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 Answers & Solutions For JEE MAIN- 2014
(Code-E)

Time Durations : 3 hrs. Maximum Marks: 360

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

Important Instructions :

1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics,
Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response.
4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response
of each question. ¼ (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response
of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is
indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
5. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response
in each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be
deducted accordingly as per instruction 4 above.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and
Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers,
pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the
examination hall/room.
8. The CODE for this Booklet is E. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and
the Answer Sheet.

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 Study Materials
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 to 12 (Math & Science)
Revision Notes for Class 6 to 12 (Math & Science)
RD Sharma Solutions for Class 6 to 12 Mathematics
RS Aggarwal Solutions for Class 6, 7 & 10 Mathematics
Important Questions for Class 6 to 12 (Math & Science)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9, 10 & 12 (Math &
Science)
Important Formula for Class 6 to 12 Math
CBSE Syllabus for Class 6 to 12
Lakhmir Singh Solutions for Class 9 & 10
Previous Year Question Paper
CBSE Class 12 Previous Year Question Paper
CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Paper
JEE Main & Advanced Question Paper
NEET Previous Year Question Paper

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 PART–A : PHYSICS

1. The current voltage relation of diode is given by 2g g

I = (e1000V/T – 1) mA, where the applied V is in volts (1) (2)
3 2
and the temperature T is in degree kelvin. If a
student makes an error measuring ± 0.01 V while 5g
(3) (4) g
measuring the current of 5 mA at 300 K, what will 6
be the error in the value of current in mA? Answer (2)
(1) 0.2 mA (2) 0.02 mA Sol. a = Rα α
(3) 0.5 mA (4) 0.05 mA
mg – T = ma R
Answer (1)
T×R= mR2α
Sol. I = (e1000 V/T – 1)mA T
or T = ma
When I = 5 mA, e1000 V/T = 6 mA T
1000 V /T 1000 g m a
Also, dI = ( e )× ⋅ dV ⇒ a=
T 2 mg
1000 4. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a
= (6 mA) × × (0.01)
300 x3
= 0.2 mA vertical cross-section given by y = . If the
6
2. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height
vertically upwards with a speed u. The time taken above the ground at which the block can be placed
by the particle, to hit the ground, is n times that without slipping is
taken by it to reach the highest point of its path. The
1 2
relation between H, u and n is: (1) m (2) m
6 3
(1) 2gH = n2u2 (2) gH = (n – 2)2u2
(3) 2gH = nu2 (n – 2) (4) gH = (n – 2)u2 1 1
(3) m (4) m
Answer (3) 3 2
Answer (1)
u
Sol. Time taken to reach highest point is t1 =
g dy x 2
Sol. tanθ = =
Speed on reaching ground = u2 + 2 gh dx 2
Now, v = u + at At limiting equilibrium,
m
u μ = tanθ
⇒ 2
u + 2 gh = –u + gt y
θ
2
x
u + u2 + 2 gH nu H 0.5 =
⇒ t= = 2
g g
⇒ x = ±1
⇒ 2 gH = n(n – 2)u2 2
u + 2gH
3. A mass m is supported by a massless string wound 1
Now, y =
around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass m and 6
radius R. If the string does not slip on the cylinder, 5. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, it
with what acceleration will the mass fall on release? exerts a restoring force of magnitude F = ax + bx2
where a and b are constants. The work done in
stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is :
R 1 2
m (1) aL2 + bL3 (2) ( aL + bL3 )
2

aL2 bL3 1 ⎛ aL2 bL3 ⎞

+ +
2 ⎜⎝ 2 3 ⎟⎠
(3) (4)
2 3
m
Answer (3)

(2)

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 ∫ dW = ∫ F ⋅ dl
8. The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a
Sol.
steel wire of length 10 cm to keep its length constant
L 2 3
L when its temperature is raised by 100°C is :
W= ∫ bx 2 dx = aL + bL .
ax dx + ∫
0 0 2 3 (For steel Young's modulus is 2 × 1011 Nm–2 and
6. A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible string coefficient of thermal expansion is 1.1 × 10–5 K–1)
of length l is suspended from a vertical support. (1) 2.2 × 108 Pa (2) 2.2 × 109 Pa
The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with an
angular speed ω rad/s about the vertical. About the (3) 2.2 × 107 Pa (4) 2.2 × 106 Pa
point of suspension Answer (1)
(1) Angular momentum is conserved Sol. As length is constant,
(2) Angular momentum changes in magnitude but
not in direction ΔL
Strain = = αΔQ
(3) Angular momentum changes in direction but L
not in magnitude Now pressure = stress = Y × strain
(4) Angular momentum changes both in direction
= 2 × 1011 × 1.1 × 10–5 × 100
and magnitude
= 2.2 × 108 Pa
Answer (3)
Sol. τ = mg × l sin θ. (Direction parallel to plane of 9. There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two
rotation of particle) liquids which do not mix and of densities d1 and d2
are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 90° angle
ω at centre. Radius joining their interface makes an
d1
θ angle α with vertical. Ratio d is
2
l l


as τ is perpendicular to L , direction of L changes d2
but magnitude remains same. α
7. Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from
each other, move along a circle of radius R under d1
the action of their mutual gravitational attraction.
The speed of each particle is 1 sin α 1 + cos α
(2)
1 – sin α 1 – cos α
GM GM
(1) (2) 2 2 1 + tan α 1 + sin α
R R (3) (4)
1 – tan α 1 – cos α
GM 1 GM
(3) (1 + 2 2 ) (4) (1 + 2 2 ) Answer (3)
R 2 R
Sol. Equating pressure at A
Answer (4)

F F Mv 2
Sol. + + F′ = M F M
2 2 R R
F′ d2 R sinα
v R α
2 × GM 2 GM 2 Mv 2 F
2
+ 2
= O α R
2( R 2 ) 4R R α Rcosα
(Rcosα – Rsinα)
2 M M
GM ⎡ 1 1 ⎤
⎢ + ⎥ = Mv 2 d1 A
R ⎣4 2⎦ (Rcosα + Rsinα)d2g = (Rcosα – Rsinα)d1g
Gm ⎛ 2 + 4 ⎞ 1 Gm
v= ⎜ ⎟ =
R ⎜⎝ 4 2 ⎟⎠ 2 R
1+ 2 2 ( ) ⇒
d1 cos α + sin α 1 + tan α
= =
d2 cos α – sin α 1 – tan α

(3)

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10. On heating water, bubbles being formed at the Answer (3)
bottom of the vessel detatch and rise. Take the Sol. 100°C
bubbles to be spheres of radius R and making a
circular contact of radius r with the bottom of the
Cu
vessel. If r << R, and the surface tension of water is
T, value of r just before bubbles detatch is T
(Density of water is ρw) B Brass
Steel
0°C
0°C
Q = Q1 + Q2
0.92 × 4(100 − T ) 0.26 × 4 × (T − 0) 0.12 × 4 × T
R = +
46 13 12
⇒ 200 – 2T = 2T + T
2r ⇒ T = 40°C
2 ρw g 2 ρw g 0.92 × 4 × 60
(1) R (2) R ⇒ Q= = 4.8 cal/s
3T 6T 46
ρw g 3ρw g 12. One mole of diatomic ideal gas undergoes a cyclic
2 2
(3) R (4) R process ABC as shown in figure. The process BC is
T T
adiabatic. The temperatures at A, B and C are 400 K,
Answer (No answer) 800 K and 600 K respectively. Choose the correct
Sol. When the bubble gets detached, statement
Buoyant force = force due to surface tension B
800 K

P
600 K
A C
R θ 400 K
V
r θ (1) The change in internal energy in whole cyclic
T × dl process is 250R
4 3 (2) The change in internal energy in the process CA
∫ T × dl sin θ = 3 πR ρw g is 700R
r 4 3 (3) The change in internal energy in the process AB
⇒ T × 2 πr × = πR ρ w g
R 3 is –350R
(4) The change in internal energy in the process BC
2 2 R 4 ρw g
⇒ r = is – 500R
3
Answer (4)
2 2ρ w g
⇒ r=R 5R
3T Sol. ΔU = nCV ΔT = 1 × ΔT
2
11. Three rods of copper, brass and steel are welded For BC, ΔT = –200 K
together to form a Y-shaped structure. Area of cross-
⇒ ΔU = –500R
seciton of each rod = 4 cm2. End of copper rod is
maintained at 100°C whereas ends of brass and 13. An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in such
steel are kept at 0°C. Lengths of the copper, brass a way that a length of 8 cm extends above the
and steel rods are 46, 13 and 12 cm respectively. mercury level. The open end of the tube is then
The rods are thermally insulated from surroundings closed and sealed and the tube is raised vertically
except at ends. Thermal conductivities of copper, up by additional 46 cm. What will be length of the
brass and steel are 0.92, 0.26 and 0.12 CGS units air column above mercury in the tube now?
respectively. Rate of heat flow through copper rod is (Atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)
(1) 1.2 cal/s (2) 2.4 cal/s (1) 16 cm (2) 22 cm
(3) 4.8 cal/s (4) 6.0 cal/s (3) 38 cm (4) 6 cm

(4)

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Answer (1) 15. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find
Sol. the number of possible natural oscillations of air
column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below
(54 – x) 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.
54 cm P
8 cm (1) 12 (2) 8
x
(3) 6 (4) 4
Answer (3)
(2 n − 1)v
Sol. f = ≤ 1250
4L
(2 n − 1) × 340
P + x = P0 ⇒ ≤ 1250
0.85 × 4
P = (76 – x)
⇒ 2n – 1 ≤ 12.5
8 × A × 76 = (76 – x) × A × (54 – x)
∴ Answer is 6.
x = 38

Length of air column = 54 – 38 = 16 cm. 16. Assume that an electric field E = 30 x 2 iˆ exists in
14. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a space. Then the potential difference VA – VO, where
straight line. In first τ s, after starting from rest it VO is the potential at the origin and VA the potential
travels a distance a, and in next τ s it travels 2a in at x = 2 m is
same direction then (1) 120 J (2) –120 J
(1) Amplitude of motion is 3a (3) –80 J (4) 80 J
(2) Time period of oscillations is 8τ Answer (3)
(3) Amplitude of motion is 4a  
Sol. dV = −E ⋅ dx
(4) Time period of oscillations is 6τ VA 2
Answer (4) ∫ dV = − ∫ 30 x 2 dx
VO 0
Sol. As it starts from rest, we have
x = Acosωt. At t = 0, x = A VA − VO = −[10 x 3 ]02 = −80 J
when t = τ, x = A – a 17. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two circular
when t = 2τ, x = A – 3a plates separated by a distance 5 mm and with a
⇒ A – a = Acosωτ dielectric of dielectric constant 2.2 between them.
When the electric field in the dielectric is 3 × 104
A – 3a = Acos2ωτ V/m, the charge density of the positive plate will be
As cos2ωτ = 2cos2ωτ – 1 close to
2 (1) 6 × 10–7 C/m2 (2) 3 × 10–7 C/m2
A – 3a ⎛ A– a ⎞
⇒ = 2⎜ ⎟ –1
A ⎝ A ⎠ (3) 3 × 104 C/m2 (4) 6 × 104 C/m2

A – 3a 2 A2 + 2 a 2 – 4 Aa – A2 Answer (1)
=
A A2 σ
A2 – 3aA = A2 + 2a2 – 4Aa Sol. E =
Kε0
a2 = 2aA σ = Kε0 E
A = 2a = 2.2 × 8.85 ×10–12 × 3 ×104 ≈ 6 × 10–7 C/m2
Now, A – a = Acosωτ 18. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W,
5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of
1
⇒ cos ωτ = 1 kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V. The
2 minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building
2π π will be :
τ=
T 3 (1) 8 A (2) 10 A
⇒ T = 6τ (3) 12 A (4) 14 A

(5)

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Answer (3) Answer (3)
Sol. 15 × 40 + 5 × 100 + 5 × 80 + 1000 = V × I
Sol. B = μ0 n i
600 + 500 + 400 + 1000 = 220 I
B
2500 = ni
I= = 11.36 μ0
220
I = 12 A. NI 100 × i
3 × 10 3 = =
19. A conductor lies along the z-axis at –1.5 ≤ z < 1.5 m L 10 × 10 −2
and carries a fixed current of 10.0 A in – aˆ z direction I = 3 A.
 −4 –0.2 x
(see figure). For a field B = 3.0 × 10 e aˆ y T,
21. In the circuit shown here, the point 'C' is kept
find the power required to move the conductor at
constant speed to x = 2.0 m, y = 0 m in 5 × 10–3 s. connected to point 'A' till the current flowing through
Assume parallel motion along the x-axis the circuit becomes constant. Afterward, suddenly,
z point 'C' is disconnected from point 'A' and connected
1.5 to point 'B' at time t = 0. Ratio of the voltage across
I
resistance and the inductor at t = L/R will be equal
y to
B
2.0
A C R
x –1.5

B L
(1) 1.57 W (2) 2.97 W
(3) 14.85 W (4) 29.7 W
Answer (2) e
(1) (2) 1
work 1– e
Sol. Average Power =
time 1– e
2 (3) –1 (4)
e
W = ∫0 Fdx
2
Answer (3)
= ∫0 3.0 × 10–4 e–0.2 x × 10 × 3 dx
Sol. Applying Kirchhoff's law in closed loop, –VR – VC = 0
2
= 9 × 10–3 e–0.2 x
∫ dx ⇒ VR/VC = –1
0
–4 –0.2x
9 × 10–3 ⎡ –0.2×2 B = 3.0 × 10 e Note : The sense of voltage drop has not been
= –e + 1⎤⎦
0.2 ⎣ defined. The answer could have been 1.
l=3m 22. During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in
9 × 10–3 ⎡ z
= × ⎣1 – e–0.4 ⎤⎦ I = 10 A a medium
0.2
x (1) Electric energy density is double of the
= 9 × 10–3 × (0.33)
magnetic energy density
= 2.97 × 10–3 J
(2) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic
2.97 × 10–3 energy density
P= = 2.97 W
(0.2) × 5 × 10–3
(3) Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic
20. The coercivity of a small magnet where the energy density
ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 × 103 A m–1.
The current required to be passed in a solenoid of (4) Both electric and magnetic energy densities are
length 10 cm and number of turns 100, so that the zero
magnet gets demagnetized when inside the
solenoid, is Answer (3)

(1) 30 mA (2) 60 mA Sol. Energy is equally divided between electric and

(3) 3 A (4) 6 A magnetic field

(6)

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 ⎛ 3⎞ 25. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with
23. A thin convex lens made from crown glass ⎜ μ = ⎟ mutually perpendicular planes of polarization are
⎝ 2⎠
seen through a polaroid. From the position when the
has focal length f . When it is measured in two
beam A has maximum intensity (and beam B has
4 5 zero intensity), a rotation of polaroid through 30°
different liquids having refractive indices and ,
3 3 makes the two beams appear equally bright. If the
initial intensities of the two beams are IA and IB
it has the focal lengths f 1 and f 2 respectively. The
IA
correct relation between the focal lengths is respectively, then I equals
B
(1) f1 = f2 < f (1) 3
(2) f 1 > f and f 2 becomes negative 3
(2)
2
(3) f 2 > f and f 1 becomes negative
(3) 1
(4) f 1 and f 2 both become negative
1
(4)
Answer (2) 3
Sol. By Lens maker's formula Answer (4)

1 ⎛ 3/2 ⎞⎛ 1 1 ⎞ Sol. By law of Malus, I = I0cos2θ

=⎜ – 1⎟⎜ – ⎟
f 1 ⎝ 4/3 ⎠ ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠ Now, IA′ = IAcos230

1 ⎛ 3/2 ⎞⎛ 1 1 ⎞ IB′ = IBcos260

=⎜ – 1⎟⎜ – ⎟
f 2 ⎝ 5/3 ⎠ ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠ As IA′ = IB′

1 ⎛ 3 ⎞⎛ 1 1 ⎞ ⇒ 3 1
= ⎜ – 1⎟⎜ – ⎟ IA × = IB ×
f ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠ 4 4
⇒ f1 = 4f & f2 = –5f IA 1
=
24. A green light is incident from the water to the air - IB 3
water interface at the critical angle(θ). Select the 26. The radiation corresponding to 3→2 transition of
correct statement hydrogen atoms falls on a metal surface to produce
(1) The entire spectrum of visible light will come photoelectrons. These electrons are made to enter a
out of the water at an angle of 90° to the normal magnetic field of 3 × 10–4 T. If the radius of the
largest circular path followed by these electrons is
(2) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency
is less than that of green light will come out to 10.0 mm, the work function of the metal is close to
the air medium (1) 1.8 eV
(3) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency (2) 1.1 eV
is more than that of green light will come out to
the air medium (3) 0.8 eV
(4) The entire spectrum of visible light will come (4) 1.6 eV
out of the water at various angles to the normal
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
mv
1 Sol. r =
Sol. sin θc = µ
qB
air 2m eV
=
eB
θc Water
1 2m
= V
B e
For greater wavelength (i.e. lesser frequency) μ is less
So, θ c would be more. So, they will not suffer B2 r 2 e
⇒ V= = 0.8 V
reflection and come out at angles less then 90°. 2m

(7)

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 For transition between 3 to 2, 29. Match List-I (Electromagnetic wave type) with
⎛1 1⎞ List - II (Its association/application) and select the
E = 13.6 ⎜ − ⎟
⎝4 9⎠ correct option from the choices given below the lists :

13.6 × 5
= = 1.88 eV
36
(a) (i)
Work function = 1.88 eV – 0.8 eV
= 1.08 eV = 1.1 eV (b) (ii)
27. Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium (1H2), singly ionised (c) (iii)
Helium (2He4)+ and doubly ionised lithium (3Li6)++
all have one electron around the nucleus. Consider (d) (iv)
an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 1. If the wave
lengths of emitted radiation are λ1, λ2, λ3 and λ4
respectively then approximately which one of the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
following is correct?
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) 4λ1 = 2λ2 = 2λ3 = λ4
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) λ1 = 2λ2 = 2λ3 = λ4
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) λ1 = λ2 = 4λ3 = 9λ4
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) λ1 = 2λ2 = 3λ3 = 4λ4
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
Sol. (a) Infrared rays are used to treat muscular strain
1 2
⎡1 1⎤ (b) Radiowaves are used for broadcasting
Sol. λ = RZ ⎢ 2 – 2 ⎥
⎣⎢ n1 n ⎦⎥ (c) X-rays are used to detect fracture of bones

(d) Ultraviolet rays are absorbed by ozone

1
⇒ λ∝ for given n1 & n2 30. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote
Z2
it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he use to
⇒ λ1 = λ2 = 4λ3 = 9λ4 measure it?

28. The forward biased diode connection is (1) A meter scale

(2) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in

(1) +2 V –2 V
vernier scale matches with 9 division in main
scale and main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm
(2) –3 V –3 V
(3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the
circular scale and pitch as 1 mm
(3) 2 V 4V
(4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the
(4) –2 V +2 V circular scale and pitch as 1 mm

Answer (1) Answer (2)

Sol. As measured value is 3.50 cm, the least count must

be 0.01 cm = 0.1 mm
Sol.
For vernier scale with 1 MSD = 1 mm and
p n 9 MSD = 10 VSD,

For forward Bias, p-side must be at higher potential Least count = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
than n-side. = 0.1 mm

(8)

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 PART–B : CHEMISTRY

31. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the Answer (3)
valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is Sol.
1 1
(1) 5 , 0 , 0 , + (2) 5 , 1, 0 , + –
Cl Cl—
2 2 —
Cl
1 1 Cl–
(3) 5 , 1, 1, + (4) 5 , 0 , 1, +
2 2 +
Answer (1) Cs
Sol. 37 → 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p65s1
—
So last electron enters 5s orbital Cl –
Cl
— Cl
Cl
1
Hence n = 5, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = ±
2 2rCl − + 2rCs+ = 3 a
32. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals
equation at low pressure can be written as 3a
rCl − + rCs+ =
2
RT a
(1) Z = 1 + (2) Z = 1 – 34. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic
Pb VRT compound was digested by Kjeldahl method and the
Pb Pb M
(3) Z = 1 – (4) Z = 1 + evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of
RT RT 10
Answer (2) sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 20 mL
M
PV of sodium hydroxide for complete
Sol. Compressibility factor (Z) = 10
RT neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the
(For one mole of real gas) compound is
van der Waal equation (1) 6% (2) 10%
a (3) 3% (4) 5%
(P + )(V − b) = RT
V2 Answer (2)
At low pressure
Sol. As per question
V−b≈ V
Normality Volume
⎛ a ⎞
⎜P + 2 ⎟ V = RT N
⎝ V ⎠ H 2 SO 4 60mL
5
a N
PV + = RT NaOH 20mL
V 10
a (n geq )H2 SO 4 = (n geq )NaOH + (n geq )NH3
PV = RT −
V
1 60 1 20
× = × + (n geq )NH3
PV a 5 1000 10 1000
= 1−
RT VRT 6 1
= + (n geq )NH3
a 500 500
So, Z = 1 − 5 1
VRT
(n geq )NH3 = =
33. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lattice. If ‘a’ 500 100
is its edge length then which of the following 1
(n mol )N = (n mol )NH3 = (ngeq )NH3 =
expressions is correct? 100
3a 14
(1) rCs+ + rCl − = 3a (2) rCs+ + rCl − = (Mass)N = = 0.14 g
2 100
3 0.14
(3) r + + r − = a (4) rCs+ + rCl − = 3a Percentage of "N" = × 100 = 10%
Cs Cl 2 1.4

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35. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is Answer (1)
50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is
Sol. C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
1.4 S m–1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the
same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar conductivity of Bomb calorimeter gives ΔU of the reaction
0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol–1 is
So, as per question
(1) 5 × 10–4 (2) 5 × 10–3
(3) 5 × 103 (4) 5 × 102 ΔU = –1364.47 kJ mol–1
Answer (1) Δng = –1
Sol. For 0.2 M solution ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT
R = 50 Ω
1 × 8.314 × 298
σ = 1.4 S m–1 = 1.4 × 10–2 S cm–1 = −1364.47 −
1000
1 1 = –1366.93 kJ mol–1
⇒ ρ= = Ω cm
σ 1.4 × 10 −2
37. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at
Now, R = ρ
l concentration C and at infinite dilution are λC and
a λ∞, respectively. The correct relationship between λC
and λ∞ is given as
l R
⇒ = = 50 × 1.4 × 10 −2 (Where the constant B is positive)
a ρ
For 0.5 M solution (1) λ C = λ ∞ + (B)C (2) λ C = λ ∞ – (B)C
R = 280 Ω
σ=? (3) λ C = λ ∞ – (B) C (4) λ C = λ ∞ + (B) C

l Answer (3)
= 50 × 1.4 × 10 −2
a Sol. According to Debye Huckle onsager equation,
l
⇒ R =ρ λC = λ∞ − A C
a
Here A = B
1 1 l
⇒ = ×
ρ R a ∴ λC = λ∞ − B C
1 38. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq),
⇒ σ= × 50 × 1.4 × 10 −2
280 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and 0.125
M Na3PO 4(aq) at 25°C. Which statement is true
1
= × 70 × 10 −2 about these solutions, assuming all salts to be strong
280 electrolytes?
= 2.5 × 10–3 S cm–1
(1) They all have the same osmotic pressure.
σ× 1000
Now, λ m = (2) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic
M pressure.
2.5 × 10 −3 × 1000 (3) 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic
=
0.5 pressure.
= 5 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic
= 5 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 pressure.
36. For complete combustion of ethanol, Answer (1)
C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l), Sol. π = i CRT
the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb
calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol–1 at 25°C. Assuming πC2 H5OH = 1 × 0.500 × R × T = 0.5 RT
ideality the enthalpy of combustion, ΔcH, for the
πMg 3 (PO 4 )2 = 5 × 0.100 × R × T = 0.5 RT
reaction will be
(R = 8.314 kJ mol–1) π KBr = 2 × 0.250 × R × T = 0.5 RT
(1) –1366.95 kJ mol–1 (2) –1361.95 kJ mol–1
πNa3PO4 = 4 × 0.125 × RT = 0.5 RT
(3) –1460.50 kJ mol–1 (4) –1350.50 kJ mol–1

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 1 1.2 × 10–3 = k [0.1]x[0.2]y ...(ii)
39. For the reaction SO 2(g ) + O 2(g ) SO 3(g) , 2.4 × 10–3 = k [0.2]x[0.1]y ...(iii)
2
x
if K P = K C(RT) where the symbols have usual Dividing equation (i) by (ii)
meaning then the value of x is (assuming ideality)
1.2 × 10 −3 k[0.1]x [0.1]y
⇒ =
1 1.2 × 10 −3 k[0.1]x [0.2]y
(1) –1 (2) −
2 y
⎡1⎤
1 ⇒ 1=⎢ ⎥
(3) (4) 1 ⎣2⎦
2
Answer (2) ⇒ y=0
Now Dividing equation (i) by (iii)
1
Sol. SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)  SO 3 (g) 1.2 × 10 −3 k[0.1]x [0.1]y
2 =
⇒ 2.4 × 10 −3
KP = KC(RT)x k[0.2]x [0.1]y
1 x
x = Δn g = no. of gaseous moles in product ⎡1⎤ ⎡1⎤
⇒ ⎢⎣ 2 ⎥⎦ = ⎢⎣ 2 ⎥⎦
– no. of gaseous moles in reactant
⇒ x=1
⎛ 1⎞ 3 −1
= 1−⎜1+ ⎟ = 1− = d[C]
⎝ 2⎠ 2 2 Hence = k[A]1 [B]0 .
dt
40. For the non-stoichiometre reaction 2A + B → C + D, 41. Among the following oxoacids, the correct
the following kinetic data were obtained in three decreasing order of acid strength is
separate experiments, all at 298 K.
(1) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
Initial Initial Initial rate of
(2) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3
Concentration Concentration formation of C
(3) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
(A) (B) (mol L–1 s–1 )
(4) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl
0.1 M 0.1 M 1.2 × 10–3
Answer (3)
0.1 M 0.2 M 1.2 × 10–3
0.2 M 0.1 M  ClO −4 + H+
Sol. HClO 4 
2.4 × 10–3
The rate law for the formation of C is  ClO 3− + H+
HClO 3 
dC dC
(1) = k[A] [B] (2) = k[A]2 [B]  ClO −2 + H+
HClO 2 
dt dt
dC dC  ClO − + H+
(3) = k[A] [B]2 (4) = k[A] HOCl 
dt dt
Answer (4) Resonance produced conjugate base.

Sol. 2A + B ⎯⎯ –
→C + D O O O

Cl Cl Cl
−1 d[A] d[B] (i) O O
–
O O
–
O O
Rate of Reaction = =−
2 dt dt O O O
–
(ClO4 )
O
d[C] d[D]
= =
dt dt Cl
O O
–
Let rate of Reaction = k[A]x[B]y O
–
d[C] O O O
Or, = k[A]x [B]y
dt
Cl –
Cl Cl
Now from table, (ii) O O O
–
O O O
1.2 × 10–3 =k [0.1]x[0.1]y ...(i) –
(ClO3 )

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 –
So energy order is
O O
Red < Yellow < Green < Blue
Cl Cl
(iii) –
O O The complex absorbs lower energy light lower will
– be its strength. So order of ligand strength is
(ClO ) 2

L1 < L3 < L2 < L4

(iv) ClO– is not resonance stabilized.
44. Which one of the following properties is not shown
As per resonance stability order of conjugate base is by NO?
ClO −4 > ClO 3− > ClO 2− > ClO − (1) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state

Hence acidic strength order is (2) It is a neutral oxide

(3) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen
HClO 4 > HClO 3 > HClO 2 > HClO
dioxide
42. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of
(4) It's bond order is 2.5
an aqueous solution of its salts is
(1) Ag (2) Ca Answer (1)

(3) Cu (4) Cr Sol. Nitric oxide is paramagnetic in the gaseous state as

it has one unpaired electron in its outermost shell.
Answer (2)
The electronic configuration of NO is
Sol. On electrolysis only in case of Ca2+ salt aqueous 2 2 1
2 * σ2 σ* σ2 π2 2 *
solution H2 gas discharge at Cathode. σ 1s σ 1s 2 s 2 s 2 pz 2 px = π 2 p y π 2 px

Case of Cr However, it dimerises at low temperature to become

At cathode : Cr3+ + 2e– ⎯→ Cr diamagnetic.

So, Cr is deposited. 
2NO  N2 O2
Case of Ag Its bond order is 2.5 and it combines with O2 to give
At cathode : Ag+ + e– ⎯→ Ag nitrogen dioxide.
So, Ag is deposited.
Case of Cu 45. In which of the following reactions H2O2 acts as a
At cathode : Cu2+ + 2e– ⎯→ Cu reducing agent?

Case of Ca2+ (a) H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e– → 2H2O

(b) H2O2 – 2e– → O2 + 2H+
1
At cathode : H2O + e– ⎯→ H2 + OH– (c) H2O2 + 2e– → 2OH–
2
43. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with four (d) H2O2 + 2OH– – 2e– → O2 + 2H2O
monodentate ligands L 1, L 2 , L 3 and L 4 absorb (1) (a), (b) (2) (c), (d)
wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow and
blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand (3) (a), (c) (4) (b), (d)
strength of the four ligands is Answer (4)
(1) L4 < L3 < L2 < L1 (2) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4 Sol. The reducing agent oxidises itself.
(3) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1 (4) L1 < L2 < L4 < L3
(a) H 2 O −21 + 2H + + 2e − ⎯⎯
→ 2H 2 O −2
Answer (2)
0
Sol. (b) H 2 O 2−1 − 2e ⎯⎯
→ O 2 + 2H +
B
−2
V G (c) H O −1 + 2e ⎯⎯
2 2 → 2OH −
0
R Y (d) H 2 O −2 1 + 2OH − − 2e ⎯⎯
→ O 2 + H2 O
O
Note : Powers of 'O' are oxidation number of 'O' in
The energy of red light is less than that of violet
the compound.
light.
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46. The correct statement for the molecule, CsI3, is But ΔG°3 = −2FE°
(1) It is a covalent molecule
⇒ 5.38F = –2FE°
(2) It contains Cs+ and I –3 ions
⇒ E° = –2.69 V
(3) It contains Cs3+ and I– ions
As E° value is negative reaction is non spontaneous.
(4) It contains Cs+, I– and lattice I2 molecule
49. Which series of reactions correctly represents
Answer (2) chemical reactions related to iron and its
Sol. It contains Cs+ and I3– ions. compound?
47. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a dil.H 2 SO 4
(1) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ H 2 SO 4 ,O 2
→ FeSO 4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of
heat
number of their molecule is Fe 2 (SO 4 )3 ⎯⎯⎯ → Fe
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 7 : 32 O 2 ,heat
(2) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯ dil.H 2 SO 4
→ FeO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 3 : 16 heat
FeSO 4 ⎯⎯⎯ → Fe
Answer (2)
Cl 2 ,heat heat, air
Sol. Let the mass of O2 = x (3) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → FeCl 3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Zn
Mass of N2 = 4x FeCl 2 ⎯⎯→ Fe
x O 2 ,heat
(4) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯ CO,600ºC
→ Fe 3 O 4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
Number of moles of O2 =
32 CO ,700ºC
FeO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Fe
4x x
Number of moles of N2 = = Answer (4)
28 7
O2
x x Sol. Fe ⎯⎯⎯
Heat
→ Fe 3 O 4
∴ Ratio = : = 7 : 32
32 7 This reaction is corresponding to the combustion of
48. Given below are the half-cell reactions Fe.
Mn2+ + 2e– → Mn; E° = — 1.18 V CO
Fe O ⎯⎯⎯ CO
→ FeO ⎯⎯⎯ → Fe
600ºC 700ºC
(Mn3+ + e– → Mn2+); E° = + 1.51 V
These reactions correspond to the production of Fe
The E° for 3 Mn2+ → Mn + 2Mn3+ will be by reduction of Fe3O4 in blast furnace.
(1) –2.69 V; the reaction will not occur 50. The equation which is balanced and represents the
(2) –2.69 V; the reaction will occur correct product(s) is
(3) –0.33 V; the reaction will not occur (1) Li2O + 2KCl → 2LiCl + K2O
(4) –0.33 V; the reaction will occur (2) [CoCl(NH3)5]+ + 5H+ → Co2+ + 5NH4+ + Cl—
Answer (1) excess NaOH
(3) [Mg(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ + (EDTA) 4— ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
Sol. (1) Mn2+ + 2e → Mn; E° = –1.18V ; [Mg(EDTA)]2+ + 6H2O
(4) CuSO4 + 4KCN → K2[Cu(CN)4] + K2SO4
ΔG°1 = −2F( −1.18) = 2.36F
Answer (2)
(2) Mn3+ + e → Mn2+ ; E° = +1.51 V;
Sol. The complex
ΔG°2 = −F(1.51) = −1.51 F [CoCl(NH3)5]+ decomposes under acidic medium, so
[CoCl(NH3)5]+ + 5H+ → Co2+ + 5NH4+ + Cl—.
(1) – 2 × (2)
51. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for the
3Mn2+ → Mn + 2Mn3+ ; following compounds
CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is
ΔG°3 = ΔG°1 − 2 ΔG°2
(1) CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)3CCl
= [2.36 – 2(–1.51)] F (2) CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
= (2.36 + 3.02) F (3) CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
= 5.38 F (4) (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3CCl

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Answer (2) The major product C would be
Sol. Rate of SN2 reaction depends on steric crowding of
OCOCH3 OH
alkyl halide. So order is
CH3Cl > (CH3)CH2 – Cl > (CH3)2CH – Cl > (CH3)3CCl COOH COCH3
(1) (2)
52. On heating an aliphatic primary amine with
chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, the
COCH3
organic compound formed is OH OCOCH3
(1) An alkanol
COOCH3
(2) An alkanediol (3) (4)
COOH
(3) An alkyl cyanide
(4) An alkyl isocyanide Answer (1)
—
O O O
Answer (4) H O—
— O=C=O
CHCl /KOH
Sol. R – CH2 – NH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯3 → R– CH – NC Sol. C
C 2 H 5 OH 2
O
53. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of
R – CH2 – OH → R – CHO is OH OH
—
COOH COO
(1) KMnO4 (CH3CO)2O H +

(2) K2Cr2O7
(B)
(3) CrO3
OCOCH3
(4) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate) COOH
Answer (4)
Sol. PCC is mild oxidising agent, it will convert (C)
R − CH 2 − OH ⎯⎯
→ R − CHO 56. Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous
54. The major organic compound formed by the solution, which one has the smallest pKb value?
reaction of 1, 1, 1-trichloroethane with silver powder (1) (CH3)2NH
is (2) CH3NH2
(1) Acetylene (3) (CH3)3N
(2) Ethene (4) C6H5NH2
(3) 2-Butyne Answer (1)
(4) 2-Butene Sol. Among C6H5NH2, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH,
Answer (3) (CH3)3N . C6H5NH2 is least basic due to resonance.
+ +
Cl NH2 NH2 NH2
Ag
Sol. 2Cl—C—CH3 CH3C ≡ CCH3 + 6AgCl
Cl
1, 1, 1-trichloroethane
+
NH2 NH2
55. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2 under
pressure at 125°C yields a product which on
acetylation produces C.

— ONa 125° H
+ Out of (CH3)3N, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH . (CH3)2NH is
+ CO2 B C most basic due to +I effect and hydrogen bonding in
5 Atm Ac2O
H2O.

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 +I effect
CH3 HOOC COOH + HO—CH2—CH2—OH

H3C H —CO CH2—CH2—O—

+I effect
n
O Dacron
Hydrogen H H Acrylonitrile, Neoprene and Teflon are addition
bonding polymers of acrylonitrile, isoprene and tetrafluoro
57. For which of the following molecule significant ethylene respectively.
μ ≠ 0?
59. Which one of the following bases is not present in
Cl CN DNA?
(1) Quinoline
(a) (b)
(2) Adenine
Cl CN (3) Cytosine
(4) Thymine
OH SH
Answer (1)
(c) (d)
Sol. DNA contains ATGC bases

OH SH A – Adenine

(1) Only (a)] (2) (a) and (b) T – Thymine

(3) Only (c) (4) (c) and (d) G – Guanine
Answer (4) C – Cytocine

Cl CN So quinoline is not present.

60. In the reaction,
Sol. (a) (b) LiAlH PCl
Alc.KOH
CH 3 COOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯
4
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
5
→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → C,
Cl CN the product C is
μ=0 μ=0
(1) Acetaldehyde
H H (2) Acetylene
O S
(3) Ethylene
(4) Acetyl chloride
(c) (d)
H Answer (3)
O S H
Sol. Ethylene
μ≠0 μ≠0 LiAlH4
CH3COOH CH3CH2OH 'A'
58. Which one is classified as a condensation polymer?
(1) Dacron (2) Neoprene PCl5

(3) Teflon (4) Acrylonitrile

CH3CH2Cl 'B'
Answer (1)
Alc. KOH
Sol. Dacron is polyester formed by condensation
polymerisation of terephthalic acid and ethylene CH2 = CH2 'C'
glycol.

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 PART–C : MATHEMATICS

61. If X = {4n – 3n – 1 : n ∈ N} and Y = {9(n – 1) : n ∈ N}, 63. If a ∈ R and the equation

where N is the set of natural numbers, then X ∪ Y is
equal to –3(x – [x])2 + 2 (x – [x]) + a2 = 0

(1) X (2) Y (where [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x) has no

(3) N (4) Y – X integral solution, then all possible values of a lie in
the interval
Answer (2)
(1) (–2, –1)
Sol. X = {(1 + 3)n − 3n − 1, n ∈ N }
(2) (–∞, – 2) ∪ (2, ∞)
= 32 ( n C 2 + nC 3 .3 + ... + 3n − 2 ), n ∈N }
(3) (–1, 0) ∪ (0, 1)
= {Divisible by 9}
(4) (1, 2)
Y = {9(n – 1), n ∈ N}
= (All multiples of 9} Answer (3)

So, X ⊆ Y Sol. –3(x – [x])2 + 2[x – [x]) + a2 = 0

3 {x}2 – 2{x} – a2 = 0
i.e., X ∪ Y = Y
62. If z is a complex number such that |z| ≥ 2, then ⎛ 2 ⎞
a ≠ 0, 3 ⎜ { x} 2 − { x} ⎟ = a2
⎝ 3 ⎠
1
the minimum value of z + ⎛ 1⎞ 1
2
2 a 2 = 3 ⎜ { x} − ⎟ −
⎝ 3⎠ 3
5
(1) Is strictly greater than 1 1 2
2 0 ≤ { x} < 1 and − ≤ { x} − <
3 3 3
3 5
(2) Is strictly greater than but less than 2
2 2 ⎛ 1⎞ 4
0 ≤ 3 ⎜ { x} − ⎟ <
5 ⎝ 3⎠ 3
(3) Is equal to
2 1 ⎛ 1⎞ 1
2

(4) Lies in the interval (1, 2) − ≤ 3 ⎜ { x} − ⎟ − < 1

3 ⎝ 3⎠ 3
Answer (4)
For non-integral solution
Sol.
0 < a2 < 1 and a ∈(–1, 0) ∪ (0, 1)
Alternative
–3{x}2 + 2{x} + a2 = 0
1 Now, –3{x}2 + 2{x}
−
2

1
z+
2
1
2/3
1 1
So, | z| − ≤ z+ 1
2 2
1 1
⇒ z+ ≥ 2−
2 2
to have no integral roots 0 < a2 < 1
3
⇒ zmin. = ∴ a∈(–1, 0) ∪ (0, 1)
2
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64. Let α and β be the roots of equation Answer (1)
px2 + qx + r = 0, p ≠ 0. If p, q, r are in A.P. and
1 1 1+ 1+ 1 1+ α +β 1 + α2 + β2
+ = 4 , then the value of |α – β| is
α β Sol. 1+ α +β 1 + α2 + β2 1 + α3 + β3
34 2 13 1 + α2 + β2 1 + α3 + β3 1+ α4 + β4
(1) (2) 2
9 9 1 1 1 1 α α
61 2 17 = α β 1 × 1 β β2
(3) (4)
9 9 α2 β2 1 1 1 1
Answer (2) = [(1 – α)(1 – β)(1 – β)]2
Sol. So, k = 1
∵ p, q, r are in AP 66. If A is an 3 × 3 non-singular matrix such that
2q = p + r ...(i)
AA′ = A′A and B = A−1 A′ , then BB′ equals
1 1
Also + = 4 (1) B–1 (2) ( B−1 )′
α β
α +β (3) I + B (4) I
⇒ =4
αβ
Answer (4)
q
–
p Sol. BB ' = ( A−1 .A ')( A( A−1 )')
= = 4 ⇒ q = –4r
r ...(ii)
= A–1.A.A'.(A–1)1 {as AA' = A'A}
p
= I(A–1A)'
From (i)
= I.I = I2 = I
2(–4r) = p + r
67. If the coefficients of x3 and x4 in the expansion of
p = – 9r
(1 + ax + bx2) (1 – 2x)18 in powers of x are both zero,
q = – 4r then (a, b) is equal to
r=r
⎛ 272 ⎞ ⎛ 272 ⎞
Now |α – β|= (α + β)2 – 4αβ (1) ⎜ 14, ⎟ (2) ⎜ 16, ⎟
⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠
2
⎛ –q ⎞ 4r
= ⎜ ⎟ – ⎛ 251 ⎞ ⎛ 251 ⎞
⎝ p ⎠ p (3) ⎜ 16, ⎟ (4) ⎜ 14, ⎟
⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠
q 2 – 4 pr Answer (2)
=
| p| Sol. (1 + ax + bx2) (1 – 2x)18
16r 2 + 36r 2 (1 + ax + bx2)[18C0 – 18C (2x) + 18C (2x)2 –
= 1 2
|–9r | 18C (2x)3 + 18C (2x)4 – .......]
3 4

2 13 Coeff. of x3 = –18C3.8 + a × 4.18C2 – 2b × 18 = 0

=
9
18 × 17 × 16 4 a + 18 × 17
65. If α, β ≠ 0, and f(n) = αn + βn and = − .8 + − 36b = 0
6 2
3 1 + f (1) 1 + f (2)
= –51 × 16 × 8 + a × 36 × 17 – 36b = 0
1 + f (1) 1 + f (2) 1 + f (3)
= –34 × 16 + 51a – 3b = 0
1 + f (2) 1 + f (3) 1 + f (4)
= 51a – 3b = 34 × 16 = 544
= K(1 – α)2 (1 – β)2 (α – β)2, then K is equal to
= 51a – 3b = 544 ... (i)
(1) 1 (2) –1
Only option number (2) satisfies the equation
1
(3) αβ (4) number (i).
αβ
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68. If (10)9 + 2(11)1 (10)8 + 3(11)2 (10)7+ ... + 10(11)9 = sin( π cos 2 x )
k(10)9, then k is equal to 70. lim is equal to
x →0 x2
(1) 100 (2) 110 (1) –π (2) π

121 441 π
(3) (4) (3) (4) 1
10 100 2
Answer (1) Answer (2)
Sol. 109 + 2⋅(11)(10)8 + 3(11)2(10)7 +... + 10(11)9 = k(10)9 sin( π cos 2 x )
Sol. lim
x= 109 + 2⋅(11)(10)8 + 3(11)2(10)7+ ... +10(11)9 x →0 x2
11
x = 11⋅108 + 2⋅(11)2⋅(10)7 +... + 9(11)9 + 1110 sin( π(1 – sin 2 x )
= lim
10 x →0 x2
( π – π sin 2 x )
= lim sin
⎛ 11 ⎞ x →0 x2
x⎜1 − ⎟ = 109 + 11(10)8 + 112×(10)7 +... +119 – 1110
⎝ 10 ⎠ ( π sin 2 x )
= lim sin [∵ sin( π − θ) = sin θ]
⎛ ⎛ 11 ⎞10 ⎞ x →0 x2
⎜⎜ ⎟ − 1⎟
x 10 ( π sin 2 x ) π sin 2 x
⇒ − = 109 ⎜ ⎝ ⎠ ⎟ − 1110 = lim sin ×
10 ⎜ 11 ⎟ x →0 ( π sin 2 x ) x2
⎜⎜ −1 ⎟
10 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ 2
⎛ sin x ⎞
x = lim 1 × π ⎜ ⎟ =π
⇒ − = (1110 − 1010 ) − 1110 = − 10 10 x →0 ⎝ x ⎠
10
⇒ x = 1011 = k⋅109 1
71. If g is the inverse of a function f and f '( x ) = ,
⇒ k = 100 1 + x5
then g′(x) is equal to
69. Three positive numbers form an increasing G.P. If
the middle term in this G.P. is doubled, the new 1
(2) 1 + {g(x)}5
1 + { g( x )}
(1) 5
numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of the
G.P. is
(3) 1 + x5 (4) 5x 4
(1) 2 − 3 (2) 2 + 3 Answer (2)
(3) 2+ 3 (4) 3 + 2 1
Sol. f '( x ) = = f ( g( x )) = x → f '( g( x )) g '( x ) = 1
Answer (2) 1 + x5

Sol. a, ar, ar2 → G.P. 1

g '( x ) = = 1 + ( g( x ))5
f '( g( x ))
a, 2ar, ar2 → A.P.
72. If f and g are differentiable functions in [0, 1]
2 × 2ar = a + ar2
satisfying f(0) = 2 = g(1), g(0) = 0 and f(1) = 6, then
4r = 1 + r2 for some c ∈]0, 1[
⇒ r2 – 4r + 1 = 0 (1) f ′(c) = g′(c) (2) f ′(c) = 2g′(c)
(3) 2f ′(c) = g′(c) (4) 2f ′(c) = 3g′(c)
4 ± 16 − 4
r= =2± 3
2 Answer (2)
Sol. Using, mean value theorem
r =2+ 3
f (1) − f (0)
f '(c ) = =4
1−0
r = 2 − 3 is rejected
g(1) − g(0)
∵ (r > 1) g '(c ) = =2
1−0
G.P. is increasing.
so, f '(c ) = 2 g '(c )

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73. If x = –1 and x = 2 are extreme points of Answer (2)
2
f ( x ) = α log|x|+βx + x then π
x x
Sol. ∫ 1 + 4 sin 2 − 4 sin dx
0
2 2
1 1
(1) α = 2, β = − (2) α = 2, β =
2 2 ⎡ x 1 ⎤
⎢sin 2 = 2 ⎥
π ⎢ ⎥
1 1 x ⎢⇒ x = π → x = π ⎥
(3) α = −6, β = (4) α = −6, β = − = ∫ 2 sin − 1 dx
2 2 2 ⎢ 2 6 3⎥
0 ⎢ x 5π
⎢ = 5π ⎥⎥
Answer (1) →x=
⎣⎢ 2 6 3 ⎦⎥
Sol. f ( x ) = α log|x|+βx 2 + x π/3 π
⎛ x⎞ ⎛ x ⎞
= ∫ ⎜ 1 − 2 sin ⎟ dx + ∫
⎝ 2⎠
⎜ 2 sin − 1 ⎟ dx
⎝ 2 ⎠
α 0 π/3
f ′( x ) = + 2β x + 1 = 0 at x = –1, 2
x x⎤
π /3
x
π
⎡ ⎡ ⎤
= ⎢ x + 4 cos ⎥ + ⎢ −4 cos − x ⎥
−α − 2β + 1 = 0 ⇒ α + 2β = 1 ...(i) ⎣ 2 ⎦0 ⎣ 2 ⎦ π/3

α π 3 ⎛ 3 π⎞
+ 4β + 1 = 0 ⇒ α + 8β = −2 ...(ii) = +4 − 4 + ⎜⎜ 0 − π + 4 + ⎟⎟
2 3 2 ⎝ 2 3⎠

1 π
6β = −3 ⇒ β = − = 4 3−4−
2 3
∴ α=2 76. The area of the region described by
A = {(x, y) : x2 + y2 ≤ 1 and y2 ≤ 1 – x} is
1
⎛ 1 ⎞ x+ π 2 π 2
74. The integral ∫ ⎜ 1 + x − ⎟ e x dx is equal to (1) − (2) +
⎝ x⎠ 2 3 2 3

1 1 π 4 π 4
(1) ( x + 1) e x + x + c (2) − x e x + x + c (3) + (4) −
2 3 2 3

1 1 Answer (3)
(3) ( x − 1) e x + x + c (4) x e x + x + c Sol.

Answer (4)

⎧ ⎛⎜ x + 1 ⎞⎟ 1
1⎫
⎪ ⎝ x⎠ ⎛ ⎞ x+ x ⎪
Sol. I = ∫ ⎨e + x⎜1− 2
⎝ x
⎟
⎠
e ⎬ dx
⎪⎩ ⎪⎭
2 2
1 x +y =1
x+
= x.e x +c
Shaded area
As ∫ ( xf '( x ) + f ( x ))dx = xf ( x ) + c
1
π(1)2
75. The integral =
2
+2 ∫0
(1 − x ) dx

π
x x 1
∫ 1 + 4 sin 2 − 4 sin dx equals π 2(1 − x )3/2
0
2 2 = + ( −1)
2 3/2
0

π π 4
(1) 4 3 − 4 (2) 4 3 − 4 − = + (0 − ( −1))
3 2 3

2π
π 4
−4−4 3 = +
(3) π – 4 (4) 2 3
3

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77. Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time t be 79. Let a, b, c and d be non-zero numbers. If the point of
governed by the differential equation intersection of the lines 4ax + 2ay + c = 0 and
5bx + 2by + d = 0 lies in the fourth quadrant and is
dp(t ) 1
= p(t ) − 200 . If p(0) = 100, then p(t) equals equidistant from the two axes then
dt 2
(1) 3bc – 2ad = 0
(1) 600 – 500 et/2
(2) 3bc + 2ad = 0
(2) 400 – 300 e–t/2
(3) 400 – 300 et/2 (3) 2bc – 3ad = 0

(4) 300 – 200 e–t/2 (4) 2bc + 3ad = 0

Answer (3) Answer (1)
dp(t ) 1 Sol. Let (α, -α) be the point of intersection
Sol. = p(t ) − 200
dt 2
c
d( p(t )) ∴ 4aα – 2aα + c = 0 ⇒ α=−
∫⎛1 ⎞ ∫
= dt 2a
⎜ p ( t ) − 200 ⎟
⎝2 ⎠ and 5bα – 2bα + d = 0 ⇒ α = −
d
⎛ p(t ) ⎞ 3b
2 log ⎜ − 200 ⎟ = t + c
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⇒ 3bc = 2ad
t
p(t ) ⇒ 3bc – 2ad = 0
− 200 = e2k
2
Using given condition p(t) = 400 – 300 et/2 Alternative method :

78. Let PS be the median of the triangle with vertices The point of intersection will be
P(2, 2), Q(6, –1) and R (7, 3). The equation of the line
passing through (1, –1) and parallel to PS is x –y 1
= =
2 ad – 2 bc 4 ad – 5bc 8 ab – 10 ab
(1) 4x + 7y + 3 = 0 (2) 2x – 9y – 11 = 0
2( ad – bc )
(3) 4x – 7y – 11 = 0 (4) 2x + 9y + 7 = 0 ⇒ x=
–2 ab
Answer (4)
5bc – 4 ad
⇒ y=
Sol. –2 ab
P(2,2)
∵ Point of intersection is in fourth quadrant so x
is positive and y is negative.

Also distance from axes is same

So x = – y (∵ distance from x-axis is – y as y is

negative)
Q(6,– 1) S R(7,3)

S is mid-point of QR

⎛7 +6 3–1⎞
So S = ⎜ , ⎟
⎝ 2 2 ⎠
⎛ 13 ⎞
= ⎜ , 1⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠ (x, y)

2–1 2 2( ad – bc ) –(5bc – 4 ad )
Slope of PS = =– =
13 9
2– –2 ab –2 ab
2
2
Equation of line ⇒ y – (–1) = – ( x – 1) 2ad – 2bc = – 5bc + 4ad
9
9y + 9 = – 2x + 2 ⇒ 2x + 9y + 7 = 0 ⇒ 3bc – 2ad = 0 ...(i)

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80. The locus of the foot of perpendicular drawn from If y > 0,
the centre of the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 6 on any tangent y2 + 2 – 2y = y2 + 1 + 2y
to it is ⇒ 4y = 1
(1) (x2 + y2)2 = 6x2 + 2y2 1
⇒ y=
(2) (x2 + y2)2 = 6x2 – 2y2 4
If y < 0,
(3) (x2 – y2)2 = 6x2 + 2y2
y2 + 2 – 2y = y2 + 1 – 2y
(4) (x2 – y2)2 = 6x2 – 2y2 ⇒ 1 = 2 (Not possible)
Answer (1) 1
∴ y=
x2 y2 4
Sol. Here ellipse is + = 1 , where a2 = 6, b2 = 2 82. The slope of the line touching both the parabolas
a2 b2 y2 = 4x and x2 = –32y is
Now, equation of any variable tangent is
1 2
(1) (2)
y = mx ± a2 m2 + b 2 ...(i) 8 3
1 3
where m is slope of the tangent (3) (4)
2 2
So, equation of perpendicular line drawn from Answer (3)
centre to tangent is
Sol. y2 = 4x …(1)
−x 2
x = –32y …(2)
y= ...(ii)
m m be slope of common tangent
Eliminating m, we get Equation of tangent (1)

( x 2 + y 2 )2 = a2 x 2 + b 2 y 2 1
y = mx + …(i)
m
⇒ ( x 2 + y 2 )2 = 6 x 2 + 2 y 2 Equation of tangent (2)
y = mx + 8m2 …(ii)
81. Let C be the circle with centre at (1, 1) and radius = 1.
If T is the circle centred at (0, y), passing through (i) and (ii) are identical
origin and touching the circle C externally, then the 1
radius of T is equal to = 8m2
m
1
1 1 ⇒ m3 =
(1) (2) 8
2 4
1
m=
3 3 2
(3) (4) Alternative method :
2 2

Answer (2) Let tangent to y 2 = 4x be

Sol. 1
C y = mx +
m
as this is also tangent to x 2 = −32 y
(1, 1)
(0, y)
2 32
T Solving x + 32mx + =0
m
Since roots are equal
∴ D=0

C ≡ ( x − 1)2 + ( y − 1)2 = 1 2 32
⇒ (32) − 4 × =0
m
Radius of T = |y|
3 4
T touches C externally ⇒ m =
32
(0 – 1)2 + (y – 1)2 = (1 + |y|)2
1
⇒ 1 + y2 + 1 – 2y = 1 + y2 + 2|y| ⇒ m=
2
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83. The image of the line 84. The angle between the lines whose direction
consines satisfy the equations l + m + n = 0 and
x−1 y−3 z−4 l2 = m2 + n2 is
= = in the plane 2x – y + z + 3 = 0
3 1 −5 π π
(1) (2)
is the line 6 2
π π
x−3 y+5 z−2 (3) (4)
(1) = = 3 4
3 1 −5
Answer (3)
x−3 y+5 z−2 Sol. l + m + n = 0
(2) = = l2 = m2 + n2
−3 −1 5
Now, (–m – n)2 = m2 + n2
x+3 y−5 z−2 ⇒ mn = 0
(3) = =
3 1 −5 m = 0 or n = 0
If m = 0 If n = 0
x+3 y−5 z+2
(4) = = then l = –n then l = –m
−3 −1 5
l2 + m2 + n2 =1 l2 + m2 + n2 = 1
Answer (3) Gives ⇒ 2m2 = 1
1 1
⇒ n=±
2
⇒ m =
A (1,3, 4) 2 2
Sol.
1
3iˆ + ˆj + kˆ i.e. (l1, m1, n1) ⇒ m=±
2
⎛ 1 1 ⎞ 1
= ⎜− , 0, ⎟ Let m =
P ⎝ 2 2⎠ 2
1
3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ l=−
A′ 2
(a, b, c) n=0
(l2, m2, n2)
⎛ 1 1 ⎞
a−1 b−3 c−4 = ⎜− , ,0⎟
= = =λ ⎝ 2 2 ⎠
2 −1 1
1
∴ cos θ =
⇒ a = 2λ + 1 2
b=3–λ π
θ=
c=4+λ 3
      2
⎛ λ λ⎞ 85. If ⎡⎣ a × b b × c c × a ⎤⎦ = λ[ a b c ] then λ is equal to
P ≡ ⎜ λ + 1, 3 − , 4 + ⎟
⎝ 2 2⎠ (1) 0 (2) 1
⎛ λ⎞ ⎛ λ⎞ (3) 2 (4) 3
2( λ + 1) − ⎜ 3 − ⎟ + ⎜ 4 + ⎟ + 3 = 0
⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 2⎠ Answer (2)
Sol. L.H.S.
λ λ    
2λ + 2 − 3 + +4+ +3 = 0
2 2 = ( a × b ) ⋅ [(b × c ) × (c × a )]
        
3λ + 6 = 0 ⇒ λ = – 2 = ( a × b ) ⋅ [(b × c ⋅ a )c – (b × c ⋅ c )a ]
     
a = – 3, b = 5, c = 2 = ( a × b ) ⋅ [[b c a ]c ] [∵ b × c . c = 0]
So the equation of the required line is = [ a b c ] ⋅ ( a × b ⋅ c ) = [ a b c ]2
     
x+3 y−5 z−2 [ a × b b × c c × a ] = [ a b c ]2
= =
3 1 −5 So λ = 1

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86. Let A and B be two events such that Answer (2)
1 1 1 1
P( A ∪ B) = , P( A ∩ B) = and P( A) = , where k k
6 4 4 Sol. f k ( x ) = (sin x + cos x )
k
A stands for the complement of the event A. Then 1 1
the events A and B are f 4 (x) − f6 (x) = (sin 4 x + cos 4 x ) − (sin 6 x + cos 6 x )
4 6
(1) Independent but not equally likely
1[ 1
(2) Independent and equally likely = 1 − 2 sin 2 x cos 2 x ] − [ 1 − 3 sin 2 x cos 2 x ]
4 6
(3) Mutually exclusive and independent
1 1 1
(4) Equally likely but not independent = − =
Answer (1) 4 6 12
89. A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20 m
1 1 5 high and its elevation from a point O on the ground
Sol. P( A ∪ B) =⇒ P( A ∪ B) = 1 – =
6 6 6 is 45°. It flies off horizontally straight away from the
1 1 3 point O. After one second, the elevation of the bird
P( A) = ⇒ P( A) = 1 – =
4 4 4 from O is reduced to 30°. Then the speed (in m/s)
∵ P( A ∪ B) = P( A) + P( B) – P( A ∩ B) of the bird is

5 3
= + P ( B) –
1 (1) 20 2 (2) 20 ( 3 −1 )
6 4 4
1
(3) 40 ( 2 −1 ) (4) 40 ( 3− 2 )
P( B) =
3 Answer (2)
∵ P(A) ≠ P(B) so they are not equally likely. Sol. A B
3 1 1
Also P(A) × P(B) = × =
4 3 4
= P(A ∩ B)
45° 20 20
∵ P( A ∩ B) = P( A) ⋅ P( B) so A & B are independent. 30°
87. The variance of first 50 even natural numbers is x y
437
(1) 437 (2) t=1s
4
20
833 From figure tan 45° =
(3) (4) 833 x
4
Answer (4) 20
and tan 30° =
x+y
Σxi2
Sol. Variance = − ( x )2 so, y = 20( 3 − 1)
N
2
2 2 2 + 4 2 + ... + 100 2 ⎛ 2 + 4 + ... + 100 ⎞ i.e., speed = 20( 3 − 1) m/s.
⇒ σ = −⎜ ⎟
50 ⎝ 50 ⎠ 90. The statement ~(p ↔ ~q) is
2 2 2 2
4(1 + 2 + 3 + .... + 50 ) (1) A tautology
= − (51)2
50 (2) A fallacy
⎛ 50 × 51 × 101 ⎞ 2 (3) Equivalent to p ↔ q
= 4⎜ ⎟ − (51)
⎝ 50 × 6 ⎠ (4) Equivalent to ~ p ↔ q
= 3434 – 2601 Answer (3)
⇒ σ = 833
2
Sol. ~(p ↔ ~ q)
1 p q ~q p ↔ ~q ~ (p ↔ ~q)
k k
88. Let f k ( x ) = (sin x + cos x ) where x ∈ R and k ≥ 1 . F F T F
k T
Then f4(x) – f6(x) equals F T F T F
1 1 T F T T F
(1) (2)
4 12
T T F F T
1 1
(3) (4) Clearly equivalent to p ↔ q
6 3
  
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