1.

Which of the following is combined with amoxicillin to prevent inactivation by the beta-
A. Cilastatin
B. Clavulanicacid
C. Tazobactam
D. Sulbactam

2. Which of the following adverse effects is associated with

A. Arthropathy
B. Grey baby syndrome
C. Red neck syndrome
D. Steven-Johnson syndrome Steven-Johnson

3. Which of the following statements is associated with cefixime

A. Interferes with translocation process of protein synthesis
B. Greater coverage for gram (+) than gram (-) organism
C. Cleared via the renal route
D. Concentration-dependent killing activity

4. With which route of administration is gentamycin

A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Rectal
D. A and B only
E. All of the above

5. A 25-year-old nulligravid complained of lower abdominal pain for I week. On ultrasound, the
impression was tuba-ovarian abscess. What is the drug-of-choice
A. Cefotetan
C. Clindamycin
B. Cefmetazole
D. None of the above

6. Which statement is NOT TRUF about Sulfadiazine?

A. Bacteriostatic
B. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase
C. P.aeruginosa intrinsically sensitive
D. Poor coverage against anaerobes

7. Which of the following achieves high concentration in the lungs?

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Norfloxacin
D. Sparfloxacin

8. A 23-year-old female with multiple sexual partners was diagnosed to have gonorrhea
infection. Which of the following is most preferred for this problem?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Doxycycline
C. Levofloxacin
D. Spectinomycin

9. Which of the following medications is absolutely renal insufficiency?

A. Cefuroxime
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Imipenem
D. Nitrofurantoin

10. Which of the following drug/s is are bacteriostatic?

A. Rifampicin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Clindamycin
E. All of the above

11. Which drug is effective vs. melfoquine-resistant malaria?

A. Chloroquine
B. Halofantrine
C. sulfadoxin
D. non

12. A patient with diarrhea was noted to have E. histolytica in his stool exam. Which of the following is the
drug of choice ?
A. Mebendazone
B. Metronidazole
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Pentamidine

13. Which of the following is TRUE for ivermectin?

A. Drug of choice for ascariasis
B. Muscle pain, hypotension and edema are common side effects
C. Causes muscle paralysis in nematodes by acting on GABA receptors
D. All of the above

14. Which of the following drug/s is/are used in the treatment roundworm infection
A. Albendazole
B. Mebendazole
C. Pyrantelpamoae
D. All of the above

15. A 35-year-old female complaining of vaginal discharge was diagnosed to have Trichomonas
vaginalis infection. Which agent is the drug of choice?
A. Doxycycline
B. Mebendazole
C. Metronidazole
D. Sulfadoxine

16. A 25 y/o woman consulted due to genital burning pain for the past 2 days which
becomes worse n urination. Physical examination revealed multiple blisters and ulcerative
lesions in the vaginal area. What agent will be the drug of choice for this case?
A. Acyclovir
B. Foscarnet
C. Oseltamivir
D. Rib virin

17. Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by

A. DNA polymerase
B. Phosphotransferase
C. RNA polymerase
D. Thymidinekinase

18. An adult on anti-TB treatment for 2 months complained of visual disturbance. You are
considering retrobulbar neuritis. Which of the following agents could have caused this?
A. Rifampicin
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethambutol

19. Which of the following steps of the is most likely inhibited by enfuvirtide?
A. Entry
B. Translation
C. Transcription
D. Proteolytic cleavage

20. Which regimen is recommended to a DM Il patient who is newly diagnosed to have pulmonary TB?
A. 2HRZE/4HR
B. 2HR/4HRE
C. 2HRZE/IHRZE/5HRE
D. None of the above

21. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding cyclophosphamide

A. Classified as nitrosurea
B. Major site of alkylation is at N7 guanine
C. Administered with folinic acid
D. All of the above

22. Which of the following is associated with capecitabine?

A. Adeoxycytidine analog
B. Inhibits thymidylate synthase
C. Co-administered with Mesna
D. None of the above

23. Which of the following agents is administered with Adriamycin which provides rescue
against its adverse effects?
A. Dexrazoxane
B. Folinicacid
C. Mesna
D. Sodium bicarbonate
24. Which of the following is TRUE regarding meperidine?
A. Has atropine-like activity
B. Decrease activity of pupillary constrictor muscles
C. Chemically related to fentanyl
D. All

25. Which drug can be used in treatment program for opioid addicts? This drug can block the
Effect of heroin for 48 hours ?
A. Amphetamine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Naloxone
D. Naltrexone

26. Which of the following is the BEST drug to control severe anxiety attack?
A Paroxetene
B. Diazepam
C. ?
D. ?

27. Which antidepressant is structurally related to amphetamines?

A. trazodone
B. escitalopram
C. bupropion
D. pheneizid

28. Why is citaloprarn first line agent Of Choice in the management of PTSD?
A. anxiolytic effects occur immediately
B. it has the best safety profile
C. has a strong sedative effect
D. does not diminish sex drive

29. Which of the following effects may be expected with the use of clozapine in the treatment of
schizophrenia?
A. relieve hallucinations and delusions
B. worsen and increase occurrence of avolition
C. increased occurrence of dystonia
D. all of the above

30. Which of the following mechanisms is associated with Thioridazine

A. reverse nigrostriatal 02 receptor blockade
B. D2 receptor blockade greater than 5HT2A
C. partial agonist to 5HTIA receptor
D. low D2:5HT2A blocking ratio

31. Which of the following agents can be used in the treatment of mania?
A. aripiprazole
B. olanzapine
C. lithium
D. All of the above
32. Which statement is CORRECT regarding buspirone?
A. has anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant activity
B. withdrawal symptoms can be expected upon withdrawal after chronic use
C. partial agonist at 5-HTIA receptors
D. useful in the treatment of acute anxiety attack

33. Which of the following is the least choice in the management insomnia
A. Diazepam
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Phenobarbital
D. Zolpidem

34. Which of the following is the drug of choice for absence seizure?
A. carbamazepine
B. ethosuximide
C. phenytoin
D. topiramate

35. What is the PRIMARY mechanism of Topiramate?

A. blocks neuronal voltage-gated sodium channels
B. increases GABA effects
C. inhibition of glutamate via AMPA receptors
D. inhibition of glutamate via NMDA receptors

36. Classic symptoms of parkinsonism like bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremors result from:
A. Inhibition of the thalamus from globus pallidus interna
B. Inhibition of the globus pallidus externa
C. Decrease Ach secretion
D. Increase dopamine secretion in the substancia nigra

37. A non-ergot dopamine agonist that has preferential affinity to D2 receptor:

A. Bromocriptine
B. Pramipexole
C. Pergolide
D. Ropinorole
38. Mr. VN, 62 years old, diagnosed with Parkinson's disease was maintained on Levodopa for
2 years. He later developed end-of-dose akinesia & fluctuations response. This is secondary to:
A. A progressive loss of dopaminergic nigrostriatal neurons
B. Failure of drug attachment to active neuronal receptors
C. Extra cerebral metabolism of the drug
D. Neuronal receptors developing resistance

39. Mr. TG, 67 years Old. has been having difficulty in walking and Was observed to have shaking of his
hands even if he is not doing anything. He Was diagnosed to have Parkinson's disease. This disease is said
to be primarily due to the deficiency Of
A. GABAnergic neurons
B. Cholinergic neurons
C. Dopaminergic neurons
D. Adrenergic neurons
40. Mr. TG should be started with this drug:
A. Levodopa
B. Carbidopa
C. Pramipexole
D. Amantadine

41 an 80-year-old woman was noted to have manic symptoms accompanied with memory loss. She can
be started in this medication to minimize her manic episodes: Diagnosis: Alzheimers
A. Haloperidol
B. Trihexyphenidyl
C. Donezepil
D. Pegrolide

42. This characterizes Parkinson's disease:

A. Lewy bodies
B. Amyloid plaques
C. Microfibrillary tangles
D. Deficient cholinergic neurons

43. WT, an 80-year-old female, is with Alzheimer's disease. This glutamate inhibitor can be given:
A. Memantine
B. Donezepil
C. Gallantamine
D. Tacrine

44. Which of the following is a COMT inhibitor?

A. Bromocriptine
B. Selegiline
C. pramipexole
D. Entecapone

45. This drug potentiates the synthesis, release, & prevents reuptake of dopamine:
A. Levodopa
B. Selegiline
C. Amantadine
D. Entecapone

46. Stalvox is a combination of:

A. Levodopa, Carbidopa, Selegiline
B. Levodopa, Entecapone, Amantadine
C. Levodopa, Carbidopa, Entecapone
D. Levodopa, Brinerdin, Pramipexole

47. PCB is a TRI-JE environmental toxin because it

A. is destroyed only by high temperatures
B. persist in soil and seabed
C. takes several months for 100% renal clearance
D. A and B
48. A man is found unconscious in an enclosed space in the garage. If this is a toxicology case,
what is a MAIN feature of the most likely poison?
A. It is a common ingredient of plastics (PCB and Lead)
B. The most likely route of exposure is transdermal (Organophosphate: Transdermal, inhalational, oral)
C. The toxin is colorless and odorless (Carbon monoxide)
D. The poison exposure is likely chronic low level

49. A retired industrial worker has persistent bouts of joint pains not responsive to pain relievers.
Findings showed markedly elevated levels of uric acid and peculiar black horizontal lines in the
gum margins. The most likely toxin is
A. Cesium
B. Lead
C. Mercury
D. Thallium

50. Which chelator is most associated with hypocalcemia prior to new formulations?
A. Dimercaprol
B. Unithiol
C. Succimer
D. EDTA

51. A patient with peanut allergy should NOT be given this chelator:
C. Prussian blue
A. Dimercaprol
D. Deferoxamine
B. Succimer

52. Which Of the following combinations is correct?

A. Carbon monoxide — hypoxia
C. Mercury — wrist drop
B. Paraquat — ataxia
D. Succimer — encephalopathy

53. A factory worker Subsequently displayed dermatologic lesions such as chloracne. folliculitis.
Skin dryness and hyperprgmentation. Liver enzymes are also markedly elevated.
The MOST likely cause Of toxicity is
A. aliphatic hydrocarbon
B. polychlorinated biphenyl
C. mercury
D. iron

54, A Person being chelated manifests with red orange urine. The MOST likely heavy metal
toxicity this patient is suffering from is
A. Lead
B. Copper
C. Mercury
D. Iron
55. Possible human effect of exposure to chemicals with endocrine disruptor action —
C. infertility
A. erethism
D. gingival lines
B. acrodynia

56. A gardener was brought to the ER with these signs and symptoms: BP = 80/40 mmHg, HR = 49/min, RR
= 9/min, pinpoint pupils, saliva and froth in the mouth, wheezing, underpants soaked with feces and urine.
A. Main treatment is chelation with dimercaprol
B. Mechanism of hazard is irreversible inhibition of an enzyme
C. The antidote is oxygen administration
D. Source of toxin is MOST likely lighting equipment

57. A 50-year-old male was seen at the OPD due to excruciating pain on his left big toe. The
pain started 2 days ago which gradually increased in intensity. He noticed that his toe is also
swollen. On PE, the left big toe was edematous, red and tender to touch. Synovial fluid analysis
showed crystals engulfed by phagocytes. Which of the following is most appropriate for thepatient?
A. Allopurinol
B. Aspirin
C. Colchicine
D. Methotrexate

58. A 3 year old boy was brought-at the OPD due to high grade fever and rashes. He was
diagnosed to have non-specific viral exanthema and was given Ibuprofen for fever. Which of the
following best explains the antipyretic effect of Ibuprofen?
A. It inhibits the phospholipases
B. It reduces prostaglandin level in the hypothalamus
C. It blocks prostaglandin receptors in the brain
D. It reduces leukotrienes in the skin

59. Which of the following inhibits the formation of vitamin K dependent clotting factors?
A. Waffarin
B. Coumarin
C. Heparin
D. All of the above
E. A and B only

60. Which of the following is not true of iron deficiency anemia?

A. The RBC is seen under the microscope as microcytic and hypochromie
B. It could be due to a dietary deficiency of iron
C. Iron is best taken with vitamins
D. It is the most common type of anemia

61. What is the mechanism of action of heparin?

A. it inhibits the formation of Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors
B. it potentiates the action of anti-thrombin Ill
C. it lyzes fibrin
D. All of the above
62. A 60 year old male was recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. He was prescribed with
Celecoxib. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the action of this drug?
A. It reduces thromboxane A2
B. It reduces prostaglandin E2
C. It lowers LTB4
D All Of the

63. A 24 year old male diagnosed with blooding disorder was complaining of throbbing
headache in his parietal area. He was later diagnosed to have tension headache. Which of the
following would be the safest drug for this patient?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Naproxen
C. Acetylsalicylic acid
D. Kotorolac

64. A 70-year-Old female was brought to the emergency room due to tinnitus. headache,
dizziness, difficulty in hearing and sweating. The patient was suffering from bone pan since She
underwent mastectomy due to breast cancer. The patient was over treating herself with oral
aspirin and topical acetylsalicylic acid. Which of the following Can be done to this patient?
A. Give Bicarbonate
B. Give Anti-diuretic hormone
C. Give Furosemide
D. A and C only

65. The toxic metabolite of acetaminophen via hydroxylation pathway

A. Para-amino hippuric acid
B. NAPQI
C. PEMA
D. DAG

66. A 24 to a year old GIPI gave birth to a 32 week old male infant diagnosed to have PDA.
Which of the following can be used to manage this patient?
A. Low dose aspirin
B. Prostaglandin
C. Indomethacin
D. Misoprostol

67. A 16 year old boy took 39 tablets of 500mg paracetamol after his break up with his girlfriend
Of 2 months. Which of the following is/are expected to happen to this patient?
A. The patient is likely to develop myocardial infarction due to thrombosis
B. The patient may suffer from cranial bleed
C. The patient is likely to develop acute renal failure
D. The patient is most likely to develop hepatic failure
68. A 68 year old female who has undergone hysterectomy. Because of severe post-op pain
noted 5 hours after, she asked for pain reliever. Which of the following maybe given to her?
A. Oral Naproxen
B. Topical salicylate
C. Ibuprofen suppository
D. IV Ketorolac
69. A 58 year old made diagnosed recently with osteoarthritis. Three months prior to
consultation, he was diagnosed to have a peptic ulcer disease and was treated. Which of the
following can be safely given to this patient?
A. Aspirin
B. Celecoxib
C. Paracetamol
D. Naproxen

70. A 16 year old male diagnosed with haemophilia was brought to the OPD due to pain on his
hip. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED in this patient?
A. Paracetamol
B. Celecoxib
C. Ibuprofen
D. Aspirin

71. A 49 year old male Caucasian who was on long vacation here in the Philippines was
brought by his fiancee to the clinic due to acute pain on his ankle. He was in severe pain. He
was later diagnosed to have acute gouty arthritis. He was given a drug that inhibits tubulin
polymerization. This drug is
A. Ketoprofen
B. Uricase
C. Sulindac C. Sulindac
D. Colchicine

72. The patient came back after 3 weeks. He was in good mood and no longer complains of
pain on his ankle but his uric acid was still elevated hence he was prescribed a medication that
can lower his uric acid level. After a week of taking the medication, he came back with rashes
on his neck, elbow and upper chest. Which of the following could have caused this problem?
A. Aspirin
B. Febuxostat
C. Losartan
D. Allopurinol

73. A 42 year old male executive underwent a routine checkup. His serum uric acid level was
23mg/dL and urinate urate of 780mg/24hr. He was given e medication and 3 weeks later his
serum urate was 8.3mg/dL and urinary urate of 530mg/24hr. Which of the following could have?
been given?
A. Furosemide
B. Indomethacin
C. Probenedic
D. Febuxostat

74. An 8 year old boy was brought to the clinic due to coryza, fever and popular lesions at the palate and
anterior pharyngeal wall. He has a history of G6PD. Which of the following antipyretic would be safe to
use in this patient?
A. Aspirin
C. Ibuprofen
B. Celecoxib
D. Acetaminophen
75. A 17-year-Old girl was suffering from dysmenorrhea. Which of the following would be the most
effective for this condition?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Misoprostol
D. A ane B only

76. Which of the following is the antidote for acetaminophen poisoning?

A. Glutathione
B. Furosemide
C. Activated charcoal
D. N-acetylcysteine

77. A 37-year-old female celebrity who has recently undergone drug rehabilitation was found
dead by her daughter at home. According to reports, the celebrity hosted a party where she was
seen drinking once again and has secretly tried drugs brought by her friends. On autopsy, she
was found to have low blood level of morphine not enough to cause death. Which of the
following could have been taken together with morphine which caused her death'?
A. Amphetamine
B. Marijuana
C. LSD
D. Ethanol

78. LD, a 21-year-old drop out of a medical school has been injecting smack daily for about a
month now. His "run" started at a rave party which he attended. Recently, he admitted to
smoking Black Tar. To which of the following drugs is the patient hooked?
A. Morphine
B. Cocaine
C. Heroin
D. Marijuana

79. Which of the following is the drug of choice for status asthmaticus?
A. Epinephrine
B. Theophyline
C. Chlorpheramine
D. Triamcinole

80. Which of the following is a beta 2 selective agonist with prompt and efficacious
bronchodilation effect?
A. Terbutaline
B. Albuterol
C. Thophylline
D. Isoproterenol

81. Which of the following blocks leukotriene D4 receptors?

A. Omalizumab
B. Fluticasone
C. Montelukast
D. None of the above
82. Which of the following statements is not true of ipratropium bromide?
A. it is a bronchodilator
B. it decreases bronchial mucus secretion
C. it is a. muscarinic antagonist
D. All of the above
E. A and C only

83. The following are methylxanthine drugs EXCEPT:

A. Caffeine
B. Terbutaline
C.Theophylline
D. Theobromine

84. Pernicous Anemia is best treated with:

A. Intrinsic Factor
B. VitB12
C. Misosprostal
D. A and B only

85. Which of the following binds bile acids in the gut?

A. Ezetimibe
B. Niacin
C. Colestipol
D. Any of the above

86. It is a peroxisome proliferator activated receptor- alpha (PPAR@) agonist:

A. Atorvastatin
B. Ezetimibe
C. Lomitapide
D. Gemfibrozil

87. What drug decreases catabolism of ApoAI + reduces VLDL secretion from the liver?
A. Niacin
B. Gemfibrozil
C. Colestipol
D. Rosuvastatin

88. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. VLDL is a byproduct of hepatic fat metabolism
B. Chylomicron is the carrier of LDL
C. HDL is the good cholesterol
D. None of the above

89. Which of the following about HMC COA reductase is not correct?
A. it mediates the first committed step in sterol biosynthesis
B. it is anatagonized by atorvastatin
C. its drug antagonists has marked hepatic first pass effect
D. One of the above
90. This drug inhibits intestinal absorption of phytosterol and cholesterol?
A. Colesevelam
B. Ezetimibe
C. Lovastatin
D. Niacin

91.Which of the following is a proton pump inhibitor?

A. Famotidine
B. Misoprostol
C. Pantoprazole
D. Histamine

92.Which of the following stimulate HCL secretion?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Histamine
C. Gastrin
D. All of the above
E. A and B only

93.Which of the following will cause smooth muscle relaxation?

A. loperamide
B. noepeinephrine
C. acetylcholine
D. A and B only
E. A and C only

94. Which of the following is not a part of PUD management?

A. Omeprazole
B. Misoprostol
C. Mucus prep
D. Histamine
E. Famotidine

95. The following is an anti-emetic EXECPT:

A. ondansetron
B. rolapitant
C. dexamethasone
D. None of the above

96. Which of the following is not a methotrexate indication?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Psoriasis
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Cancer

97. All are cancer drugs EXCEPT:

A. Adriamycin
B. Amantidin
C. Doxorubicin
D. Cyclosphamide
E. None of the above

98. All of the following are cytotoxic drugs that are classified as agents, EXCEPT.
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Thiotepe
C. Busulfan
D. Carmustine

99. The following are side effects of chemotherapeutic agents.

A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Infection
C. Bone marrow suppression
D. Hair loss

100. Which of the following does not a pharmacokinetic process?

A. Drug effect
B. Absorption
C. Distribution
D. Metabolism
E. Excertion