SMAT Preparatory Material

for
Bachelor of Sports Management
 INDEX
QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS
1.NUMBERS ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 4-11

2.AVERAGE …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 12-13

3.PERCENTAGES ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 14-15

4.SIMPLE INTEREST & COMPOUND INTEREST ………………………………………………………………………………………. 16-18

5.PROFIT & LOSS ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 19-20

6.RATIO, PROPORATION & VARIATION ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 21-23

7.PARTNERSHIP ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 24-25

8.MIXTURE & ALLIGATION ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 26-28

9.PROBLEMS ON AGES …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 29

10.TIME & WORK ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 30-32

11.SPEED, TIME & DISTANCE ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 33-36

BOATS & STREAMS …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 36-37
PROBLEMS ON TRAINS ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 37-38

SOLUTIONS ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 38-45

DATA INTERPRETATION …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 46-59

LOGICAL REASONING
1.DIRECTIONS …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 61-63

2.SITTING ARRANGEMENT ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 64-67

3.ANALOGY …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 68-70

4.CLASSIFICATION ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 71-73

5.CODING-DECODING …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 74-78

6.ALPHABET & NUMBER RANKING …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 79-81

7.VENN DIAGRAM ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 82-87

8.SERIES …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 88-90

9.COMPARISONS OF RANKS …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 91-93

10.BLOOD RELATION ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 94-97

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11.ANALYTICAL REASONING ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 98-108

12.SYLLOGISM ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 109-112

VERBAL ABILITY , VERBAL REASONING & READING COMPREHENSION

1.SYNONYMS & ANTONYMS ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 114-115

2. PREPOSITIONS …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 116-117

3. GRAMMATICAL ERROR ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 118-119

4.SPELLING CORRECTION ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 120

5.STATEMENT ASSUMPTION ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 121-123

6.STATEMENT & CONCLUSION ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 124-126

7.STATEMENT & ARGUMENT ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 127-128

8.STATEMENT & COURSE OF ACTION ……………………………………………………………………………………………………. 129-131

9. PASSAGE …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 132-139

SPORTS AWARENESS ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 140-156

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QUANTITATIVE
ANALYSIS

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UNIT-1: NUMBERS
The number theory or number systems happens to be the back bone for CMAT preparation. Number systems not only form the basis
of most calculations and other systems in mathematics, but also it forms a major percentage of the CMAT quantitative section. The
reason for that is the ability of examiner to formulate tough conceptual questions and puzzles from this section. In number systems
there are hundreds of concepts and variations, along with various logics attached to them, which makes this seemingly easy looking
topic most complex in preparation for the CMAT examination. The students while going through these topics should be careful in
capturing the concept correctly, as it’s not the speed but the concept that will solve the question here. The correct understanding of
concept is the only way to solve complex questions based on
this section.

Real numbers
The numbers that can represent physical quantities in a
complete manner. All real numbers can be measured and can
be represented on a number line. They are of two types:
Rational numbers: A number that can be represented in the
form p/q where p and q are integers and q is not zero.
Example: 2/3, 1/10, 8/3 etc. They can be finite decimal
numbers, whole numbers, integers, fractions.
Irrational numbers: A number that cannot be represented in
the form p/q where p and q are integers and q is not zero. An
infinite non recurring decimal is an irrational number. Example:
√2, √5 , √7 and 𝞹(pie)=3.1416.

The rational numbers are classified into Integers and fractions

Integers: The set of numbers on the number line, with the natural numbers, zero and the negative numbers are called integers, I =
{…..-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3…….}

Fractions :
A fraction denotes part or parts of an integer. For example 1/6, which can represent 1/6th part of the whole, the type of fractions
are:
1. Common fractions: The fractions where the denominator is not 10 or a multiple of it. Example: 2/3, 4/5 etc.
2. Decimal fractions: The fractions where the denominator is 10 or a multiple of 10. Example 7/10, 9/100 etc.
3. Proper fractions: The fractions where the numerator is less than the denominator. Example ¾, 2/5 etc. its value is always less
than 1.
4. Improper fractions: The fractions where the numerator is greater than or equal to the denominator. Example 4/3, 5/3 etc. Its
value is always greater than or equal to 1.
5. Compound fraction: A fraction of a fraction is called a compound fraction Example 3/5 of 7/9 = 3/5 x 7/9 = 21/45
6. Complex fractions: The combination of fractions is called a complex fraction. Example (3/5) / (2/9)
7. Mixed fractions: A fraction which consists of two parts, an integer and a fraction. Example 3 ½, 6 ¾
Example: Express 27/8 as a mixed fraction
Ans. Divide the numerator by denominator; note the multiplier, whatever remainder is left divide it with the original denominator.
For 27/8, 24/8 = 3, and remainder left is 3, therefore 3 3/8 is the mixed fraction
Example: Express 35 7/17as an improper fraction.
Ans. Here we need to multiply the denominator with the non-fraction part and add it to numerator and using same denominator.
For 35 7/17= = 602/17

The integers are classified into negative numbers and whole numbers
Negative numbers: All the negative numbers on the number line, {…..-3, -2, -1}
Whole numbers: The set of all positive numbers and 0 are called whole numbers, W = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4…….}.
Natural numbers: The counting numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5……. are known as natural numbers, N = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5…..}. The natural numbers
along with zero make the set of the whole numbers.
Even numbers: The numbers divisible by 2 are even numbers. e.g., 2, 4, 6,8,10 etc. Even numbers can be expressed in the form 2n
where n is an integer other than 0.

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Odd numbers: The numbers not divisible by 2 are odd numbers. e.g. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 etc. Odd numbers are expressible in the form (2n +
1) where n is an integer other than 0.

Composite numbers: A composite number has other factors besides itself and unity .e.g. 8, 72, 39 etc. A real natural number that is
not a prime number is a composite number.
Prime numbers: The numbers that has no other factors besides itself and unity is a prime number.
Example: 2, 23, 5, 7, 11, 13 etc. Here are some properties of prime numbers:

• The only even prime number is 2

• 1 is neither a prime nor a composite number
• If p is a prime number then for any whole number a, ap – a is divisible by p.
• 2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19,23,29 are first ten prime numbers (should be remembered)
• Two numbers are supposed to be co-prime of their HCF is 1, e.g. 3 & 5, 14 & 29 etc.
• A number is divisible by ab only when that number is divisible by each one of a and b, where a and b are co prime.
• To find a prime number, check the rough square root of the given number and divide the number by all the prime number lower
than the estimated square root
• All prime numbers can be expressed in the form 6n-1 or 6n+1, but all numbers that can be expressed in this form are not prime

Prime Factors: The composite numbers express in factors, wherein all the factors are prime. To get prime factors we divide number
by prime numbers till the remainder is a prime number. All composite numbers can be expressed as prime factors, for example
prime factors of 150 are 2,3,5,5.
Perfect number: If the sum of the divisor of N excluding N itself is equal to N , then N is called a perfect number. e.g. 6, 28, 496

Absolute value of a number:

The absolute value of a number a is | a | and is always positive.
Fibonacci numbers: The Fibonacci numbers is a sequence where
X (n+2) = X (n+1) + X (n), X (1) = 1, X (2) = 1
Example1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34,55,89,144.., it can be clearly seen that any number in the series is the addition of the last two numbers,
other than the first two numbers

6. Power P1atterns: see the table below and notice the pattern of last digits of powers:
• Pattern of 3: 3, 9, 7, 1 – repeat every four powers
• Pattern of 4: 4,6 – repeat every two powers
• Pattern of 7: 7, 9, 3, 1 – repeat every four powers
• Pattern of 8: 8, 4, 2, 6 – repeat every four powers
• Pattern of 9: 9,1 – repeat every two powers
Number 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Power 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Value 2 4 8 16 32 64 128 256 512 1024

Number 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Power 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Value 3 9 27 81 243 729 218 6561 19683 59049

Number 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
Power 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Value 4 16 64 256 1024 4096 16384 65536 262144 1048576

Number 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Power 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Value 7 49 343 2401 16807 117649 823543 5764301 40353607 282475249

Number 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Power 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Value 8 64 512 4096 32768 262144 2097152 1677216 134217728 1073741824

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Number 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Power 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Value 9 81 729 6561 59049 531441 4782969 43046721 387420489 3486784401
Application: Since we have seen the cyclicity of 2,3,7,8 is 4, if we want to find the last digit of any power of these numbers of
numbers with last digit as 2,3,7,8 (like 12, 13, 27) can be calculated by finding out remainder of the power divided by four. The last
digit of the remainder power will be the last digit of given number.
Division: Division is the method of finding how many times one number called the divisor is contained in another number called
dividend. The number of times is called the quotient. The number left after the operation is called the remainder.
(Divisor × quotient) + Remainder = dividend

Tests for divisibility:

1. A number is divisible by 2 if its unit’s digit is even or zero
2. A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digit is divisible by 3.
3. A number is divisible by 4 when the number formed by last two right hand digits is divisible by 4.
4. A number is divisible by 5 if its unit’s digit is 5 or zero
5. A number is divisible by 6 if it’s divisible by 2 and 3 both.
6. Divisibility by 7 has two ways:
Take the last digit, double it, and subtract it from the rest of the number; if the answer is divisible by 7 (including 0), then the
number is also. This method uses the fact that 7 divides 2×10 + 1 = 21. Start with the numeral for the number you want to test.
Chop off the last digit, double it, and subtract that from the rest of the number. Continue this until you get a one-digit number. The
result is 7, 0, or -7, if and only if the original number is a multiple of 7.

Example :
123471023473
⇒ 12347102347 - 2×3 = 12347102341
⇒1234710234 - 2×1 = 1234710232
⇒ 123471023 - 2×2 = 123471019
⇒ 12347101 - 2×9 = 12347083
⇒ 1234708 - 2×3 = 1234702
⇒ 123470 - 2×2 = 123466
⇒ 12346 - 2×6 = 12334
⇒ 1233 - 2×4 = 1225
⇒ 122 - 2×5 = 112
⇒ 11 - 2×2 = 7.

This rule holds good for numbers with more than 3 digits is as follows:
1. Group the numbers in three from unit digit.
2. add the odd groups and even groups separately
3. the difference of the odd and even should be divisible by 7

e.g. 85437954 the groups are 85, 437, 954

Sum of odd groups = 954 + 85 = 1039
Sum of even groups = 437
Difference = 602 which is divisible by 7
7. A number is divisible by 8 if the number formed by the last three right hand digits is divisible by 8
8. A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.
9. A number is divisible by 10 if its unit’s digit is zero.
10. To check the divisibility by 11, take the test, alternately add and subtract the digits from left to right. If the result (including
0) is divisible by 11, the number is also. Example: to see whether 365167484 is divisible by 11, start by subtracting: 3- 6 + 5 – 1 + 6 –
7 + 4 – 8 + 4 = 0; therefore 365167484 is divisible by 11
11. A number is divisible by 12 if it’s divisible by 3 and 4 both.
12. A number is divisible by 13 if it fits the following rule:
Delete the last digit from the number, and then subtract 9 times the deleted digit from the remaining number. If what is left is
divisible by 13, then so is the original number.
Example: 676, 67 – 6×9 = 13, which is divisible by 13 and so is 676
13. A number is divisible by 15 when it is divisible by 3 and 5 both. E.g. 930
14. A number is divisible by 25 if the number formed by the last two right hand digits is divisible by 25. e.g. 1025, 3475, 55550 etc.

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15. A number is divisible by 125 if the number formed by the last three right hand digits is divisible by
6375 etc.
Example: Which of following numbers are divisible by 12?
(a) 188078 (b) 12496 (c) 3961815
(d) 13685 (e) 28008
Ans. Divisibility rule of 12, number has got to be divisible by 3
and 4
188078, sum of digits = 42, divisible by 3, last two digits not
divisible by 4, rejected.
12496, sum of digits = 22, not divisible by 3, rejected
3961815, sum of digits = 33, divisible by 3, last two digits not
divisible by 4, rejected.
13685, sum of digits = 23, not divisible by 3, rejected.
28008, sum of digits = 18, divisible by 3, last two digits
divisible by 4, it is divisible by 12.
Example: What least number must be added to 127561 so
that it is exactly divisible by 28?
125. e.g. 2125, 4250,
Ans. Least number to be added plus the remainder when
divided by the given number should give the divisor. Here
when we divide 127561 by 28, quotient is4555 and remainder
is 21, so 21 + least number = 28, least number = 7
Example: Find the value of ‘a’ and ‘b’ if the seven digit
number ‘267a34b’ is divisible by 72.
Ans. For a number to be divisible by 72, it should be divisible
by 8 and 9.
Applying rule for 8: number formed by last 3-digits should be
divisible by 8.
34b should be divisible by 8, hence b = 4.
For divisibility by 9: digit sum should by divisible by 9.
Digit sum = 22 + a + b = 26 + a
Hence, a = 1

Properties of Numbers
1. The numbers, which give a perfect square on adding as well as subtracting its reverse, are rare and hence termed as Rare
Numbers.
If X is a positive integer and X1 is the integer obtained from X by writing its decimal digits in reverse order, then X + X1 and X - X1
both are perfect square then X is termed as Rare Number. For example:
For X=65, X1 =56
X +X1 = 65+56 = 121
X -X1 = 65 - 56 = 9
So 65 is a Rare Number.
2. When n is odd, n( n² – 1 ) is divisible by 2 For e.g. n = 9 then n(n²- 1) = 9(9² – 1) = 720 is divisible by 24
3. If n is odd, 2n + 1 is divisible by 3, e.g. n=5, 25+1 =33, which is divisible by 3
And if n is even, 2n – 1 is divisible by 3, e.g. n=6, 26-1 =63, which is divisible by 3
4. If n is prime, then n (𝐧𝟒 -1) is divisible by 30, e.g. n=3, 3(𝟑𝟒 - 1) = 240, which is divisible by 30
5. If n is odd, 22n + 1 is divisible by 5, e.g. n=5, 22×5+1 =1025, which is divisible by 5
And if n is even, 22n – 1 is divisible by 5, e.g. n=6, 22×6-1 = 4095, which is divisible by 5
6. If n is odd, 52n + 1 is divisible by 13, e.g. n=3, 52×3+1 =15626, which is divisible by 13
And if n is even, 52n – 1 is divisible by 13, e.g. n=4, 52×4-1 =390624, which is divisible by 13
7. The number of divisors of a given number N ( including 1 and the number itself ) where N = ambncp where a,b,c are prime
numbers , are ( 1 + m ) ( 1 + n ) ( 1 + p ).
8. xn + yn = ( x + y ) ( xn-1 – xn-2 y + …. + yn-1 ), xn + yn is divisible by x + y when n is odd.
9. xn - yn = ( x + y ) ( xn-1 – xn-2 y + …. - yn-1 ) when n is even, so xn - yn is divisible by (x+y)
10. xn - yn = ( x - y ) ( xn-1 + xn-2 y + …. + yn-1 ) when n is either odd or even, so xn - yn is divisible by (x-y)

Example: The remainder, when ( 1523 + 2323 ) is divided by 19, is :

(a) 4 (b) 15 (c) 0 (d) 18
Ans. (c) an + bn is always divisible by a + b when n is odd.
Thus 1523 + 2323 is always divisible by 15 + 23 = 38. As 38 is a multiple of 19, 1523 + 2323 is divisible by 19. So we get a remainder of
0.

Square of a number: If a number is multiplied by itself, it is called the square of that number.
Example: 4 × 4 = 16 is square of 4.

Important Properties:
1. A square cannot end in odd number of zeroes.
2. The square of an odd number is odd and that of an even number is even.
3. Every square number is a multiple of 3 or exceeds a multiple of 3 by unity.

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4. Every square number is a multiple of 4 or exceeds a multiple of 4 by unity.
5. If a square number ends in 9, the preceding digit is even.
Square root: The square root of a number is the number, whose square is the given number.
Example is 4, as 4 × 4 = 16

Methods for finding square roots:

1. Factorization: Resolve the number into prime factors and deduce if there are numbers which are repeating themselves (square of
numbers).
Example: Find Here 2601 = 32 × 172 = = 3 × 17 = 68
2. Approximation: The approximation method is the simplest method to find the square root of a number, but as the name suggests
it is an approximate method.
This method is best explained with an example. Suppose you want to find the square root of , you know the square root of 100 is 10
and 121 is 11, now 104 lies between 100 and 121. Difference is 21, and number is 4 more than the lower number which is 100.
Therefore we can say the square root is
10 (of 100) + 4/21 = 10.19

Cube of a number: when a number is multiplied three times with the same number, it is called the cube of a number.
Example: 4 × 4 × 4 = 64

Cube root: The cube root of a number is the number, which if multiplied three times by same number gives the given number.
Example: = 4. It is represented by or with the power of 1/3,
example (64)1/3 = (43)1/3 = 4.
To find the cube root of a number you have to find prime factors of the numbers, and deduce if in those numbers if a number is
repeated thrice.
Example: = 3 × 17 = 51

Complex numbers
Complex numbers are numbers with square root of a negative number. They were created as there is no root of a negative number,
by assuming i (called iota) = , it was possible to do arithmetic operations on these numbers. A complex number is represented by (a +
bi), where a and b are real numbers. Since i = , i2 = –1, i3 = –1 × i = –i
and i4 = (i2)2 = (–1)2 = 1
Just like surds, to rationalize complex numbers, the rationalizing factor or conjugates are used like (a + ib) and (a – ib) are relative
conjugates.

HCF AND LCM

HCF: HCF is the Highest Common Factor or Greatest Common Divisor (GCD). Actually GCD explains it well, that is the greatest
division that divides given set of numbers.
Example: HCF of 10, 15 and 30 = 5 and HCF of 15, 30 and 45 is 15. It is obvious to see in each case 5 and 15 are the highest numbers
which can divide the three numbers.
To find the HCF of given numbers, resolve the numbers into their prime factors and then pick the common term from them and
multiplying them will give you the HCF. The HCF is 1 when no common prime factors are there, as 1 is the only number which divides
the two and is the highest.

Example : Find the HCF of 24, 48, 102

Prime factors 2 × 2 × 2 × 3, 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3, 17 × 3 × 2
Common numbers = 2 × 3 = 6, therefore 6 is the HCF

LCM: LCM is Least common multiple. It represents the smallest number which is divisible by all of the given numbers.
Example: LCM of 3, 4 and 5 = 60, as it is smallest number divisible by them.
To find the LCM, resolve all the numbers into their prime factors, take the ones which are common and the ones which are left
(uncommon) and multiplying them will give you the LCM of the number.
Example : Find the LCM of 24, 48, 102
Prime factors 2 × 2 × 2 × 3, 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3, 17 × 3 × 2
Common numbers = 2 × 3
Numbers left = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 17
LCM = common numbers x numbers left
= 2 × 3 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 17 = 3264

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Important Note:
1. For two numbers, LCM × HCF = product of two numbers
Example: LCM of 4, 5 = 20 and HCF is 1, 20 × 1 = 4 × 5, 20 = 20
2. HCF of fractions =
Example: Find HCF of and .
Here HCF of 3, 4 is 1
And LCM of 5, 10 is 10
HCF of and =
3. LCM of fractions =
Example: Find LCM of and .
Here LCM of 3, 4 is 12
And HCF of 5, 10 is 5
LCM of and =
4. HCF and LCM of decimals: To calculate the HCF and LCM of decimals, remove the decimals and convert them into non-decimals,
by multiplying with 10 or 100 or…. Post that calculate the HCF and LCM in regular fashion and once you have the regular HCF and
LCM, convert that number into decimal by dividing it with power of 10 with which you multiplied earlier.
Example: Find the HCF and LCM of 0.6, 0.9, 1.5
Convert the numbers by multiplying them with 10, therefore
numbers are 6, 9, 15
HCF of 6, 9, and 15 is 3; dividing by 10 it is 0.3
LCM of 6, 9, and 15 is 90; dividing by 10 it is 9
For large numbers the way to find the HCF is using Euclid’s
Algorithm, but it works for two numbers only. From the larger
number, subtract the biggest multiple of the smaller number
without getting a negative answer. Replace the larger number
with the answer and repeat this until the last number is zero,
and the HCF is the next-to-last number computed.
Example: What is the HCF of 347236 and 297228?
347236 – 1 × 297228 = 50008
297228 – 5 × 50008 = 47188
50008 – 1 × 47188 = 2820
47188 – 16 × 2820 = 2068
2820 – 1 × 2068 = 752
2068 – 2 × 752 = 564
752 – 1 × 564 = 188
564 – 3 × 188 = 0
The HCF here is 188. Once we have the HCF, the LCM is the
product of the two numbers divided by the HCF as per the
properties mention on LCM and HCF. Therefore LCM of 347236
and 297228 = 347236 × 297228/188 = 549090936.
Example: Find the LCM of 32 and 40 if their HCF is 8.
LCM × HCF = Product of two numbers
LCM = 32 × = 160
Example: One ice cream truck visits Rahul’s neighborhood every
4 days and another ice cream truck visits her neighborhood
every 5 days. If both trucks visited today, when is the next time
both trucks will visit on the same day?
Since both the trucks visited today, next they will visit together
on the LCM of 4 and 5, which is 20, so on the 20th day from now
Example: A number when divided by 7 and 11 gives 4 as
remainder in each case. Find the largest 3-digit number of such
type.
Ans. General form of such a number = (LCM of 7 and 11) k + 4
= 77 k + 4 where k is any whole number
Now largest 3-digit number of the form (77k + 4) is for k = 12
i.e. 77 × 12 + 4 = 928.
Example: LCM and HCF of 2 numbers are 248 and 8 respectively.
Find the numbers.
Ans. Since HCF = 8,
So, let the two numbers be ‘8a’ and ‘8b’, where a and b are co-
prime to each other.
So, LCM of (8a and 8b) = 8 × a × b
8ab = 248
ab = 31
Since a and b are co-primes, the possible values for a and b can
be 1 and 31.
So the numbers are 8 × 1 and 8 × 31 i.e. 8 and 248.
Remainder Theorem
We have to take care about the following things while finding
remainder:
1. 'x' when divided by 'x' the remainder will be 0.
2. 'x + a' when divided by 'x' the remainder will be a.
3. 'x - a' when divided by 'x' the remainder will be ‘-a' i.e. '-a + x'.
4. (mx + a)n when divided by 'x' the remainder will be an.
5. (mx − a)n when divided by 'x' the remainder will be an.
Here we will always express numerator in terms of denominator.
For example
If we want to find remainder when 280 is divided by 5.
Here, we will express such that the base of 280 get near to 5.
We can write 280 as 440
Now 4 can be written as (5-1)
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 36 36 36
So 280 = 440 = (5 − 1)40 + (2)2 +(2)3 +………..
(2)1
Now when (5 − 1)40 is divided by 5, the remainder will be
= 18 + 9 + 4 + 2 + 1 + 0
(−1)40 = 1
= 34
Example: What is the remainder when 1044 × 1047 is divided by
Example: What maximum power of 6 would perfectly divide 50!?
33?
Ans. It will be the number of 6’s in 50!, as 6 = 2 × 3, it will be
Ans. Here when 33 divide 1044, remainder is 21.
equal to number of these pairs in 50!.
And when 33 divide 1047 is 24
No. of 2’s (leave decimals)
Now the rule is the remainders multiplication has to be divided
= 50/2 + 50/22 + 50/23 + 50/24 + 50/25
by divisor to get eh remainder
Onwards powers of 2 will exceed 50,
Therefore 21 × 24 = 504. Dividing by 33 remainder is 9, which is
= 25 + 12 + 6 + 3 + 1 = 47
the answer.
No. of 3’s (leave decimals)
= 50/3 + 50/32 + 50/33
Example: What is the reminder when 91 + 92 + 93 + ...... + 99 is
Onwards powers of 3 will exceed 50,
divided by 6?
= 16 + 5 + 1 = 22
Ans. It is obvious that 6 is leaving remainder 3 with powers of 9,
Since 3’s are 22, there will be 22 pairs; maximum power of 6 is
which is actually a property, but students can check by dividing
22.
first 2–3 numbers in the series, therefore total remainder is 3 + 3
Example. How many zeros will be there in the value of 25!?
+ 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 27, when 27 is divided by 6,
Ans. The number of zeros are number’s of (5 × 2)’s
remainder is 3, which is the answer.
To find power of any number in the factorial of any number.
No. of 5’s (leave decimals)
The power of 'a' in n! Can be obtained by adding the quotients
= 25/5 + 25/52 onwards powers of 5 will exceed 25,
obtained by dividing 'n' by a, a2,a3 … till we get zero as the
= 5 + 1 = 6, as twos are plenty, but 5’s are 6 therefore number of
quotients.
zeros are 6
For example power of 2 in 36! Will be

Last Two Digits

For finding the last 2-digits in any calculation like (ab)^n
Where 'ab' is a 2-digit number and n is any number, we will first find out the unit's digit and then the ten's digit.
We will convert all the calculations in which we have unit digit of the base as 1.
1. So let’s start with those calculations which have 1 as unit digit (39)132 = ((39)2 )66
in base = (21)66 (as square of 39 has 21 as last 2 digits)
Now if the base has 1 as the unit digit then we can say that the = 21 (unit = 1 and tens = 2 ∗ 6 = 2)
unit digit of the result will also be 1.
Now tens digit will be the product of tens digit of base and unit Example:(67)148
digit of power. (57)144 = ((67)2 )74
Consider: = (89)74
xyz
(ab) =((89)2 )37
Now, if b=1 then we can say that unit digit of result will be 1, = (21)37
and tens digit = unit digit of (a × z) = 41
Example: (31)142 3. Now for those numbers which have base as even numbers.
Unit digit =1 For this we have to find the last 2 digits of any power of 2.
Tens digit = 3 × 2 = 6 Things to remember for this method:
So, the last two digits = 61 a. Any odd power of 24 will have 24 as last 2 digits.
b. Any even power of 24 will have 76 as last 2 digits.
Example: (81)236 c. (2)10 = 1024, or we can say 24 as last 2 digits.
Unit digit =1 Example: Now let us find last two digits of (2)135
Tens digit = 8 × 6 => 8 (2)135= ((2)10 )13 × 25
So, the last two digits = 81 = 2413 × 25
= (24)odd × (2)5
2. Now if we have 3, 7 or 9 as the unit digit in the base then we = 24 × 32
can square the base once or twice to obtain 1 as the unit digit in = 68
the base. Example: Find last two digits of 3896
Example: (39)132 38 = 2 × 19
So (38)96 = (2)96 × 1996
= ((2((2)10 )9 × (2)6 × ((19)2 )48

Page 10
= (24)9 × (2)6 × (61)48 = 36 × 81
= 24 × 64 × 81 = 16
EXERCISE
1. Find the HCF of 36𝑎2 𝑏3 𝑐 2 , 18𝑎3 𝑏2 𝑐 4 and 12𝑎𝑏4 𝑐 3 (a) 12 (b)32 (c) 42 (d)52
(a) 6𝑎𝑏2 𝑐 2 (b) 12𝑎2 𝑏𝑐 (c) 6𝑎 2 𝑏𝑐 2 15. In the famous Bel Air Apartments in Ranchi, there
2 2 are three watchmen meant to protect the precious
(d) 12𝑎𝑏 𝑐
2.Find the LCM of 4/3, 8/9, 3/5 fruits in the campus. However, one day a thief got in
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 1/24 (d) 1/20 without being noticed and stole some precious
3.Find the HCF of 2/5, 12/11, 1/3 mangoes. On the way out however, he was confronted
(a)1/165 (b)5/165 (c)2/165 (d)12/165 by the three watchmen, the first two of whom asked
4.Find the LCM and HCF of 0.25, 0.5, 0.75 him to part with 1 /3rd of the fruits and one more. The
(a) 7.5, 0.05 (b) 0.75, 0.5 (c) 0.75, 0.05 (d) 7.5, 0.5 last asked him to part with 1/5th of the mangoes and 4
5.The product of 2 numbers is 3024 and their LCM is 36. more. As a result he had no mangoes left. What was the
Find their HCF. number of mangoes he had stolen?
(a) 88 (b)82 (c) 84 (d) 86 (a)12 (b)13 (c)15 (d)None
6. LCM of two numbers is 12 times of their HCF. Sum of 16. A test has 80 questions. There is one mark for a
LCM and HCF is 195. If one of them is 60. Find the other. correct answer, while there is a negative penalty of -1/2
(a) 48 (b)45 (c) 52 (d) 36 for a wrong answer and -1 /4 for an unattempted
7. The LCM of two numbers 45 times their HCF. If one question. What is the number of questions answered
number is 250 and the sum of their HCF and LCM is correctly, if the student has scored a net total of 34.5
2300. Find the other number. marks?
(a) 400 (b) 450 (c) 460 (d) 420 (a)45 (b)48 (c)54 (d)Cannot be determined
8. The LCM of two numbers is 36 times that of their 17. A frog is sitting on vertex A of a square ABCD. It
HCF. The product of numbers is 3600. Find their HCF, starts jumping to the immediately adjacent vertex on
(a) 10 (b)15 (c) 8 (d) 20 either side in random fashion and stops when it reaches
9. Find the smallest number which when decreased by 4 point C. In how many ways can it reach point C if it
is exactly divisible by 9, 12, 15 and 18. makes exactly 7 jumps?
(a) 188 (b) 182 (c)186 (d)184 (a) 1 (b)3 (c) 5 (d)0
10.Find the least number which when divided by 5. 6, 7 18. A boy was trying to find 5/8th of a number.
and 8 leaves a remainder 3 but when divided by 9 Unfortunately, he found out 8/5th of the number and
leaves no remainder. realized that the difference between the answer he got
(a) 1683 (b) 1725 (c) 1685 (d) 1723 and the correct answer is 39. What was the number?
11. Find the least number which when divided by 15, 20 (a)38 (b)39 (c)40 (d)52
and 24 leaves 4 as remainder but when divided by 13 19. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 2 and
leaves no remainder. the denominator is decreased by 1, then it becomes 2/3
(a) 364 (b) 370 (c) 484 (d) 244 If the numerator is increased by 1 and the denominator
12.Five bells begin to toll together and toll at intervals is increased by 2, then it becomes 1/3. Find the fraction.
of 24, 40, 64, 72 and 120 s. After what interval of time (a) 2/9 (b) 2/7 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/5
will they toll again together ? 20.A worker earns rs 40 the first day and spends rs 25
(a) 42 min (b) 36 min (c) 48 min (d) 54 min on the second day. He earns rs 40 on the third day and
13. A number is such that when divided by 3, 5, 6, or 7 it spend
leaves the remainder 1, 3, 4, or 5 respectively. Which is Rs 25 on the fourth day and so on. On which day would
the largest number below 4000 that satisfies this he have rs 100.
property? (a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d)11
(a) 3358 (b) 3988 (c) 3778 (d) 2938 21. A man is typing numbers 5 to 700 on his computer.
14. The sum of the squares of the digits constituting a How many times does he press the key of his computer
positive two-digit number is 13. If we subtract 9 from ?
that number, we shall get a-number written by the (a) 988 (b) 1988 (c) 1888 (d) 1990
same digits in the reverse order. Find the number,

Page 11
UNIT-2 : AVERAGE
1.Average: The average of N numbers is their sum divided by N, that is,
sum
Average=( )
N
Example 1: What is the average of x, 2x, and 6?
𝑥 𝑥+2 𝑥+2
A:2 B : 2x C: 6
D : x+2 E: 3
𝒙+𝟐𝒙+𝟔 𝟑𝒙+𝟔 𝟑(𝒙+𝟐)
Solution: By the definition of an average, we get: 𝟑
= 𝟑
= 𝟑
=x+2. Hence, the answer is x+2 or Option (D)

2. Weighted average: The average between two sets of numbers is closer to the set with more numbers.
Example 2: If on a test three people answered 90% of the questions correctly and two people answered 80% correctly, then the
𝟑×𝟗𝟎+𝟐×𝟖𝟎
average for the group is not 85% but rather
𝟓
=430/5=86
Here, 90 has a weight of 3 => it occurs 3 times. Whereas 80 has a weight of 2 => it occurs 2 times.
So the average is closer to 90 than to 80 as we have just calculated.

Using an Average to Find a Number: Sometimes you will be asked to find a number by using a given average. An example will
illustrate.
Example 3 : If the average of five numbers is -10, and the sum of three of the numbers is 16, then what is the average of the other
two numbers?
A: -33 B: -1 C: 5 D: 20 E: 25
𝒂+𝒃+𝒄+𝒅+𝒆
Solution: Let the five numbers be a, b, c, d, e. Then their average is ( )=10.
𝟓
Now three of the numbers have a sum of 16, say, a+b+c=16
16+𝑑 +𝑒
So substitute 16 for a+b+ca+b+c in the average above: ( 5
)=10.
Solving this equation for d+ed+e gives d+e=−66.
𝑑 +𝑒
Finally, dividing by 2 (to form the average) gives ( )=−33.
2
Hence, the answer is A: -33

4. Average Speed
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
Average Speed=( 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒
)
Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x kmph and an equal distance at y kmph, then the average speed during the whole
2𝑥𝑦
journey is x+y kmph.
Although the formula for average speed is simple, few people solve these problems correctly because most fail to find both the total
distance and the total time.
Example: In travelling from city A to city B, John drove for 1 hour at 50 mph and for 3 hours at 60 mph. What was his average speed
for the whole trip?
A: 50.0 B: 53.5 C: 55.0 D: 56.0 E: 57.5
The total distance is 1×50+3×60=2301×50+3×60=230. And the total time is 4 hours. Hence,Average
Speed=(𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
Total Time
)=2304=57.5
Thus, the answer is Option (E): 57.5 . Note, the answer is not the mere average of 50 and 60. Rather the average is closer to 60
because he travelled longer at 60 mph (3 hrs) than at 50 mph (1 hr)

EXERCISE
1. The average of two numbers is M. If one number is N that of another group of 5 of them is 14 yr. what is the
then the other number is average age of the remaining students ?
(a) 2N ( b) 2M (c) M - N (d) 2M - N (a)8 yr (b)10yr (c) 12 yr (d) 14 yr
2. The average of marks of a student in 7 subjects is 4. The average weight of 9 mangoes increases by 20 g if
75.His average in 6 subjects excluding science is 72. one of them weighing 120 g is replaced by another. The
How many marks did he get in science ? weight of new mango is
(a) 72 (b) 90 (c) 93 (d) None of these (a) 180 g (b) 200 g (c) 260 g (d) 300 g
3. The average age of 30 students of a class is 12 yr. The 5. The average age of a class is 15.8 yr. The average age
average age of a group of 5 of the students is 10 yr and of the boys in the class is 16.4 yr while that of the girls is
15.4 yr. What is the ratio of boys to girls in the class ?

Page 12
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 3 : 5 (d)None of these (a) 11 (b) 7.75 (c) 8.5 (d) 7
6. The average of 100 observations was calculated as 14. The average salary per month of 30 employees in a
40. It was found later on that one of the observations company is Rs 4000. If the manager’s salary is added,
was misread as 83 instead of 53. The correct average is the average salary increases to Rs 4300, what is the
(a) 39 (b) 39.7 (c) 40.3 (d) 42.7 salary of the manager ?
7. The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers, (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 13,000 (c) Rs. 12,000
namely 45 and 55 are discarded, the average of (d) Rs. 13,300
remaining numbers is 15. The average of 11 observations is 60. If the average
(a) 36.5 (b) 37 (c) 37.5 (d) 37.52 of first five observations is 58 and that of the last five is
8. A motorist travels to a place 150 km away at an 56, then the sixth observation is
average speed of 50 km/hr and returns at 30 km/h. His (a) 90 (b) 110 (c) 85 (d) 100
average speed for the whole journey in km per hour is. 16. A person covers half his journey by train at 60 km/h,
(a) 35 (b) 37 (c) 37.5 (d) 40 half the remainder by bus at 30 km/h and the rest by
9. The average age of 30 students is 9 yr. If the age of cycle at 10 km/h. Find his average speed during the
their teacher is included, it becomes 10 yr. The age of entire journey
the teacher is (a) 15 km/h (b) 24 km/h (c) 20 km/h (d) 33.3 km/h
(a) 27 (b) 31 (c) 35 (d) 40 17. The average age of all the students of class is 24 yr.
10. The average weight of 29 students is 28 kg. By the The average age of boys of the class is 29 yr and that of
admission of a new students, the average weight is the girls is 20 yr. If the number of girls in the class is 25,
reduced to 27.8 Kg. The weight of the new student is then find the number of boys in the class
(a) 22 kg (b) 21.6 kg (c) 22.4 kg (d) 21kg (a) 30 (b) 15 (c) 24 (d) 20
11. The average age of a committee of eight members is 18. In a family of 8 males and a few ladies, the average
40 yr. A member aged 55 yr retired and his place was monthly consumption of grain per head is 10.8 kg. If the
taken by another member aged 39 yr. The average age average monthly consumption per head be 15 kg in the
of the present committee is case of males and 6 kg in the case of females, find the
(a) 39 yr (b) 38 Yr (c) 36 yr (d) 35 yr number of females in the family
12. In a Cricket Eleven, the average age of eleven (a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 15
players is 28 yr. Out of these, the average ages of three 19. The average score of a cricketer in three matches is
groups of three players each are 25yr,28yr and 30 yr 22 runs and in two other matches, it is 17 runs. Find the
respectively. If in these groups, The captain and the average in all the five matches
youngest players are not included, and the captain is (a) 20 (b) 19.6 (c) 21 (d) 19.5
eleven years older than the youngest player, what is the 20. A batsman made an average of 40 runs in 4 innings,
age of the captain? but in the fifth inning, he was out on zero. What is the
(a) 33 yr (b) 34 yr (c) 35 yr (d) 36 yr average after fifth inning?
13. The average of 5 numbers is 7. When 3 new (a) 32 (b) 22 (c) 38 (d) 49
members are added, the average of the eight numbers
is 8.5. The average of three new numbers is

Page 13
UNIT-3 : PERCENTAGES
INTRODUCTION
Percent means for every hundred or per hundred. The numerator of “per hundred” is called the rate percent. Example 12/100 can
be called as 12%, and 12% is the rate percent, and 12 is the rate. The other way to look at it is if some makes a profit of 20%, then
one has gained 20/100 of the value invested.

Important notes R
[ × 100]%
(100+R)
1. To express percent as a fraction divide it by 100,=> 12 %
Example: If A’s income is 20% more than B’s, then what
= 12/100
percent is B’s income lesser than A?
2. To express a fraction as a percent multiply it by 100,
1 1 A’s income more than B = 20%, by the formula, B’s income is =
=> 2 = 2 × 100= 50% 20
(100+20)
× 100 = 16.66 % less of A
Example: Express as percentages: .
1
Ans. To convert to percent, multiply each by 100 => 3× 100
100
4. If A’s income is r % less than B’s then B’s income is more
= 3
%, do the others similarly than A’s by
(𝐧𝐞𝐰 𝐯𝐚𝐥𝐮𝐞−𝐨𝐥𝐝 𝐯𝐚𝐥𝐮𝐞) R
3. Increase/Decrease Percent = [ × 100]%
𝐨𝐥𝐝 𝐯𝐚𝐥𝐮𝐞 (100−R)
Example: If A’s income is 20 % less than B’s, then what percent
Important relations in percentage is B’s income more than A?
1. If the price of a commodity increases by R%, then A’s income less than B = 20%, by the formula, B’s income is =
20
percentage reduction in consumption, so as not to increase × 100 = 25% more of A
(100−20)
expenditure is
R
[ × 100]% 5. If the present population of a town is p and let there be an
(100+R)
Example: If the cost of petrol increases by 40%, by what increase at the rate of X % per annum. Then:
R n
percent the person should reduce his consumption considering (i) Population after n years = P [1 + ]
100
expenditure on petrol remains the same. P
Increase in price = 40%, by the formula, decrease in (ii) Population n years ago = R n
[1+ ]
40 100
consumption is =[(100+40) × 100]% = 28.57% This is the compound interest formula, which we will study in
detail later. If the decrease or depreciation is r%, then
2. If the price of a commodity decreases by r%, then increase population or value of a machine (after depreciation) after n
in consumption, so as not to decrease expenditure is years
R
[ × 100]%
(100−R) CALCULATIONS IN PERCENTAGES
Example: If the cost of petrol decreases by 10 %, by what Let’s start with a number A (= 1A)
percent can a person increase his consumption considering 1. A increased by 10% would become A + 0.1A = 1.1A
expenditure on petrol remains the same? 2. A decreased by 10% would become A – 0.1A = 0.9 A
Decrease in price = 10%, by the formula, increase in 3. A increased by 200% would become A + 2A = 3A
consumption is = 11.11% 4. A decreased by 50 % would become = 0.5A
5. Use decimal fractions while adding and subtracting and
3. If A’s income is r% more than B’s then B’s income is less normal fractions while multiplying.
than A’s. by

EXERCISE
1. After deducting a commission of 12%, a T.V costs 5. After spending 30% on machinery, 20% on building,
Rs.13200. Its gross value is; 15% on raw material and 5% on furniture, a small scale
(a) 15860 (b) 16000 (c) 16400 (d) 15000 industry owner had a balance of Rs.130500. Total money
2. If 70% of the students in a school are boys and the with him was:
number of girls is 390, the number of boys is: (a) 650000 (b) 435000 (c) 870000 (d) 139000
(a) 1176 (b) 910 (c) 1260 (d) 1125 6. M spends 30% of his salary on food, 18% on house
3. A man spends Rs.4250 and saves 15% of his income. rent, 12% on conveyance and incurs 25% on
His monthly income is: miscellaneous expenditure. If he still manages to save Rs
(a) 3937.50 (b) 4000 (c) 4250 (d) 5000 2250 than his annual salary is:
4. A man's wages were decreased by 40%. Again the (a) Rs 15000 (b) Rs 10000 (c) Rs 20000
reduced wages were increased by 40%. He has a loss of: (d) Rs 18000
(a) 0% (b) 2.5% (c) 16% (d) 25%

Page 14
7. A man spent 25% of his monthly earning on house (a) 53 4/5 % (b) 32 1/10% (c) 42 6/7% (d) 51%
rent. Out of the balance, he spent 60% on the other 15.The price of cooking oil has increased by 20%.
house expenses. If he had a balance of Rs.300 at the end Percentage of reduction that a family should affect in
of the month, the monthly earning of the man is: the use of cooking oil so as not to increase the
(a) 1000 (b) 1250 (c) 1500 (d) 2500 expenditure on this account is:
2
8. After spending 30% on milk, 5% on clothes, 35% on (a) 16 3% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 30%
food and 10% on electricity, Dhoni could buy 2 dozen 16.Two candidates fought an election. One got 85% of
pairs of socks from the balance income with him. He the votes and won by 210 votes. The total number of
earned 100% profit by selling the socks for Rs.120. votes polled is:
What amount did Dhoni have on him initially? (a) 600 (b) 800 (c) 1000 (d) 300
(a) Rs.800 (b) Rs.400 (c) Rs.300 (d) Rs. 360 17. In an election, one of the two candidates gets 34% of
9. When a company decreased the price of refrigerator the total votes and still loses by 384 votes. What is the
by 20%,the number of refrigerators sold increased by total number of votes?
20%. What was the net effect on total sales? (a) 2300 (b) 1300 (c) 1329 (d) 1200
(a) 6% decrease (b) 3% increase (c) 6% increase 18. In measuring the sides of a rectangle, the length is
(d) 4% decrease taken 5% excess and the breadth is 5% in deficit. What is
10.X's salary is half that of Y. If X got a 40% rise in his the change in its area as a percentage ?
salary and Y got a 30% rise in his salary then the (a) 4% increase (b) 4% decrease
percentage increases in combined salaries of both is: (c) 1% increase (d) 0.25% decrease
(a) 30 (b) 33.33 (c) 37.5 (d) 75 19.A mixture of 40 liters of milk and water contains 20%
11.The daily wages of a worker is first increased by 20% water. How much water should be added to it so that
and then decreased by 20%. What is the net change in water may be 25% in the new mixture?
his wages (a) 5 liters (b) 4 liters (c) 6.5 liters (d) 2.67 liters
(a) 2.25% increase (b) 2.25% decrease 20. How much pure alcohol has to added to 900 mL of a
(c) 12.25% increase (d) 4 % decrease solution containing 20% alcohol to change the
12.The price of a book is first increased by 30% then concentration of alcohol in the mixture to 28% ? .
decreased by 20%. If the price of the book is now Rs. (a) 44 mL (b) 50 mL (c) 52 mL (d) 100 mL
312. What was the original price of the book ? 21. Sudhir has to travel from town A to town B which is
(a) Rs 250 (b) Rs 200 (c) Rs 150 (d) Rs 300 certain distance apart. 10% of the distance was travelled
13.If A's income is 25% more than B's, then how much by plane, 60% of the remaining by bus, 50% of the
percent is B's income less than A's? remaining by train and he still has 225 km to reach town
(a) 30% (b) 20% (c) 23 1/13% (d) 33 1/3% B. What is the total distance between town A & town B ?
14.If A's income is 35% less than B's, then how much (a) 1200 km (b)2570 km (c) 1250 km (d)1050 km
percent is B's income more than A's?

Page 15
UNIT-4 : SIMPLE INTEREST & COMPOUND INTEREST
SIMPLE INTEREST (SI)
It is calculated on the basis of a basic amount borrowed for the entire period at a particular rate of interest. The amount borrowed is
the principal for the entire period of borrowing
Interest (I): Interest is the money paid for the use of money borrowed.
Principal (P): The sum borrowed is called the principal.
Amount (A): The sum of interest and principal is called Amount.
A=I+P
Rate (r): The interest of 1 year for every Rs. 100 is called the Interest rate or rate. If we say "the rate of interest per annum is 10%".
We meant that Rs. 10 is the interest on a principal of Rs. 100 for a year.
Time (t): The period for which money is deposited or borrowed is called time.
Relation Among Principal, Time, Rate per annum and Total interest
If P is the principal, R is rate; T is time and SI, i.e, the simple Interest. Then
SI = (P*T*R)/100; P = (SI*100)/(R*T);
R = (SI*100)/ (P*T);
T = (SI*100)/ (P*R);
Amount = Principal + Total interest;
Amount = Principal + (P*T*R)/100;
Time = [(total interest)/ (interest on the principal for one year)] *years.

COMPOUND INTEREST (CI)

The interest of the previous years is added to the principal for the calculation of the compound interest. In such cases, interest for
the first time interval is added to the principal and this amount becomes the principal for the second time interval, and so on. e.g. A
sum of Rs. 100 at 10% per annum will have
Simple interest =================== Compound interest
Rs. 100 ========> First year <======== Rs.100;
Rs. 100 ========> 2nd year <======== Rs.110;
Rs. 100 ========> 3rd year <======== Rs.121;
Compound Interest: The difference between the amount and the money borrowed is called the compound interest for given period
of time.
Formula:
Case 1: Let principal =P; time =n years; and rate = r% per The difference between compound interest and simple
annum and let A be the total amount at the end of n years, interest over three years is given by
then = P(r/100)2*{(r/100)+3}
n
A = P*[1+ (r/100)] ; Example: If the difference between the simple interest and
CI = {P*[1+ (r/100)]n -1}; the compound interest on the same sum at 5% per annum for
Case 2: When compound interest reckoned half yearly, then two years is Rs. 25, what is the sum?
r% become r/2% and time n become 2n; Solution:
2n
A= P*[1+ (r/2*100)] ; Given, difference, d= Rs. 25;
Case 3: for quarterly, R = 5%;
A= P*[1+ (r/4*100)]4n; P =?
Key facts Difference= P(r/100)2;
The difference between compound interest and simple ==> 25 =P (5 /1002)
interest over two years is given by Or, P = (25*100*100)/(5*5);
Pr2/1002 or P(r/100)2; Or, P = Rs. 10000.

EXERCISE
1.What sum of money will fetch a simple interest of Rs 3. A sum doubles after 10 yr, if it is invested at simple
3900 for 2 1/2 yr at the rate of 13% per annum interest. In how many years will it become four times the
(a) Rs 12600 (b) Rs 11800 (c) Rs 10400 (d) Rs 12000 original sum invested ?
2.A man wanted to invest Rs 20000 for a period of 7 1/2 yr (a) 32 yr (b) 24 yr (c) 30yr. (d)28yr
in order to get an interest of Rs 20000. At what rate of 4.Reena took a loan of Rs. 1,200 at simple interest for as
simple interest should he invest ? many years as the rate of interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as
(a) 13 1/3% (b) 13 2/5 % (c)13 4/5% (d)13 2/3% interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of
interest (in %)

Page 16
(a)3.6 (b)6 (c)18 (d)None (e)Cannot be determined 16. A sum of Rs 2800 is lent out in two parts in such a way
5.A man borrows Rs 12000 at 8% simple interest for 2 yr. that the interest on one part at 9% per annum for 4 yr is
He repays Rs 12000 at the end of 2 yr and balance at the equal to that on another at 8% per annum for 6 yr. The
end of third year. How much did he repay at the end of sum lent out at 8% is:
third year ? (a) Rs 1200 (b) Rs 1600 (c) Rs 1400 (d) None
(a) Rs 2145.40 (b) Rs 2073.60 (c) Rs 2042.20 17. Find the compound interest on Rs 9375 at 8% per
(d) Rs 2130.90 annum, for 2 yr:
6. Ramesh took a loan of Rs 6000 at 6% per annum simple (a) Rs 1560 (b) Rs 1512 (c) Rs 1590 (d) Rs 1548
interest for 3 yr After one year the rate was increased to 18. Find the amount on Rs 12000 at 10% per annum for 2
6 1/2% per annum. How much shall Ramesh have to pay at yr and 6 months, compounded annually:
the end to clear his loan ? (a) Rs 14675 (b) Rs 15246 (c) Rs 14850 (d) Rs 15940
(a) Rs 7480 (b) Rs 7390 (c) Rs 7140 (d) Rs 7260 19. Find the compound interest on Rs 10500 at 8% per
7.A certain sum amounts to Rs 18600 in 4 yr and Rs 20400 annum for 1 yr and 3 months, compounded annually:
in 6 yr under simple interest. Find the sum (a) Rs 1066.80 (b) Rs 1154.20 (c) Rs 1048.10
(a) Rs 16780 (b) Rs 15450 (c) Rs 16000 (d) Rs 15000 (d) Rs 1124.50
8.If a certain principal amount increases to Rs. 6,500 in 3 20. Find the compound interest on Rs 4000 at 12% for 1 yr,
years at a certain fixed rate of simple interest and Rs. 7,500 compounded half-yearly:
in 5 years at the same rate of interest, then what is the (a) Rs 480.20 (b) Rs 410.20 (c) Rs 494.40(d) Rs 475.40
rate of simple interest? 21. Find the compound interest on Rs 20000 at 12% per
(a)5% (b)10% (c)15% (d)20% annum for 6 months, compounded quarterly:
1
9.If the rate of simple interest is reduced from 7 2% per (a) Rs 1415 (b) Rs 1096 (c) Rs 1218 (d) Rs 13212
1 22. The difference between the simple interest and the
annum to 6 2% per annum, find the decrease in half yearly
compound interest on Rs 8000 at 10% per annum for 3 yr
interest on Rs 7280. is:
(a) Rs 32.60 (b) Rs 36. 40 (c) Rs 39.50 (d) Rs 31.70 (a) Rs 260 (b) Rs 352 (c) Rs 248 (d) Rs 310
10.A person invests money in three different schemes for 5 23. A deposited Rs 5000 in a bank at 5% per annum simple
yr, 10 yr and 15 yr at 8%, 10% and 12% simple interest interest. B deposited Rs 8000 at 6% per annum compound
respectively. At the completion of each scheme, he gets interest. After 2 yr, the difference between their interests
the same interest. The ratio of his investments is will be:
(a) 45 : 9 :5 (b) 45:18 :10 (c) 25: 18: 10 (d) 25 : 9 : 5 (a) Rs 244.40 (b) Rs 488.80 (c) Rs 366.60 (d) Rs 122.20
11. If the simple interest for 5 yr be equal to 40% of the 24. If the simple interest on a sum of money for 2 yr at 8%
principal, it Will be equal to the principal after per annum is Rs 120, what will be the CI on the same sum
(a) 12 yr 3 months (b) 12 yr 6 months at the same rate for the same time?
(c) 12 yr 4 months (d) 12 yr 9 months (a) Rs 124.80 (b) Rs 110.20 (c) Rs 145.15 (d) Rs 136.25
12. A certain sum is invested on simple interest. If it trebles 25. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 yr at
in 20 yr, what is the rate of interest ? 8% per annum is Rs 832, the simple interest is:
(a) 10% (b) 8% (c) 8 1/2 % (d) 10 1/2% (a) Rs 780 (b) Rs 800 (c) Rs 790 (d) Rs 810
13.Sudha borrowed some money at the rate of 6% per 26.The difference between compound interest and simple
annum for the first 2 yr, 8% per annum for the next 4 yr interest on a sum for 2 yr at 8% per annum is Rs 64. The
and 12% per annum for the period beyond 6 yr. If the total sum is:
interest paid by him at the end of 14 yr is Rs 6300 how (a) Rs 12000 (b) Rs 11000 (c) Rs 9000 (d) Rs 10000
much money did she borrow ? 27. A sum is invested at compound interest payable
(a) Rs 4500 (b) Rs 4800 (c) Rs 4200 (d) Rs 4900 annually. The interest in two successive year was Rs 600
14.If the annual rate of simple interest increases from 8% and Rs 660. The sum is:
to 12%, a man's annual income increases by Rs 960. The (a) Rs 7800 (b) Rs 7200 (c) Rs 6800 (d) Rs 6000
principal is: 28. A sum of money amounts to Rs 6272 in 2 yr and Rs
(a) Rs 20000 (b) Rs 24000 (c) Rs 22000 (d) Rs 18000 7024.64 in 3 yr . The rate of interest per annum is:
15.A person invested in all Rs 2700 at 3%,'4% and 6% per (a) 8% per annum (b) 12% per annum
annum simple interest. At the end of the year he got the (c) 6% per annum (d) 10% per annum
same interest in all the three cases. The money invested at 29. A sum of money amounts to Rs 9680 in 2 yr and Rs
3% is: 10648 in 3 yr at compound interest. The sum is
(a) Rs 1200 (b) Rs 900 (c) Rs 800 (d) Rs 600 (a) Rs 8000 (b) Rs 8400 (c) Rs 9000 (d) Rs 9600

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30. A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles (a) 8% per annum (b) 10% per annum
itself in 6 yr. In how many year it would amount to 4 times (c) 8.5% per annum (d) 9.5% per annum
of itself at the same rate of interest ? 32. A sum becomes Rs 21632 in 2 yr at 4% per annum,
(a) 12 yr (b) 24 yr (c) 18 yr (d) 15 yr compound interest. The sum is:
31.At what rate of interest will Rs 12000 become Rs 14520 (a) Rs 20200 (b) Rs 20400 (c) Rs 20000 (d) Rs 20450
after 2 yr when interest is compounded annually ?

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UNIT-5 : PROFIT AND LOSS
BASIC CONCEPTS IN PROFIT AND LOSS
1. Cost price (C.P): The price at which an article is bought
2. Selling price (S.P): The price at which an article is sold
3. Marked Price: The price listed on the label
4. Discount: The reduction offered on the list prize, it may be a value or a percent
5. Mark-up: The increment over the cost price
6. Profit or loss = SP – CP (the negative value indicates the loss)
(𝐒𝐏−𝐂𝐏)
7. Profit or loss percentage = 𝐂𝐏 × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 % (the negative value indicates the loss percentage).
This formula is the most important formula, if you use only this formula in the entire profit and loss chapter, you will never make
an error, so try following it as much as possible.
8. To calculate gain/loss percentage, it is not required to have all the values of cost price and selling price, you can assume the
values to be x, or even 10 or 100.

Example: A shopkeeper puts the marked price on his goods 25 % above cost price and gives discount of 12.5 % on marked price.
What is his profit %?
Let the CP be 10, then marked price is 1.25×10 = 12.5
Now discount to the cash purchaser = 12.5 %, which is 0.125×12.5 = 1.56
Net gain = 2.5(excess on CP) – 1.56 = 0.94 gain % = 0.94/10×100 = 9.4 %

IMPORTANT RELATIONS
1. If two items are sold each at rupees R, one at a gain of X % and other at a loss of X %, there is always an overall loss given by (
𝐗𝟐
𝟏𝟎𝟎
)% and the value of loss is given by ( 2X2S )/( 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟐 – 𝐱 𝟐 ) . In case of the cost price of both the items is the same and
percentage loss and gain are equal, then net loss or profit is zero. The difference between the two cases is the cost price, in first
case it is not same, in the second it is same.
Example: Amar sells two watches for Rs 1200, one at a profit of One watch was sold at a loss of 10%, so its CP is
10 % and other at a loss of 10 %. Find his gain or loss -10 = (1200 –CP)/CP x 100
percentage and the actual gain or loss. 90 CP =120000
Using the formula, Loss % = (x 2/100) % = 10 x 10/ 100% = 1 % CP = 1333.33
The value of loss = (2 x x 2 x S) / (1002 – x 2 ) Total CP = 1333.3333 + 1090.9090 = 2424.24
= (2 x 10 x 10 x 1200) / (1002 – 102) = Rs 24.24 Total SP = 2400
Alternatively, SP of both watches = 1200, Total SP = 2400 (2 Loss = 2424.24 – 2400 = 24.24
watches) Loss % = 24.24/2424.24∗100 = 1 %
One watch was sold at a profit of 10%, using our basic formula: So it is important to understand both formula and basic logic for
Profit or loss percentage = (SP-CP)/CP x 100 % the question, as explained earlier, if the basic formula of profit
10 = (1200 –CP)/CP x 100 and loss is used, you will never go wrong.
110 CP =120000 Students should learn to do the above calculations in one step,
CP = 1090.90 using the formula and concept of percentage, if an item is sold at
10% profit, then:
CP = SP CP = SP/1.1
2. A dishonest shopkeeper claims to sell goods at cost price, but uses a lighter weight , then his Gain % = [ 100 x excess / ( original
value – excess ) ]
Example: A shopkeeper sells rice to a customer, using false weight and gains 100/8 % on his cost. What weight has he substituted
for a kilogram?
Using the formula, Gain % = [100 x excess / (original value – excess)] 100/8 = [100 x excess/(1 – excess)]
From here, Excess = 0.111.. Kg, which is 111.11 grams
Weight used by shopkeeper = 1000 – 111.11 = 888.89 grams
Alternatively, if he is selling 1 gram for Re. 1, then 1000 grams are for Rs. 1000, so once a shopkeeper sells 1 kg, he makes Rs. 1000,
using the basic profit and loss formula, Profit or loss percentage = (SP - CP)/CP x 100
100/8 = (1000 – CP)/CP x 100 100 CP = 800000 – 800CP CP = 8000/9 = 888.89
Since here grams is equal to rupees, the weight used is 888.89 grams.Again we establish that the basic formula works well
everywhere.
EXERCISE
1.A man sold an article for Rs 1440, losing 10%. The cost (a) Rs 1650 (b) Rs 1610 (c) Rs 1700 (d) Rs 1600
price of the article is

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2. If by selling an article for Rs.100, a man gains Rs.12 then 50% profit ?
his gain percent Is (a) Rs. 920 (b) Rs 960 (c ) Rs.1065
(a) 15 (b) 16.66 (c) 1711/17 (d) 13.63 (d) Rs 1200 (e) None of these
(e)None 15. The percentage profit earned by selling an article for
3. A fruit seller bought mangoes at the rate of 4 for Rs 3 Rs. 2180 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by
and sold them at the rate of Rs 12 per dozen. Find his selling the same article for Rs. 1620. At what price
profit or loss per cent should the article be sold to make 25% profit ?
(a) 75% (b) 50% (c) 33.33% (d)25% (a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs 1900 (c) Rs. 1800
4. A person buys 120 oranges for Rs 180 and sells 6 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
oranges for Rs 10. Find his profit or loss per cent 16. If the cost price of 8 pens is equal to the selling price
(a) 9 2/5 % (b) 8 1/3 % (c) 9 1/9 % (d)10 2/3 % of 6 pens, the gain percent is:
5.A music system when sold for Rs. 6360 gives a loss of (a) 25% (b) 33.33% (c) 50% (d) 66.66%
20.5% to the merchant who sells it. Calculate hi loss or gain (e) None of these
per cent, if he sells it for Rs 7700. 17. The cost price of 22 articles is equal to the selling price
(a) Loss of 5.625% (b) Profit of 8.33% of 18 articles. Gain percent is
(c) Loss of 3.75% (d) Profit of 5.625% (a) 3,9/17 % (b) 22.22 % (c) 18.75%
6. A shopkeeper bought 240 chocolates at Rs 15 per dozen (d) 18.18% (e) None of these
If he sold all of them at Re. 1.5 each, what was his profit 18. The cost price of 20 books is the same as the selling
per cent? price of x books. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is
(a) 66(1/6)% (b) 33(1/3)% (c) 16(2/3)% (d) 20% (a)15 (b) 16 (c ) 18 (d) 25 (e) None
7. A coal merchant makes a profit of 30% by selling coal at 19. A man bought apples at the rate of 6 for Rs. 30 and sold
Rs 39 per quintal. If he sells the coal at Rs. 32 per quintal, them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 44. How many apples should
what is his profit per cent on the whole investment? be sold to earn a net profit of Rs. 42?
(a) 6% (b)6.66% (c) 7.5% (d) 8% (a) 90 (b) 100 (c) 50 (d) 84 (e) None
8. The cost price of a coat and a trouser is Rs. 416. If the 20.If after successive discounts of 40%, 20% and 10% a
coat costs 8% more than the trousers, find the cost price of customer has to pay Rs 216, what is the list price of the
the trouser. article ?
(a) Rs. 125 (b) Rs. 150 (c)Rs. 175 (d) Rs 200 (a) Rs 400 (b) Rs 500 (c) Rs 600 (d) Rs 360
9. A man buys two hens for Rs 500 each. He sold one for 21. A makes an article for Rs. 150 and sells it to B at a profit
20% profit and other for 15% loss. Find his profit of 20%. B sells it to C who sells it for Rs. 217.8, making a
percentage profit of 10%. What profit percent did B make?
(a) 2.5% (b)10% (c) 15% (d) 12% (a)25% (b)20% (c)16-66% (d) 10%
10. By selling a casserole for Rs. 890, a man incurs a loss of 22. The printed price of a calculator is Rs. 220. A retailer
11%. At what price should he sell the casserole to gain pays Rs. 154 for it by getting successive discounts of 20%
16%? and another rate which is illegible. What is the second
(a) Rs. 1160 (b) Rs. 1080 (c)Rs. 1210 (d) None discount rate?
11. The cost price of 60 mangoes is equal to the selling (a) 12% (b) 12.5% (c)15% (d)20%
price of 50 mangoes. Find the percentage profit? 23. A trader mixes three varies of tea costing Rs 60, Rs 40
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c)30% (d) None and Rs 30/kg in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 4 in terms of weight and
12.Kedar buys 2 articles for Rs 800. He sells one of them at sells the mixture at Rs 35/kg. What percentage of profit or
a profit of 30% and other at a loss of 50% and makes no loss does he make ?
profit or loss at the end. What is the cost price of the (a) 12.5% (b)6% (c) 6.67% (d)8%
article he sold at a loss ? 24. A grocer buys 60 kg of sugar at Rs 20/kg and mixes it
(a) Rs 300 (b) Rs 320 (c) Rs 340 (d) None with 140 kg of sugar at Rs 25/kg. At what rate per kg
13.The total cost price of two clocks is Rs 900. One is sold should be sell the mixture to gain 15% on the whole ?
at a profit of 20% and the other at a loss of 25%. There is (a) Rs 24.50 (b) Rs 24.80 (c) Rs 25.30 (d) Rs 27.025
no loss or gain in the whole transaction. The cost price of 25.A person bought two articles for Rs 1800 and Rs 900
the watch on which the shopkeeper loses is respectively. One he sold at a gain of 15%. At what price
(a) Rs 400 (b) Rs 500 (c) Rs 450 (d) Rs 540 should he Sell the other to get a profit of 18% on the
14. The profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 896 is whole transaction ?
equal to the loss incurred when the same article is sold (a) Rs 1100 (b) Rs 1200 (c) Rs 1150 (d) Rs 1116
for Rs. 524. What should be the sale price for making

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UNIT-6 : RATIO, PROPORTION AND VARIATION
INTRODUCTION
Ratio and proportion is the continuation of the basic concepts for the entrance tests. The application of the topics is far and wide,
a direct application which will be covered here is “Allegation and Mixtures”.
Ratio: The comparison of two quantities of the same unit is the ratio of one quantity to another. The ratio of A and B is written as A:
B or A / B, where A is called the antecedent and B the consequent.
Example: The ratio of 10 kg to 20 kg is 10:20 or 10/20, which is 1:2 or ½, where 1 is called the antecedent and 2 the consequent.

Properties of Ratio
1. a : b = ma : mb, where m is a constant
2. a : b : c = A : B : C is equivalent to a / A = b /B = c /C, this is an important property and has to be used in ratio of three things.
3. If a / b = c / d , then (a+b) / b= (c+d) / d – Component
Example: ½ = 2/4, so (1+2)/2 = (2+4)/4 => 3/2 = 6/4 => 3/2 = 3/2
(a-b) / b = (c-d) / d – Dividend
Example: 10/4 = 20/8, so (10-4)/4 = (20-8)/8 => 6/4 = 12/8 => 3/2 = 3/2
(a+b) / (a-b) = (c+d) / (c-d) – Component and Dividend
Example: 10/4 = 20/8, so (10+4)/(10-4) = (20+8)/(20-8) => 14/6 = 28/12 => 7/3 = 7/3
Application: These properties have to be used with quick mental calculations; one has to see a ratio and quickly get to results with
mental calculations.
Example: 10/4 = 20/8, should quickly tell us that 14/4(7/2) = 28/8(7/2), 6/4(3/2) = 12/8(3/2) and 14/6(7/3) = 28/12(7/3)
4. If a / b = c / d =e / f = ……, then (a+c+e+…..)/(b+d+f+….) = each of the individual ratio
Example: ½ = 2/4 = 4/8, there fore (1+2+4)/(2+4+8) = 7/14 = ½
5. If A > B then (A+C)/ (B+C) < A/B Where A, B and C are natural numbers
Example: 3>2, then (3+4)/ (2+4) = 7/6 (1.16)
6. If A < B then (A+C)/ (B+C) > A/B Where A, B and C are natural numbers.

CONTINUED PROPORTION
If three numbers a, b and c are in continued proportion, then: We can say that a, b, b and c are in proportion.
i.e. a / b = b / c
b2 = a c
Here we can say that a is called first proportion, c is called third proportion and b is called mean proportion.
Types of proportion-
1. DIRECT PROPORTION:
If X is directly proportional to Y, that means any increase or decrease in any of two quantities will have proportionate effect on the
other quantity. If X increases then Y will also increase and vice-versa.
When X is directly proportional to Y, it is written as X α Y, to bring in an equality sign, you have to introduce a constant, say k. so X =
k Y. From here X/Y is a constant, so X/Y = k.
2. INVERSE PROPORTION:
If X is inversely proportional to Y, that means any increase or decrease in any of two quantities will have inverse proportionate effect
on the other quantity. This means if X increases, then Y decreases and if X decreases the Y increases and vice-versa for Y.
When X is inversely proportional to Y, it is written as X α 1/Y, to bring in an equality sign, you have to introduce a constant, say k. so
X = k/Y. From here XY is a constant, so XY = k.
Both these proportions have wide applications in many subjects, especially sciences and economics, where many factors are directly
and inversely proportional to each other.
Applications of Ratio and Proportion:

PARTNERSHIP
Partnership, as the name suggests, its more than one person investing in something to increase resources, reduce risk etc.
Important point: The partners are liable for income/expenditure/profit/loss as per their percentage holding of the business or
their partnership percentage. This is defined by their capital/work/other things contribution in terms of time. The partnership
terms can of many types, in questions you may encounter partners putting monies for different time periods, which can be
calculated by multiplying the money with the time in months the money has been invested for.
Example: Ram partnered with Rohan and Ravi (equal partners) in a business and added capital of Rs. 10000 for six months in a year.
The capital for those six months became Rs. 25000 for the year, if the end of year profit is 2500, what is Ram’s net profit?
Ram’s capital = 10000 for six months
Total capital = 25000 for six months

Page 21
Ravi and Rohan’s capital = 25000 – 10000 = 15000 for 12 months
Ravi’s Capital = 7500 for 12 months Rohan’s capital = 7500 for 12 months
Ram’s share = (10000 x 6) / (10000 x 6) + (7500 x 12) + (7500 x 12)
= 60000/24000 = ¼
Ram’s Profit = ¼ x 2500 = Rs. 625

MIXTURES AND ALLEGATION

“Mixtures and allegations” is about mixing different objects in order to get desired levels/percentage/concentration of different
objects. Ratio and proportion has direct application in “mixtures and allegations”. The concept of weighted average is also used
to solve mixture questions, so it is suggested that students brush up the “Averages” chapter before starting off with this chapter.
Example: If 100 ml water is mixed 1000 ml of milk, what is the ratio of the mixture solution?
Using basic percentage, total solution = 1100 ml, so 100/1100 = 1/11
Water: milk = 1:10,
This can also be read as milk solution 10:11, where if milk is 10, water is 1 and total solution is 11.
This lingo will be used extensively in this chapter; it may be for milk, alcohol, spirit etc.
Example: Two bottles contain mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 8:3 and 5:1. In what ratio must liquid be drawn from each
bottle to give a mixture in the ratio of 4:1?
Here using basic logic, suppose we take x units from bottle one and y units from bottle two to make a mixture of 4:1, bottle with
ratio 8:3 will contribute 8/11x milk and 3/11x water, similarly other bottle will contribute 5/6y milk and 1/6y water
Total milk = 8/11x + 5/6y
Total Water = 3/11x + 1/6y
Now total milk/ total water = 4/1, so [8/11x + 5/6y]/ [3/11x + 1/6y] = 4/1
Solving we get x/y = 11/24, so x:y = 11:24
We will study a “Rule of allegation” to solve the questions on mixing products like tea etc where different varieties(with different
costs) are mixed to get desired Varity, but students should know that formula is just an aid, another way of solving the question.
Students should know how to solve the question without the formula. The allegation uses simple logic, but some students become
slave of the allegation formula, which may lead to lot of errors.

RULE OF ALLEGATION
This rule helps us in solving questions where two varieties (of different prices) are mixed to get a new variety with a new Average
price.
Quantity of cheaper = Price of Dearer - Average price
--------------------------- -----------------------------------------
Quantity of dearer = Average price – Price of cheaper
Example: In what ratio should tea at the rate Rs. 40/kg be mixed with tea at the rate Rs. 27/kg, so that mixture may cost Rs 30/kg?
Using the above formula
Quantity of cheaper / quantity of dearer = (40 – 30)/ (30-27) = 10/3
So, the two should be mixed in the ratio 10:3.
In case of liquids, there is another formula which can be used in various questions.
In a vessel containing x litre of a one liquid (say pure milk), if y litres is withdrawn and replaced by another liquid (say pure water),
and this is repeated n times, then:
Milk left in vessel after nth operation = x [1-y/x] n
Example: In a vessel full of 5 litres of milk, five times 250 ml is taken and replaced with water, what is the concentration of milk left
in the vessel
As per the formula, Milk left in vessel after nth operation = x [1-y/x] n
Milk left = 5(1-0.25/5)5 (remember to covert ml into litres)
Solving, Milk left = 3.86 litres
The concentration is 3.86/5 x 100 = 77.3 %

EXERCISE
1. If A : B = 3 : 2 and B : C = 8 : 19, then A: C is: (a) 2 : 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 : 2 (c) 6 : 4 : 3 (d) 20 : 15 : 2
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 12 : 19 4. (4x² — 3y²): (2x² + 5y²) = 12:19, then (x : y) is:
2. If A:B = 2:3, B :C = 4:5 and C:D = 2:1 ,then A:D is equal (a) 2 : 3 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
to: 5 .The salaries of L, M, N are in the ratio 2: 3 : 5. If the
(a) 6 : 7 (b) 16 : 15 (c) 8 : 15 (d) 15 : 4 increments of 35%, 15% and 20% are allowed respectively
3. If 2A =3B = 4C, then A : B : C is:

Page 22
in their salaries, then what will be the new ratio of their becomes 1: 1. Find the quantity of alcohol in the given
salaries? mixture
(a) 3 : 33 :60 (b) 10 : 11 : 20 (a) 35 Litres (b) 7.5 (c) 12.5 (d) None of these
(c) 18 : 23 : 40 (d) Cannot be determined 16. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the
6. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school ratio 5 :3. If 8 litres of this mixture be replaced by 4 litres of
are in the ratio 6: 8: 13.There is a proposal to increase milk, the ratio of milk to water in the new would be:
these seats by 40%, 50% and 60% respectively. What will (a) 23 : 9 (b) 7 : 3 (c) 8 : 3 (d) 4 : 3
be the ratio of increased seats ? 17. L and M are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by
(a) 2 : 3 : 4 (b) 6 : 7 : 8 mixing metals in the ratio 7 :2 and 7 : 11 respectively. If
(c) 21 : 30 : 52 (d) None of these equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third
7. An amount of Rs. 2430 is divided among X, Y and Z such alloy N, the ratio of gold and copper in N will be:
that if their shares be reduced by Rs. 5, Rs.. 10 and Rs. 15 (a) 5 : 1 (b) 5 : 9 (c) 7 : 5 (d) 9 : 5
respectively, the remainders shall be in the ratio of 3: 4 : 5. 18. PK had ten paise, twenty paise and one rupee coins in
Then, Y’s share was: the ratio 10:17:7 respectively at the end of day. If that day
(a) Rs.605 (b) Rs. 790 (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs.810 he earned a total of Rs. 57, how many twenty paise coins
8. Rs 1045 is divided among Anand, Bhanu and Chandan in did he have?
such a way that if Rs10, Rs 15 and Rs 20 be diminished (a) 114 (b)171 (c) 95 (d) 85
from their shares respectively the remainders will be in the 19. Praful has coins of the denomination of Re. 1, 50 p and
ratio of 5 : 8 : 7. What is the share of Bhanu? 25 p in the ratio of 12:10:7. The total worth of the coins he
(a) Rs 400 (b) Rs 415 (c) Rs 350 (d) Rs 450 has is Rs. 75. Find the number of 25 p coins that Praful has
9.If 391 chocolates were distributed among three childrens (a) 48 (b)28 (c) 60 (d)None
in the ratio 1/2:2/3:3/4, how many chocolates did the first 20. A purse contains equal number of 50p and 25p coins. If
children get? they are all worth rs 7.50, find the number of each coin.
(a) 102 (b)108 (c) 112 (d)104 (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 14 (d) 8
10. Rs. 2250 is divided among three friends Amit, Brajesh 21. If Rs. 510 be divided among A, B, C in such a way that A
and Chayan in such a way that 1/6th of Amit’s share, 1/4th gets 2/3 of what B gets and B gets 1/4 of what C gets, then
of Brajesh’s share and 2/5th of Chayan’s share are equal. their shares are respectively:
Find Amit’s share. (a) Rs. 120, Rs. 240, Rs. 150
(a) Rs. 720 (b)Rs. 1080 (c) Rs. 450 (d)Rs. 1240 (b) Rs. 60, Rs. 90, Rs. 360
11. In a mixture of 40 litres, the ratio of milk and water is (c) Rs. 150, Rs. 300, Rs, 60 (d) None of these
3:1. How much water must be added to this mixture so 22. A sum of Rs. 3900 is divided amongst P. Q. R and S such
that the ratio of milk and water becomes 3:2. that P’s share/Q's Share = Q’s share/R's Share=R's
(a)10 litres (b)32 litres (c)40 litres (d)30 litres Share/S's Share=2/3.Then P's Share is:
12.A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5:2.On (a) Rs. 140 (b) Rs. 480 (c) Rs 240 (d) Rs.320
adding 6 litres of water, the ratio of milk to water becomes 23. If a carton containing a dozen mirrors is dropped,
5:3. The quantity of milk in the mixture is: which of the following cannot be the ratio of broken
(a) 16 litres (b)25 litres (c) 30 litres (d)22.75 litres minors to unbroken minors?
13. 20 L of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 7 : 5
4 : 1. If 5 L of the mixture be replaced by 5 L of milk, the 24. The total number of peoples in three classes of a school
ratio of milk to water in the new mixture would be is 408. The number of peoples in classes I and II are in the
(a) 7 : 20 (b) 20 : 7 (c) 21 : 4 (d) 17 : 3 ratio 4:5 and those in classes II and III are in the ratio 9:11.
14. Two vessels of equal volume contain milk and water in Find the number of peoples in the class that had the
the ratio of 5: 3 and x: y respectively. If the contents are highest number of peoples.
mixed into a bigger vessel, then the ratio of milk to water (a) 63 (b) 105 (c) 165 (d) 180
in the resulting solution is 25. The ratio of the first and second class fares between
𝟏𝟑 𝒙+𝟓 𝒚 𝟏𝟑𝒙+𝟓𝒚 3𝑥+2 𝑦 3𝑥+2𝑦 the two stations is 3 : 1 and that the number of passengers
(a) 𝟑𝒙+𝟏𝟏 𝒚 (b)𝟏𝟏𝒙+𝟑𝒚 (c) 5 𝑥+8𝑦 (d) 8𝑥+5𝑦
travelling by first and second class is 1: 30. If Rs 2200 is
15. A mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 7 : 5.
collected as fare, the amount collected from second class
If 10 litres of water is added to the mixture, the ratio
passengers is
(a) Rs 2000 (b) Rs 1600 (c) Rs 1680 (d) Rs 1660

Page 23
UNIT-7 : PARTNERSHIP
1. A, B, C enter into a partnership investing Rs. 40,000, Rs. one third of his capital while C joins them with a capital of
50,000 and Rs. 70,000 respectively. The respective shares Rs. 14000, At the end of a year they earn a profit of Rs.
of A, B, C in an annual profit of Rs. 40,000are: 19,050. Find the share of C in the profit.
(a) Rs. 15,000, Rs.12,000 , Rs.13,000 (a)Rs. 6500 (b) Rs. 6300
(b) Rs. 10,000, Rs, 14,000, Rs. 16,000 (c) Rs. 7500 (d) Rs. 8000 (e) None of these
(c) Rs. 11,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 15,000 9. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 1,00,000 for a business. A
(d) Rs.. 10,000, Rs. 12,500, Rs.17,500 subscribes Rs. 8,000 more than B and , B Rs. 10,000 more
2. P and Q are partners in a business. P invests Rs. 30,000 than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 70,000, A receives:
for 8 months and Q invests Rs. 35,000 for 10 months. Out (a) Rs. 20,000 (b) Rs. 18,000 (c) Rs. 29,400
of a profit of Rs.7,375 , P’s share is: (d) Rs.32,700 (e) None of these
(a) Rs. 3,000 (b) Rs. 4,500 (c) Rs. 4,375 10. Three partners X, Y, Z start a business. Twice X’s
(d) Rs. 5,942 (e) None of these capital is equal to thrice Y’s capital, Y’s capital is four
3. Jordan started a business investing Rs. 9000. After five times Z’s capital. Out of a total profit of Rs. 16,500 at the
months, Undertaker joined with a capital of Rs. 8000. At end of the year, Y’s share is:
the end of the year, they earn a profit of Rs. 6970, then (a) Rs. 4000 (b) Rs. 6000 (c) Rs. 7500
what will be the share of Undertaker in the profit ? (d) Rs. 6600 (e) None of these
(a) Rs. 1883.78 (b) Rs. 2380 (c) Rs. 3690 11. P,Q and R enter into partnership. P invests some
(d) Rs. 3864 (e) None of these money at the beginning, Q invests double the amount
4. Jinder and Minder started a business in partnership after 6 months and R invests thrice the amount after 8
investing Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 15,000respectively. After six months. If the annual profit be Rs. 10,500, R’s share is:
months, Inder joined them with Rs. 20,000. What will be (a) Rs. 3,200 (b) Rs.4,500 (c) Rs. 3,500
Minder’s share in the total profit of Rs. 50,000 earned at (d) Rs 3,250 (e) None of these
the end of 2 years from the starting of the business? 12. A, B and C rent a pasture, A puts 20 hen for 7 months,
(a) Rs. 15,000 (b) Rs. 18,000 (c) Rs. 19,000 B puts 22 hen for 5 months and C puts 25 hen for 6
(d) Rs. 20,000 (e) None of these months for grazing, If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 360,
5. A, B and C enter into a partnership. They invest Rs. how much must C pay as his share of rent ?
80,000, Rs. 1,60,000 and 2,40,000 respectively. At the end (a) Rs. 95 (b) Rs. 135 (c) Rs. 95
of the first year, B withdraws Rs. 80,000. while at the end (d) Rs. 105 (e) None of these
of the second year, C withdraws Rs. 1,60,000, In what 13. M,N and O enter into a partnership and their shares
ratio will the profit be shared at the end of 3 years? are in the ratio : 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/5. “After 4 months, M
(a) 2 : 3 : 5 (b) 3 : 4 : 7 (c) 4 : 5 : 9 withdraws half of his capital and after 8 months, a profit
(d) 2 : 4 : 7 (e) None of these of Rs. 2600 is divided among them, What is N’s share?
6. S,R and T into a partnership. S initially invests Rs. 25 (a) Rs. 1000 (b) Rs.1200 (c) Rs.1300
lakhs and adds another Rs. 15 lakhs after one year, R (d) Rs.900 (e) None of these
initially invests Rs. 35 lakhs and withdraws Rs.15 lakhs 14.A & B entered into a partnership with capitals of in the
after 2 years and T invests Rs. 30 lakhs, In what ratio ratio 3:4. After 3 months A withdrew 1/3 of his capital and
should the profits be divided at the end of 3 years: B withdrew 1/4 of his capital. The gain at the end of 10
(a) 7 : 6 : 6 (b) 20 : 20 : 19 (c) 20 : 19 : 18 months was Rs. 504. A’s share in this profit is?
(d) 12 : 15 : 8 (e) None of these (a) Rs.303 (b) Rs.283 (c) Rs. 198
7. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 8,000 (d) Rs. 207 (e) None of these
and Rs. 6,000 respectively. After 3 months, A withdrew 15. In a partnership, G invests 1/6 of the capital for 1/6 of
Rs. 2,500 while B invested Rs. 2,500 more. After 3 more the time, H invests 1/3 of the capital for 1/3 of the time
months, C joins the business with a capital of Rs. 10,500. and U, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a
The share of B exceeds that of C, out of a total profit of profit of Rs. 4600, H’s share is:
Rs. 36300 after one year by: (a) Rs. 650 (b) Rs. 800 (c) Rs. 960
(a) Rs. 4950 (b) Rs. 4650 (c) Rs. 4800 (d) Rs. 1000 (e) None of these
(d) Rs. 4750 (e) None of these 16. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a
8. A and B start a business with investments of Rs. 10,000 business venture. It was that A would invest Rs. 13,000 for
and Rs. 9,000 respectively. After 4 months, A takes out 6 months, B, Rs. 16,800 for 5 months and C, Rs. 20,000 for
half of his capital. After two more months, B takes out 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which

Page 24
he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was (a) 4 months (b) 5 months (c) 6 months
Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit. (d) 8 months (e) None of these
(a) Rs. 1900 (b) Rs 2660 (c) Rs. 2800 19. A starts business with Rs. 4500 and after 6 months, B
(d) Rs. 2840 (e) None of these joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is
17. P, Q and R started a shop by investing Rs. 36,000, Rs. divided in the ratio 3 : 2. What is B’s contribution in the
75,000 and Rs. 81,000 respectively. At the end of year, the capital?
profit were distributed among them. If R’s share of profit (a) Rs. 7500 (b) Rs. 6000 (c) Rs. 8500
be Rs. 32,400, then the total profit was: (d) Rs. 9000 (e) None of these
(a) Rs, 76,800 (b) Rs. 78,000 (c) Rs. 88,000 20. Akul and Bakul started a business with initial
(d) Rs. 1,16,000 (e) None of these investments in the ratio 14 : 15 and their annual profit
18. Suraj began a business with Rs. 85,000, He was joined were in the ratio 7 : 6. If Akul invested the money for 10
afterwards by Neeraj with Rs. 42,500. For how much months, for how many months did Bakul invest his
period after does Neeraj join, if the profits at the end of money?
the year are divided in the ratio of 3 : 1 (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) None of thes

Page 25
UNIT-8 : MIXTURE & ALLIGATION
1. Alligation: It is the rule that enables us to find the ratio in
which two or more ingredients at the given price must be
mixed to produce a mixture of a desired price.
A process or rule for the solution of problems concerning the
compounding or mixing of ingredients differing in price or
quality.
2. Mean Price: The cost price of a unit quantity of the mixture
is called the mean price.
3. Basic Formula: If two ingredients A and B of price x and y
respectively are mixed and the price of resultant mixture is M
(mean price)then the ratio (R) in which ingredients are mixed
is given by, the rule of allegation
𝑀−𝑦
R=(𝑥−𝑀 )
The above formula can be represented in diagram below,
which in turn is more intuitive to grasp.
4. Final ratio is the ratio obtained from step 2 (if an
ingredient is common in the ratios, add values for
this particular ingredient)
5.1. Mixture Containing 3 Ingredients
Example:In what ratio must a person mix three kind of tea
each of which has a price of 70, 80 and 120 rupees per kg, in
such a way that the mixture costs him 100 rupees per kg?
Solution: Here the prices of tea are 70, 80 and 120 And mean
price is 100.
Here, prices LOWER than the mean are 70 and 80. And prices
HIGHER than the mean is 120.
Thus possible pairs which can give mean value of 100 is: {70,
120} and {80, 120}
Let us denote tea of Rs. 70 with t70, tea of Rs. 80 with t80 and
tea of Rs. 120 with t120
We apply the old alligation rule to ALL (two in this case) the
pairs
For the 1st pair (t70, t120)

Thus the required ratio is,

𝑀−𝑦 𝑦−𝑀 ⇒t70:t120=20:30
R=(𝑥−𝑀 )=(𝑀−𝑧 )
Similarly, for the 2st pair (t80, t120)
4. Replacement of Part of Solution Formula
Suppose a container contains a solution from which some
quantity of solution is taken out and replaced with one of the
ingredients. This process is repeated n times then,
Final Amount of ingredient that is not replaced=
𝑉𝑜𝑙.𝑎𝑓𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑣𝑎𝑙 n
Initial Amount×( )
𝑉𝑜𝑙.𝑎𝑓𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑟𝑒𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑛𝑔
Above formula is not only true for absolute amounts but for
ratios as well. So following formula is also valid:
Final ratio of ingredient not replaced to total=Final ratio of
ingredient not replaced to total=
𝑉𝑜𝑙.𝑎𝑓𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑣𝑎𝑙
Initial ratio×( Vol.after replacing )n
t80:t120=−20:−20 ⇒t80:t120=20:20
5. Mixture of More Than Two Elements
Thus, Final ratio:
These questions may seem a little tricky at first, but it is
t70:t80:t120=20:20:(30+20) ⇒t70:t80:t120=2:2:5
similar concept applied repeatedly.
Note: It's best to simplify the intermediate ratios at the end,
In order to calculate final ratio of ingredients when mixture
else you may get wrong answer.
contains more than two ingredients,
Here, if we had simplified the ratio to be, t70:t120=2:3 after
1. Take two ingredients such that 1st ingredient is
first pair and t80:t120=1:1 after second pair. We could have
LOWER than the mean value and the other one is
easily gone to calculate ratio to be, t70:t80:t120=2:1:(3+1)
HIGHER than the mean value.
or t70:t80:t120=2:1:4 which is different from the final
2. Calculate the ratio of ingredients
ratio (t70:t80:t120=2:2:5)
3. Repeat for all possible pairs
5.2. Mixture Containing 4 Ingredients

Page 26
Example: How must a shop owner mix 4 types of rice worth ⇒r50:r95=15:30
Rs 95, Rs 60, Rs 90 and Rs 50 per kg so that he can make the Similarly, for the 2st pair (r60, r90)
mixture of these rice worth Rs 80 per kg?
Solution: Here the prices of sugars are 50, 60, 90 and 95.
And the mean price is 80. Here, prices LOWER than the mean
are 50 and 60. And prices HIGHER than the mean are 90 and
95. Thus possible pairs which can give mean value of 80 are:
{50, 95} and {60, 90}
Let us denote rice of Rs. 50 with r50, rice of Rs. 60 with r60, rice
of Rs. 90 with r90 and rice of Rs. 90 with r95
We apply the old alligation rule to ALL (two in this case) the
pairs
For the 1st pair (r50, r95)

r60:r90=−10:−20 ⇒r60:r90=10:20
Thus, Final ratio:
r50:r60:r90:r95=15:10:20:30 ⇒r50:r60:r90:r95=3:2:4:6

r50:r95=−15:−30
EXERCISE
1.In what proportion must sugar at Rs 12.50 per kg be 8.The ratio of alcohol & water in two different containers is
mixed with sugar at Rs 14.00 per kg so that the mixture 3:2 & 5:4. In what ratio we are required to mix the
may be worth Rs 13.00 per kg ? mixtures of two containers in order to get the new mixture
(a) 2 : 1 (b)3 : 5 (c) 3 : 7 (d) 2 : 5 in which the ratio of alcohol and water be 7:5?
2. How much rice at Rs 9.00 per kg should be mixed to 15 (a)7:3 (b)5:3 (c)8:5 (d)2:7
kg of rice, at Rs 15.00 per kg so as to make a mixture worth 9.The shopkeeper mixed 40 kg refined oil with vegetable
Rs 11.00 per kg ? oil worth Rs. 60 per Kg. thus he gains Rs.10 after selling the
(a) 30 kg (b) 24 kg (c) 32 kg (d) 28 kg mixture of the two oils. The price of the first oil is:
3.How much pepsi at Rs. 6 a litre is added to 15 litre of (a)20 (b)25 (c)45 (d)cannot be determine
‘dew’ at Rs. 10 a litre so that the price of the mixture be Rs. 10.A trader has 280 L of oil, a part of which he sells at a
9 a litre? profit of 18% and the rest at 10% loss. He gains 14% on the
(a)5 (b)8 (c)10 (d)none of these whole. What is the quantity sold at 10% loss ?
4.Gold is 19 times as heavy as water & copper is 9 times (a) 40 L (b) 110 L (c)240L (d)160L
heavy. In what ratio must these metals be mixed so that 11.In a 25 litre mixture of milk & water, the water is only
the mixture may be 15 times as heavy as water? 20%. How many litres of water is required to increase the
(a)2:3 (b)3:2 (c)1:3 (d)2:1 percentage of water to 90%?
5.In what ratio a grocer mix tea at Rs 22 per kg and Rs 32 (a)45 litre (b)70 litre (c)115 litre (d)175 litre
per kg, so that by selling that mixture at Rs 28 he may gain 12.A mixture of 70 L of milk and water contains 10% water,
12% ? How many litres of water must be added, so that water
(a) 3:5 (b) 7:3 (c) 8:3 (d) 3:11 may be 30% of the mixture ?
6.In my office the average age of all the female employees (a) 35 L (b) 33 L (c) 20 L (d) 25 L
is 21 years & that of male employees is 32 years, where the 13. A mixture of 150 L of wine and water contains 20%
average age of all the employees is 28 years. The no. of water. How many litres of water must be added so that
employees in my office could be. water may be 25% of the mixture ?
(a)35 (b)78 (c)231 (d)90 (a) 12 L (b) 3 L (c) 10 L (d) 6 L
7.A trader has 320 kg of tea, a part of which he sells at 18% 14.The ratio of milk & water in 55 litre of adulterated milk
profit and the rest at 26% profit. He gains.21% on the is 7:4. How much water must be added to make the
whole. What is the quantity sold at 18% profit ? mixture’s ratio 7:6?
(a) 215 kg (b) 200 kg (c) 120 kg (d) 165 kg (a)5 litre (b)10 litre (c)15 litre (d)9:5

Page 27
15.A and B are two alloys of gold & copper prepared by (a)18 (b)26 (c)24 (d)36
mixing metals in the ratio 7:2 and 7:11 respectively. If 18.A vessel contains 240 L of wine. 40 L are taken out of
equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third the vessel everyday and an equal quantity of water is put
alloy C, then the ratio of gold & copper in alloy C will be- in. Find how much wine is left in the vessel after 3 days ?
(a)5:7 (b)5:9 (c)7:5 (d)9:5 (a) 138 8/9 L (b)121 2/7L (c)1423/5 L (d)165 1/4 L
16.In my pocket there are Rs. 25 consisting of only the 19.From a vessel of milk, containing 36 L, 6 L are drawn out
denominations of 20 paise & 50 paise. Thus there are total and the cask is filled up with water. If the same process is
80 coins in my pocket. The no. of coins the denomination repeated a second, then a third time, what will be the
of 50 paise is: percentage of milk at the end ?
(a)30 (b)70 (c)50 (d)25 (a) 52 23/26 % (b) 59 43/54% (c)57 47/54 %
17.There are some shepherds and their sheep in a grazing (d)54 25/21%
field. The no. of total heads are 60 & total legs are 168
including both men and sheep. The no. of sheep is:

Page 28
UNIT-9 : PROBLEMS ON AGES
1. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 6 :7. If 11. Eighteen years ago, a father was three times as old as
Q is 4 years old than P, what will be the ratio of the ages his son. Now the father is only twice as old as his son.
of P and Q after 4 years ? Then the sum of the present ages of the son and the
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 5 (c ) 4:3 father is ?
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (a) 54 (b) 72 (c) 105 (d) 108 (e) None of these
2. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 5 : 7 12. A person’s present age is two-fifth of the age of his
respectively. If the difference between Q’s present age mother. After 8 years, he will be one-half of the age of his
and P’s age after 6 years is 2, what is the total of P’s and mother How old is the mother at present?
Q’s present ages ? (a) 32 years (b) 36 years (c) 40 years
(a) 48 yrs (b) 52 yrs (c) 56 yrs (d) 42 yrs (e) None of these (d) 48 years (e) None of these
3. Present ages of X and Y are in the ratio 6 : 7 13. Aachal’s grandfather was 7/2 times older to her 5
respectively. Seven years hence this ratio will become 7: 8 years ago. He would be 8/3 times of her age 5 years from
respectively. What is X’s present age in years ? now. What was the present ratio of Aachal’s age to that of
(a) 35 (b) 42 (c) 49 (d)32 (e) None of these her grandfather?
4. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 7 : (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 10 (d) 5 : 8 (e) None of these
6 respectively. Six years hence, the ratio of their ages will 14. The age of father 15 years ago was thrice the age of
become 8 : 7 respectively. What is Anand’s present age in his son. Ten years hence, father’s age will be twice that of
years ? his son. The ratio of their present ages is:
(a) 24 (b) 27 (c) 36 (a) 5 : 2 (b) 7 : 3 (c) 9 : 4 (d) 13 : 4 (e) None of these
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these 15. One year ago, Vidhya was four times as old as her
5. The ratio of the present ages of two brothers is 3 : 4 sister Rakhi. Six years hence, Vidhya’s age will exceed her
and 5 years back, the ratio was 2 : 3. What will be the sister’s age by 9 years. The ratio of the present ages of
ratio of their ages after 5 years ? Vidhya and her daughter is:
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 6 (e) None of these (a) 9 : 2 (b) 11 : 3 (c) 12 : 5 (d) 13 : 4 (e) None of these
6. Ritesh is 50 years old and Tonnie is 70 years old. How 16.The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is
many years ago was the ratio of their ages 1:2 ? 85 years. Five years ago, father’s age was two times the
(a)5 years (b) 30 years (c) 20 years age of the son. After 10 years. son’s age will be:
(d) 37 years (e) None of these (a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 20 years
7. The present ages of three persons are in proportions 5 : (d) 40 years (e) None of these
8 : 10. Nine years ago, the sum of their ages was 88. Find 17.The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 50 years
their present ages (in years). .Eight years ago, the product of their ages was 33. The
(a)25, 40, 50 (b) 30, 40, 45 (c) 20, 35, 45 ages of the son and the father are respectively:
(d) 12, 25, 35 (e) None of these (a) 10 and 40 (b) 11 and 39 (c) 9 and 41
8. The ratio of the ages of a man and his wife is 5 : 4. After (d) 11 and 34 (e) None of these
6 years. this ratio will be 6 : 5. If at the time of marriage, 18. The sum of the ages of 7 children born at the intervals
the ratio was 9 : 7, then how many years ago were they of 4 yrs each is 126 years. What is the age of the youngest
married: child:
(a) 3 years (b) 10 years (c) 12 years (a) 4 yrs (b) 8 yrs (c) 10 yrs (d) 6 yrs (e) None of these
(d) 15 years (e) None of these 19.A father said to his son,”I was as old as you are at
9. The ratio between the present ages of X and Y is 12 : 11 present at the time of your birth”. If the father's age is 62
respectively. The ratio between X’s age 2 years ago and years now, the son’s age eight years back was:
Y’s age 2 years hence is 1 : 1, What is the ratio between (a) 25 years (b) 27 years (c ) 21 years
X’s age 4 years hence and Y’s age 4 years ago ? (d) 23 years (e) None of these
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 13 : 10 (d) 4 : 1 (e)None of these 20. A person was asked to state his age in years. His reply
10. A man is 30 years older than his son. In ten years, his was, “Take my age four years hence multiply it by 4 and
age will be twice the age of his son. The present age of then subtract four times my age & four year ago and you
the son is : will know how old I am ”.What was the age of the person
(a) 14 years (b) 18 years (c)20 years ?
(d) 22 years (e) None of these (a) 30 years (b) 40 years (c) 34 years
(d) 32 years (e) None of these

Page 29
UNIT-10 : TIME & WORK
INTRODUCTION
This is an important chapter from the perspective of CAT and other entrance tests. It tests both logic and accuracy of calculations. It
will use basic concepts of ratio and proportion in reference to speed and time. Students are advised to be highly attentive solving
problems from this section.
Work is the job assigned or job completed, it will be same as distance here. The rate of work is the speed or speed of work.

Basics of Work and Time

1. Man × Days (or hours or minutes) = Man days, this is the basic formula to be understood:
Example 1: A man does a work in 10 days
(a)1 man × 10 days = 10 man days
(b)The work takes 10 man days
(c)Two men will take 5 days to finish the work (Total man days required are 10)
(d)The work done by one man in one day is 1/10th of total work
This is actually the only concept of work and time and one can solve the all the questions based on this concept. Even all the
concepts are given below are derived from this concept of man days.

Example 2: Ram will do a piece of work in 15 days, what part of work will he do in two days?
Here Man × Days = Man days
1 × 15 = 15, as given work will take 15 days
Therefore in one man-day 1/15th of work will be done and in 2 days 2 × 1/15th = 2/15th of the work will be done. 2. B works twice
as good as A, he will finish the work in half the days

Example 3: Ram is twice as good as Shyam in work; Shyam will do a piece of work in 30 days, in how many days ram will do the
work?
Since Ram is twice as good, he will do the work in 30/2 = 15 days
3. If A and B can do a piece of work in X and Y days respectively while working alone, they will together take XY/(X + Y) days to
complete it.
Proof:
A’s 1 day of work = 1/X B’s 1 day of work = 1/Y
So (A + B)‘s total 1 day work = (1/X + 1/Y) of the total work.
Let total work be W. Now (1/X + 1/Y) of W can be finished in 1 day
XY
W (total work) can be finished in = (1/1/x+1/y) = X+Y days.

Example 4: Shyam will do a piece of work in 30 days; Ram can do same work in 15 days, in how many days can both do the work?
As per the formula, in days.
Therefore Therefore 30x 15 /30 + 15 = 450/50 = 10 days
XYZ
4. If A , B , C can do a piece of work in X , Y , Z days respectively while working alone , they will together take [XY+YZ+ZX]
days to finish it

Example 5: Shyam will do a piece of work in 30 days; Ram can do same work in 15 days, Bhuvan can do the same work in 10 days,
in how many days can all three do the work?
As per the formula, in days. Therefore 30x 15 /30 + 15 = 450/50 = 5 days

PIPES AND CISTERNS

The Pipes and cisterns use the same principles as of time and work. Here a pipe connected with a cistern is called an inlet pipe to fill
it or an outlet pipe to empty it.

Important points
1. If an inlet pipe can fill a cistern in A hours, the part filled in 1 hour = 1/A (same as work and time fundamental)
2. If pipe A is ‘x’ times bigger than pipe B , then pipe A will take 1/xth of the time taken by pipe B to fill the cistern.

Example 6: It take 4 hrs for pipe A to empty a 100 liter tank, if another pipe B which double the size of pipe is employed how long
will it take to empty the tank?
Since the Pipe is double the size, it will take ½ time of the time taken by the smaller pipe
Therefore 1/2 × 4 = 2 hrs

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3. If an inlet pipe can fill a tank in A hours and an outlet pipe empties the full tank in B hours, then the net part filled in 1 hour when
both the pipes are opened = 1/a - 1/b
In 1 hour, the part filled (or emptied) = 1/a - 1/b
Time required to fill or empty the tank = ab / a-b hours

Example 7: There are two pipes (inlet and outlet) attached with a tank of 1000 litres, the inlet pipe can fill the tank in 2 hrs, the
outlet pipe can empty the tank in 4 hrs. What is the time required to fill the tank in case both are open? In one hour what part of
tank will be filled?
Inlet pipe time to fill the tank = 2 hrs
Outlet pipe time to empty the tank = 4 hrs
Time to fill the tank = hours = 4x2/2 = 4 hrs
Net part filled/emptied in one hour = 1/a -1/b =1/2 - 1/4 = ¼ th of the tank, which is even obvious from the earlier result.
4. If X and Y fill/empty a cistern in ‘m’ and ‘n’ hours, then together they will take (mn/m+n) hours to fill/empty the cistern and in one
hour (n+m/nm) th part of the cistern will be filled/ emptied.(same as time and work)

Example 8: There are two pipes attached with a tank of 1000 litres, Pipe A can fill the tank in 2 hrs, the Pipe B can fill the tank in 4
hrs. What is the time required to fill the tank in case both are open?
Inlet pipe time to fill the tank = 2 hrs
Outlet pipe time to empty the tank = 4 hrs
Time to fill the tank = (mn/m+n)hours = 4x2/2+4 = 1.33 hrs
5. If an inlet pipe fills a cistern in ‘a’ minutes and takes ‘x’ minutes longer to fill the cistern due to a leak in the cistern, then the time
in which the leak will empty the cistern is given by a(1+a/x)

Example 9: There is a pipe attached with a tank of 1000 liters, the inlet pipe can fill the tank in 2 hrs, there is a leak in the tank due
to which it takes 2 hrs more to fill the tank. In what time can leak empty the tank?
Time take by pipe to empty the tank = 2 hrs
Extra time taken due to the leak = 2 hrs
By the formula,
Time taken for leak to empty the tank = a(1+a/x)
Therefore = 4 hrs
EXERCISE
1.If a work can be completed by A in 40 days and by B in 60 6. A and B can do a piece of work in 36 days; B and C in 40
days, then the number of days taken by them to finish the days; C and A in 72 days. in how. many days can they do it
work, working together: all working together
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 24 (d) 30 (a) 35 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 25
2. Anshu can do a job in 6 days and Anshu and Bahubali 7. A and B can do a given piece of work in 8 days; B and C
can do it together in 2 days. How many days will be taken can do the same work in 12 days and A, B, C complete it in
by Bahubali to do the job alone 6 days. In how many days can A and C finish it
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 8 (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 24
3. M, N and O together can finish a piece of work in 4 days; 8. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 30 and 40 minutes
M alone can do it in 12 days and N alone in 18 days. How respectively if both the pipes are used together, then how
many days will be taken by O to do it alone. long will it take to fill the tank ?
(a) 36 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 9 (a) 120/7 min (b) 140/9min (c) 112/7 min (d) 114/7 min
4. Amar can do a piece of work in 10 days and Akbar can 9. Pipes L and M can fill a tank in 4 and 12 hours
do the same work in 20 days. With the help of Anthony, respectively Pipe R can empty it in 24 hours. If all the three
they finish the work in 5 days. How long will it take for pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in
13 8 9 3
Anthony alone to finish the work? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 3
17 11 17 7
(a)20 days (b) 10 days (c)35 days (d)15 days 10. Two pipes Arun and Bablu can separately fill a cistern in
5. Pipe A and B running together can fill a cistern in 12 45 minutes and 60 min respectively There is a third pipe in
minutes. If A takes 10 minutes more than B to fill the the bottom of the cistern to empty it if all the three pipes
cistern, then the time in which A and B will fill the cistern are simultaneously opened, then the cistern is full in 40
separately will be respectively? minutes. In how much time, the third pipe alone can
(a) 30 min, 20 min (b) 15 min, 25min empty the cistern ?
(c) 20 min, 10 min (d)20 min, 30 min (a) 90min (b) 72min (c) 110min (d) 120min

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 19. Arun and Bunty can do a piece of work in 45 and 40
11. A is thrice as good a workman as B and together they days respectively. They began the work together but Arun
finish a piece of work in 9 days. In how many days can A leaves after some days and Bunty finished the remaining
alone finish the work work in 23 days. After how many days did Arun leave
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 30 (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12
12. A works twice as fast as B. If B can complete a piece of 20. Two pipes L and M can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15
work independently in 24 days, then the number of days minutes respectively If both the taps are opened
taken by .A and B together to finish the work is simultaneously, and the tap L is closed after 5 minutes,
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 18 then how. much more time will it take to fill the tank by
13.One pipe can fill a tank four times as fast as another tap M
pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in 48 (a) 7min 15sec (b) 7min 45sec
minutes. then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the (c) 8min 5sec (d) 3min 45sec
tank in 21. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 30 minutes and 45
(a) 81min (b) 208min (c) 244min (d) 240min minutes respectively Both pipes are opened together but
14. 20 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of after 15 minutes pipe A is turned off What is the total time
each bucket is 15 liters. How many buckets will be needed required to fill the
to fill the Same tank, if the capacity of each bucket is 12 (a) 10 min 20 sec (b) 11 min 45 sec
liters ? (c) 12 min 30 sec (d) 7 mm 30 sec
(a) 8 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 25 22. Neha can do a work in 20 days and Ranu can do the
15. Adi alone can do a piece of work in 20 days. Bali alone same work in 30 days respectively. If they work at it on
can do it in 30 days. If the total wages for the work is Rs. alternate days Neha beginning the work, then is how many
50. How much should Adi be paid if they work together for days the work will be completed ? . -
the entire duration of the work? (a) 16 days (b) 24 days (c) 12 days (d) 20 days
(a)Rs. 30 (b)Rs. 20 (c)Rs. 50 (d)Rs. 40 23. PK, DK and MK can do a job in 24,30 and 60 days
16. L and M undertake to do a piece of work for Rs. 100. L respectively. In how many days can PK do the work, if he is
can do it in 5 days and M can do it in 10 days. With the assisted by DK on one day and MK on the next day
help of N, they finish it in 2 days. How much should N be alternately. How long the work would take to finish ?.
paid for his contribution? (a) 12 days (b) 15 days (c) 14 8/9 days (d) 16 days
(a)Rs. 40 (b)Rs. 20 (c)Rs. 60 (d)Rs. 30 24. Two friends A and B working separately can do a piece
17. X can finish a work in 12 days and Y can do lt in 15 days. of work in 20 and 30 h respectively, if they work for an
After X had worked for 3 days, Y also joined X to finish the hours alternately. A beginning at 9 am when will the work
remaining work. In how many days, the remaining work be finished ?
will be finished (a) 9 am (b) 6 am (c) 8 am (d) 5 am
(a) 5.5 (b) 4.5 (c) 5 (d) 6 25.A water tank of 3000 L capacity is connected to a tap
18. John can do a piece of work in 40 days and Enzo can do which can fill it at the rate of 25 L/min and water is let out
it in 24 days. Enzo worked at it for 9 days. In how many at the same time at the rate of 5 L/min. After 2 h the outlet
days John alone can finish the remaining work? is shut off. Find how long will it take now for the tank to
(a) 18 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 25 become full ?
(a) 25 min (b) 26 min (c) 22 min (d) 24 min

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UNIT-11 : SPEED, TIME & DISTANCE
INTRODUCTION
The “time, distance and speed” is an important chapter from the CAT perspective and will surely invite one or more questions from
this section. The basic concepts are important to understand, all the questions will be solved on the basics. The calculation speed is
not important here, the accuracy sure is.

SPEED
The distance covered per unit time is called speed
Speed = distance / time
⇒Time = distance / speed
⇒ Speed is directly proportional to distance and inversely to time

Units
1. Time – Seconds, minutes, hours
2. Distance – meter, kilometer
3. Speed - km/hr, m/sec

Conversion
1. Km/hr = 5/18 m/sec
2. m/s = 18/5 km/hr
3. Km/hr = 5/ 8 miles/hrs
4. miles/hr = 22/15 ft/sec

Average speed: The average speed is given by total distance by total time taken; this is the formula to be remembered all the
time.
Average Speed = Total Distance/Total Time = (d1+d2+d3+......d n)/(t1+t2+.........tn)
The average speed in case of a journey from X to Y at speed of A m/sec and returning back to X at a speed of B m/sec, is [2AB/( A
+ B )] m/sec.
Example 1: Sunil travels from Delhi to Noida at the speed of 40 km/hr and returns at the speed of 50 km/hr, what is the average
speed of the journey?
Using the formula,
2AB/A+B = 2 x 40 x 50/40+50 = 4000/90 = 44.44 Km/hr

Always remember the units, in what units you have started and in what units you are ending.
Alternative way is by the basic principle of mechanics, Speed = distance/time, which means Time = Distance/Speed and Average
Speed = Total distance / Total time
Suppose distance from Delhi to Noida is A, therefore

Time while going, T1 = A/40

Time while coming T2 = A/50
Total time = a/40+a/50 = 90a/40x50
Total Distance = A + A = 2A
Average speed =Total Distance/Total Time = a/40+a/50 = 90a/40x50 = 44.44 Km/hr

There are various types of problems from this topic and all of them can be easily solved using the basic formulas given above. We
will discuss some formulae and results for different kinds of questions but students should always follow the basics in this chapter.

Relative speed: As the name suggests the concept is regarding the relative speeds to two or more objects. The basic concept in
relative speed is that speeds get added in case objects are moving from opposite direction, and get subtracted in case objects are
moving in same direction. For example if two trains are moving in opposite direction with a speed of X km/hr and Y km/hr
respectively, then (X + Y) is their relative speed. In the other case if two trains are moving in same direction with a speed of X km/hr
and Y km/hr respectively, then (X – Y) is their relative speed. For the first case the time taken by the trains in passing each other = (L1
+ L2)/(X + Y) hours, where L1 and L2 are length of trains. For the second case the time taken by the trains in passing each other = (L1
+ L2)/ (X –Y) hours, where L1 and L2 are length of trains.
Example 2: Two trains 100 m and 80 m in length are running in same direction. The first runs at the rate of 51 m/s and the second
at the rate of 42 m/s. How long will they take to cross each other?

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Here Length of train I = 100, Length of train II = 80
And Speed of train I = 51 m/s,
Speed of train II = 42 m/s
Relative speed = 51 – 42 = 9 m/s
(sine trains are in opposite direction)
As per the formula L1 + L2/ X + Y
=100+80/9= 20 seconds
Example 3: Two trains 100 m and 80 m in length are running in opposite direction. The first runs at the rate of 10 m/s and the
second at the rate of 15 m/s. How long will they take to cross each other?
Here Length of train I = 100, Length of train II = 80
And Speed of train I = 10 m/s,
Speed of train II = 15 m/s
Relative speed = 10 + 15 = 25 m/s (since trains are in same direction)
As per the formula L1 + L2 / X + Y =100 + 80/25 = 7.2 seconds

In case of train questions, students may remember these obvious results:

1. The time taken by train X meters long in passing a signal post is the time taken for the train to cover X.

Example 4: A train 300 meters long has a speed of 10 m/s. How long will it take to pass an electric pole?
Time = Distance/speed, the distance here will be same as the length of the train
This is 300 meters, therefore
Time = 300/10 = 30 seconds

2. The time taken by train X meters long in passing any object which is Y meters long is the time taken for the
train to cover X + Y.
Example 5: A train 300 meters long has a speed of 10 m/s. How long will it take to pass a platform of 50 meters?
Time = Distance/speed, the distance here will be same as the length of the train + the length of the platform. This is 300 + 50 = 350.
Therefore Time = 350/10 = 35 seconds
The same concept is used in water with boats and swimmers. As when you move upstream, your speed gets deducted from the
speed of the stream and when you move downstream yours and stream’s speed gets added:
Let the speed of a boat in still water be A km/hr and the speed of the stream (or current) be B km/hr, then
(a) Speed of boat with the stream = (A + B) km/hr
(b) Speed of boat against the stream = (A – B) km/hr

There are two obvious results in this concept:

1.
Boat’s speed in still water = speed down stream + Speed upstream/2
Example 6: A boat travels equal distance upstream and downstream, the upstream speed of boat was 10 km/hr, whereas the
downstream speed is 20 km/hr, what is the speed of the boat in still water?
Upstream speed = 10 km/hr
Downstream speed = 20 km/hr
As per formula, Boat’s speed in still water = speed down stream + Speed upstream/2
Therefore, Boat’s speed in still water = = 15
2.
Speed of current = speed down stream - Speed upstream/2

Boat’s speed in still water = speed down stream + Speed upstream/2

Example 7: A boat travels equal distance upstream and downstream, the upstream speed of boat was 10 km/hr, whereas the
downstream speed is 20 km/hr, what is the speed of the current?
Upstream speed = 10 km/hr
Downstream speed = 20 km/hr
As per formula, Speed of current = Speed down stream - upstream / 2
Therefore, Speed of current = 10/2 = 5 km/hr

CONCEPT OF RACES

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 Race is a competition between contestants in order to reach a point fastest. There can be many kinds of races. We will study
linear and circular races.
Linear races (non-circular): The concepts of time speed and distance are used in races, which may be linear or circular or other
types. Although with the basic concepts given above you will be able to solve the races questions, but here are a few definitions in
races.

Imagine, X and Y are two contestants in a race:

1. Before the start of the race, if X is at the starting point and Y is ahead of X by 10 meters, then X is said to give Y a start of 10
meters. 10 meter here can be called as start distance or distance at start
2. In a 100m race, If it is written “X can give Y 20 m start” or “X beats Y by 20 m”, it means that in the time X runs 100 m, Y runs 80 m.
20 meter here can be called as beat distance called as beat distance.
3. Similarly, If it is written “X can give Y 20 second start” or “X beats Y by 20 seconds”, it means if the given distance is covered by X
in a seconds, then Y will take (a – 20)
4. Winner’s distance – (start distance + beat distance) = loser’s distance
5. Winner’s time + (start time + beat time) = loser’s time. (Remember here that the winner’s time is less than loser’s time, so
something has to be added to equate)
6. A dead heat means the contestants reached the end point at same time

Example 8: Ram can give Hari 20 m start and Hari can give Ravi 10 m start in a race of 200 m. By how much could Ram beat Hari in
the same race?
Ram can give Hari a start of 20 m, that means in 200 meter race ram can cover 200 meters in the same time as Hari covers 180
meters.
Hari can give Ravi a start of 10 m, which means in 200 meter race Ravi can cover 200 meters in the same time as Hari covers 190
meters.
From second point, Ravi can cover 1 meter, when Hari covers 190/200 meters
Also, Ravi can cover 180 meter,
When Hari covers × 180 = 171 meters
Also when Ravi covers 180 meters, Ram covers 200 meters, and in this time Hair covers 171 meters, therefore Ram can give Hari a
start distance of 29 meters.
Circular races: In circular races, the race is in a perfect circle. Here are some important points on circular races, with two or more
people starting from same starting point and at same time:

1. The time taken by the faster one to gain one full round over the other is (length of race course)/ (relative speed)

Example 9: Ravi and Ram run around a circular path of circumference 1000 meters. Ravi runs at 4 m/s and Ram runs at 2 m/s. If
they start from the same point and walk in the same direction, when will they be first together again?
Ravi’s speed = 4 m/s, Ram’s speed = 2 m/s
Relative speed = 2 m/s
They will be together again when faster gains full circle over the slower
Therefore time to gain full circle = 1000/2 = 500 seconds

2. They will be first together at the starting point again after an interval of time which is the LCM of the times in which each of them
makes one complete round.
Example 10: Ravi and Ram run around a circular path of circumference 1000 meters. Ravi runs at 4 m/s and Ram runs at 2 m/s. If
they start from the same point and walk in the same direction. When will they be first together again at the starting point?
Ravi’s speed = 4 m/s, Ram’s speed = 2 m/s
Time taken for Ravi to complete one lap = 1000/4 = 250 seconds
Time taken for Ravi to complete one lap = 1000/2 = 500 seconds
They will be together again at the starting point = LCM of 250 and 500. This is 500 seconds.

3. The persons will be together again for the first time at the time which is the LCM of the times taken by the fastest to gain a lap
over the others. This is a universal formula for any number of people running.

Example 11: Ravi, Bhuvan and Ram run around a circular path of circumference 1000 meters. Ravi runs at 4 m/s, Bhuvan runs at 6
m/s and Ram runs at 2 m/s. If they start from the same point and walk in the same direction. When will they be first together
again?
Ravi’s speed = 4 m/s, Bhuvan’s speed = 6 m/s, Ram’s speed = 2 m/s

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Time taken for Bhuvan to gain a lap over Ravi = 1000 /6 - 4 = 500 seconds
Time taken for Bhuvan to gain a lap over Ram = 1000/6 - 2= 250 seconds
Time taken for Ravi to gain a lap over Ram = 1000/4 - 2 = 500 seconds
They will be together again = LCM of 500, 250 and 500, which is 500
EXERCISE
1.Find the ratio of the speed of two trains, one moving at 11. A student walks from his house at 5 kmph and reaches
speed of 90 km/h and the other at 20 m/s. his school 10 minutes late. If his speed had been 6 kmph
(a) 7:6 (b)5:4 (c)4:5 (d)9:8 he would have reached 15 minutes early. The distance of
2. A person crosses a 1200 m long street in 10 minutes. his school from his house is:
What is his speed in km per hour? (a) 2.5 km (b) 12.5 km (c) 5.5 km (d) 3.6 km
(a) 6 (b) 7.2 (c) 8 (d) 9 12. Starting from his house one day, a student walks at a
3. How long will a man take to bicycle round a square field speed of 6 km/h and reaches his school 10 min late. Next
of side 600 m, if his speed is 8 km/h ? day he increases his speed by 2 km/h and reaches the
(a) 18 min (b) 20 min (c) 24 min (d) 15 min school 6 min early. How far is the school from his house ?
4. A man in car notices that he can count 75 telephone (a) 6.4 km (b) 6.8 km (c) 7.8 km (d) 9.6 km
posts in two min. If they are known to be 40 m apart, then 13. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 48 km/h and
at what speed is the car travelling ? including stoppages, it is 40 km/h. For how many minutes
(a)83.6 km/h (b)74.8 km/h does the bus stop per hour ?
(c)88.8 km/h (d)78.8 km/h (a) 8 min (b) 12 min (c) 10 min (d) 14 min
5.A train covers a distance of 40 km in 30 min. If its speed 14. A man on tour travels first 160 km at 32 km/hr and the
is decreased by 10 km/h then the time taken by it to cover next 160 km at 40 km/hr. The average speed for the first
the same distance will be 320 km of the tour is:
(a) 32 min (b) 36 min (c) 40 min (d) 48 min (a) 35.55 (b) 36 (c) 71.11 (d) 71
6. A man covers 1/2 of the total journey by car, 1/3 by bus 15. A man walks 10 km at an average speed of 4 km/h and
and the remaining 60 km by train. His total journey is again travels 6 km at an average speed of 2 km/h. His
(a)540 km (b) 720 km (c) 480 km (d) 360 km average speed for the entire trip is
7. A can complete a journey in 17 h. He travels first half of 10 5 1 7
(a) 2 11 km/h (b) 2 4 km/h (c) 2 6 𝑘𝑚/ℎ (d)2 9 km/h
the journey at the rate of 36 km/h and second half at the
16. A van covers four successive 6 km stretches at speeds
rate of 24 km/h. Find the total journey in km. of 10 kmph, 20 kmph, 30 kmph and 60 kmph respectively.
(a) 449.2 km (b)432.4 km (c) 489.6 km (d) 207.2 km Its average speed over this distance is :
8. A person travels three equal distances with speeds of 4 (a) 10 kmph (b) 30 kmph (c) 20 kmph (d) 25 kmph
km/h, 10 km/h and 12 km/h and takes a total time of 104 17. An airplane flying 400 km covers the first 100 km at the
min. The total distance (in km) is rate of 100 km/h, the second 100 km at 200 km/h, the
(a) 9 km (b) 7.2 km (c) 12 km (d)15.6 km third 100 km at the rate of 300 km/h and the last 100 km
9. A train running at 9/11 of its own speed reached a place at the rate of 400 km/h. Find out average speed ?
1
in 5 2 h. How much time could be saved, if the train would (a)192 (b)129 (c)132 (d)146
have run at its own speed ? 18. Two men starting from the same place walk at the rate
1 1
(a)2 2 h (b)2h (c)1 2 h (d) 1 h of 8 km/h and 9.2 km/h respectively. What time will they
10.A boy goes to the school with the speed of 6 kmph and take to be 6 km apart, if they walk in the same direction ?
returns with the speed of 4 kmph. If he takes 10 hours in (a) 8 h (b) 4 h (c)5h (d) 6 h
all, then the distance (in kms) between the village and the 19. Two cyclists start from the same place in opposite
school is : directions. One goes towards North at 24 km/h and he
(a) 20 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 18 other goes towards South at 30 km/h. What time will they
take to be 16.2 km apart ?
(a) 18 min (b) 17 min (c) 16 min (d) 15 min

BOATS & STREAMS

1.A man can row in upstream at 10 kmph and 2.A man can row upstream at 7 km/hr and downstream
downstream at 24 kmph. Find the man's speed in still at 15 km/hr. Then the speed of the stream is:
water. (a) 8 km/hr (b) 11 km/hr
(a)7 kmph (b)10 kmph (c)14 kmph (c) 4 km/h (d) 6 km/hr
(d)17 kmph

Page 36
3.If a man rows at 8 kmph in still water and 6.5 kmph
against the stream, then his rate along the stream is:
(a) 1.5 kmph (b) 9.5 kmph
(c) 14.5 kmph (d) 7.25 kmph
4.If a man's rate with the current is 15 kmph and the
rate of the current is 4.5 kmph, then the man's rate
against the current is:
(a) 6 kmph (b) 9.75 kmph
(c) 5.75 kmph (d) 19.5 kmph
5. A boatman goes 3 km against the current of the
stream in 1 h and goes 1 km along the current in 15
min. How long will it take to go 7 km in stationary water
? 15.A motorboat, whose speed is 15 km/hr in still water
(a) 2 h 15 min (b) 2 h (c) 2 h 30 min (d) 2 h 45 min
6. A man can row a distance of 45 kms with the stream
in 5 hours whereas it takes 9 hours to row the same
distance against the stream. What is the speed of the
man in still water?
(a) 6 kms (b) 5 kms (c) 7 kms (d) 2 kms
7.A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16
kms in 2 hrs, while for the same distance upstream, it
takes 4 hours. The speed of the boat in still water:
(a) 6 km/hr (b) 8 km/hr (c) 10 km/hr (d) 12km/h
8. If a person rows 13 km upstream and 19 km
downstream taking 2 hours each time, then the speed
of the person in still water is:
(a) 1.5 kmph (b) 3 kmph (c) 6 kmph (d) 8 kmph
9.A river is running at 3 kmph. If a man takes twice as
long to row up as to row down the river, the rate of
man in still water is:
(a)9 kmph (b)12 kmph (c)6 kmph (d) 10 kmph
10.A man can row 18 kmph in still water. It takes him
thrice as long to row up as to row down the river. Find
the rate of the stream:
(a) 9 km/hr (b) 8 km/hr (c) 10 km/hr (d) 12km/h
11.A boat takes 7 hours for travelling downstream from
point 'A' to point 'B' and coming back to point 'A'
travelling upstream. If the velocity of the stream is 3
kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 7 kmph,
what is the distance between A and B?
(a) 10 km (b) 15 km (c) 20 km (d) 22 km
12.A man can row 7.5 km/hr in still water. If in a river
running at 1.5 km/hr, it takes him 50 minutes to row to
a place and back, how far off is the place?
(a) 4 km (b) 3 km (c) 5 km (d) 4.5 km
13.A boat takes 11 hours for travelling downstream
from point A to point B and coming back to a point C
midway between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is
4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 16
kmph, what is the distance between A and B?
(a) 82.5 km (b) 101.5 km (c) 120 km
(d) 240 km
14.The rate of stream is 4 kmph. A boat goes 6 kms and
back to the starting point in 2 hrs. The speed of the boat
in still water?
(a) 16 km/hr (b) 8 km/hr (c) 10 km/hr
(d) 20 km/h
goes 30 km downstream and comes back in a total of 4
hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is:
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 10
16.A man can row at a speed of 8 km/hr in still water to
a certain upstream point and back to the starting point
in a river which flows at 4 km/hr. Find his average speed
for total journey.
(a) 5 km/hr (b) 6 km/hr (c) 10 km/hr (d) 12 km/hr
17.A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes
to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to
cover the same distance funning downstream. What is
the ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of
the water current respectively?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 8 : 3 (d) None
18.A boat running upstream takes 5 h 12 min to cover a
certain distance, while it takes 4 h to cover the same
distance running downstream. What is the ratio
between the speed of the boat and speed of the water
current respectively ?
(a) 23 : 3 (b) 21 : 2 (c) 25 : 7 (d) 28 : 9
19. A boat covers 24 km upstream and 36 km
downstream in 6 hours while it covers 36 km upstream
and 24 km downstream in 6 ½ hours. The velocity of the
current is :
(a) 1 km/hr (b) 1.5 km/hr (c) 2 km/hr (d) 2.5 km/hr
20. A boat covers 25km upstream and 24 km
downstream in 16 h while it covers 20 km upstream arid
30 km downstream in 15 1/2 h. The speed of the
current is
(a) 1/2 km/h (b) 3/4 km/h
(c) 1/8 km/h (d) 2/3 km/h

PROBLEM ON TRAINS
1. A train 560 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr (a) 30 s (b) 24 s (c) 15 s (d) 27 s
will pass an electric pole in : 3. A train 350 m long is running at the speed of 36 km/hr. If
(a) 16 sec (b) 32 sec (c) 36 sec (d) 30 sec it crosses a tunnel in 1 minute, then the length of the
2. A train 320 m long is running at 80 km/h. In how much tunnel (in meters) is:
time will it pass a platform 280 m long ? (a) 350 (b) 300 (c) 275 (d) 250

Page 37
4. A train 200 m long, running at 36 kmph takes 50 seconds 13. A train passes two men walking in the direction
to pass a bridge. The length of the bridge (in meters) is opposite to the train at 6 m/sec & 10 m/sec in 12 sec & 10
(a) 300 (b) 244 (c) 250 (d) 540 sec respectively. Find the length of the train.
5. A person sees a train passing over 2 km long bridge. The (a) 220 m (b) 230 m (c) 240 m (d) 260 m
length of the train is half that of bridge. If the train clears 14. A train 240 m in length passes a pole in 24 sec and
the bridge in 4 min, the speed of train is: another train of length 200 m travelling in opposite
(a)50 km/h (b)45 km/h (c)60km/h (d)30 km/h direction in 20 sec. Find the speed of the second train in
6. A train crosses a platform 200 m long in 120 sec at a km per hour.
speed of 45 km/hr. The time taken by the train to cross an (a)43.2 km/hr (b)43 km/hr (c)44 km/hr (d)43.5 km/hr
electric pole, is : 15. Two stations A & B are 180 km apart on a straight line.
(a)80 sec (b)104 sec (c)26 sec (d)data inadequate One train starts from A at 7 am and travels towards B at 40
7. Two trains 264 m & 216 m long are running in opposite km/hr speed. Another train starts from B at 8 am and
directions, one at a rate of 16 km/hr and another one at travels towards A at a speed of 50 km/hr. At what time will
the rate of 20 km/hr. From the moment they meet they they meet?
will cross each other in: (a)10:30am (b)10:00am (c)9:30am (d)9:45am
(a) 40 s (b) 44 s (c) 48 s (d) 52 s 16. A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track in
8. Two trains running in the same direction at 80 kmph 240 metres ahead of the engine of a 120 metres long train
and 44 Kmph completely pass one another in, 2 min. If the running at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much
length of the first train is 250 m, the length of the second time will the train pass the jogger?
train is : (a)42 sec (b)18 sec (c)36 sec (d)72 sec
(a) 800 m (b) 850 m (c) 900 m (d) 950 17. Two trains travel in opposite directions at 64 km/h and
9. A train 200 m long takes 9 sec to cross a man walking at 80 km/h and a man sitting in slower train passes the faster
5 km/hr in the direction opposite to that of the train. Find train in 6 s The length of the faster train is
the speed of the train: (a) 240 m (b)228 m (c) 248 m (d)272 m
(a) 80 km/hr (b) 70 km/hr 18. Two trains -are running at 60 km/h and 40 km/h
(c) 75 km/hr (d) 90 km/hr respectively in the same direction. Fast train completely
10. A 150 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of crosses the man sitting in the slower train in 9 s. What is
6 kmph in the opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed the length of the fast train ?
of the train (in kmph) is: (a) 100 m (b)50 m (c) 150 m (d) 75 m
(a) 66 (b) 84 (c) 96 (d) 106 19. A train travelling at a speed of 75 mph enters a tunnel
1 1
11. A train of length 300 m takes 20 seconds to pass over 3 2 miles long. The train is 4 mile long. How long does it
another train 200 m long coming from the opposite take for the train to pass through the tunnel from the
direction. If the speed of the first train 60 kmph, the speed moment the front enters to the moment the rear
of the second train is : emerges?
(a) 27 km/hr (b) 30 km/hr (c) 36 km/hr (d) 18 km/hr (a)2.5 min (b)3 min (c)3.2 min (d)3.5 min
12. A train takes 36 seconds to pass completely through a 20. A train moves past a telegraph post and a bridge 264 m
station 324 m long and 30 seconds through another station long in 8 seconds and 20 seconds respectively. What is the
120 m long. The length of the train (in meters) is: speed of the train?
(a) 140 (b) 160 (c) 150 (d) 100 (a)69.5 km/hr (b)70 km/hr (c)79 km/hr (d)79.2 km/hr

SOLUTIONS
1.NUMBERS
1. 6ab2c2 36× 𝐻𝐶𝐹 = 3024 HCF=84
2. By option 24 6.LCM+HCF=195 12x+x=195 x=15
𝐿𝐶𝑀 𝑜𝑓 𝑛𝑢𝑚 24 180× 15 = 60 × 𝑥 => 𝑥 = 45
=
𝐻𝐶𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑜 1
𝐻𝐶𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝑛𝑢𝑚 1 7. LCM+HCF=2300 45x+x=2300 x=50
3. 𝐿𝐶𝑀 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑜=165 2250×50=250× xx=450
4.0.25 .5 .75 8. x×36x=3600 x=10
25 5 75 9.By option 184
100 10 100 10. By option 1683 11. By option 364
LCM=7.5HCF= .05 12. Take LCM of all the number then divided
5. LCM×HCF=Product of 2 number by 60 so ans 48.

Page 38
13. By option 3988 (b) 100
14.By option 32 15. By option 15 21. 5---------9 = 5×1 =5
16.D answer 17. (d)0 10------------99=90×2 =180
18.By option 40 19. By option 217 100----------700=601×3=1803
20. By option 9 (b) 40× 5 = 200 1988
25× 4 = 100

2.AVERAGE
𝑁+? 12. 11× 28 = 308 3 × 25 = 75 3 × 28=84
1.M= 2 =>? = 2𝑀 − 𝑁
2. 7× 75 = 525 6× 72 = 494 =>93 3× 30 = 90 => 2 = 59 x+x+11=59 2x=48
3.30× 12 = 360 5 × 14=70 x=24 so, x+11=35
33
5 ×10=50 =>240/20=12 13.5× 7 = 35 8 × 8.5 = 68 3
=11
4. 180+120=300 14.30× 4000 = 120000
𝐵𝑦 𝑞 𝑜𝑓 𝑐 𝐷−𝑀 31 × 4300=133300=> 13,300
5.None of these 𝑞 𝑜𝑓 𝑑
=𝑀−𝐶
3970 15. 11× 60 = 660 => 5 × 58 = 290 =>
6.100× 40 -83+53 = 100
= 39.7 5 ×56=280 => 90
1800 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
7.50× 38 = 1900 − 55 − 45 = = 37.5 16. = 24
48 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
2𝑋𝑌 2×50×30
8.𝑋+𝑌 = 50+30 = 37.5 17.25/x=29-24/24-20 => x=20
9. 30× 9 = 270 31 × 10 = 310=40 18.x/8 = 15-10.8/10.8-6 => x=7
10. 29× 28 = 812 30 × 27.8 = 834=22 19.22× 3 = 66 17 × 2=34 100/5=20
304 20.40× 4 = 160 1×0 = 0 165/5=32
11. 8× 40 = 320 − 55 + 39 = 8 = 38

3.PERCENTAGE
1. 88-------------13200 11.100+20=120 120-24=96 =4% decrease
13200×100
100 ------------- 88 = 15000 12. 100+30=130-26=104
2. 30--------------390 104-----------312
100×312
390×70
70----------------- 30 = 910 100--------------- 104 = 300
3. 4250---------------85 13.A=125 B=100
100−125
4250×100
5000 = 85 --------100 = 125 × 100 = 20%
4. Let wages=100 100-40=60 14.A=65 B=100
100−65 4
60+24=84 loss=100-84=16% = 65 × 100 = 53 5 %
5.130500---------30 15. P Q RS.
130500×100
435000= --------------100 10 10 100
30
6.15--------------2250 12 x 100
100
100--------------
2250×100
=15000 x= = 8.33
12
15 10−8.33
7.30--------------300 => × 100 => 16 2/3%
10
100×300
100------------ 30 = 1000 16.70--------------210
100×210
8. CP of socks = 120-60=60 100--------- 70 = 300
20--------60 17. 32----------384
100×60 384×100
100---------- 20 = 300 100--------------- 32 => 1200
9. P Q RS. 18.10×10=100 10.5×9.5=99.75
100−99.75
10 10 100 => × 100 = 0.25 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒
100
8 12 96 19. Here, water=8 L milk=32 L
4 => 4% decrease 8+𝑥 25
= x=2.67
10. X=50+40% of 50 Y=100+30% of 100 32 75
180+𝑥 28
=70 =130 20. = x=100 ml
720 72
New salary=130+70=200 old salary=50+100=150 21.by option (c)
200−150
% increase= × 100 = 33.33
150

4.SI & CI
1
1.Total Interest=13× 2 2 = 32.5% 32.5-----3900

Page 39
 3900×100 10.16×10500
100------- 32.5
= 12000 10.16----- 100
= 1066.8
20000×7.5×𝑅 1
2.20000= => 𝑅 = 13 20.Total interest = 6%+6.36%=12.36%
100 2
3.When sum doubles P=200-100=100 100---------4000
4000×12.36
When sum becomes 4 times P=400-100=300 12.36------ 100 = 494.4
100----10 21.Interest=3%+3.09%=6.09%
300×10
300------------ 100 = 30yrs 100------20000
20000×6.09
4.432=
1200×𝑅×𝑅
=> 𝑅 = 6% 6.09------- 100 = 1218
100
12000×8×2 22.Total intertestate per SI=30%: As per CI=33%
5. 100 = 1920 3.1×8000
So, (33.1-30)= = 248
Total amount left=13920-12000=1920 100
5000×5×2
51=
1920×8×1
= 153.6 23.A’s interest= = 500
100
100
1920+153.6=2073.6 B’s interest 100-------8000
8000×12.36
6.Total amount=6+6.5+6.5=19% 12.36------- = 988.8
100
19
SI=6000× = 1140 Difference = 488.80
100 𝑃×8×2
A=6000+1140=7140 24.120= 100 => 𝑃 = 750
7.Difference of interest=20400-18600=1800(2 years) Now, CI 750-----------100
750×16.64
Amount after 4 yrs=18600-3600 (4 yrs interest) ----------16.64 =>124.80
100
P=15000 25. 16.64-----------------832
8.Difference=7500-6500=10000 (2 yrs) 832×16
For 3 years=1500 16------------ 16.64 => 800
P=6500-1500 26.Difference in interest=16.64-16
P=5000 0.64--------64
5000×𝑅×3 100×64
Now, 1500= 100 100--------- 0.64 => 10000
R=10% 27.The difference of CI for 2 yrs
6×1×7280 This will be CI on the interest of 1st yrs
9. 12×100 = 3640 60
So, Interest=600 × 100 = 10%
10.40a=100b=180c a:b:c=45:18:10
11.5-------40% Now, 10-----600
100×5 600×100
----100% =>12.5yrs 100----- 10 = 6000
40
12.200= 100
100×𝑅×20 28.Difference in CI = 752.64
752.64
SO, CI = 6272 × 100 = 12%
R=10%
13.(6% × 2)+(8%× 4)+(12%× 8)=140% 29.Difference in CI = 968
968
140-----6300 So, CI rate=9680 × 100 = 10%
6300×100
100---- 140 = 4500 Now, for 2 yrs total Interest = 21%
14.4----960 So, 121----------------9680
100×960 9680×100
100----- 4 = 24000 100------------- = 8000
121
15.3a=4b=6c 30.2--------------6
4 4×6
× 2700=1200 4---------- 2 = 12
9
9×4×𝑥1 8×6𝑥2 𝑥1 4 (14520−12000)
16. = = 31.Total interest charged= × 100 = 21%
100 100 𝑥2 3 12000
2 3 2 so, rate of interest charged = 10%
x =7 × 2800 x =1200
32.Total interest =8.16
17.100-------9375
127.05×12000 108.16-------------------21632
18.64----- = 15246 21632×100
100 100------------- 108.16 =20000
19.100-------10500

5.P & L
0.16 2
1.S.P=1440 Loss %=10% 4.Profit % = × 100 = 10 %
1.5 3
90-------------1440 5. let the C.P. = 100
100------------1600 6360--------79.5
12
2. 88 × 100 = 13.63% 7700-----------------------96.25
3.C.P. of 1= Rs.1.5 Loss of 3.75%
S.P= of 1=Rs.1.66=33.33% 6. C.P. of 1=Rs.1.25 S.P. of 1=Rs.1.5

Page 40
 0.25
Profit=1.25 × 100 = 20 % 18. 16 books by option
4
7.let the CP be 100 16
× 100=25%
39----------------130 19. CP of 1 apple=5 SP of 1 apple=5.5
32----------------106.66 Profit=6.66% 0.5--------------------1
8. let the price of trouser be 100 42-----------------------84
100+108----------------416 20. CP=100 After 40%, 20% & 10% disc
100----------------------200 432-----------------216
9.let the SP of both be 100 100----------------500
CP of 1st=89.3 CP of 2nd=113.7 21.CP for A=150 SP for A=180
3 100
For l %= × 100 Loss of 1.4% SP for C=217.8110 = 𝑅𝑠. 198
203
100
10. CP of hens=Rs.500 each CP for C=217.8× = 𝑅𝑠. 198
110
SP of 1st = Rs.600 SP of 2nd =Rs.425 18
25 P% of B = × 100 = 10%
Total P%= × 100=2.5% 180
1000 22. 12.5% by option
11. let the CP be 100 23. Rs.60× 1 = 𝑅𝑠. 60
89---------------------890 Rs.40× 3 = 𝑅𝑠. 120
116------------1160=Rs. 1160 Rs.30× 4 = 𝑅𝑠. 120
12. let the CP of 1 mango be = Rs.5 CP=300 SP=35× 8 = 280
CP of 60 mango=Rs.300 SP of 1 mango=Rs.6 20
1 Loss%= × 100 = 6.67%
P% = 5 × 100 = 20% 300
24.60× 𝑅𝑠. 20 = 𝑅𝑠. 1200
13.(a)300 Rs. 20.(a)400 140×Rs.25=Rs.3500
896+524
14. CP= 2 = 𝑅𝑠. 710 @ 50% profit SP=1065 CP=1700SP=5405
2180+1620 SP per kg = Rs.27.025
15. CP= 2
= 𝑅𝑠. 1900 @ 25% profit SP=Rs.2375
16. Let CP of 1 pen=Rs.3 CP of 8 pen= Rs.24 25. CP of 1st article=1800 SP of 1st article=2070
1 SP of both article=3186 SP of 2nd article=1116
SP of 1 pen=Rs.4 P%=3 × 100 = 33.33%
4
17. (b): p% = 18 × 100 = 22.22% 𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑥

6.RATIO & PROPORTION

1 1 2
1. A B C 10.6th A =4 th B = 5th C => 6:4:2.5 => 12:8:5=1080
3 2 2 30 3
11. = => 𝑥 = 10
8 8 19 10+𝑥 2
24 16 38 (d)12:19 12.1----------6
5-------------30
12+5=17
2. A B C D 13. 20-5=15 =>17:3
2 3 3 3=3
5 𝑥 3 𝑦
4 4 5 14.8 + 𝑥+𝑦 ∶ 8 + 𝑥+𝑦
8 12 15 15 5𝑥+5𝑦+8𝑥 3𝑥+3𝑦+8𝑦
: => 13𝑥 + 5𝑦 ∶ 3𝑥 + 11𝑦
2 2 2 1 8𝑥+8𝑦 8𝑥+8𝑦
7𝑥 1
16 15 15.5𝑥+10 = 1 => 𝑥 = 5 (7 × 5 = 35)
1 1 1 6:4:3
3. 2 : 3 : 4 = 12 =6:4:3 LCM=12 7.5+4=11.5
4. Solve by option (a) 3:2 16.20-8 = 12 => 23:9
5. A B C 4.5=4.5
200 300 500 G 7 = 14
270 345 600 17.L ×2
(c) 18 23 40 C 2 =4 => 21:15=> 7:5
6. M P B =7
600 : 800 : 1300 7
240 : 400 : 780 M
840 : 1200 : 2080 => 21:30:52 11 =11
7. 2430-30 (5+10+15)
4
2400× 12 = 800 + 10 = 810 18. 10 20 100
8
10 17 7
8. 1045-45=1000× 20 = 400 + 15 = 415 100 340 700
1 2 3 6:8:9
9. 2 : 3 : 4 = = 102 1140-------------17
12

Page 41
5700-------------85 2 3
19. 100 50 25 8 12 18 27
8
12 10 7 3900× 65 = 480
1200 500 175 23. By option 3:2.
1875------------------7 24. 1 2 3
7500-----------------28 4 5
20. By option 10. 9 11
𝑥 𝑥
21. + + 𝑥 = 510 36 45 55
6 4
x=360, x/4=90, x/6=60 (60, 90, 360) 55
136
× 408=165
22. P Q R S
25. 33---------------2200
2 3
30--------------2000
2 3
4 6 9

7.PARTNERSHIP
1.(d)PSR between A,B,C= 4:5:7 share of G : H : U => (100×2):(200× 4):(300× 12)
4
A’s Share= ×40,000=10,000 G:H:U=1:4:18
16
5 Hs share=4/23 ×4600=800
B’s Share=16×40,000=12,500
16.(b)Share of A:B:C=>(13000×6):(16800×5):(20000× 3)=>
7
C’s Share=16×40,000=17,500 39:42:30
2.(a)P’s share : Q’s share= 24:35 Now, A's salary =5% of 7400=370
24
P’s share= 59×7375=3000 & B's share = 42/111 × (7400-370)=2660
17.(a)Share of P : Q : R => 12:25:27
3.(b)PSR between Jordan & Taker=27:14Undertaker’s share=
14 Now, R's share =32400
×6970=2380 32400×64
41 So, profit = 27 = 76800
4. (a)PSR between Jinder:Minder:Inder=4:3:3
3 18.(a) Suraj Neeraj
Minder’s Share=10×50,000=15,000 Capital 85000 42500
5. (b)PSR between A:B:C=80×3:160×1+80×2:240×2+80×1 Months 12 x
So, A:B:C=3:4:7 1020000 42500 x
6. (a)PSR between S:R:T=25×1+40×2:35×2+20×1:30×3 PSR 3 1
So, S:R:T=7:6:6 1020000
Now, x =3×42500 = 8 𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑡ℎ𝑠
7. (a) 4950
So, Neeraj joined after 12-8=4 months
8. (b)A:B:C=10×4+5×8+90×6+60×6+14×6
42 19.(b) A B
So, A:B:C=40:45:42 C’s Share=127×19050=6300 Capital 4500 x
9.(c)29,400 Months 12 6
10.(b)We have 2x=34, Also, y=42 54000 6x
so let 2=1, y=4 PSR 2 3
4
4x=6 , y's share=11 × 16500 = 6000 Now, 3------------54000
2×54000
11.(c)let investment of P=100 2------------------- = 36000
3
Investment P:Q:R=> 100:200:300 Now 6x=36000 => x=6000
PSR of P:Q:R=> 1:1:1 20.(c) A B
Rs share = 1/3×10500=>3500 Capital 14 15
12.(b)We have A:B:C=(20× 7):(22× 5):(25× 6)=14:11:15 Months 10 x
C's share => 15/40 × 360 => 135 140 15x
13.(a)1000 Rs. PSR 7 6
14.(d)Capital of A:B =>(3× 3)+(2× 7):(4× 3) 7-----------------140
+(3× 7)=>23:33 140×6
6---------------- = 120
23 7
A's share => 56 × 504 => 207 So, 15x=120 =>x=8
15.(b)Let capital = 600

8.MIXTURE & ALLIGATION

14−13 1 2 10−9 1
1. = = =2:1 3. = ;
13−12.5 .5 1 9−6 3
15−11 4
2. =2; 3------------15
11−9 15∗1
2-------15 kg 4-------- ? =>
4∗15
= 30 1------------ 3 =5
2

Page 42
 19−15 4 2 30+𝑥 25
4. 15−9 = 6= 3= 3:2 13.We have water=30L, wine =120L 120
=75 => 𝑥 = 10
35 7
5. 112----------28 14.Milk : Water = 35:20 = => 10
100∗28 32−25 7 20+𝑥 6
100---------- 112 = 25 Now, 25−22= 3=7:3 15. Let has take 2 quantity of A it becomes 14:4, i.e, 18 liters
32−28 4
6. 28−21= 7= 4+7= 11, only 231 is multiple of 11 Also, B= 7:11, i.e, 18 liters
Now, Gold: Copper in C =14+7:4+11 = 7:5(c)
26−21 5 320∗5 16. By option 30
7. 21−18= 3= (5=3)=320 5-------- = 200
8 17. By option 24 (c)
5 40 1
8. 3 By option. 18.Ratio of wine replaced = 240 = 6th
9. (d) Can’t be determined So quantity left=6
5 5 5
240× 6 × 6 × 6 => 138 9L
5 8
18−14 1 𝑄 𝑜𝑓 𝐶
10. we have, = = , Now quantity sold 6 1 5
14−(−10) 6 𝑄 𝑜𝑓 𝐷 19.Milk replaced= = Milk left=
1 36 6 6
at loss => *280= 40L 5 5 5
7
5+𝑥 9
Milk left=36× 6 × 6 × 6 => 20.83
11.We have 5L & Milk = 20L = => 𝑥 = 175 𝐿 20.83 47
20 10 % of milk = × 100 => 57
7+𝑥 30 36 54
12. We have, water=7L & Milk =63L 63
=70 => 𝑥 = 20𝐿

9. PROBLEM ON AGES
12𝑥−2 1
1.7x-6x=4 x=4 9.11𝑥+2 = 1 => 𝑥 = 4 (c)13:10
Q P 𝑥+40 2
10.𝑥+10 = 1 (𝑐)𝑥 = 20
24 28
2𝑥−18 3
4 4 11. 𝑥−18 = 1 (𝑑)𝑥 = 36
28 42 7:8 (e) 2x+x=72+36=108
2. 7x-(5x+6)=2 12.
2𝑥+8
=
1
(𝑐)𝑥 = 8 , 5x=40
x=4 20+28=48 (a) 5𝑥+8 2
7𝑥+10 8.
6𝑥+7 7 13. = 𝑥 = 10 (𝑐)1: 3
3. = => 𝑥 = 7=> (b)42 2𝑥+10 3
7𝑥+7 8 3𝑥+25 2
4.36 14. = 𝑥 = 25 (𝑐)9: 4
𝑥+25 1
3𝑥−5 2 15. V :R
5.4𝑥−5 = 3 => 𝑥 = 5
15 20 4x-x=9
x=3 (d)13:4
5 5
16. F+S=85
20 25 (c)4:5
2x+x=75 x=25 25+15=40
6.(𝑏)30 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
17.By option 9 & 41
7. 5x-9+8x-9+10x-9=88 x=5
18. 7x+84=126
(d)25, 40, 50
5𝑥+6 6 7x=42 x=6 (d)
8.4𝑥+6 = 5 𝑥 = 6 19.2x=62 x=31
30−𝑦 9
=24−𝑦 = 7 31-8=23 (d)
210-7y=216-9y 20.(x+4)4 - 4(x-4)
2y=6 (a)y=3 4x+16-4x+16 = 32 (d)

10.TIME & WORK

1 1 5
1.40 + 60 = 120 = 24 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 A+B+C=30days
1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1
1
2. + = =>
1 1 1 1
= − =>
1 1 2
= => 𝐵 = 3days 9.8 + 12 + 𝑥 = 6 𝑥 3
= − 8 − 12
6 𝐵 2 𝐵 2 6 𝐵 6 1 8−3−2
1 1
3.12 + 18 + 0 = 4
1 1 = A+C=8 days
𝑥 24
1 1 4+3 7 120
1
=> = −
1 1
−
1
=> =
1 9−3−2
=> 0 = 9 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 10.30 + 40 = 120
=
120
= 7
min
0 4 12 18 0 36 1 1 1 6+2−1 7 3
1 1 1 1 1
4.10 + 20 + 𝑥 = 5 => 𝑥 = 5 − 10 − 20 => 𝑥 =
1 1 1 1 4−2−1 11.4 + 12 − 24 = 24
=> 24 = 3 7hrs
20 1 1 1 1
=> 𝑥 =20 days 12.45 + 60 − 𝑥 = 40
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
6. + = 45 60
+ − 40=𝑥
𝐴 𝐴−10 12
8+6−9 1
A=30 min B=20 min =𝑥 x=72min
1 1 1 2 360
8.36 + 40 + 72 = (𝐴+𝐵+𝐶) 15. A B
10+9+5 2 24 2 3x x
360
=𝐴+𝐵+𝐶 =
360 𝐴+𝐵+𝐶 x 3x

Page 43
1 1 1 1 1
𝑥
+
3𝑥 9
= (24)× 9 + (40)× 𝐷 = 1
3+1 1
= = 12 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 D=25 days No. of days taken by John=25 days
3𝑥 9
16. A B 28. A B
2x x 45 40
1 1 1
X 2x ( ) × 23 + ( + ) × 𝐷=1
40 45 40
2x=24 days X=12 days 9+8 17
× 𝐷=
1 1 1 360 40
12
+ 24=8=8days D=9 Days
17. A B 30. L M
4x x 12 15
X 4x 1 1 1
(12 + 15)× 5 + (15) × 𝑥 = 1
1 1 1
+ 4𝑥=48 𝑥 1
𝑥 = x=3min 45 sec
x=60 min A=60 min B=240 min 15 4
31.A B
19.20× 15 = 𝑥 × 12
30 min 45 min
x=25 hrs 1 1 1
22. A B (30 + 45)× 15 + (45) × 𝑥 = 1
20 days 30 days x=7 min 30 sec
3 2 Total time = 5 min+7 min 30 sec
3
Adi’ share =Rs.50× = 𝑅𝑠. 30 =12 min 30 sec
5
23. L M 33. N R
5 days 10 days 20 30
1 1
1 1 1 1
+ 10 + 𝑁=2 (20 + 30)× 𝑥 = 1
5 3+2
1 1
= − 5 − 10
1 1 ( 60 )×= 1 x=12 Total no. of days=2x=24
𝑁 2
1 5−2−1 35.(c)14 8/9
= 10
𝑁 39.(a)9 am
N=5 days 3000
50. 25 = 120 min 𝑖. 𝑒. 2 ℎ𝑟𝑠
N=40 Rs. 3000
25. X Y 5
=600 min i.e.10 hrs
1 1 1
12 15 (2) ×x+(2 − 10) × 2 = 1
1 1 1
( )×3+( + )×𝐷 =1 1 1
x=5 = 24 𝑚𝑖𝑛
12 12 15
2
D=5 days No. of days to complete remaining
26. J E
40 days 24 days
9
9. 110=> usual speed 11
× 110=90
11.SPEED, TIME & DISTANCE 90----------------5.5
5 90×5.5
1. 1.90× 18 ∶ 20 = 25: 20 => 5: 4 110------------- =>5.5-4.5=1
1200 18 110
𝑥 𝑥
2. 10×60 = 2𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐 2× 5 = 7.2 km/hr 10. + = 20 => 24
6 4
3.8000------------60 𝑥 𝑥 25
11.5 − 6 = 60 => 𝑥 = 12.5
2400×60
2400-------------- = 18 𝑚 𝑥 𝑥 16
8000 12.6 − 8 = 20 => 𝑥 = 6.4 𝑘𝑚
4. 2 m----------------2960
60 ×2960 13. 48---------------60
60--------------------- 2×1000 = 88.8 km 40×60
40------------------- = 50 60-50=10 min
5.30 m----------------40 km 48
60×40 14. 35.55
60 m------------------ =80 10
30 15.(a)2211 km/ hr
75------------------60 6+6+6+6
40×60 16. 6 6 6 6 = 20 km/h
40------------------ 75 => 32min + + +
10 20 30 60
1 1 3+2 400
6.2 + 3 = 17.100 100 100 100 =192 km/ hr
6 + + +
1 100 200 300 400
--------------60 18.9.2-8=1.2
6
1-------------6× 60 => 360 × 2 = 720 1.2--------------1
𝑥 𝑥 4𝑥+6𝑥 6×1
7.36 + 24 = 17 = 17 => 244.8 ×2=489.6 6---------------- = 5hr
144 1.2
𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 104 19.Opposite direction
8. + + =
4 10 12 60
24+30=54
15𝑥+6𝑥+5𝑥 104 104 54---------------60
60
= 60 26x=104 x= 26 = 4 km×3=12

Page 44
 16.2×60
16.2------------ 54
= 18 𝑚𝑖𝑛

BOATS & STREAMS

10+24 30 30 30
1. 2
= 17 𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ 15.15+𝑥 + 15−𝑥 = 4 60 => 𝑥 = 5 𝑘𝑚/hr
15−7 𝑘𝑚
2. 2 = 4 ℎ𝑟 16.Average speed 6kmphr
8.8+4 8.8−4
3.8+6.5=14.5 km/ hr 17.Stil = 2 = 6.4 Stream= 2 = 2.4
15−𝑈 Now, 6.4:2.4 = 8:3
4. = 4.5 U=6 km/h
2 5.2+4 5.2−4
5.U=3/1=3
1
D= 15 = 4
4+3
=3.5
7
= 2ℎ 18. Stil = = 4.6 Stream= = 0.6
2 2
2 3.5
60 Now, 4.6 : 0.6 => 23:3
45 45 9+5 24 36 36 24
6.D= 5 = 9 U= 9 = 5 => 2
= 7 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟 19.1.5 ( + = 6) + =6.5
8+4 𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
7.D=16/2=8 U=16/4=4 => = 6 kmhr 36
+
54
=9
36
+
24
= 6.5
2
13 19 𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
+ 30
2 2
8. = 8 𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ =25 y=12 x=8
2 𝑦
9. Let speed of US be x then speed of DS=2x Now, vel. of current = = 2 km/hr
12−8
2𝑥−𝑥 2
Now, 2 = 3 So speed = 6(US) & 12(DS) 20.x= upstream y=downstream
6+12 25 24 20 30
Now, 2
= 9𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ + =16 ( + = 15.5)+5
𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
3𝑥+𝑥 27−9
10. 2 =18 => x=9 Now, 2 = 9 kmhr 25
+
24
=16
4 6
(𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3.1)×4
𝑥 𝑦
11.DS=3+7=10 US=7-3=4 16 24
+ =12.4
𝐷 𝐷 25 24 𝑥 𝑦 4 6
+ =7 D=20 km 𝑥
+ 𝑦
=16 9 => x=2.5 2.5
+ 𝑦=3.1 y=4
10 4 =3.6
𝐷 𝐷 50 𝑥
12.US=6 DS=9 + 9 =60 => 𝐷 = 3 𝑘𝑚 𝐷−𝑈 4−25 3
6 Stream= 2
= 2
= 4kmph
𝐷 0.50
13.20 + = 11 => 𝐷 = 120 𝑘𝑚
12
6 6
14.𝑥+4 + 𝑥−4 = 2 => 𝑥 = 8𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟

PROBLEM ON TRAINS
5 560 150 5
1.63× 18 = => 𝑇 = 32 𝑠𝑒𝑐 10. = (𝑥 + 6) 18 => 𝑥 = 84 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
𝑇 6
320+280 5 300+200
2. = 80 × 18 => 𝑇 = 27 𝑠𝑒𝑐 11. 1000
= 𝑥 + 60 => 𝑥 = 30 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
𝑇 20
5 350+𝑥
3.36× 18= 60 => 𝑥 = 250 𝑚 60×60
324
12.Speed of train= 36 = 9 m/sec
4.Let length of bridge be x
𝑥+200 5 120+𝑥
=36× 18 => 𝑥 = 300 Now, let length of train be x =9 => x=150 m
50 30
2+1 13.(x+6)12=(x+10)10 => x=14
5. 4 = 𝑆 => 𝑆 = 45 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
60 So, D=(14+6)× 12 = 240 m
200+𝑥 5 240
6. = 45 × 18 => 𝑥 = 1300 𝑚 14.First train speed = 24 = 10 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
120
1300 240+200 18
Now, 5 = 104 𝑠𝑒𝑐 =10+x => x=12 m/sec 12× = 43.2
45× 20 5
18
264+216 5 15. Total distance left at 8 am=180 km
7. = (20 + 16) 18 => 𝑥 = 48 𝑠𝑒𝑐 180
𝑥
0.25+𝑥
So, distance left=40+50 = 2ℎ𝑟
8. 2 = 80 − 44 So they will meet at 10 am.
60
2 240+120 5
0.25+x=(80-44) × 60 => 𝑥 = 0.95 16. 𝑥 = (45 − 9) 18=36 sec
5
In m=0.95× 1000 = 950 𝑚 17. D=6× [80 + 64] => D=240 m
200 5 18
9. 9 = [5 + 𝑥] 18 => 𝑥 = 75 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟 18.50 m 19.3 min 20.(d)79.2

Page 45
 DATA
INTERPRETATION

INTRODUCTION

Page 46
What is Data?
Data is a plural of datum, which is originally a Latin noun meaning. “ something given. “ Today Data used in English both
as a plural. Noun meaning “Facts or pieces of information” and as a singular mass noun meaning “information”.
Information refers to data being arranged and presented in a systematic or organize form, so that some useful
information can be drawn from the same. By data we generally mean quantities, figures, statistics, relating to any
event.
Classification of Data Interpretation :

DI

Table Graphs

Bar Graph Graphs Pie Graph Combined

Graph

Simple Bar Sub-divided Bar Multiple Bar

Graph
TABLES Graph
A table is one of the easiest way for summarizing data.
A statistical table is the logical listing of related
quantitative data in vertical columns and horizontal
rows of numbers withsufficient explanatory and
qualifying words, phrases and statements in the form of
titles, heading and notes to make clear the meaning of
data.
REMEMBER
Average = Sum of all items
Total number of items
λ = The bars are drawn proportional in length to the
total and then divided in the ratios of their components.
% change (increase or decrease ) = Final value –
Initial value * 100
Initial value
GRAPHS
Graphs are a convenient way to represent information.
The graphs should be labeled properly to show what
part of the graphs shows what values.
1. Bar Graphs - Bar diagram consists of a number of
equidistant rectangles. One for each category of the
data in which the magnitudes are represented by the
length or height of rectangle, whereas width of
rectangles are immaterial.
Types of Bar Graphs are –
(i) Simple Bar Graphs : it is used to represent only one
dependent variable.
EXERCISE-
Graph(ii) Sub-divided Bar Graphs : These are used to
represent the break down of a total info its component
bars. A bar is divided into different segment , each
segment represents a give components . Different
shades, colours , designs etc. are used to distinguish
the various components. An index is given to represent
the various components. To compare, the order of
various components in the different bars is same.
(iii) Multiple Bar Graph (MBG) : When a combination of
inter- related variables are to be represented
graphically, multiple bar diagrams are used. These are
extended from of simple bar diagrams. In M.B.G many
aspects of the data are presented simultaneously with
separated bars or various shades of colours. An index is
given to explain the shades or colours used.
2. Line Graph (LG) : LG are used to show how a quantity
is measured as time changes. If the Line goes up, the
quantity is increasing and the line goes down, the
quantity is decreasing. If the line is horizontal, the
quantity is not changing.
3. Pie Graph (PG) : PG is a pictorial representation of
numerical data by non- intersecting adjacent sectors of
a circle sector’s area of each sector is proportional to
the magnitude of the data represented by the sector.
360
1% of total value = 100 = 3.6⁰
The % of components parts can be converted to
degrees by multiplying 3.6⁰
𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
Degree of any component part = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 × 360

Page 47
Direction for (Qs.1-5) : Study the following graph carefully the questions given below .
40 35
30 30 30 30
30 25 25 25 25 25
20 20 20 20 Dew-drop
In lakh botles

20 15 15
10 Cool-sip
10 7
Pep-up
0
1983 1989 1990 1991 1992 1993
Year
1. In which year was the sale of Pep-up the maximum ? (a) Less then 20% (b) 20% - 25% (c) 25% (d) 31% - 35%
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) None of these 4. In the year 1990, what was the difference between
2. In the case of which soft drink was the average the number of ‘Pep-up’ and ‘Cool-sip’ bottles sold ?
annual sale maximum in the given period ? (a) 50,00,000 (b) 5,00,000 (c) 50,000 (d) 10,00,000
(a) Pep-up only (b) Cool-sip only 5. What was the approximate percent drop in sale of
(c) Dew-drop only (d) Cool-ship and Dew-drop ‘Pep-up’ in 1990 over its sale in 1989 ?
3. In the case of Cool-sip drink, what was the (a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 28
approximate percent increase in sale in 1992 over its
sale in 1991 ?

Direction for (Qs.6-10): The following graph gives the sales figures of a Company m Rs. lakhs over a period of six years
from 1995 to 2000. Study the graph carefully to answer the questions based on it.
400 325 350 375 325
250 225
200

0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
6. The ratio of the number of years for which the sales (a) 330 (b)335 (c)345 (d)355
were above average to the number of years for which 9. By how much amount are the sales in 1998 more
the sales were below average is than that in 1996?
(a) 1:2 (b)2:1 (c)3 :2 (d)5:1 (a) Rs. 12.5 crores (b)Rs. 1.25 crores
7. The sales in 1997 are approximately what percent of (c) Rs. 12.5 lakhs (d) Rs. 1.25 lakhs
the sales in 1999? 10. In which year do the sales show the least percent
(a) 72 (b)76 (c)87 (d)89 increase/decrease over those in the preceding year?
8. What was the approximate average sales (in Rs. (a) 1998 (b)1997 (c)1999 (d)2000
Lakhs) for the years 1997 to 2000 ?

Direction for (Qs.11-15): The table given below shows the annual production of various products of a famous Toy
Company. Study the table and answer the questions based on it

Year Ludo Scrabble Chess Monopoly Carrom

1994 200 150 78 90 65
1995 150 180 100 105 70
1996 180 175 92 110 85
1997 195 160 120 125 75
1998 220 185 130 135 80
11. The total production of all the five years is the 12. The percentage increase in the production of
maximum for which of the toys? Monopoly from 1995 to 1997 was approximately?
(a) Carrom (b) Chess (c) Ludo (d) Scrabble (a) 12 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 21

Page 48
13. In 1997 the production of chess was what percent of (a) Carrom (b) Chess (c) Ludo (d) Monopoly
the production of Scrabble? 15. For which of the five toys, the ratio of the
(a) 70% (b) 75% (c) 60% (d) 25% production in 1998 to that in 1994 is the highest?
14. For which category of toys there was a continuous (a) Carrom (b) Chess (c)Ludo (d) Monopoly
increase in the production over the years?

Direction for (Qs.16-20): Study the pie-chart carefully to answer the following questions.
Percentage of student studying different specialization in a management institute
Total number of student = 4500 Ratio of men to women in each specialisation
11% Specialisation Men Women
FInance HR 2 3
Finance
Marketing 7 5
21% IT
HR International 5 1
12% 22% HR business
Banking Marketing Banking 17 10
18% IB
IT 1 2
16% International Finance 5 4
Marketing Business
16. What is the total number of men studying in the (a) 1125 (b) 297 (c) 1015 (d) 594 (e) None of these
institute ? 19. The number of women studying Finance is what
(a) 1665 (b) 2421 (c) 2025 (d) 1954 percent of the number of men studying the same ?
17. The number of women studying Marketing is (a) 80 (b) 65 (c) 95 (d) 70 (e) None of these
approximately what % of the total number of students 20. In which specialization do the maximum number of
in the institute? women study ?
(a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 7 (a) HR (b) IT (c) Marketing (d) Finance (e) None
18. What is the total number of men studying Banking
and International Business ?

Direction for (Qs.21-25) : Refer in the pie-chart given below :

1991-92 1990-91
Operating Profit 160 Lakh Operating Profit 130 Lakh

Tax Tax
12% 9%
Retained Interest
Intrest
Profit 30% Retained
40%
20% Profit
25%
Depreciati
on
Deprecia Dividend 20%
tion 8% Dividend
20% 8%
21. The operating profit in 1991-92 increased over than 23. If on an average 20% rate of interest was charged on
in 1990-91 by borrowed funds, then the total borrowed fund used by
(a) 23% (b) 22% (c) 25% (d) 24% this company in the given two year amounted to.
22. The Interest burden in 1991-92 was higher then that (a) 221 lakh (b) 195 lakh (c) 368 lakh (d) 515 lakh
in 1990-91 by 24. The retained profit in 1991-92, as compared to that
(a) 50% (b) 25 lakh (c) 90% (d) 41 lakh in 1990-91 was
(a) higher by 2.5% (b) higher by 1.5%
(c) lower by 2.5% (d) lower by 1.5%

Page 49
25. The equity base of these companies remained rupees )by the share holders in 1991-92 is
unchanged . Then the total dividend earning (in lakh (a) 10.4 lakh (b) 9 lakh (c) 12.8 lakh (d) 15.6 lakh

Direction for (Qs.26-29): The following pie- charts give the percentage distribution of employees in different
Departments in XYZ Company Ltd. during the years 2005 and 2006. Answer the questions using this data.
A- Administration; B= Operations; C= Sales & marketing; D= Finance & accounts; E= Corporate HQ
2005 (No. of employees-18000) 2006 (No. of employees-20000)

E E
A
8% 10%
22% D A 24%
D
29% 20%

B
23% C B
C 26%
20%
18%

26. If the average monthly salaryof employees in (a)2% (b)2.34% (c)23.45% (d)none of these
Administrationwas Rs. 12000 in 2005, what was the 28. In what Dept is the variation in strength the
approximate total salary expenses of Administration in maximum in 2006?
2005? (a)A (b)B (c)D (d)E
(a)Rs. 57 lacs (b)Rs. 4.7 crores 29. If 300 employees left operations ata the end of
(c)Rs. 66 crores (d)Rs. 66 lakhs 2005, how many joined in 2006?
27. What is the percentage increase in No. of (a)480 (b)960 (c)1360 (d)none
employees in Sales & Marketing?

Direction for (Qs.30-34): The following line-graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who qualified an
examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the examination over a period of nine years from
1990 to 1998. Study the graph and answer the questions which are based on it.
100
Percentage

80
70
60 60 60 60
50 50 50
30
0
1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
30. What was the number of candidates appeared in (a)1991 (b)1993 (c)1995
the year 1992, if the number of candidates qualified in (d)1997 (e)Cannot be determined
that year was 24720? 33. If the total number of candidates qualified in 1997
(a) 44300 (b)41200 (c)39100 (d)36500 (e)35250 and 1998 together was 58920 and the number of
31. The difference between the percentages of candidates appeared in 1997 was 47800, then what was
candidates qualjfied to appeared was maximum in the total number of candidates appeared in 1997 and
which of the following pairs of years? 1998 together?
(a)1992 and 1993 (b)1994 and 1996 (a)92600 (b)91000 (c)90646 (d)88000 (e)87500
(c)1991 and 1997 (d)1993 and 1996 (e)1995and 1998 34. If the total number of candidates appeared in 1992
32. If the number of candidates qualified in the years and 1993 together was 68700, then the total number of
1991, 1993, 1995 and 1997 be 24102, 28080,27120 and candidates qualified in these two years together was
28680 respectively, then out of these four years, the (a)48240 (b)48090 (c)47130 (d)45050
number of candidates appeared was highest during the (e)Date inadequate
year

Page 50
Direction for (Qs.35-40): Study the following graph which gives the number of students who joined and those who left
the school in the beginning of the year, for six years from 1996 to 2001 Initial strength of the school in 1995 = 3000.
The questions given below the graph are based on this graph.

35. The strength of the school increased/decreased
from 1997 to 1998 by approximate, what percent?
(a)1.2% (b)1.7% (c) 2.1% (d)2.4% (e)2.6%
36. The number of students studying in the school
during 1999 was
(a)2950 (b)3000 (c) 3100 (d)3150 (e)3200
37. During which of the following pairs of years, the
strength of the school was same?
(a)1999 and 2001 (b)1998 and 2000
(c) 1997 and 1998 (d)1996 and 2000 (e)1999 and 2000
38. Among the given years, the largest number of
students joined the school in the year
(a)1996 (b)1998 (c) 1999 (d)2000 (e)2001
39. For which year the percentage rise/fall in the
number of students who left the school compared to
the previous year is maximum?
(a)1997 (b)1998 (c) 1999 (d)2000 (e)2001
40. The ratio of the least number of students who
joined the school to the maximum number of students
who left the school in any of the years during the given
period is
(a)7:9 (b)4:5 (c) 3 : 4 (d)9:11 (e)2 : 3

Direction for (Qs.41-45): Read the following graph and answer the questions given below.

8000 7020
6250
5730
6000 4800 4940 4970
3980
4000 3210

2000

0
Feb-99 March April May June July Aug Sep-99

Crude oil price (in Rs) per metric tone

41. How many experienced more then 10 percent (a) June only (b) April only
increase in crude oil price over the earlier month? (c) August and April only (d) May only
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 44. If in April the crude oil price had been lesser then
42. Which month(s) experienced mor then 10 percent the given by Rs. 223 per metric tonne then how much
but less than 20 percent increase in the price of crude would have been the percentage increase in price over
oil over the earlier month ? the earlier month?
(a) June and September (b)July and September (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) None of these
(c) April and July (d) March and July 45. What is the approximate percentage in the price of
43. Which month(s) has less then one percent increase crude oil from February to September ?
in crude oil price the earlier month? (a) 100 (b) 80 (c) 130 (d) 120

Direction for (Qs.46-50) : These question are based on the information and graph given below.
Number of student studying in different faculties in seven institutions
Institution Faculty

Page 51
 Arts Commerce Science Engineering Management
A 125 187 216 98 74
B 96 152 198 157 147
C 144 235 110 164 127
D 165 138 245 66 36
E 215 196 287 86 66
F 184 212 195 112 97
G 225 206 182 138 89
46. What is the percentage of student studying Science (a) 50 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 53
with respect to the total number of student studying in 49. What is the percentage of student studying
the institute G ? Engineering in institute C with respect to the total
2
(a) 17.20 (b) 12.70 (c) 213 (d) None students of all institutions studying Engineering ?
47. Out of the total student of the institute ‘D’, (rounded to the nearest integer )
approximately what percent of student study (a) 20 (b)18 (c) 21 (d) None of these
management ? 50. In which institution, the percentage of students
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c ) 10 (d) 5 studying commerce with respect to the total student of
48. The total number of student studying Arts in the institution is maximum ?
institute A, B, and C together is approximately what (a) F (b) E (c) C (d) A
percent of the total number of student study commerce
in institutes D, E, F and G together ?

Direction for (Qs.51-55)The graph given below shows the percentage distribution of the total production of a Car
manufacturing Company into various models over two years. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
Percentage of Six different types of cars manufactured by a Company over two years
120

100 U
10 5
10 T
80 15 10
10 15 S
60
20 R
20
40 15 Q
20 40 P
30
0
2000 2001
Total Number of Total Number of
Cars produced = 3,50,000 Cars produced = 4,40,000
51. Total number of cars of models P, Q and T 54. If the percentage production of P type cars in 2001
manufactured in 2000 is was the same as that in 2000, then the number of P
(a) 2,45,000 (b) 2,27,500 (c) 2,10,000 type cars produced in 2001 would have been
(d) 1,92,500 (e) 1,57,500 (a)1,40,000 (b)1,32,000 (c)1,17,000 (d)1,05,000
52.For which model the percentage rise/fall in (e)97,000
production from 2000 to 2001 was minimum? 55.If 85% of the S type cars produced in each year were
(a) Q (b) R (c) S (d) T (e) U sold by the Company, how many. S type cars remained
53.What was the difference in the number of Q type unsold?
cars produced in 2000 and that produced in 2001? (a)7650 (b)9350 (c)11850 (d)12250 (e)13350
(a) 35500 (b) 27000 (c) 22500 (d) 17500 (e) 16000

Direction for (Qs.56-60)Study the following graph carefully and then answers the questions based on it.

Page 52
The percentage of five different types of cars production by the company during two years in given below.
100%
80% type E
60% type D
40% type C
20% type B
0% type A
1996 1997

56.What was the difference in the production of c type (a) 11 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 9
cars between 1996 and 1997? 59.Which of the following types of car, was, the
(a) 5,000 (b) 7,500 (c) 10,000 (d) 2,500 percentage increase from 1996 to 1997 the maximum?
57.If 85% of E type cars produced during 1996 and (a) A (b) E (c) D (d) B
1997 are being sold by the company, then how many E 60.If the percentage of B type cars in 1997 was the
type cars are left unsold by the company? same as that of 1996, what would have been the
(a) 1,42,800 (b) 21,825 (c) 29,100 (d) 25,200 number of cars produced in 1997?
58.If the number of A type cars manufactured in 1997 (a) 1,12,500 (b) 120,000 (c) 1,30,000
was the same as that of 1996, what would have been its (d) Data Inadequate
approximate percentage share in the total production
of 1997?

Direction for (Qs.61-65): Study the following pie-chart and answer the questions based upon the information provided
in the pie-chart.
% EXPENSES ON VARIOUS ITEMS DURING THE PRODUCTION OF A BOOK

Cost of
Printing Cost of
18% Paper
35%
Royalty
17% Miscellan
eous
Expenses
Binding & 5%
Cutting Advertise
Charges ment
15% 10%
61. The ‘binding and cutting charges’ are approximately 64.The central angle for the sector on ‘binding and
what percent of the ‘cost of paper’? cutting charges’ is
(a) 37% (b) 39% (c)43% (d) 51% (a)15° (b)54° (c)72° (d)75°
62.The central angle corresponding to the ‘royalty’ is 65. If the ‘miscellaneous expenses’ are Rs. 6000, then by
more than that of ‘advertisement charges’ by how much are ‘royalty’ expenses more than
(a)18° (b)21.6° (c)25.2° (d)20° ‘advertisement’ charges?
63. If the ‘cost of printing’ is Rs. 30600, then the (a)Rs. 5600 (b)Rs. 7400 (c)Rs. 7800 (d)Rs. 8400
‘royalty’ paid is
(a)Rs. 25500 (b)Rs. 27300 (c)Rs. 28100 (d)Rs. 28900

Direction for (Qs.66-69): A bank provides housing-society loans on the terms that are detailed in the table given below.
Answer the questions based on this table.

Page 53
Instalment Amounts for Monthly Repayments (in rupees) On Housing Society Loans for Different Periods
Loan Amount YEAR (Time of Repayment)
10 15 20 25
1,00,000 1350 1150 950 900
2,00,000 2750 2300 2000 1700
10,00,000 13750 11200 9700 8950
15,00,000 20700 16750 14600 13500
20,00,000,. 29100 23300 19500 18100
66.The total amount repaid over 20 years on a loan of to construct a house. What is the cumulative financial
Rs. 20,00,000 will be impact?
(a) Rs. 37,70,000 (b) Rs. 43,20,000 (a)Rs.4,77,000 (b)Rs.5,25,000
(c) Rs. 46,80,000 (d) Rs.47,75,000 (c)Rs.5,81,000 (d)Rs. 6,15,000
67.How much more money would be paid on a loan of 69.If under a certain scheme the monthly repayment on
Rs. 15,00,000 taken over 25 years compared to the a loan of Rs. 10,00,000 over 20 years is reduced to Rs.
same loan taken over a period of 20 years? 8700, by how much would this reduce the total amount
(a)Rs. 4,78,000 (b)Rs. 5,46,000 to be repaid over the full period?
(c)Rs.6,12,000 (d)Rs. 6,42,000 (a)Rs. 1,26,000 (b)Rs.1,88,000
68.Instead of taking a loan of Rs. 15,00,000 with a (c)Rs.2,40,000 (d)Rs. 2,75,000
repayment period of 15 years, a society proposes to
take a loan of Rs. 20,00,000 to be paid back in 10 years

Direction for Qs.(70-74):The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different
subjects in an Examination. Study the table and answer the questions based on it.
The numbers in the brackets give the maximum marks in each subject.
Students / Subjects (Max. Marks) Maths Chemistry Physics Geography History Computer
(150) (130) (120) (100) (60) Science (40)
Ayush 90 50 90 60 70 80
Aman 100 80 80 40 80 70
Sajal 90 60 70 70 90 70
Rohit 80 65 80 80 60 60
Muskan 80 65 85 95 50 90
Tanvi 70 75 65 85 40 60
Tarun 65 35 50 77 80 80
70.What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sajal (a)11.26 (b)89.14 (c)91.37 (d)96.11 (e)103.21
in all the six subjects? 73.The number of students who obtained 60% or above
(a)409 (b)419 (c)429 (d)439 (e)449 marks in all the subjects is
71.What is the overall percentage of Tarun? (a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)None (e)None of these
(a)52.5% (b)55% (c)60% (d)63% (e)64.5% 74.In which subject is the overall percentage the best?
72.What are the average marks obtained by all the (a)History (b)Maths (c)Physics (d)Chemistry
seven students in Physics? (rounded off to two digits (e)Geography
after decimal)

Direction for (Qs.75-79): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Percentage of Marks Obtained by Six Students in Five Different subjects in a School Examination.
Student Subject
English(50) Maths (100) Science(150) Hindi(50) Social Studies (75)
P 56 89 80 78 84
Q 58 79 64 82 60
R 62 77 74 84 88
S 72 67 84 74 68
T 70 81 7.0 76 64

Page 54
U 64 83 60 88 70
Note : Figures in brackets indicate maximum marks for each subject
75.What is the approximate overall percentage of marks
obtained by U in all the subjects together?
(a) 75 (b) 71 (c)79 (d) 82 (e) 87
76.If in order to pass the examination a minimum of
109.5 marks are required in Science, how many
students pass in the examination ?
(a) None (b) Two (c)One (d)Three (e) None
77.What are the average marks obtained by all the
students together in Hindi?
1 1 1 1
(a)396 (b)406 (c)413 (d)443 (e)None
78.What is the average percentage of marks obtained
by all the students together in English?
(a) 61 (b)63 (c)65 (d) 68 (e)59
79.What are the total marks obtained by S in all the
subjects together?
(a) 317 (b)309 (c)323 (d) 348 (e)None of these

Page 55
DI MIX SOLUTIONS
EXERCISE
1.(d) from visual observation. Sale of pap-up was the maximum in the year 1989.
10+15+25+15+30+25
2.(a) Average annual sale of dew – drop = 6
= 20 lakhs
25+7+20+20+25+30 30+35+30+25+20+20
Average annual sale of cool-sip = = 21.16 lakhs Average annual sale of pap-up = = 26.66 lakhs
6 6
25−20
3.(c) Required % = 20 × 100=25%
4.(d) Required no. = (30-20)lakhs= 10,00,000
35−30
5.(c) Required % drop = 35 × 100 = 14%
1
6.(b): The average sales in the given period of six years from 1995 to 2000 = Rs. x (250+225+325+350+375+325) lakhs = Rs. 308.33
6
lakhs. Clearly, the sales in the years 1995 and 1996 i.e. during 2 years are less than the average and the sales during the other 4
4 2
years are more than the average. Required ratio = 2 = 1
325
7.(c): Required percentage = (375 × 100)%=86.67%~87%
1
8.(c): Average sales for the years 1997 to 2000 =Rs.[ × (325 + 350 + 375 + 325)] lakhs Rs.343.75 lakhs~Rs.345
4
lakhs
9.(b):Required difference=Rs.[350-225]lakhs=Rs.125 lakhs=Rs.1.25 crores
10.(c):The percent increase/decrease in sales (over preceding years) during various years are:
(250−225) 25 (325−225) 100
In 1996=[ 250 × 100]%=(250 × 100)%=10% (decrease) In 1997=[ 225 × 100]%=(225 × 100)%=44.44%(increase)
(350−225) 25 (375−350) 25
In 1998=[ × 100]%=(325 × 100)%=7.69%(increase) In 1999=[ × 100]%=(350 × 100)%=7.14%(increase)
325 350
(375−325) 50
In 2000=[ 375 × 100]%=(375 × 100)%=13.33%(decrease)
Clearly, the sales show the least % change (increase/decrease) in the year 1999.
11.(c):Total production of all the five years, for
(i)Ludo = 200 + 150 + 180 + 195 + 220 = 945 (ii) Scrabble =150+180+175 + 160+185 = 850 (iii)Chess = 78 + 100 + 92 + 120 + 130 = 520
(iv)Monopoly = 90 + 105 + 110 + 125 + 135 = 565 (v)Carrom = 65 + 70 + 85 + 75 + 80 = 375 Clearly, maximum production is for Ludo.
125−105 20
12(c): Required percentage = ( 105 x 100)% = (105 ×100)% = 19%
120
13.(b):Required percentage =(160 x 100)% 7 = 5%.
14.(d): If we study the columns corresponding to each toy. we find that from 1994 to 1998, the production of Monopoly goes on
increasing continuously and never falls.
15.(b):Ratio of production in 1998 to that in 1994 for
220 185 130 135 80
(i) Ludo = 200 = 1.1 (ii)Scrabble = 150 ~1.23 (iii)Chess = 78 ~1.67 (iv)Monopoly= 90 = 1.5 (v)Carrom=65 ~1.23
Clearly, this ratio is highest for Chess.
16-20
Specialisation Total no. of Male Female
students
1 HR 990 396 594
2 Marketing 720 420 300
3 International 810 675 135
business
4 Banking 540 340 200
5 IT 945 315 630
6 Finance 495 275 220
4500 2421 2079
16.(b) is obvious from above
300×100
17.(d) the required % = = 6.6% = 7%
4500
18.(c) the required number of men = 675+340=1015
220×100
19.(a) the required % = 275 = 80%
20.(b) it is obvious from above table.
160−130 300
21.(a) Increase in operating profit = × 100 = = 23%
130 13
22.(b) Interest burden increase = 0.4×160-0.3× 130=64-39=25 lakhs
0.3×130 0.4×160
23.(d) Borrowed funds in 1990-91 = 0.2 = 195lakhs Borrowed funds in 1991-92 = 0.2 = 320lakhs Total=320+195=515.

Page 56
 0.5 100
24.(d) Retained profit in 1990-91 = 0.25×130 = 32.5 Retained profit in 1991-92 = 0.2×160=32 Reduction = 32.5 × 100 = 65 = 1.5%
25.(c) Dividend earning in 1991-92=0.08×160=12.8
26.(b) For 22% employees. Salary = 12000× 22 × 180=216×2.2 lakhs = 4.75 crores
𝐶₁ −𝐶₁ 20×200−18×180 760×100 1900
27.(c) % increase = 𝐶₁ × 100, C2= 20% OF 20000 & C1 = 18% OF 18000. = 18×180
× 100 = 18×180 = 81 = 23.45%
28.(c) For year 2005, A1 = 22× 180, b1=23 × 180 C1 = 18× 180, d1 = 29× 180 E1 = 8× 180,
For year 2006, A2 = 24 × 20, 𝐵₂ = 26 × 200 C2 = 20× 200, D2= 20×200 E2=10×200
Variation of strength is maximum for D as strength dips fromn 29 to 20.
29.(c) B2 – (B1-300)=26×200- (23×180-300)=5200-(4140-300)=1360
30- 34. From the graph it is clear that the percentages of candidates qualified to the candidates appeared for the years 1990, 1991,
1992, 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997 and 1998 are 30%, 50%, 60%, 80%, 60%, 60%, 50% 60% and 70% respectively.
24720×100
30.(b): Let the number of candidates appeared in the year 1992 be x. Then,60% of x = 24720 => x = = 41200.
60
31.(d)The difference between the percentages of candidates qualified to the candidates appeared for the givenpairs are:
(i)For 1992 and 1993 =(80 -60)= 20 (ii)For 1994 and 1996 =(60 -50)= 10 (iii)For 1991 and 1997 =(60 -50)= 10
(iv)For 1993 and 1996 =(80 -50)= 30 (v)For 1994 and 1998 =(70 -60)= 10
Clearly, the highest difference is for the pair 1993 and 1996.
24102×100
32.(a): Let the number of candidates appeared in the year 1991 be x. Then 50% of x = 24102 => x = 50 = 48204
28080×100
The number of candidates appeared in 1991 was 48204. Similarly, the number of candidates appeared in 1993 = = 35100
80
27120×100 28680×100
the number of candidates appeared in 1995 = 60
45200 & the number of candidates appeared in 1997 = 60 = 47800
Thus, the number of candidates appeared was highest during the year 1991.
33.(b): The number of candidates qualified in 1997 = 60% o/47800 = 28680.
Therefore, the number of candidates qualified in 1998 = 58920 - 28680 = 30240.
30240×100
Let, the number of candidates appeared in 1998 be x. Then, 70% of x = 30240 => x = = 43200.
70
Thus, the total number of candidates appeared in 1997 and 1998 together= (47800+ 43200) = 91000.
34.(e):The total number of candidates qualified in 1992 and 1994 together cannot be determined until we know at least, the number
of candidates appeared or candidates qualified, in any one of the two years 1992 or 1994 or even the percentage of candidates
qualified to appeared in 1992 and 1994 together. Hence, the data is inadequate.
35.(b)Before solving the question, we shall analyse the graph: From the graph it is clear that:
In 1996 : Number of students left = 250 and number of students joined = 350;
In 1997 : Number of students left = 450 and number of stu4ents joined = 300;
In 1998 : Number of students left = 400 and number of students joined = 450;
In 1999 : Number of students left = 350 and number of students joined = 500;
In 2000 : Number of students left = 450 and number of students joined = 400;
In 2001 : Number of students left = 450 and number of students joined = 550.
Therefore, the number of students studying in the school (i.e. strength of the school) in various years are :
In 1995 = 3000 (given); In 1996 = 3000 - 250 + 350 = 3100; In 1997 = 3100 - 450 + 300 = 2950;
In 1998 = 2950 - 400 + 450 = 3000; In 1999 = 3000 - 350 + 500 = 3150; In 2000 = 3150 - 450 + 400 = 3100;
In 2001 = 3100 - 450 + 550 = 3200. Now, we shall solve the questions:
(3000−2950)
Percentage increase in the strength of the school from 1997 to 1998 = [ 2950 × 100]% ~ 1.7%
36.(d):As calculated above, the number of students studying in the school during 1999 = 3150.
37.(d):As calculated above (in Q.32), in the years 1996 and 2000, the strength of the school was same i.e. 3100.
38.(e): As calculated above, the largest number of students (i.e. 550) joined the school in the year 2001.
39.(a): The percentage rise/fall in the number of students who left the school (compared to the previous year) during various years
(450−250) (450−400)
are: For 1997 =[ × 100]%=80% (rise) For 1998 =[ × 100]%=11.11% (fall)
250 450
(400−350) (450−350) (450−450)
For 1999 =[ × 100]%=12.5%(fall) For 2000 =[ × 100]%=28.57%(rise) For 2001 =[ × 100]%=0%
400 350 450
Clearly, the maximum % rise\ fall is for 1997.
2
40. (e):By observation = 3
3980−3210
41.(c) percentage increase in crude oil price w.r.t. previous month: % increase in March = 3210
× 100 = 23.98%
4800−3980
% increase in April = 3980
× 100 = 20.60%
May June July Aug Sept
2.92 0.60 15.29 9.07 12.30
42.(b) % increase in july = 15.29% & % increase in sept = 12.30% (it is obvious from above solution).
43.(a)% increase in june= 0.6% (It is obvious from above solution).

Page 57
 4577−3980
44.(d) New crude oil price in April = 4800-223=Rs.4577 per metric tonne % Increase = 3980
× 100 = 15%
7020−3210
45.(d) Required % increase = × 100 = 120%
3210
182 2
46.(c) Total number of students studying in institude G= 225+206+182+138+89=840 Required % = 840 × 100 = 21 3 %
36
47.(d) Total students in institude D = 165+138+245+66+36=650 Required % = 650 × 100 = 5.5% = 5%
125+96+144 365
48.(a) Required % = 138+196+212+206 × 100 = 752 × 100 = 48.50%
164 164
49.(a) Required % = = × 100 = 19.97% = 20%
98+157+164+66+86+112+138 821
50.(c) Obviously, the required % is maximum for C.
51.(c): We shall first determine the number of cars of each model produced by the Company during the two years:
In 2000 : Total number of cars produced = 350000. P = [(30 - 0)% of 350000] = [30% of 350000] = 105000;
Q = [(45 - 30)% of 350000] = [15% of 350000] = 52500; R = [(65 - 45)% of 350000] = [20% of 350000] = 70000;
S = [(75 - 65)% of 350000] = [ 10% of 350000] = 35000; T= [(90-75)% of 350000] = [15% of 350000] = 52500;
U = [(100 - 90)% of 350000] = [10% of 350000] = 35000.
In 2001 : Total number of cars produced = 440000. P= [(40 - 0)% of 440000] = [40% of 440000] = 176000;
Q = [(60 - 40)% of 440000] = [20% of 440000] = 88000; R = [(75 - 60)% of 440000] = [15% of 440000] = ,66000;
S = [(85 - 75)% of 440000] = [10% of 440000] = 44000; T = [(95 - 85)% of 440000] = [10% of 440000] = 44000;
U = [(100 - 95)% of 440000] = [5% of 440000] = 22000. Now, we shall solve the questions.
Total number of cars of models P, Q and T manufactured in 2000 = (105000+ 52500+ 52500) = 210000.
52.(b)Using the above calculations, the percentage change (rise/fall) in production from 2000 to 2001 for various models is:
(176000−105000) (88000−52500)
For P =[ x 100]% = 67.62% (rise); For Q =[ × 100]%= 67.62% (rise);
105000 52500
(70000−66000) (44000−35000)
For R =[ × 100]%=5.71%(fall); For S =[ × 100]% = 25.71% (rise);
70000 35000
(52500−44000) (35000−22000)
For T =[ x 100]%= 16.19% (fall); For U=[ × 100]%=37.14%(fall)
52500 35000
Minimum percentage rise/fall in production is in the case of model R.
53.(a): Required difference = 88000 - 52500 = 35500 (Using Calculations in the solution of Q .43.
54.(b):If the percentage production of P type cars in 2001 = percentage production of P type cars in 2000 = 30%;
Then, number of P type cars produced in 2001 = 30% of 440000= 132000.
55.(c): Number of S type cars which remained unsold in 2000 = 15% of 35000.and number of S type cars which remained unsold in
2001 = 15% of 44000.
Total number of S type cars which remained unsold = 15% of (35000 + 44000) = 15% of 79000= 11850.
56. (a) Production of C type cars in 1996 = (70- 40) % of 4,50,000=30% of 4,50,000 = 1,35,000
Production of C type cars in 1997 = (65- 40) % of 5,20,000=25% of 5,20,000 = 1,30,000
57.(b) Production of E type cars in 1996 = (100- 80) % of4,50,000 =20% of4,50,000 =90, 000
And production of E type cars in 1997 = 10% of 5,20,000 = 52,000 .'. Total production = 90,000 + 52,000= 1,42,000
Required no. of cars = 15% of 1,42,000 = 21,300 = 21,825
58.(b)Production of A type cars in 1997 = production, of A type cars in 1996 (given) and 15%of 4,50,000= 67,500
67,500
Required percentage = 5,20,000 x 100 = 13
59.(c) Clearly by visual inspection D is the desired option.
60.(c) Percentage production of B type cars in 1997 = that in 1996 (given) = (45 – 15) = 25% of 5,20,000 = 1,30,000
3
61.(c)Let the total expenses be Rs. x. Then, binding and cutting charges = Rs. (15% of x) = Rs.(20 𝑥) and cost of paper = Rs. (35% of x)
3
7 𝑥
= Rs.( 𝑥) Required percentage =(20
7 × 100) % =42.85 ~ 43%.
20 𝑥
20
17
62. (c): Central angle corresponding to ‘royalty’ = (17% of 360)° = ( x 360)0
100
10
Central angle corresponding to ‘advertisement charges’= (10% of 360)° = (100 × 360)0
17 10 7
Required difference =(100 × 360)0-(100 × 360)0=(100 × 360)0=25.20
17×30600
63. (d): Let the royalty paid be Rs. x Then, we have : 18 : 17 = 30600 : x x = Rs.( )= Rs. 28900.
18
15
64. (b): Central angle for the sector on ‘binding and cutting charges’= (15% of 360)° =(100 × 360)0= 54°.
65. (d): Percentage difference between ‘royalty’ and ‘advertisement charges’= 17%-10% = 7%.
6000×7
Let this difference be Rs. p. Then, we have : 5:7=6000:p => p=Rs.( 5 ) =Rs.8400
66.(c): Total amount repaid = Rs. (19500 x 12 x 20) = Rs. 46,80,000.
67.(b): Required difference = Rs. ((13500 x 12 x 25) - (14600 x 12 x 20)]=Rs.546000
68.(a): The desired value of impact =Rs.[(29100×12×10)-(16750× 12 × 15)]=Rs.477000

Page 58
69. (c): Average difference= Rs.[(19700×12× 20)-(8700× 12 × 20)]=Rs.(1000× 12 × 20)Rs.240000
70.(e): Aggregate marks obtained by Sajal,
= (90% of 150)+(60% of 130)+(70% of 120)+(70% of 100)+(90% of 60)+(70% of 40) = 135 + 78 + 84 + 70 + 54 + 28 = 449.
71.(c): Aggregate marks obtained by Tarun,
= (65% of 150)+(35% of 130)+(50% of 120)+(77% of 100)+(80% of 60)+(80% of 40)=97.5 + 45.5 + 60 + 77 + 48 + 32 = 360.
Total maximum marks (of all the six subjects)= 150 + 130 + 120 + 100 + 60 + 40 = 600.
360
Overall percentage of Tarun = ( × 100)%=60%
100
72.(b): Average marks obtained by all the students in Physics
(90%𝑜𝑓 120) + (80%𝑜𝑓 120) + (70%𝑜𝑓 120) + (80%𝑜𝑓 120) + (85%𝑜𝑓 120) + (65%𝑜𝑓 120) + (50%𝑜𝑓 120)
=
7
1 1 1 520
= 7 [(90% +80% + 70% + 80%+ 85% +65%+ 50%) of 120] = 7 [520%of 120]=7x100 x 120 = 89.14.
73.(b):From the table it is clear that Sajal and Rohit have 60% or more marks in each of the six subjects.
74.(b): We shall find the overall percentage (for all the seven students) with respect to each subject.
The overall percentage for any subject is equal to the average of percentages obtained by all the seven students since the maximum
marks for any subject is the same for all the students. Therefore, overall percentages:
1 1
(i) For Maths =[ x (90+100 + 90 + 80 + 80 + 70 + 65)]% = [ x 575]%= 82.14%.
7 7
1 1
(ii) Chemistry =[ x (50 + 80+60+65+65+75+35)]%= [ x 430]%= 61.43%.
7 7
1 1
(iii) Physics =[ × (90+80+70+80+85+65+50)]%=[ × 520]= 74.29%.
7 7
1 1
(iv) Geography =[7 x (60 + 40 + 70 + 80 + 95 + 85 + 77)]%=[7x 507]%= 72.43%.
1 1
(v) History =[7 x (70 + 80 + 90 + 60 + 50 + 40 + 80)]%=[7 x 470]%= 67-14%.
1 1
(vi) Computer Science =[7 x(80 + 70 + 70 + 60 + 90 + 60 + 80)]%=[7 x 510]%=72.86%
Clearly, this percentage is highest for Maths.
50×64 60 88×50 75×70
75. (b) Total marks obtained by U= 100 + 83 + 100 × 150 + 100 + 100 = 32 + 83 + 90 + 44 + 52.5 = 301.5
109.5×100
76.(d) x% of 150 = 109.5 x= = 73 Three students P, R and S passed.
150
78 + 82 + 84+74 + 76 + 88 482 241 1
77.(b) Average of percentage of marks in Hindi = = = = 40 6
6 6 6
66+58+62+72+70+64 392
78.(c)Average percentage of marks in English= 6
= 6
= 65
50×72 150×84 50×74 68×75
79.(a)Total marks obtained by S= 100
+ 67 + 100
+ 100
+ 100
= 36 + 67 + 126 + 37 + 51 = 317

Page 59
 LOGICAL
REASONING

Page 60
UNIT-1 : DIRECTION SENSE TEST
In this chapter, we are going to discuss how to solve direction sense
test questions in reasoning.
Directions questions asked in the exam are based on two principles-
 Distance
 Direction
The first step for solving the questions using the concept of
'directions' is to understand the direction chart, which has 8
directions.
Example-1: A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the
right. After walking 3 km he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in
which direction is he from the starting place?
A. West B. South C. North-East D. South-West
Solution:
Hence required direction is South-West. Option D
EXERCISE
1. Anoop starts walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he
turns towards North. After walking 20 m, he turns towards East
and walks 10m. He then turns towards South and walks 5 m. How
far is he from his original position and in which direction ?
(a) 10 m, North (b) 10 m, South (c) 10 m, West
(d) 10 m, East (e) None of these
2. Village Chimur is 20 km to the North of village Rewa. Village
Rahate is 18 km to the East of village Rewa. Village Angne is 12 km
to the West of Chimur. If Samay starts from village Rahate and goes
to village Angne, in which direction is he from his starting point ?
(a) North (b) North-West (c) South (d) South-East
(e) None of these
3. From a point, Suraj started walking East and walked 35 m. He
then turned towards his right and walked 20 m and he again turned
right and walked 35 m. Finally, he turned his left and walked 20 m
and reached his destination. Now, how far is he from his starting
point ?
(a) 50 m (b) 55 m (c) 20 m (d) 40 m (e) None of these
4. A rat runs 20' towards East and turns to right, runs 10' and turns
to right run 9' and again turns to left, runs 5' and then turns to left,
runs 12' and finally turns to left and runs 6'. Now, which direction is
the rat facing ?
(a) East (b) North (c) West (d)South (e) North-East
Concept of Pythagoras Theorem: We'll use the concept of
Pythagoras theorem to solve the questions on directions.
In a right angled triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to
the sum of the squares of the other two sides.
c2=a2 + b2
Let's understand the above discussed concepts with the help of
some solved example.
Example-2: A man goes 3 kms. East from point A and then takes a
right turn from point B to move 4 kms. to point C. What is the
minimum distance between point A and point C?
Solution: In order to find the minimum distance between these
points. We know that the minimum distance between these points
will lie along the hypotenuse of the right-angled triangle formed by
these points
(AC)2=(AB)2+(BC)2=32+42=5
5. Vijay started walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he
turned to the left and walked 15 m. He again turned to his left and
walked 15m. How far is he from his original position and in which
direction ?
(a) 15 m, North (b) 15m, South (c) 30 m, East
(d) 15 m, West (e) None of these
6. Ranbir is standing at a point. He walks 20 m towards the East
and further 10 m towards the South, then he walks 35 m towards
the West and further 5 m towards the North, then he walks 15 m
towards the East. What is the straight distance in metres between
his starting point and the point where he reached last ?
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c)10 (d) 15 (e) None of these
7. Rahim started from Point X and walked straight 5 km West, then
turned left and walked straight 2 km and again turned left and
walked straight 7 km. In which direction is he from the point X ?
(a) North-East (b) South-West (c) South-East
(d) North-West (e) None of these
8. Ravi travelled 4 km straight towards south. He turned left and
travelled 6 km straight, then turned right and travelled 4 km
straight. How far is he from the starting point ?
(a) 8 km (b) 10 km (c) 12 km (d) 18 km (e) None of these
9. Mohan started from point A and proceeded 7 km straight
towards East, then he turned left and proceeded straight for a
distance of 10 km. He then turned left again and proceeded
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straight for a distance of 6 km and then turned left again and
proceeded straight for another 10 km. In which direction is Mohan
from his starting point ?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South (e) North-East
10. A policeman left his police post and proceeded South 4 km on
hearing a loud sound from point A. On reaching the place, he heard
another sound and proceeded 4 km to his left to the point B. From
B he proceeded left to reach another place C, 4 km away. In which
direction, he has to go to reach his police post?
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West (e) None of these
11. B is to the South-West of A, C is to the East of B and South-East
of A, and D is to the North of C in line with B & A. In which direction
of A is D located?
(a) North (b) East (c) South-East (d) North-East
(e) None of these
12. Komal wants to go to the market. She starts from her home
which is in North and comes to the crossing. The road to her left
ends in a park and straight ahead is the office complex. In which
direction is the market?
(a) East (b)West (c) North (d)South (e) None
13. A man walks 30 m towards South. Then turning to his right he
walks 30 m. Then turning to his left he walks 20 m. Again turning to
his left he walks 30 m. How far is he from his starting position ?
(a) 30 m (b) 20 m (c) 80 m (d)60 m (e) 50 m
14. Facing towards South, Ram started walking and turned left
after walking 30 m, he walked 25 m and turned left and walked 30
m. How far is he from his starting position and in which direction?
(a) At the starting point only (b) 25 m West
(c) 25 m East (d) 30 m East (e) None of these
15. Ram Travels a distance of 5 km from a place A towards North,
turns left and walks 3 km, again turns right and walks 2 km. Finally
ANSWERS WITH EXPLAINATION (EXERCISE)
1. (d) From the figure, it is clear that Anoop starts his journey
from Point A and finishes his journey at Point B. It can be seen
that Point B is at a distance of 10 m from Point A and in East
direction.
2. (b) From the figure, it is clear that A and B denote the starting
and finishing points respectively. B is to the North-West of Point
A.
3. (d) From the figure, it is clear that point A and B represents the
starting and finishing positions respectively of Surajneesh. And it
can be seen that point B is 40 m away from point A.
turns right and walks 3 km to reach the place B. What is the
distance between A and B ?
(a) 7 km (b) 13 km (c) 2 km (d) 10 km (e) None
16. A started from a place. After walking for a kilometre, he turns
to the left, then walking for a half km, he again turns to left. Now,
he is going Eastward direction. In which direction, did he originally
start ?
(a) West (b) East (c) South (d) North (e) None of these
17. One morning Uday and Vishal were talking to each other face
to face at a crossing. If Vishal’s shadow was exactly to the left of
Uday, which direction was Uday facing?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d)South (e) None
18.One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to
each other face to face. If Hema’s shadow was exactly to the right
of Hema, which direction was Rekha facing?
(a) North (b) South (c) East
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
19. K is 40 m South-West of L. If M is 40 m South-East of L, then M
is in which direction of k?
(a) East (b) West (c) North - East (d) South
(e) None of these
20. Arun’s office is situated at 5 km south from Bhavisya’s office.
Bhavisya starts from his office and walks 2 km towards Arun’s
office. He then turns left and walks 3 km and then turns right and
walks 3km. In which direction will he turn to reach Arun’s office?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South (e) None of these
21. City ‘M’ is situated east of city ‘N’. City ‘O’ is situated south of
city ‘N’. City ‘P’ is situated North of city ‘O’. In which direction city
‘N’ is situated with respect of city ‘P’?
(a) North (b) South (c) East
(d)Cannot be determined (e) None of these
4. (b) A and Bare the starting and finishing positions respectively
of the rat. It is clear that B is facing North direction.
5. (e) Vijayan finally reaches a point which is 15 m from the
starting point and is in East direction.
6. (b) The distance between A and B is 5m.
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7. (c) Y represents the finishing point of Rahim and it is to the 14. (c) Finishing point B starting point is at a distance of 25 m.
South-East of point X. East to the starting point A.

8. (b) B is the finishing point and is 10 km from the point A.

The Aerial distance of A from B is 10 km calculated as below 15. (a) B is the finishing point and is at a distance of 7 km from
the starting point.

(AB)2 = (AD)2 + (DB)2

= (8)2 + (6)2
= 64 + 36 = 100 AB=10km
9. (a) B is the finishing point and is at a distance of 1 km to the 16. (a) person started moving from point A towards west
East of A, starting point. direction.

10. (d) From C to reach A (starting point) policeman will have to

move in West direction.
17.(c) N
V
W U E
S
11. (d) D, which is to the North of C, is located to the North-
East of A.
18.(b) N
R

W E

H
S
12. (b) Market is in the West direction to the crossing.
19.(a)
L

40 40
13. (e) Point B is the finishing point and is located at a distance of K M
50 m from point A.

20.(b) N 21.(d)cannot be determine

P
A N
M
2 3 P
53
B

Page 63
UNIT-2 : SITTING ARRANGEMENT
INTRODUCTION
We have provided theory for understanding the Seating
Arrangement category. Read the points carefully before taking
any seating arrangement online test.
Sitting Arrangement questions are one of the most common
question types in logical reasoning. The name itself suggests
questions are depends on arrangements of people or objects in
circular or straight line or different shapes. Below are the key
points for solving sitting arrangement questions. 2. Which one is immediate right to the V ?
1. Need to understand the given data and visualize the shape of A. P B. U C. R D. T
arrangement. Solution: Option D
2. Capture the clues from the given data in the correct order.
3. Draw the diagram which contains given data for your
reference.
4. Read the questions one by one and check the diagram which is
having correct arrangement or not.
These above points make you understand the questions in better
way. There are no certain formulas for solving this types of
questions because it's completely depends on your logical skills.
Hence try to understand the questions if can't read couple of T is immediate right to the V.
times and do it. Example-2: Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed.
Example-1: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle Seema is to the left of Rani and to the right of Bindu. Mary is to
and are facing the centre: the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary.
 P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of R and V. 1.Who is sitting immediate right to Reeta ?
 S is not the neighbour of P. A. Bindu B. Rani C. Mary D. Seema
 V is the neighbour of U. Solution: Option C
 Q is not between S and W. W is not between U&S.
1. Which two of the following are not neighbours ?
A. RV B. UV C. RP D. QW
Mary is sitting immediate right to Reeta.
Solution: Option A

EXERCISE
Directions (Q. 1 -3) : Read the following information carefully and (v) Amisha and Dolly have one dancer between them.
answer the questions given below : Four ladies Asha, Bhakti, Chetna, 4.Who is on the extreme right ?
Divya and four gentlemen Eshan, Farhan, Gourav & Hari are sitting (a) Dolly (b) Fatima (c) Geeta (d) Elle (e) None of these
in a circle round a table facing each other. 5.If we start counting from the left, on which number is Charul ?
(i) No two ladies or two gentlemen are sitting side by side. (a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 5th (e) None of these
(ii) Chetna, who is sitting between Gourav and Eshan, is facing
Divya. Directions (Q. 6-8) : Read the following information carefully and
(iii) Farhan is between Divya and Asha and is facing Gourav. answer the questions based on it.
(iv) Hari is to the right of Bhakti. Six girls are sitting in a circle. Siya is sitting opposite to Rekha. Pooja
1.Who is sitting to the left of Asha? is sitting right of Rekha but left of Disha. Mona is sifting left of
(a) Eshan (b) Farhan (c) Gourav (d) Hari (e) None Rekha. Komal is sitting right of Siya and left of Mona. Now Disha and
2.Eshan is facing whom ? Komal, Mona and Rekha mutually exchange their positions.
(a) Farhan (b) Bhakti (c) Gourav (d)Hari (e) None 6.Who will be opposite to Siya ?
3.Who are immediate neighbours of Bhakti ? (a) Rekha (b) Mona (c) Komal (d) Siya (e) None
(a) Gourav and Hari (b) Eshan and Farhan 7.Who will be sitting left of Komal?
(c) Eshan and Hari (d) Farhan and Hari (e) None (a) Pooja (b) Disha (c) Rekha (d) Siya (e) None
8.Who will be sitting left of Disha ?
Directions (Q. 4-5) : Read the following information carefully and (a) Siya (b) Mona (c) Rekha (d) Pooja
answer the questions based on it. (e) Can't be determined
A group of seven Dancers, facing the audience, are standing in a line
on the stage as follows : Directions (Q. 9-11) : Read the information and answer the
(i) Dolly is to the right of Charul. questions : Six girls Amisha, Bulbul, Kiran, Diya, Esha and Payal are
(ii) Fatima is near Geeta. standing in a row. Bulbul is between Diya and Payal. Amisha does
(iii) Beena is to the left of Fatima. not stand next to either Payal or Diya. Kiran does not stand next to
(iv) Elle is to the left of Amisha. Diya. Esha stands between Amisha and Kiran.
(v) Charul and Beena have one person between them. 9.Payal stands between

Page 64
(a) Bulbul and Kiran (b) Esha and Amisha (ii) Q is neighours of U but not of T.
(c) Diya and Bulbul (d) Amisha and Kiran (iii) T is neighbour of R, is 4th to the right of V.
(e) Can't be determined (iv) S is between T and P.
10.Who occupy the extreme ends of the row ? 23.Who is fourth to the left of V ?
(a) Diya and Esha (b) Diya and Amisha (a) S (b) T (c) R (d) Can't be determined (e) None
(c) Amisha and Payal (d) Bulbul and Esha (e) None 24.Who is to the left of V ?
11.Kiran stands between (a) P (b) R (c) Q (d) Can't be determined (e) None
(a)Payal and Bulbul (b)Payal and Diya 25.Who are the neighbours of U ?
(c)Payal and Esha (d) Esha and Amisha (e) None (a) T and Q (b) U and Q (c) P and Q
(d) R and Q (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 12-15) : Read the information carefully and answer
the questions based on it. Six persons are sitting in a circle. P is Directions (Q. 26-30) : Read the following information carefully and
facing Q. Q is to the right of T and left of R. R is to the left of S. U is answer the questions given below :
to the right of P. Now S exchanges his seat with U, and T with Q. (i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted
12.Who will be sitting to the left of S ? to P, Q, R, S, T and U. (ii) Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to
(a)Q (b)U (c)T (d) P (e) None of these S. (iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats, (iv) R next to U, gets a
13.Who will be sitting to the left of R ? South facing flat and T gets a North facing flat.
(a) T (b) U (c) P (d) Q (e) Can't be determined 26.Whose flat is between Q and S ?
14.Who will be sitting opposite of P ? (a) T (b) U (c) R (d)P (e) Data inadequate
(a) T (b) U (c) S (d) Q (e) None of these 27.The flats of which of the other pairs than SU, is diagonally
15.Who will be sitting opposite to R ? opposite to each other ?
(a)T (b)S (c)Q (d) P (e) Can't be determined (a) PT (b) QP (c) QR (d)TS (e) None of these
28.If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whose flat will be next to
Directions (Q. 16-19) : Read the following information carefully and that of U ?
answer the questions given below : Six persons Piya, Siya, Riya, (a) Q (b) T (c) P (d) R (e) None of these
Sonal, Tina and Usha are sitting in a circle facing one another. Piya is 29.Which of the combinations get South facing flats ?
sitting in front of Siya. Siya is sitting to the right of Tina and left of (a) URP (b) UPT (c) QTS
Riya. Piya is to the left of Usha and right of Sonal. (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
16.Who is sitting opposite to Riya ? 30.To arrive at the answers to the above questions, which of the
(a) Piya (b) Siya (c) Sonal (d) Tina (e) Usha following statements can be dispensed with ?
17.Who is sitting opposite to Siya ? (a) None (b) (i) only (c) (ii) only (d) (iii) only
(a) Usha (b) Tina (c) Riya (d) Piya (e) None of these
18.Who is sitting between Piya and Riya ?
(a) Sonal (b) Tina (c) Usha (d) Siya (e) None 31.There are six houses in a row. Mr. Khanna has Mr. Khan and Mr.
19.If the positions of Piya and Riya are changed, who will be sitting Kapoor as neighbours. Mr. Choudhary has Mr. Namdev and
between Sonal and Usha ? Mr.Singh as neighbours. Mr. Namdev's house is not next to Mr. Khan
(a) Piya (b) Riya (c) Siya (d) Tina (e) Can't be determined or Mr. Kapoor and Mr. Singh does not live next to Mr Kapoor. Who
are Mr. Khan's next door neighbour ?
Directions (Q. 20-22) : Read the following information carefully and (a)Mr. Khanna and Mr. Khan
answer the questions given below : (b)Mr. Khanna and Mr. Kapoor
Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the (c)Mr. Singh and Mr. Khanna
extreme ends is a Engineer and the other is a Businessman. A (d)Only Mr. Khanna (e)None of these
Teacher is standing to the right of a Student. An Author is to the left
of the Businessman. The Student is between the Engineer and the Directions (Q. 32-33): Read the following information and answer
Teacher. the questions given below :
20.Counting from the left the Author is at which place ? Eight friends Parul, Karan, Rishika, Sagar,Pankaj,Usha, Vidham and
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth (e) None Wagish are sitting around a circular table facing centre. Karan is
21.Which of the following is in the middle of the queue? sitting between Vidham and Sagar. Wagish is third to the left of
(a) Engineer (b) Teacher (c) Student Karan and second to the right of Parul. Rishika is sitting between
(d) Businessman (e) Author Parul and Vidham. Karan and Pankaj are not sitting opposite to each
22.If Teacher and the Businessman exchange their positions, also other.
the Author and the student, then who will be standing to the left of 32.Which of the following statements is not correct ?
the student ? (a)Sagar and Parul are sitting opposite to each other.
(a) Author (b) Businessman (c) Engineer (b)Vidham and Karan are not sitting opposite to each other.
(d) Teacher (e) Student (c)Rishika and Pankaj are sitting opposite to each other.
(d)Usha and Karan are sitting opposite to each other.
Directions (Q. 23-25) : Read the following information carefully and (e)None of the above
answer the questions given below it: 33.Who is third to the left of Sagar ?
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are playing cards sitting in a circle, (a) Usha (b) Parul (c) Pankaj
(i) U is 2nd to the right of V. (d) Sagar (e) Can't be determined

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 (a) Extreme left (b) Extreme right
Directions (Q. 34-37): Read the following information carefully and (c) Third from left (d) Second from left (e)None of these
answer the questions given below it:
Five friends P, Q, R, S and T are sitting on a bench. (i) P is sitting next Directions (Q. 38-39) : Read the following information carefully and
to Q. (ii)R is sitting next to S. (iii) S is not sitting with T. (iv) T is on the then answer the questions based on it.
left end of the bench. (v) R is on second position from right, (vi) P is Seven boys Rohit, Bharat, Keshav, Dev, Evan, Farhan and Gautam
on the right side of Q, who is to the right side of T. (vii) P and R are are standing in a line, (i) Gautam is between Rohit and Evan. (ii)
sitting together. Farhan and Rohit have one boy between them. (iii) Evan and Keshav
34.At what position is P sitting ? have two boys between them. (iv) Dev is to the right of Bharat. (v)
(a) Between Q and R (b) Between S and R Keshav and Bharat, have three boys between them.
(c)Between T and S (d) Between R and T 38.Who is second from left ?
35.Who is sitting at the centre ? (a) Keshav (b) Gautam (c) Evan (d)Rohit
(a) P (b)Q (c)R (d)S (e) T (e)Bharat
36.What is the position of Q ? 39.Keshav is standing between
(a) Second from right (b) Centre (c) Extreme left (a) Rohit and Farhan (b)Dev and Gautam
(d)Second from left (e) None of these (c) Rohit and Dev (d) Farhan and Gautam
37.What is the position of S ? (e) None of these

ANSWERS WITH EXPLAINATION (EXERCISE)

Directions (Q. 1 -3)
On the basis of information given in the question, the sitting 10.(b) From the figure, it is clear that Diya and Amisha occupy the
arrangement of the persons will be as given in the figure. extreme ends of the row.
Asha 11.(c) Kiran stands between Payal and Esha.
Eshan Farhan Directions (Q. 12-15) : After interchanging the positions of S with U,
and T with Q as per information, we have the sitting arrangement as
Chetna Divya given in figure
S P
Gourav Hari
Bhakti Q U

1.(b) From the figure, it is clear that Farhan is sitting to the left of T R
Asha. 2.(d) Eshan is facing Hari, 12.(d) It is clear from the figure that P is to the left of S.
3.(a) Gourav and Hari are immediate neighbours of Bhakti. 13.(a) T is sitting to the left of R.
Directions (Q. 4-5) : On the basis of information, we have the 14.(a) T is sitting opposite to P.
arrangement of the Dancers in a line as under : 15.(b) S is sitting opposite to R.
∣─---──∣--------------|---------∣---------∣------------∣--------------| Directions (Q. 16-19) : Figure shows the exact position of the sitting
Elle Amisha Charul Dolly Beena Fatima Geeta arrangement.
4.(c) Dancer Geeta is to the extreme right of the line. Piya
5.(c) Charul is third from the left. Usha
Directions (Q. 6-8) : After changing their positions as given in the
question, we have the order of sitting of persons as given in the
figure. Tina Sonal

Mona Rekha Riya

Siya
16.(e) Usha is sitting opposite to Riya.
Pooja Disha 17.(b) Tina is sitting opposite to Siya.
18.(a) Siya is sitting between Piya and Riya.
19.(b) Riya will be sitting between Siya and Usha.
Komal Siya Directions (Q. 20-22): On the basis of the information given in the
question, we have the arrangement of standing order of persons as
6.(b) Mona is sitting just opposite to Siya. per figure.
7.(a) Pooja is sitting just left of Komal. Engineer Student Teacher Author Businessman
8.(a) Siya is sitting just left of Disha. 20.(d) Author is fourth from the left.
Directions (Q. 9-11): On the basis of the informations as given in the 21.(b) Teacher is in the middle of queue.
question, we have the arrangement of standing as per figure. 22.(b) Businessman will be to the left of student if Teacher and
∣──------─∣-----------∣-----------∣----------∣----------∣ Businessman, Author and Student exchange their positions.
Diya Bulbul Payal Kiran Esha Amisha Directions (Q. 23-25) : Figure shows the correct sitting order of the
9.(a) Payal stands between Bulbul and Kiran. persons around the circular table on the basis of the information
given in the question.

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 31. (c) We see from the figure that Mr. Khan's next door neighbours
are Mr. Khanna and Mr. Singh.
Directions (Q. 32-33) : Correct position of eight friends have been
shown in the figure
Parul

Usha Rishika

S
P T Wagish Vidham

V R Pankaj Karan
U Sagar
32. (e) On the basis of given information and figure, all the
Q alternatives are correct.
23.(c) Person R is fourth to the left of V. 33. (a) Usha is third to the left of Sagar.
24.(a) Person P is to the left of V. Directions (Q. 34-37) : Figure shows the correct position of five
25.(d) R and Q are the neighbours of U. persons sitting in a row.
26. (a) T is between Q and S. T Q P R S
27. (b) Apart from SU, PQ are diagonally opposite to each other. | | | | |
28. (d) After interchanging T and P, R's position does not get 34. (a) P is sitting between Q and R.
affected and R is next to U. 35. (a) P is sitting at the centre of the row.
29. (a) URP get the south facing flats. 36. (d) Q is sitting second from the left.
30. (a) All the information are required to answer the question. 37. (b) S is sitting at the extreme right of the bench.

(38-39) : Figure shows the correct position of all the seven boys in the row.
| | | | | | |
Farhan Keshav Rohit Gautam Evan Bharat Farhan
38. (a) Keshav is second from the left. 39 (a) Keshav is standing between Rohit and Farhan.

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UNIT-3 : ANALOGY
INTRODUCTION Solution: 'Stethoscope' is used by the Doctor as a tool to perform
Analogy literally means 'similarity’ having a similar features. An his work. Similarly a 'Painter' uses a 'Brush' as a tool to perform his
analogy is a comparison of two things to show their similarities. work. Hence, the answer is (b).
Sometimes the things being compared are quite similar, but other 6. Sex Relationship
times they could be very different. Nevertheless, an analogy Example 6. 'Bull' is related to 'Cow' in the same way as 'Horse' is
explains one thing in terms of another to highlight the ways in related to
which they are alike.This type of questions cover all types of (a) Animal (b) Mare (c) Stable(d) Meat
relationship that one can think of, there are many ways of Solution: They have opposite gender, so horse is related to mare.
establishing a relationship, some of the most common ones are Therefore, our ans is (b).
given here. 7. Word and Synonym
1. Cause and Effect Example 7. 'Death' is related to 'End' in the same way as
Example 1. BACTERTA: ILLNESS : : 'Substitute' is related to
(a) Medicine : Germs (b) Calcium :Bones (c) Knife: (a) Replace (b) Rumor (c) Destroy (d) Assume
Laceration (d) Fire : Explosion Solution :'End’ is synonym of 'Death'. In the same way 'Replace' is a
Solution: if 'Illness' is related to 'Bacteria' then 'Fire' will be related word nearest in meaning to the word 'Substitute'. Therefore, our
to 'Explosion' . Hence, our answer is (d). answer is (a).
2. Subset to Set 8. Word and Antonym
Example 2. BOUQUET: FLOWERS : : Example 8. Growth : Death : : Increase : ?
(a) Necklace : Beads (b) Door : Handle (c) Room (a) Ease (b)Decrease (c) Tease (d)Cease
: Door (d) Door : Window Solution: 'Death' is antonym of 'Growth '. In the same way
Solution: 'Flowers' is a part of 'Bouquet' and in the same way we 'Decrease' is a farthest in meaning to the word 'Increase '.
see that 'Bead' is a part of 'Necklace'. Hence, our answer is (a). Therefore, our answer is (a).
3. Quantity and Unit 9. Worker and Working Place
Example 3. 'Current' is related to 'Ampere' in the same way as Example 9. Manager : Office : :
'Weight' is related to (a) Doctor : Patient (b) Curator : Museum (c) Bank :
(a) Scale (b) Pound (c) Commodity Account (d) Fruit : Seed
(d) Measurement Solution: The place of work of 'Manager' is 'Office'. Similarly the
Solution: 'Current' is measured in terms of 'Ampere' and 'Weight' is place where 'Curator' works is ' Museum'. So, the answer is (b).
measured in terms of 'Pound'. Hence, our answer is (b). 10. Study and Terminology
4. Instrument and Measurement Example 10. Paleography : Writings :: Ichthyology : ?
Example 4. Clock : Time :: Thermometer : ? (a) Fishes (b) Whales (c) Oysters (d) Mammals
(a) Heat (b)Radiation (c)Energy Solution :Study of Writings is known as 'Paleography '. '
(d) Temperature Ichthyology’ is the science dealing with study of Fishes. Hence, the
Solution:Relationship given in the question is the relationship answer is (a).
between Instrument and Measurement. 11. Product and Raw material
5. Worker and Tools Example 11. 'Shoes' is related to 'Leather' in the same way as
Example 5. 'Doctor' is related to 'Stethoscope' in the same way as 'Rubber' is related to
'Painter' is related to (a) Plastic (b) Polythene (c) Latex (d) Chappal
(a) Painting (b) Brush (c) Exhibition (d)Art Solution :'Leather' is a raw material used to make 'Shoes'. Similarly,
'Rubber' is made using 'Latex' as raw material. Therefore, our
answer is (c).

EXERCISE
1. 'Bank' is related to 'Money’ in the same way as 'Transport' is 5. ‘Yard’ is to ‘Inch’ as ‘Quart’ is to
related to (a) Gallon (b) Ounce (c) Milk
(a) Goods (b) Road (c) Movement (d) Liquid (e)Ice
(d) Traffic (e) Speed 6. ‘Cup’ is to ‘Coffee’ as ‘Bowl’ is to
2.’Marathon’ is to ‘Race’ as ‘Hibernation’ is to (a) Dish (b) Soup (c) Spoon
(a) Winter (b) Bear (c) Dream (d) Sleep (d) Food (e) Bowl
(e) Summer 7. 'Oval' is related to 'Circle' in the same way as 'Rectangle' is related
3. 'Captain' is related to 'Soldier' in the same way as 'Leader' is to
related to (a) Triangle (b) Square (c) Periphery
(a) Chair (b) Follower (c) Party (d) Diagonal (e) Pentagon
(d) Minister (e) Vote 8. 'Umpire' is related to 'Match' in the same way as Judge' is related
4. 'Skirmish' is related to 'War' in the same way as 'Disease' is to
related to (a) Court (b) Consultant (c) Judgment
(a) Infection (b) Epidemic (c) Patient (d) Witness (e) Law Suit
(d) Medicine (e) Death 9. ‘Careful’ is to ‘Cautious’ as ‘Boastful’ is to

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(a) Arrogant (b) Humble (c) Joyful 20. 'Face' is related to 'Expression' in the same way as 'Hand' is
(d) Suspicious (e) Peace related to
10.’Reptile’ is to ‘Lizard’ as ‘Flower’ is to (a) Gesture (b) Work (c) Handshake
(a) Petal (b) Stem (c) Daisy (d) Pointing (e) Waving
(d) Alligator (e) Twig 21. 'Wine' is related to 'Grapes' in the same way as Vodka' is related
11.'Hour' is related to 'Second' in the same way as 'Tertiary’ is to
related to (a) Apples (b) Potatoes (c) Oranges
(a) Ordinary (b) Secondary (c) Primary (d) Flour (e) None of these
(d) Intermediary (e) None of these 22. 'Golf’ is related to 'Holes' in the same way as 'Baseball' is related
12.‘Optimist’ is to ‘Cheerful’ as ‘Pessimist’ is to to
(a) Gloomy (b) Mean (c) Petty (a) Innings (b) Goal (c) Points
(d) Helpful (e) Cheerful (d) Serve (e) None of these
13. 'Parliament' is related to 'Great Britain' in the same way as 23. ‘Pride’ is to ‘Lion’ as ‘Shoal’ is to
"Congress' is related to (a) Teacher (b) Student (c) Self-Respect
(a) Jordan (b) India (c) U.S.A. (d) Fish (e)None of these
(d) Netherlands (e) None of these 24.‘Exercise’ is to ‘Gym’ as ‘Eating’ is to
14. "Sports' is related to 'Logo' in the same way as 'Nation' is related (a) Food (b) Dieting (c) Fitness
to (d) Restaurant (e)None of these
(a) Emblem (b) Animal (c) Ruler 25. ‘Guide’ is to ‘Direct’ as ‘Reduce’ is to
(d) Anthem (e) None of these (a) Decrease (b) Maintain (c) Increase
15. 'Data Processing' is related to ‘Raw Data' in the same way as (d) Preserve (e)None of these
'University' is related to 26. 'Disease' is related to 'Pathology’ in the same way as "Planet" is
(a) Teacher (b) Building (c) Students related to
(d) Principal (e) None of these (a) Sun (b) Satellite (c) Astrology
16. 'Braille' is related to 'Blindness' in the same way as 'Sign (d) Astronomy (e) Orbit
language' is related to 27. 'Mountain' is related to Valley’ in the same way as 'Enemy’ is
(a) Exceptional (b) Touch (c) Deafness related to
(d) Presentation (e) None of these (a) Cruel (b) Stranger (c) Country
17. ‘Window’ is to ‘Pane’ as ‘Book’ is to (d) Friend (e) Fight
(a) Novel (b) Glass (c) Cover 28. 'Horse' is related to ‘Hoof’ in the same way as 'Eagle' is related to
(d) Page (e) Pen (a) Claw (b) Clutch (c) Leg
18. 'Match' is related to 'Win' in the same way as 'Examination' is (d) Foot (e) None of these
related to 29. 'Liberty’ is related to 'Slavery’ in the same way as 'Danger’ is
(a) Write (b) Appear (c) Success related to
(d) Attempt (e) Prepare (a) Safety (b) Dangerous (c) Anger
19. 'Heart' is related to 'Blood' in the same way as 'Lung’ is related (d) Stability (e) None of these
to 30. 'Usual’ is to 'Common’ as 'Light’ is to
(a) Oxygen (b) Chest (c) Purification (a) Bright (b) Black (c) Dark
(d) Air (e) Respiration (d) Glow (e) None of these

ANSWERS AND EXPLAINATION (EXERCISE)

1.(a) 'Bank' is the institute which deals with transaction of 'Money'. Likewise 'Transport' deals with the movement of Goods.
2.(d) A ‘Marathon’ is a long ‘Race’ and ‘Hibernation’ is a lengthy period of sleep. The answer is not choice a or b because even though a
bear and winter are related to hibernation, neither completes the analogy. (Choice c) is incorrect because sleep and dream are not
synonymous.
3.(b) 'Captain' is supposed to lead the ‘Battalian’ of 'Soldiers' in the same way as 'Leader’ is supposed to lead the 'Followers'.
4.(b) 'Skirmish', if uncontrolled gives rise to "war'. In the same way, 'Disease', if uncontrolled gives rise to 'Epidemic.'
5.(b) A yard is a larger measure than an inch (a yard contains 36 inches). A quart is a larger measure than an ounce (a quart contains 32
ounces). Gallon (choice a) is incorrect because it is larger than a quart. Choices c and d are incorrect because they are not units of
measurement.
6.(b)Coffee goes into a cup and soup goes into a bowl. Choices a and c are incorrect because they are other utensils. The answer is not
choice d because the word food is too general.
7.(b) 'Oval' is the figure which is similar to the 'Circle'. Likewise 'Rectangle' is related to 'Square', as both of them have four corners.
8.(e) 'Umpire' is required to give decision in 'Match'. Likewise ‘Judge' is required to give decision in 'Law Suit'.
9.(a) ‘Careful’ and ‘Cautious’ are synonyms (they mean the same thing). ‘Boastful’ and arrogant are also synonyms. The answer is not
(choice b) because humble means the opposite of boastful. The answer is not choice c or d because neither means the same as boastful.
10. (c)A 'Lizard’ is a type of ‘Reptile’, a daisy is a type of flower. Choices a and b are incorrect because a petal and a stem are parts of a
flower, not types of flowers. (Choice d) is incorrect because an alligator is another type of reptile, not a type of flower.
11.(c) 'Second' is the third position after 'Hour' in time measurement. Likewise 'Tertiary’ is the third position after 'Primary' in the order of
ranking.

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12. (a)An ‘Optimist’ is a person whose outlook is ‘Cheerful’. A ‘Pessimist’ is a person whose outlook is ‘Gloomy’. The answer is not (choice b)
because a pessimist does not have to be mean. (Choices c) and d are incorrect because neither adjective describes the outlook of a
pessimist.
13.(c) Law assembly of 'Great Britain' is known as 'Parliament', in the same way law assembly of 'U.S.A.' is known as 'Congress'.
14.(a) The symbol 'Logo' is related to 'Sports'. Likewise 'Emblem' is related to 'Nation'.
15.(c) 'Data Processing' is the process of using 'Raw data' to shape it in the final product. Likewise 'University’ is the place which is used to
shape the ‘Students’.
16.(c) 'Braille' is the system of reading and writing for the blind persons. Similarly, 'Sign language' is the system of reading and writing for
Deaf persons.
17.(d) ‘Window’ is made up of ‘Panes’, and ‘Book’ is made up of ‘Pages’. The answer is not (choice a) because a novel is a type of book. The
answer is not (choice b) because glass has no relationship to a book. (Choice c) is incorrect because a cover is only one part of a book; a book
is not made up of covers.
18.(c) One of outcomes of 'Match' is ‘Victory’. Likewise 'Success' is one of the outcomes of 'Examination'.
19.(a) 'Heart' is the organ which deals with the pumping and flow of 'Blood'. In the same way 'Lungs' deals with the storage and flow of
'Oxygen'.
20.(a) 'Expression' of a person is read from the 'Face'. Likewise 'Gesture' of a person is read from the position of 'Hand'.
21.(d) 'Wine' is made from 'Grapes' and ‘Vodka' is made from 'Flour'.
22.(a) 'Holes' is the term which is related to 'Golf’. In the same way 'Innings' is the term which is related to 'Baseball'.
23.(d)A group of ‘Lions’ is called a ‘Pride’. A group of ‘Fish’ swim in a shoal. Teacher (choice a) and student (choice b) refer to another
meaning of the word school. The answer is not (choice c) because self-respect has no obvious relationship to this particular meaning of
school.
24.(d)A ‘Gym’ is a place where people ‘Exercise’. A restaurant is a place where people eat. Food (choice a) is not the answer because it is
something people eat, not a place or location where they eat. The answer is not choice b or c because neither represents a place where
people eat.
25.(a)’Guide’ and ‘Direct’ are synonyms, and reduce and decrease are synonyms. The answer is not choice b or d because neither means the
same as reduce. (Choice c) is incorrect because increase is the opposite of reduce.
26.(d) 'Pathology is the branch of medical science which helps to detect symptom of 'Diseases', and Astronomy' is the study through which
we come to know about 'Planets'.
27.(d) 'Mountain' is antonym of ‘Valley’. Likewise 'Friend' is the antonym of 'Enemy’.
28.(a) The lower part of feet of 'Horse' is known as 'Hoof’. In the same way, lower part of feet of 'Eagle' is known as 'Claw'.
29.(a)'Liberty' is opposite to 'Slavery’ and 'Danger' is opposite to 'Safety’.
30.(d)'Usual' and 'Common' are the words conveying the same meaning. Similarly 'Light' and 'Glow' are synonym to each other.

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UNIT-4 : CLASSIFICATION
INTRODUCTION
Classification is the process of putting something into a category. Classification of all your clothes by color may make it easier for you to
put together an outfit, especially if you favor a monochrome look. Classification involves putting things into a class or group according to
particular characteristics so it’s easier to make sense of them, whether you’re organizing your shoes, your stock portfolio, or a group of
invertebrates. If you’re an international spy, you might know that classification also can mean a government’s system for keeping secrets. If
you have a high level of security classification, then you know really top secret stuff.
EXERCISE-I
Directions (Q. 1 -35) : In each of the following questions, five words are given, out of which four are same in one way and the fifth one is
different from others. Select the odd one.
1. (a) Curd (b)Butter (c) Oil (d)Cheese (e) Cream
2. (a) Rigveda (b) Yajurveda (c) Atharvaveda (d)Ayurveda (e) Samveda
3. (a) Hangar (b) Platform (c) Dock (d) Park (e)Bus stand
4. (a) Kanpur (b) Allahabad (c) Varanasi (d)Mathura (e)Haridwar
5. (a) Producer (b) Director (c) Investor (d) Financier (e)Entrepreneur
6. (a) Calendar (b)Year (c) Date (d)Month (e)Day
7. (a) Biscuits (b) Chocolate (c)Cake (d)Bread (e)Pastry
8. (a) Japan (b) India (c) Sri Lanka (d)New Zealand (e)Mauritius
9. (a) Cheetah (b)Lion (c) Bear (d) Tiger (e) Leopard
10. (a) Flood (b) Hurricane (c) Avalanche (d) Earthquake (e) Explosion
11. (a) House (b) Cottage (c)School (d) Palace (e)Hut
12. (a) Physics (b) Chemistry (c) Geography (d) Botany (e) Zoology
13. (a) Sun (b) Moon (c) Venus (d) Mars (e)Earth
14. (a) Microphone (b) Microscope (c)Spectacles (d) Telescope (e) Binocular
15. (a) Artery (b) Ventricle (c) Pharynx (d) Aorta (e)Auricle
16. (a) Diamond (b) Ruby (c) Emerald (d) Turquoise (e)Garnet
17. (a) Under (b) Near (c) Beside (d) Above (e)Where
18. (a) Fragrance (b) Smell (c) Aroma (d) Incense (e)A foul smell
19. (a) Guitar (b)Piano (c) Harmonium (d) Banjo (e)Accordion
20. (a) Secretary (b)Council (c) Panel (d) Cabinet (e)Committee
21. (a) Freeze (b) Simmer (c) Bake (d) Boil (e) Fry
22. (a) Mother (b) Sister (c) Brother (d) Aunt (e) Daughter-in-law
23. (a) Knave (b)King (c) Ace (d) Queen (e)Minister
24. (a) Hawk (b) Parrot (c) Falcon (d) Eagle (e) Vulture
25. (a) Rectangle (b)Rhombus (c) Square (d)Circle (e)Trapezium
26. (a) Bark (b)Cry (c) Chirp (d)Roar (e)None of these
27. (a) Aluminum (b)Copper (c) Brass (d)Magnesium (e)Brick
28. (a) Meter (b)Yard (c) Liter (d)Inch (e)Centimeter
29. (a) Sympathy (b)Sad (c) Help (d)Adoration (e)Allergy
30. (a) Unicorn (b)Rhino (c) Fox (d)Antelope (e)Jackal
31. (a) Milk (b)Orange (c) Cotton (d)Snow (e)Teeth
32. (a) Blackmail (b)Smuggling (c) Snobbery (d)Forgery (e)Sabotage
33. (a) Yen (b)Lira (c) Dollar (d)Pound (e)Ounce
34. (a) Moon (b)Table Hockey (c) Earth (d)Bangle (e)Water-melon
35. (a) Complicated (b)Tricky (c) Complex (d)Confusing (e)Contrast

EXERCISE-II
Directions : In each of the following questions four out of five alternatives contain alphabet placed in a particular form. Find the one that
does not belong to the group.
1. (a) EHG (b) JML (c) PSR (d) UYX (e) TWV 11. (a) YWU (b)NLJ (c) KIF (d) VTR (e) PNL
2. (a) KJG (b) ZYV (c) NMK (d) FEB (e) QPM 12. (a) HSRI (b) MVUN (c) OLKP (d) PJQX (e) WDCX
3. (a) LNJ (b) RTP (c) NPK (d) FHD (e) WYU 13. (a) YDWB (b) TKRI (c) QNOM (d) HLFJ (e) WFUD
4. (a) XWU (b) QPM (c)KJH (d) DCA (e) MLJ 14. (a) OUSF (b) PIGS (c) TEPJ (d) XLPA (e) ATSM
5. (a) CAE (b) KGM (c) NLP (d) YWA (e) RPT 15. (a) ABDG (b) IJLO (c) MNPS (d) RSUY (e) PQSV
6. (a) NKMJ (b) FCEB (c) URTQ (d) KHJG (e) TQRP 16. (a) abcq (b) pqrB (c) mnpC (d) xyzT (e) efgP
7. (a) GT7 (b) IR9 (c)CX3 (d) MN13 (e) JP10 17. (a) JKTS (b) GHQR (c) ABKL (d) DENO (e)PQYZ
8. (a) J30T (b) D22R (c) H26R (d) A28Z (e) B7E 18. (a) GARE (b) WEAR (c) SUQV (d) MOKP (e) VXTY
9. (a) ZYW (b) SQN (c) GEB (d) MKH (e) JHE 19. (a) AJKL (b) IXYZ (c) EPQR (d) OFGH (e) VCBA
10. (a) NOQT (b) DEHK (c) BCEH (d) RSUX (e) JKMP 20. (a) CGON (b) FJQP (c) HLTS (d) LPXW (e) PRNM

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21 (a) BCYZ (b) EFVW (c)HIUV (d) JKQR (e) ABZA 24. (a) RNJH (b) SOKG (c)QMIE (d) MIEA (e) PLHD
22. (a) ABpQ (b) npRS (c)PQrT (d) EFGh (e) LNrX 25. (a) BDYW (b) CEXZ (c)DFYW (d) EGXV (e) IKTR
23. (a) MKGA (b) PNID (c)RPLF (d) VTPJ (e) TRMS

EXERCISE-III
Directions : In the following questions, numbers given in four out of the five alternatives have some relationship. You have to choose the
one which does not belong to the group.
1. (a) 3:8 (b) 6 : 35 (c) 7 : 50 (d) 1 : 0 (e) 9 : 80
2. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 28 (c) 4 : 65 (d) 2 : 7 (e) 5 : 126
3. (a) 22 : 42 (b) 4 : 6 (c) 11 : 20 (d) 5 : 14 (e) 9 : 16
4. (a) 21 : 24 (b) 28 : 32 (c) 14 : 16 (d) 70 : 80 (e) 54 : 62
5. (a) 6 : 23 (b) 3 : 11 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 8 : 31 (e) 5 : 18
6. (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 9 (e) 25
7. (a) 125 (b) 216 (c) 27 (d) 121 (e) 1
8. (a) 3740 (b) 4635 (c) 5869 (d) 7946 (e) 2378
9. (a) 263 (b) 111 (c) 242 (d) 551 (e) 383
10. (a) 325 (b) 236 (c) 178 (d) 639 (e) 538
11. (a) 7487 (b) 5963 (c) 8218 (d) 6596 (e) 9259
12. (a) 147 : 741 (b) 253 : 352 (c) 518 : 816 (d) 303 : 303 (e) 419 : 914
13. (a) 22 : 44 (b) 39 : 981 (c) 45 : 1625 (d) 18 : 164 (e) 24 : 464
14. (a) 22 : 0 (b) 24 : 12 (c) 23 : 5 (d) 18 : 63 (e) 24 : 18
15. (a) 27 (b) 125 (c) 343 (d) 729 (e) 1321
16. (a) 2384 (b) 1592 (c) 3756 (d) 4298 ` (e) 3629
17. (a) 7359 (b) 1593 (c) 9175 (d) 3781 (e) 9317
18. (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 15 (d) 16 (e) 18
19. (a) 43 (b) 53 (c) 63 (d) 73 (e) 83
20. (a) 372164 (b) 376821 (c) 318951 (d) 319446 (e) 387315

ANSWERS AND EXPLAINATION (EXERCISE-I)

1. (c) All except Oil are products obtained from milk.
2. (d) All except Ayurveda are names of holy scriptures, the four
Vedas. Ayurveda is a branch of medicine.
3. (d) All except Park are halting places of various transport means.
4. (d) All except Mathura are cities situated on the banks of Ganga
river.
5. (b) All except Director spend money.
6. (a) All others are parts of a calendar.
7. (b) All except Chocolate are baked items.
8. (b) All except India are islands, while India is a peninsula.
9. (c) All except Bear belong to the cat family.
10. (e) All except Explosion are natural calamities.
11. (c) All except School are dwelling places.
12. (c) All except Geography are branches of Science.
13. (b) All the terms except 'Moon' are related to the Solar system.
14. (a) All the terms except 'Microphone' are related to the vision.
15. (c) Except 'Pharynx' all other terms are related to heart.
16. (a) Except 'Diamond' all the jewels contain some colour in it.
17. (e) All the terms represent the different positions except Where.
18. (e) All other terms are generally used for pleasant Smell.
19. (a) 'Guitar' is the string operated musical instrument.
20. (a) All other terms are related to the association of persons.
21. (a)All other terms are related to the cooking.
22. (c)All others are female relationship.
23. (e)All other terms are used in the playing bikeds.
24. (b) All others are the birds of prey.
25. (d) All other figures have edges.
26. (b) This is the only sound related to human being.
27. (e) All other items are metal.
28. (c) All others represent the unit to measure length.
29. (c) All other terms represents the human feelings.
30. (a)'Unicorn' is the imaginary animal.
31. (b) All other articles have the Blue colour.
32. (c) All other terms are related to the crimes.
33. (e) All other terms represent the different currency.
34. (b) All other items are three-dimensional figures.
35. (e) All other terms are used to denote the complex nature of
something

EXERCISE-II
1. (d) In all other groups there is a gap of one letter as in the
alphabet between first and third letter.
2. (c) In all other groups there is a gap of two letters as in the
alphabet between second and third letter.
3. (c) In all other groups there is a gap of one letter as in the
alphabet between first and third letter.
4. (b) In all other groups there is a gap of one letter as in the
alphabet between second and third letter
5. (b) In all other groups there is a gap of one letter as in the
alphabet between first and second letter
6. (e) In all other groups there is a gap of two letters as in the
alphabet between third and fourth letter
7. (e) In all other groups first and second letters occupy the same
number of position from beginning and end respectively in the
alphabet as mentioned at the third place of each group.
8. (d) In all other groups number in between is the sum of positions
of first and second letters in the alphabets.
9. (a) In all other groups there is a gap of two letters as in the
alphabets between second and third letter.

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10. (b) In all other groups of words there is a gap of one letter as in
the alphabet between second and third letter.
11. (c) In all other groups of words there is a gap of one letter as in
the alphabet between second and third letter.
12. (d) In all other groups, first and fourth letters are consecutive,
while second and third letters are in reverse alphabetical order.
13. (c) In all other groups, first and second letters-are moved two
steps backward to obtain third and fourth letters respectively.
14. (a) This is the only group containing two vowels.
15. (d) In all other groups, the first, second and third letters are
respectively moved one, two and three steps forward to give the
second, third and fourth letters respectively.
16. (a) Each of the other groups contains a capital letter.
17. (a) In all other groups, the first and second as well as the third
and fourth letters are consecutive and the third letter is nine steps
ahead of the second.
18. (b) In all other groups, the second and fourth letters are
consecutive and there is a gap of one letter between third and first.
EXERCISE-III
1. (c) In other numbers second number is one less than the square
of first number. (3)2 -1 = 8, (6)2 - 1 = 35… and so on.
2. (d) Second number is one more than the cube of first number.
3. (d) First number is one more than the half of second number.
4. (e) The ratio among the numbers is 7 : 8.
5. (e) Second number is one less than the four times the first
number.
6. (b) All other numbers are square of natural numbers.
7. (d) All other numbers are cubes of natural numbers.
8. (a) In all other numbers, the sum of the first and the last digits is
equal to the sum of other two digits.
9. (e) In all other numbers, the middle digit is equal to the product of
other two digits.
19. (e) In all other groups, the first letter is a vowel followed by
three consecutive letters.
20. (e) In all other groups, the first and second, have 4 letter
between them and fourth and third letters are in alphabetical order.
21. (c) In all other groups, first and second as well as third and
fourth letters are consecutive and the third letter occupies the same
position from Z backward as the first occupies from A onward.
22. (b) Each of the other groups contains one small letter.
23. (b) In all other groups, the first, second word have only one
letter between them and third, fourth letters have six letters
between them.
24. (a) In all other groups, there is a gap of three letters between
two consecutive letters.
25. (b) In all other groups, the first and second letters are alternate;
the third and fourth letters are alternate and written in a reverse
alphabetical order.
10. (b) In all other numbers, the last digit is the sum of the first two.
11. (b) In all other numbers, the first and the last digits are the same.
12. (c) Second number is the reverse of the first number.
13. (e) Each digit of second number is the square of the respective
digit of first number.
14. (e) Second number is the difference of the square of digits of
first number.
15. (e) All other numbers are cubes of odd numbers.
16. (e) In all other numbers, the last digit is two times the first.
17. (d) All other numbers consist of odd digits only.
18. (b) 11 is the only prime number in the group.
19. (c) All other numbers are prime number.
20. (a) Sum of digits in each other number is 27.
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UNIT-5 : CODING DECODING
INTRODUCTION
Coding means rule or method used to hide the actual meaning of a word or group of words and decoding means the method of making out
the actual message that is disguised in coding.
In question, a word (basic word) is coded in a particular way and candidates are asked to code other words in the same way. Questions of
coding-decoding are designed to test candidate's ability to understand the rule used for the coding and then translate it quickly to find out
the coding for the given word.
Pattern Based Coding and Decoding
 Observe alphabets or numbers given in the code keenly.
 Find the sequence it follows whether it is ascending or descending.
 Detect the rule in which the alphabets/numbers/words follow.
 Fill the appropriate letter/number/word in the blank given.
As a matter of fact, there exists no uniform and particular type or category of these questions according to which we could classify
questions of coding-decoding. However, keeping in view the candidate's convenience we have classified different types of questions with
illustrations and explanations under different heads.

Type 1 (Letter Reshuffle) : In this type, letters of word are reshuffled to make it a coded word. On the same pattern you have to find coded
word of a given word.
Example 1. In a certain code, CENTRAL is written as LARTNEC. How is SEMINAR written in that code?
(a) NARIMES (b) MESIRAN (c) RANIMES (d) NARISEM (e) None of these
Solution: Here the order of letter of the word CENTRAL have been reversed to provide coded word LARTNEC. Similarly, you can get coded
word for SEMINAR by reversing the order of letters. Hence, the answer is RANIMES.
Example 2. In a code language, if TRAINS is coded as RTIASN, how PISTOL will be coded in the same language?
(a) SITLOP (b) IPSTLO (c) SIPTLO (d) IPTSLO (e) None of these
Solution: In this questions, letters of the basic word have been'. Interchanged i. e., first letter with second, third with fourth and so on. And
thus we get the coded word. In this code language word, PISTOL will be coded as IPTSLO. Hence, option (d) is our answer.

Type 2 (Letter Coding): In this category of questions, letters of a word are substituted for either a new letter or numeric. And-the same
substitution helps to find out the coding of the word in questions. This substitution of letters may be either direct or in a jumbled up
fashion.
Example 3. In a code language, if SUGAR is coded as PKLTN and TEA is coded as QGT, how would you code GREAT in the same code
language?
(a) ENGTP (b) LNGTK (c) LNGTQ (d) LNGQT (e) None of these
Solution: Basic Word Coded Word Basic Word Coded Word
SUGAR PK L TN TEA QGT

In the above example there is a direct substitution of letter i.e., code of S is P, for U it is K, for G it is L and so on. Hence, word GREAT will be
coded as LNGTQ. Hence, correct option is (c).
Example 4. ‘ZYXW’ as coded as ‘ABCD’ then ‘STUV’ is coded as...........
(a) HGFE (b) HGFC (c) GHFC (d) GHFE (e) None of these
Solution: In the above example there is a direct substitution of letter i.e., code of Z – A, Y– B, X – C, W – D V – E, U – F, T – G, S – H
STUV = HGFE Hence, correct option is (a).
Example 5.‘ Hyderabad ’ is coded as ‘Ixedszcze’ then ‘Chennai’ is coded as..............
(a) dgfmoyi (b) dgfmozj (c) dgfmpzj (d) dgfmpyj (e) None of these
Solution : H – I (+1),Y – X (1–),D – E (1+),E – D (1-),R – S (1+),A – Z (1–),B – C (1+),A – Z (1– ),D – E (1+)
Here if we observe alternatively the letter increasing and one letter decreasing. so Chennai = dgfmozj Hence, correct option is (b).

Type 3 (Numerical Coding): Number coding: In this each alphabets or words are assigned to the numeric values we should observe the
given letters and the assigned values and use the same rule to find the value to of given code. Some examples are given below:
(a) Position Numbers of Letters Remain the Same
Example 6. PUSH is coded as 1234, ROUGH is coded as 65274. Then SOUP is coded as.....
(a) 5213 (b) 3521. (c) 2531 (d) 5521 (e) None of these
Solution: Positions of letters PUSH in alphabetical order are P = 1, U = 2, S = 3, H = 4. In the same way, R = 6, O = 5, U = 2, G = 7, H= 4.
Hence, SOUP will be coded as 3521 Hence, our answer is (b).

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Example 7.If in a certain language if ENTRY is coded as 12345 and STEADY is coded as 931785, then state which is the correct code for
below word. ARREST
(a) 744589 (b) 744193 (c) 166479 (d) 745194 (e) None of these
Solution: Positions of letters ENTRY in alphabetical order are E = 1, N = 2, T=3, R=4, Y=5. In the same way, S= 9, T = 3, E=1, A=7, D=8, Y=5.
Hence, ARREST will be coded as 744193. Hence, our answer is (b).
(b) Position Number of Letters are Added
Example 8. If DEED is coded as 18, then code for NEED is
(a) 27 (b) 28 (c) 24 (d) 21 (e) None of these
Solution: DEED = 4 +5 + 5 + 4 = 18 , NEED = 14+ 5+5+4 = 28, Hence, option (b) is our answer.
Example 9. GIVEN is coded as 57, then how would you code NORTH?
(a) 65 (b) 79 (c) 74 (d) 75 (e) None of these
Solution: GIVEN = 7 + 9 +22+ 5 +14 = 57 NORTH = 14 + 15 + 18 + 20 + 8 = 75 Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
(c) Position Numbers are Added but at the Same Time a Certain Number is Subtracted
Example 10. DEED is coded as 14, then code for NEED is
(a) 21 (b) 26 (c) 24 (d) 19 (e) None of these
Solution: DEED = 4+5 + 5 + 4 = 18-4 = 14 NEED = 14 +5+5+4 = 28- 4=24
(d) Sometimes the sum of the position number of letters in a word is divided by a certain number or by the sum of the letters
Example 11. DEED is coded as 9, then NEED will be coded as
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 13 (e) None of these
Solution: DEED = 4+5+5+4 = 18/2 = 9
Similarly, NEED = 14+5+5+4 = 28/2 = 14, Hence, the correct option is (c).

Type 4 (Code Languages)

Example . In this type of questions, a few complete messages are given in a coded language and friiends are requiBlue to find the code for a
particular word.
If tee see pee means drink fruit juice, see kee lee means juice is sweet, and lee ree mee means he is intelligent, which word in that
language means sweet?
(a) see (b) kee (c) lee (d) pee (e) tee
Solution: In the first and the second statements the common word is juice and the common code word is see. So see means juice. In the
second and the third statements, the common word is ‘is’ and the common code is lee. So lee means is. Thus in the second statement, the
remaining word sweet is coded as kee. Hence the answer is (2).

EXERCISE-I
Directions (Q. 1 -20) : In each of the following questions below, 7. In a certain code ‘TOME’ is written as ' @ $ * ? ' and ARE is
find out the correct answer from the given alternatives. written as ‘ • £ ? ’ How can ‘REMOTE’ be written in that code?
1. In a certain code, INSTITUTION is written as NOITUTITSNI. (a) £ ? • $ @ ? (b) @ ? * $ @ ? (c) £ ? * $ @ ?
How is PERFECTION written in that code? (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
(a) NOICTEFREP (b) NOITCEFERP 8. According to a military code, SYSTEM is SYSMET and NEARER
(c) NOITCEFRPE (d) NOITCEFREP (e) NOITCEFPER is AENRER. What is the code for FRACTION?
2. In a certain code, GIGANTIC is written as GIGTANCI. How is (a) CARFTINO (b) CARFTION
MIRACLES written in that code? (c) ARFCNOIT (d) CARFNOIT (e)None of these
(a) MIRLCAES (b) MIRLACSE (c) RIMCALSE 9. In a certain code, SOCIAL is written as TQFMFR, then how you
(d) RIMLCAES (e) RIMSCASE will code DIMPLE?
3. In a certain code, GOODNESS is coded as HNPCODTR. How is (a) EKPTQK (b) EKPQPJ (c) EKPSPJ
GREATNESS coded in that code? (d) EKPSOH (e) None of these
(a) HQFZUODTR (b) HQFZUMFRT 10. If CARPET is coded as TCEAPR, then the code for NATIONAL
(c) HQFZSMFRT (d) FSDBSODTR would be?
(e) HQFZUFRTM (a) NLATNOIA (b) LANOITAN
4. If ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE is written as (c) LNAANTOI (d) LNOINTAA (e) None of these
785291, how is GREECE coded? 11. In a certain code, MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is
(a) 381171 (b) 381191 (c) 832252 TIGER written in that code?
(d) 835545 (e) None of these (a) QDFHS (b) SDFHS (c) SHFDQ
5. In as a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is (d) UJHFS (e) None of these
written ALUR. How is 23549 written in that code? 12. If FESTIVAL is coded as MBWJUTFG, then OPIUM would be
(a)ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT coded as:
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these (a) NOHTL (b) NTHNO (c) NVJQP
6. If in a certain language FASHION is coded as FOIHSAN, how (d) MUIPO (e) None of these
can PROBLEM be coded in that code? 13. In a code language, if POSE is coded as OQNPRTDF, then
(a) ROBLEMP (b) PLEBRUM TYPE will be coded as:
(c) PRBOELM (d) RPBOELM (e) PELBORM (a) SUXZOQFD (b) SUXZQOFD

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(c) SUXZOQDF (d) SUXZQODE (e) None of these (a) DPNQVUFS (b) DPNQTSFQ
14. In a certain code language STUDENT is written as TUTDNES. (c) DPNQTSDQ (d) BNLOTSDQ (e) None of these
How will SOURCES be written in that code language? 18. If AMERICA is coded as RAIMCEA, BRITAIN is coded as
(a) SOURCES (b) SUORECS TBARIIN, INDIA will be coded as:
(c) SRUOCES (d) SOURSEC (e) None of these (a) DINIA (b) DIINA (c) DINAI
15. In a certain code PERINATH is written as QFQHOBSG and (d) IIDNA (e) None of these
POLE as QPKD, how will SYNDROME be written in that code? 19. If POLITICS is coded as OPILITSC, how will ARTICLES be coded
(a) RXOEQNNF (b) TZOEQNLD in that language?
(c) TZMCSPKD (d)TZMCSPLD (e) None of these (a) RAITLCES (b) RAITLCSE
16. In a certain code language TEARS is written as UGDVX, then (c) ARITLCSE (d) RAITLECS (e) None of these
SMILE would be written as: 20. If FLARE is coded as 21, 15, 26,9,22, how would BREIF be
(a) TOLPJ (b) TOLNG (c) TOJPJ coded in the same language?
(d) TOKNH (e) None of these (a) 25,9,22,21,18 (b) 5,37,11,19,13
17. If OLYMPICS is coded as PMZNOHBR, and JUMP is coded as (c) 13,19,11,37,5 (d) 25,9,22,18,21
KVLO, COMPUTER will be coded as: (e) None of these

# EXERCISE-2 #
Directions (Q. 1 -17) : In each of the following questions, find the 10. If train is called bus, bus is called tractor, tractor is called car, car
correct answer from the given alternatives. is called scooter, scooter is called bicycle, bicycle is called moped,
1. If 'tee see pee' means 'Drink fruit juice', 'see kee lee' means 'Juice which is used to plough a field ?
is sweet' and 'lee ree mee' means 'He is intelligent', which word in (a) Train (b) Bus (c) Car (d) None of these
that language means 'sweet' ? 11. In a certain code language,
(a) see (b) kee (c) lee (d) pee (a) ‘pic vic nic’ means ‘winter is cold’
2. In a certain language, 'pre not bis' means 'smoking is harmful', (b) ‘to nic re’ means ‘summer is hot’
vog dor not’ means 'avoid harmful habit', and 'dor bis yel' means (c) ‘re pic boo’ means 'winter and summer’
'please avoid smoking', which of the following means 'habit' in that (d) ‘vic tho pa’ means ‘nights are cold’
language? Which word in that language means 'summer' ?
(a) vog (b) not (c) dor (d) None of these (a)nic (b) re (c) to (d) pic
3. If in a certain code language, '324' means 'Light is bright', '629' 12. In a certain code language,
means 'Girl is beautiful' and '4758' means 'I prefer bright clothes', (a) ‘pic vic nic’ means ‘winter is cold’
which digit means 'Light' in that language ? (b) ‘to nic re’ means ‘summer is hot’
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7 (c) ‘re pic boo’ means 'winter and summer’
4.'baw haw daw kaw' means 'Poachers killed some tigers', Vaw gaw (d) ‘vic tho pa’ means ‘nights are cold’
jaw haw' means 'Tigers are brave creatures', 'kaw taw maw vaw' Which of the given statements is superfluous?
means 'some watchman were brave' and 'maw jaw naw baw' means (a) Only A (b) Only D (c) Both A and D (d) None
'watchman are searching poachers'. Then, what does 'kaw baw' 13. If 'Men are very busy" means 1234', 'Busy persons need
means ? encouragement' means '4567', 'Encouragement is very
(a) some watchmen (b) brave tigers important' means '3589' and 'Important persons are rare' means
(c) brave creatures (d) some poachers '2680', what is the code for 'encouragement' ?
5. Using the above coding procedure, 'creatures killed (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) None of these
watchman' would be coded as 14. According to the above code, 'Men need encouragement' would
(a) maw gaw daw (b) maw vaw naw be
(c) gaw kaw daw (d) gaw naw kaw (a) 167 (b) 258 (c) 157 (d) None of these
6. If orange is called butter, butter is called soap, soap is called ink, 15. In a certain code, '467' means 'leaves are green' ; '485' means
ink is called honey and honey is called orange, which of the 'green is good' and '639' means 'they are playing'. Which digit stands
following is used for washing clothes ? for 'leaves' in that code ?
(a) Honey (b) Butter (c) Orange (d) Ink (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) None of these
7. If the animals which can walk are called swimmers, animals who 16. In a certain code, '289' means 'read from paper'; '276' means
crawl are called flying, those living in water are called snakes and 'tea from field' and '85' means 'wall paper'. Which of the following is
those which fly in the sky are called hunters, then what will a lizard the code for 'tea' ?
be called ? (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) Either 2 or 6 (d) Either 7 or 6
(a) Swimmers (b) Snakes (c) Flying (d) None of these 17. In a certain code, '289' means 'read from paper'; '276' means
8. If sky is called sea, sea is called water, water is called air, air is 'tea from field' and '85' means 'wall paper'. Which of the following is
called cloud and cloud is called river, then what do we drink when the code for 'paper' ?
thirsty ? (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) Can`t be determined (d) None of these
(a) Sky (b) Air (c) Water (d) Sea
9. If man is called girl, girl is called woman, woman is called boy, boy Directions (Q. 18-20) : Study the following information to answer
is called butler and butler is called rogue, who will serve in a the given questions :In a certain code, "il be pee' means 'roses are
restaurant? blue', 'sik hee' means 'Blue flowers' and 'pee nut hee' means
(a) Butler (b) Girl (c) Man (d) Rogue 'flowers are vegetables'.

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18. How is 'blue' written in that code?
(a) hee (b) sik (c) Cannot be determined (d) None
19. How is 'roses' written in that code?
(a) il (b) pee (c) Cannot be determined (d) None
ANSWERS AND EXPLAINATION (EXERCISE)
1. (d) Letters of the word INSTITUTION have been just reversed
in the coded word. Hence, PERFECTION will be coded as
NOITCEFREP So, option (d) is the correct answer.
2. (b) First three letters of the word are kept as it is, sixth letter
comes at fourth place shifting fourth and fifth letters to fifth and
sixth places respectively, and last two letters are exchanged.
3. (b) Letters at odd places in the coded word are one letter
ahead of the letters in the basic word, and letters at even places
are one letter behind of the letters in the basic word as their
positions in the alphabet.
4. (a) From the coding pattern, it is clear that code for G is 3, for
R is 8, for E is 1, for C is 7 So, word GREECE will be coded as
381171.
5. (c) From the coding pattern, it is clear that code for 2 is A, for
3 is L, for 5 is G, for 4 is U and for 9 is T So, 23549 will be coded
as ALGUT.
6. (e) The first and the last letters of the word remain as such
and the remaining letters are written in a reverse order, to
obtain the code.
7. (c) From the coding pattern, it is clear that code for R is £, for E
is ?, for M is *, for O is $ and for T is @ So, word REMOTE will be
coded as £?*$@?.
8. (d) The letter is the first half and the letter half of the word are
separately reversed to obtain the code.
9. (a) Letters for the basic word have been in forward direction in
the coded word with a gap of 0,1,2,3,4, and 5 letters as their
# EXERCISE-2 #
1. (b) In the first and second statements, the common word is 'Juice'
and the common code word is 'see'. So 'see' means 'Juice'.
In the second and third statements, the common word is 'is' and the
common code is 'lee'. So, 'lee' means 'is'. Thus, in the second
statement, the remaining word 'sweet' is coded as 'kee'. Hence the
answer is (b).
2. (a) It is clear that 'dor' stands for 'avoid', 'not' stands for 'harmful'
comparing the common words from each coding. Hence, ‘Vog' will
stand for habit.
3. (a) In the first and second statements, the common word is 'is'
and the common code digit is '2'. So, '2' means 'is'.In the first and
third statements, the common word is 'bright' and the common
code digit is '4'.So, ''4' means 'bright'. Thus, in the first statement, '3'
means 'Light'. Hence the answer is (a).
4. (d) In the first and third sentence common word is 'kaw', and
common code is 'some', hence 'kaw' stands for 'some'. In the first
and fourth sentence, common word is 'baw' and the common code
is 'poachers'. Therefore, 'kaw baw' means 'some poachers'.
5. (a) Using the above procedure we see that 'maw gaw daw' means
creatures killed watchman.
6. (e) Clearly, 'soap' is used for washing the clothes. But, 'soap' is
called 'ink'. So, 'ink' is used for washing the clothes.
7. (c) Clearly, a lizard crawls and the animals that crawl are called
'flying'. So, 'lizard' is called 'flying'.
20. How is vegetables are blue flowers' written in that code?
(a) sik pee hee be (b) il sik nut hee
(c) pee sik nut hee (d) None of these
position in the alphabet. Therefore, the word DIMPLE will be
coded as EKPTQK.
10. (c) Letters of the word are written in the coded word in such
a way that last and first letters, second last and second letters,
third last and third letters and so on are written together in the
coded word.
11. (a) The letter of the word are written in a reverse order and
then each letter is moved one step backward to obtain the code.
12. (c) Word has been coded in such a way that last letter in the
coded word is the next letter of the first letter of the basic word,
second letter is next that of the second letter of the basic word
and so on. Hence, OPIUM will be coded as NVJQP
13. (c) Word has been coded in such a way that codes for letter P
are O Q (One letter behind and one letter ahead of P in
alphabet). Similarly, codes for O are NP and so on.
14. (b) The first and the last letters of the word have
interchanged their position. Similarly, the second and the third
letters and the fifth and sixth letters have interchanged their
position.
15. (d) Word is divided into groups of two letters each and then
letters of each group move one place forward and one place
backward alternatively as in English alphabet. Hence, PERINATH
=> PE RI NA TH =>QFQHOBSG and POLE => PO LE => QPKD
similarly, SYNDROME => SY ND RO ME => TZMCSPLD
16. (a)Movement of letters is +1, +2, +3, +4, +5 Therefore, SMILE
= TOLPJ
17. (c)COMPUTER= DPNQTSDQ 18. (b)INDIA=DIINA
19. (b) ARTICLES=RAITLCSE 20. (d)BREIF=25, 9, 22, 18, 21
8. (b) One drinks 'water' when thirsty and as given, 'water' is called
'air'.
9. (e) A 'butler' serves in a restaurant but 'butler' is called 'rogue'. So
a 'rouge' will serve in the restaurant.
10. (d) A 'tractor' is used to plough a field. But a 'tractor' is called
'car'. So, a 'car' will be used to plough the field.
11. (b) In statements B and C, the common code word is 're' and the
common word is 'summer'. So, 're' means 'summer'.
12. (c) Clearly both statements A and D are superfluous.
13. (a) In the second and third sentences, common word is
encouragement and common number is '5'. Hence, number 5
stands for encouragement.
14. (d) In the first and fourth sentences, common word is 'are' and
common number is 2, hence 'are' stands for '2'. From the first and
third sentences, Very stands for '3'. From first and second
sentences, 'busy’ stands for '4'. Hence, we get from statement first
that 'Men' stands for '1'. Similarly, 'need' stands for ‘7'. From this we
conclude that 'Men need encouragement' will be coded as '157'.
15. (c) In the first and second statements, the common code digit is
'4' and the common word is 'green'. So, '4' means 'green'. In the first
and third statements, the common digit is '6' and the common word
is 'are'. So, '6' means 'are'. Thus, in the first statements, '7' means
'leaves'.
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16. (e) In the first and second statements, the common digit is '2'
and the common word is 'from'. So, '2' is the code for 'from'. In the
first and third statements, the common code digit is '8' and the
common word is 'paper'. So, '8' is the code for 'paper'. Clearly, in the
second statements, either '7' or '6' may be the code for 'tea'.
17. (b) In the first and second statements, the common digit is '2'
and the common word is 'from'. So, '2' is the code for 'from'. In the
first and third statements, the common code digit is '8' and the
common word is 'paper'. So, '8' is the code for 'paper'. As shown
above, '8' is the code for 'paper'.
18. (b) From the second and third sentences, it is clear that 'hee'
stands for 'flowers'. Hence, from second sentence 'Blue' stands for
'sik'.
19. (d) Code for 'roses' cannot be determined because any one of
the words (roses or blue) is not common in any pair of the
sentences.
20. (c) We know that 'Blue' stands for 'sik'. If we add this word and
its code in the third sentence, then we get that Vegetables are Blue
flowers' means 'pee sik nut hee'.
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UNIT-6 : ALPHABET & NUMBER RANKING
INTRODUCTION
Type 1:Example 1. Which letter will be 9th to the right of the 18th letter from right side of the English alphabet ?
Solution: | ← 18th — From right hand side →∣
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
∣ →9th────∣
From left
18th letter from the right hand side is I and 9th letter from the right of I is R. Hence required letter is R.
Example 2. Which letter should be 4th to the left of 12th letter from the right if the second half of the English alphabet is reversed ?
Solution: ABCDEFGHIJKLMZYXWVUTSRQPON
|←4th |←12th from right
In the above order, 12th letter from the right is Y and 4th to the left of Y is K. Hence required alphabet is K.
Type 2: In this type of questions, letters are not arranged in an alphabetical order. In the series certain symbols/notations and number are
mixed.
Type 3: Arrangement of words in alphabetical order
Example 3. Arrange the given words Alphabetical Order.
A. Heredity B. Hesitate C. Heavy D. Hedge E. Herald
Solution: The correct alphabetical order of the given words is shown below :
Heavy, Hedge, Herald, Heredity, Hesitate
Type 4:In this type of questions, you are required to understand the position of letters in a given word in comparison to their relative
positions in the alphabet.
Example 4. How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'CLANGOUR' which have as many letters between them in the word as in the
alphabet?
Solution:

There are five such pairs A (B) C, L (M) N, N (OPQ) R, C (DEF) G, L (MNOPQ) R
Type 5:In this type of questions you are required to pick out letters from the given word and then to make a meaningful word from them.
Example 5. If with the third, fourth, fifth, seventh and tenth letters of the word 'PERSONALITY', a meaningful word is formed, then first
letter of the word is the answer. If no word is possible then X is the answer.
(a)O (b) T (c)R (d)S (e)X
Solutions: The third, fourth, fifth, seventh and tenth letters of the word PERSONALITY are R, S, O, A and T respectively. The word formed is
ROAST. So, the first letter is R.
Example 6. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fifth and the eighth letters of the word 'CARETAKER', which of
the following will be the first letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give X as the answer. If more than one such word can be
made, give M as the answer.
(a)A (b) E (c) T (d)X (e)M
Solutions: The second, fifth and eighth letters of the word CARETAKER are A, T and E respectively. The words formed are EAT, ATF and TEA.
So the answer is option(e) M.
Type 6 :In this type of questions. You are required to complete a sequence or to find out the odd man from the given sets. All these
exercises are to be done in the context of a given series.
Example 7. 3KG5PD79ERJ1MT6ZHQ8WZA
Four out of the five given below have same position in the light of the above series. Which is the group that cannot be included with other
four groups ?
(a)3GD (b)1R7 (c)M6Q (d)6HW (e)P7R
Solution:

Except 1 R 7 all other groups follow the forward direction in the above given series.
Example 8. In the above series, which letter/ number will come in place of question mark (?) in the following sequence ?
3GP. DOR, JM6?

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Hence, ZQW will come in place of (?).
Type 7: Number Ranking In this type of questions you are required to answer questions on number ranking
Example 9. Raman ranks sixteenth from the top and forty ninth from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?
(a) 64 (b)65 (c) 66 (d)Cannot be determined (e)None of these
Solutions: Clearly, number of students in the class = (15 + 1 + 48) = 64

EXERCISE
1.If the second half of the following alphabets is arranged in the 9. Which of the following letters is in the seventh position to the
reverse order, which letter will be ninth letter to the right of the right of the eighteenth position from the right end?
ninth letter counting from the left end? (a) I (b) K (c) J (d) M (e) None of these
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ 10. Vijay is ranked 14th in a class of 43. What is his rank from the
(a) I (b)F (c) V (d) W (e) None of these bottom?
2. If the first half of the alphabet is written in the reverse order, (a) 30th (b) 28th (c) 29th (d) 31st (e) None of these
which letter will be exactly midway between the ninth letter from 11. Ram ranks 5th in a class of 53. What is his rank from the bottom
the left and the tenth letter from the right end? in the class?
(a) B (b) A (c) N (d) D (e) None of these (a) 49th (b) 48th (c) 47th (d) 50th (e) None of these
3. The following question is based on the following alphabet series. 12. If Atul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ fourth from the left, how many boys should be added to the line
Which letter will be the sixth to the right of the eleventh letter from such that there are 28 boys in the line?
the right end of the alphabet? (a)12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 20 (e) None of these
(a) K (b)V (c) J (d)U (e)None of these 13. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting fourteenth from the
4. How many 9's are there in the following number series which are left and Q is seventh from the right. If there are four boys between P
immediately preceded by 3 and followed by 6? and Q, how many boys are there in the row?
39693939396363956956939639 (a)25 (b)23 (c) 21 (d) 19 (e) None of these
(a) Nil (b) 3 (c) 2 (d)4 (e) None of these 14. Standing on a platform, Amit told Sunita that Aligarh was more
5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word With the first, the fifth, than ten kilometers but less than fifteen kilometers from there.
the sixth and the eleventh letters of the word 'COURAGEOUSLY', Sunita knew that it was more than twelve but less then fourteen
which of the following will be third letter of that word ? If no such kilometers from there. If both of them were correct, which of the
word can be made, give 'X" as the answer and if more than one such following could be the distance of Aligarh from the platform?
word can be made, give 'M' as the answer. (a) 11 km (b) 12 km (c) 13 km (d) 14 km (e)15km
(a) O (b) A (c)G (d) X (e)H 15. Ajay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier than usual. It
6. If 1st & 7th, 2nd & 8th, 3rd & 9th letters are interchanged in the takes 10 minutes to reach the stop. He reached the stop at 8.40 a.m.
word TRANSLATION. What will be the fifth letter to the right of 9th What time does he usually leave home for the bus stop?
letter from the right? (a) 8.30 a.m. (b) 8.45 p.m. (c) 8.55 a.m
(a) T (b) L (c) R (d)S (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
7.If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the first, the 16. How many 6's in the series are preceded by 5 but not followed
fourth, the seventh and the eleventh letters of the word by 9 ? 568676565685965696865568659569568
'INTERPRETATION', which of the following will be the third letter of (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 5 (e) None of these
that word ? If more than one such word can be made, give 'M' as the 17. Which letter will be tenth to the left of the fifteenth letter from
answer and if no such word can be formed, give 'X' as the answer. the left end of the following sequence?
(a) T (b) I (c)R (d)X (e)M ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(a) E (b) F (c) G (d) H (e) None of these
Directions (Q.8-12): Answer the following questions based on the 18. In the following series, count each N which is immediately
letter number sequence given below: followed by X but X is not immediately followed by T. How many
B3KG5PD79ERJIMT6ZHQ3W2A such N's are there ?
8. Which of the following letters is exactly in the middle between N X N T Q M N X T M X N X C N Q M N N X Q N X T X N
the ninth letter/number from the left end and seventh letter / A M X N X M
number from the right end ? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 9
(a) I (b) R (c) M (d) J (e) None of these

ANSWERS AND EXPLAINATION (EXERCISE)

1. (c) ABCDEFGHIJKLMZYXWVUTSRQPON The ninth from the left is I
and ninth letter to the right of I is the V.
2. (b) MLKJIHGFEDCBANOPQRSTUVWXYZ The ninth letter from the
left is E and 10th letter from the right is Q and therefore we see that
A lies exactly midway between E and Q.
3(b) Counting from the right in the given alphabet series i.e.Z, the
eleventh letter is P.The sixth letter to the right of P is V.
4. (b) 3 9 6 9 3 9 3 9 3 9 6 3 6 3 9 5 6 9 5 6 9 3 9 6 3 9
All the 9 which are immediately preceded by 3 and followed by 6
have been marked bold and italic.

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5. (d) From the letters C, A, G, L being the first, fifth, sixth and
eleventh letters of the word, no meaningful word can be formed.
6. (c) TRANSLATION ATINSLTRAON
(9 - 5) = 4th letter from your RIGHT is R.
7.(e) Two meaningful words RITE and TIRE can be formed.
8. (a) Letter I is exactly midway between 9 (9th from the left)^ and Z
(seventh from the right).
9. (a) Eighteenth letter from the right is P and seventh letter to the
right of it is I.
10. (a) Vijay's rank from the bottom is (43 - 14) +1 = 30th.
11. (a) Ram's rank from bottom will be (53 - 5) + 1 = 49 th.
12. (b) Clearly, number of boys in the line = (11 + 1 + 3) = 15. .'.
Number of boys to be added = 28 - 15 = 13.
13. (a) Number of boys in the row = number of boys uptil P +
number of boys between P and Q + number of boys including Q and
those behind Q = 14 + 4 + 7 = 25.
14.(c) Clearly, according to Sunita, the distance was more than 12
kms but less than 14 kms, which is 13kms.
15.(e)Clearly, Ajay left home 10 minutes before 8.40 a.m. i.e., at
8.30 a.m. But it was 15 minutes earlier than usual. So, he usually left
for the stop at 8.45 a.m..
16.(d) There are five 6 which are preceded by 5 but not followed by
9.
17(a) Fifteenth letter from the left end is O and tenth to the left of is
E
18. (b) N X N T Q M N X T M X N X C N Q M
N N X Q N X T X N A M X N X M
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 UNIT-7 : VENN-DIAGRAM
INTRODUCTION
The term Venn-Diagram in test of Reasoning relates to the different figures drawn to represent relationship between two or more objects.
Generally, the figures used for such representation are circular but sometimes square, triangle and rectangle are used in place of circle.
These questions are meant to test analytical ability of a candidate to represent and classify a given group of objects diagrammatically.
Though, concept of venn-diagram originates from set theory (a branch of Mathematics), yet we do not require mathematical skill to solve
these questions. However, a basic concept of set, subset, disjoint set can help to understand the concept of venn-diagram easily. To
understand these terms, we are giving following points with examples. Candidates are required to go through these points before switching
over to exercises given subsequently in this chapter.
(1) An object is called a subset of another object, if former is a part of latter and such relation is shown by two concentric circles.
Stationery Vegetable Furniture
(i) Pencil, Stationery Stationery
(ii) Brinjal, Vegetable Vegetable
(iii) Chair, Furniture Furniture

Pencil
Bringal
Chair

It is very clear from the above relationship that one object is a part of other, and hence all such relationships can be represented by figure.

Surgeon Males
Politician Indian
Educated Unemployed

(2) An object is said to have an intersection with another object, when two objects share some-thing in common.
(i) Surgeon, Males (ii) Politicians, Indian (iii) Educated, Unemployed
All the three relationships given above have something in common as some surgeons can be male and some female, some politicians may
be Indian and some may belong to other countries, educated may be employed and unemployed as well. And all the three relationships can
be represented by figure.
(3) Two objects are said to be disjoint when neither one is subset of another nor they share anything in common. In other words, totally
unrelated objects fall under this type of relationship.
(i) Furniture, Car (ii) Copy, Cloth (iii) Tool, Shirt
It is clear from the above relationship that both the objects are unrelated to each other, and hence can be represented diagramatically as
shown in figure.

Furniture Car
Copy Cloth
Tool Shirt

From the above discussion, we observe that representation of relationship of two objects is not typical if students follow the above points.
But representation of three objects diagrammatically pose slight problem before the students. A variety of such relationship is being
discussed in the following examples.
Type 1
Example 1-4 Directions (Q.1 -4): Each of these questions given below contains three group of things. You are to choose from the following
five numbered diagrams, a diagram that depicts the correct relationship among the three groups of things in each question.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

1. Moon, Earth, Universe 2. India, Pakistan, Asia 3. Batsman, Cricket, Stick 4. Book, Pen, Pencil
Solution
1. Moon and Earth, are the parts of Universe and therefore are subsets of universe and hence this relationship is represented by diagram
(a).
2. India and Pakistan, are the subsets of Asia. Hence, option (a) represents this relationship.

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3. Batsman, is a subset of Cricket and Stick is something unrelated to Cricket, therefore, our answer is (e).
4. Book, Pen, Pencil are neither subset of one another nor have anything in common. Therefore, our answer is (d).
Example 5. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among Tennis fans, Cricket players and Students.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Solution: From the relationship given in the question, we observe that each of the objects carries something in common to one another. A
Tennis fan can be a Cricket player as well as student. Hence, diagram (a) represents this relationship. So, our answer is (a).
Example 6. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among Smokers, Bidi smokers, Cancer patients.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Solution: Bidi smokers is a subset of Smokers and Cancer patient may be a smoker, bidi smoker and non-smoker. Hence, third object shares
a common relationship with first and second object as well. Hence, diagram (b) is our answer.
Type 2:In this type of questions, geometrical figures are given that represent different classes. These different classes share some common
relationship. Students are then asked questions based on such relationship. Following example will help students to know the pattern of
such questions.
Example 1-3
Directions (Q. 1 -3) : Study the figures given below. It shows that how many men and women in a certain area are educated and employed.
Each part of the figure is numbered. Your task is to answer the questions that are given at the end.

1. Which number depicts educated unemployed men ?

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 3 (e) None of these
2. What does number 5 depict ?
(a) Educated unemployed women (b) Uneducated unemployed women
(c) Uneducated employed women (d) Educated employed women
3. Uneducated employed men are depicted by number
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 (e) none of these
Solution
1. From the figure, it is clear that the portion which is common to men and educated persons but uncommon to women and employed
contains number 4. Therefore, number 4 depicts educated unemployed men. Hence, our answer is (c).
2. The area containing number 5 is common to square and triangle. And square and triangle represent, educated and women respectively.
Hence, number 5 depicts educated unemployed women.
3. The area which is common to circle and parallelogram represents the employed men who are not educated. And this area contains
number 2. Therefore, our answer is (c).

EXERCISE-I
Directions (Q. 1 -5): Each question below has three items having certain relationship among them. The same relationship is expressed by
sets of circles, each circle representing one item irrespective of its size. Match the items with right set of circles.

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1.Rivers, Canals, Perennial source of water, (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) E
(a) A (b)B (c)C (d) D (e) E 4.Computer skilled, Graduates, Employed.
2.Rings, Ornaments, Diamond rings. (a) A (b)D (c)B (d) E (e) C
(a)C (b)B (c)A (d) D (e) E 5.Students, First divisioners, Third divisioners.
3.Women, Married persons, Wives who work, (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) A (e) E

Directions (Q. 6-10) : Each question below contains three groups of things. You are to choose from the following five numbered diagrams,
the diagram that depicts the correct relationship among the three groups of things in each question.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

6.Vegetable, Fruit, Brinjal 7.Door, Window, House 8.Honest, Intelligent, Poor

9.Car, Train, Automobile 10. Zinc, Copper, Iron

Directions (Q. 11 -20) :ln each of the following questions, select the diagram out of the five that best represents the relationship among the
items given in the question.

(e)
11. Book, Novel, Pen 16.Medicine, Male, Surgeon
12.Police,Doctor,Female 17.Keyboard, Monitor, Mouse
13.Mammal, Cow, Man 18.Educated persons, Engineers, Doctors
14.Horse, Hen, Animal 19.Women, Teachers, Doctors
15.Woman, Wife, Daughter 20.Girls, Healthy, Health Club

Directions (Q. 21 -30) : Out of the four alternatives in each of the following questions, three alternatives are such that the three words in
each are related among themselves in one of the five ways represented by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) below. And one of the alternatives
represents a relationship which is not represented by any of the figures given below. The relationship that complies this condition is your
answer.

' (B)

(D) (E)
21.(a) Army, General, Colonel (b) Boy, Student, Player (c) Painter, Scholar, Table (d) Man, Typist, Peon
22.(a) Hen, Dog, Cat (b)Body, Ear, Mouth (c)Bed, Ward, Nurse (d)Tiger, Animal, Carnivorous
23.(a) Mineral, Iron, Copper (b) Dean, Painter, Singer (c) Seed, Leaf, Root (d) Piston, Engine,
24.(a)Director,Engineer,Musician (b)Apple,Orange,Mango (c)Fruit,Mango,Grass (d)Oxygen,Air,Water
25.(a) Bed, Ward, Hospital (b) Boy, Girl, Player (c) Copper, Zinc, Iron (d) Book, Page, Paragraph
26. (a) Atmosphere, Air, Oxygen (b) Boy, Girl, Student (c) Man, Worker, Garden (d) Animal, Dog, Cat
27. (a) Body, Hand, Finger (b) Mammal, Nurse, Woman (c) Cereal, Wheat, Rice (d) Males, Cousins, Nephews
28. (a) Star, Moon, Mars (b)Professor, Scholar, Politician (c)Nurse, Doctor, Woman
(d)Swimmer, Carpenter, Singer
29. (a) Animal, Mammal, Cow (b) Colour, Cloth, Merchant (c) Colour, Red, Blue (d) Male, Horse, Mare
30. (a) Periodicals, Weekly, Book (b) Mineral, Copper, Wood (c) Doctors, Human beings, Married People (d) Army, Doctors,
Engineers

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 Directions (Q. 31-40) : Each of the questions given below contains three groups of things. You have to choose from the following five
numbered diagrams, the diagram that depicts the correct relationship among the three groups of things in each question.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

31. Pop, Songs, Classical 36. Lawyers, Women, Doctors
(a) C (b) E (c)D (d) A (e) B (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
32. Maize, Sugarcane, Crops 37. Brinjal, Glass, Spoon
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E (a)A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
33. Birds, Owls, Elephants 38. Pen, Stationery, Powder
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
34. Apples, Mangoes, Oranges 39. Vehicle, Car, Jeep
(a) A (b) B (c)C (d) D (e) E (a) A (b) B (c) C (d)D (e)E
35. Asia, Delhi, India 40. Year, Month, Day
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E (a) A (b)B (c)C (d) D (e) E

EXERCISE-II
Directions (Q. 1 -3) : The figure given below depicts an area where
people speak four languages. The triangle depicts English speaking 1.Which number depicts English, Urdu and Marathi speaking area ?
area, the square Hindi speaking areas, the circle stands for Urdu (a) 41 (b)11 (c)9 (d) 8 (e) None of these
speaking area and the rectangle for area where people speak 2. Number 2 depicts
Marathi. Each part is numbered. Your task is to study the figure (a) English and Hindi speaking area
and answer the questions that follow. (b) only English speaking area
(c) Hindi and Marathi speaking area
(d) English and Marathi speaking area
3. Which number depicts Marathi, English and Hindi speaking area
?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 9 (d) 3 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 4-8) : Read the following information carefully and 5. Which number represents the group of educated poor boys who
answer the questions based on them. are employed somewhere but do not help in family business ?
The circle represents poor boys, the square educated boys, the (a) 12 (b) 3 (c) 11 (d) 2 (e) None of these
triangle represents the boys who are employed somewhere and the 6. Which section does number 3 represent ?
rectangle represents those who help in the family business. Each (a) Uneducated poor boys who do not help in family business
section of the diagram is numbered. Now answer the questions given (b) Educated poor boys employed in service
below on the basis of the study of this diagram. (c) Uneducated boys who help in family business
(d) Educated poor boys who help in family business
(e) None of the above
7. Which number represents that section .of poor boys who are
neither educated nor are in any employment or have any family
business ?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 11 (e) 12
8. Boys who are neither educated nor poor but have employment as
well as a family business are represented by the number,
4. Which number represents those poor boys, who help in family
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 6 (e) 5
business but are not educated or employed elsewhere ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 7

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Directions (Q. 9-12) : Read the following information carefully and (b)uneducated men in government jobs
answer the questions based on them. (c)educated men working in private sectors
In the venn-diagram given below, the square represents women, the (d)educated men having private as well as govt. jobs
triangle represents persons who are in government services, the circle (e)none of the above
represents educated persons, and the rectangle represents persons 12.Number 2 represents
working in private sectors. Each section of the diagram is numbered. (a)educated women who neither have government jobs nor private
Your task is to study the diagram and answer the questions that job
follow. (b)uneducated women with no jobs
(c)educated men with government jobs
(d)uneducated men with government jobs
(e)none of the above
13.Which numbered space in the figure represents doctors who are
players as well as artists ?

9. Which number represents educated women, who are in

government jobs ?
(a) 2 (b)3 (c)6 (d)4 (e) None of these
10. Which number represents the uneducated women, who have
(a)2 (b)3 (c)6 (d)7 (e)none of these
government jobs as well as jobs in private sectors ?
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 12 (d) 9 (e)None of these
11.Number 10 represents
(a)educated women in private jobs

ANSWERS AND EXPLAINATION (EXERCISE-I)

1. (e) Rivers and canals both are perennial source of water, and 20. (c) Girls and healthy share relationship with each other and
hence are subsets of it. health-club is unrelated to both of them.
2. (a) Ring is a part of ornament and diamond ring is a part of 21. (c) Painter, scholar and table is a relationship in which
ring. painter and scholar share relationship to each other and table is
3. (d) Small circle in figure B represents wives who work, because unrelated to both of them and this is represented by figure.
wives who work are a part of married persons as well as women. Since we don't have this figure in any of the options, hence it is
4. (b) All the three items are interrelated i.e. computer skilled our answer.
may and may not be graduate as well as employed.
5. (e) Because first divisioner and third divisioner both are
students.
6. (c) Brinjal is vegetable and hence is subset of it. Fruit is
something unrelated to both of them.
7. (e) Door and window both are the parts of house. 22. (a) Under this relationship all the three items are unrelated
8. (a) All the three items are interrelated. to each other and is represented by the figure. Since this
9. (c) Car is an automobile and train is something unrelated to relationship is not represented by any of the figures, hence it is
both of them. our answer.
10. (b) All the three are unrelated to one another.
11. (b) Novel is a book and pen is unrelated to both of them.
12. (e) Female shares relationship with police and doctors. But
police & doctors are unrelated to each other.
13. (b) Cow is a mammal and man is unrelated to both of them.
14. (b) Horse is animal and hen is unrelated to both of them. 23. (c) Explanation as in question 22.
15. (d) Both wife and daughter are women. 24. (b) Explanation as in question 22.
16. (c) Males and surgeons share common relationship between 25. (c) Explanation as in question 22.
each other and medicine is unrelated to both the class. 26. (c) This relationship can be represented by the figure. Since
17. (a) All the three are the parts of computer and unrelated to none of the figures (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) represents. this
one another. relationship, hence it is our answer.
18. (d) Both doctors and engineers are educated persons.
19. (e) Women share relationship with teachers and doctors but
both of them are unrelated to each other.

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27. (d) Nephews are males and hence subset of it. Cousins may
be and may not be males and nephews. And this relationship is
represented by the figure. This relationship is not represented by
any of the options and hence it is our answer.
28. (a) Explanation as in question 22.
29. (b) Colour, Cloth and Merchant are unrelated terms. Further
explanation as in question 22.
30. (c) This relationship can be represented by the figure. Since
this relationship cannot be shown by any of the figures (A), (B),
(C) (D) and (E), hence it is our answer.
EXERCISE-II
1. (c) Number 9 lies in the space, which is common to triangle, circle
and rectangle.
2. (a) Number 2 lies in the space, which is common to triangle and
square English and Hindi speaking area respectively.
3. (d) Number 3 lies in the space, which is common to triangle,
square and rectangle belonging to English, Hindi and Marathi
speaking area respectively.
4. (d) Number 5 represents those poor boys helping family business
but are not educated or employed elsewhere because it occupies
the space common to circle and rectangle only.
5. (e) No number occupies the space which is common to circle,
square and rectangle only.
6. (d) Number 3 is present in the space common to circle, square
and rectangle, hence represents educated poor boys who help in
family business.
7. (e) Number 12 lies on that portion of circle, which is not common
to any other figure.
31. (c) A Song may be classical or pop or of any other type.
32. (d) Both Maize and Sugarcane are the crops.
33. (e) Owl is a Bird and Elephant is not related to both of them.
34. (c) All the three items are unrelated to one another.
35. (a) India is in Asia and Delhi is in India.
36. (b) Women share relationship with Lawyer and Doctor.
37. (c) All the three items are unrelated to one another.
38. (e) Pen is Stationery and Powder is not related to both of
them.
39. (d) Both Car and Jeep are Vehicles.
40. (a) Year contains Months and Month contains Days.
8. (b) Number 7 represents the portion, which is common to triangle
and rectangle only. Hence, it represents employed boys engaged in
family business.
9. (b) Educated women in government jobs are represented by
number 3 as it occupies the space common to circle, square and
triangle.
10. (d) Number 9 represents uneducated women who have
government jobs as well as jobs in private sectors because it lies in
the space which is common to square, triangle and rectangle.
11. (d) Number 10 represents educated men having private as well
as government jobs.
12. (a) Number 2 occupies the space common to circle and square
only, and, hence represents educated women who are neither in
government jobs nor private jobs.
13. (d) Since number 7 is present on that portion of the figure, which
is common to "square, circle and rectangle and hence, represents
doctors who are players as well as artists.
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UNIT-8 : SERIES
INTRODUCTION
In this chapter, we shall come across questions based on series—number series and alphabetical series. The only thing to be understood
for solving these questions is the pattern, on which a number series and alphabetical series is written. These series can be formed by using
various methods. Therefore, it is advisable for the students to practice as many questions as possible to apprise themselves the variety of
methods used to form number series. Some of the methods on which a series can be formed have been given in the following examples.
Number Series
Example : Directions (Q. 1 -5) : Find out the missing numbers.
1. 2,9,28,65,………….
(a) 121 (b) 195 (c) 126 (d) 103 (e) 96
2. 2,6,14,26,………..,62
(a) 52 (b) 54 (c) 44 (d) 42 (e) 50
3. 101,100,………..,87,71,46
(a) 92 (b) 88 (c) 89 (d) 96 (e) 99
4. 100, 50, 52, 26, 28,…….,16, 8
(a) 30 (b) 36 (c) 14 (d) 32 (e) 12
5. 4,9,20,43,………………
(a) 133 (b) 84 (c) 96 (d) 95 (e) None of these
Solution:
1. (c) Method used to form the series is
(1)3 + 1, (2)3 + 1, (3)3 + 1, (4)3+1,
Therefore, the missing number is (5)3 + 1 = 126
2. (d) 2 6 14 26 42 62

4 8 12 16 20
The difference of each successive number is increased by 4. Hence, number 42 will replace the space.
3. (d) Difference of each successive number is the square of natural number.
101 100 96 87 71 46

(1)2 (2)2 (3)2 (4)2 (5)2

4. (c) The second number is half of the first number, fourth number is half of the third number and so on.
5. (a) The series follows the method
4x2+1 = 9, 9x2+2=20, 20x2+3=43, 43x3+4 = 133
Example:Directions (Q. 6-9) : In each of the following questions, one number is wrong in the series. Find out the wrong number.
6. 864, 420, 200, 96,40,16, 6
(a) 420 (b) 200 (c)96 (d) 40
7. 1, 2, 6, 21, 84, 445, 2676
(a) 2 (b)6 (c)2l (d) 84 (e) 445
8. 88,54,28,13,5,2,2
(a) 28 (b)54 (c) 13 (d) 2 (e) 88
9. 4,12, 30, 68,146, 302, 622
(a) 12 (b)30 (c)68 (d) 146 (e) 302
Solution:
6. (c) Pattern of the series from the end follows the pattern 6x2+4 = 16, 16x2+8 = 40, 40x2+12=92, 92 x 2 + 16 = 200,………….. and so
on. Therefore, the number in place of 96 should be 92.
7. (d) Series follows the pattern : 1x1 + 1 = 2, 2x2+2=6, 6x3+3=21, 21x4+4 = 88, 88x5+5 = 445, 445 x 6 + 6 = 2676. Therefore, 84 should
be replaced by 88.
8. (b) Series from the end moves with a difference of 0, 3, 8,15, 24, 35 i.e., with a difference of numbers, which are 1 less than the square of
natural numbers. Hence, number 54 should be replaced by 53.
9. (e) The series is written using the pattern : 4 x 2+ 4 = 12, 12x2+6 = 30, 30x2+8 = 68, 68x2+10 = 146, 146 x 2 + 12 = 304, 304 x 2 + 14 = 662.
Therefore, number 302 should be replaced by 304.
Alphabetical Series
Example 10. What are missing letters in the following series?
pqr--rsprs--spq-
(a) pqppq (b) spqpr (c) sqpqr (d) sqprq
Solution: Here the block which is repeated, consists of four letters pqrs. Rewriting the series in the block of four letters, we get pqrs,-rsp, rs-
-, spq- and now filling the blank spaces, we observe that the series must be pqrs, qrsp, rspq, spqr. Hence, the missing letters are sqpqr.
Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.
Example 11. What are the last five letters in the following series?
b-b-cab-baca-cba-a-

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(a) acbbb (b)acbcb (c) abcbc (d) accbc
Solution: The longest available chain of letters in the given series is baca. Two other such blocks are formed if we fill up the fourth space
from left and third space from right, so that series now looks like b-bacab-baca-cbaca-. The filled up sequence now suggests that the series
will be bcba ca bcba ca bcba ca b Hence, the missing letters are acbcb. Thus, option (b) is the right option.
Example 12. Find the missing letters in the following series. UV-UWW-XU-W-
(a)VWXUU (b)VUVUV (c)UVXUV (d)VUXUU
Solution: The presence of the term UWW and then the letter next to W, which is X, in the ninth position (the block are of three letters)
suggests the series to be UVM UWW, UXX, UUVV, U. So, the missing letters are VUXUU and hence, option (d) is the correct option.
Example 13. Find the last five missing letters of the series
a-aa.bb--a.b-b----
(a) baaaa (b) babab (c) baaba (d) bbaaa
Solution: The presence of the terms aabb in the middle suggests the pattern of the series to be ab, aabb, followed by aaabbb, aaaa. Hence,
(a) is the correct option.
Example 14. Find the missing in the following series adb-ac-da-cddcb-dbc-cbda
(a) bccba (b) cbbaa (c) ccbba (d) bbcad
Solution: In the above series, the letters are equidistant from the beginning and end. adbcac b da b cddcb a dbc a cbda
Hence, the missing letters are cbbaa. Therefore, the correct option is (b).

EXERCISE
Directions (Q. 1-15) : In each of the following questions, one number is missing in the series. You have to understand the pattern of the
series and insert the number.
1. 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, ……….. , 123, 199 17. 77, 78, 77, 81, 73, ……...., 55
(a) 76 (b) 70 (c) 84 (d) 102 (e) 95 (a) 69 (b)71 (c)82 (d) 89 (e) None of these
2. 2, 6, 12, 20,……………, 42, 56, 72, 90 18. 6, 7, 9, 13, 21, …………..
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 30 (d) 12 (e) 23 (a) 25 (b) 29 (c) 37 (d)32 (e) None of these
3. 17, 7, 24, 19, 9, 28, …………… , 8, 31, 27, 10, 37 19. 5, 7,............ 9, 7, 11, 8, 13
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 18 (d) 12 (e) 23 (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 19 (d) 7 (e) None of these
4. 6, 126, ………...., 9, 108, 12,7, 133, 19, 12, 72, 6 20. 4, 8, 12, 24, 36, 72,................
(a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 30 (d) 35 (e) 40 (a) 108 (b) 98 (c) 92 (d)96 (e) None of these
5. 2, ………… , 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256 21. 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, ………...
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d)4 (e) None of these (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d)13 (e) None of these
6. 45, 54, 47,………....., 49, 56, 51, 57, 53 22. 3, 6, 6, 12, 9, ………...., 12
(a) 48 (b) 55 (c) 50 (d) 53 (e) None of these (a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 11 (d) 13 (e) None of these
7. 3, 128, 6, 64, 9,………...., 12, 16, 15, 8
(a) 32 (b) 12 (c) 108 (d) 72 (e) 64 Directions (Q. 23-31) : In each of the following questions, one
8. 5, 7, 11, 19, 35, 67, ........... , 259 number is wrong in the series. Find out the wrong number.
(a) 64 (b) 131 (c) 135 (d) 32 (e) None of these 23. 3, 5, 12, 39, 154, 772, 4634
9. 8, 4, 12, 6, 18,………....., 27 (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 39 (d) 154 (e) None of these
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d)24 (e) None of these 24. 376, 188, 88, 40, 16, 4, - 2
10. 16, 22, 34, 58, 106, …………. , 394 (a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 40 (d) 188 (e) None of these
(a) 178 (b) 175 (c) 288 (d) 170 (e) 202 25. 444, 300, 200, 136, 87, 84, 80
11. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, 33,......... (a) 200 (b) 136 (c) 87 (d) 80 (e) None of these
(a) 85 (b) 37 (c) 63 (d) 64 (e) 65 26. 2, 3, 12, 37, 86, 166, 288
12. 2, 9, 23, 3, 8, 25, 4, ……...., 27 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 166 (d) 86 (e) 37
(a) 7 (b) 29 (c) 23 (d) 14 (e) 20 27. 4, 9, 19, 43, 90, 185, 375
13. 121, 112,……...., 97, 91, 86 (a) 9 (b) 19 (c) 90 (d) 185 (e) None of these
(a) 102 (b)108 (c)99 (d) 104 (e) 101 28. 572, 284, 140, 72, 32, 14, 5
14. 6, 9, 15, 27,..........., 99 (a) 14 (b) 32 (c) 72 (d) 5 (e) 140
(a) 51 (b) 34 (c) 37 (d)84 (e) None of these 29. 4, 10, 23, 50, 104, 216, 439
15. 4, 7, 12, ………...., 28, 39 (a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 23 (d) 104 (e) 216
(a) 19 (b) 24 (c) 14 (d) 16 (e) None of these 30. 701, 348, 173, 85, 41, 19, 8
(a) 173 (b) 41 (c) 19 (d) 8 (e) 348
Directions (Q. 16-22) : Find the missing number in the following 31. 2, 3, 9,27, 112, 565, 3396
series. (a) 565 (b) 9 (c) 112 (d) 27 (e) 3396
16. 83, 82, 81,……...., 69, 60, 33
(a) 73 (b) 80 (c) 75 (d) 77 (e) None of these

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 ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION (EXERCISE)
1. (a) Third number is the sum of first and second, fourth number is
the sum of second and third, fifth number is the sum of third and
fourth and so on. Hence, missing number will be 29 + 47 = 76.
2. (c) Series moves with the increasing difference by 2 i.e., 4,6,8,
10,12, Therefore, missing number will be 30.
3. (e) Each third number is the sum of preceding two numbers. i.e., 17
+ 7 = 24, 19 + 9 = 28, 23 + 8 = 31. ,
4. (a) Number between first and third, fourth and sixth, seventh and
ninth is the product of adjacent number, Hence, missing number will
be 126/ 6 = 21.
5. (d) Each number of the series is the double of the preceding
number.
6. (b) There are two alternate series in the single series, one of them
moves with a difference of one number starting with 45, and another
is a consecutive series starting with 54.
7. (a) There are two alternate series, one 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 and another 8,
16, 32, 64, 128 (every number is double of preceding number). Hence,
our answer is 32.
8. (b) Series moves with a difference of 2,4, 8,16, 32,64. Hence, the
missing number will be 67 + 64 = 131.
9. (e) Third, fifth and seventh number is the sum of preceding two
numbers. Hence, missing number is 9 because 18 + 9 = 27.
10. (e) Series moves with a difference of 6, 12, 24, 48, 96. Therefore,
the missing number is 202.
11. (e) Series moves with a difference of 1, 2, 4, 8,16, . Hence, the
missing number is 65.
12. (a) There are three alternative series 2,3,4, ……(consecutive
numbers), 9,8,7, ……….. (consecutive number in descending order), and
23,25,27, …………. Hence, 7 will come in place of missing number,
13. (d) Series is written in descending order with a difference 9,8,7,6
and 5. Hence, missing number is 104.
14. (a) Series proceeds with a difference of 3, 6,12, 24,48. Hence. the
missing number will be 51.
15. (a) Series proceeds with a difference of 3, 5, 7, 9, 11. Therefore,
the missing number will be 19.
16.(d) Series has been written in reverse order with a difference of
(1)2 (1)3, (2)2, (2)2, (2)3 (3)3 i.e., 1,1, 4, 8, 9, 27.
.
17. (c) Series increases and decreases alternatively with a
difference of +(2)2,-(1)3, +(2)2,-(2)3, +(3)2,-(3)3 i.e. + 1, -1, + 2,-8, +9,-27.
18. (c) Series moves with a difference of 1, 2, 4, 8,16. Hence, the
missing number is
19. (b) There are two alternate series 5, 6, 7, 8 and 7, 9, 11, 13.
Therefore, the missing number will be 6.
20. (d) Series proceeds with a difference of 4, 4, 12, 12, 24, 24. Hence,
the missing number is 96.
21. (c) Series moves with a difference of 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3 and so on.
Hence, the missing number is 10.
22. (b) There are two alternate series 3,6,9,12 and 6,12,18, Hence,
missing number is 18.
23. (c) Series follows the pattern-3 x 1 + 2 = 5, 5 x 2 + 2 = 12, 12 x 3 + 2
= 38; 38 x 4 + 2 = 154 and so on. Hence, the number 39 should be
replaced with 38.
24. (d) Series has been written is descending order with a difference
of 192, 96,48, 24,12,6. Therefore, number 188 should be replaced by
number 184.
25. (c) Series has been written in descending order with a difference of
122,100,64,36,16 and 4 i.e., squares of even natural numbers.
26. (c) Series moves with a difference of squares of odd natural
numbers i.e., 1,9,25,49, 81,121.
27. (b) Series follows the pattern :4x2 + l = 9,9x2 + 2 = 20, 20 x 2 + 3 =
43, 43 x 2 + 4 = 90 and so on. Hence, number 19 should be replaced by
20.
28. (c) Series moves from the end following the pattern 14x2 + 4 =
32,32 x 2 + 4 = 68,68 x 2 + 4 = 140 and so on. Hence, number 72 should
be replaced by 68.
29. (d) Series follows the pattern 4 x 2 + 2 = 10,10 x 2 + 3 = 23, 23 x 2 +
4 = 50, 50 x 2 + 5 = 105,105 x 2 + 6 = 216 and so on. Hence, number
104 should be replaced by 105.
30. (c) Series follow the pattern from the end 8x2+3 = 19, 19x2+3=41,
41x2+3=85, 85x2+3=173, 173x2+3=349, 349x2+3=701
31. (b) Series follows the pattern : 2 x 1 + 1 = 3, 3x2 + 2 = 8, 8x3 + 3 =
27, 27x4 + 4= 112 and so on. Hence, the number 9 should be replaced
by 8
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UNIT-9 : COMPARISONS OF RANKS
INTRODUCTION
This chapter deals with the questions related with comparison of ranks. The term ranks may include various objects such as age, height,
marks, salary, weights etc. A set of information is given in the questions. The information given shows relationship among ranks as defined
above and candidates are required to answer the questions based on the information given. The information should be systematically
understood to answer the questions based on them. Solution of such questions requires ranking of objects either in ascending or
descending order, depending upon their characteristic. Sometimes ranking the objects does not seem to be as easy as we presume. For the
procedural simplicity and convenience of students, we have classified ranking of objects in two categories namely fixed and variable.

Fixed Ranking : For understanding the fixed ranking, study the example given below carefully.
Example 1 In an examination Amit scores more than Aman and less than Rohit. Sudha scores more than Rohit and less than Geeta. Who
among them scored the highest marks ?
Solution The information given in question may be interpreted mathematically as below:
Amit > Aman; Amit < Rohit; Sudha > Rohit; Sudha < Geeta On ranking the marks in ascending order, we further gets Aman, Amit, Rohit,
Sudha, Geeta.
This final ranking fulfills all the conditional relationship given in the question. Hence, we find that Geeta scored the max. marks in the exam.
In the fixed Ranking of objects, we get the positon of Ranks as fixed. As in the above example, the ranking of marks of any one of all the
students is fixed. In other words, by fixed ranking we mean that answer about the position of any one's rank is definite and certain.
Therefore, on the basis of ranking of marks of students in the above question, it can be interpreted definitely that Geeta gets the highest
marks and Aman gets the lowest.

Variable Ranking: For easy understanding of this type, go through the example given below carefully and try to differentiate this type with
the previous one.
Example 2 In an examination, Amit scores more than Aman and less than Rohit. Sudha scores more than Rohit and Geeta scores more than
Rohit. Who among them gets the max. marks?
Solution If we arrange the marks of all the students in ascending order, we get two orders of Ranking :
(a) Aman, Amit, Rohit, Sudha, Geeta (b) Aman, Amit, Rohit, Geeta, Sudha.
Order of ranks of marks of the students in this case is different in one way from the order of ranks in the previous case. And this difference
lies in the varying position of Rank of Geeta and Sudha. And hence it cannot be said definitely who scores the hightest marks. However, it
may be either Geeta or Sudha. Therefore, in varying ranking the position of any one of the ranks keeps varying. The variable ranking is the
consequencse of inadequate information given in the questions. Students are, therefore, required to be cautious while answering the
question of this type as these question, are basically designed to confuse the students.

Methodology: Ranking of objects sometimes seems to be tedious for the students when information given in the question is complicated
and distorted. In such a situation, establishing the relationship among ranks with the use of symbols > (greater than) and < (less than)
proves to be insufficient. We therefore, introduce an easy approach to deal with the questions of comparison of ranks in the following
steps. Students are advised to go through the following steps carefully and practice all questions given in the exercise with this method
only.
1. First we solve the question given in the example 1 with the help of this method. Read the question step by step carefully and place the
ranks in a column so as to show the highest rank at the top and the lowest at the bottom. The information given in the first line of the
question. "Amit scores more than Aman and less than Rohit" can be placed in the column, as discussed above, in the following way:
Rohit: Here the relation among one another is
Amit: automatically established and hence ranks of
Aman: marks of each student get fixed.
Second information "Sudha scores more than Rohit and les 4than Geeta" can easily be inserted in the present ranking and thus we get final
ranking as under :
Geeta — Highest marks Here we see that the position of ranks of each student's marks is fixed.
Sudha,Rohit,Amit,Aman — Lowest marks
2. If we solve the questions in the example 2 with the method as discussed above, we get the order of rank of marks of the students as
shown in the column. Since we are given in the question that Geeta scores more than Rohit but her relationship with Sudha has not been
given, therefore, Geeta's position of marks may occupy three positions which are equal to, greater than and less than Sudha's position.
Therefore, it cannot be said definitely that who scores the maximum marks.

EXERCISE
1. Praniti scored more than Ranbir. Yamini score as much as Disha. 2. Raman is taller than Harsh who is shorter than Sumit. Nidhi is
Lavina score less than Monu. Ranbir score more than Yamini. Monu taller than Hari but shorter than Harsh. Sumit is shorter than Raman.
score less than Disha. Who score the lowest ? Who is the tallest ?
(a) Monu (b) Yamini (c) Lavina (d) Ranbir (e) None (a) Raman (b) Sumit (c) Harsh (d) Hari (e) Nidhi

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3. Among five boys, Vasu is taller than Manish, but not as tall as (a) A and D were equally effective.
Ram. Jay is taller than Dev, but shorter than Manish. Who is the (b) A was the most effective. (c) D was the most effective.
tallest in the group ? (d) C was less effective than A (e) E did not relieve pain.
(a) Ram (b) Manish (c) Vasu 11. All the information in the results given above can be derived
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these from which of the following groups of statements ?
(a) Statements i, ii, iii (b) Statements i, iii, iv
Direction (Q.4-5): Among P, Q, R, S. Q is heavier than P and R but R (c) Statements ii, iii, iv (d) Statements i, ii, iii, iv
is taller than him. S is not as tall as R, while P is the shortest. R is not (e) Statements ii, iii, iv, and v.
as heavy as P. S is heavier than Q but shorter than him. 12. If a sixth brand Z is tested and found to be more effective than
4. Who is the heaviest ? D, then which of the followings must be true if the findings of the
(a) Q (b) P (c) S (d)R (e) None of these study are correct ?
5. In the above question, who is the tallest ? (a) Z is most effective of all six brands tested.
(a) S (b) R (c) Either P or S (b) At least four of the six brands tested are less effective than Z.
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these (c) Z is more effective than A.
(d) Z is less effective than C.
6. Madhur is taller than Sohan but shorter than Ranbir. Ranbir is (e) No more than four of the six brands tested are more effective
taller than Harman but shorter than Amber. Who among them is the than E.
shortest with regard to height ?
(a) Madhur (b) Sohan (c) Harman Direction for Qs.(13-15):
(d) Can't be determined (e) None of these (1) Bhavya is older than Nira.
7. Harman is taller than Keshav but shorter than Sohan. Keshav is (2) Mira is older than Bhavya but younger than Kaavi.
shorter than Ashutosh but taller than Rupesh. Who among them is (3) Kaavi is older than Nira.
the shortest having regard to height ? (4) Nira is younger than Mira. (5) Lavina is the oldest.
(a) Ashutosh (b) Keshav (c) Rupesh 13. Who is youngest?
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these (a) Kaavi (b) Bhavya (c) Mira (d) Nira
8. Gyanesh is taller than Samarth who is not as tall as Kapil. Samay is 14. Age wise who is in the middle?
taller than Surbhi but shorter than Samarth. Who among them is the (a) Kaavi (b) Bhavya (c) Mira (d) Nira (e)Lavina
tallest ? 15. Which of the given statement is/are superfluous and can be
(a) Gyanesh (b) Kapil (c) Samarth dispensed with while answering the above questions?
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these (a) Either (i) or (iii) (b) Only(iv) (c) Either (i) or (iv)
9. Manali is taller than Payal but not as tall as Keshav. Reena is taller (d) Both (iii) and (iv) (e)None of these
than Nisha but not as tall as Payal. Who among them is the tallest ?
(a) Keshav (b) Payal (c) Nisha (d) Manali (e) Reena Direction for Qs.(16-20): Aisha, Mahi, Ritik, Leena and Disha are five
cousins. Aisha is twice as old as Mahi. Ritik is half the age of Mahi.
Directions (Q. 10-12) : Read the following information and select the Aisha is half the age of Disha and Ritik is twice the age of Leena.
best answer choice given in question. In a study of five brands of 16. Who is the youngest?
pain relieving tablets A, B, C, D and E, the brands were tested and (a) Disha (b) Ritik (c) Leena (d) Aisha
ranked against each other as more or less effective per dose. The 17. Who is the eldest?
following results were obtained. (a) Disha (b) Leena (c) Aisha (d) None
(i) A was more effective than B. 18. Which of the following pairs of persons are of the same age?
(ii) The effectiveness of C was less than that of D. (a) Mahi and Leena (b) Aisha and Mahi
(iii) E was the least effective brand tested. (c) Mahi and Ritik (d) None
(iv) B and C were equally effective. 19. Aisha is younger than
(v) The effectiveness of D was greater than that of B. (a)Ritik (b) Mahi (c) Disha (d) None
10. If the above statements are true, which of the following must 20. If Mahi is 16 years old, then what is the age of Leena?
also be true ? (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 7 years (d) 8 years

ANSWERS WITH EXPLAINATION (EXERCISE)

1. (c) As per the information given, the final ranking of marks in
the descending order is as Praniti - Ranbir - Yamini - Disha -Monu -
Lavina, from which we find that Lavina score the lowest marks.
2. (a) Final ranking of height in descending order is as Raman -
Sumit - Harsh - Nidhi - Hari. Therefore, the tallest person is Raman.
3. (a) Final ranking of height in descending order is as Ram - Vasu -
Manish - Jay - Dev. Hence, Ram is the tallest.
4. (c) There is a comparison in height and weight of Persons.
Ranking of weight is of fixed type while in height ranking of S
keeps varying.
Weight : S —Q —P —R Height : R —Q —S—P
5. (b) Since in comparison of height the position of Q is not fixed,
therefore, either Q or R can be the tallest.
6. (d) Order of ranking of heights in the question is of variable
nature on account of rank of Harman as Amber-Ranbir-Harman-
Madhur-Sohan. Therefore, it cannot be determined who will be
the shortest.
7. (c) On the basis of information, it can definitely be established
that Rupesh is the shortest.
8. (d) In this question ranking of Kapil is not defined.
Consequently, either Gyanesh or Kapil occupies the top position
with regard to height. Hence, option (d) is the correct choice.

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9. (a) Keshav is the tallest among all. It means that position of D is not fixed. Now as per question, sixth
10-12 : On the basis of the information given in the question we brand ie Z is more effective than D which implies that whatever be
find the order of their effectiveness as in the order in the figure. the position of D, there will be at least four brands which will be
Drugs at the bottom being the less effective and at the top, the less effective than Z.
most effective. From the ranking order we find that position of D 13-15: lavina>kaavi>mira>bhavya>nira
keeps varying and, therefore, either A or D can be the most 13.(d) Nira 14.(c)Mira 15.(d) Both (iii) & (iv)
effective brand. 16-20: Aisha=2Mahi Ritik = 1/2 Mahi
10. (d) From the order it is clear that C was less effective than A Aisha=1/2 Disha Ritik = 2 Leena
A>B=C>E D>C=B>E D>A>M>R>L
11. (d) Information (v) is not required to obtain the final order of 16.(c)Leena 17.(a)Disha 18.(c)Mahi & Ritik
ranking. Therefore, only information (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are sufficient 19.(d)None
to get final ranking. 20.(a)We know Ritik is half the age of Mahi & twice the age of
12. (b) It is clear from the ranking order so obtained that brand D Leena so, the age of Leena is 4 yrs
may be less effective than A, equal to A and more effective than C
.

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UNIT-10 : BLOOD RELATION
INTRODUCTION
The questions which are asked in this section depend upon Relation. You should have a sound knowledge of the blood relation in order to
solve the questions.To remember easily the relations may be divided into two sides as given below:
1. Relations of Paternal side:
I. Father's father → Grandfather
II. Father's mother → Grandmother
III. Father's brother → Uncle
IV. Father's sister → Aunt
V. Children of uncle → Cousin
VI. Wife of uncle → Aunt
VII. Children of aunt → Cousin
VIII. Husband of aunt → Uncle
2. Relations of Maternal side:
I. Mother's father → Maternal grandfather
II. Mother's mother → Maternal grandmother
III. Mother's brother Maternal uncle
IV. Mother's sister → Aunt
V. Children of maternal uncle → Cousin
VI. Wife of maternal uncle → Maternal aunt

Relations from one generation to next:

Different types of questions with explanation:

Type 1:If A + B means A is the mother of B; A x B means A is the father of B; A $ B means A is the brother of B and A @ B means A is the
sister of B then which of the following means P is the son of Q?
(A) Q + R @ P @ N (B) Q + R * P @ N (C) Q x R $ P @ N (D) Q x R $ P $ N
Solution: (D): Q x R = Q is the father of R [-Q, ±R] R $ P = R is the brother of P [+ R, ±P]
P $ N = P is the brother of N [+ P, ±N] Therefore P is the son of Q.

Type 2:A has 3 children. B is the brother of C and C is the sister of D, E who is the wife of A is the mother of D. There is only one daughter of
the husband of E. what is the relation between D and B?
Solution: With the chart

Therefore, D is a boy because there is only one daughter of E. Hence, B is the brother of D.

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Type 3:Pointing to a photograph, Rekha says to Lalli, "The girl in the photo is the second daughter of the wife of only son of the
grandmother of my younger sister." How this girl of photograph is related to Rekha?
Solution: First Method - By Generating Charts:

Second method:
I. Grandmother of younger sister of Rekha → Grandmother of Rekha
II. Wife of only son of grandmother → Mother of Rekha
III. Younger daughter of the mother → Younger sister.

EXERCISE
1.Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of 3.Introducing a man, a woman said, "His wife is the only
the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy? daughter of my father." How is that man related to the woman?
(a)Brother (b)Uncle (c)Cousin (d)Father (a) Husband (b) Brother (c) Father-in-law
2.Showing the lady in the park, Vineet said, "She is the daughter (d) Maternal-uncle (e) None of these
of my grandfather's only son." How is Vineet related to that 4. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father
lady? of D, how D is related to A?
(a) Brother (b) Cousin (c) Father (d) Uncle (a)Brother (b)Sister (c)Nephew (d)Cannot be
(e) None of these determined

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5.Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my (a) Maternal-uncle (b) Father (c) Grandfather
mother's mother." How is the woman related to the man? (d) Father-in-law (e) None of these
(a) Mother (b) Cousin (c) Niece (d) Aunt 16. Pointing to a photograph, a person says to his friend, "She is
(e) None of these the granddaughter of the elder brother of my father." How is the
6. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister girl in the photograph related to the man?
of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following (a) Niece (b) Sister (c) Aunt
means that C is the son of M? (d) Sister-in-law (e) Maternal-aunt
(a)M - N x C + F (b)F - C + N x M (c)N + M - F x C 17. Pointing to a photograph. Bajpai said, "He is the son of the
(d)M x N - C + F only daughter of the father of my brother." How Bajpai is related
7.If B says that his mother is the only daughter of A's mother, to the man in the photograph?
how is A related to B? (a)Nephew (b)Brother (c)Father
(a) Son (b) Father (c) Brother (d)Maternal Uncle
(d) Grandfather (e) Uncle 18. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Raman said, "She
8. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of is the only daughter of the mother of my brother's sister." How is
the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl? that person related to Raman?
(a)Brother (b)Nephew (c)Uncle (d)Son-in-law (a) Uncle (b) Father (c) Mother (d) Cousin
9.Pointing to a person, Rohit said to Neha, "His mother is the (e) None of these
only daughter of your father." How is Neha related to the 19. Deepak said to Nitin, "That boy playing with the football is
person? the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father's
(a) Aunt (b) Mother (c) Daughter (d)Wife wife." How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?
(e) None of these (a)Son (b)Brother (c)Cousin (d)Brother-in-law
10. Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only 20. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said, "His only brother is the
son of my grandfather." How is the man in the photograph father of my daughter's father." How is the gentleman related to
related to Lata? Deepak?
(a)Brother (b)Uncle (c)Cousin (d)Data is inadequate (a) Father (b) Grandfather (c) Brother-in-law
11.Amit said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my (d) Uncle (e) None of these
mother." How is Amit related to the girl? 21. Pointing a photograph X said to his friend Y, "She is the only
(a) Father (b) Father-in-law (c) Grandfather daughter of the father of my mother." How X is related to the
(d) Husband person of photograph?
(e) None of these (a)Daughter (b)Son (c)Nephew (d)Cannot be
12. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son decided
of B; and A % B means B is the daughter of A then which of the 22. Pointing towards a woman in a photograph, Vijay said, "She
following means M is the maternal uncle of N? is the daughter of the father of the sister of my brother". How is
(a)M + O x N (b)M % O x N + P (c)M + O % N (d)None of the lady in photograph related to Vijay ?"
these (a) Daughter (b) Wife (c) Mother
13. Pointing to a man in the park, Naman said, "His son is my (d)Grandmother (e) None of these
son's uncle." How is the man related to Naman? 23. Veena who is the sister-in-law of Ashok, is the daughter-in-
(a) Brother (b) Father (c) Uncle law of Kalyani. Dheeraj is the father of Sudeep who is the only
(d) Grandfather (e) None of these brother of Ashok. How Kalyani is related to Ashok?
14. If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this (a)Mother-in-law (b)Aunt (c)Wife (d)None of these
question which of the statements is/are necessary? 24. Pointing towards a boy, Aruna said to Pushpa, "The mother
1.The son of D is the grandson of C. of his father is the wife of your grandfather (Mother's father)".
2.B is the sister of D. How Pushpa is related to that boy?
(a)Only 1 (b)Only 2 (c)Either 1 or 2 (a) Sister (b) Niece (c) Cousin sister
(d)1 and 2 both are required (d) Wife (e) None of these
15. Neelam, who is Rohit's daughter, says to Indu, "Your mother
Reeta is the younger sister of my father, who is the third child of
Sohanji." How is Sohanji related to Indu?

ANSWERS WITH EXPLAINATION (EXERCISE)

1.(d) The boy in the photograph is the only son of the son of
Suresh's mother i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the
father of boy.
2. (a) The only son of Vineet's grandfather is the father of Vineet
and daughter of Vineet's father is the sister of Vineet. Hence,
Vineet is the brother of the lady.
3.(a) The only daughter of the woman's father is she herself.
Hence, the woman and the man has a wife-husband relationship.
4. (d)If D is Male, the answer is Nephew. If D is Female, the
answer is Niece.As the sex of D is not known, hence, the relation
between D and A cannot be determined.
Note: Niece - A daughter of one's brother or sister, or of one's
brother-in-law or sister-in-law. Nephew - A son of one's brother
or sister, or of one's brother-in-law or sister-in-law.
5.(c) Son of woman's mother's mother means the brother of
mother. And brother of mother is maternal-uncle. Hence,
woman is related as niece to the man.

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6. (d)M x N → M is the father of N. N - C → N is the sister of C &
C + F → C is the brother of F.Hence, M is the father of C or C is
the son of M.
7.(e) As per the question, B's mother is the only daughter of A's
mother. In other words, "B is the grandson of A's mother. Hence,
A is the uncle of B (Assuming A being male).
8. (a)The father of the boy's uncle → the grandfather of the boy
and daughter of the grandfather → sister of father.
9. (b) Only daughter of Neha's father is Neha herself. Therefore,
statement in other words implies that Neha is mother of the
man.
10.(a) The man in the photograph is the son of the only son of
Lata's grandfather i.e., the man is the son of Lata's father. Hence,
the man is the brother of Lata.
11. (b) Grandson of Amit's mother is the son of Amit and son's
wife is Amit's daughter-in-law. Hence, Amit is related as
father-in-law of the girl.
12.(d) Because the sex of O is not known.
13.(b) Uncle of Naman's son is the brother of Naman. Hence, as
per information, the son of man is brother of Naman. Therefore,
the man (in the park) is related as father to Naman.
14.(d)Given: D is the brother of B.
From statement 1, we can detect that D is son of C (son of D is
the grandson of C).
From statement 2, we can detect that B is 'Female' (sister of D).
Therefore, B is daughter of C.
15.(a) From the information given in the question, it is concluded
that Sohanji is the father of Rohit, and brother of Reeta, who is
the mother of Indu. Therefore, Sohanji is the mother's brother of
Indu or maternal uncle.
16. (a) Granddaughter of one's uncle is related as niece to the
person.
17.(d)The man in the photo is the son of the sister of Bajpai.
Hence, Bajpai is the maternal uncle of the man in the
photograph.
18.(e)The mother of Raman's brother's sister is the mother of
Raman and only daughter of Raman's mother means Raman's
sister. Hence, the person in the photograph is related as sister to
Raman.
19.(b)Father's wife → mother. Hence, the daughter of the
mother means sister and sister's younger brother means
brother. Therefore, the boy is the brother of Deepak.
20.(d) Father of Deepak's daughter's is daughter's father is the
father of Deepak and brother of father is the uncle. Hence,
gentleman is related as Uncle to Deepak.
21.(b)'The only daughter of the father of X's mother' means
mother of X.Hence X is the son of the lady in the photograph.
22.(e)Sister of Vijay's brother is Vijay's sister and father of his
sister is Vijay's father. Again daughter of Vijay's father is Vijay's
sister. Hence, woman in the photograph is related as sister to
Vijay.
23.(d)Ashok is the only brother of Sudeep and Veena is the
sister-in-law of Ashok. Hence Veena is the wife of Sudeep.
Kalyani is the mother-in-law of Veena. Kalyani is the mother of
Ashok.
24.(c)It is very clear from the information that Pushpa is cousin
sister of that boy.
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UNIT-11 : ANALYTICAL REASONING
INTRODUCTION
All questions of Reasoning, whether logical or numerical, which require a systematic analysis of information given with the question for its
solution, fall under this category of this chapter. Some questions of this type have already been covered in previous chapters- comparison
of ranks and sitting arrangement. However, we have identified a different range of these questions and tried to incorporate all possible
variety of these questions in this chapter. Though there exists no set formulae to solve this kind of problems, yet a systematic approach, an
ability to reason logically and a lot of practice can be helpful in solving these questions.

Type 1 (Complex Arrangement)

Unlike questions of sitting arrangements also called linear arrangement, here we deal with two or more characteristics of an object.
Questions on complex arrangements can be solved easily with the help of truth table.
Following examples will help students to identify the pattern of these questions and develop methodology to crack such problems.

Example 1-3: Read the following information and choose, the right alternate for the questions given afterwards.
Four young men Raj, Sunder, Tarun, and Upal are married to Rekha, Sunita, Tara and Uma and couples live in Rampur, Sanchi, Tirupati and
Udhampur.
(i) The first letter of names of men, their wives and cities does not match.
(ii) Sunita is not Raj's wife.
(iii) Sunder does not live in Rampur or Udhampur and is not Rekha's husband,
(iv) Upal and Tara do not live in Sanchi.
1.Which pair given below is right combination of wife and city for Tarun ?
(a) Sunita, Tirupati (b) Tara, Sanchi (c) Uma, Rampur (d) Rekha, Sanchi (e) None of these
2.Who among the following is the wife of Upal?
(a) Rekha (b) Sunita (c) Tara (d) Uma (e) Cannot be determined
3.Which of the following is the correct pair of husband and wife?
(a) Upal, Sunita (b) Raj, Tara (c) Sunder, Uma (d) None of these (e) All of these

Solution:Here we have three components-husband, wife and city. Arrange these components in truth table with husband in column and
wife & city in row as given below :
Husband Wives City
Rekha Sunita Tara Uma Ramp. Sanc. Tiru. Udham
Raj X X √ X X X X √
Sunder X X X √ X X √ X
Tarun √ X X X X √ X X
Upal x √ X X √ X X X
•From the first information, it can be concluded that Raj cannot be married with Rekha and does not live in Rampur, Sunder cannot be
married with Sunita nor does he live in sanchi, Tarun cannot be married with Tara nor does he live in Tirupati and Upal cannot be married
with Uma nor does he live in Udhampur. On the basis of this information, cross the respective block.
•Using second information, cross the possibility of matching of Sunita with Raj.
•Third information rules out the matching of Sunder with Rampur, Udhampur and Rekha.
•Fourth information rules out the matching of Upal with Sanchi. The part of this information, which denies the matching of Tara and Sanchi
cannot be used in the table now unless the husband of Tara is known. So, keep the information to be used later on.
•After using all the information, we see that only city left in front of Sunder is Tirupati', so mark (V) in the block in
•front of Sunder, crossing other blocks of rows and columns of city to ensure one to one matching. As a result, we know that Upal lives in
Rampur.
•Using first and fourth information again in the table, we get the final matching of husband, wife and city as below:
Husbands Tarun Upal Raj Sunder
Wives Rekha Sunita Tara Uma
Cities Sanchi Rampur Udhampur Tirupati
On the basis of above table, we can answer the questions as below:
1.The correct matching of pairs is Rekha and Sanchi. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
2.The wife of Upal is Sunita. Hence, correct answer is (b).
3.All the combinations given in the alternatives are correct. Therefore, correct option is (e).

Type 2 (Conditions and Grouping)

It is another very important type of Analytical Reasoning. Here, is this section certain conditions in the form of information are given in the
question. These conditions have to be analysed while solving these questions. The following examples will make the type of these
questions clear.

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 Example 4-7: Read the following information given below and answer the questions that follow.
In an engineering college, there are three departments- civil, mechanical and electrical. There are, in all, 20 faculties. Of
them, five are male professors (A, H, I, O and P), seven are male lecturers (B, C, D, J, K, Q and R), three are female professors (E, L and S)
and five are female lecturers (F, G, M, N and T). Civil department has the staff members from A to G. Mechanical department has staff
members from HtoN electrical department has staff members from OtoT. Different teams are to be formed out of these staff members
as per the following conditions:
I. No male lecturer in civil department can be grouped with any female lecturer in electrical department.
II. No female professor can be grouped with any male lecturer.
4.A committee of six members is to be formed with one professor and one lecturer each from each department. There must be a
minimum of two female members in this committee. Which of the following combinations is possible ?
(a) A, I, P, B, L, N (b) H, I, P, E, L, T (c) A, H, O, F, S, T (d) A, F, H, M, S, T
Solution :As given in the condition that BCD cannot be with T and ELS cannot be with BCDJKQR. Option (a) is not valid as no lecturer from
electrical department is there. Option (b) is not valid as no lecturer from civil department is there. Option (c) is not valid as no lecturer
from mechanical department is thSre. Option (d) complies with all the conditions and hence, is a valid option.
5.A delegation of ladies is to be sent abroad to attend seminar. Any professor in mechanical department is not ready to join with any lecturer
in civil department. The delegation should have minimum three professors. Further, every department must be represented in the
delegation. Which of the following combinations is possible ?
(a) E, L, S,F, G, N (b) A, H, D, E, L, S (c) F, L, N, T, S, M (d) E, L, S, M, N, T
Solution : According to the question, following three conditions must be complied with HIL cannot go with BCDFG ……(i)
The delegation must have minimum three professors ……. (ii)
Representation from every department must also be there ……….(iii)
Option (a) is not valid as it violates condition (i)
Option (b) violates condition (i)
Option (c) also violates condition (i)
Option (d) complies with all the conditions and hence, is the correct option.

6. A joint committee of five members is to be formed from the faculties of civil and electrical department only. The committee
must have minimum two professors and two lecturers. There should be at least two female members in the committee which of the
following combinations is not possible?
(a)S,T,D,0,R (b)A,B,0,R,T (c) A, O, R, G, T (d) A, O, B, G, T
Solution:Conditions given in the question can be summarised as below:Only civil and electrical department must be used ... (i)
Committee must have two professors and two lecturers... (ii)
There should be at least two female members in it ……(iii)
Option (a) complies with all the conditions and hence follow.
Option (b) is not valid as it has only one female member.
Options (c) and (d) comply with all the conditions and hence follow.
Therefore, option (b) is our answer.

7. A department committee is to be formed in mechanical department only. There should be 4 members in the committee
and one of them must be a lady. The committee must include the head of department, professor I. However, he cannot work with either L or N.
Further, M cannot work with either N or J. Which of the following combinations is possible ?
(a) I, M, L, N (b) I, M, H, K (c) I, H, J, K (d) H, J, M, N
Solution : Conditions given in the question can be listed as below:
Only mechanical department people are used in forming thecommittee (i)
I.mustbeoneofthe members ... (ii)
I. cannot work with L or N .... (iii)
One must be a lady out of the four members .... (iv)
M cannot work with N or J ...... (v)
Option (a) is not valid as it violates condition (v). Option (b) is valid as two ladies J and K are there. Option (d) is not valid as it violates condition
(v). Hence, option (b) is our answer as it complies with all the conditions

Type 3 (Family Tree)

Family tree analytical problems mainly deal with the hierarchical structure of a family, i.e., grandparents, parents, children etc. Various
relationships between the family members of two or three generations are given in the form of paragraph or points. All different segments
have to be put together and make a family chart in order to solve questions. Another type of questions carry professions, hobbies and
other characteristics along with the various relationship between the family members. In these questions, one is required to establish the
relationship within a whole family and not between the two persons. For this, one should have the ability to draw a family tree which is
essential in order to easily solve such problems. To make a family tree, certain notations are used to indicate a relationship between the

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members of a family. It is not necessary to use these symbols while solving questions. Students can make their own notations according to
their convenience. Notations/Symbols
1. A is male A 2. A is a Female A 3. Sex of A is unknown A 4. A and B are married to each other A <=> B
5. A and B are siblings A <—> B 6. B and C are A's children
A

B C
7. A is the uncle/aunt of B
A

B
8. A is the only child of B B

A
Example 8-12 : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on them.
(i) P,QR,S,T, and U are six members of a family. Out of six members, three are male members.
(ii) There are two married couples among them.
(iii) R is the father of P and U and T is the mother of R.
(iv) P is the granddaughter of Q.
8.Which of the following pairs is one of the married couples?
(a)TU (b)QS (c)TQ (d) PU (e) None of these
(c) Daughter
9.Who is the husband of T?
(a)Q (b)R (c)U (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
10.How Q is related to U ?
(a) Brother (b) Grand father (c) Husband (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
11.How U is related to P?
(a) Sister (b) Son (c)Daughter (d) Father (e) None of these
12.Which of the following is a group of male members?
(a) QST (b) PUQ (c) SRU (d) QRU (e) None of these

Solution: Information (iii) can be represented as

T

P U
From information (iv), it is noted that P is a female and Q is the grandfather of P and husband of T. This additional information can be added
to the figure as below:
T Q

P U
From information (ii), it is known that there are two married couples. Hence, the remaining member of the family S would
be the wife of R. From information (i), there are three male members, hence U would be male. Therefore, the final family tree can be
drawn as below:
Q T 1st generation

R S 2nd generation

P U 3rd generation
Now, on the basis of the above family tree, we can answer the questions.
8.(c) TQ is one of the married couples. Hence, option (c) is our
9.(a) Q is the husband of T. 10.(b) Q is the grandfather of U. 11.(e)U is the brother of P.
12.(d) QRU is the group of male members.

Example 13-16: Study the following information to answer the given questions.
(i) J, K, L, M, N and O are six family members having different professions.
(ii) There are two married couples in the family.

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(iii) M is a doctor and his wife is an engineer.
(iv) J is the granddaughter of O and sister of L, who is a typist.
(v) K is the grandfather of L and is married to a teacher.
(vi) J's mother, who is an engineer is the daughter-in-law of a lawyer.
13.What is the profession of J ?
(a) Teacher (b) Lawyer (c) Engineer (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
14.Which of the following is one of the married couples?
(a) KN (b) MO (c) KM (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
15.Who is the wife of M ?
(a) N (b) O (c) J (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
16.How many male members are there in the family?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
Solution: With the help of the information given in the question, we can draw a family tree and also the profession of each can be
determined. It is clear from all the information that there are three generations. From information (iii), we get

From information (V), we get

From information (vi), we know that J's mother,. who is an engineer, is the daughter-in-law of a lawyer, hence profession of K is a lawyer.
Using informations (ii) and (iv), we can complete the family tree as under:
K<
i Lawyer Teacher
M <= Doctor
Engineer
Professor of J and sex of L cannot be determined. On the basis of above analysis, we can now answer the questions very easily .
13. (d) Profession of J cannot be determined and correct option is (d).
14.(e) From the family tree, we get two married couples as KOand MF. Hence, our answer is (e).
15.(a) The wife of M is N. Hence, our answer is (a).
16.(d) Since sex of L is not known, we cannot say how many male members are there in the family. Hence, our answer is (d).

EXERCISE
Directions (Q. 1-5) : Read the following information and choose
the right alternate for the questions given afterwards. Directions (Q. 6-10) : Read the information given in the
The sports week of an institute was organized from 19th to 26th questions and on the basis of the information, select the correct
of a month, 19th being a Wednesday. During that period six alternative for each question given after the information. An
games-Volleyball (V), Rugby Football (R), Table-Tennis (T), Kho- University has to conduct a refresher course for Teacher of seven
Kho (K), Handball (H) and Basketball (B) were played, one game different subjects—Mechanics, Psychology, Philosophy,
on each day. Further information : Sociology, Economics, Science and Engineering from 22nd July to
(I) Handball was not played on the closing day, i.e., on 26th. 29th July.
(II)Table-Tennis was played on the previous day of Volleyball. (I)Course should start with Psychology.
(III)Basketball was not played either on Wednesday or Saturday. (II)23rd July, being Sunday, should be a holiday.
(IV)No game was played on Thursday and Sunday. (III)Science subject should be on the previous day of the
(V) Kho-Kho was played on Monday. Engineering subject.
(VI)There was a gap of two days between Volleyball and (IV)Course should end with Mechanics subject.
Basketball. (V)Philosophy should be immediately after holiday.
1.The sports week started with which game ? (VI)There should be a gap of one day between Economics and
(a) Table-Tennis (b) Volleyball (c) Kho-Kho Engineering.
(d) Handball (e) None of these (VII)There should be a gap of two days between Sociology and
2.How many day's gap is, there between Handball and Basketball Economics.
? 6.The refresher course will start with which one of the following
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Two (e) None subjects ?
3.Which pair of games was played on Wednesday ? (a) Psychology (b) Mechanics (c) Philosophy
(a)Handball and Rugby Football (b)Handball and Volleyball (d) Economics (e) Cannot be determined
(c)Volleyball and Table Tennis 7.Which subject will be on Tuesday ?
(d)Cannot be determined (e)None (a) Mechanics (b) Engineering (c) Economics
4.Which game exactly precedes Kho-Kho ? (d) Psychology (e) None of these
(a) Handball (b) Basketball (c) Volleyball 8.Which subject is followed by Science ?
(d) Table-Tennis (e) None of these (a)Psychology (b)Philosophy (c)Economics
5.Table-Tennis follows which game ? (d)Engineering (e)None of these
(a)Handball (b)Volleyball (c)Table Tennis 9.Which subject precedes Mechanics ?
(d)None of these (e)Cannot be determined (a) Economics (b) Engineering (c) Philosophy

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(d) Psychology (e) None of these (a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e)E
10.How many days gap is there between Science and Philosophy 19.Who is the hockey player ?
? (a)E (b)D (c)C (d)B (e)A
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) No gap (e) None 20.Who is the Volleyball player ?
(a)D (b)A (c)E (d)C (e)B
Directions (Q. 11-13) : Read the information given below and 21.Who is the wife of E ?
then answer the questions based on them. (a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e) Data inadequate
Out of four persons Arjun, Bhim, Chintu and Dhiraj, two are 22.Which of the following is the correct group of ladies ?
interested in Volleyball, two in Cricket, two are Painters, one is a (a) A, B & C (b) B, C & D (c) A, B & D
Singer and one is Dancer. Each young man has one outdoor (d) A, C & D (e) None of these
interest and one hobby concerned with fine arts.
(I)Arjun is not a painter nor does he play Volleyball. Directions (Q. 23-25) : Study the following information and
(II)Bhim does not dance. answer the questions based on them.
(III)The dancer plays Volleyball. (I)There is a group of five persons Anil, Bittu, Chetan, Dharm and
(IV)Bhim and Dhiraj do not play cricket. Eshan.
11.Who among the following plays Cricket and is interested in (II)One of them is a Horticulturist, one is Physicist, one is
painting? Journalist, one is an Industrialist and one is an Advocate.
(a) Arjun (b) Bhim (c) Chintu (III)Three of them Anil, Chetan and the Advocate prefer tea to
(d) Arjun and Chintu (e) Bhim and Dhiraj coffee and two of them Bittu and the Journalist prefer coffee to
12.Who among the following is a Singer ? tea.
(a) Dhiraj (b) Arjun (c) Chintu (IV)The Industrialist, Dharm and Anil are friends of one another
(d) Bhim (e) None of these but two of them prefer coffee to tea.
13.Which pair shows the correct relationship of the game and (V)The Horticulturist is Chetan's brother.
hobby of Dhiraj ? 23.Who is an Industrialist ?
(a) Cricket, Singing (b) Cricket , Painting (a) Anil (b) Bittu (c) Chetan (d) Dharm (e) None of these
(c) Cricket, Dancing (d) Volleyball, Dancing 24.Which of the following groups include a person who likes tea
(e) Volleyball, Singing but is not an Advocate ?
(a) Anil Chetan Eshan (b) Bittu Chetan Eshan
Directions (Q. 14-17) : Read the following information carefully (c) Dharm Eshan (d) Bittu Dharm (e) None of
and answer the questions based on them. these
(I) U, V, W, X, Y and Z are six members in the family. There are 25.Who is the person who likes coffee but is not the Journalist ?
two pair of couples in the group. (a) Anil (b) Bittu (c)Chetan (d) Dharm (e) Eshan
(II) There are two CA, one Teacher, one Sociologist and two
Artists. Both the CA are of the same sex Directions (Q. 26-28) : Read the following information carefully
(III) U and W are in the same profession. to answer the questions given below it:
(IV) The Teacher is married to the CA and the Artist is married to The annual gathering of a school was organized on a day in the
lady Sociologist. morning hours. Six different items, viz., drama, singing, mimicry,
(V)U is an Artist. Y is a male CA. Both of them are unmarried. speech, story-telling and dance are to be performed by six
(VI)Z is V's husband. children P, Q, R, S, T and U not necessarily in the same order. The
14.Who is married with the Teacher ? programmed begins with song not sung by Q and ends with
(a) Z (b) W (c) Y (d) V (e) None of these dance. R performs mimicry immediately after speech. T performs
15.Who is Sociologist by profession ? drama just before dance. S or U is not available for the last
(a)V (b)Z (c) W (d) Can't be determined performance. Speech is not given by P. An interval of 30 minutes
(e) None of these is given immediately after mimicry with three more items
16.Which of the followings are the pairs of couples ? remaining to be performed. S performs immediately after
(a) ZX and VX (b) WX and ZV (c) WX and ZX interval.
(d) Can't be determined (e) None of these 26.Which item is performed by U ?
17.What is the profession of V ? (a)Drama (b)Song (c)Speech
(a) CA (b) Teacher (c) Sociologist (d)Story telling (e)Either Song or Speech
(d) Artist (e) None of these 27.Who performed dance?
(a) P (b)Q (c) U (d) Data inadequate
Directions (Q. 18-22) : Read the information carefully and (e) None of these
answer the questions based on them. 28.Who was the first performer ?
There are five persons A, B, C, D and E. One is Table Tennis (a) P (b)Q (c) R (d) Data inadequate
player, one is Volleyball player, one is hockey player. A and D are (e) None of these
unmarried ladies and do not participate in any game. None of
the ladies plays Volleyball or Table Tennis. There is a married Directions (Q. 29-31) : Read the following information carefully
couple in which E is the husband. B is the brother of C and is to answer the questions given below it
neither a Volleyball player nor a hockey player. (I) Five dance forms Contemporary (C), Bollywood (B), Hip-Hop
18.Who is the Table Tennis player ? (H), Robotics (R), and Kathak (K) each of one month duration, are

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to be learned from January to May one after the other, though (d) Robotics (e) None of these
not necessarily in the same order, by Mentor's P,Q,R,S, and T 30.Which Mentor's dance forms follows by Bollywood
(II) P Mentor's Bollywood but not in the month of April or May. immediately ?
(III)Q Mentor's Contemporary in the month of March. (a) Q (b) P (c)S (d) T (e) None of these
(IV)R Mentor's in the month of January but does not Mentor's 31.Which dance form is Mentor in the month of January ?
Hip-Hop or Robotics. (a) Hip-Hop (b)Robotics (c)Kathak
29.Which dance form is Mentor by S ? (d)Data inadequate (e)None of these
(a) Hip-Hop (b) Kathak (c) Either Hip-Hop or Robotics
Directions (Q. 32-37) : Read the following information and answer (d)Leather, Silk (e) Silk, Cotton
the questions based on them Five ships A, B, C, D and E are to be 40. If Silk is chosen, which of the following could be chosen ?
unloaded on 5 consecutive days beginning from Monday to Friday. (a) Jute, Leather (b) Jute, Cotton (c) Wool, Leather
(I) Each ship takes exactly one day to unload. (d) Leather, Cotton (e) Cotton, Georgette
(II) B must be unloaded on the day, preceding the day on which D
and E are unloaded. Directions (Q. 41-47) : Read the following information and then
(III) C cannot be unloaded on Tuesday. answer the questions based on it:
(IV) D is the second ship to be unloaded after A is unloaded. A sales representative plans to visit each of six companies-Alpha,
32. If D is unloaded on Friday, which one of the following is true ? Beta, Gamma, Yamma, Theta and Delta exactly once during the
(a) A is unloaded on Wednesday course of one day. She is setting up her schedule for the day
(b) B is unloaded on Tuesday according to the following conditions :
(c) C is unloaded on Monday (I) She must visit Alpha before Beta and before Theta.
(d) C is unloaded on Thursday (II) She must visit Beta before Yamma.
(e) E is unloaded on Thursday (III) The third company she visits must be Gamma.
33. If B, D and E are to be unloaded one immediately after the other, 41. Which of the following could be the order in which sales
the two days on which A can be unloaded are representative visits the six companies ?
(a) Monday and Tuesday (b) Monday and Friday (a) Alpha, Theta, Beta, Yamma, Gamma, Delta (b)Alpha, Delta,
(c) Tuesday and Wednesday (d) Wednesday and Friday Gamma, Beta, Theta, Yamma
(e) Thursday and Friday (c)Gamma, Theta, Alpha, Beta, Yamma, Delta
34. If C is unloaded immediately after A, which of the following is (d)Gamma, Delta, Alpha, Theta, Yamma, Beta
true ? (e) Yamma, Beta, Gamma, Theta, Delta, Alpha
(a) A is unloaded on Wednesday 42. Which of the following must be true of the sales
(b) B is unloaded on Monday (c) C is unloaded on Thursday representative's schedule for the day ?
(d) D is unloaded on Friday (e) None of the above (a) She visits Alpha before Yamma
35. If A is unloaded on Monday, then which of the following must be (b) She visits Beta before Theta
true ? (c) She visits Gamma before Alpha
(a) C is unloaded before B (b) C is unloaded before D (d) She visits Gamma before Theta
(c) B is unloaded on Tuesday (e) She visits Yamma before Theta
(d) C is unloaded on Thursday 43. If the sales representative visits Delta first, which company must
(e) E is unloaded on Thursday she visit second ?
36. E can be unloaded on any day of the week except. (a) Alpha (b) Beta (c) Gamma
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (d) Yamma (e)Theta
(d) Thursday (e) Friday 44. Which of the following could be true of the sales
37. On which of the following days, any one of the five ships can be representative's schedule ?
unloaded? (a) She visits Alpha third (b) She visits Beta sixth
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (c) She visits Gamma first (d) She visits Yamma second
(d) Thursday (e) Friday (e) She visits Theta sixth
45. If the sales representative visits Yamma immediately before
Directions (Q. 38-40) : Read the following information and answer Theta and immediately after Delta, she must visit Yamma
the questions based on them (a) First (b) Second (c) Fourth (d) Fifth (e) Sixth
A combination of three fabrics is to be chosen out of seven fabrics- 46. If the sales representative visits Delta sixth, which of the
Jute, Wool, Leather, Linen, Silk, Cotton and Georgette to decorate following could be her Ist and second visits, respectively ?
the room according to the following conditions : (a) Alpha and Yamma (b) Alpha and Theta
(I) If Jute or Wool is chosen, the other must also be chosen. (c) Beta and Alpha (d) Yamma and Gamma
(II) Leather and Linen cannot be chosen together. (e) Yamma and Theta
(III) Either Leather or Jute or both must be chosen. 47. If the sales representative could visit any of the following
38. Which of the following confirms to the conditions ? companies immediately after Gamma except
(a) Jute, Leather, Linen (b) Jute, Silk, Cotton (a) Alpha (b) Beta (c) Yamma (d) Theta (e)Delta
(c)Wool, Leather, Georgette (d) Georgette, Linen, Cotton
(e) Leather, Silk, Georgette Directions (Q. 48-51) : A contractor will build five houses in a certain
39. If Linen is chosen, which of the following could also be chosen ? town in a street that currently has no houses on it. The contractor
(a) Jute, Wool (b) Jute, Georgette (c)Wool, Leather will select from seven different models of houses P, Q, R, S, T, U and

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V. The town's Project board has placed the following restrictions on (VIII)H is the grandmother of M.
the contractor: No model can be selected for more than one house. 59. How is L related to M?
Either model S must be selected or model V, but both cannot be (a) Brother (b) Sister (c) Cousin
selected. (d) Either brother or sister
If model U is selected, model R must also be selected. 60. Which of the following is the profession of I ?
If model Q is selected, model S cannot be selected. (a) Engineer (b) Chartered Accountant
48. If model Q is one of the models selected for the street, which of (c) Businessman (d) Medical representative
the following models must also be selected ? 61. Which of the following is the profession of H?
(a) P (b) S (c) T (d) U (e)V (a) Engineer (b) Chartered Accountant
49. If P, Q and T are three of the models selected for the street, (c) Businessman (d) Officer
which of the following must be the other two models selected ? 62. Which of the following is one of the couples?
(a) R and S (b) R and U (c) R and V (d) S and U (a) MK (b) KI (c)LH (d) None
(e) U and V 63. How is K related to M ?
50. Which of the following is an acceptable combination of models (a) Father (b) Grandfather (c) Uncle (d) Brother
that can be selected for the street ?
(a)P, Q, U, T, U (b)P, Q, T, U, V (c)P, R, T, U, V Directions (Q. 64-67) : Read the information given below and
(d)Q, U, S, T, U (e)U, S, P, U, V answer the questions based on them :
51. If model V is one model not selected for the street, the other In a gathering of 5 siblings, viz., P, Q, R, S and T and 3 friends X, Y
model not selected must be which of the following ? and Z, there are 2 married couples. Among three brothers and two
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S (e)T sisters and friends, at least one brother, one sister and a friend is
single. There cannot be a married couple within the siblings. Both
Directions (Q. 52-53) : L, M, N, O, P and Q are six members of a the brothers P and T are single. R and S are married to their boy
family. L is father of M but M is not his son. N is sibling of M. O is N's friend and girl friend respectively, viz., X and Z.
brother-in-law. P is Q's grandson. Q is N's mother. 64. Whose gender among the following is not definitely known ?
52. How many male members are there in the family ? (a) S (b) Q (c)Z (d) All
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) either (a) or (c) 65. Who among the following is not single ?
53. N is (a) S (b) Q (c) Y (d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) P's uncle (b) M's sister (c) Q's grandchild 66. What percentage of gathering is males ?
(d) either (a) or (b) (a) 50% (b) 62.5% (c) 37.5% (d) Either (a) or (b)
67. If Q is married to Y, then the percentage of females in the
Directions (Q. 54-58): Read the following information and answer gathering is
the questions based on them : A family consists of seven members (a) 50% (b) 62.5% (c) 37.5% (d) Either (a) or (c)
A, B, C, D, E, F & G. There are three married couples. G is an
engineer and father of E. F is grandfather of E and is a contractor. C Directions (Q. 68-72) : Read the given information carefully and
is daughter-in-law of D who is a nurse by occupation,B is E's uncle answer the questions based on them :
who is a Professor. There is one friend, one housewife and one Six members of a family A, B, C, D, E and F are Interior Designing,
Doctor in the family. The student is unmarried and C is the sister-in- Teacher, Associated Consultant , Professor, Writer and Event
law of B. organizer but not in the same order.
54. Who is C's husband ? (I) Writer is the grandfather of F and he is a Interior Designer.
(a)G (b)B (c)E (d) C (II) Teacher D is married to A.
55. Who is E's aunt ? (III) C, who is a Professor, is married to Associated Consultant.
(a) D (b) A (c)C (d) None (IV) B is the mother of F, and E.
56. What is the profession of A ? (V) There are two married couples in the family.
(a) Housewife (b) Nurse (c) Doctor (d) (a) or (c) 68. What is the profession of E ?
57. Which of the following are married couples ? (a)Teacher (b) Interior Designing (c) Event Organizer
(a) AG, BC, FD (b)GE, AB, FD (c)AB, CG, FD (d) None (d) Writer (e) None
58. Which of the following is definitely a group of female members ? 69. How many male members are there in the family ?
(a) ACDE (b) ACE (c) ACD (d) None (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 59-63) : Read the following information carefully and 70. How A is related to E ?
answer the questions given below : (a) Father (b) Grandmother (c) Wife
(I) There is a family of six persons - H, I, J, K, L and M. They are (d) Grandfather (e) None of these
Engineer, businessman, chartered accountant, bank manager, 71. What is the profession of A ?
Officer and Medical representative, not in that order. (a) Teacher (b) Event Organizer
(II) There are two married couples in the family. (c) Associate Consultant (d) Cannot be determined
(III) K, the bank manager, is married to the lady Engineer. (e) None of these
(IV) M, the medical representative, is the son of I and brother of L 72. Who are the two couples in the family ?
(V) J, the chartered accountant, is the daughter-in-law of H. (a) AD and CB (b) AB and CD (c) AE and DE
(VI) The businessman is married to the chartered accountant. (d) AC and BD (e) None of these
(VII) L is an unmarried officer.

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 Directions (Q. 73-76) : Read the information carefully and answer 73. Which among the following is the correct pair of married couples
the questions based on them : ?
In a family of six, there are three men Lalit, Mohan and Naman and (a) Lalit Sonali and Naman Tina
three women Richa, Sonali and Tina. The six are Poet, Consultant, (b) Lalit Richa and Naman Mohan
CA, Engineer, Teacher and Singer by profession but not in same (c) Lalit Tina and Naman Sonali
order. (d) Sonali Mohan and Naman Richa
(I) There are two married couples and two unmarried persons. 74. Who among the following are two unmarried persons ?
(II) Naman is not Richa's husband. (a) Lalit Sonali (b) Lalit Mohan
(III) The Teacher is married to a Consultant. Richa's grandfather is an (c) Lalit Tina (d) Richa Mohan
Engineer. 75. Who is an Poet?
(IV) Mohan is not Lalit's son, nor he is an Poet or Engineer. (a) Richa (b) Mohan
(V) The Consultant is Tina's daughter-in-law. (c) Naman (d) Lalit (e)Tina
(VI) Naman is Tina's son and the Singer's father. 76. How Tina is related to Mohan ?
(VII) Lalit is married to CA. (a) Mother (b) Grandmother (c)Wife
(d) Daughter (e) Daughter-in-law

ANSWERS WITH EXPLAINATION EXERCISE

Directions (Q.1-5)

After substituting information given in No. (I), (III), (IV) and (VI), we
find that Basketball can be played either on Friday or Tuesday. Now
from the information (VI), which states that there is a gap of two
days between Volleyball and Basketball, it is found that this
condition is complied with only if Basketball is played on Tuesday
and Volleyball is played on Saturday. Since as per information Table
Tennis is played on the previous day of Volleyball, hence Table
Tennis is played on Friday.
1. (d) From the table, we conclude that Handball is played on
Wednesday, the opening day.
2. (c) The gap between Handball and Basketball is of 5 days.
3. (a) From the table, we find that Handball and Rugby Football are
played on two Wednesdays.
4. (e) Kho-Kho is played on Monday. From the information, no game
is played on Sunday. Since Sunday exactly precedes Monday, hence
Kho-Kho will be preceded by rest day on which no game is played.
5. (b) Table-Tennis is followed by Volleyball, which is also given in
the information (II).

Directions (Q. 6-10) :

Dates 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Days Sat. Sun. Mon. Tues. Wed. Thur. Fri. Sat.
Subjects Psy. X Philo. Eco. Science Engg. Socio. Mech.
From the information (I), (II), (VI) and (V), we get that Psychology is 7. (c) Economics will be taught on Tuesday,
taught on Saturday, Philosophy on Monday and Mechanics is taught 8. (c) Economics is followed by Science.
on Saturday. Now from the combination of information (III), (VI) and 9. (e) Sociology is taught before Mechanics and hence,
(VII), we get an order as shown in the table. Sociology precedes Mechanics.
6. (a) The refresher course will start with subject Psychology. 10. (a) From the table, it is clear that there is a gap of one day
between Science and Philosophy.
Directions (Q. 11-13):

On the basis of the information (I) and (IV), we conclude that Bhim 11. (c) Chintu is interested in Cricket as well as Painting.
and Dhiraj play Volleyball, and Arjun and Chintu play Cricket. From 12. (b) From the above table, we find that Arjun is a Singer.
information (II) and (III), we find that Dhiraj plays Volleyball and also 13. (d) Dhiraj is interested in Volleyball and Dancing. Therefore,
Dances. Bhim and Chintu are interested in Painting. option (d) is our answer.

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Directions (Q. 14-17): Since U and Y are unmarried, the two couples will be (Z-V) and (W-X). U and W will be Artists out of which W is
married and U is unmarried. Now from the information (IV), (V) and (VI), we get that W, the male Artist, is married to X, a lady Sociologist
& Z, male CA, is married to V, a female Teacher.

14. (a) Male CA. Z is married to Female Teacher V. 15. (e) Female X is Sociologist.
16. (b) WX and ZV are the married couples. 17. (b) Profession of V is Teacher

Directions (Q. 18-22) : Out of five persons A, B, C, D, E - A & D are unmarried ladies. B is the male member as he is brother of C. E is a/so
male as he is the husband. Therefore, C will be married lady as there is one married couple in the group. Now on the basis of the
information, we get following results.

18. (b) Since B neither plays Ludo nor hockey, he will play Table 20. (c) E will play the left over game, i.e., ludo.
Tennis. 21. (c) C is the wife of E.
19. (c) As per information, none of ladies plays either Ludo or Table 22. (d) Since C is the wife of E, hence out of the five persons, group
Tennis. Therefore, C will play hockey. of A, C and D is a group of women.

Directions (Q. 23-25) : The information given in the question can be presented as below:

23. (e) U can perform either song or speech. 25. (d) Either P or U may be the first performer. Hence, data are
24. (d) Either P or Q can perform Dance. Hence, data are inadequate inadequate to answer the question.
to answer the question.

Directions (Q. 26-28) : On the basis of information given in question, we can make the following table : -

26. (c) It is clear from the table that S can mentor either 27. (a) Course Bollywood is mentors in the month of Feb. and Q
Contemporary or Robotics. mentors Contemporary in the month of March. Hence, Q follows
Bollywood.
28. (c)Kathak is mentor in the month of January.

29. (a) It is given D is unloaded on Friday. Now as per condition (IV),
A is automatically unloaded on Wednesday.
30. (a) A is unloaded either on Monday or Tuesday.
31. (b) B will be unloaded on Monday only because B is followed by
D and E.
32. (c) If A is unloaded on Monday, D will be unloaded on
Wednesday (condition IV). Since B has to always come before D, B
will be unloaded on Tuesday.
33. (e) Option (a) violates condition (II), options (b) and (c) violate
condition (I), option (d) violates condition (III). Hence, option (e) is
our answer
34. (a) With one of the Fabrics as Linen, we have following
combinations:
Option (a): Linen Jute Wool - Complies with all conditions.
Option (b): Linen Jute Georgette -Violates condition (I)
Option (c): Linen Wool Leather -Violates condition (I)
Option (d): Linen Leather Silk -Violates condition (II)
Option (e): Jute Silk Cotton - Violates condition (III)
35. (d) With Silk as one of the Fabrics, we have following
combinations:
Option (a): Silk Jute Leather - Violates condition (I)
Option (b): Silk Jute Cotton -Violates condition (I)

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Option (c): Silk Wool Leather - Violates condition (I)
Option (d): Silk Leather Cotton - Complies with all conditions
Option (e): Silk Cotton Georgette - Violates condition (III)
36. (b) According to the schedule of visit, Gamma must be in third
place and the order Alpha, Beta and Yamma must not be violated.
Hence, the only valid order of visit is Alpha, Delta, Gamma, Beta,
Theta, Yamma.
37. (a) It is very clear that she visits Alpha before Beta and Beta
before Yamma. So, she must visit Alpha before Yamma.
38. (a) Of the six companies, if Delta is first, Gamma is third and the
orders Alpha Beta Yamma and Alpha Theta are followed. Clearly,
Alpha must be visited second.
39. (a) It is given in the question itself. All other options are not
definitely true.
40. (d) If Yamma is visited just before Theta and immediately after
Delta, the order followed will be Alpha, Beta, Delta, Yamma, Theta.
Since Gamma must be in 3rd place, so we have Alpha, Beta,
Gamma, Yamma, Theta i.e., Yamma will be visited fifth
41. (b) Option (b) is the only combination of first and second visit
which confirms to the schedule given in the question.
42. (a) Because Alpha to has be before Beta and Theta, and Beta
before Yamma.
43. (e) If model Q is selected, then V will also be selected.
44. (c) Following the restrictions, if P, Q and T are selected, then R
and V will also be selected.
45. (c) P, U, T, U, V complies all the conditions.
46. (b) If V is selected, Q is also selected. If V is not selected, then Q
is not selected.

Directions (Q. 47-48) : The family tree for these questions can be drawn as under:
L Q
N M O
P
47. (d) Sex of N is not known, hence there may be either 3 or 4 male members in a family.
48. (d) Again sex of N is not known, hence he may be either P's uncle of M's sister.
Directions (Q. 49-54) : On the basis of information given in the question, we can draw the family tree as below :
Sheena Ravi

Rita Sunil Jatin

Ritik Disha
Mahesh Rakhi
Dipesh
Ritu Neha

49. (c) There are three married couples in the second generation.
50. (b) Clearly, Dipesh is Ravi's grandson.
51. (d) None of the options follows.
52. (d) Mahesh and Rakhi is the married couple in the second generation.
53. (b) Rita is Ritu's aunt.
54. (c) Ravi is paternal grandfather of Ritu.
Directions (Q. 55-) : With the help of the information given in the question, we can draw the family tree as below:

55. (a) G is C's husband. 56. (c) C is E's aunt.

57. (d) A can be a Doctor or a housewife.
58. (c) AB, GC & FD are the three married couples.
59. (c) A, C & D are definitely female members. E can be male or female.
Directions (Q. 60-63) : Using information given in the question, family tree can be drawn as under :

60. (d) Since sex of P is not known, hence it may be either brother or sister.
61. (c) M is a businessman. 16. (a) L is a Engineer.

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62. (d) None of the options gives the correct pair of married couple.
63. (b) O is the grandfather of Q.
Directions (Q. 64-67) : Following are the conditions given in the question. The family tree can be prepare as under :

64. (c) The sex of Y is not known. 65. (a) S is single.

66. (d) If Y is a male, then required % = (5/8) x 100 = 62.5% If Y is a female, then required % = (4/8) x 100 = 50% Hence, option (d) is our
answer.
67. (c) Since Y is married to Q, a female, hence Y has to the a male. Hence, required % of females = 3/8 = 37.5% Hence, option (c) is our
answer.
Directions (Q. 68-72) : As per information, there are two married couple the family. One of the two pairs is D (Teacher) (Writer) and
another would be C (Professor) (Associated Consultant). E and F would be brother and sister, their sex are unknown. And finally we have
three generation's relationship as under :
(Grandparents) I — A (Writer) D (Teacher)
(Parents) II — C (Professor)B (Associated Consultant)
(Children) III — F (Interior Designer) E (Event Organizer)
68. (c) E is Event organizer by profession.
69. (d) Since determined, male members in the family cannot be determined.
70. (d) A is the grx of Interior Designer and Event Organizer cannot be and father of E.
71. (e) A is Writer by profession.
72. (a) Two couples in the family are AD and CB.
Directions (Q. 73-76): Engineer is the grandfather of R, therefore, R will be in third generation and Engineer will be in first generation. Now,
it is given that Teacher is married to Consultant and Consultant is T's daughter-in-law. From here, it is clear that one of the married couples
is Teacher-Consultant and is in the second generation. T is the wife of the Engineer in the first generation. From the information (II) and
(VII), we conclude that married couples are L-T and N-R and the final family tree is as below :
(Grant Parents) (I) L (Engineer) -T (C.A)
(Parents) (II) N (Teacher) -S (Consultant)
(Children) (III) R (Poet) - M (Singer)
73. (c) Married couples are LT and NS.
74. (d) R and M are unmarried persons.
75. (a) R is the Poet.
76. (b) T is the grandmother of M.

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UNIT-12 # Syllogism
Introduction
Logical Reasoning is an indispensable feature of all competitive exams and tests a candidate's basic intelligence and aptitude. Syllogism is
an important section of logical reasoning and hence its comprehension needs more than normal attention on the part of the candidate. The
term syllogism means inference or conclusion drawn from the statements.
The questions of syllogism can be solved with the help of venn-diagram and some rules designed with the help of analytical approach.
Some are of the opinion that venn-diagram can be of great use for solving questions of syllogism. No doubt a few questions can be solved
with the help of venn-diagrams, but venn-diagrams alone do not help the students to solve variety of questions of syllogism. Even common
sense also will not be of much help in working out certain difficult type of questions. Only the basic concepts and rules, which have a
bearing on reasoning faculty alone help. We have discussed these rules with illustrations in the coming paragraphs. To proceed further for
the study of rules, we must first know some terminology used in syllogism.
Proposition
A proposition, also known as a premises, as a grammatical sentence which comprises a subject, a predicate and a copula. A subject is that
which affirms or denies a fact. Predicate is a term which states something about a subject and copula establishes relationship between
subject and predicate.
A proposition can mainly be divided into three categories :
Classification of Proposition
' Propositions

Categorical Hypothetical Disjunctive

Proposition proposition Proposition
(a) Categorical Proposition : In categorial proposition, there exists a relationship between subject and a predicate without any
condition. It means predicate is either affirmation or denial of the subject unconditionally.
Examples : (I) All cups are plates (II) No girl is boy
(b)Hypothetical Proposition : In hypothetical proposition, relationship between subject and predicate is asserted conditionally.
Examples : (I) If it rains, he will not come. (II) If he comes, I will accompany him.
(c)Disjunctive Proposition : In disjunctive proposition, the assertion is of alteration.
Examples : (I) Either he is honest or he is loyal. (II) Either he is educated or he is illiterate
Keeping in view the existing pattern of syllogism in competitive exams, we are concerned only with the categorical type of proposition.
Types of Categorical Proposition
Categorical proposition has been classified on the basis of quality and quantity of proposition. Quality denotes whether the proposition is
affirmative or negative. Quantity represents whether the proposition is universal or particular.
The four-fold classification of categorical proposition can be summarised as under:
Symbol Proposition Quantity Quality
A All A are:B Universal Affirmative
E No A is B Universal Negative
I Some A are B Particular Affirmative
0 Some A are not B Particular Negative
To draw valid inferences from the statement, a student is required to have a clear understanding of A, E, I, O relationship.

Exercise I
Directions (Q. 1 -15) : In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a)if only conclusion I follows. (b)if only conclusion II follows. (c)if either I or II follows.
(d)if neither I nor II follows. (e)if both I and II follow.
I. Statements 1.Some players are singers. Conclusions I. Some fruits are vegetables.
2.All singers are tall. II. No vegetable is black.
Conclusions I. Some players are tall. 4. Statements 1.Some fools are intelligent.
II. All players are tall. 2.Some intelligent are great.
2. Statements 1.Some hats are caps. Conclusions I. Some fools are great.
2.Some caps are mats. II. All great are intelligent.
Conclusions I. Some caps are hats. 5. Statements 1.All stones are water.
II. Some mats are caps. 2.Some waters are clean.
3. Statements 1.Some vegetables are fruits. Conclusions I. Some stones are clean.
2.No fruit is black. II. No stone is clean.

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6. Statements 1.All keys are locks. 11. Statements 1.All cars are cats.
2.All locks are screws. 2.All fans are cats.
Conclusions I. All screws are keys. Conclusions : I. All cars are fans.
II. Some locks are keys. II. Some fans are cars.
7. Statements 1.Some books are pens. 12. Statements :1. Some scooters are trucks.
2.No pen is pencil. 2. All trucks are trains.
Conclusions I. Some books are pencils. Conclusions : I. Some scooters are trains.
II. No book is a pencil. II. No truck is a scooter.
8. Statements 1.All dogs are monkeys. 13. Statements :1. All pencils are pens.
2.No monkey is a cat. 2. No pen is a book.
Conclusions I. No dog is a cat. Conclusions : I. No pencil is a book.
II. No cat is a dog. II. Some pens are pencils.
9. Statements 1.Some phones are watches. 14. Statements :1. Some rats are rabbits.
2.All watches are guns. 2. All rats are mosquitoes.
Conclusions I. All guns are watches. Conclusions : I. Some mosquitoes are rabbits.
II. Some guns are phones. II. No rabbit is mosquito.
10. Statements 1.All umbrellas are aeroplanes. 15. Statements :1. All fans are cups.
2.Some aeroplanes are birds. 2. All cups are pillows
Conclusions I. Some umbrellas are birds. Conclusions : I. All fans are pillows.
II. Some birds are umbrellas. II. All pillows are fans.
Exercise II
Directions (Q. 1 -10) : In each question below, there are two or three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
1.Statements : Some singers are rockers. 5.Statements : All hunters are punters.
All rockers are westerners. Some punters are tigers.
Conclusions: I. Some rockers are singers. Conclusions : I. Some hunters are tigers.
II. Some westerners are rockers. II. All tigers are punters.
III. Some singers are westerners. III. Some punters are hunters.
IV Some singers are not westerners, IV No punters are hunters,
(a) I, II and III follow (b) I, II and IV follow (a) I and II follow (b) II and III follow
(c) II, III and IV follow (d) I, HI and IV follow (c) I and III follow (d) II and IV follow
(e) All follow (e) None of these
2.Statements : All cats are bulls. 6. Statements : Some boxes are dogs.
Some bulls are dogs. All dogs are pens.
Conclusions: I. All bulls are cats. Conclusions : I. Some boxes are pens.
II. Some cats are dogs. II. Some pens are boxes.
III. No cats are dogs. III. Some 88pens are dogs.
IV Some bulls are cats. IV All pens are dogs.
(a) Only IV follows (b) Only III follows (a) I, II and III follow (b) II, III and IV follow
(c) Only II follows (d) IV and II follow (c) I, III and IV follow (d) I, II and IV follow
(e) IV and either II or HI follow (e) All follow
3.Statements : All pigs are elephants. 7.Statements : All bricks are tricks.
No pigs are bakers. Some tricks are bicks.
Conclusions : I. Some bakers are not pigs. Conclusions : I. No brick is a bick.
II. Some pigs are not bakers. II. Some bricks are bicks.
2III. Some elephants are not bakers. III. Som8e bicks are tricks.
IV Some bakers are not elephants, IV Some tricks are not bicks.
(a) I, II and III follow (b) I, II and IV follow (a)Only II follows (b)Only II and IV follow
(c) I, III and IV follow (d) II, III and IV follow (c)Only II and III follow (d)Either I or II follows
(e) All follow (e)Either I or II and III follow
4.Statements: All nibs are tips. 8.Statements : Some gardens are wardens.
Many nibs are ribs. All gardens are locks.
Conclusions : I. Some nibs are tips. Conclusions : I. Some locks are not wardens.
II. Some tips are nibs. II. Some locks are wardens.
III. All nibs are ribs. III. No lock is a warden.
IV Some nibs are not ribs, IV Some locks are gardens.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II Mows (a)Only I follows (b)Only II and IV follow
(c) Either II or IV follows (d) I and II follow (c)Either I or II follows (d)Either I or II and IV follow
(e) I and II and either III or IV follow (e)Either I or II and III follow

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9.Statements: Some charts are darts.
All darts are carts.
Some carts are smarts.
Conclusions : I. Some charts are carts.
II. Some carts are darts.
III. Some darts are smarts.
IV Some smarts are charts.
(a) Only I and HI follow (b) Only II and III follow
(c) I and II follow (d) I, III and IV follow
(e) None of the above
10.Statements : All boxes are tables.
No desks are tables.
Some desks are curtains.
Conclusions : I. No boxes are desks.
II. Some boxes are desks.
III. Some curtains are not boxes.
IV Some curtains are boxes.
(a)III and either I or II follow (b)I and either III or IV follow`
(c)Either I or II and either III or IV follow
(d)I and III follow (e)None of the above
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Answer with Explanation
1.(a) Both the statements are aligned, i.e., predicate of the first is the subject of the second. For the table of mediate inference, we know
that I + A = I. Hence, conclusion "Some players are tall" follows.
2.(e) Both the conclusions are immediate inference drawn from statement 1 and 2 and follow from the rule of conversion.
3.(a) Conclusion (I) is immediate inference drawn from statement 1. For mediate inference, I + E = O. Therefore, from this pair of
statements, conclusion "Some vegetables are not black" is valid. But this is not our conclusion. Hence, only (I) follows.
4.(d) Conclusion (II) is immediate inference drawn from statement 2 and this is not valid as per rule of conversion
Conclusion (I) is mediate inference. But as per table of mediate inference, I + I = No result. Hence, none of the conclusions follows.
5.(c) Both the conclusions are mediate inference. We know from table of mediate inference that A + I = No result. However, this
conclusion forms the complementary pairs and comply the conditions, i. e., both the conclusions are I -E type and have the same subject
and predicate. Hence, either (I) or (II) follows.
6.(b) Conclusion (II) is immediate inference drawn from statement 2 and follows as per rule of conversion. Conclusion (I) is
mediate inference. A + A = A. .Hence, conclusion would be "All stones are clean." But our 23. conclusion is "All clean are stones".
Hence does not follow. 24 Therefore, only conclusion (II) follows.
7.(c) Both the conclusions are mediate inferences. I + E = O.Hence, valid conclusion would be "Some books are not
pencils". But we do not have this as our choice. However, both the conclusions are (I - E) type and make a complementary pair. Hence, either I
or II follows.
8.(e) Both the conclusions are mediate inference. A + E = E. Hence, valid conclusion would be "No dog is cat". We . know from the rule
of conversion that "No dog is cat" => "No cat is dog." Hence, both the conclusions follow.
9.(b) Conclusion (I) is immediate inference and does not follow. Conclusion (II) is mediate inference for which I + A = I. Hence, conclusion
"Some phones are guns" is valid. However, we know that "Some phones are guns" => "Some guns are phones" as per rule of
conversion. Hence, conclusion (II) follows.
10.(d) Both the conclusions are mediate inference. A + I = No result. Hence, no conclusion can be drawn. Moreover, the pair of conclusion
is not a complementary pair. Hence, none of the conclusion follows.
11.(d) The statements are not aligned. For alignment, second statement "All fans are cats" may be converted as "Some cats are fans".
Now A + I = No result. Since both the inference are mediate inference, hence no conclusion follows.
12.(a) Conclusion (II) is immediate inference drawn from statement 1 which does not represent the correct converted form of
the statement. Conclusion (I) is mediate inference for which I + A = I, Le., "Somescooters are trains". Hence, only conclusion (I)
follows.
13. (e) A + E = E. Hence, conclusion "No pencil is a book" follows. Conclusion (II) is immediate inference drawn from statement 1.
14.(a) Statement needs to be aligned after converting statement 1 as "Some rabbits are rats", we have I + A = I. Hence, conclusion "Some rabbits
are mosquitoes" which may be converted as "Some mosquitoes are rabbits". Hence, conclusion (I) follows. Conclusion (II) does not follow.
15. (a) A + A = A. Hence "All fans are pillows" follows,

Exercise II
1.(a) I an II are immediate inferences and follow from statements 1 and 2, respectively. I + A = I. Hence, conclusion III follows.
2.(e) A + I = No result. However, conclusion IV is immediate inference. And II and III make a complementary pair.
3.(a) II is immediate inference drawn from statement 2. Likewise no pigs are bakers => No bakers are pigs => Some
bakers are not pigs. Hence, I follows. Now, all pigs are elephants + No pigs are bakers = I + E = O = Some elephants are not bakers. Hence, III
follows.
4.(e) I and II are immediate inferences fdrawn from statements 1 and follow. Many Nibs are tips = Some ribs are tips. Ill and IV makes are
complementary pair.
5.(e) A + I = No result. Conclusion III follows from statement 1.
6.(a) I + A = I => "Some boxes are pens" which again implies "Some pens are boxes". "Some pens are dogs" is immediate inference drawn
from statement 2.
7.(e) III is an immediate inference drawn from statements 2. A + I = No result. However, I and II make a complementary
pair of conclusion.
8. (b) IV is immediate inference drawn from statement 2. Some wardens are gardens + All gardens are locks = I + A = I=> Some wardens are
locks => Some locks are wardens. Hence, II also follows.
9.(c) Some charts are darts + All darts are carts => Some charts are carts (I + A = I). II is immediate inference drawn from statements 2.
10.(d) All boxes are tables + No desks are tables => All boxes are tables + No table are desks (After alignment of statements) => No boxes
are desks (A + E + E). Again using the conclusion "No boxes are desks" and 3 statement, we get "No boxes are desks" + "Some desks are
curtains" => No boxes are curtains =^> NO curtains are boxes => Some curtains are not boxes. Hence, I and III follow.

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 VERBAL ABILITY,
VERBAL REASONING
&
READING
COMPREHENSION

Page 113
1.SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS QUESTIONS:
1. BRIEF
A.Limited B.Small C.Little D.Short
2. ALERT
A.Energetic B.Observant C.Intelligent D.Watchful
3. WARRIOR
A.Soldier B.Sailor C.Pirate D.Spy
4. DISTANT
A.Far B.Removed C.Reserved D.Separate
5. FAKE
A.Original B.Imitation C.Trustworthy D.Loyal
6. HESITATED
A.Stopped B.Paused C.Slowed D.Postponed
7.RESCUE
A.Command B.Help C.Defence D.Safety
8. ATTEMPT
A.Serve B.Explore C.Try D.Explain
9. RECKLESS
A.Courageous B.Rash C.Bold D.Daring
10. CONSEQUENCES
A.Results B.Conclusions C.Difficulties D.Applications
11. IMPROVEMENT
A.Advancement B.Betterment C.Promotion D.Preference
12. MOVING
A.Taking B.Toying C.Shifting D.Turning
13. TIMID
A.Fast B.Slow C.Medium D.Shy
14. NEUTRAL
A.Unbiased B.Non-aligned C.Undecided D.Indifferent
15. INSOLVENT
A.Poor B.Bankrupt C.Penniless D.Broke
16. FEEBLE
A.Weak B.Vain C.Arrogant D.Sick

ANSWER KEY:
1.D 2.D 3.A 4.A 5.B 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.B 10.A
11.B 12.C 13.D 14.A 15.B 16.A

CHOOSE THE WORD WHICH IS OPPOSITE IN MEANING TO WORD GIVEN BELOW:

1. CLING
A. detach B. clutch C. hug D. slice
2. CONTAIN
A. exclude B. accept C. unite D. remove
3. PREVENT
A. avoid B. interrupt C. stop D. cause
4. COMMON
A. standard B. unusual C. scary D. super
5. SCHEDULED
A. assigned B. prepared C. unplanned D. late
6. ARCTIC
A. chilly B. tropical C. frozen D. melted

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7. PREDATOR
A. prey B. buyer C. hunter D. farmer
8. CLEVER
A. splendid B. smart C. sassy D. stupid
9. CONSIDER
A. think B. ignore C. finish D. study
10. ATTRACT
A. depend B. delight C. disgust D. disable

ANSWER KEY:
1.A 2.A 3.D 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.C

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2.FILL IN THE BLANK WITH MOST APPROPRIATE PREPOSITION:
1.Take this medicine and you will get rid -------- the bad cold
A. of B. over C. at D. from
2. I am angry with him ------ his carelessness.
A. on B. to C. for D. At
3. It is dangerous to enter -------- the enemy’s camp.
A. in B. on C. by D. Into
4. It is dangerous to enter -------- the enemy’s camp.
A. in B. on C. by D. Into
5.Arun is married -------- Bobby.
A. to B. between C. with D. To
6.My cousin has invested a lot of money ---------- farming.
A. in B. for C. on D. Into
7. He was vexed ------ Sohan for his behavior.
A. at B. to C. upon D. With
8. I brought him ------ with great difficulty.
A. up B. about C. round D. In
9. Give example pertinent --------- the case.
A. on B. to C. for D. With
10. There is no exception -------- this rule.
A. for B. to C. at D. About
11. A good judge never gropes --------- the conclusion.
A. on B. to C. for D. With
12. I do not agree --------- you on this point.
A. to B. in C. at D. With
13. President Saddam Hussain has lived -------- the gun all his life.
A. for B. on C. by D. Through
14. The Indian magpie indulges -------- a long flight.
A. at B. in C. on D. Over
15. The candidates were tense --------- expectancy.
A. with B. in C. from D. On
16.The mother was anxious -------- the safety of her son.
A. upon B. about C. for D. At
17. After having tea, he settled himself -------- his arm chair.
A. into B. over C. to D. On
18. The reward was not commensurate ---------- the work done by us.
A. on B. for C. with D. Order
19. Ramesh’s mind was attuned --------- music.
A. to B. on C. at D. With
20. He had to repent -------- what he had done.
A. of B. over C. for D. At
21. The Shopkeeper deals ------- grain, but did not deal honestly -------- me.
A. in; with B. with; to C. with; by D. in; by
22. The soldiers rebelled ------- the king.
A. against B. on C. at D. With
23. Ram is confident ---------- his success.
A. for B. about C. towards D. Of
24. A good judge never jumps --------- the conclusion.
A. for B. to C. at D. On
25. Religious leaders should not delve -------- politics.
A. with B. into C. in D. at

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ANSWER KEY:
1.a 2.c 3.d 4.d 5.d 6.d 7.d 8.a 9.c 10.a
11.c 12.d 13.c 14.b 15.c 16.b 17.a 18.c 19.a 20.c
21.c 22.a 23.d 24.c 25.b

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3. Which of the phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold
in the sentence to make it GRAMMATICALLY CORRECT? If the sentence is correct as it is
given and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.
1.The famous dancer died on Mumbai recently.
a. from Mumbai recently b.in Mumbai recently c.owing to Mumbai recently
d.on Mumbai at recent. e.No correction required
2. The standard of English in the schools are highly uneven.
a. are being uneven b.are often uneven c.is highly uneven
d.is highly unevenly e.No correction required
3. Many healthy people are been infected by the virus.
a.are having infected b.are being infected c.are in infection
d.were bearing infected e.No correction required
4. Balding is much more common in males than females.
a. at males than females b.in males then females c.at males then females
d.in males against females e.No correction required
5. The new airport is under construction and likely to operational in two years.
a.likely will b.will be likely c.likely to be
d.in all likelihood being e.No correction required
6. He had gone to the watch the recent hold cricket match.
a. the recent held cricket match b.the recently hold cricket match c.recently holded cricket match
d.recently held cricket match e.No replacement required
7. To be a successful man demands hard work, honesty, perseverance, and sound knowledge.
a.To being a successful man demands b.Being a successful man demands c.Being a man successful demands
d.It demands to be a successful man e.No replacement required
8. The disparity between the standard of living of the poor and the rich has widen in the last few years.
a. have widen in b.have widened in c.has widened on
d.has widened in e.No replacement required
9. Chief justice announced that a total of twenty mobile courts would be started in, all the in all the districts of the city
by the end of this year.
a. will start b.would start c.will be starting d.is being started e.No replacement required
10. With order to help the homeless, the government has set up 500 new shelter home across the city.
a.To order to help b.In order to c.To helping d.By an order e.No replacement required
11. Treasury is seeking candidates with at least 10 to 15 years’ experience in government debt management and/or debt
capital markets.
a. is seek candidates with at least b.is seeking candidates in at least c.is seeking candidates for at least
d.seeking candidates with at least e.No Error
12. None of this, though, will change the fact that over the past generation China really has been become a
technological power comparable in many of its capabilities to Europe, Japan or America.
a. has becoming a technological power comparable b.has become an technological power comparable
c.has become a technological power compare d.has become a technological power comparable
e.No Error
13. The Brightline Initiative is a non-commercial coalition of leading global organizations dedication to help executives
bridge the expensive and unproductive gap between strategy design and delivery.
a. dedicated to helped executives bridge b.dedicated to help executives bridge
c.dedicated to helps executives bridge d.dedicated to help executives bridged e.No Error

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14. He has clearly broken his promises and he was reluctant to pay attention to the need to undo the injustice done to
Shyam.
a. was reluctant to paying attention to the need b.was reluctant to paid attention to the need
c.was reluctant to pay attention to the needed d.was reluctance to pay attention to the need
e.No Error
15. Using artificial intelligence, Dark trace finds the quiet cyber-threats inside your organization, no matter how they got
into.
a. how they got off b.how they got up c.how they got in d.how they got with e.No Error

ANSWER KEY:
1. Replace ‘on Mumbai recently’ with ‘in Mumbai recently’
2. Replace ‘are highly uneven’ with ‘is highly uneven’
3. Replace ‘are been infected’ with ‘are being infected’
4. No correction required.
5. Replace ‘likely to’ with ‘likely to be’
6. Since the given sentence is in past tense hence past form of verb (i.e. held) should be used. Again note that a
verb should be preceded by an adverb (recently). Hence, (d) is the correct option.
7. ‘being a successful man demands’ is the correct usage . Hence, (b) is the correct option.
8. In the given sentence, ‘disparity between the standard of living’ (which is singular) is the subject, hence singular
form of verb should be used. Now, ‘has’ is followed by past participle. Hence, (d) is the correct option.
9. No replacement required
10. in order to’ is the correct phrasal usage and goes with the meaning of the sentence. Hence, (b) is the correct
option.
11. No Error
12. 'has become a technological power comparable ' is grammatically correct.
13. 'dedicated to help executives bridge ' is grammatically correct.
14. No Error
15. 'how they got in ' is grammatically correct.

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4.FIND THE CORRECTLY SPELLED WORD:
In the following questions, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the
correctly spelt word.
1.a) Murmuring b) Mourmuring c) Murrmuring d) Murrmurring
2.a) Mutiniers b) Muteneers c) Muteniers d) Mutineers
3.a) Obeisance b) Obeisanse c) Obesance d) Obesanse
4.a) Serendipty b) Serendipity c) Serndipity d) Sernidipity
5.a) possessess b) posseses c) possesses d) poseses
6.a) Emancipation b)Emancipasion c) Emencipation d) Emansipation
7.a) Prejudice b)Prejudise c) Predjudice d) Prejudis
8.a) Surgeon b) Surjon c) Surgen d) Surjun
9.a) Potatos b) Potatoes c) Potatose d) None of the above
10.a) Ireversible b) Irreversible c) Irrevarsible d) Irravarsible
11.a) Independence b) Indepandence c) Independens d) Indepandance
12.a) Hypocrisy b) Hypocresy c) Hipocrisy d) Hipocrecy
13.a) Aeroplane b) Airoplane c) Aeroplain d) Airoplain
14.a) Loanly b) Lonly c) Loneli d) Lonely
15.a) Cerimony b) Ceremoney c) Ceremony d) Cerimoney
16.a) Deceive b) Decieve c) Diceive d) Dicieve
17.a) Argumeant b) Argument c) Arguement d) Argumant
18.a) Supercede b) Superceed c) Supersede d) Superseed
19.a)Abandant b) Abendant c) Abundent d) Abundant
20.a)Asassin b) Assassin c) Assasin d) Assassen
21.a) Foyere b) Foayer c) Foyer d) Fouyer
22.a) Seperately b) Separately c) Seperatley d) Separatly
23.a)Pidistrian b) Pedistrian c) Pedestrian d) Pidestrian
24.a) Budgetery b) Bugetary c) Budgetary d) Budgetry
25.a) Embarrassed b) Embarassed c) Embarrased d) Embarased
26.a) Occurence b) Occurrence c) Ocurence d) Occurrance
27.a) Livelihood b) Livelyhood c) Livlihood d) Livelyhud
28.a) aspirations b) asparations c) aspirrations d) aspirations
29.a) compatibel b) compatable c) compatible d) compatible
30.a) concede b) conceed c) consede d) conseed

ANSWER KEY:
1.a 2.d 3.a 4.b 5.c 6.a 7.a 8.a 9.b 10.b
11.a 12.a 13.a 14.d 15.c 16.a 17.b 18.a 19.d 20.b
21.c 22.b 23.c 24.c 25.a 26.a 27.a 28.a 29.c 30.a

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Unit 5 # Statement - Assumption
Introduction
In these questions, a statement is followed by two or more assumptions. The candidate is required to assess the given statement and
decide which of the given assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Whenever we communicate with others, we make several statements. Therefore, statement is a part of our speech or what we speak to
others. Now, in communication, most of the things remain unsaid. Hence, an assumption is something which is assumed, supposed or
taken for granted. The following examples will clarify the concept of assumption and statement.
Example 1 Statement: "If you want to qualify CAT. you should consult Arihant's series on CAT".
Assumption: Arihant series on CAT contain sufficient matter on CAT.
Solution :The above assumption is valid because in statement, there is a recommendation of Arihant's series on CAT for qualifying. Hence,
person advising must be assuming that Arihant series contain sufficient matter on CAT.
Example 2 Statement: A's advice to B -" If you want to study Accounts, join institute Y".
Assumptions: I. Institute Y provides good Accounts education.
II. B listens to A’s advice.
Solution If A advises B to join a particular institute, A must have assumed that the particular institute was a good institute. Secondly, while
advising B, A must also have thought that B would listen to A's advice. Hence, both the assumptions are valid.
Example 3 Statement: Detergents should be used to clean clothes.
Assumptions : I Detergents form more leather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Solution Detergents are being recommended to clean clothes. This implies that they must be having the ability to clean. Now, ability to
clean means the ability to dislodge grease and dirt, it does not mean the ability to form more lather. Hence, assumption II is implicit, I is
not implicit.
Example 4 Statement: Love marriages mostly end in divorce.
Assumptions : I. Love marriages do take place.
II. There are cases of divorce.
Solution It is very clear from the statement that divorce takes place when love marriage takes place. Hence, both the statements are valid.
Example 5 Statement: To pass the examination, you have to practice very hard.
Assumptions : I Passing the examination is desirable.
II. Hard practice leads to success.
Solution The advice is given on the behaviour that should be followed to pass the exam. This implies that passing exams is necessary. So,
assumption I is implicit. Passing the exam is a type of success. And according to the statement, it may be achieved by hard work, hence
assumption II is implicit.
Example 6 Statement: Of all the TV sets manufactured in India, X brand has the largest sale.
Assumption : The sale of all the TV sets manufactured in India is known.
Solution It is given in the statement that of all TV sets in India, X brand has the largest sale, hence it must have been assumed in the
statement that the sale figures of all brands are known.
Example 7 Statement: "Use T make iron in building construction"-an advertisement.
Assumption : T-make iron is the only iron used in building construction.
Solution The use of word only makes the assumption invalid because no such expression is implicit in the statement. Hence, assumption is
invalid.
Example 8 Statement: Since certain sections of society are going to be unhappy whenever reforms are implemented, there is little
that can be done to prevent it except abandoning it.
Assumption: Some people would not like the implementation of reforms.
Solution At first look, the assumption appears to be valid. But on a closer look, it is observed that assumption is merely a reiteration or
restatement of the statement. And such assumption will be an invalid assumption.
Example 9 Statement: Patient's condition would improve after this operation.
Assumptions : I The patient can be operated upon in this condition.
II. The patient cannot be operated upon in this condition.
Solution The statement is based on the assumption that patient can be operated upon in this condition. Hence, assumption I is implicit.
Example 10 Statement: The best evidence of India's glorious past is the growing popularity of Ayurvedic medicines in the west.
Assumptions : I. Ayurvedic medicines are not popular in India.
II. Allopathic medicines are more popular in India.
Solution Statement given in the question states only about the place which Ayurvedic medicine had occupied in the past on account of its
increasing popularity in west. And this signifies neither non-popularity of Ayurvedic medicines in India nor speaks of popularity of Allopathic
medicines. Hence, none of the assumptions is implicit in the statement

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 Exercise
Directions (Q. 1 -15) : In each question below Is given a statement followed by Two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is
something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumption and decide which of the
assumption is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit. (c) If either I or II is implicit.
(d) If neither I nor II is implicit. (e) If both I and II are implicit.
1. Statement : It is desirable to put the child in the school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions: I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and ready to learn.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
2. Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India, we still continue to import sugar.
Assumptions : I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.
3. Statement "You must refer to learn to dictionary if you want to become a good writer"—A advises B.
Assumptions: I. Only writers refer to the dictionary.
II. All writers, good or bad, refer to the dictionary.
4. Statement If it does not rain throughout this month, most fanners would be in trouble this year.
Assumptions : I. Timely rain is essential for farming.
II. Most of the farmers are generally dependent on rains.
5. Statement: A advises B, "If you want to study English, join Institute Y".
Assumptions : I. B listens to A's advice.
II. Institute Y provides good coaching for English.
6. Statement : The leader of the main opposition party asserted that the call for chakka jam turned out to be a great success in the
entire State.
Assumptions: I. The people in future will support main opposition party.
II. People probably are convinced about the reason behind the chakka jam strike call.
7. Statement: Government aided schools should have uniformity in charging various fees.
Assumptions : I. The Government's subsidy comes from the money collected by way of taxes from people.
II. The Government, while giving subsidy, may have stipulated certain uniform conditions regarding fees.
8. Statement : Unemployed allowance should be given to all unemployed Indian youths above 18 years of age.
Assumptions: I. There are unemployed youths in India who need monetary support.
II. The Government has sufficient funds to provide allowance to all unemployed youth.
9. Statement : Everybody loves reading adventure stories.
Assumptions: I. Adventure stories are the only reading material.
II. Nobody loves reading any other material.
10. Statement : Please consult before making any decision on exports from the company.
Assumptions : I. You may take a wrong decision if you don't consult me.
II. It is important to take a right decision.
11. Statement : Postal rates have been increased to meet the deficit.
Assumptions I. The present rates are very low.
II. If the rates are not increased, the deficit cannot be met.
12. Statement : If degrees are delinked with jobs, boys will think thrice before joining college.
Assumptions : I. Students join college education for getting jobs.
II. A degree is of no use for getting a job.
13. Statement : The next meeting of the Board of the Institute will be held after one year.
Assumptions : I. The Institute will remain in function after one year.
II. The Board will be dissolved after one year.
14. Statement : A sentence in the letter to the candidates called for written exams-"you have to bear your expenses
on travel etc."
Assumptions: I. If not clarified, all the candidates may claim reimbursement of expenses.
II. Many organisations reimburse expenses on travel to candidates called for written examination.
15. Statement : "The function will start at 3 pm. You are requested to take your seats before 3pm.
Assumptions: I. If the invitee is not in his seat before 3 pm, the function will not start.
II. Function will start as scheduled.
Answers with Explanation
Exercise
1. (a) It is logical to say that at the age of 5, the child reaches appropriate level of development and ready to learn. Hence, assumption I is
very much implicit in the statement. Assumption II is not implicit as it is not relevant.

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2. (d) None of the assumptions is implicit in the statement as there may be various reasons for the same.
3. (d) None of the assumptions is implicit as nothing can be said definitely.
4. (e) Since the statement speaks of the essentiality and requirement of rain for farmers, hence both the assumptions are implicit in
the statement.
5. (b) Since A advises B to join institute Y to study English, hence it is assumed that insitute Y provides good coaching for English. Secondly,
it is also assumed that B listens to A's advice.
6. (b) Since the chakka jam call was accepted by and large in the entire state, it is very likely that people are convinced about the reasons
behind the chakka jam strike call. However, it is not necessary that people will support the main opposition party in future without any
strong and valid reasons.
7. (b) Assumption I is not related with the statement, hence is not implicit in the statement. Assumption II is implicit as it gives the solid
base for the fact defined in the statement.
8. (a) Assumption I, that Indian unemployed youths need
monetary support, is the solid base for providing allowance to all unemployed youths. However, assumption II, that Government has
sufficient funds, does not give valid reasoning. Hence, only assumption I is implicit.
9. (d) None of the assumptions is implicit as each assumption lacks proper reasoning.
10. (e) It is directed in the statement that consultation is necessary before making any decision on the export. It is, therefore, assumed that
person directed may take a wrong decision. Secondly, it is assumed in the light of the statement that it is important to take a right decision.
11. (d) On the basis of statement, it is not certain that present rates are very low. We cannot say that increasing the rates is the only way to
meet the deficit. Hence, none of assumptions is implicit.
12. (a) Job is the ultimate aim of every student. Hence, if degrees are delinked with jobs, students will think twice before joining colleges.
Hence, assumption I is implicit. Assumption II is contrary to it.
13. (a) It is clear that the institute will remain in function after one year as it is given that Governing Board meeting will be held after one
year. However, we have no reason to say that Board will be dissolved after one year. Hence, only assumption I is implicit.
14. (e) Specific instruction has been given in writing to prevent chance of claim of reimbursement for travelling expenses. Moreover, it is
also assumed that instruction has been given because expenses are paid by other organisation. Hence, both the assumptions are implicit in
the statement.
15. (b) It is mentioned in the invitation that you are requested to take your seats before 3 pm. It means that function will start as scheduled.
Hence, assumption II is implicit.

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Unit 6 # Statement And Conclusion
Introduction
This chapter is a mere extension of the previous chapter Statement and Assumption. Here, students are required to approach the
questions for solution from a different angle. This approach basically emphasises the need for being more systematic and logical in drawing
inference.
Unlike the previous chapter, here statement is followed by conclusions instead of assumptions.The questions of this type are designed to
test the candidates' ability to interpret a statement. Therefore, consequent effect of a statement has to be analysed before reaching the
correct conclusion.
In view of the difference between two chapters, students are therefore required to go through the examples given here and read the
explanations following each question. It will enable the students to understand the logical approach required to draw valid conclusion.
Directions : In each of the following questions, a statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. Give answer (a) if only conclusion I
follows, (b) if only conclusion II follows, (c) if either I or II follows, (d) if neither I nor II follows, and (ej if both I and II follow.
Example 1 Statement: Parents are prepared to pay price for an elite education to their children.
Conclusions : I. All parents these days are very well off.
II. Parents, have an obsessive passion for a perfect development of their children through good schooling.
Solution: It may be concluded from the statement that since parents want a perfect development of their children through good
schooling, therefore, they are prepared to pay any price for a good education. But statement does not give sense of the parent being very
well off. Hence, only conclusion II follows. Therefore, our answer is (b).
Example 2 Statement: Interview panel may select a student who is neither possessing the abilities of desired level nor any value and
assumptions.
Conclusions : I. Inclusion of experts in interview panel does not ensure that the selection will be made properly.
II. Interview procedure of admission has some limitations.
Solution :The statement clearly means that inclusion of experts does not ensure proper selection. It also indicates limitation of
interview procedure for admission. Hence, both conclusion follow. Therefore, our answer is (e).
Example 3 Statement: The constitution amendment carried out just last month prohibits the employment of child labour in any
organisation.
Conclusions: I. The employees must now abide by this amendment to the constitution.
II. Children below 14 years will now be engaged in acquiring education.
Solution: It is clearly deduced from the statement that consequent upon the amendment prohibiting the child labour, the employer must
abide by the amendment. But it is not mentioned that amendment gives any provision for acquiring education. Hence, only conclusion I
follows. Therefore, our answer is (a).
Example 4 Statement: In India, emphasis should be given more to agriculture, engineering and technological fields rather than on basic
and pure science.
Conclusions : I. India has achieved sufficient development in the field of basic and pure science.
II. In the past, the production sector of economy was neglected.
Solution: The extent of the development in the field of basic and pure science cannot be ascertained from the statement. Similarly, the
production sector of economy was neglected in the past or not, cannot be concluded. Hence, none of the conclusions follow the statement.
Therefore, our answer is (d).
Example 5 Statement: Any young man, who makes dowry as a condition for marriage, discredits himself and dishonours womanhood.
Conclusions: I. Those, who take dowry in marriage, should be condemned by society.
II. Those, who do not take dowry in marriage, respect womanhood.
Solution: Clearly, the statement declares dowry as evil practice and reflects its demerits. Thus, conclusion I follows. Also, it is given that
those who take dowry, dishonour womanhood. This implies that those, who do not take dowry, respect womanhood. So, conclusion II
follows. Hence, our answer is (e).
Statement and Conclusion II
Exercise
Directions (Q. 1 -15): In each question below a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the
statement to be true. Read both the conclusions and decide which of the two or both follow from the given statement.
Give answer
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either / or // follows.
(d) If neither I nor II follows. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
1. Statement : The nation 'X faced the increased international opposition due to its decision of performing eight nuclear explosions.
Conclusions : I. The citizens of the nation have favoured the decision.
II. Some powerful nations don't want that others may become powerful.
2. Statement : The chief minister emphasised the point that the Govt. will try its best for the development of the farmers and rural poor.
Conclusions: I. The former Govt. had not tried seriously for the development of these people.
II. This Govt. will not try seriously for the development of urban poor.
3. Statement : In India, emphasis should be given more on agriculture, engineering and technological fields rather than on basic and pure
science.

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 Conclusions: I. India has achieved sufficient development in the field of basic and pure science.
II. In the past, the production sector of economy was neglected.
4. Statement : The majority of Indian labourers belong to unorganised sector and most of them earn very low.
Conclusions : I. The labourers belonging to organised sector have better benefits and stability.
II. Some labourers belonging to unorganised sector have regular and certain income.

5. Statement : The multinational fast food chains have started their operation in India after facing many problems but Association of
Farmers are ready for competition.
Conclusions : I. Association of Farmers are not supporting modernisation.
II. Association of Farmers are not ready for competition with the multinational companies.
6. Statement : Company can understand the problems of its customers by direct marketing where it gets a chance to correct those
problems. Thus, the customer becomes a reliable buyer.
Conclusions I. Responsible companies profit by direct marketing.
II. Direct marketing is the only key to success in business.
7. Statement : Company 'X' has a record in making cameras with quality and modernisation to ensure that you are losing not even a single
shot despite bad weather.
Conclusions: I. No other company has any recognition in camera industry.
II. Any common man can take good photographs using camera 'X'.
8. Statement : Though in terms of number of schools, the educational system has very much expanded but most of them are not
sufficiently equipped and are not able to touch the high water mark in education.
Conclusions : I. We should provide good teachers and equipments to existing school now on ward.
II. Now it is not necessary to open new school.
9. Statement : The top management has asked the four managers either to resign by tomorrow or face the order of service termination.
Three of them have resigned till this very evening.
Conclusions : I. The managers who did not resign yesterday will resign tomorrow.
II. The management will terminate the service of one manager.
10. Statement : Our security investments carry market risk. Consult your investment advisor or agent before investing.
Conclusions : I. One should not invest in securities.
II. The investment advisor calculates the market risk with certainty.
11. Statement : In diabetes, there is an excess of sugar in the body. Our body needs sugar for energy. The quantity of sugar in excess of
body's requirements is excreted through urine.
Conclusions: I. The excessive consumption of sugar is likely to lead to diabetes.
II. Consumption of sugar should be avoided.
12. Statement : Today, out of the word population of several thousand million, the majority of men have to live under Governments which
refuse them personal liberty and the right to dissent.
Conclusions : I. People are indifferent to personal liberty and right to dissent.
II. People desire personal liberty and right to dissent.
13. Statement: He emphasised the need to replace the present training programme by other methods which will bring out the real merit of
the managers.
Conclusions : I. It is important to bring out the real merit of the managers.
II. The present training programme does not bring out the real merit of the managers.
14. Statement: The greatest need in India today is not for sophisticated gadgets but for programmes which will provide
employment to large number of people.
Conclusions: I. There is an adequate number of sophisticated gadgets in India.
II. Emphasis is being laid on procuring sophisticated gadgets.
15. Statement : Company 'X' has marked the product. Go ahead and purchase it, if price and quality are your considerations.
Conclusions : I.The product must be good in quality.
II. The price of the product must be reasonable.

Answers with Explanations

Exercise
1. (b) Nuclear explosion is not the result of the favour by the citizens. Hence, conclusion I does not follow. However, increase in the
international opposition is due to the fact that some powerful nations do not want that others may become powerful.
2. (d) From the commitment of the present Govt, it cannot be concluded that former Govt. did not do anything serious about the
development nor does it mean that present Govt. will not do anything for development of other sectors, hence neither of the conclusions
follows.

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3. (d) Neither of the conclusions definitely follows from the statement because it cannot be concluded from the statement that India has
achieved sufficient development in the field of basis and pure science. Nor does the statement mean that production sector in the past
remained neglected.
4. (b) It is given in the statement that most of the labourers belonging to unorganised sector earn very low and uncertain, it means that
there are some labourers who earn regular and certain income. Hence, conclusion (b) definitely follows from the statement.
5. (d) Conclusion I is totally unrelated to the statement and conclusion II is contrary to the statement. Hence, none of the conclusions
follows.
6. (a) The word "only" in conclusion II makes it doubtful. Conclusion I is direct result of the statement, as statement speaks of the merits of
direct marketing.
7. (d) Conclusion I does not follow because companies other than 'X’ may also have recognition in camera industry. Conclusion II does not
follow because statement speaks of the quality of camera, not of the cameraman. Hence, none of the conclusions follows.
8. (a) Conclusion I follows because opening number of schools will not serve the very purpose of education unless these schools are
provided with good teachers and equipments. Conclusion II does not follow as it is not the right solution of the problem.
9. (c) In view of the top management order, either the remaining manager will resign or the management will terminate the service of one
manager. Hence, either I or II follows.
10. (a) The investment consultants are acquainted with the market risks. Therefore, it is advisable to consult them before investing your
money in securities.
11. (a) Avoiding consumption of sugar is not the right approach to avoid diabetes. Hence, conclusion II does not follow. However, in the
light of the statement, conclusion I follows as excessive sugar is the most likely cause of diabetes.
12. (b) It is clear from the statement that people desire personal liberty and right to dissent.
13. (e) Both the conclusions follow from the statement. Conclusion I is the direct result of the statement. Conclusion II follows
because as per statement, there is need to replace present system with the new one.
14. (d) Statement says that greatest need in India is not for sophisticated gadgets but for programmes, but this does not mean that there is
an adequate number of sophisticated gadgets. Secondly, there is a need for programmes but it cannot be concluded that emphasis is being
laid on procuring sophisticated gadgets. Hence, none of the conclusions follows.
15. (e) It is clear from the statement that product marked by company 'X’ has good quality and is available at reasonable price. Hence, both
conclusions follow.

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Unit 7 # Statement And Argument
Introduction
Questions based on statement and argument are most common features of all competitive exams. In these questions, a statement is
followed by two arguments. Candidates are required to distinguish between the strong and weak argument. Generally, both the
arguments are contrary to each other to the positive and negative results of the action as mentioned in the statement. A strong argument
is that which touches the practical and real aspect of the situation as described in the statement. A weak argument is very simple,
superfluous, and long drawn one.
Following points should be taken into consideration while choosing a strong argument.
1. A strong argument should give the realistic diagnosis of the situation described in the statement.
2. A strong argument should give the deep analysis of the topic dealt within the statement.
3. A strong argument should relate with the statement and be supported up by facts or established notions.
4. A strong argument should not be mere reiteration of the situation given in the statement.
Following examples will help the students to have an understanding of the logic used to solve these questions.
Directions : Study the instructions carefully and answer the questions that follow.
In making decisions about important question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between "strong" and "weak" arguments so far as
they relate to the questions. "Weak" arguments may not be directly related to question and may be of minor importance or may be related
to the trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the
arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Give answer (a) if only argument I is strong, (b) if only argument II is strong, (c) if either I or II is strong, (d) if neither I nor II is strong and
(e) if both I and II are strong.
Example 1 Statement: Should school education be made free in India ?
Arguments : I. Yes, this is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II: No, it will add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
Solution. Argument I is strong because word 'only makes the argument weak as it is not the real and practical solution to improve the
level of literacy. Argument II is strong as it describes the practical problem which may arise out of the decision of making education free in
India, hence (b) is our answer.
Example 2 Statement: Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire crackers in India ?
Arguments: I. No, this will render thousands of workers jobless.
II. Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour to a large extent.
Solution. Both the arguments refer to the practical consequences of the action mentioned in the statement and hence are strong.
Therefore, (e) is the correct answer.
Example 3 Statement: Should young entrepreneurs be encouraged ?
Arguments: I. Yes, they will help in the industrial development of the country.
II. Yes, they will reduce the burden on the employment market.
Solution. It is very clear that encouragement to the young entrepreneurs will open up the fields for setting up of new industries. Hence, it
will help in industrial development. Consequently, more job opportunities will be created. Therefore, both the arguments are strong.
Hence, (e) is our answer.
Example 4 Statement: Should luxury hotels be banned in India ?
Arguments: I. Yes, these are places from where international criminals operate.
II. No, affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.
Solution. The luxury hotels are symbol of country's standard and a place for staying the affluent foreign tourists. So, argument II is a strong
one. Argument I is a weak argument because ban on luxury hotels is not a way to end the international criminals.
Example 5 Statement: Should election expenses to central and state legislature be met by the Government ?
Arguments: I. Yes, it will put an end to political corruption.
II. No, it is not good in any country.
Solution .Argument I is strong one as this decision will help to eliminate political corruption. Argument II does not give any logic, hence a
weak argument. Therefore, (a) is our answer.
Exercise I
Directions (Q. 1 -10) : In making decision about important questions, it is desirable to distinguish between "strong" argument and "weak"
argument. A "strong' argument must be both important and directly relate to the question. A "weak" argument may not be related to the
trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments, numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the
arguments is "strong" and which is 'weak'. Give answer (a) if only argument I is strong, (b) if only argument II is strong, (c) if either I or II are
strong, (d) if neither I nor II is strong, and (e) if both I and II are strong.
1. Statement : Should we impart sex education in schools ?
Arguments : I. Yes, all the progressive nations do so.
II. No, we cannot impart it in co-educational school.
2. Statement : Should there be a ban on product advertisement ?
Arguments : I. No, it is an age of advertising. Unless your advertisement is better than that of your other competitors, the
products will not be sold.

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 II. Yes, the money spend on advertising is very huge and it inflates the cost of the product.
3. Statement : Should there be a ceiling on the salary of top executives of multinationals in our country ?
Arguments : I. Yes, otherwise it would lead to unhealthy competition and comparison, and our own industry would not be able to
withstand that.
II. No, with the accent of liberalisation of economy, any such move would be counter-productive. Once the economy
picks up, this disparity will be reduced.
4. Statement : Should the government levy tax on agricultural income also ?
Arguments : I. Yes, that is the only way to fill government's coffer.
II. No, eighty percent of our population live in rural areas.
5. Statement : Should public holidays be declared on demise of important national leaders ?
Arguments : I. No, such unscheduled holidays hamper national progress.
II. Yes, people would like to pay their homage to the departed soul.
6. Statement : Keeping in consideration the longevity of life in India, should the age limit for retirement in government jobs be
increased ?
Arguments : I. Yes, other countries have decided so long before.
II. Yes, it is the actual demand of lakhs of employees.
7. Statement : Should new universities be established in India ?
Arguments : I. No, we have not yet achieved the target of literacy.
II. No, we have to face the problems of highly educated but unemployed youths.
8. Statement : Should small States be formed out of bigger States in India ?
Arguments : I. Yes, there will be administrative convenience.
II. No, it will be a danger to national integration.
9. Statement : Should all the government owned educational institutions be given to private sector ?
Arguments : I. Yes, there will be upgradation of educational standard in these institutions.
II. Yes, the educational standard of these institutions will decrease.
10. Statement : Should the organisations like the UNO be abolished ?
Arguments : I. The cold war is going to an end, so there is no role of such organisations.
II. No, in the absence of these organisations, there will be a world war.
Answers with Explanations
Exercise I
1. (d) None of the arguments is supported by a clear logic, hence both the arguments are weak.
2. (e) It is very known fact that unless you create awareness through advertisements about your product, you lag behind from your
competitors. Contrary to this, heavy cost on advertisements adds to your product. Hence, both the arguments are strong.
3. (e) Both the arguments are strong. The high salary of executives in multinational companies would definitely create unhealthy
competition and consequently our companies, which are not rich, will be in difficulties. Secondly, such ceiling will discourage multinationals
to take interest in our economy and encourage our companies.
4. (d) Both the arguments are weak. The argument, that Govt's coffer can be filled only with the tax on agriculture, is totally irrelevant. And
secondly, it cannot be said that all the eighty percent rural population are poor.
5. (a) Considering India's economy, unscheduled holidays will hamper national progress. Hence, argument I is strong.
6. (b) Things successful in other countries may not necessarily succeed in our country, hence argument I is weak. Since, it is the demand of
lakhs of employees, it is justified. Hence, argument II is strong.
7. (d) Both the arguments are weak. There is no relation between the establishment of universities and the achievement of the literacy
target. Secondly, it appears illogical that due to establishment of more universities, we shall have highly educated and unemployed youths.
Hence, both the arguments are weak.
8. (e) Both the arguments are strong because there will be administrative convenience by forming small states out of bigger states in India.
Secondly, it may also lead to a danger to the national integration.
9. (a) Private sector is supposed to be more disciplined and efficient than Govt. sector, hence argument I is strong.
10. (e) Argument I is strong because the presence of UNO ensures friendly relation among various countries. Argument II is also strong
because now-a-days the presence of UNO is felt inevitable.

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Unit 8 # Statement And Course Of Action
Introduction
This type of questions are designed to test candidate's decision making ability. Course of action is a decision which a person makes
invariably in his life following a problem. In these questions, a problem is given in the form of statement and is followed by two or more
decisions in the form of course of action.
To solve this type of questions, students are advised to keep in mind following points :
Correct course of action should either lessen the problem or improve the situation created by the problem.
Simple problem must have simple course of action and not a complex one which may create more problems than to solve or reduce it.
Course of action should be feasible and should relate with the practical aspect of life.
A clear understanding about the type of question and method of solution can be developed by way of solving a variety of questions given in
this chapter subsequently. Here are given a few examples with answers and explanations.

Directions : In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered land II. A course of action is a step or
administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the
information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the two given
courses of action logically follow. Give your answer (a) if only I follows. Give answer (b) if only II follows. Give answer (c) if either I or II
follows. Give answer (d) if neither I nor II follows. Give answer (e) if both I and II follow.
Example 1 Statement: A recent study shows that children below five die in the cities of the developing countries mainly from diarrhea
and parasitic intestinal worms.
Courses of Action: I. Government of the developing countries should take adequate measures to improve the hygienic conditions in the
cities.
II. Children below five years in the cities of the developing countries need to be kept under constant medication.
Solution I. If Government concentrate to improve the hygienic condition in the cities, it may definitely reduce the impact of problem. And
this course of action appears to be feasible also. Hence, this course of action follows.
II. A constant medication is another practical feasible step, which would help minimising the cases of death due to diarrhoe and intestinal
worms. Therefore, course of action II also follows. Hence, our answer is (e).
Example 2 Statement: The officer-in-charge of a company had a hunch that some money was missing from the safe.
Courses of Action : I. He should get it recounted with the help of the staff and check it with the balance sheet.
II. He should inform the police.
Solution : Here a hunch about the money being lost does not provide any ground for the incident having actually taken place, and hence
action to inform the police will not lessen the problem but is more likely to aggravate the situation. A prudent step is to recount the money
and tally with the books of account. Hence, course of action I fits the situation. Therefore, (a) is our answer.
Example 3 Statement: Many cases of cholera were reported from a nearby village.
Courses of Action : I. The question should be raised in the Legislative Assembly.
II. A team of doctors should be rushed to the village.
Solution Discussion of the problem in the Legislative Assembly is feasible but does not provide any immediate relief to the victims. Hence, I
is not the right course of action to be chosen for the problem. However, immediate medical aid will definitely mitigate the problem to large
extent. Hence, course of action II is the remedial step. Therefore, (b) is our answer.
Example 4 Statement: Researchers are feeling agitated as libraries are not equipped to provide the right information to the right users at
the right time in the required format. Even the users are not aware about the various services available for them.
Courses of Action: I. All the information available in the libraries should be computerised to provide faster services to the users.
II. Library staff should be trained in computer operations.
Solution : Computerisation may definitely help the users to take best available information available in the library. And training to the staff
in computer can further add to betterment of services to the users. Hence, both are feasible and therefore right courses of action. Hence,
(e) is the answer.
Exercise
Directions (Q. 1 -15) : in each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action. Course of action is a step for
administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to, the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the
information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the given suggested
courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Give answer:
(a) If only I follows, (b) If only II follows, (c) If either I or II follows,
(d) If neither I nor II follows, (e) If both I and II follow.
1. Statement: Air export volumes have increased substantially over the past decade causing backlogs and difficulties for air cargo
agents because of increased demand for space and service.
Courses of Action: I. Airlines and air cargo agents should jointly work out a solution to combat the problem.
II. The reasons for the increase in the volume of air export should be found out.

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2. Statement: The world conference of "Education for All" took place in 1990. Members who attended conference endorsed the
frame work of action for meeting the basic learning needs of all children.
Courses of Action: I. India should suitably implement the action points of this conference.
II. India should also immediately organise this type of conference. .
3. Statement: About 30% to 40% of children, who are enrolled, do not attend the school on any given day.
Courses of Action: I. More schools should be started.
II. Reasons for this absenteeism should be found out.
4. Statement: Although the Indian economy is still heavily dependent on agriculture, its share in global agriculture trade is less than the
share of agriculture exports to total exports.
Courses of Action: I. Efforts should be made to increase our agricultural production.
II. The exports of non-agricultural commodities should be reduced.
5. Statement: Huge amount of resources are required to develop tourist places in a country like India, which is endowed with vast
coastlines, rivers, forests, temples etc.
Courses of Action: I. More tourist resorts along the coastal line only should be started.
II. The tourist potential of Indian should be exploited.
6. Statement: The Government has decided not to provide financial support to voluntary organisations from next five year plan and has
communicated that all such organisations should raise funds to meet their financial needs.
Courses of Action: I. Voluntary organisations should collaborate with foreign agencies.
II. They should explore other sources of financial support.
7. Statement: The experts group on Technical Education has stressed that computer education should be provided to children from
primary school itself. It should be implemented in urban and rural schools simultaneously.
Courses of Action: I. Government should issue instructions to all schools for computer education.
II. At least one teacher of each school should be trained in computer operations for teaching children.
8. Statement: Employment opportunities in private sector industry declined from 4.50 million on December, 1991 to 4.15 million in
November, 1992 due to large number of 'sick' industries—A report.
Courses of Action I. Government should start new industries.
II. Unemployed should be given concessional loans.
9. Statement: Ministry of Tourism in its one of the reports revealed that due to recent social disturbance in the country, the number of
foreign tourists has decreased considerably, which resulted in a financial loss of Rs 100 crore.
Courses of Action : I. Government should provide financial support to the tourism sector.
II. Foreign tourists should be informed to visit the country at their risk.
10. Statement: There are more than 200 villages in the hill area of Uttar Pradesh which are severely damaged due to cyclone and it causes
an extra burden of Rs 200 crore on State Government for relief and rehabilitation work.
Courses of Action : I. People of hill area should be shifted to other safer places.
II. State Government should ask for more financial support from Central Government.
11. Statement: If the retired professors of the same institutes are also invited to deliberate on restructuring of the organisation, their
contribution may be beneficial to the institute.
Courses of Action : I. Management may seek opinion of the employees before calling retired professors.
II. Management should involve experienced people for the systematic restructuring of the organisation.
12. Statement: Experts Committee on Industrial Relations has revealed in their recent reports that not only the internal problems of the
organisations were successfully managed through quality circles but also employees' motivation level was increased significantly.
Courses of Action : I. Organisation should organise orientation programmes for their employees on quality circles.
II. Employees should be encouraged to join quality circle programmes.
13. Statement: The Mnister said the teachers are still not familiarised with need, importance and meaning of population education in the
higher education system. They are not even clearly aware about their role and responsibilities in the population education programme.
Courses of Action: I. Population education programme should be included in the college curriculum.
II. Orientation programme should be conducted for teachers on population education.
14. Statement: Researchers are feeling agitated as libraries are not equipped to provide the right information to the right users at the
right time in the required format. Even the users are not aware about the various services available for them.
Courses of Action: I. All the information available in the libraries should be computerised to provide faster services to the users.
II. Library staff should be trained in computer operations.
15. Statement: The Chairman stressed the need for making education system more flexible and regretted that the curriculum has not been
revised in keeping with the pace of the changes taking place.
Courses of Action: I. Curriculum should be reviewed and revised periodically.
II. System of education should be made more flexible.

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Answers with Explanations
Exercise
1. (a) The problem faced by the airlines and cargo agents is the non-availability of cargo space. Therefore, right course of action is to
combat the problem.
2. (a) Implementation of such action plans, as framed by the conference, is a right course of action as it will give an immediate and effective
impact on the standard of education for the children.
3. (b) Reasons for this absenteeism should be found out as it will help to check such absenteeism of students from the class.
4. (a) Only by increasing our agricultural production, we can have a better position in international agricultural trade. Reduction in non-
agricultural commodities will further worsen our position. So, only I is the right course of action.
5. (b) As per statement, India is already endowed with tourist spots. Therefore, these existing potential should be exploited.
6. (b) Obviously, if Government has decided to stop financial support to voluntary organisations, these organisations should find other
source of financial support. Hence, (II) is the right course of action.
7. (e) Both are the right courses of action for effective implementation of computer education at primary level in urban and rural
schools.
8. (e) Both are the right courses of action as each of the courses of action brightens the chance of employment opportunity.
9. (d) Financial support to the tourism sector is not a permanent solution. Secondly, constant risk for the foreign tourists will never
encourage tourism in India. Hence, neither of the actions is the right solution in this direction.
10. (e) Victims should be shifted to the safer place. Secondly, affected State should ask for more financial help from Central Government to
accelerate the relief operation.
11. (b) Valuable suggestions from the retired professors will be helpful for restructuring of organisation. Hence, management should
involve such experienced people. Seeking permission from the employee is not the right course of action.
12. (e) Statement emphasises the benefits and effectiveness of quality circle. Hence, it is advisable that quality circle should be encouraged
in the organisation and at the same time employees should be persuaded to join it. Hence, both the actions are right courses of action.
13. (b) Statement points out the unacquaintance of the teachers with population education, hence orientation programme should be
conducted for teachers. Hence, action (II) is the right course of action.
14. (e) Statement points out the ill-managed working of libraries with regard to providing right information. Computerisation will help to
organise the information systematically. Secondly, library staff should be trained to make full and correct use of computers. Hence, both
the actions are right courses of action.
15. (e) Statement speaks of inadequacies of the education system and emphasises the need for flexibility and revision. Hence, both the
actions are right courses of action to update the curriculum.

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9. BASIC VERBAL QUESTIONS
PASSAGE -1
I just returned from the greatest summer vacation! It was so fantastic, I never wanted it to end. I spent
eight days in Paris, France. My best friends, Henry and Steve, went with me. We had a beautiful hotel
room in the Latin Quarter, and it wasn't even expensive. We had a balcony with a wonderful view.
We visited many famous tourist places. My favorite was the Louvre, a well-known museum. I was
always interested in art, so that was a special treat for me. The museum is so huge, you could spend
weeks there. Henry got tired walking around the museum and said "Enough! I need to take a break
and rest.”
We took lots of breaks and sat in cafes along the river Seine. The French food we ate was delicious.
The wines were tasty, too. Steve's favorite part of the vacation was the hotel breakfast. He said he
would be happy if he could eat croissants like those forever. We had so much fun that we're already
talking about our next vacation!
1) What city did they go to for their summer vacation?
a.Lyon b.Louvre c.Paris d.Latin
2) How long was the summer vacation?
a.Eight weeks b.Eight days c.One week d.Two weeks
3) What did their hotel room have?
a.A balcony b.A refrigerator c.A view of the metro d.A bottle of wine
4) Who got tired walking in the Louvre museum?
a.Steve b.Harry c.Seine d.Henry
5) What did Steve enjoy the most?
a.The wine and the food b.The cafes along the river Seine
c.The Latin Quarter and the balcony d.The hotel breakfast and the croissants

PASSAGE-2
Montie's mother was coming to dinner, so he decided to get out the beautiful dishes she gave him. He
looked forward to impressing his mother. He remembered how great he felt when she gave him the
dishes. First, he got out his best silverware, cups and plates.
He carefully placed the plates on the table. Then, he laid a cloth napkin next to each plate. On the left
side of the plate, he placed a knife making sure that its blade was facing toward the plate. On the right
side, Montie placed the fork and spoon. After filling the glasses with ice, he put water in each glass. He
placed white flowers in a vase in the middle of the table. They had a beautiful aroma.
As Montie stood back to admire his work, the doorbell rang. Montie had finished just in time because
his mother had arrived.
6) Where did Montie put the napkins?
a.under each plate b. on top of each plate c.next to each plate d. he did not use napkins
7) What did Montie put on the left side of the plate?
a.a fork b. a spoon c.a water glass d. a knife
8) Montie placed a cloth napkin next to each plate. Which word could the author use to say the same thing?
a.linen b. paper c.fabric d. material
9) Who was Montie expecting for dinner?
a.his dad b.his mom c.noone d.the text does not say
10) What should Montie do next?

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a.Answer the door. b. Take a nap. c.Put food on the table. D.Make sure the food is not burning.

PASSAGE-3
While eating at a restaurant is an enjoyable and convenient occasional treat, most individuals and
families prepare their meals at home. To make breakfast, lunch, and dinner daily, these persons must
have the required foods and ingredients on hand and ready to go; foods and ingredients are typically
purchased from a grocery store, or an establishment that distributes foods, drinks, household
products, and other items that're used by the typical consumer.
Produce, or the term used to describe fresh fruits and vegetables, is commonly purchased by grocery
store shoppers. In terms of fruit, most grocery stores offer bananas, apples, oranges, blackberries,
raspberries, grapes, pineapples, cantaloupes, watermelons, and more; other grocery stores with larger
produce selections might offer the listed fruits in addition to less common fruits, including mangoes,
honeydews, starfruits, coconuts, and more.
Depending on the grocery store, customers can purchase fruits in a few different ways. Some stores
will charge a set amount per pound of fruit, and will weigh customers' fruit purchases and bill them
accordingly; other stores will charge customers for each piece of fruit they buy, or for bundles of fruit
(a bag of bananas, a bag of apples, etc.); other stores yet will simply charge by the container.
Vegetables, including lettuce, corn, tomatoes, onions, celery, cucumbers, mushrooms, and more are
also sold at many grocery stores, and are purchased similarly to the way that fruits are. Grocery stores
typically stock more vegetables than fruit at any given time, as vegetables remain fresh longer than
fruits do, generally speaking.
It'd take quite a while to list everything else that today's massive grocery stores sell, but most
customers take the opportunity to shop for staples, or foods that play a prominent role in the average
diet, at the establishments. Staples include pasta, rice, flour, sugar, milk, meat, and eggs, and bread. All
the listed staples are available in prepackaged containers, but can be purchased "fresh" in some
grocery stores, wherein employees will measure and weigh fresh products and then provide them to
customers.
11) What is a grocery store?
a.An establishment that cooks food for customers b.There are several definitions of a grocery store
c.A place to sell and trade goods
d.An establishment that distributes foods, drinks, household products, and other items that're used by the typical
consumer
12) Fresh fruits and vegetables are collectively referred to as which of the following terms?
a.Produce b.Feggies c.Veggies d.Famine
13)What are staples?
a.Small pieces of metal used to hold papers together b.Rare foods
c.Foods that play a prominent role in the average diet d.Green fruits and vegetables
14)More vegetables are stocked in grocery stores than fruits because:
a.Fruits stay fresh for less time than vegetables b.Vegetables are more popular than fruits, generally speaking
c.Grocery store managers prefer fruits d.A and B
15)"Fresh" groceries are:
a.Prepared by employees b.Measured manually c.Charged by the pound d.All of the Above

PASSAGE-4

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My family lives in a small house. It's simple but pretty. It has a large garden. I like to work in the garden but my sister
hates to work in the garden. She prefers to read. She reads in the morning, in the afternoon and at night. I give all of the
vegetables to mom and dad. They like to cook in our small kitchen. I eat any vegetable but my sister eats only a few. My
family always eats breakfast and dinner together. We talk. We laugh. Then my sister washes the dishes. At night dad
likes to listen to music. Mom works on the computer. I watch television. And my sister reads. Soon we go to bed. My
parents go to bed late but my sister and I go to bed early. I'm ready to go to sleep but my sister wants to keep reading.
16) Which is another way to describe the family's house?
a.cramped but cozy b.narrow but suitable c.little but attractive d.old but cheery
17) The family has how many members?
a.two b.three c.four d.five
18) Who doesn't enjoy working in the garden?
a.grandmother b.cousin c.father d.sister
19) When does the sister like to read?
a.at night b.in the afternoon c.in the morning d.all of the above
20) When do the family members not eat together?
a.at dinner b.at lunch c.at breakfast d.all of the above

PASSAGE-5
My name is Bob. Each day I drive my kids to school. My daughter goes to a school that's far from our
house. It takes 30 minutes to get there. Then I drive my son to his school. It's close to my job. My
daughter is in the sixth grade and my son is in the second. They are both good students. My daughter
usually sings her favorite songs while I drive. My son usually sleeps.
I arrive at the office at 8:30 AM. I say good morning to all my workmates then I get a big cup of hot
coffee. I turn on my computer and read my email. Some days I have a lot to read. Soon I need another
cup of coffee.
21) Which two places are near each other?
a.home and office b. son's school and office c.home and daughter's school d.daughter's school and office
22) Which child is older?
a.daughter b. son c.same age d.not sure
23) What happens in the car each morning?
a.father and daughter tell jokes b. son and daughter talk
c.son sleeps and daughter sings d.daughter reads and son sleeps
24) What happens at the office?
a.workmates give Bob a big cup of hot coffee b.Bob gives all his workmates a big cup of hot coffee
c.Bob gets a big cup of hot coffee d. all of the above

PASSAGE-6
My name is Clark, and I will tell you about my city.
I live in an apartment. In my city, there is a post office where people mail letters. On Monday, I go to
work. I work at the post office. Everyone shops for food at the grocery store. They also eat at the
restaurant. The restaurant serves pizza and ice cream.
My friends and I go to the park. We like to play soccer at the park. On Fridays, we go to the cinema to
see a movie. Children don't go to school on the weekend. Each day, people go to the hospital when
they are sick. The doctors and nurses take care of them. The police keep everyone safe. I am happy to
live in my city.

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25) Where does Clark work?
a.in an apartment b.in the grocery store c.in the cinema d.in the post office
26) Where do people buy food?
a.in the grocery store b.in the hospital c.in the park d.in the cinema
27) When does Clark go to the cinema?
a.Monday b.Friday c.Each day d.The weekend
28) Who keeps everyone safe?
a.The nurses b.The children c.The police d.The doctors

PASSAGE-7
George is at the pet store, looking at what kind of pet he might want to get for his birthday. George
asked if he could have a horse, but his parents said no because horses are too big.
First, he sees dogs and cats. Baby dogs are called puppies. Baby cats are called kittens. George likes
them because they are easy to take care of and can play a lot, but they will get bigger. George wants a
small pet.
Then George sees animals that have to live in a cage. He sees rabbits, guinea pigs, and mice. Mice are
what you call more than one mouse. He likes these animals because they are small. Birds live in cages
too. George sees a parrot and a canary. He likes them all, but he doesn't want to clean the cage.
George sees the animals in tanks. The tanks full of water have fish and turtles in them. He thinks about
a goldfish but decides he likes the turtles more. There are also tanks with rocks and sand that have
snakes, spiders, and scorpions, but George is afraid of them. George likes the turtles best, but they
won't fit in the little fishbowls. Turtles need bigger tanks, so they can swim sometimes and hide
sometimes.
George decides he wants to get a turtle for his birthday. He buys a book on how to take care of a turtle
and a list of what types of turtles the store has.
29) What kind of pet did George want, but his parents said no because they were too big?
a.A Puppy b.A Kitten c.A Horse d.A Rabbit
30) What kind of pet does NOT live in a cage?
a.Rabbits b.Guinea pigs c.Mice/Mouse d.Goldfish
31) Which kind of pet did NOT scare George?
a.The Scorpions b.The Canaries c.The Spiders d.The Snakes
32) What kind of pet did George decide he wanted to get for his birthday?
a.Turtle b.Parrot c.Goldfish d.Mouse

PASSAGE-8
Keith recently came back from a trip to Chicago, Illinois. This midwestern metropolis is found along the shore of Lake
Michigan. During his visit, Keith spent a lot of time exploring the city to visit important landmarks and monuments.
Keith loves baseball, and he made sure to take a visit to Wrigley Field. Not only did he take a tour of this spectacular
stadium, but he also got to watch a Chicago Cubs game. In the stadium, Keith and the other fans cheered for the Cubs.
Keith was happy that the Cubs won with a score of 5-4.
Chicago has many historic places to visit. Keith found the Chicago Water Tower impressive as it is one of the few
remaining landmarks to have survived the Great Chicago Fire of 1871. Keith also took a walk through Jackson Park, a
great outdoor space that hosted the World's Fair of 1892. The park is great for a leisurely stroll, and it still features some
of the original architecture and replicas of monuments that were featured in the World's Fair. During the last part of his
visit, Keith managed to climb the stairs inside of the Willis Tower, a 110-story skyscraper. Despite the challenge of

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climbing the many flights of stairs, Keith felt that reaching the top was worth the effort. From the rooftop, Keith received
a gorgeous view of the city's skyline with Lake Michigan in the background.
33) Where is Chicago in the United States?
a.The east coast b.The Midwest c.The south d.The west coast
34) What sport do the Chicago Cubs play in Wrigley Field?
a.Rugby b.Baseball c.Soccer d.Football
35) Why was Keith impressed by the Chicago Water Tower?
a.It is the tallest building in the city. b.It supplies water to the entire population.
c.It is the only remaining monument of the World's Fair. d.It is one of few landmarks that survived a historical fire.
36) What event was important for Chicago in 1892?
a.Wrigley Field was constructed. b.The Great Fire destroyed a large part of the town.
c.The World's Fair took place here. d.Jackson Park became open to the public.

PASSAGE – 9
A Christian holiday signifying the birth of Jesus, Christmas is widely celebrated and enjoyed across the United States and
the world. The holiday always falls on 25 December (regardless of the day of the week), and is typically accompanied by
decorations, presents, and special meals. Specifically, the legend behind Christmas (and the one that most children are
told) is that Santa Claus, a bearded, hefty, jolly, and red-jacket-wearing old man who lives in the North Pole, spends the
year crafting presents with his elves, or small, festive, excited Santa-assistants. All the children who behave throughout
the year are admitted to the Good List, and will presumably receive their desired gifts on Christmas, while those who
don't behave are placed on the Naughty List, and will presumably (although the matter is determined by parents)
receive a lump of coal. Santa Claus is said to fly around the Christmas sky in a sled powered by his magical reindeer, or
cold-resistant, mythically powered, individually named animals, delivering presents to each child's house in the process.
Santa is also expected to slide through chimneys to deliver these presents (homes not equipped with chimneys might
"leave the front door cracked open"), and children sometimes arrange cookies or other treats on a plate for him to
enjoy. Gifts are placed underneath a Christmas tree, or a pine tree that's decorated with ornaments and/or
lights and is symbolic of the holiday. Additionally, smaller gifts may be placed inside a stocking, or a sock-shaped,
holiday-specific piece of fabric that's generally hung on the mantle of a fireplace (homes without fireplaces might use
the wall). A Christmas tree's ornaments, or hanging, typically spherical decorations, in addition to the mentioned lights,
may be accompanied by a star, or a representation of the Star of Jerusalem that the Three Apostles followed while
bringing Baby Jesus gifts and honoring him, in the Bible.
37) On what date does Christmas take place?
a.The date varies from year to year b.20th December c.31st December d.25th December
38) Which mythical figure is said to deliver presents on Christmas?
a.The Easter Bunny b.Saint Patrick c.Santa Claus d.Christmas Angel
39) How are children's present requests said to be granted or denied on Christmas?
a.Randomly b.Through a specially designed mathematical formula
c.Nobody is quite sure d.By reviewing their presence on either the "Good" or "Naughty" List

PASSAGE-10
My job is a long distance from my home, almost 50 miles away. I have to wake up early every morning, as I'm always in a
rush. There's never enough time for a relaxed breakfast. At exactly 6:00 AM, I get into my car and start the long drive.
I usually like driving on the highway more than in the city. During the morning rush hour, though, it's not very enjoyable.
The heavy traffic is a little bit annoying. So I always listen to my favorite classical music CD's in the car - Chopin, Mozart,

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and Bach. That cheers me up a lot. The drive to work takes about one hour. Going back home in the evening after work
takes even longer, maybe around 70 minutes. Lately I've been thinking about trying to take the train to work instead of
driving. That way, I could still listen to my music with headphones, and even read a novel at the same time.
40) When does he wake up every morning?
a.Late in the morning b.At exactly 6:00 AM c.Early in the morning d.After the morning rush hour
41) How is driving during the morning rush hour?
a.It's classical b.Not very enjoyable c.It's relaxing d.Not as much fun as walking
42) Which kind of music CD's does he enjoy listening to in the car?
a.Jazz b.Heavy metal c.Disco d.Classical
43) How long might the evening drive back home take?
a.50 minutes b.Less than the drive in the morning c.70 kilometers d.Around 70 minutes

PASSAGE-11
Halloween (also referred to as All Hollows' Eve) is a holiday that's celebrated in America on 31 October of each year,
regardless of what day of the week this date falls on. Although it is rooted in religion, Halloween today is enjoyed mainly
because of its decorations, costumes, candy, treats, and general excitement, and furthermore, it is enjoyed by most
everyone. Before Halloween, many individuals carve a design into an orange-colored pumpkin, or a solid, durable
vegetable. Once a personally satisfying design is carved, a lit candle is typically put inside a pumpkin, thereby making it a
Jack-O-Lantern. At night, this design lights up against the darkness. Besides carving pumpkins, some celebrate Halloween
by putting decorations up. Supernatural (referring in this case to non-natural creatures that're typically based in fiction)
figures, including vampires, ghosts, werewolves, zombies, and more, generally account for most of these decorations.
Bugs, spiders, cobwebs, gravestones, and anything else that can be considered creepy (or unusual and
possibly scary) can also be found on Halloween, in decoration form. Only some adults celebrate Halloween, and they
generally do so by attending parties. Inversely, the vast majority of children dress in costume (Halloween costumes can
be based upon anything, from the mentioned supernatural creatures to the stars of today's films) and walk from door to
door in search of candy—a practice known as trick or treat—on Halloween. After knocking on a door (houses that
participate in Halloween usually leave a light on), one says, "Trick or Treat" and a piece (or pieces!) of candy is given to
him or her.
44) When does Halloween take place?
a.14 February b.25 December c.31 October d.Eight weeks before Christmas
45) What day of the week does Halloween fall on?
a.Halloween is always on Saturday b.Halloween is always on Friday
c.Halloween is always on Monday d.Halloween's day of the week varies by year
46) How do most children celebrate Halloween?
a.By dressing in costume and trick-or-treating b.By studying schoolwork
c.By hanging ornaments on a Christmas tree d.By producing candies

PASSAGE-12
Last April, John took a trip to Las Vegas, Nevada. Las Vegas is a popular destination in the western portion of the United
States. The town is most popular for its casinos, hotels, and exciting nightlife.In downtown Las Vegas, John spent a lot of
time on The Strip, which is a 2.5 mile stretch of shopping, entertainment venues, luxury hotels, and fine dining
experiences. This is probably the most commonly visited tourist area in the city. The Strip at night looks especially
beautiful. All of the buildings light up with bright, neon, eye-catching signs to attract visitor attention. A stay in Las Vegas
can feel similar to a visit to many popular cities worldwide. Many of the hotels have miniature versions of important
international sites and monuments. These famous landmarks include the Eiffel Tower, Venice, and even ancient Rome.

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One day, John took a side trip outside of the city to visit the Grand Canyon, one of the Seven Wonders of the Natural
World. The canyon offers a breathtaking view of Nevada's ridges and natural landscape. John especially liked the canyon
because it was removed from all of the noise and movement in downtown Las Vegas. John had a great time during his
trip to Las Vegas. He did not win a lot of money in the casinos. However, he managed to see a lot of amazing sites during
his visit to this city that never sleeps.
47) When did John travel to Las Vegas?
a.Yesterday b. Last weekend c.Last spring d. Last summer
48) What is an activity that a tourist cannot do on The Strip?
a.Eat b. Stay overnight c.Shop d.Visit the Grand Canyon
49) Which best describes the purpose of the Las Vegas Strip?
a.It is a 2.5 mile stretch. b. It offers a lot of activities for tourists.
c.There are too many neon lights. d.It keeps tourists safe.

PASSAGE-13
London is a famous and historic city. It is the capital of England in the United Kingdom. The city is quite popular for
international tourism because London is home to one of the oldest-standing monarchies in the western hemisphere.
Rita and Joanne recently traveled to London. They were very excited for their trip because this was their first journey
overseas from the United States. Among the popular sights that Rita and Joanne visited are Big Ben, Buckingham Palace,
and the London Eye. Big Ben is one of London's most famous monuments. It is a large clock tower located at the
northern end of Westminster Palace. The clock tower is 96 meters tall. Unfortunately, Rita and Joanne were only able to
view the tower from the outside. The women learned that the tower's interior is undergoing renovations until 2021.
Fortunately, the London Eye, the city's famous Ferris wheel, was open to the public. The London Eye is situated along
the southern shores of the Thames River. This attraction stands 135 meters high. It is one of London's most well-known
spots for gaining aerial views of the city. Each capsule of the Ferris wheel can hold up to 25 passengers. When their
capsule stopped at the top of the Ferris wheel, the women took spectacular panoramic photographs of the beautiful
cityscape below. The last place that Rita and Joanne visited was Buckingham Palace, the home of the Queen of England.
The women were impressed by the palace's incredible architecture and historical value. Both Rita and Joanne enjoyed
watching the Queen's guards outside the palace. These guards wore red tunic uniforms, shiny black boots, and bearskin
hats. Despite the women's attempts to catch the attention of the guards, the guards are specifically trained to avoid
distractions. Because of this, the guards ignored the women completely. Joanne and Rita had an amazing time visiting
the city of London, and they are inspired to seek more international travel destinations in the future.
50) All of the following are true about London except:
a.It is the capital city of England. b.It was initially its own country.
c.It is home to the Queen of England. d.It borders the Thames River to the south.
51) Why were Rita and Joanne excited for their trip?
a.Joanne's parents recently moved to London. b.Rita and Joanne love tasting international cuisine.
c.They had never before traveled internationally. d.They looked forward to spending time on the beach.
52) Why couldn't Rita and Joanne climb Big Ben?
a.To climb the tower requires complicated equipment. b.They did not bring enough money with them.
c.Joanne is afraid of heights. d.The clock tower is closed for renovations.

PASSAGE-14
Stephanie recently took a weekend trip to Los Angeles, California. Los Angeles is a coastal city situated along the Pacific
Ocean. Many celebrities earned their claim to fame here. Although the town offers many attractions centered around
Hollywood culture, there is a lot to see and visit in Los Angeles. Of course, all things related to Hollywood are popular

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tourist attractions. The Hollywood Sign, located the Hollywood Hills of the Santa Monica Mountains, is a famous
landmark for this star-studded town. Once in downtown Hollywood, it's possible to take a stroll along the Hollywood
Walk of Fame. This landmark contains more than 2500 brass stars dedicated to celebrities who have made a significant
impact on the entertainment industry. In Hollywood, visitors can even take tours of popular movie studios. Stephanie
had a chance to visit Universal Studios, which produces her favorite films. Los Angeles is also a popular beach town,
offering plenty of opportunities for sunbathing and surfing. A common beach destination is the Santa Monica Pier, which
offers rides and attractions to its visitors. Here, Stephanie rode the iconic Ferris wheel, which offered her a spectacular
view of the city and coast. These are just some of the things Stephanie experienced during her visit to Los Angeles. She
loved her trip, and she hopes to return someday soon.
53) For how long did Stephanie visit Los Angeles?
a.An afternoon b.Overnight c.A weekend d.A month
54) What is not a popular landmark for tourists to visit in Hollywood?
a.Universal Studios b.The Walk of Fame c.The Hollywood Sign d.A Ferris wheel
55) To whom are the brass stars dedicated?
a.Film directors b.Actors and actresses c.Musicians d.All of the above

PASSAGE-15
Christina visited Miami during her winter vacation. She is from Boston, where it is cold during the winter months. Miami,
however, has a very warm climate. There are many sunny days in Miami, and people can go to the beach all year long.
Christina spent a good portion of her trip on the beach to relax and sunbathe. However, she also explored Miami and its
surroundings. Inspired by Miami's proximity to the ocean, Christina visited the Miami Seaquarium to learn about
marine life. There, she watched a show using trained dolphins, killer whales, and other aquatic mammals. She took a lot
of pictures of the sea creatures jumping out of the water and performing tricks.
Christina also took an excursion to the Everglades National Park. This park is a protected area spanning 1.5 million acres.
Because the park is mostly swampland, it is home to many reptiles. Native animals include snakes, alligators, and
crocodiles. The park is also great for birdwatching. Christina enjoyed hiking the trails in the Everglades and observing the
wildlife in its natural environment. When Christina returned to the city, she visited Little Havana. This is Miami's Cuban
neighborhood. Christina could see that Little Havana's people demonstrated a lot of pride for their Cuban heritage.
There were many outdoor shops and vendors, live musicians, and the Cuban cuisine was delicious.Little Havana was
Christina's favorite part about her trip to Miami. This neighborhood made Christina feel like she had traveled to Cuba
without ever having to leave the United States.
56) In comparison to Christina's hometown, Miami's winter weather is:
a.Cooler b. Warmer c.More humid d. The Same
57) Why was Christina motivated to visit the Miami Seaquarium?
a.She wanted to protest animal rights. b.She hoped to photograph the sea creatures.
c.Miami's coastal location inspired her. d.The Seaquarium was recently constructed.
58) Which of the following animals would not be found in the Everglades?
a.Crocodiles b. Birds c.Dolphins d.Snakes

ANSWER KEY:
1.c 2.b 3.a 4.d 5.d 6.c 7.d 8.a 9.b 10.a
11.d 12.a 13.c 14.a 15.d 16.c 17.c 18.d 19.d 20.b
21.b 22.a 23.c 24.c 25.d 26.a 27.b 28.c 29.c 30.d
31.b 32.a 33.b 34.b 35.d 36.c 37.d 38.c 39.d 40.c
41.b 42.d 43.d 44.c 45.d 46.a 47.c 48.d 49.b 50.b
51.c 52.d 53.c 54.d 55.d 56.b 57.c 58.c

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 SPORTS
AWARENESS

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SPORTS AWARENESS
1. Who has become the 3rd Indian batsman to reach top 10 in ICC rankings?
A. Virat kohli B. Suresh Raina C. Rohit Sharma D. Shikhar Dhawan
2. Who among these won the 7th season of Vivo pro Kabaddi League 2019?
A. Telugu Titans B. Bengal Warriors C. Haryana Steelers D. Dabang Delhi
3. Who has become the first Indian man to win a Wushu World Championships gold in Sanghai in men’s 48 kg
Sanda?
A. Arti Saha B. Praveen Kumar C. Rakesh Singh D. None of the above
4. Which Indian Cricketer has broke the record of Stephen Fleming in scoring the highest 30+ runs in 10 balls?
A. Virat kohli B. Umesh Yadav C. Jaspreet Bumrah D. Rohit Sharma
5.Who has become the brand ambassador for the Chelsea Football club for India?
A. Arjun kapoor B.Ranvir Singh C.Akshay Kumar D. Preeti Z inta
6. Which Indian Cricketer broke Don Bradman’s record of highest average in Test cricket on home soil?
A. Rohit Sharma B. Virat kohli C. Ajinkya Rahane D.Ravindra Jadeja
7. Amit Panghal belongs to which of the following sports?
A. Boxing B. Wrestling C. Cricket D. Football
8. Who will take over as the 39th president of the BCCI?
A. Kapil Dev B. Sunil Gavaskar C. Sourav Ganguly D. Ajay Jadeja
9.Which of the following badminton pair win the mixed doubles titles at the Egypt International 2019 in Cairo,
Egypt?
A. Utakrash Arora and Karishma Wadkar B. Venkat Gaurav and Juhi Devwagan
C. Kuhoo Garg and Dhurv Rawat D. Navaneeth Bokka and Sahithi Bandi
10. Who has won the Jeev Milkha Invitational golf tournament recently?
A. Gagan Narang B. Vijay Kumar C. Ajeetesh Sandhu D. Apurvi Chandela
11. Sprinter Dutee Chand who won the vogue award for sprtstperson of the year 2019, belongs to which
state?
A. Bihar B. Hrayana C. Odhisha D. UP
12. Ronaldo Singh belongs to which sport?
A. Boxing B. Cricket C. Cyclist D.Athlete
13. Which Indian player , at the age of 30, has made debut in India vs South Africa Series?
A. Ajay Punia B. Shahbaz Nadeem C. Rashid Faizan D. Sanjay Singh
14. Who has been appointed as the new head coach of Rajasthan Royals?
A. Andrew McDonald B. Gary Kirsten C. Tom Moody D. John Wright
15. Ayonika Paul, an Indian Player belongs to which sports?
A. Boxing B. Shooting C. Wrestler D. Athlete
16. "Prahari" a Community policing scheme, launched by which state police?
A. Uttarakhand police B. Punjab police C. Delhi police D. Mumbai police
17. Who has become India's 65th Grand Master?
A. Raunak Sadhwani B. V. Anand C. Vladimir Kramnik D. None of the above
18. Where 7th Military World games are to be organised this year?
A. Germany B. Australia C. England D. China
19. Which of the following countries was reinstated as member of ICC along with Zimbabwe?
A. Pakistan B. Nepal C. Kenya D. Bangladesh
20. Who among the following players became only the second captain with 100 wins in women's cricket?
A. Mithali Raj B. Harmanpreet Kaur C. Shikha Pandey D. Priya Punia

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21. The 2019 World Artistic Gymnastics Championships was organized in which country?
A. France B. Spain C. Germany D. Netherlands
22. Who has won the men's singles title at the Bahrain International series badminton?
A. Priyanshu Rajawat B. Jason Anthony
C. Venkat Gaurav Prasad D. Kento momota
23. Who is the current chairman of International Cricket Council (ICC)?
A. Alan Isaac B. Manu Sawhney C. Zaheer Abbas D. Shashank Manohar
24. Eliud Kipchoge belongs to which country?
A. Kenya B. Jamaica C. South Africa D. Zimbabwe
25. Which Country topped the AIBA Women's World Boxing Championships in 2019?
A. US B. China C. Japan D. Russia
26. Which of the following Indian player has won Dutch Open Badminton 2019?
A. Harshit Chaudhary B. Arpit Gupta C. Vivek Joshi D. Lakshya Sen
27. Manju Rani has won which of the following medals in the 48-kilogram weight category of the Women's
World Boxing Championships?
A. Gold B. Silver C. Bronze D. None of the Above
28. Peter Gilchrist who won billiards championship belongs to which of the following countries?
A. Australia B.Singapore C.Switzerland D.China
29. Tajinder Pal Singh belongs to which of the following sports?
A. Shot put B. Football C. Cricket D. Boxer
30. At which of the following cities first Global DXB Challenge is going to held?
A.Sydney B. Dubai C. Netherlands D. Bangalore
31. Which of the following countries is set to have first Olympic Hospitality House in Tokyo?
A. India B.China C.Iran D.Japan
32. How many medals India has won at World Youth Chess Championship concluded in Mumbai?
A. 6 B. 7 C.9 D.11
33. Nirmala Sheoran, who has been banned for 4 years, is associated to which of the following sports?
A. Sprint B. Wrestling C.Boxing D.Weightlifting
34. Who among the following Indian Cricketers hit seventh double hundred in tests?
A. Virat Kohli B. Ravinder Jadeja C. Suresh Raina D. Rohit Sharma
35. Who among the following players wins lifetime achievement at Indian Sports Honours (ISH)?
A. Geet Jadhav B. Kapil Dev C. Milkha Singh D. Surender Gill
36. Name the Indian who created three world records at the ongoing World Powerlifting Championship in
Berlin, Germany?
A. Shradul Thakoor B. Nripal Singh C.Balvender Singh D. Surender Singh
37. Annu Rani belongs to which of the following games?
A. Boxing B. Javelin Throw C. Shooting D. Badminton
38. Christine Wolf has won the Hero Women's Indian Open at Gurugram belongs to which of the following
country?
A. Austria B. Switzerland C. France D.Italy
39. Salwa Eid Naser who became the first Asian to win the women's 400 metres world title belongs to
which of the following countries?
A. Saudi Arabia B. Palestine C. Bahrain D.India
40. Which Cricketer has become the first one to get out on Zero ten times in T-20 Cricket format?
A. Umar Akmal B. Virat Kohli C.Abdul Kadir D. Sarfaraj Ahmad

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41. Who among the following players has reached 289 with a climb of 200 ranks in ATP rankings 2019?
A. Novak Djokovic B. Andy Murray C. Roger Fedrer D.Sumit Nagpal
42. Who among the following players has become the 1st Indian cricket player to play 100 T20 International
matches?
A.Mithali Raj B.Harmanpreet Kaur C.Virat Kohli D.Jhulan Goswami
43. Which of the following countries tops the IAAF World Athletics Championships?
A.USA B.China C.India D.Australia
44. Who among the following has won the China Open 2019?
A.Ashleigh Barty B.Sarena Williams C.Naomi Osaka D.Maria Sharpova
45. Who among the following has won Japan Open title-2019?
A.John Millman B.Rafel Nadal C.Novak Djokovic D.Rozer Fedrer
46. A famous player Koneru Humpy is related to which of the following game?
A.Badminton B.Chess C.Swimming D.Polo
47. Jaspal Rana is associated with
A. Cricket B.Wrestling C. Swimming D. Shooting
48. In athletics, Who is the first Indian man to qualify for a track event final?
A.Parul Parmar B.Neeraj Chopra C.Sundar Singh Gurjar D.Avinash Sable
49. Which country's badminton player, He Bingjiao won women's singles title in Korea Open 2019?
A.India B.Taiwan C.China D.Japan
50. Indian team of Pankaj Advani and ____________ has won the 'IBSF World Snooker Title defeating
Thailand in the final.
A.Manan Chandra B.Aditya Mehra C.Manas Shah D.GeetSethi
51. For which game Tiger woods is famous?
A. Football B. Hockey C. Golf D. Polo
52. Which athlete has been honoured with the International International Association of Athletics
Federation (IAAF) Veteran Pin Award during the 52nd Congress of the IAAF?
A.Mahesh Bhupati B.Leander Bhupati C.PT Usha D.Hima Das
53. What is the width of goalpost in Football?
A. 20 ft B. 22ft C. 24ft D. 26ft
th
54. What was the Mascot of the 13 Asian games called?
A. Chai-Yo B. Chi Rho C. Chi To D. Chi Kho
55. The 16th Edition of Moselle Open (Tennis) for 2019 was held at which country?
A.Canada B.Spain C.Brazil D.France
56. Which country lifted 2019 Asian Men's Volleyball Championship title?
A.Indonesia B.Australia C.Iran D.India
57. Who won Singapore Grand Prix 2019?
A.Sebastian vettel B.Charles Leclerc C.Max Verstappen D.Lewis Hamilton
58. Indian wrestler Rahul Aware has won a __________ medal in men's 61-kilogram freestyle category at the
World Championship in Kazakhstan.
A. Gold B.Silver C.Bronze D.None
59. Rogers Cup is related to Which Sport?
A.Cricket B.Tennis C.Hockey D.Badminton
60. Which Indian wrestler won bronze medal at World Wrestling Championship?
A.Bajrang Punia B.Vijender Singh C.Sushil Kumar D.Yogeshwar Dutt
61. Ryder cup is related to which sports?
A.Cricket B.Football C.Polo D.Golf
62. What is the position of India in FIFA ranking?
A.75 B.86 C.98 D.104

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63. Which Cricket player is known as the 'Haryana hurricane'?
A.Harbhajan Singh B.Kapil Dev C.Virat Kohli D.Virendra Sehwag
64. Vinesh Phogat won the __________ medal at the Wrestling World Championships, Kacakhstan.
A.Gold B.Silver C.Bronze D.None
65. Which country has won 125 medals and topped in the Western Asian Youth and Junior Chess
Championships 2019?
A. Sri Lanka B.India C.Bangladesh D.Kazakhstan
66. FIFA Women's U-17 World Cup, 2020 will be held in _______.
A.Russia B.Brazil C.Argentina D.India
67. Who won U-19 Asia Cup title this year?
A.India B.Srilanka C.Bangladesh D.Pakistan
68. How many medals did India Bagged in 10th Asia Pacific Youth Games?
A.34 B.28 C.42 D.16
69. Who won 93rd All-India MCC Hockey Tournament for 2019 in Chennai?
A. Punjab National Bank B.Indian Oil Corporation C.Central Secretariat D.Indian Navy
70. In which city Pro Kabaddi 2019 playoffs, final to be held?
A.Chennai B.Ahmedabad C.Mumbai D.Chandigarh
71. Who is the first ever bowler to take 100 wickets in T20 format?
A.Mohammad Amir B.Jaspreet Bumrah
C.Lasith Malinga D. Mohammad Shami
72. Who has become the youngest captain in test cricket?
A.Virat Kohli B.Ben Stokes C.Rashid Khan D.Mohammad Nabi
73. Who is the the fastest Indian wicket-keeper to claim 50 dismissals in Test cricket?
A.Mahendra Singh Dhoni B.Dinesh Kartik C.Rishabh Pant D.Riddhiman Saha
74. Indian shooter Yashaswini Singh Deswal wins __________ medal at ISSF World Cup.
A.Gold B.Silver C.Bronze D.None
75. Who was recently chosen as the new coach of the men's hockey team –
A. Sunil Chhetri B. Graham Reid C. CA Katappa D. Ravi Shastri
76. Who had Sponsor the ICC World Cup in England and Wales in 2019-
A. VIVO B. Reliance Jio C. Go Daddy D. Paytm
77. ICC World Cup will be held in India in which year-
A.2019 B.2020 C.2022 D.2023
78. Which country won the Sultan Azlan Shah Cup in Malaysia recently?
A. India B. South Korea C.France D.USA
79. Where is the proposed T-10 League, the smallest format of cricket –
A. Abu Dhabi B.India C.Sri Lanka D. USA
80. Who recently won the 5th SAFF 2019 Women's Championship in Nepal-
A.India B.Nepal C.Pakistan D. China
81. On March 31, 2019, where the 1000th race of the Formula One championship was held-
A. China B.Spain C. Australia D.Bahrain
82. Who recently won the Bahrain Grand Prix 2019-
A. Sebastian Vettel B. Volteri Bouta C. Lewis Hamilton D.None of these
83. Who recently won the Atrialon Grand Prix 2019
A. Sebastian Vettel B. Volteri Bottas C. Louis Hamilton D.None of these
84. Who won the title of Formula One Spanish Grand Prix 2019?
A.Sebastian Vettel B. Volteri Boutas C.Lewis Hamilton D.None of these
85. Who recently won the title of the Australian Tennis Grand Slam 2019 in the men's singles category –
A. Roger Federer B. Novak Djokovic C. Naomi Osaka D. None of these

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86. Who won the women's singles title in the recent Australian Tennis Grand Slam 2019 title-
A.Naomi Osaka B.Wani Kapoor C.Serena Williams D.None of these
87. Where will the National Games 2022 be organized?
A. Meghalaya B. Gujarat C. Delhi D. Kolkata
88. What will be the mascot in National Sports 2022 –
A. Pandi B. Clauded leopard C. Bhin Bhin D. ZabivKa
89. Recently, United States cricket became the member of the ICC of which number-
A. 101st B. 102nd C. 105th D.108th
90. Who was recently become the ICC Women's Cricketer of the Year -
A. Smiriti Mandhana B.Jhulan Goswami C. Mitali Raj D. Harman Preet Kaur
91. Who is the first Indian player to get a Tokyo Olympics 2020 ticket-
A. KT Irfan B. Saurabh Chaudhary C. Saina Newal D. None of these
92. Recently, which Indian female weight lifter won gold medal in EGAT International Bharattha
Championships held in Thailand in 2019-
A. Meera Bai Chanu B. Jeremy Lal Rinnunga C. Deepa karmakar D. None of these
93. Recently, who has become the first Lokpal of BCCI –
A. PC Ghosh B. DK Jain C. Sunil Gavaskar D. None of these
94. Who recently assumed the charge of the new CEO of the ICC-
A. Shashank Manohar B. Manu Sahni
C. Dave Richardson D. None of these
95. Recently, Indian footballer Sunil Chhetri has become second top goal scorer by leaving behind
which footballer-
A.Cristiana Ronaldo B. Lionel Messi C. Kaliyan Mbeppe D. None of these
96. Which cricketer was recently awarded the knighthood title?
A. Virat Kohli B. Alastair Cook C. Shane Warne D. Lasith malinga
97. Who became the first Indian to join the FIFA Council recently?
A.Sunil Chhetri B. Praful Patel C. Virat Kohli D.None of these
98. Recently, who was on top of the list of the richest owners of the sports team released by Forbes-
A.Mukesh Ambani B. Steve Ballmer C. Shahrukh Khan D.None of these
99. Who led the team on the recent Malaysian tour of the recently concluded Indian Women's Hockey Team –
A. Navjot Kaur B. Savita C. Sunil Chhetri D.None of these
100. Where did the recent 15th Special Summer Olympics 2019 be held –
A. Abu Dhabi B. India C. USA D. France
101. Who recently resigned from the post of International Boxing Federation (IBF)
A. Gafur Rahimov B. Praful Patel C. Manu Sahni D. None of these
102. Which cricketer recently announced the retirement after the 2020 T-20 World Cup –
A. Virat Kohli B. Lasith malinga C. MS Dhoni D.None of these
103. Which team was recently given the ICC Team Championship Mace?
A.France B. Sri Lanka C. India D. None of these
104. Which country topped the 12th Asian Air Gun Championship
2019, in Chinese Taipei recently?
A.India B. South Korea C. Chinese Taipei D. France
105. Who recently won the title of South Africa Open 2019 Women's Golf Tournament
A. Diksha dagar B. Wani Kapoor C. Aditi Ashok D. None of these
106. Recently, who won the club football competition Hero Super Cup 2019 at Kalinga stadium in
Bhubaneshwar-
A.Goa B. Chennai C. Haryana D. Kerala
107. Who was recently honored by The Blue Cross award –

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A.Abhinav Bindra B. Saurabh Chaudhary
C. Rahi sarnobat D.None of these
108. Which country was in agreement to train Indian junior tennis players –
A.France Tennis Federation B.Serbia Tennis Federation
C. USA Tennis Federation D.Australia Tennis Federation
109. Recently, the NADA banned which Indian player for 4 years-
A.Manpreet Kaur (shot put) B.Suman Devi (Javelin Throw)
C. Both D.None of these
110. Indo International Premier Kabaddi League 2019 will be organized in May-June in Pune Mysore and
Bangalore, its director is –
A. Ravi Kiran B. Praful Patel C. Sunil Chhetri D. None of these
111. Who has been given the prize to the famous British cricket magazine Wisden Crickers' Almanack 2018 to
which player-
A. MS Dhoni B. Alastair cook C. Virat Kohli D.Shane Warne
112. Who has recently been elected as the President of the Asia Olympics Council
A.Sheikh Ahmed al-Fahad al- Sabah B. Shaikh salim
C. Mirza salim D.None of these
113.Who is recently elected the President of the Indian Wrestling Federation (WFI) –
A.Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh B. Gita Fogat
C. Salman Khan D.None of these
114. Who recently became the brand ambassador of the sportswear manufacturer PUMA –
A. Deepa karmakar B.MC Mary Kom C.Meera Bai Chanu D.Manu Bhakar
115. Recently, who is appointed the Brand Ambassador of the Rajasthan Royals IPL –
A. Shane Warne B. Virat Kohli C. MS Dhoni D. Lasith malinga
116. How many years have global partnership agreement between ICC and Coca-Cola –
A.1 year B.3 year C. 4 years D. 5 years
117. Who became the first woman cricketer to play 200 ODIs in 2019-
A.Jhulan Goswami B. Alice Perry C. Mitali Raj D.Harmanpreet Kaur
118. Which sport is controlled by the Marquess of Queensberry rules?
A. Wrestling B. Boxing C. Martial Arts D. Weightlifting
119. Where is the recent India Youth Games 2019 organized?
A. Haryana B. Delhi C. Pune D.Rajasthan
120. Which medal won by Apurvi Chandel in ISSF 10 meter air rifle event held recently in Munich, Germany?
A.Gold B.Silver C.Bronze D.None
121. How many medals India won in the Special Olympics organized in Abu Dabi in March 2019 –
A.368 B.85 C.154 D.129
122. Who recently won the title of Tennis Italian Open Men's Singles Series –
A.Rafael Nadal B.Novak Djokovik C.Roger Federer D.None
123. Which country will host the AFC Asian Cup 2023 –
A.China B. South Korea C. India D. France
124. Which Indian woman is selected as the referee in ICC matches –
A. G.S Lakshmi B. Mitali Raj C. Jhulan Goswami D. None 125.
Recently, where the world's first magazine on women's cricket is launched –
A. Australia B. India C. Pakistan D. France
126. Who has become the new coach of Indian men’s football team –
A. Igor Stimac B. Graham reid C. Ravi Shastri D. None 127.
Who is the first Non-British man to become a member of Marylebone Cricket Club?
A. Sachin B. Virat Kohli C.Kumar Sangakara D. Dhoni

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128. Recently, where did India Stand in ISSF World cup Rifle in 2019 medal tally –
A.1st B.2nd C. 3rd D. 4th
129. Who is the first Indian to participate in wrestling competition in New york’s Madison square garden?
A. Banjrang Punia B. Amit Pangal C. Vinesh Phogat D. None 130.
Who has become Goodwill Ambassador of the Street Child Cricket World Cup 2019 –
A. Jhulan Goswami B. Mitali Raj C. Virat Kohli D. Akshay Kumar
131. Which of the badminton organisation recently launched Badminton’s two new format -air
A.BFI B.BFC C.BFA D.BWF
132. Who among the following won gold medal for India in 48 kg category at AIBA World WOMEN’S Boxing
Championships in New Delhi in November 2018?
A. Sonia lather B. Aruna Mishra
C. Simranjit Kaur D. MC Mary Kom
133. Performance of India’s Dipa Karmarkar at the vault event in the Artistic Gymanstics World Cup in Cottbus,
Germany in November 2018:
A. Gold B. Silver C. Bronze D. Fifth Place
134. Which country won Davis Cup tennis title in November 2018?
A. France B. Serbia C. Russia D. Croatia
135. who among the following won Men’s Singles title at Syed Modi International Badminton in Lucknow in
November 2018?
A. Manu Attri B. H.S. Prannoy C. Sameer Verma D. Pranaav chopra
136. Who among the following athletes has been appointed as youth ambassador of United Nations Children’s
Fund (UNICEF) India?
A. Hima Das B. Dutee Chand C. Neeraj Chopra D. Arpinder Singh
137. Which country announced in November 2018 that it will provide seven pairs of customized shoes to Asian
Games gold medallist Swapna Barman?
A. Nike B. Bata C. Puma D. Adidas
138. What was India’s Performance at the SAFF (South Asian Football Federation) Under-15 Championship
held in Nepal recently?
A. Gold B. Silver C. Bronze D. 4th place
139. Which of the following is the sponsor of men’s Hockey World Cup in Bhaubaneshwar from November 28
to December 16?
A. SAIL B. JSW Steel C. Tata Steel D. Essar Steel
140. Who among the following won the Panasonic open India golf tournament in New Delhi on October 28,
2018?
A. Shiv kapur B. Khalin Joshi
C. Ajeetesh Sandhu D. Gaganjeet Bhullar
141. Who won Silver medal in men’s 65 kg freestyle wrestling at the World Wrestling Championship in
Budapest(Hungary) in October 2018?
A. Bajrang Punia B. Praveen Rana
C. Mausam Khatri D. Yogheshwar Dutt
142. India C beat India B by 29 runs to win the 2018-19 ……..at the Feroz Shah kotla stadium in New Delhi on
October 27.
A. Irani Trophy B. Ranji Trophy
C.Duleep Trophy D. DeodharTrophy
143. Which country topped the medals tally at the Youth Olympic Games organized in Buenos Aires in October
with 29 golds, 18 silver and 12 bronze medals?
A. France B. Russia C. China D.Japan

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144. India finished………in the medals tally at the Asian Para Games that concluded in Jakarta on October 13,
2018.
A. 3rd B. 5th C. 7th D. 9th
145. What was India’s position in the medals tally at the Youth Olympic Games organized in Buenos Aires in
October ?
A. 7th B. 17th C. 27th D. 37th
146. Great Britain won the Under-19 Men’s Sultan of Johor Cup………tournament on October 13, 2018.
A. Rugby B. Cricket C. Hockey D. Football
147. Manu Bhaker won gold for Indian at Youth Olympics in Buenos Aires in October 2018 in which of the
following sports event?
A. Shooting B.Wrestling C. Swimming D. Squash
148. Government-owned companies in which sector have decided to set up Apex Sports Body(ASB)
to contribute towards development of sports in India?
A.Steel B. Power C. Fertilsers D. Petroleum
149. What was India’s Position in the medals tally at 18th Asian Games that topped by China?
A. Ninth B. Tenth C. Eighth D. Seventh
150. Who among the following was the flag bearer of the Indian contingent at the closing ceremony of the
18th Asian Games in Jakarta on September 2, 2018?
A. Neeraj Chopra B. Jinson Johnson C. Vinesh Phogat D. Rani Rampal
151. The 18th Asian Games were organized in the Indonesian cities of Jakarta and:
A. Serang B. Bandung C. Surabaya D. Palembang
152. What was the motto of the 18th asian Games oragnised in Indonesia?
A. Youth of Asia B. Energy of Asia
C. Future of Asia D. Potential Of Asia
153. Who among the foolowing Indian singers performed at the closing ceremony of 2018 Asian games?
A.Sonu Nigam B. Arijit Singh C. Siddarth Singh D. Mika Singh
154. Kiran Nadar, Satyanarayana Bachiraju, Hema Deora, Gopinath Manna, Himani Khandelwal and Rajeev
Khandelwal won mixed team bronze medal for India in which sport at the 2018 Asian games?
A. Bridge B. Wushu C. Rowing D. Shooting
155. Rakesh kumar, Ashish Malik, Jitendra Singh and Fouaad mirza won silver for India in team event of which
sport at the 2018 Asian Games?
A. Bridge B. Wushu C. Rowing D. Equestrian
156. “No Spin” is the autobiography of which former bowler?
A. Anil Kumble B. Shane Warne C. Bishan Singh Bedi D. Derek
157. Narendra Grewal, Santosh Kumar, Surya bhanu Pratap Singh and Roshibina Devi won bronze medals in
for India in which sport at the 2018 Asian Games?
A. Purav Raja B. Divij Sharan C. Sanam Singh D. Vishnu Vardhan
158. Who won India’s first gold medal at the Asian games in Indonesia in Men’s 65 kg freestyle wrestling?
A. Bajrang Punia B. Praveen Rana C. Mausam Khatri D. Yogeshwar Dutt
159. Who among the Following was flag bearer of the Indian contingent at the opening ceremony of the 18th
Asian games in Jakarta on August 18, 2018?
A. Kidambi Srikanth B. Neeraj Chopra C. Dipa Karmakar D. Manu Bhaker
160. Former Indian cricket team captain Ajit Wadekar died at 77 on August 15, 2018. He Was an employee of
which bank?
A. Punjab National Bank B. Central Bank Of India C. State Bank of India D. Bank of Baroda
161. Which of the following was announced as “Principal Sponsor” of Indian wrestling for three years in
partnership with Wrestling Federation of India?
A. Tata Motors B. Indian Oil Corp

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C. State Bank of India D. reliance industries Ltd.
162. A bill seeking to establish a National sports University in………was passed by Lok Sabha on August 4, 2018.
A. Sikkim B. Manipur C. Mizoram D. Nagaland
163. India’s neeraj Chopra won gold medal in men’s javelin throw at the Savo games in……on july 29, 2018.
A. Japan B. France C. Canada D. Finland
164. The sports Authority of India(SAI) on july 22, 2018 selected 734 athletes for a scholarship programme
under Khelo India Talent Indentification Development scheme. Each athlete will get an annual stipend of:
A. ₹ 1 lakh B. ₹ 1.2 lakh C. ₹ 1.4 lakh D. ₹ 1.6 lakh
165. India’s Lakshya Sen Clinched the Men’s Singles title at the Asia Junior …….Championships in Jakarta on
July 22,2018.
A. Golf B. Tennis C. Squash D. Badminton
166. Which state announced that it will appoint athlete Hima Das as its sports ambassador?
A. West Bengal B. Tripura C. Odisha D. Assam
167. Antony De Mello Trophy is associated with test cricket series played between
A. Australia and India B. England and India
C. South Africa and India D. England and Australia
168. Who among the following received the sportsperson of the year Award given by sports illiustrated India
magazine in June 2018?
A. P.V. Sindhu B. Manu Bhaker C. Sunil Chhetri D. Kidambi Srikanth
169.Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is related to which among the following Sports?
A. Badminton B.Hockey C. Table Tennis D. Golf
170. Sachin Tendulkar hit his 100th international century against which among the following team?
A. Sri Lanka B. Bangladesh C.Pakistan D. South Africa
171. The word “Agricultural shot” is known to be used sometimes in which among the following sports?
A.Cricket B. Hockey C.Golf D.Polo
172. THE WORLD BENEATH HIS FEET is a Biography of?
A.Pulela Gopichand B.Nawab Pataudi
C. Ajit Wadekar D. Sachin Tendulkar
173. Which among the following country is the host of 2018 Commonwealth Games?
A .Canada B. England C. Australia D. India
174. Who among the following was the first Indian sportsman to boycott the Olympic torch relay in support of
the Tibetan independence movement?
A .Baichung Bhutia B.Dhanraj Pillay C.Chandu Borde D.Dibyendu Barua
175. Which among the following is played on a synthetic hard court?
A. French Open B. Wimbledon C.US open D.Australia open
176. Murugappa Gold Cup is related to which among the following sports?
A. Football B.Hockey C.Cricket D. Table Tennis
177. On which among the following courts, Chennai Open is played ?
A. Clay court B. Grass Court C. Hard Court D. Carpet Court
178. Consider the following facts: 1. Karnam Malleswari is the only Indian woman to win an Olympic medal 2.
Sushmita Sen was the first woman from India
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
A. Only 1 is correct B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both 1 & 2 are correct D. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
179. With which among the following sports, Ian Thorpe is related to?
A.Athletics B. Boxing C. Swimming D.Racing
180. Which of the following trophies is related with the game of ‘Football’?
A.Mumbai Gold Cup B.Everest Cup C. Merdeka Cup D. V.C.C. Cup

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181. How many number of Red Balls are in Snooker?
A. 13 B.15 C.17 D.20
182. The World Military Cup organized by the International Military Sports Council (CISM) involves which
among the following sports?
A.Cricket B. Foot ball C. Volleyball D. Basket Ball
183. The name of Professor Guru Dutt Sondhi is known behind the foundation of which among the following?
A.Olympic Association of India B.Asian Games Federation
C.Indian Premier League D.Indian Badminton League
184. Who among the following is the first Indian to score a century in Indian Premier League (IPL)?
A.Gautam Gambhir B.Manish Pandey C.Sachin D.Rahul Dravid
185. “Magnus Carlsen” is a player of which among the following sports / games?
A.Cricket B.Carrom C.Chess D. Tennis
186. The terms “Technical foul” and “Flagrant Foul” are most commonly associated with which of the
following sports?
A.Table Tennis B.Badminton C. Basket Ball D. Football
187.Birdie and Eagle are two terms related to which of the following sports?
A. Polo B. Golf C. Chess D.Billiards
188.Who among the following was first Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna?
A.Viswanathan Anand B. Geet Sethi
C. Karnam Malleswari D.Nameirakpam Kunjarani
189. Kazakhstan is a part of which of the following continental confederations recognized by FIFA?
A.Asian Football Confederation B.Confederation Africaine de Football
C. Union of European Football Associations D.None of them
190. “National Football Museum” which keeps FIFA collection is located in which country?
A.Switzerland B. Canada C.England D.France
191. Who was the first Indian International Cricket Council President?
A.Sharad Pawar B.Jag Mohan Dalmiya C.Ray Mali D.Gavaskar
192. Which was the first brand, Sachin Tendulkar endorsed in the beginning of his career?
A.Boost B.Pepsi C. Nike D. None of them
193. In Kho-Kho , the players occupying the squares are known as ________?
A. Lobby B. Raiders C. Chasers D. Chukker
194. In which year Mission Olympics in Army programme was launched?
A. 1999 B.2000 C. 2001 D.2002
195. Who among the following is first Indian to win an individual gold medal at any Olympic Games?
A. Abhinav Bindra B. Muhammad Aslam
C.Rajyavardhan Singh Rathode D.Mohammed Shahid
196. In which of the following sports/ games the term Interference is used?
A.Golf B.Chess C.Squash D.Table Tennis
197. Rungrado May Day Stadium is located in which country?
A.Thailand B.China C.North Korea D.South Korea
198.Dempo Sports Club is a sports club , one of the most prominent football team of India is based in ______?
A.Kolkata B.Panjim C.Guwahati D.Bangalore
199. Which among the following games was previously known as Mintonette?
A.football B.baseball C.volleyball D.handball
200. Which of the following Indian Sports Team is also known as “The Bhangra Boys”?
A.Cricket Team B. Hockey Team C.Kabaddi Team D.Football Team
201. Which among the following tournament is also known as World Team Championships for Women?
A.Thomas Cup B.Uber cup

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C.Helvetia Cup D.Spanish Open Badminton
202. Who among the following was known as Flying Sikh?
A. Milkha Singh B.Harbhajan Singh
C. Yuvaraj Singh D.Gurbachan Singh
203. The word Gambit is related to which of the following sports?
A.Chess B.Table Tennis C.Polo D.carom
204. Which among the following sporting event has become the first ever to be broadcast live on the popular
video sharing website YouTube?
A.2010 Africa Cup of Nations B.FIFA World Cup
C. Indian Premier League -III D. T-20 World Cup
205. Kookaburras is the nickname of Hockey Team of which of the following country?
A. India B. Australia C.USA D. China
206. Who among the following is the first batsman to hit six sixes in an over?
A. Garfield Sobers B.Ravi Shastri C. Ted Alletson D.Kapil Dev
207. Rovers Cup is related to which of the following sports?
A.Football B.Cricket C.Hockey D. Tennis
208. Which of the following sports was invented by James Naismith?
A. Football B. Basket Ball C. Ice Hockey D.Badminton
209. Which of the following games were previously called ‘British Empire Games’ ?
A. East Asian Games B.Southeast Asian Games
C.Olympic Games D.Commonwealth Game
210. Who among the following cricketers was the first to score a century for the Indian Test cricket team in
his Debut Test match ?
A.Sunil Gawaskar B. Kapil Dev C. Lala Amarnath D. Nawab Pataudi
211. Which of the following stadiums in India was the first to Host a Test match in Independent India?
A.Gymkhana Ground, Mumbai B. Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi
C.Eden Gardens, Kolkata D. M. A. Chidambaram Stadium, Chennai
212. Who among the following was first black Formula One World Champion in history?
A.Felipe Massa B. Jensson Button
C.Lewis Hamilton D. Fernando Alonso
213. Three R’s of Football are famous in which country ?
A. Peru B. Mexico C. Brazil D. USA
214. Pen Holder grip is used in which of the following sports ?
A. Cricket B.Hockey C.Table Tennis D.Badminton
215. In which of the following sports Decision Referral System is used?
A.Hockey B. Tennis C. Chess D. Cricket
216. What is the new name of Feroz Shah Kotla ground?
A.Arun Jaitley Stadium B. Sheila Dikshit Stadium
C.Gautam Gambhir Stadium D. Ajit Wadekar Stadium
217. Benson Hedges Cup is related to which of the following sports?
A. Hockey B. Cricket C.Football D.Basket Ball
218. Which among the following players of India was famous as “Pocket Dynamo”?
A.Leander Paes B.Vijender Singh C.KD Jadhav D.Gurbux Singh
219. WISPA is related to which of the following sports?
A.Football B.Chess C. Cricket D. Squash
220. What is the other name of Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy?
A.ICC Cricketer of the Year Awards B.ICC Test Captain of the Year
C. Spirit of the Cricket D.Test Player of the Year Award

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221. Which among the following is not given as “Life Time Achievement” Award in India?
A.Dada Saheb Phalke Award B.Dhyanchand Award
C.Tenzing Norgay D.Dronacharya Award
222. Which among the following is not a trophy or cup related to Hockey?
A.Bombay Gold Cup B.Gurmeet Trophy C.Indira Gold Cup D.Narang Cup
223. Who among the following served as India’s first Test Captain?
A.Nawab of Pataudi Senior B.Nawab Mansoor Ali Khan
C.C. K. Nayudu D.Lala Amarnath
224. What is the other name of Salt Lake Stadium ?
A.Yuba Bharti Stadium B.Bharat Bharti Stadium
C.Eden Gardens D.Kolkata Stadium
225. Ezra Cup is related to which of the following sports?
A.Polo B.Tennis C.Lawn Tennis D.Cricket
226. What is the approximate maximum weight of Golf Ball as per Rules of Golf?
A.20 gms B.25 gms C.40 gms D.45 gms
227. Which among the following team was first winner of “World Cup Hockey” ?
A. Spain B.France C.UK D.Pakistan
228. For which of the following sports Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy is given ?
A.Inter school B.Inter state C.Inter university D.None 229.
With Which of the following sports M Vijayakrishna Memorial Cup is related to ?
A.Badminton B.Table Tennis C.Horse Races D.Polo
230. For how many times ” Undivided India” was part / member of summer Olympics?
A.2 B.3 C.4 D.5
231. Which among the following sports have largest number of participants in teams of either side?
A.Rugby Football B.Water polo C.Baseball D.Soccer
232. With which of the following sports “Agakhan trophy” is related to ?
A.Field Hockey B.Horse Racing
C.Table Tennis D.Show Jumping
233. In context of the Indian awards and honors in sports, which among the following is given as Life Time
achievement award?
A.Dronacharya Award B.Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
C.Dhyan Chand Award D.Arjuna Award
234. For which of the following games / sports the term Ring is not used for ground/ space?
A.Boxing B.Gymnastics C.Ice Hockey D.Baseball
235. “Prince of Wales Cup ” is related to which of the following sports?
A. Boxinng B.Golf C.Hockey D.Tennis
236. Which of the following trophy/ is not related to Cricket in India?
A. Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy B. Deodhar Trophy
C. Santosh Trophy D. Duleep Trophy
237. Three forms of hockey field hockey (called Khong Kangjei) and wrestling-hockey (called Mukna Kangjei) &
Sagol Kangjei(called Horse Hockey). The third form has been traced back as origins of Modern game
Polo.Which of the following North East State is related to origin of Polo?
A.Meghalaya B. Manipur C.Sikkim D. Assam
238. Since which of the following year Winter Olympics are held ?
A.1896 B.1900 C.1888 D.1924
239. Which among the following is not correctly matched pair? (Countries – National Game )
A.USA – Baseball B.Pakistan – Field Hockey C.China – Table D.All are correct
240. What is the tile of the autography of Major Dhyanchand?

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A.Goal B. Hockey Days C. Hockey – My Life D.Me & My Hockey
241. Which among the following is known as “Bible of Cricket”?
A.All Out Cricket B.Cricinfo Magazine
C.Wisden D.The Guide to Cricketers
242. Jules Rimet Trophy is related to which of the following sports?
A.Hockey B.Cricket C.Football D.Volley ball
243. A game called ” Mokshapat” was created by the 13th century poet saint Gyandev, It is the original version
of which of the following games of today?
A.Ludo B.Snakes & Ladders C.Carrom D.Chess
244. World’s highest Hockey ground is located in:
A.Chail B.Shilaroo C.Parwanoo D. Delhi
245. In which among the following years, the Modern Olympic games were held for the first time?
A. 1889 B.1896 C.1876 D.1898
246. India played its first one day international with which country and in which year?
A. England 1975 B.Australia 1976 C. New Zealand 1975 D.England
247. Who among the following was the first Indian to win an Olympic medal ?
A.K D Jadhav B.P T Usha C.Leander paes D. Dhyan Chand
248. Who among the following was the First Indian Cricketer to bag 500 wickets in Test matches?
A. Kapil Dev B. Srinath C.Anil Kumble D.Harbhajan Singh
249. Velodrome is an arena for which among the following sporting events ?
A.Lawn tennis B.Ice Hockey C.Track Cycling D. Formula 1 racing
250. Durand Cup is associated with?
A.Swimming B. Football C. Table Tennis D. Hockey
251. Grand Slam is used in which of the following games?
A. Lawn Tennis B.Football C. Badminton D.none
252. The Commonwealth Games started from which among the following countries?
A. England B. Australia C. Canada D. India
253. Major Dhyanchand’s birthday is celebrated as National Sports Day in India, on which among the following
dates?
A.July 29th B. August 29th C.March 29th D. April 29th
254. Euro Cup is related to which sports?
A. Badminton B.Football C.Table Tennis D. Hockey
255. Which among the following is the National Sports of USA?
A. Bowling B. Baseball C.Table Tennis D. Rugby
256. With which game is ‘Bully’ associated with?
A. Cricket B. Football C. Golf D. Hockey
257. Who among the following has written the book “Cricket My Style”?
A.Sunil Gavaskar B.Anil Kumble C.Kapil Dev D. None of them
258. Ryder cup is related to which sports?
A. Polo B.Golf C.Badminton D.Tennis
259. Thomas Cup is related to which among the following sports?
A.Table Tennis B.Lawn Tennis C.Badminton D.Golf
260. The term “Tee” is used commonly in which among the following sports?
A.Tennis B.Polo C. Golf D. Racing
261. “Omega Mission Hills World Cup” is related to which game?
A.Tennis B. Golf C.Hockey D. Polo
262. “Electra Gold Cup” is associated with which sports?
A.Lawn Tennis B.Table Tennis C.Badminton D. Football

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263. The famous football player Maradona belongs to which among the following countries?
A. Brazil B.Chile C.Argentina D.Italy
264. The name of S Vijayalakshmi is famous in which among the following games / sports?
A.Badminton B.Table Tennis C.Chess D.Hockey
266. The terms Volley, Smash, Service are related to which among the following sports?
A.Volleyball B.Lawn Tennis C.Table Tennis D.Badminton
267. Which among the following is the women’s equivalent of the Davis Cup?
A. Hopman Cup B.Fed Cup
C. BMW Open D.Millrose Cup
268. Consider the following: Badminton Bowling Golf Table Tennis The sporting event “Singapore Open” is
related to which among the above?
A. Only 1 B.1 & 2 C. 1, 2 & 3 D. 1,2,3& 4
269. What does the Olympic Flame symbolize?
A. zeal to play sports B.Challenge
C.Continuity D.Integrity
270. The 2017 National Sports Day (NSD) is celebrated on which day in India?
A.August 28 B.August 29 C.August 26 D.August 27
271. Who was the first Indian in independent India to have won a medal in an individual Olympic event ?
A.Dhyanchand B.K D Jadhav
C. Prithipal Singh D.Harishchandra Birajdar
272. Which cricket team has won the 2017 Vijay Hazare Trophy?
A. Karnataka B.Gujarat C.Jharkhand D.Tamil Nadu
273. When was the first Common Wealth Games held?
A.1930 B.1934 C.1938 D.1948
274. In which sports is the participant called pugilist?
A.Sprinter B.Boxing C.Wrestling D.Javelin throw
275. The term ‘Butterfly Stroke’ is referred to in which sport?
A.Wrestling B.Volleyball C.Tennis D.Swimming
276. In which game the term ‘Putting’ is used?
A.Chess B.Hockey C.Golf D.Billiards
277. Who was the first Test Centurion in India Cricket?
A.C.K. Naidu B.Lala Amarnath
C.Vinu Mankad D.Mansur Ali Pataudi
278. The term ‘Beamer’ is associated with
A.Cricket B.Hockey C.Chess D.Football
279. The number of players in each side in Water Polo is
A.6 B.7 C.8 D.9
280. Which was the first country to host the Asian Games?
A. China B.Japan C.India D.Korea
281. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?
A.Italy B.France C.Belgium D.Switzerland
282. Which one of the following Grand Slam titles is also known as “Rolland Garros” title?
A.French Open B.Wimbledon
C. U.S. Open D.Australian Open
283. Nine time Wimbledon Champion of Women’s Singles Match in Tennis is:
A. Iva Majoli B. Jana Novotna
C. Martina Navratilova D.Mary Joe Fernandaz
284. Who won the gold medal for 400 meters run at two consecutive Olympic Games?

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A. Carl Lawis B.Michael Johnson
C.Gregory Haughton D.Alvin Harrison
285. Who is the first Aborigine to win a Gold Medal at the Olympic Games?
A.Katherine Merry B. Lorraine Graham
C. Maria Mutola D. Cathy Freeman
286. Which was the first country to host the Asian Games?
A. China B. Japan C. India D. Korea
287. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?
A. Italy B. France C. Belgium D. Switzerland
288. Which one of the following Grand Slam titles is also known as “Rolland Garros” title?
A. French Open B. Wimbledon C. U.S. Open D. AustralianOpen
289. Who won the first silver medal for an individual event at the Olympics for India?
A.Wilson Jones B.Leander Paes
C.Maharaja Karni Singh D.Major R.S. Rathore
290. Which of the following awards is not associated with the field of sports?
A.Arjuna Award B.Dronachatya Award
C.Dhyan Chand Award D.Norman Borlaug Award
291. Hopman Cup is related with which sports?
A.Tennis B.Football C.Badminton D.Hockey
292. The first World Cup in cricket was held in
A. 1971 B. 1973 C. 1975 D.1977
293. Who is the first Indian cricketer to take a hat-trick of wickets in a Test?
A. B.S. Bedi B. B.S. Chandrasekhar
C. E.A.S. Prasanna D. Harbhajan Singh
294. The word “Jump ball” is associated with
A. Softball B. Basketball C. Netball D. Baseball
295. Where did the game of Chess originate?
A. India B. Persia C. Arabia D. Europe
296. Which sports person is nick named Dennis the Menace?
A. Pete Sampras B. John McEnroe C. Jim Courier D. Andre Agassi
297. Which of the following awards is not associated with the field of sports?
A. Arjuna Award B. Dronachatya Award
C. Dhyan Chand Award D. Norman Borlaug Award
298. Who won the first silver medal for an individual event at the Olympics for India?
A. Wilson Jones B.Leander Paes
C. Maharaja Karni Singh D. Major R.S. Rathore
299. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?
A. Italy B. France C. Belgium D. Switzerland
300. Narayan karthikeyan is a sportsman in the field of
A. Shooting B. Car racing C. Chess D. Golf

ANSWER KEY:
1.C 2.B 3. B 4.B 5.A 6.A
7. A 8. C 9.C 10.C 11.C 12.C
13.B 14.A 15.B 16.C 17.A 18.D
19.B 20.A 21.C 22.A 23.D 24.A
25.D 26.D 27.B 28.B 29.A 30.B

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31.A 32.B 33.A 34.A 35.C 36.D
37.B 38.A 39.C 40.A 41.B 42.B
43.A 44.C 45.C 46.B 47.D 48.D
49.C 50.B 51.B 52.C 53.C 54.A
55.D 56.C 57.A 58.C 59.B 60.A
61.D 62.D 63.B 64.C 65.B 66.D
67.A 68.A 69.B 70.B 71.C 72.C
73.C 74.A 75.B 76.C 77.D 78.B
79.A 80.A 81.A 82.C 83.B 84.C
85.B 86.A 87.A 88.B 89.C 90.A
91.A 92.A 93.B 94.B 95.B 96.B
97.B 98.A 99.B 100.A 101.A 102.B
103.C 104.A 105.A 106.A 107.A 108.B
109.C 110.A 111.C 112.A 113.A 114.B
115.A 116.D 117.C 118.B 119.C 120.A
121.A 122.A 123.A 124.A 125.B 126.A
127.C 128.A 129.A 130.B 131.D 132.D
133.C 134.D 135.C 136.B 137.D 138.C
139.C 140.B 141.A 142.D 143.B 144.D
145.B 146.C 147.A 148.A 149.C 150.D
151.D 152.B 153.C 154.A 155.D 156.B
157.B 158.A 159.C 160.A 161.A 162.B
163.D 164.B 165.D 166.D 167.B 168.D
169.B 170. B 171.A 172.A 173.C 174.A
175.D 176.B 177.C 178.B 179.C 180.C
181.B 182.B 183.B 184.B 185.C 186.C
187.B 188.A 189.C 190.C 191.B 192.A
193.C 194.C 195.A 196.B 197.C 198.B
199.C 200.D 201.B 202.A 203.A 204.A
205.B 206.A 207.A 208.B 209.C 210.C
211.B 212.C 213.C 214.C 215.D 216.A
217.B 218.C 219.D 220.A 221.D 222.D
223.C 224.A 225.A 226.D 227.D 228.C
229.C 230.D 231.A 232.D 233.C 234.D
235.B 236. 237.B 238.D 239.D 240.A
241.C 242.C 243.B 244.B 245.B 246.A
247.A 248.C 249.C 250.B 251.A 252.C
253.B 254.B 255.B 256.D 257.C 258.B
259.C 260.C 261.B 262.B 263.C 264.C
265. 266.B 267.B 268.D 269.C 270.B
271.B 272.D 273.A 274.B 275.D 276.C
277.B 278.A 279.B 280.C 281.D 282.A
283.C 284.B 285.B 286.C 287.D 288.A
289.D 290.D 291.A 292.C 293.D 294.B
295.A 296.A 297.D 298. 299.D 300.B

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