms are based on inadequate samples
C. examiners often give incorrect instructions
D. little attention can be given to rapport with the test taker
72. The use of a computer to alter the sequencing of item presentation as a result of performance on previous items is called
testing.
A. computer
B. adaptive
C. alternative-response
D. CRT
73. Multiple aptitude batteries were created primarily to .
A. minimize intraindividual variation
B. classify preschool children into mental-age groups
C. compare the relative abilities of children with different racial backgrounds
D. gain information about separate abilities
74. Research has shown that IQs are most reliable when they are obtained at ages .
A. 0 to 18 months
B. 18 months to 2 years
C. 3 to 10 years
D. 10 to 25 years
75. Which of the following is not a major factor in increasing the stability of the IQ in older children?
A. Regularities in their environments
B. The cumulative nature of intellectual development
C. The role of prerequisite learning skills
D. An acceleration attempt by parents
76. What is the effect of continuing lifelong education on IQ?
A. IQ may actually increase
B. There will be no effect on IQ
C. The effect will be impossible to predict
D. IQ will still decrease after age 40
77. If a test were designed to be totally culture-free, it .
A. could be used with anyone of any background
B. would be unbiased
C. would measure only nonverbal content
D. would probably not measure anything of value
78. The primary use for self-report inventories is as a tool in .
A. career decision making
B. counseling and diagnosis
C. self-evaluation of personality
D. selection of employees
79. Which of the following is not one of the basic methods for formulating a self-report inventory?
A. Content-related procedures
B. Self-constructed response analysis
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C. Factor analysis
D. Empirical criterion keying
80. The use of contrasted groups to develop a self-report inventory is a procedure followed in __________.
A. content validation
B. factor analysis
C. the forced-choice technique
D. empirical criterion keying
81. The forced-choice technique is used to _____________________
A. Increase reliability
B. Reduce faking
C. Counteract the ipsative nature of the items
D. Increase test validity
82. Self-report inventories are especially susceptible to ___________________
A. Faking
B. Low scorer reliability
C. Ipsative scoring
D. Criterion contamination
83. Persons who are most likely to answer “True” or “Yes” than “False” or “No” demonstrate a response bias known as
_________________
A. Deviation
B. Acquiescence
C. Social desirability
D. Impression management
84. People often behave quite differently in different settings or situations. Psychologists term this as:
A. Unreliability
B. State specificity
C. Situational specificity
D. Trait analysis
85. The use of interest inventories is of greatest value in .
A. industrial employment offices
B. psychological research
C. individual guidance and counseling
D. the selection of applicant for a specific job
86. Which of the following is not a significant trend among current interest inventories?
A. The merging of major theoretical approaches
B. The cross-utilization of empirical data banks
C. A reduction in the number and range of occupations covered
D. A recognition of such inventories as intervention techniques
87. The search for the nature, number, and organization of basic interests resembles the search(es) conducted to identify the
primary factors in the realm(s) of .
A. ability
B. personality
C. neither a nor b
D. both a and b
88. The Semantic Differential is basically a technique for the measurement of .
A. honesty
B. verbal fluency
C. evaluative connotations
D. perseverance
89. The Rep Test is ideally suited for the investigation of .
A. psychopathology
B. interpersonal skills
C. work-related aptitudes and attitudes
D. the way individuals derive and organize meaning
90. Usually, the primary function of an interview is to:
A. Provide an opportunity for observation
B. Elicit life-history data
C. Rate the interviewee
D. Detect roleplaying or faking
91. The ______________ is a constant error which reduces the effective width of rating scales.
A. Halo effect
B. Error variance
C. Error of central tendency
D. Barnum effect
92. The results of achievement tests can be used to .
A. assess an individual’s level of accomplishment in a course of study
B. evaluate the success of an instructional program
C. diagnose deficiencies in academic preparation
D. all of the above are legitimate uses
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93. Which of the following is not an appropriate use of aptitude and achievement tests?
A. Aptitude tests can be used to predict performance in advanced programs
B. Achievement test results can be used to evaluate overall performance of a class of students, or an entire school,
compared with other groups
C. Aptitude and achievement test scores for each student can be compared to identify underachievers
D. All of the above are legitimate uses
94. The procedure of norming achievement test batteries concurrently with intelligence tests ________.
A. assures the validity of the achievement test batteries
B. permits direct comparisons of scores on the two tests
C. removes the biasing effects of IQ from achievement test scores
D. assures the reliability of both sets of tests
95. Of the following types of tests, which is least likely to be used for the purpose of making personnel decisions?
A. Multiple-aptitude batteries
B. Special aptitude batteries
C. Self-report personality inventories
D. Projective techniques
96. Current concerns about the use of “integrity tests” in preemployment selection decisions center upon the tests’
A. Poor predictive validity
B. Emotional effect on test takers
C. Susceptibility to faking and coaching
D. There are no substantial concerns about the use of integrity tests at present
97. In communicating test results to an examinee .
A. all technical information should be released
B. the characteristics of the examinee must be considered
C. no one else should be in the room
D. normative information should not be divulged
98. Psychological tests:
A. always have right or wrong answers.
B. do not attempt to measure traits.
C. measure characteristics of human behavior.
D. pertain only to overt behavior.
99. Previous learning can best be described as:
A. ability.
B. intelligence.
C. achievement.
D. aptitude.
100. One's general potential, independent of prior learning, can best be described as:
A. intelligence.
B. achievement.
C. ability.
D. aptitude.
101. The main purpose of psychological testing is to evaluate:
A. personality traits.
B. individual differences.
C. covert behavior.
D. overt behavior.
102. Personality tests in which the test stimulus and/or required response are ambiguous are called:
A. structured personality tests.
B. projective personality tests.
C. achievement personality tests.
D. unstructured personality tests.
103. Statistical procedures that allow one to make inferences about large groups by examining a smaller sample are called:
A. ratios.
B. inferential statistics.
C. descriptive statistics.
D. populations.
104. A scale that allows one to determine if there is more, less, or an equal amount of the attribute in comparison to another
observation is called a(n) ________ scale.
A. interval
B. ordinal
C. ratio
D. nominal
105. Many feel that the different between an IQ of 100 and 105 is not the same as the difference between an IQ of 70 and 75.
These people feel that IQ tests lack ________.
A. magnitudes
B. absolute zeroes
C. equal intervals
D. ratios
106. A percentile rank is a measure of:
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A. actual performance.
B. relative performance.
C. peak performance.
D. absolute performance.
107. The Roman letter S refers to:
A. the variance of a sample.
B. the standard deviation of a sample.
C. the variance of a population.
D. the standard deviation of a population.
108. When talking about errors in terms of psychology testing, we are referring to the fact that:
A. someone got an answer incorrect.
B. the test was inappropriate for that particular group.
C. there is always some inaccuracy in the measurement.
D. the score is too subjective to be accurate.
109. Concurrent and predictive validity are both subcategories of:
A. convergent validity.
B. criterion validity.
C. face validity.
D. empirical validity.
110. If a test of intelligence is influenced by eye color, this is an example of:
A. face validity.
B. aggregate validity.
C. construct-irrelevant variance.
D. construct underrepresentation.
111. If the test score forecasts some criterion, the test has:
A. concurrent validity.
B. predictive validity.
C. content validity.
D. face validity.
112. The tendency for test takers to agree on most of the items is called a(n):
A. miss rate.
B. item difficulty.
C. acquiescence response set.
D. guessing threshold.
113. True-false examinations use:
A. a poltomous format.
B. a category format.
C. a dichotomous format.
D. a Likert format.
114. The expected level of chance performance, for a 200-item multiple-choice exam with four choice alternatives, is:
A. 50 correct.
B. 25 correct.
C. 75 correct.
D. 100 correct.
115. Which item format can best be factor analyzed to find which ones group together?
A. Likert
B. multiple-choice
C. forced-choice
D. dichotomous
116. A test format which is typically used for attitude measurement is the:
A. checklist format.
B. dichotomous format.
C. Likert format.
D. category format.
117. In general, studies have indicated that the race of the examiner:
A. is unrelated to test performance.
B. should be different than that of the subject.
C. should be the same as that of the subject.
D. is not as important as sex of the examiner.
118. If a test administrator gave reinforcement to the test-taker on a random schedule, we might NOT expect:
A. learned helplessness.
B. decreased motivation.
C. increased motivation.
D. depression.
119. Because situational variables can affect test scores, testing requires:
A. test administrators with similar backgrounds and characteristics.
B. at least two test administrators.
C. a test administrator and an observer.
D. standardized conditions.
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120. Which of the following is NOT a similarity between an interview and psychological tests in general?
A. Both can be evaluated in terms of standard psychometric qualities.
B. Both can be administered in a standard format.
C. Both may involve an individual or a group procedure.
D. They are equally important for gathering information in clinical settings.
121. With the principle of age differentiation:
A. one can find the equivalent age capabilities of a child independently of chronological age.
B. one can find the equivalent age capabilities of a child if their chronological age is known.
C. Binet freed himself from the burden of identifying each independent aspect of intelligence.
D. the deviation IQ can be ascertained.
122. To support the notion of g, Spearman developed a statistical technique called:
A. correlation.
B. factor analysis.
C. analysis of variance.
D. principle components.
123. A reliability coefficient of .60 suggests that:
A. 64% of the variance on the test is error.
B. 78% of the variance on the test is error.
C. 40% of the variance on the test is error.
D. the test can be used for clinical purposes, but not for research.
124. The difference between David's two typing tests, one at the beginning of the semester and one at the end, reflects the fact that
he typed quite a few term papers during the semester. This reflects:
A. domain sampling.
B. attenuation.
C. random error.
D. practice effects.
125. Which procedure is designed to minimize the effect that the presence of an observer has on the behavior that is being
observed?
A. operant
B. self-report
C. psychophysical
D. extinction
126. Procedures and tools that are intended to increase a subject's awareness of a particular behavior by providing feedback are
known as:
A. personal profiles.
B. projective tests.
C. structured tests.
D. self monitoring devices.
127. At the broadest level, strategies for the development of personality tests can be divided into what two types?
a. deductive and empirical
b. factor analytic and criterion group
c. external and empirical
d. logical content and theory
128. One way to overcome the limitations of a particular alternative ability test is to:
a. use several such tests in conjunction.
b. compare the results to one of the major scales.
c. There is no way to overcome these limitations.
d. compare the results at two different administrations.
129. Asking for assent is done by:
A. Telling the parents that a psychological test will be administered.
B. Giving an informed consent form and letting the participant sign it.
C. Orienting the individual about the procedure.
D. Securing permission from a minor to take the psychological test.
130. Which of the following practices shows that the psychometrician followed the Code of Ethics and Standards of Practice?
A. Providing pre-employment recommendations on the basis of personality tests alone.
B. Informing parents that their child has autism during initial interview/observation.
C. Giving feedback and recommendation regarding the results of the tests.
D. Recommending a child to special education classes because the IQ is low according to a standardized intelligence
test.
131. A client suddenly refused to answer the remaining test battery and is uncooperative. Initial action of the psychometrician
should be:
A. Encourage the client to continue.
B. Postpone the assessment.
C. Give clues to some items so the client will understand and continue.
D. Remain silent and let the client do what is comfortable.
132. The halo effect can be controlled by all of the following except:
A. training the raters.
B. utilizing forced choice.
C. utilizing relative methods.
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D. utilizing BARS.
133. If a test is made more difficult, this will have the effect of: 142. Two predictor tests are developed. The first has a validity
A. decreasing the true positives and decreasing the true coefficient of .3, and the second a validity coefficient of .6. The
negatives. amount of shared variability with the criterion is how many
B. decreasing the false positives and increasing the true times greater in the second test as compared with the first?
negatives. A. 1.5.
C. increasing the true positives and decreasing false B. 2.0.
negatives. C. 3.0.
D. increasing the false positives and increasing the false D. 4.0.
negatives. 143. To optimize discriminant validity you would want:
134. Test-retest reliability would be the most appropriate type of A. moderate to high correlations with heteromethod,
reliability for: monotrait.
A. a test measuring an enduring trait. B. moderate to high correlation with monomethod,
B. a test measuring a state. heterotrait.
C. a test of intelligence. C. low to moderate correlations with heteromethod,
D. an instrument measuring autonomic arousal. monotrait.
135. An example of a criterion-referenced score would be: D. low to moderate correlation with monomethod,
A. percentile rank. heterotrait.
B. t-score. 144. Which of the following is not likely to decrease the validity
C. z-score. coefficient?
D. percentage score. A. Restricted range of predictor values.
136. The shape of the distribution of percentile scores: B. Criterion contamination.
A. is rectangular. C. Revalidation on a new sample.
B. is leptokurtic. D. Heteroscedasticity.
C. involves a linear transformation. 145. Preliminary research suggests that a new test is resulting in too
D. is normal. many false negatives. To counteract this problem, the test
137. Data on two variables are collected. The data on the first developer should:
variable are dichotomous, and the data on the other variable are A. lower the predictor cutoff.
continuous. To analyze the relationship between the two, the B. raise the predictor cutoff.
statistic of choice is: C. lower the criterion cutoff.
A. eta. D. raise the criterion cutoff.
B. phi. 146. A person who comes from a culture that values high context
C. Pearson r. communication would likely focus most on:
D. biserial. A. body language.
138. Which of the following would have the highest criterion-related B. the specifics of the message.
validity with performance across a broad range of job levels? C. how the message is expressed.
A. Interest tests. D. following grammatical rules.
B. Cognitive abilities tests. 147. Which of the following method of assessment will be most
C. Assessment centers. useful for a 7 year old child with severe intellectual disability?
D. Personality tests. A. Interview
139. As the head of personnel, you are in charge of hiring B. Observation
employees. Which of the following types of information would C. Projective test
be most predictive of turnover? D. Self-report inventory
A. Work samples. 148. To assess abstract thinking, the psychometrician can ask
B. Aptitude test scores. questions involving:
C. Biodata. A. Similarities
D. Likeability ratings. B. Decision-making
140. Which of the following statements correctly summarizes C. Dexterity
Cattell's theory of intelligence? D. Seriation
A. Intelligence consists of a factor with two subtypes, 149. In comparing 3 or more groups regarding their anxiety scores,
crystallized and fluid intelligence. which of the following statistical test should be used?
B. Intelligence consists of one general factor, or "g A. T-test
factor.” B. ANOVA
C. Intelligence involves processes rather than factors. C. Pearson’s r
D. There are eight distinct intelligences, including D. Multiple regression
linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, 150. To increase reliability, you could:
interpersonal, etc. A. increase subject homogeneity and increase the
141. A researcher develops a 50-item test intended to assess BLEPP number of test items.
readiness. When she calculates the reliability of this test, she B. decrease subject homogeneity and decrease the
obtains a coefficient of .50. The researcher: number of test items.
A. need not do anything since .50 is acceptable. C. increase subject homogeneity and decrease the
B. could change the number of items in the instrument. number of test items.
C. could make the items in the instrument more diverse. D. decrease subject homogeneity and increase the
D. could use subjects who are more diverse. number of test items.
USE THE REMAINING TIME TO REVIEW ALL YOUR ANSWERS. BE SURE YOU HAVE ACCOMPLISHED
YOUR ANSWER SHEET COMPLETELY.
WHEN FINISHED, PUT YOUR QUESTIONNAIRE ON TOP OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET AND WAIT FOR
THE FACILITATOR TO GET YOUR PAPERS.

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