drkamalkv’s classes for Foreign Medical Graduates

MOCK TEST -2 a. Polycythemia 15. Which is NOT a feature of

b. Dementia skeletal muscle:
1. Cyanosis is NOT caused by: c. Polyneuritis a. Spindle shaped
a. Cirrhosis with portal hypertension d. Hypomagnesemia b. Synctium
b. Carboxy-hemoglobinemia c. Striations
c. Sulfhemoglobinemia 8. FALSE regarding cholera is: d. Hypolemmal nucleus
d. Methemoglobinemia a. Infectivity
b. Denudation of jejunal mucosa 16. NOT seen during
2. Nephrotic syndrome is NOT c. Watery stool acclimatization to high altitudes:
associated with: d. Stool bicarbonate is twice plasma a. Increase in minute ventilation
a. Hypertension bicarbonate b. Increase in sensitivity of central
b. Massive proteinuria chemoreceptors
c. Marked edema 9. Diagnostic of thiamine c. Increase in sensitivity of the carotid
d. Hypoproteinemia deficiency is: body to hypoxia
a. FIGLU test d. Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve
3. A young child had nephrotic b. Microcytic anemia to the left
syndrome and was started on c. Low RBC transketolase
steroids. He was responding to d. Low RBC acetylcholine 17. During the cardiac cycle,
steroid therapy. If a biopsy is to opening of aortic valve occurs at:
be done, what would be the light 10. NOT seen in Brown Sequard a. Beginning of systole
microscopy have shown: syndrome: b. End of isovolumetric contraction
a. Endothelial thickening a. Ipsilateral loss of joint sense c. End of diastole
b. Split basement membrane b. Contralateral loss of pain sense d. End of diastasis
c. Loss of foot processes c. Ipsilateral monoplegia
d. No abnormality d. Ipsilateral loss of temperature 18. Which of the following does
NOT increase force of muscular
4. In nephrotic syndrome due to 11. Urothelium lines all contraction:
minimal change disease, the EXCEPT: a. Increasing the frequency of
pathology is: a. Ureters activation of motor units
a. Loss of foot process and loss of the b. Minor calyx b. Increasing the number of motor units
fixed negative charge in the glomerular c. Urinary bladder activated
filtration barrier for protein d. Membranous urethra c. Increasing the amplitude of action
b. Loss of foot processes only potentials in the motor neurons
c. Deposition of antigen antibody 12. Which group has similar kind d. Recruiting larger motor units
complex of epithelium:
d. Destruction of Glomerulus alone a. Alveoli – Olfatory epithelium 19. The main excitatory
b. Olfactory epithelium – skin neurotransmitter in the CNS is:
5. Which of the following c. Esophagus – Urinary bladder a. Glycine
complication of diabetes can d. Lung alveoli – Bowman’s capsule b. Acetylcholine
NOT be prevented by strict c. Aspartate
control of blood sugar: 13. Mucus secreting glands are d. Glutamate
a. Nerve conduction velocity absent in:
b. Amyotrophy a. Cervix 20. Synaptic conduction is mostly
c. Fluorescein leak b. Vagina orthodromic because:
d. Microalbuminuria c. Duodenum a. Dendrites CANNOT be depolarized
d. Esophagus b. Once repolarized, an area CANNOT
6. FALSE regarding CRF is: be depolarized
a. Decreased half life of insulin 14. FALSE about heart muscles: c. The strength of antidromicimpulse is
b. Serum vitamin D is increased a. Acts as synctium less
c. Hypocalcemia b. Has multiple nuclei d. Chemical mediator is localized only in
d. hyperphosphatemia c. Has gap junctions the presynaptic terminal
d. Has branching
7. NOT common in alcoholism: 21. Secretory proteins are

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 drkamalkv’s classes for Foreign Medical Graduates

synthesized in: a. The president d. Prevented by immunization

a. Cytoplasm b. Supreme court
b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. High court 36. Which of the following drug
c. First I cytoplasm, then in ER d. The beoverner causes retroperitoneal fibrosis:
d. First in ER, then in cytoplasm a. Methysergide
29. Who amongst the following is b. Cyclosporine
22. Kinases require: an expert witness: c. Melphalan
a. Mn2+ a. Medical officer d. Vincristine
b. Cu2+ b. Chemical expert
c. Mg2+ c. Firearm expert 37. Hemolysis in G6PD is
d. Inorganic phosphate d. All of the above precipitated by all EXCEPT:
a. Dapsone
23. The combination of main 30. Superimposition technique is b. Cotrimoxazole
supporting enzyme is called: used for: c. Quinine
a. Apoenzyme a. Skull d. Penicillin
b. Coenzyme b. Pelvis
c. Holoenzyme c. Femur 38. Pancreatitis occurs with:
d. Constitutive enzyme d. Ribs a. Abacavir
b. Zidovudine
24. Km increases, but Vmax 31. Staphylococcus aureus c. Lamivudine
remains same. This virulence is due to: d. Didanosine
is…..inhibition: a. Pathogenicity correlated with
a. Competitive coagulase 39. Mechanism of action of
b. Non-competitive b. Endotoxin pralidoxime:
c. Irreversible c. Hemolysis a. Direct activation of cholinergic
d. Uncompetitive d. Pigmented colonies receptors
b. Reactivation of cholinesterase
25. Km of an enzyme is: 32. True regarding streptococcus c. Inactivation of cholinesterase
a. Dissociation constant pneumoniae: d. Inhibition of acetylcholine
b. The normal physiological substrate a. Vaccine made from capsular
concentration polysacchride 40. Atropine is CONTRA-
c. The substrate concentration at half b. Vaccine is routinely given to Indian INDICATED in:
maximum velocity children a. Scleritis
d. Numerically identical for all isozymes c. Catalase & oxidase positive b. Corneal ulcer
that catalyze a given reaction d. Bile insoluble & optochin sensitive c. Glaucoma
d. Infants
26. Most reliable method of 33. Gonococcus ferments:
identification of a person is by: a. Glucose 41. Leucocytosis is seen in all
a. Scars b. Maltose EXCEPT:
b. Anthropometry c. Sucrose a. Brucellosis
c. Finger printing d. Fructose b. Acute MI
d. Photography c. Megaloblastic anemia
34. Gonococcus is: d. Diphtheria
27. Dying deposition is recorded a. Extracellular gram positive
by: b. Intracytoplasmic gram positive 42. All of the following are
a. Doctor c. Intracytoplasmic gram negative macrophage EXCEPT:
b. Magistrate d. Intranuclear gram positive a. Monocyte
c. Police officer b. Kupffer cells
d. Lawyer 35. WRONG statement about c. Microglia
Corynebacterium diphtheriae: d. RBC
28. The power of amnesty for a. Gram negative
capital punishment is vested b. Ernest Babes granules 43. Granuloma is seen in all
with: c. Chinese letter pattern EXCEPT:

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 drkamalkv’s classes for Foreign Medical Graduates

a. TB b. Aspergillus b. Cohort study

b. Syphilis c. Mucormycoses c. Case control study
c. Mycoplasma d. Candida d. Experimental study
d. Leprosy
51. Which of the following is 58. A useful index to measure the
44. All of the following are true for known as dangerous lethality of an acute infectious
lactoferrin EXCEPT: zone of the eye: disease is:
a. It is present in secondary granules of a. Sclera a. Attack rate
neutrophil b. Retina b. Incidence rate
b. It is present in exocrine secretion of c. Optic nerve c. Case fatality rate
body d. Ciliary body d. All of the above
c. It has great affinity for iron
d. It transports iron for erythropoiesis 52. The eye in the newborn is: 59. Checking for sputum AFB
a. Hypermetropic with regular comes under:
45. All of the following vascular astigmatism a. Primary prevention
changes are observed in acute b. Hypermetropic b. Secondary prevention
inflammation EXCEPT: c. Hypermetropic with irregular c. Tertiary prevention
a. Vasodilation astigmatism d. Quarternary prevention
b. Stasis of blood d. Myopia
c. Increased vascular permeability 60. Prevalence is a:
d. Decreased hydrostatic pressure 53. Kappa angle is the angle a. Rate
between the: b. Ratio
46. Webers test in conductive a. Pupillary & the visual axis c. Proportion
deafness: b. Visual & optical axis d. Mode
a. Sound louder in normal ear c. Centre of eyeball rotation & line of
b. Sound louder in diseased ear fixation 61. Epidermal cells of normal
c. Heard with intensity in both the ear d. None of the above tissue are replaced completely
d. Inconclusive test by:
54. Alpha angle is the angle a. 4 days
47. Eustachian tube develops between: b. 12 days
from: a. Pupillary axis & optical axis c. 27 days
a. 2nd & 3rd pharyngeal pouch b. Visual axis & optical axis d. 35 days
b. 1st pharyngeal pouch c. Centre of eyeball rotation & line of
c. 2nd pharyngeal pouch fixation 62. Wood’s lamp filter is made
d. 3rd pharyngeal pouch d. None of the above of:
a. Tin & chromium oxide
48. Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is 55. Spectacles are prescribed in b. Nickel oxide & silica
due to the paralysis of: patients with aphakia after: c. Copper oxide & Barium oxide
a. Tensor tympani a. 1 week d. Zinc oxide
b. Levator palatine b. 2 weeks
c. Tensor veli palatini c. 4 weeks 63. Coral red fluorescence on
d. Stapedius d. 6 weeks Wood’s lamp is seen in:
a. Porphyria cutanea tarda
49. Myringitis bullosa is 56. Cyclopropagative life cycle is b. Erythrasma
commonly caused by: seen in: c. Livedo-reticularis
a. Viral a. Malaria d. Hypomelanosis
b. Bacteria b. Plague
c. Fungal c. Filaria 64. Atopic dermatitis can be
d. Fungal protozoan d. Yellow fever diagnosed by:
a. Clinical evaluation
50. Otomycosis is commonly 57. Relative risk can be obtained b. Patch test
caused by: from: c. IgE level
a. Actinomycetes a. Case study d. Biopsy

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 drkamalkv’s classes for Foreign Medical Graduates
65. Exclamation mark hairs are
seen in:
a. Syphilis
b. Alopecia areata
c. Psoriasis
d. Dermatophytosis
66. In a young female of
reproductive age group with
regular menstrual cycle of 28
days. Ovulation occurs around
14th day of periods. When is the
first polar body extruded:
a. 24 hours prior to ovulation
b. Accompanied by ovulation
c. 48 hours after the ovulation
d. At the time of fertilization
67. Source of progesterone
during normal menstrual cycle:
a. Corpus luteum
b. Stroma
c. Surface epithelium of ovary
d. None of the above
68. Vaginal cytology for
hormonal changes is best taken
from:
a. Posterior wall
b. Anterior wall
c. Lateral wall
d. Any wall
69. Barr body is seen in:
a. Turners syndrome
b. Klinefelter’s syndrome
c. Testicular feminization
d. 46XY
70. A 10 year old girl with
primary amenorrhea, absent
breasts, malformed uterus. The
most likely diagnosis is:
a. Mayer Rokitansky Kuster hauser
syndrome
b. Turners syndrome
c. Swyers syndrome
d. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
71. IOC in a pregnant lady at 16
weeks of pregnancy with past
H/O delivering a baby with
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Downs syndrome:
a. Triple screen test
b. Amniocentesis
c. Chorionic villous sampling
d. USG
72. The consequences of Rh
incompatibility are NOT serious
during first pregnancy because:
a. Antibodies are NOT able to cross
placenta
b. Antibody titre is very low during
primary immune response
c. IgG generated is ineffective against
fetal RBC
d. Massive hemolysis is compensated
by increased erythropoiesis
73. All of the following may be
used in pregnancy associated
hypertension EXCEPT:
a. Nifedipine
b. Captopril
c. Methyldopa
d. Hydralazine
74. Which infection has the
highest risk of fetal infection in
first trimester:
a. Hepatitis B virus
b. Syphilis
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Rubella
75. MC cause of 1 st trimester
abortion is:
a. Chromosomal abnormalities
b. Syphilis
c. Rhesus isoimmunization
d. Cervical immunocompetence
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