GENERAL INTRUCTIONS:

 STUDY AND ANSWER THIS SET OF QUESTIONS FOR THE ORAL RECITATION.
 WRITE YOUR ANWER IN ½ CROSSWISE YELLOW PAPER
 FOR THE ORAL RECITATION. YOU NEED TO RATIONALIZE EACH QUESTION. EACH
STUDENT WILL BE ANSWERING 2 QUESTIONS WORTH 10 POINTS EACH.
 5 points- if answered correctly
 5 points- if rationalize and explained well
 NOTE: Minus points if does not explain well
 EXAMPLE:
QUESTION: What term is used to describe the accumulation of bilirubin in the skin?
a. Jaundice b. Hemolyze c. Icterus d. Kernicterus
ANSWER: a. Jaundice. Jaundice Condition is characterized by yellow discoloration of skin, sclera, and
mucous membranes. Most commonly caused by increased bilirubin, not clinically seen until bilirubin
values exceed 3 to 5 mg/dL. While, Hemolysis, is the lysis of the RBC with the release of hemoglobin,
which results to reddish color of the plasma or serum. Icterus, is characterized by yellow discoloration of
the serum or plasma due to excess bilirubin in the blood. Lastly, Kernicterus, is the abnormal
accumulation of the bile pigment in the brain which results to yellow staining and tissue damage.
 Make this as a basis in your rationale. 😊

1. A community public health is best defined as a health worker who is:

a. Applies concepts and knowledge from nursing and public health
b. Gives care to families in the community
c. Has a baccalaureate and previous experience in community health
d. Is employed outside of an acute care setting
2. What is the value of discussing our vision for health of the community?
1. Assists the others in seeking possibilities they may not have thought possible
2. Encourages others to become partners in a specific project
3. Forces others to think about health issues and nurses power
4. Helps coerce others to become partners in the nurse’s dream
5. Helps divert attention from issues pushed by other professions
6. Such sharing when others agree can become a source of energy and motivation for all
a. 1,2, and 3
b. 3,4, and 6
c. 1, 3 and 6
d. 1,2 and 6
3. in the Philippine Health care delivery system, the public sector is defined as:

1. largely marketed-oriented and where health care is paid thru user fees at the point of service
2. consists of national and local government agencies
3. health care is given free at the point of service
4. includes for non-profit and for profit health providers
5. providing health services in clinics, hospitals, health insurance, manufacturers, medicine, etc.
a. 1, 4, and 5
b. 3, 4, and 5
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3
4. the romans inherited the theory from Greeks like?
1. sewage disposal
2. reporting system in place
3. baths, sewers and aqueducts were constructed
4. theory of humors
 a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, and 3
5. the following are public health definitions which of the following does not define public health?
a. the science and art of preventing diseases, prolonging life, promoting life and efficiency thru organized community
effort
b. the act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery
c. it is dedicated to the common attainment of the highest level of physical, mental and social well-being and longevity
consistent with available knowledge and resources at a given time and place.
d. state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being not merely the absence of diseases or infirmity.
6. which of the following does describe an AGENT, except;
a. is the infectious agent or toxic component that is transmitted from the source of infection to the susceptible body
b. an organism that harbors and provide nourishment for another organism
c. intrinsic property of microorganism to survive and multiply in the environment to produce disease
d. none of the above
7. the following are variables influencing health status, beliefs and practices, which of the following are internal variables?
a. economics
b. biologic dimension
c. physiological
d. cognitive
8. Nursery management covers

1. Sourcing, collection and selection of seeds for propagation

2. Handling of seeds to hasten germination
3. Management practices of germination beds
4. Techniques of sowing the seeds in the germination beds
a. 1, 2, 3, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
9. It is referred to as community diagnosis or community needs assessment, or health education planning or mapping
a. Implementation
b. Community analysis
c. Design and initiation
d. None of the above

10. in designing and planning in tree nursery, which of the following should be included in the plan?

1. Internal paths
2. Soil storage shelter
3. Working area
4. Compost pit
a. 1, 2, 3, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3

11. Fence the perimeters properly to ensure safety of the plants against stray animals or intruders. Fill the perforated bags with
loamy soil or forest soil, collected from top layer below the litter layer.

a. The first statement is true, while the second statement is false

b. The first statement is false while the second statement is true
c. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are true

12. Centralization and decentralization are the two types of structures, that can be found in the organization, government,
management and even in purchasing. This statement is?

a. True
 b. False
c. Neither
d. None of the above

13. It covers the continuum of what Leavell calls the levels of prevention, health promotion, specific health protection, early
diagnosis and treatment, disability limitation to rehabilitation.

a. Public Health
b. Community action plan
c. Health education
d. None of the above

14. It is the product of the ripened ovule of gymnosperm and angiosperm plants, which occurs after fertilization and some growth
within the mother plant

a. Plant Propagation
b. Seed
c. Tree nursery
d. None of the above
15. Which of the following is not a good characteristic of a seed?

a. Must be pure and free from inert materials and weed seeds
b. Must be viable and have good germination capacity
c. Must be uniform in texture, structure and look
d. Must be damaged, broken or affected by pests and diseases

16. it is a branch of public health that deals with the study of preventing illnesses by managing the environment and changing
people’s behavior to reduce exposure to biological and non-biological agents of disease and injury
a. environmental sanitation
b. environmental health
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
17. it is defined as the study of all factos in man’s physical environment, which may exercise a deleterious effect on his health
well-being and survival
a. environmental sanitation
b. environmental health
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
18. it is also known as Clean Act water of 2004
a. R.A. 9275
b. R.A. 6969
c. P.D 856
d. none of the above
19. what agency that is responsible for the promotion of healthy environmental conditions and prevention of environmental
related diseases through appropriate sanitation strategies
a. CDC
b. EOHO
c. DENR
d. none of the above
20. it is normally serves around 15 to 25 households and its outreach must not be more than 250 meters from the farthest user.
a. communal faucet
b. point source
c. waterwork system
d. all of the above
21. the following are water coming from the doubtful sources, except
a. dug wells
b. treated water
c. springs
d. all of the above
22. it is a type of toilet facility that has non-water carriage toilet facility like for example pit latrines
a. Level 1
b. level 2
 c. level 3
d. level 4
23. it is a type of toilet facility that has on site facilities of the water carriage type with water-sealed and flush type with septic
vault/tank disposal facilities
a. Level 1
b. level 2
c. level 3
d. level 4
24. it is also known as Sanitation Code of the Philippines
a. R.A. 9275
b. R.A. 6969
c. P.D 856
d. none of the above
25. it has a source, reservoir, piped distributor network and household taps
a. communal faucet
b. point source
c. waterwork system
d. all of the above
26. which of the following types of approved water facility that is applicable to the urban areas?
a. communal faucet
b. point source
c. waterwork system
d. all of the above
27. one faucet per 4-6 households, what type of water facility is this?
a. communal faucet
b. point source
c. waterwork system
d. all of the above
28. it requires minimum treatment or disinfection, what type of water facility is this?
a. communal faucet
b. point source
c. waterwork system
d. all of the above
29. it has a source reservoir, a piped distributor network and communal faucet
a. communal faucet
b. point source
c. waterwork system
d. all of the above
30. disinfection of water supply sources is required on which of the following statement below
a. container disinfection of drinking water collected from a water facility that is subject to recontamination like open
dug wells, unimproved springs and surface water
b. established water supply facility
c. water supply that has been treated 1 week ago
d. none of the above
31. which of the following statements below does correctly states about Level 2 approved types of toilet facility
a. reed-odorless earth closet
b. with septic tank
c. septic tanks to sewerage system to treatment plant
d. none of the above
32. which of the following are sanitation strategies of EOHO
1. water quality surveillance
2. evaluation of food establishments
3. proper solid and liquid waste management
4. sanitation management of disaster areas

a. 1 only b. 1 and 4 c. 1, 2, and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

33. the EOHO is also responsible for conceptualizing new programs or projects to content with emerging environmentally related
health problems, like
1. water for life
2. hospital waste management
3. urban health
4. pasig river rehabilitation project
 a. 1 only b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1, 2, and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
34. which of the following does correctly states about Right Source in food safety
1. always buy fresh meat, fish, fruits and vegetables
2. buy canned foods with dents, bulges, deformation, broken seals and improper seams
3. use water only from unknown source
4. always look at the expiry dates

a. 1 only b. 1 and 4 c. 1, 2, and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

35. what are the microbes that can be seen in unpasteurized milk?
1. campylobacter spp
2. haemophillus spp
3. Salmonella spp
4. Listeria

a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, and 4

36. common cause of traveler’s diarrhea
a. Enterotoxigenic E.coli
b. Enteroinvasive E.coli
c. Enteropathogenic E.coli
d. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
37. diarrheal outbreak in hospital nurseries and in bottle fed infants in developing countries and also can cause chronic diarrhea in
infants
a. Enterotoxigenic E.coli
b. Enteroinvasive E.coli
c. Enteropathogenic E.coli
d. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
38. the toxins are closely related to the shiga toxins of shigella dysenteriae
a. Enterotoxigenic E.coli
b. Enteroinvasive E.coli
c. Enteropathogenic E.coli
d. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
39. identical to cholera toxin
a. Enterotoxigenic E.coli
b. Enteroinvasive E.coli
c. Enteropathogenic E.coli
d. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
40. Which of the following Infectious Agents of Tuberculosis, primarily from human, except
a. M. tuberculosis
b. M. bovis
c. M. africanum
d. None of the above

41. it is an ancient disease and is the leading cause of permanent physical disability among the communicable diseases. It is a
chronic mildly communicable disease that mainly affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, the eyes and mucosa of the upper
respiratory tract.
a. Tuberculosis
b. Schistosomiasis
c. Scabies
d. Leprosy
42. which of the following is not included in 3 major intestinal parasitic infections in the Philippines?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Trichuris trichura
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
43. A male patient with pus discharges from infection of urethra, he experiences burning urination. While the female patient has
vaginal discharge which has no clinical symptoms for cervical infection of rectum. This type of disease can be diagnosed using?
a. AFB
b. ELISA
c. Cell count of body fluids
d. Culture of discharges
44. it is usually passed by direct sexual contact. Can also be transmitted through contact with wet objects, such as towels, wash
clothes and douching equipment but in minimal risk only. Many women and most men have no symptoms, but the female has
white or greenish-yellow odorous discharge, vaginal itching and soreness while the male has slight itching of penis, but clear
discharge from penis, both male and female experiences painful urination. What is this?
a. syphilis
b. chlamydia
c. trichomoniasis
d. none of the above
45. in the gram stain it is arranged in “picket fences” or Chinese letters. This disease is characterized by a pseudomembrane formed
by dead cells and exudate at the back of the throat.
a. anthracis
b. diphtheria
c. tetanus
d. pneumonia
46. 16.infections are most severe in children and the elderly. Outbreaks are known to occur in daycare centers and nursing homes, it
causes food poisoning by direct fecal contamination from infected humans. And it is a form of dysentery, characterized by
abdominal pain, fever and diarrhea.
a. Hepatitis A
b. Shigella
c. Schistosomiasis
d. Paragonimiasis
47. it is also known as Klebs-Loeffler bacillus
a. tetanus
b. Shigella
c. Pneumonia
d. Diphtheria
48. usually peaks in the months of July to November and lowest during the month of February to April. It is accompanied with
hemorrhagic fever, abdominal pain and headache usually with epistaxis.
a. Influenza
b. Malaria
c. Dengue
d. None of the above
49. it is a disease of the liver which can be caused by viruses, bacteria, protozoa, toxic chemicals, drugs and alcohol
a. cirrhosis
b. liver toxicity
c. hepatitis
d. drug and alcohol related with liver ds
50. filariasis is transmitted to a person through bites from an infected female mosquito primarily Aedes poecillus that actively
bites at ________
a. day
b. noon
c. afternoon
d. night
51. it is also called Bordet Gengou Bacillus
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. None of the above
52. It is the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the arteries of the body. In combinations with other observations, it
indicates the circulatory status of patients.

a. Pulse
b. respiration
c. temperature
d. blood pressure
53. the single most important measure to reduce the risks of transmitting pathogens from one patient to another or from one
anatomic site to another on the same patient

a. sterilizing
b. disinfection
c. handwashing
d. none of the above
54. the primary method of infection transmission
a. indirect contact
b. hand contact
c. handwashing
d. none of the above
55. what part in our body does the heat regulates?
a. cerebellum
b. medulla oblongata
c. hypothalamus
d. none of the above
56. the temperature of our body is measured by?
a. stopwatch
b. centrifuge
c. microscope
d. thermometer
57. what do you mean when we say Bradycardia?
a. above the normal range
b. below the normal range
c. normal
d. none of the above
58. what do you mean when we say Tachycardia?
a. above the normal range
b. below the normal range
c. normal
d. none of the above
59. it is the absence of breathing
a. eupnea
b. bradypnea
c. tachypnea
d. apnea
60. Measures the risk of dying in the first four weeks of life of the infant (newborn)
a. crudes death rate
b. maternal mortality rate
c. infant mortality rate
d. neonatal mortality rate
61. measures the risk of dying due to infancy (under 1 year of age)
a. crudes death rate
b. maternal mortality rate
c. infant mortality rate
d. neonatal mortality rate
62. The process by which vaccines are introduced into the body before infection sets in
A. vaccine
b. immunization
c. vaccination
d. none of the above

63. how can an individual prevent or minimize the spread of HIV?

a. monogamous relationship
b. promiscuous sexual contact
c. no screening for blood donors
d. reuse syringes
64. it is gram negative bacteria caused by Neisseria spp, a gram negative diplococcus. It is transmitted through direct contact with
respiratory droplets from nose and throat of infected persons. Also, it is sporadic (cases occur alone or may affect household
members with intimate contact), although primarily a disease of children, it may occur among adults especially in conditions of
forced overcrowding such as institutions, jails and barracks.
a. Gonorrhea
b. Meningococcemia
c. Pneumonia
d. NOTA
66. It is an infectious disease of birds ranging from mild to severe form of illness. It is due to a highly pathogenic influenza virus
H5Ni, it is a subtype has been shown to be transmitted from infected poultry to human.
a. SARS
b. MERS
c. Leptospirosis
d. Avian Flu
67. According to the World Health Organization, what is the recommended length of the drug regimen for tuberculosis?
a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d.15 months
68. Which of the following infections can be transmitted by an infected Anopheles mosquito?
a. Malaria
b. Trichuriasis
c. Filariasis
d.Schistosomiasis
69. it is transmitted through ingestion of raw or insufficiently cooked crabs especially with infective larvae which is metacercariae.
What type of disease can a person get?
a. malaria
b. filiariasis
c. schistosomiasis
d. paragonimiasis
70. it is a gram positive bacteria that is encapsulated, spore-forming non-motile rod, also known as Malignant pustule/ Malignant
edemia/ Ragpicker disease. What is this?
a. tetanus
b. anthrax
c.syphilis
d. pneumonia
71. it produces tetanospasmin, a neurotoxin that affects the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, resulting in involuntary muscle
contractions. Contractions begin with the neck and jaw (“lock jaw”) and progress to a backward arching of the back muscles. What is
this?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Clostridium difficile
d. NOTA
72. Which of the following infectious diseases is also called elephantiasis?
a. Malaria
b. Trichuriasis
c. Schistosomiasis
d.Filariasis
73. Which is not an effective method in controlling the spread of disease?
a. Wash hands vigorously
b. Use cold water
c.Wash for at least 10 seconds
d. NOTA
74. acute infectious disease of sudden onset with slight fever, mild constitutional symptoms and eruptions which are maculo-papular
for a few hours, vesicular for 3-4 days and leaves granular scabs.
a. measles
b. rubella
c. Chicken pox
d. mumps
75. which of the following Schistosoma spp, that the egg of this parasite can be recovered from urine?
a. japonicum
b. mansoni
c. haematobium
d. all of the above

-GODBLESS!