11 Đề Thi Thử Tiếng Anh 2018 Có Đáp Án Chi Tiết - Megabook (Bản WORD)

BỘ ĐỀ 2018 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2018
MÔN ANH VĂN ĐỀ MEGABOOK 2018- ĐỀ SỐ 01

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút;
(50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. verbal B. signal C. common D. attract
Question 2: A. academic B. inorganic C.understanding D. uncertainty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. busy B. answer C. person D. basic
Question 4: A. laughed B. sacrificed C. cooked D. explained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: : - David: “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?”
- Lisa: “ ”
A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that. B. Not at all. Go ahead.
C. Not so bad. And you? D. That would be nice.
Question 6: - John : “What kind of job would you like?
- Tim : “ ”.
A. No, thanks B. I heard it was very good
C. Anything to do with computers D. Anytime after next week
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: It was necessary to divide the movie “Roots” into five parts in order to show it on television.
A. adapt B. merge C. segment D. transact
Question 8: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable
limits.
A. joy B. confidence C. boredom D. apprehension
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 9: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.
A. approximately B. comparatively C. nearly D. essentially
Question 10: You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her.
A. pay all your attention to what you are doing
B. upset her in what she is doing
C. get involved in what she is doing
D. make her comply with your order
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Since he failed his exam, he had to for it again
A. pass B. make C. take D. sit
Question 12: Is there at all I can help?
A. everything B. anything C. something D. one thing
Question 13: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as as possible
A. economizing B. economic C. economical D. economically
Question 14: They tell me about the film on TV last week
A. when they watched B. which they watched it
C. which they watched D. whom they watched
Question 15: It’s important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization
problems and some solutions to those in Viet Nam.
A. think B. advise C. expect D. propose
Question 16: Tim’s encouraging words gave me to undertake the task once again.
A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target
Question 17: 1 don’t suppose there is anyone there, ?
A. do I B. isn’t there C. is there D. don’t I
Question 18: He wanted to know whose car I had borrowed
A. the last evening B. last night C. yesterday evening D. the previous night
Question 19: Are you taking this semester?
A. house economics B. home economic C. house economic D. home economics
Question 20: We should participate in the movements the natural environment.
A. organizing to conserve B. organized to conserve
C. organized conserving D. which organize to conserve
Question 21: He does not his fellow-workers and there are often disagreements between them.
A. get on with B. put up with C. go on with D. take to
Question 22: Many applicants find a job interview if they are not well-prepared for it.
A. impressive B. stressful C. threatening D. time-consuming
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27
The warming ot the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, factories and power (23)
. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it form a kind of screen that keeps or allows
the sunshine in but stop the Earth heat (24) getting out. It works like a greenhouse, that’s why
we call (25) the Green House effect.
Because ot this effect, the Earth is getting warmer alt the time. This (26) in temperature
will cause big changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (27) the
poles will melt.
Question 23: A. companies B. factories C. sites D. stations
Question 24: A. from B. up C. against D. away
Question 25: A. is B. be C. it D. them
Question 26: A. raise B. rise C. drop D. fall
Question 27: A. covering B. covers C. covered D. cover
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34
The Hindu culture celebrates marriage as a pure and pristine rite enabling two individuals start their
journey of life together. It puts emphasis on the values of happiness, harmony and growth and could be
traced back from the Vedic times.
Months before the wedding ceremony, an engagement is held which is called “magni”. The couple is
blessed here with gifts, jewelry and clothes. Another important ritual is the “mehendi” which is a paste
made from the leaves of henna plant. It is the traditional art of adorning the hands and the feet of the
bride with mehendi and the name of the groom is also hidden in the design.
On the day of marriage, the couple exchanges garlands as a gesture of acceptance of one another and
a pledge to respect one another as partners which is known as «jaimala». This is followed by «jaimala»,
where the father of the bride places her hand in the groom’s hand requesting him to accept her as an equal
partner.
Another ritual is the «havan» in which the couple invokes Agni, the god of Fire, to witness their
commitment to each other. Crushed sandalwood, herbs, sugar rice and oil are offered to the ceremonial
fire. The “gath bandhan” takes place where scarves of the bride and groom are tied together symbolizing
their eternal bond. This signifies their pledge before God to love each other and remain loyal. The couple
then takes four “mangal pheras” or walk around the ceremonial fire, representing four goals in life:
“Dharma”, religious and moral duties; “Artha”, prosperity; “Kama” earthly pleasures; “Moksha”,
spiritual salvation.
The couple also takes seven steps together to begin their journey, called the “saptapardi”. Then the
ritual of “sindoor” takes place where the groom applies a small dot of vermilion, a red powder to the
bride’s forehead and welcomes her as his partner for life. This signifies the completion of the marriage.
The parents of the bride and the groom then give their blessings, “ashirwad” to the newly wed couple as
they touch the feet of their parents.
Question 28: What might be the most suitable title for this reading passage?
A. The Hindu culture B. The Hindu religion
C. The Hindu wedding D. The Hindu tradition
Question 29: What does the word “magni” stand for?
A. the wedding
B. the paste made from the leave of one another
C. the engagement
D. the gesture of acceptance oi one another
Question 30: What do the Hindu people think about marriage?
A. It is entirely a spiritual traditional ritual allowing two individuals to live together
B. It is a belief in the growth of a family newly formed by two individuals
C. It is a wish of happiness and harmony to come to two individuals
D. It is just a living-together announcement of two individuals
Question 31: What can the word adorning be best replaced by?
A. decorating B. painting C. repairing D. dying
Question 32: What can the word invokes be best replaced by?
A. tells B. says C. prays D. talks
Question 33: Why does the couple exchange garlands?
A. to do a ritual
B. to show both their acceptance of and the swear to respect the partner
C. to express their acceptance of one another and a wish of happiness
D. to express their vow to respect each other for the whole life
Question 34: When is the wedding ceremony completed?
A. When the parents ot the bride and the groom give their blessings to the couple
B. When the couple touches their parents’ feet
C. When the couple makes seven steps together
D. When the groom applies a small dot of vermillion of the brides forehead
answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42
It is hard to think of a world without gas or electricity. Both are commonly used for lighting and
heating today. We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. But it was not long
ago that there were no such things as matches or lighters. To make fire, it was necessary to strike a piece
of iron on flint for sparks to ignite some tinder. If the tinder was damp, or the flint old, you had to borrow
some fire from a neighbor.
We do not know exactly when or how people first used fire. Perhaps, many ages ago, they found that
sticks would burn if they were dropped into some hole where melted lava from a volcano lay boiling.
They brought the lighted sticks back to make their fire in a cave. Or, they may have seen trees catch fire
through being struck by lightning, and used the trees to start their own fires.
Gradually people learned they could start a fire without traveling far to find flames. They rubbed two
pieces ot wood together. This method was used for thousands of years.
When people became used to making fires with which to cook food and stay warm at night, they
found that certain resins or gums from trees burnt longer and brighter. They melted resins and dipped
branches in the liquid to make torches that lit their homes at night. Iron stands in which torches used to be
fixed can still be seen in old buildings of Europe.
There was no lighting in city streets until gas lamps, and then electric lamps were installed. Boys ran
about London at night carrying torches of burning material. They were called torch boys, or link boys,
and earned a living by guiding visitors to friends’ houses at night.
For centuries homes were lit by candles until oil was found. Even then, oil lamps were no more
effective than a cluster of candles. We read about the splendors and marvels of ancient palaces and
castles, but we forget that they must have been gloomy and murky places at night.
Question 35: What does “they” refer to?
A. people B. ages C. sticks D. trees
Question 36: According to the passage the first fire used by people was probably obtained .
A. from the suns heat through glass B. by rubbing wood together
C. from heat or fire caused by nature D. by striking iron against flint
Question 37: It is stated in the passage that torches for lighting were made from .
A. the wood of gum trees B. iron bars dipped in melted resins
C. wooden poles dipped in oil D. tree branches dipped in melted resins
Question 38: It is mentioned in the passage that before the electric lamp was invented, .
A. oil lamps and then candles were used
B. candles and oil lamps appeared about the same time
C. candles and then oil lamps were used
D. people did not use any form of lighting in their houses
Question 39: The word “splendors” in the passage could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. expensive object B. places of scenic beauty
C. achievements D. the beautiful and impressive features
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following sentence is NOT true?
A. We know exactly when and how people first used fire
B. Before gas lamps and electric lamps appeared, streets were lit by torches
C. We can make a fire by striking a piece of iron on flint to ignite some tinder
D. Matches and lighters were invented not long ago
Question 41: The word “gloomy” in the passage is closest in meaning to _ .
A. nearly dark B. badly decorated
C. containing a lot of white D. mysterious
Question 42: What form of street lighting was used in London when link boys used to work there?
A. Gas lighting B. No lighting at all C. Electric lighting D. Oil lighting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 43: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.
A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship
B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb
C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb
D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb
Question 44: Nick always forgets his wife’s birthday.
A. At no time Nick remembers his wife's birthday.
B. Nick never remembers his wife’s birthday.
C. Nick sometimes remembers his wife's birthday.
D. Nick remembers his wife’s birthday all the time.
Question 45: If you practise harder, you will have better results.
A. The harder you practise, the best results vou will have.
B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
C. The hardest you practise, the most results vou will have.
D. The harder you practise, the better results vou will have.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 46: (A) The shopkeeper warned the boys (B) don’t lean (C) their bicycles (D) against his
windows.
A. The B. don’t C. their D. against
Question 47: (A) The people who (B) they hadn't seen the weather forecast (C) were caught (D) unaware
by the hurricane
A. The B. they C. were D. unaware
Question 48: No longer (A) satisfied with the (B) emphasis ot the Denishawn school, Martha (C) has
moved to (D) the staff of the Eastman school in 1925
A. satisfied B. emphasis C. has D. the staff of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Linda lives in a house. The house is opposite my house.
A. Linda lives in a house where is opposite my house.
B. Linda lives in a house which is opposite my house.
C. Linda lives in a house who is opposite my house.
D. Linda lives in a house and which is opposite my house.
Question 50: He turned the radio on at 7.30. He was still listening to it when his mother came home at
9.00
A. He has been listening to the radio at 7.30.
B. He had been listening to the radio since 7.30.
C. He has been listening to the radio after 7.30.
D. He had been listening to the radio by 7.30.
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ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2018
BỘ ĐỀ 2018 ĐỀ MEGABOOK 2018- ĐỀ SỐ 01
MÔN ANH VĂN Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút;
BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN
1-D 2-D 3-A 4-D 5-D 6-C 7-B 8-B 9-B 10-A
11-D 12-B 13-D 14-C 15-D 16-B 17-C 18-D 19-D 20-B
21-A 22-B 23-D 24-A 25-C 26-B 27-A 28-C 29-C 30-A
31-A 32-C 33-B 34-D 35-C 36-C 37-D 38-C 39-D 40-A
41-A 42-B 43-B 44-B 45-D 46-B 47-B 48-C 49-B 50-B
Question 1: A. partnership B. romantic C. actually D. attitude
Question 2: A. obedient B. C. D. biologist
front the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. thanked B. belonged C. cooked D. laughed
Question 4: A. sour B. hour C. pour D. flour
Question 5: David: “ ” Mike: “I won’t say no!”
A. How are things with you, Mike?
B. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?
D. What’s your favourite drink, tea or coffee?
Question 6: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the
way to the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?”
- Passer-by: “ ”
A. No way! I hate him. B. Just round the corner over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here
Question 7: In most countries, mandatory military service does not apply to women
A. optional B. compulsory C. beneficial D. constructive
Question 8: I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. Being courteous B. Being cheerful C. Being efficient D. Being late
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 9: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools
A. depended B. paid C. required D. divided
Question 10: It was obvious to everyone that the child had been badly treated
A. significant B. unclear C. evident D. frank
questions.
Question 11: We should make full use the Internet as it is an endless source of information
A. of B. in C. with D. from
Question 12: He didn’t know or stay until the end of the festival.
A. whether to go B. if that he should go C. to go D. if to go
Question 13: If , that tree would look more impressive
A. it is done carefully B. being done careful C. it were careful done D. it were
Question 14: Not only _ the exam but she also got a scholarship
A. dis she pass B. she passed C. she has passed D. has she passed
Question 15: He was the first person .the room
A. entering B. to enter C. to be enter D. having entered
Question 16: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep with rapidly
changing technology.
A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace
Question 17: The climate of China is similar in many ways to ………………
A. that of the United States B. which of the United States
C. the United States D. this of the United States
Question 18: Western women are more than Asian women.
A. depend B. independent C. independently D. dependence
Question 19: He is exhausted because he around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house.
A. has been running B. runs C. is running D. was running
Question 20: Donald Trump is president of United States.
A. the/ the B. a / ∅ C. the / ∅ D. the/ an
Question 21: John would like to specialize computer science.
A. of B. to C. in D. at
Question 22: he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had
Keeping your distance
Personal space is a term that refers (23) ………….. the distance we like to keep between ourselves and
other people. When (24) …………….we do not know well gets too close we usually begin to feel
uncomfortable. If a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move
(25) …………….. Some interesting (26) ….……… have been done in libraries. If strangers come too close,
many people get up and leave the building; others use different methods such as turning their back on the
intruder. Living in cities has made people develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very
close to strangers. Most people on crowded trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contact, and
apologize if hands touch by mistake. People use newspapers (27) ………….. a barrier between themselves
and other people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking
into anyone’s eyes.
Question 23: A. from B. about C. to D. for
Question 24: A. people B. anyone C. someone D. nobody
Question 25: A. up B. away C. on D. in
Question 26: A. survey B. questionnaires C. research D. studies
Question 27: A. like B. alike C. as D. such as
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 28 to 34
The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors the physical location
of the restaurant, e.g., rural or urban; the type of restaurant, e.g., informal or formal; and certain standards
that are more universal. In other words, some standards of etiquette vary significantly while other
standards apply almost anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a
particular area may sometimes require instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and
experience. For example, while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is inappropriate to
do the same in a more luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting, it may be fine to
tuck your napkin into your shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant this behavior would
demonstrate a lack of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is
unacceptable to indiscriminately throw your food on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw
from the above is that while the types and locations of restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to
them, some rules apply to all restaurants
Question 28: What topic is this passage primarily concerned?
A. Instruction in proper etiquette
B. Rules of etiquette
C. Variable and universal standards of etiquette
D. The importance of good manners
Question 29: According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette?
A. reading a magazine at a coffee shop B. not throwing food on the floor
C. eating in rustic settings D. eating in rustic settings
Question 30: What does the word “it” refer to?
A. learning the proper etiquette B. clear instruction
C. knowing the type of restaurant D. sensitivity
Question 31: Which of the following words is most similar to the meaning of “rustic”?
A. urban B. unsophisticated C. agricultural D. ancient
Question 32: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “tuck”?
A. set B. put C. fold D. hold
Question 33: The word “indiscriminately” could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. random B. angrily C. noisily D. destructively
Question 34: The author uses the word “draw” in line 16 to mean
A. pick out B. drag away C. evoke D. infer
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than
speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language.
Human beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but
they have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today
there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn
to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal
human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write.
In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many
who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments
of those skills do so only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage
writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must
have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized
Question 35: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because .
A. writing is secondary to language
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
C. it has become very important in our culture
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings
Question 36: The author of the passage argues that .
A. speech is more basic to language than writing
B. writing has become too important in today’s society
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
D. all languages should have a written form
Question 37: According to the passage, writing _ .
A. is represented perfectly by speech B. represents-speech, but not perfectly
C. developed from imperfect speech D. is imperfect, but less so than speech
Question 38: Normal human beings
A. learn to talk after learning to write B. learn to write before learning to talk
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time D. learn to talk before learning to write
Question 39: Learning to write is .
A. easy B. quick C. not easy D. very easy
Question 40: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of
.
A. people who learn the rudiments of speech
B. severely handicapped children
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write
D. people who speak many languages
Question 41: In the author’s judgment .
A. writing has more advantages than speech
B. writing is more real than speech
C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
D. speech is essential but writing has important benefits
Question 42: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means
A. “rudiments” B. “skill” C. “domination” D. “benefit”
each of the following questions
Question 43: No one has seen Linda since the day of the party
A. Linda has not been seen since the day of the part
B. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party
C. The party is going on without Linda
D. No one has seen Linda for ages
Question 44: He talked about nothing except the weather
A. He talked about everything including weather
B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather
C. He had nothing to say about the weather
D. He said he had no interest in the weather
Question 45: He doesn’t study hard, so he can fail the exam
A. If he studies hard, he won’t fail the exam
B. If he didn’t study hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam
C. It he studied hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam
D. If he hadn’t studied hard, he wouldn’t have failed the exam
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 46: My mother (A) told me to (B) watch the milk and (C) don’t let it boil (D)
over.
A. told B. watch C. don’t D. over
Question 47: Fertilizer, (A) which is added to the soil to replace or (B)
increase plant nutrients, (C) include animal and green manure, fish and bone
meal and (D) compost.
A. which is B. increase C. include D. compost
Question 48: Foreign students who (A) are doing a decision (B) about which
school (C) to attend may not know exactly where (D) the choices are located
A. are doing B. about which C. to attend D. the choices
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the
window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the
window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Question 50: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is impractical as it is ingenious.
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BẢNG ĐÁP
ÁN
1-B 2-C 3-B 4-C 5-B 6-B 7-A 8-D 9-C 10-C
11-A 12-A 13-D 14-A 15-B 16-D 17-A 18-B 19-A 20-A
21-C 22-A 23-C 24-C 25-B 26-D 27-C 28-C 29-B 30-A
31-B 32-B 33-A 34-D 35-C 36-A 37-B 38-D 39-C 40-C
41-D 42-D 43-A 44-B 45-A 46-C 47-C 48-A 49-B 50-A
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. economy B. certificate C. graduate D. semester
Question 2: A. enthusiastic B. durability C. civilization D. humanitarian
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. takes B. develops C. burns D. laughs
Question 4: A. century B. culture C. secure D. applicant
each of the following exchanges
Question 5: Sarah has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much.
- Jane: “You look great in that red skirt, Sarah!”
- Sarah: “ ”
A. No, I don’t think so, B. Oh, you don’t like it, do you?
C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s. D. I like it.
Question 6: Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are
going to have a date with each other later.
- Laura: “Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime.”
- Ken: “ ............................“
A. Nice to see back you B. Take it easy

C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it
Question 7: We should keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being
A. revealed B. frequent C. lively D. accessible
Question 8: 1 didn’t think his comments were very appropriate at that time
A. unsuitable B. right C. exact D. correct
Question 9: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. comparatively D. almost
Question 10: From an airplane, the grasslands of the western prairie appear almost as uniform as a
placid sea.
A. hilly B. calm C. seedy D. fake
questions.
Question 11: Many young people in rural areas don’t want to spend their lives on the farm like their
parents. Therefore, they decide to leave their home villages to find well-paid jobs in the fast-
growing industrial zones.
A. long-term B. up-to-date C. weather-beaten D. wide-ranging
Question 12: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she it.
A. would accept B. wouldn’t accept
C. wouldn’t have accepted D. would have accepted
Question 13: Tim asked me that film the night before.
A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. if had I seen
Question 14: The twins look so much alike that no one can them _
A. take/ apart B. tell/ away C. tell/ apart D. take/ on
Question 15: The teacher that he make an outline before writing a complete essay.
A. reports B. recommends C. tells D. says
Question 16: 1 have no patience with gossips. What I told Tom was a secret. He it
to you.
A. mustn’t read B. shouldn’t have repeated
C. mustn’t have repeated D. shouldn’t read
Question 17: -he was kidnapped by the kidnapper yesterday has been confirmed.
A. That B. What C. If D. Unless
Question 18: Air pollution poses a to both human health and our environment
A. jeopardy B. difficulty C. problem D. threat
Question 19: The people who the survey said that they had examined over 1,000
accidents
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
Question 20: My younger brother had his hair yesterday
A. be cut B. to be cut C. cut D. being cut
Question 21: Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply expressions of our
cultural .
A. solidarity B. identity C. assimilation D. celebration
Question 22: Waste paper can be used again a tier being _ .
A. produced B. recycled C. wasted D. preserved
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, R, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
HERE ARE TIPS THAT HELP SUCCEED IN YOUR JOB INTERVIEW
Always arrive early. If you do not know (23) the organization is located, call for exact
directions (24) _ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, packing, or unexpected events. If
you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 – 10
minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be
ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with repect. Be (25)
to everyone as soon as you walk in the door.
Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (26) are
extremely important in the interview process. Women should (27) wearing too much jewelry or
make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel
comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an
informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed it you are wearing a
tailored suit.
Question 23: A. when B. why C. where D. that
Question 24: A. with B. in C. on D. for
Question 25: A. happy B. pleasant C. disappointed D. excited
Question 26: A. attendances B. attentions C. impressions D. pressures
Question 27: A. avoid B. suggest C. enjoy D. mind
FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES
Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a
“housewife”. She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the
family. He was usually out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much
housework. And he did not see the children very much, except on weekends.
These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the
children all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening
cooking dinner and cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is
going to do the housework now? Who is going to take care of the children?
Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife
agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband
always cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and
the husband cooks dinner on other nights.
Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from
grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far
away to help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. Ihe help may be a
babysitter or a day-care center. The problem with this kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for
couples with jobs that pay well.
Parents may get another kind of help form the companies they work for. Many companies now let
people with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend more time with their children. Some
husbands may even stop working for a while to stay with the children. For these men there is a new word:
they are called “househusbands”. In the USA more and more men are becoming househusbands every
year.
These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children
better, and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in
their marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other.
Question 28: Sixty years ago, most women .
A. went out to work B. had no children
C. did not do much housework D. were housewives
Question 29: Nowadays, there are .
A. more women going out to work than before.
B. more and more women staying with the children all day.
C. more work outside the home than before.
D. more housewives than before.
Question 30: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. tidying up B. cooking and washing the dishes
C. washing and ironing D. shopping
Question 31: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that .
A. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center.
B. grandparents can help care the children in a regular way.
C. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center.
D. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with child care.
Question 32: The word “they" in paragraph 5 refers to .
A. husbands who stop working to stay with the children
B. fathers who spend more time with their children
C. parents who work part-time
D. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers
Question 33: The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may .
A. help families B. not happen
C. cause problems for a marriage D. not change the children at all
Question 34: This article is about .
A. American men as househusbands
B. housewives in America
C. how more American women are working
D. how family life in America is changing
One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through his
highly inventive trilogy, The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from Oxford
and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo -Saxon and English language
and literature at Oxford University.
Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in intervals
from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien’s responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of
World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young
people intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien.
The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its
success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as
they try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time
called Middle Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth,
Middle Earth was inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some
humans. The characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from
Greece and Northern Europe.
Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy with
Tolkien’s real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that the
story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology and
legends about elves and their language.
Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body of
work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today
Question 35: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth?
A. Middle Earth was based on European folktales
B. Middle Earth was a fictional world
C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power
D. People dominated Middle Earth
Question 36: The word “scrutinized” in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by
A. examined B. denied C. enjoyed D. criticized
Question 37: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. B. C. D.
Question 38: According to the passage, when did “the Lord of the Rings” trilogy become popular with
young people?
A. In the late 1960s B. After World War II
C. In 1892 D. Between 1936 and 1946
Question 39: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy?
A. When he was a student B. During World War I
C. When he was a professor D. During World War II
Question 40: What does the word “trilogy” in the first paragraph mean?
A. A specific type of fantasy novel B. A long novel
C. A group of three literary books D. An unrelated group of books
Question 41: What is the setting of Tolkien’s trilogy?
A. Modern - day Greece B. England in the 1800’s
C. Oxford University D. Middle Earth
Question 42: The word “fascinating” in the second paragraph could be replaced by
A. thrilling B. extremely interesting
C. boring D. terrifying
Question 43: However old and worn his clothes were, they looked clean and of good quality.
A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality because they were old and worn.
B. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality.
C. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality.
D. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn.
Question 44: She usually spends one hour driving to work every day.
A. She usually works one hour every day.
B. It usually takes her one hour to drive to work every day.
C. She usually goes to work by car once a day.
D. It usually takes her one hour to work on her car every day.
Question 45: I thought I shouldn’t have stayed at home yesterday.
A. I regretted staying at home yesterday. B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.
C. 1 regret for staying at home yesterday. D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.
Question 46: (A) Body language is quiet and (B) secret, but (C) most powerful language (D) of all.
A. Body language B. secret C. most D. of all
Question 47: (A) Stayed (B) strong, family members (C) have to (D) be engaged in each other’s lives.
A. Stayed B. strong C. have D. be engaged
Question 48: (A) Once you can (B) overcome your difficulty, the problem (C) may well become a
source of (P) strengthen to your marriage and your faith.
A. Once B. overcome C. may well become D. strengthen
Question 49: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the
park.
A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park
Question 50: Most of the classmates couldn’t come. He invited them to the birthday party.
A. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come.
B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn’t come.
C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn’t come.
D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come.
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BẢNG ĐÁP
ÁN
1-C 2-B 3-C 4-A 5-C 6-C 7-A 8-A 9-C 10-B
11-C 12-C 13-C 14-C 15-B 16-B 17-A 18-D 19-D 20-C
21-B 22-B 23-C 24-B 25-B 26-C 27-A 28-D 29-A 30-C
31-A 32-A 33-A 34-D 35-B 36-A 37-C 38-A 39-A 40-C
41-D 42-B 43-B 44-B 45-A 46-C 47-A 48-D 49-B 50-A
Question 1: A. engineering B. economics C. recommend D. curriculum
Question 2: A. perseverance B. application C. agriculture D. dedication
Question 3: A. element B. dedicate C. event D. devote
Question 4: A. chemical B. approach C. achieve D. challenge
Question 5: Mrs. Smith: “ ”. - Mr. Brown: “Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Youi kid is naughty B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C. Your child is just adorable D. I can give your kid a lift to school
Question 6: -“-“We’ll have to hurry if we want to finish this project on time.” – “ ”
A. OK. But I’ll call you later B. I’ll say we will
C. I’m tired. I’ll go home early D. What a wonderful idea!
Question 7: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans
A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married
Question 8: In Western culture, it is polite to maintain eye contact during conversation
A. irresponsible B. discourteous C. insecure D. informal
Question 9: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. arrive B. encounter C. happen D. dean
Question 10: I just want to stay at home to watch TV and take it easy.
A. sleep B. sit down C. eat D. relax
questions.
Question 11: The government is aiming 50 % reduction unemployment.
A. to/in B. at/in C. at/of D. for/of
Question 12: No one enjoys in public.
A. being made fun of B. to be made fun of
C. making fun of D. to make fun of
Question 13: I believe that he was concerned all those matters which his wife metioned.
A. upon B. over C. above D. with
Question 14: I _ very well with my roommate now. We never have arguments.
A. carry on B. go on C. put on D. get on
Question 15: Can you tell me who is responsible checking passports?
A. to B. in C. for D. about
Question 16: When may father was young, he get up early to do the gardening.
A. used to B. was used to C. got used to D. use to
Question 17: The preparation by the time the guest
A. have finished- arrived B. had been finished- arrived
C. had finished-were arriving D. have been finished- were arrived
Question 18: If he had known her address, he her to his birthday party last week.
A. would have invited B. would have invite
C. will invite D. would invite
Question 19: Bill asked his sister .
A. where would she go the following day B. where you will go tomorrow
C. where you would go tomorrow D. where she would go the following day
Question 20: My boss asked his son impolitely.
A. didn’t behave B. to behave C. not behave D. not to behave
Question 21: Clark has a wide about cultures of many countries in the world
A. known B. knowing C. knowledge D. know
Question 22: Be careful with your gun! You wound somebody.
A. must B. need to C. ought to D. may
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, R, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Without transportation, our modern society could not (23) . We would have no metal, no
coal and no oil nor would we have any (24) made from these materials. (25) ,
we would have to spend most of our time raising food and food would be limited to the kinds that could
grow in the climate and soil of our neighborhood.
Transportation also affects our lives in other ways. Transportation can speed a doctor to the side of a
sick person, even if the patients’ lives on an isolated farm. It can take police to the scene of a crime
within a moment of being noticed. Transportation (26) teams of athletes to compete in national
and international sports contests. In time of (27) _ transportation can rush aid to persons in
areas stricken by floods, families and earthquakes.
Question 23: A. establish B. exist C. take place D. happen
Question 24: A. producers B. production C. products D. productivity
Question 25: A. Even B. Besides C. Although D. However
Question 26: A. brings B. fetches C. enables D. gets
Question 27: A. disasters B. accidents C. problems D. wars
Telecommuting is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For
employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the
location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines,
when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their
employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million
telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as
significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few
years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of
many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force
scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet
developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned
that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office
setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never
really get away from the office.
Question 28: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. An overview of telecommuting. B. The failure of telecommuting.
C. The advantages of telecommuting. D. A definition of telecommuting.
Question 29: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week. B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than last year. D. Fewer than last year.
Question 30: The phrase “of no consequence” means
A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant
Question 31: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT
.
A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction. D. the work place is in the home.
Question 32: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to
A. telecommuters B. systems C. executives D. responsibilities
Question 33: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees
A. need regular interaction with their families.

B. arc worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
Question 34: The word “reluctant” in the third paragraph can best be replaced by
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical
It is said that George Washington was one of the first to realize how important tire building of canals would
be to the nation’s development. In fact, before he became the President, he headed the first company in the
United States to build a canal, which was to connect the Ohio and Potomac rivers. It was never completed,
but it showed the nation the feasibility of canals. As the country expanded westward, settlers in western New
York, Pennsylvania, and Ohio needed a means to ship goods. Canals linking natural waterways seemed to
supply an effective method.
In 1791, engineers commissioned by the state of New York investigated the possibility of a canal
between Albany on the Hudson River and Buffalo on Lake Eric to link the Great Lakes area with the
Atlantic seacoast. It would avoid the mountains that served as a barrier to canals from the Delaware and
Potomac rivers.
The first attempt to dig the canal, to be called the Eric Canal, was made by private companies but only a
comparatively small portion was built before the project was halted for lack of funds. The cost of the
prospect was estimated $5 million, an enormous amount for those days. There was some on-again-off-again
federal funding, but this time the War of 1812 put an end to construction. In 1817, DeWitt Clinton was
elected Governor of New York and persuaded the state to finance and build the canal. It was completed in
1825, costing S2 million more than expected.
The canal rapidly lived up to its sponsors’ faith, quickly paying for itself through tolls. It was far more
economical than any other form of transportation at the time. It permitted trade between the Great Lake
region and the East coast, robbing the Mississippi River of much of its traffic. It allowed New York to
supplant Boston, Philadelphia, and other eastern cities as the chief center of both domestic and foreign
commerce. Cities sprang up along the canal. It also contributed in a number of ways to the Norths victory
over the South in the Civil War.
An expansion of the canal was planned in 1849. Increased traffic would undoubtedly have warranted its
construction had it not been for the railroads.
Question 35: The word “feasibility” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. possibility B. capability C. difficulty D. profitability
Question 36: According to the passage, the Eric Canal connected the
A. Delaware and Potomac Rivers B. Hudson River and Lake Eric
C. Atlantic Ocean and the Hudson River D. Potomac and Ohio Rivers
Question 37: The completion of the Eric Canal was financed by _
A. private company B. B. DeWitt Clinton
C. the federal government D. New York
Question 38: The actual cost of building the Eric Canal was
A. $5 million B. less than had been expected
C. $7 million D. more than could be repaid
Question 39: The word “tolls” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Grants B. Fees C. Links D. Jobs
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT given as an effect of the building of the Eric Canal in
paragraph 4?
A. It took water traffic away from the Mississippi River.
B. It established Boston and Philadelphia as the most important centers of trade.
C. It helped determine the outcome of the Civil War.
D. It allowed the East coast to trade with the Great Lake Sea.
Question 41: What can be inferred about railroads in 1849 from the information in the last paragraph?
A. They were being planned but had not been built.
B. They were seriously underdeveloped.
C. They had begun to compete with the Eric Canal for traffic.
D. They were weakened by the expansion of the canal.
Question 42: The word “warranted” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. hastened B. guaranteed C. justified D. prevented
Question 43: They believe a single gunman carried out the attack.
A. The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman
B. A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack
C. It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman.
D. it is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman.
Question 44: “I’m sorry. I didn’t do the homework.” said the boy.
A. The boy admitted not doing the homework.
B. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework.
C. The boy denied not doing the homework.
D. The boy refused to do the homework.
Question 45: You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills.
A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is tree.
B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free tlat.
C. Unless the Hat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the tlat for free.
Question 46: It is (A) recommended that (B) people (C) to take regular (D) exercise.
A. recommended B. people C. to take D. exercise
Question 47: (A) More than ten students (B) have tailed the exam,(C) that surprised (D) the class
teacher.
A. More than B. have tailed C. that D. the
Question 48: The world is becoming more (A) industrialized and the number of animal (B) species that
have become (C) extinct (D) have increased.
A. industrialized B. species C. extinct D. have
Question 49: I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time.
A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
C. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.
D. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.
Question 50: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
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BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN
1-D 2-C 3-D 4-A 5-C 6-B 7-D 8-B 9-C 10-D
11-B 12-A 13-D 14-D 15-C 16-A 17-B 18-A 19-D 20-C
21-C 22-D 23-B 24-C 25-B 26-C 27-A 28-A 29-B 30-D
31-B 32-A 33-B 34-C 35-A 36-B 37-D 38-C 39-B 40-B
41-C 42-C 43-B 44-A 45-D 46-C 47-C 48-D 49-B 50-B
Question 1: A. marriage B. response C. maintain D. believe
Question 2: A. certain B. equal C. decide D. couple
Question 3: A. expand B. vacancy C. applicant D. category
Question 4: A. carpet B. school C. facial D. contact
Question 5: Kate: “Thank you for the lovely present”. - Peter: “ ”
A. I’m pleased you like it B. No, thanks
C. Go ahead D. Come on
Question 6: Sarah: “Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!” - Mary: - “ ”
A. Never mention it. B. Thanks, Sarah. I had it done yesterday
C. Thanks, but I’m afrai D. Yes, all right.
Question 7: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally
Question 8: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
Question 9: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house
twice.
A. being considerate of things B. remembering to do right things
C. forgetful of one’s past D. often forgetting things
Question 10: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. Informative B. delighted C. exciting D. essential
questions.
Question 11: The marathon, first staged on 1896, the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who
carried news of victory from the battle at Marathon to Athens.
A. commemorates B. commemorated
C. was commemorated D. commemorating
Question 12: Football is thought in the world.
A. to have played the most popular sport B. to be the most popular sport
C. to play the most popular sport D. to have been the most popular sport
Question 13: The number of unemployed people recently.
A. is increasing B. has increased C. have increased D. increase
Question 14: Many people will be out of if the factory is closed.
A. career B. job C. profession D. work
Question 15: Neither Bill nor his brothers _ willing to help their mother with the housework
A. is B. was C. are D. has
Question 16: Do you know the person next to you in the evening class?
A. whose sitting B. whom sits C. sitting D. who sit
Question 17: I can’t of a word he is saying
A. make sense B. grasp C. comprehend D. understand
Question 18: Tony Blair is believed for Liverpool last week
A. having left B. to have left C. to leave D. leaving
Question 19: is increasing, which results from economic crisis.
A. Employment B. Unemployed C. Unemployment D. Employ
Question 20: In the US, the first stage of compulsory education _as elementary education.
A. to be generally known B. is generally known
C. generally known D. is generally knowing
Question 21: It is vital to create a good impression your interviewer.
A. on B. with C. at D. for
Question 22: Geometry is the branch of mathematics the properties of time, curves, shapes,
and surfaces.
A. it is concerned with B. that concerned with
C. concerned with D. its concerned are
In Germany, it’s important to be serious in a work situation. They don’t mix work and play so you
shouldn’t make jokes (23) you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work
in a very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don’t like- interruptions or (24)
changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for
appointments. At meeting, it’s important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (25) speaker. If
you give a presentation, you should focus (26) facts and technical information and the quality of
your company’s products. You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues
normally use the family names, and title - for example ‘Doctor’ or “Professor”, so you shouldn’t use first
names (27) a person asks you to.
Question 23: A. while B. as if C. such as D. as
Question 24: A. suddsen B. suddenly C. abruptly D. promptly
Question 25: A. other B. others C. another D. the other
Question 26: A. on B. to C. at D. in
Question 27: A. if only B. as C. unless D. since
In early civilization, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit. Education meant
simply learning to live. As civilization became more complex, however, education became more formal,
structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies concentrated solely
on the education of males. The post-Babylonian Jews and Plato were exceptions to this pattern. Plato was
apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would have
the same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic
philosophy, however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal
education for men only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.
In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but they were taught
separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and single-sex
schools for the privileged through classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually, however,
education for women, in a separate but equal basis to that provided for men, was becoming a clear
responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. Al the Council
of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free primary
schools for children of all classes. The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been
born, but it was still in the realm of the single-sex school.
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of
educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of boys and girls in the
same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and the Scandinavian countries have
also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to co-education has
been felt in the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both
primary and secondary levels, according to local conditions. ’
A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in particular.
In single-sex classes, during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female gender roles
may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for experimental
work while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards achieved in
girls’ schools. Some educationalists, therefore, suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly
in certain areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea.
Question 28: Ancient education generally focused its efforts on _.
A. young people only B. on male learners
C. both sexes D. female learners
Question 29: Education in early times was mostly aimed at .
A. teaching skills B. learning new lifestyles
C. learning to live D. imparting survival skills
Question 30: The first to support the equality of the sexes was .
A. the Chinese B. the Jews C. Plato D. the Greek
Question 31: The word “informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring
.
A. in a department B. in classrooms
C. ability D. outside the school
Question 32: When education first reached women, they were _ .
A. separated from men B. locked up in a place with men
C. deprived of opportunities D. isolated from a normal life
Question 33: When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education .
A. focused on imparting skills B. locked up in a place with men
C. was given free to all D. focused on imparting skills
Question 34: Co-education was negatively responded to in .
A. conservative countries B. Japan
C. South American countries D. the Scandinavian countries
The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long- term
memory. This division of the memory into phases is based on the length of time of the memory.
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for a
short period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than that unless
the information enters the short-term memory.
Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are actively
using it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory as long as you keep
repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long term memory.
Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years.
Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through
memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own.
Question 35: The best title for this passage would be .
A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory
B. How long it takes to memorize
C. The stages of human memory
D. Human phases
Question 36: The three phases of memory discussed in the passage are differentiated according to
.
A. The location in the brain
B. The period of time it takes to remember something
C. How the senses are involved in the memory.
D. How long the memory lasts.
Question 37: The expression “is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by .
A. Is on the top of B. is at the foot of
C. depends on D. is below
Question 38: According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?
A. Sensory memory B. Active memory
C. Short-term memory D. Long-term memory
Question 39: According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?
A. For as long as twenty minutes
B. As long as it is being used.
C. After you have repeated it many times.
D. When it has moved into long-term memory.
Question 40: All of the following are TRUE about long - term memory EXCEPT that
A. it has a very large capacity.
B. it can hold information.
C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization.
D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.
Question 41: The expression “on its own” in the last sentence can be best replaced by
A. by itself B. in its own time
C. with its D. in only one way
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of « information for
two days, this is probably .
A. three phases of memory B. the sensory memory
C. the short- term memory D. the long- term memory
each of the following questions
Question 43: The review overvalued his latest film.
A. The review overvalued his latest film.
B. The review turned down his latest film.
C. The review rejected his latest film.
D. The review gave his latest film a moderate appreciation.
Question 44: Lisa always reminds me of my youngest sister.
A. My youngest sister’s name is Lisa.
B. I always think of Lisa, my youngest sister.
C. Whenever I see Lisa, I think of my youngest sister.
D. It is Lisa who is my youngest sister.
Question 45: They had such a fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
A. So fierce was their dog that nobody would visit them.
B. Their dog was fierce enough for anybody to visit them.
C. If their dog weren’t fierce, somebody would visit them.
D. So fierce a dog did they had that nobody would visit them.
Question 46: The (A) basic elements of public-opinion research (B) are interviewers, questionnaires, (C)
tabulating equipment, and (D) to sample population.
A. basic elements B. are C. tabulating D. to sample
Question 47: She asked (A) why (B) did Mark look (C) so embarrassed when he (D) saw Carole.
A. why B. did Mark look C. did Mark look D. saw
Question 48: Higher education is very (A) importance to national (B) economies and it is also a source
of trained and (C) educated personnel for (D) the whole country.
A. importance B. economies C. educated D. the whole country
Question 49: The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
A. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.
C. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.
D. The old man whom is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
Question 50: Mary doesn’t like sports. Her brother doesn’t, either.
A. Neither Mary or her brother likes sports.
B. Either Mary or her brother likes sports.
C. Neither Mary nor her brother likes sports.
D. Both Mary and her brother like sports.
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BẢNG ĐÁP
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1-A 2-C 3-B 4-C 5-A 6-B 7-A 8-C 9-D 10-D
11-A 12-B 13-B 14-D 15-C 16-C 17-A 18-B 19-C 20-B
21-A 22-C 23-D 24-A 25-D 26-A 27-C 28-B 29-C 30-C
31-D 32-A 33-A 34-C 35-C 36-D 37-C 38-A 39-B 40-D
41-A 42-D 43-A 44-C 45-A 46-D 47-B 48-A 49-C 50-C
Question 1: A. magnificent B. appliances C. potentially D. preservation
Question 2: A. architect B. electric C. mineral D. luxury
Question 3: A. contain B. feature C. picture D. culture
Question 4: A. fare B. black C. match D. calcium
Question 5: “Has an annoucement been made about the nine o’clock flight to Paris”
-“ ”.
A. Not yet B. Yes, it is nine o’clock
C. I don’t think so D. Sorry, I don’t
Question 6: “I can speak English well enough to apply for that post.”
-“ ”.
A. Me neither B. Me too C. Me either D. Me also
Question 7: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.
A. cooperate B. put together C. separate D. connect
Question 8: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.
A. adequate B. unsatisfactory C. abundant D. dominant
Question 9: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstrations
Question 10: Today’s scientists have overcome many of the challenges of the depth by using more
sophisticated tools.
A. complicated B. worldly C. experienced D. aware
questions
Question 11: Ben went _ the competition and won the first prize.
A. on B. in for C. away D. through
Question 12: While everybody else in our class prefers working in groups, Ann likes working
A. on herself B. on her own C. of her own D. in herself

Question 13: , the young mother appeared visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
A. Tired as she was B. She was tired C. As tired D. Despite tired
Question 14: Widespread forest destruction in this particular area.
A. must have seen B. ought to see C. could have seen D. can be seen
Question 15: The greater the demand, _ the price.
A. the highest B. the high C. higher D. the higher
Question 16: After twenty years collecting stamps, Tim interested in them.
A. is not longer B. no longer C. no longer is D. is no longer
Question 17: You should concentrate on the teacher is saying.
A. what B. which C. that D. whom
Question 18: Her family has gone to Edinburgh to pay their last _ to uncle Bin who died last
week.
A. sympathy B. love C. respects D. honors
Question 19: My sister and her husband _ over to my house for dinner tomorrow evening.
A. came B. come C. going to come D. are coming
Question 20: Japanese, Korean, Russian, Chinese, French and German will be taught at general schools
in Hanoi and HCM City before being on a large scale throughout the country.
A. applied B. provided C. assessed D. investigated
Question 21: Remember to take your shoes when you go into the temple.
A. up B. in C. with D. off
Question 22: you study harder, you won’t pass the examination
A. Although B. Despite C. Unless D. If
In a small village in North Yorkshire, there is a big old farmhouse _ (23) three families live
together. Alice and George and their three children, Joe and Pam and their two children, and Sue and her
baby daughter. The adults divide up the work between them. George does the cooking, Joe and Sue do
almost the housework. Pam looks after the shopping and (24) the repairs, and Alice takes care of
the garden.
Alice, George and Sue go out to work. Joe works at home (25) computer systems, and Pam,
who is a painter, looks after the baby during the day. Two of the children go to school in the village, but the
three oldest ones go by bus to the secondary school in the nearest town, ten miles away.
The three families get (26) well, and enjoy their way of life. There are few difficulties of course.
Their biggest worry at the moment is money- one of the cars needs replacing, and the roof needs some
expensive repairs. But this isn’t too serious- the bank has agreed to a loan, which they expect to be able to
pay back in three years. And they all say they would much rather go on living in their old farmhouse
(27) move to a luxury flat in a big city.
Question 23: A. that B. where C. in where D. which
Question 24: A. does B. has C. prepares D. fulfils
Question 25: A. designs B. and design C. designing D. who designs
Question 26: A. on B. off C. with D. in
Question 27: A. then B. than C. to D. therefore
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after
having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of
1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even
as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began
to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and
missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts
of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of
international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English.
Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology,
advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million
English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number
of non-native users than any other language in the world.
Question 28: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of non-native users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and technology.
Question 29: In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to
A. appeared B. hailed C. frequented D. engaged
Question 30: In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to
A. declaration B. features C. frequented D. engaged
Question 31: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England? .
A. In 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600
Question 32: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around
the world EXCEPT .
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion
C. missionaries D. colonization
Question 33: In the second paragraph, the word “stored” is closest in meaning to .
A. bought B. saved C. spent D. valued
Question 34: According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there
in the world today? .
A. a quarter million B. half a million C. 350 million D. 700 million
Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein.
His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and
gravity. Einsteins work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as
a practical application of Einsteins work. In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office
at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a
theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The
second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is
composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of
particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the “special theory of relativity”
which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the
natural laws are the same everywhere in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to
the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = mc2 , known as the
energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed
that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass.
Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He
opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in
Palestine, When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the
United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein
wrote to President Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to
Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb
research.
Question 35: Einstein’s primary work was in the area of .
A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. engineering
Question 36: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of
Einsteins discoveries?
A. Radio B. Automobiles C. Computers D. Television
Question 37: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following EXCEPT
A. the establishment ot a Jewish homeland in Palestine
B. nationalism
C. atomic bomb research in the United States.
D. the defeat of the Nazis.
Question 38: What is “Brownian movement”?
A. The zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension
B. The emission of electrons from solids when struck by light
C. The motion of photons in light
D. The basis of the theory of relativity
Question 39: Einstein was a citizen of all of the following countries EXCEPT
A. Belgium B. Germany C. United State D. Switzerland
Question 40: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels
A. Einsteins work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.
B. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.
C. Einsteins work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.
D. Einsteins theories have been consistently proven incorrect.
Question 41: According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity,
A. all properties of matter and energy can be explained in a single mathematical formula.
B. light is composed of separate packets of energy.
C. time and motion are relative to the observer.
D. some solids emit electrons when struck by light.
Question 42: The word “exalting” in the passage most nearly means
A. elevation B. criticism C. support D. elimination
Question 43: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
Question 44: “It can’t be Mike who leaked the document; it might be Tom.”, said our manager.
A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 45: He took the food eagerly because he had eaten nothing since dawn.
A. He had eaten nothing since dawn although he took the food eagerly.
B. The food was taken at dawn and he had nothing to eat then.
C. He had eaten something before but he took the food eagerly.
D. Having eaten nothing since dawn, he took the food eagerly.
Question 46: Buying clothes (A) are often (B) a very time-consuming practice (C) because those clothes
that a person likes (D) are rarely the ones that fit him or her.
A. are B. a very time-consuming
C. because those D. are rarely the ones
Question 47: The British (A) national anthem. (B) calling “ God Save the Queen”, (C) was a (D)
traditional song in the 18th century.
A. national anthem B. calling C. was D. traditional song
Question 48: Maryland, (A) leven though a southern state, (B) remained (C) loyalty to The Union (D)
during the Civil War.
A. leven though B. remained C. loyalty D. during
Question 49: The soccer teant knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well
B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the
match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.
D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each
other.
Question 50: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. It she hadnt been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. It she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
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BẢNG ĐÁP
ÁN
1-D 2-B 3-A 4-A 5-A 6-B 7-C 8-A 9-C 10-A
11-B 12-B 13-A 14-D 15-D 16-D 17-A 18-C 19-D 20-A
21-D 22-C 23-B 24-A 25-C 26-A 27-B 28-C 29-A 30-B
31-D 32-B 33-B 34-C 35-C 36-D 37-B 38-A 39-A 40-B
41-C 42-A 43-A 44-C 45-D 46-A 47-B 48-C 49-D 50-D
Question 1: A. generation B. situation C. education D. examination
Question 2: A. photography B. minority C. heroic D. amateur
Question 3: A. future B. refuse C. abuse D. fuss
Question 4: A. smoothly B. southern C. breath D. airworthy
Question 5:
John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
Linda: “ ”
A. Of course not. You bet B. There is no doubt about it
C. Well, that’s very surprising D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea
Question 6: Alice: “How about having a drive to the countryside this weekend?”
Mary: “ ”
A. That’s a good idea B. Not at all
C. No, thanks D. Never mind
Question 7: “Please speak up a bit more, Jack. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”,
the teacher said.
A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. inaudible
Question 8: The funny story told by the man amused all the children.
A. pleased B. entertained C. saddened D. frightened
Question 9: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
A. terrified B. troubled C. happy D. disappointed
Question 10: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down
questions.
Question 11: Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of devices.
A. environment-friendly B. time-consuming
C. labor-saving D. pollution-free
Question 12: By the end of the 21st century, scientists a cure for the common cold.
A. will find B. will have found
C. will be finding D. will have been found
Question 13: Last Sunday was that we took a drive in the country.
A. so beautiful day B. such a beautiful day
C. so a beautiful day D. such beautiful day
Question 14: Most understand that disciplinary actions do not always work with students.
A. educate B. educating C. education D. educators
Question 15: She me a very charming compliment on my painting.
A. showed B. paid C. made D. took
Question 16: the rise in unemployment, people still seem to be spending more.
A. Despite B. Although C. Because D. Because of
Question 17: He did not share his secrets with other people but he in her.
A. confessed B. concealed C. confided D. consented
Question 18: Only when you grow up, _ the truth.
A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
Question 19: My brother left his job last week because he did not have any to travel.
A. position B. chance C. ability D. location
Question 20: John paid $2 for his meal, he had thought it would cost.
A. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 21: He was given a medal in of his service to the country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
Question 22: She till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up B. kept me up C. caught me up D. held me up
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (23) class
size is twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (24) teaching and learning, and the
school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving
your English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a
short (25) in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (26) at
the most suitable level.
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (27) of situations at the advanced
knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native
speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports,
and note-taking from books and lectures.
Question 23: A. maximum B. minimum C. small D. large
Question 24: A. in B. of C. on D. to
Question 25: A. test B. exam C. course D. lesson
Question 26: A. form B. class C. grade D. course
Question 27: A. variety B. amount C. number D. lot
(Line 1) Horace Pippin, as an African-American soldier during World War I, was wounded in his right
arm. He discovered, however, that by keeping his right wrist steady with his left hand, he could paint and
draw. Pippin was not trained, but his artistic sensitivity and intuitive feel for two-dimensional design and the
arrangement of colour and patterns made him one of the finest Primitive artists America has produced.
(Line 6) Pippin did a series of paintings on the abolitionist John Brown and one on his war experiences,
but he shied away from social issues for the most part and achieved his greatest success with scenes of the
people and places of his hometown of West Chester, Pennsylvania. His Domino Players, featuring four
women gathered around a wooden table in a simple kitchen setting, is an excellent example of his rural
domestic scenes.
Question 28: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about primitive
art?
A. It’s two-dimensional
B. Colours and patterns are important
C. Artists do not have to be trained for it
D. It is used mainly for painting portraits
Question 29: Horace Pippin discovered he could paint and draw _.
A. during Word War I
B. when he completed his training
C. when someone reminded him of his artistic sensitivity
D. by holding his right wrist steady with his left hand
Question 30: Where in the passage is the name of Pippin’s hometown mentioned?
A. Line 1-2 B. Line 3-4 C. Line 6-7 D. Line 8-9
Question 31: It may be inferred from the passage that Pippin
A. had a simple upbringing
B. was obsessed with the subject of abolition
C. was destroyed by his war experiences
D. wanted nothing to do with his past following?
Question 32: The word “arrangement” in the passage could best be replaced by .
A. purpose B. feature C. mixture D. production
Question 33: With which of the following statements would the author agree?
A. Horace Pippin was a poorly trained ordinary artist.
B. Primitive art is an excuse for lack of training and talent.
C. Horace Pippin made an important contribution to American art.
D. Horace Pippin placed too much emphasis on social issues in his work..
Question 34: The passage would most likely be required reading in which course?
A. Biology B. Drama C. Literature D. Art History
A Japanese construction company plans to create a huge independent city-state, akin to the legendary
Atlantis, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The city, dubbed “Marinnation”, would have about one million
inhabitants, two airports, and possibly even a space port. Marinnation, if built, would be a separate country
but could serve as a home for international organisations such as the United Nations and the World Bank.
Aside from the many political and social problems that would have to be solved, the engineering task
envisaged is monumental. The initial stage requires the building of a circular dam eighteen miles in diameter
attached to the sea bed in a relatively shallow place in international waters. Then, several hundred powerful
pumps, operating for more than a year, would suck out the sea water trom within the dam. When empty and
dry, the area would have a city constructed on it. The actual land would be about 300 feet below the sea
level. According to designers, the hardest task trom an engineering point of view would be to ensure that the
dam is leak proof and earthquake proof.
It all goes well, it is hoped that Marinnation could be ready for habitation at the end of the second decade
of the twenty-first century. Whether anyone would want to live in such an isolated and artificial community,
however, will remain an open question until that time.
Question 35: According to the text, Marrination, when built, will be a(an) city.
A. underwater B. underground C. marine D. legendary
Question 36: The word akin’ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by .
A. likely B. close C. next D. similar
Question 37: Which of the following would NOT be a problem for the construction plan?
A. social B. political C. engineering D. financial
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true according to the text?
A. Marinnation would have about one million inhabitants.
B. Marinnation will be built in a deep place in the Pacific Ocean.
C. Marinnation will be located in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.
D. Marinnation could be served as home for international organisations.
Question 39: What is going to be built first?
A. a city B. a dam C. a monument D. a sea bed
Question 40: The most difficult task is to protect the dam against _ and earthquake.
A. fire B. water C. sunlight D. weather
Question 41: According to the text, people could come to live in the future city in the year
A. 2002 B. 2012 C. 2010 D. 2020
Question 42: What does the author imply in the last sentence of the passage?
A. People will ask an open question about living in Marinnation.
B. The construction of Marinnation could never be completed in time.
C. People might not want to live in an isolated and artificial community.
D. People will ask how they can live in such an isolated and artificial city.
Question 43: I got the impression that the boys were not enjoying themselves.
A. The boys impressed me that they were not enjoying themselves.
B. The boys didn't seem to be enjoying themselves.
C. The boys seemed not to enjoying themselves.
D. It seemed to me the boys were enjoying themselves.
Question 44: The children ran to the yard to see the dragon, but it was no longer there.
A. The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the yard.
B. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the yard.
C. When the children ran to the yard, the dragon was going.
D. The dragon had gone alter the children ran to the yard.
Question 45: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
C. The noise next door stopped at midnight
D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
Question 46: The exam to (A) become a lawyer is (B) on far the (C) most difficult he (D) has taken.
A. become B. on C. most D. has
Question 47: No one in our office (A) wants to drive to work (B) because of there (C) are always traffic
jams (D) at rush hour.
A. wants B. because of C. are D. at rush hour
Question 48: Mrs. Steven, (A) along with her cousins (B) from New Mexico, (C) are planning (D) to
attend the festivities.
A. along with B. from C. are D. to attend
Question 49: You’d better take the keys. Its possible I’ll come home late.
A. You’d better take the keys as I must come home late.
B. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.
C. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.
D. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.
Question 50: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot
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BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN
1-D 2-D 3-D 4-C 5-B 6-A 7-D 8-C 9-A 10-C
11-C 12-B 13-D 14-D 15-B 16-A 17-C 18-D 19-B 20-B
21-C 22-B 23-A 24-B 25-A 26-B 27-A 28-D 29-D 30-D
31-A 32-C 33-C 34-C 35-C 36-D 37-D 38-B 39-B 40-B
41-D 42-C 43-B 44-A 45-A 46-B 47-B 48-C 49-D 50-A
Question 1: A. approach B. leftover C. supportive D. biologist
Question 2: A. associate B. dioxide C. dedicate D. Cosmetic
Question 3: A. accurate B. account C. accept D. accuse
Question 4: A. predator B. restore C. recollect D. preface
Question 5: - Mark: “What a lovely house you have!”
- Phil: “
A. No problem. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so. D. Of course not, it’s not costly.
Question 6: - Mike: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.”
- Thomas: “
A. Good Heavens ! B. That’s brilliant enough !
C. It’s okay, don’t worry. D. Never mind, better job next time !
Question 7: During the five – decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding at B. holding back C. holding to D. holding by
Question 8: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial flight
A. real B. natural C. genuine D. true
Question 9: In 1985, the Coca-Cola Company altered the secret formula of the drink’s ingredients.
A. modified B. proposed C. enriched D. restored
Question 10: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting
his foot in his mouth.
A. saying embarrassing things B. making a mistake
C. doing things in the wrong order D. speaking indirectly
questions.
Question 11: He managed to win the race hurting his foot before the race.
A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of
Question 12: I gave the waiter a $50 notes and waited for my
A. change B. supple C. cash D. cost
Question 13: ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived
C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 14: There is in my bedroom.
A. a square wooden old table B. an old square wooden table
C. a wooden old square table D. an old wooden square table
Question 15: Sarah and I reserved the rooms in the same hotel. She was really surprised
to see me there.
A. intentionally B. practically C. coincidentally D. deliberately
Question 16: My sister _ the responsibility for doing the housework.
A. bears B. runs C. holds D. takes
Question 17: It is not until December 25 the exam results will be announced.
A. which B. what C. that D. when
Question 18: Susan wasn’t in when I arrived. I suppose she I was coming.
A. must have forgotten B. must forget
C. may forget D. can’t have forgotten
Question 19: The new manager laid down very strict rules as soon as he had the postion
A. taken over B. come over C. taken up D. taken off
Question 20: Vietnam’s rice export this year will decrease about 10%, compared with
that of last year.
A. with B. at C. by D. on
Question 21: It is very important for a company to keep the changes in the market.
A. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with
Question 22: I’m sure you’ll have no the exam.
A. difficulty passing B. difficulties to pass
C. difficulty to pass D. difficulties of passing
No one can say when sports began. Since it is impossible to (23) a time when children did not
spontaneously run races or wrestle, it is clear that children have always included sports in their play, but one
can only speculate about the (24) of sports as autotelic physical contests for adults. Hunters are
depicted in prehistoric art, but it cannot be known (25) the hunters pursued their prey in a mood of
grim necessity or with the joyful abandon of sportsmen. It is certain, (26) _ , from the rich literary and
iconographic evidence of all ancient civilizations that hunting soon became an end in itself at least for
royalty and nobility. Archaeological evidence also indicates that ball games were common among ancient
peoples as (27) as the Chinese and the Aztecs.
(https://www.britannicA.com/topic/sports)
Question 23: A. think B. see C. have D. imagine
Question 24: A. emergence B. emerge C. emergency D. immersion
Question 25: A. when B. whether C. how D. why
Question 26: A. therefore B. so C. consequently D. however
Question 27: A. different B. far C. similar D. old
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to
a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for
example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons
sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into
contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body
becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you
have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by
many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability,
or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate,
oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant
until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or
sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine,
pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods
(read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-
vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food
additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates trom their diets.
Question 28: The topic of this passage is .
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition
C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
Question 29: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
A. the vast number of different foods we eat

B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 30: The word “symptoms” is closest in meaning to _.
A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D. prescriptions
Question 31: The phrase “set off” is closest in meaning to .
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
Question 32: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 33: The word “hyperactive” is closest in meaning to .
A. overly active B. unusually low activity
C. excited D. inquisitive
Question 34: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies
has to do with the infant’s .
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods.
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In
January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant
hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-
four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship
dance. He bobs. He bows. He rutiles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from
limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They
share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to
the beat of an inner drum. Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or
even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks
and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare
ground, even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of
sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the
bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically setdes herself on the
nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold. It is
five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather
out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food
and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season
baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game bird? all fall prey to the hungry family.
It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary
of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own
Question 35: What is the topic of this passage?
A. Mating rituals of great horned owls
B. Raising a family of great horned owls
C. Habits of young great horned owls
D. Nest building of great horned owls
Question 36: The phrase “a resonant hoot” is closest in meaning to
A. a sound B. an offering of food
C. an instrument D. a movement
Question 37: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls .
A. happens in the fall B. takes place on the ground
C. involves the male alone D. in an active process
Question 38: According to the passage, great horned owls .
A. may inhabit a previously used nest
B. are discriminate nest builders
C. need big nests for their numerous eggs
D. build nests on tree limbs
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl’s job?
A. To build the nest B. To initiate the courtship ritual
C. To sit on the nest D. To feed the young
Question 40: The phrase “precious charges” refers to
A. the hawks and crows B. other nesting owls
C. the nest D. the eggs
Question 41: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT .
A. insects B. other small birds C. small mammals D. nuts and seeds
Question 42: The word “they” refers to
A. the adult birds B. the wise old men C. the prey D. the young birds
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 43: The gate was closed to stop the children running into the road.
A. The gate was closed so the children can’t run into the road.
B. The gate is closed so that the children don’t run into the road.
C. The gate was closed so that the children couldn’t run into the road.
D. The gate is closed so that the children couldn’t to run into the road.
Question 44: If it hadn’t been for the wind, the fire would never have spread so fast
A. Even without the wind, the fire would have spread just as fast.
B. It was the wind that caused the fire to spread at such a speed.
C. Had there been a wind, the fire to spread even faster.
D. The force of the wind affected the way the fire spread.
Question 45: “Don’t forget to hand in the report, Peter !” said Kate
A. Kate reminded Peter of handing in the report.
B. Kate said that Peter had forgotten to hand in the report.
C. Kate forgot to hand in the report to Peter.
D. Kate reminded Peter to hand in the report.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: Because the highway system was built 40 years ago, most of the roads now need to repair.
A. Because B. was built C. most of D. to repair
Question 47: Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a teacher
wants to get someone’s attention in class.
A. Pointing in B. impolite C. when D. to get
Question 48: If a student takes a course on Computer Science, it will take him four years doing the
course.
A. If B. takes a course C. take D. doing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Ann jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.
A. Ann jogs every morning and is very good for her health.
B. Ann jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.
C. Ann jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.
D. Ann jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.
Question 50: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problem.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problem.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problem.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problem.
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BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN
1-B 2-C 3-A 4-B 5-B 6-D 7-B 8-B 9-A 10-A
11-A 12-A 13-A 14-B 15-C 16-D 17-C 18-A 19-A 20-C
21-D 22-A 23-D 24-A 25-B 26-D 27-A 28-A 29-C 30-A
31-D 32-B 33-A 34-C 35-B 36-A 37-D 38-A 39-C 40-D
41-D 42-D 43-C 44-B 45-D 46-D 47-A 48-D 49-B 50-C
Question 1: A. politician B. genetics C. artificial D. controversial
Question 2: A. delegate B. fabulous C. external D. slippery
Question 3: A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancestor
Question 4: A. choice B. chaos C. charge D. chase
Question 5: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” - Anna: “ !”
A. Better luck next time B. So poor
C. Congratulations D. That was nice of them
Question 6: Mary: “It’s a nice day today. Let’s play a game of tennis.”
Linda: “ ”
A. Will we not play? B. Why not do we play?
C. Why not? D. Shall not we play?
Question 7: The relationship between structure, process and outcome is very unclear.
A. disappear B. external C. apparent D. uncertain
Question 8: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.
A. constant B. changable C. objective D. ignorant
Question 9: The conference is governed by its newly elected board.
A. watched B. chosen C. ruled D. advised
Question 10: After a long lunch hour, business resumes as usual.
A. continues B. resurfaces C. delays D. responds
questions.
Question 11: Could you please tell me _?
A. where does my uncle’s room B. where is my uncle’s room
C. where my uncle’s room is D. where my uncle’s room
Question 12: Gordon wants to look his best at the wedding so he’s
A. make a suit B. having a suit made
C. to get made a suit D. having made a suit
Question 13: This book provides students useful tips that help them to pass the coming
exam.
A. at B. about C. for D. with
Question 14: I won’t change my mind what you say.
A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
Question 15: My car isn’t . It’s always letting me down.
A. believable B. reliable C. colorable D. conceivable
Question 16: Each of the guests a bunch of flowers.
A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give
Question 17: Let’s go to the beach this weeken, _ ?
A. do we B. shall we C. will we D. don’t we
Question 18: Peter a book when I saw him.
A. is reading B. reading C. read D. was reading
Question 19: It is recommended that he this course.
A. took B. takes C. take D. taking
Question 20: We need information before we can decide.
A. further B. farther C. far D. furthest
Question 21: I was doing my homework the light went out.
A. after B. before C. since D. when
Question 22: It gets to understand what the professor has explained.
A. the more difficult B. difficult more and more
C. more difficult than D. more and more difficult
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather pattern (23) strongly affect the
world. When the water is warm, the amount of rainfall in Indonesia and surrounding regions decreases.
Australia could (24) experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand, Chile (which borders
the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for severe rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern
makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier.
This happening is called El Nino and is used (25) weather forecasters to make long-range
weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will bring unusually rain to the southwestern part of the
United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time.
According to research, weather forecasters (26) know about the coming weather with
certainty. Now everything has become completely different.
El Nino itself used to be predictable. It would occur every two to seven years. But now this weather
pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones occur.
Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (27) on the global scale either.
Question 23: A. what B. when C. that D. whether
Question 24: A. even B. ever C. nevertheless D. however
Question 25: A. on B. by C. to D. at
Question 26: A. used to B. get used to C. are used to D. used to be
Question 27: A. change B. transfer C. transformation D. shift
The election of Andrew Jackson to the presidency in 1928 marked the political ascendancy of the
“common man” in American politics. His name became a household word during the war of 1812,
when, as a U.S Army major general, he led troops against the Creek Indians in the Mississippi Territory
and later defeated the British at New Orleans.
After his presidential inauguration, Jackson rode on horseback to the White House to attend a
private party. Crowds of well-wishers suddenly appeared at the reception and nearly destroyed the White
House as they tried to glimpse the new president. The common man had made a dramatic entrance onto
the national political scene.
Jackson’s two terms moved American society toward truer democracy. Many states abandoned
property requirements for voting. Elected officials began to act more truly as representatives of the
people than as their leaders. As president of the common man, Jackson waged a war against the Bank of
the United States, vetoing the bill that re-chartered the institution, declaring it a dangerous monopoly that
profited the wealthy few.
Although he had built his reputation as an Indian tighter during the War ol 1812, Jackson was not
an Indian hater. He adopted what was at the time considered an enlightened solution to the Indian
problem-removal. Many tribes submitted peacelully to being moved to the West. Others were marched
by force to the Indian Territory, under brutal conditions, along what the Cherokees called the Trail of
Tears.
One of Andrew Jackson’s most enduring legacies was the Democratic Party, which under him
became a highly organized political party. In opposition to the Democrats were the Whigs, a party that
attracted supporters of the Bank of the United States and opposed the tyranny of the man called “King
Andrew”. A less specific but more basic legacy is the populist philosophy oi politics that still bears the
name “Jacksonian Democracy.”
Question 28: The phrase “became the household word” in paragraph I means that .
A. a house style was called Jackson. B. Jackson acquired fame.
C. people criticized Jackson. D. Jackson was a popular boy’s name.
Question 29: The author suggests that Jackson’s election and inauguration .
A. destroyed the White House.
B. brought a new style to the presidency.
C. made a lot of common people angry.
D. put a military man in the White House for the first time.
Question 30: According to the passage, why did Jackson oppose the Bank of the United States?
A. He thought it benefited only rich people.
B. It started a war.
C. It opposed electing him “King Andrew”.
D. It opposed giving common people the right to vote.
Question 31: According to the passage, Jackson’s policy toward American Indians was _.
A. developed during the War of 1812. B. forceful and cruel
C. considered his greatest achievement. D. considered progressive at the time.
Question 32: The word “brutal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _ .
A. tearful B. abrupt C. humane D. harsh
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT attributed to Andrew Jackson?
A. The Whig Party. B. Jacksonian Democracy.
C. The rise of the common man. D. The Democratic Party.
Question 34: Which of the following could NOT be inferred about Andrew Jackson?
A. He served his country throughout his life.
B. He supposed democratic reforms.
C. He inspired populist politics.
D. He was the president during a violent war.
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and
zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was
hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews,
but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which
provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology
and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000
printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field.
However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved
how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison
the food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the
chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her
findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science
Advisory Committee.
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
Question 35: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work .
A. at college B. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service
C. as a researcher D. as a writer
Question 36: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. Oceanography B. Zoology C. Literature D. History
Question 37: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of .
A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
A. was outdated
B. became more popular than her other books
C. was praised by critics
D. sold many copies
Question 39: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for
The Sea Around Us
A. Printed matter B. Talks with experts
C. A research expedition D. Letters from scientists
Question 40: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to .
A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible
Question 41: The word “flawed” is closest in meaning to .
A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive
Question 42: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory
Committee?
A. To provide an example of government propaganda.
B. To support Carson’s ideas.
C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims
Question 43: The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
B. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.
Question 44: It is expected that tax increases will be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement.
A. Tax increases are expected to be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement.
B. It is expected that people will announce in tomorrow budget tax increases.
C. In tomorrow’s budget statement tax increases are expected to announce.
D. Hope that they will announce tax increases in tomorrow’s budget statement.
Question 45: Fiona has been typing the report for an hour.
A. It took Fiona an hour to type the report.
B. It is an hour since Fiona started typing the report.
C. Fiona finished the report an hour ago.
D. Fiona will finish typing the report in an hour.
Question 46: The museum contains sixth century sculptures, eighteenth century swords and the dress
worn by nineteenth century royal family.
A. contains B. eighteenth
C. the dress worn by nineteenth century D. royal
Question 47: When the children realized that they were by themselves in the dark, they became really
frightening.
A. by themselves B. the dark C. became D. frightening
Question 48: The foreign student advisor recommended that she studied more English before enrolling at
the university.
A. foreign B. studied C. enrolling D. the
Question 49: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.
A. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.
B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
D. My motorbike I will get it repaired which cannot start in the mornings.
Question 50: Phillip snored all night. I didn’t sleep a wink.
A. I didn't sleep a wink , which made Phillip snore all night.
B. Phillip snored all night as a result of a my sleeplessness.
C. What with Phillip snoring all night , I didn't sleep a wink.
D. What made Phillip snore all night was my sleeplessness.
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BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN
1-B 2-C 3-D 4-B 5-A 6-C 7-C 8-B 9-C 10-A
11-C 12-B 13-D 14-B 15-B 16-B 17-B 18-D 19-C 20-A
21-D 22-D 23-C 24-A 25-B 26-A 27-A 28-B 29-B 30-A
31-D 32-D 33-A 34-D 35-D 36-B 37-C 38-D 39-C 40-D
41-A 42-B 43-A 44-A 45-B 46-C 47-D 48-B 49-A 50-C
Question 1: A. maximum B. vacancy C. terrorist D. investment
Question 2: A. vertical B. contractual C. domestic D. outstanding
Question 3: A. sugar B. season C. serious D. secret
Question 4: A. amuse B. purse C. blouse D. please
Question 5: - Tom: “Would you mind holding the door open for me, please?”
- Mary: “ .”
A. Oh, with pleasure B. Ready C. You’re welcome D. I can do
Question 6: Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
- Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?”
- Professor: “ ”
A. I like it that you understand.
B. Try your best, Mary.
C. You can borrow books from the library.
D. You mean the podcasts from other students?
Question 7: People in Vietnam nod their head to show thatt they agree with something.
A. blink B. shake C. wave D. slump
Question 8: It’s difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed.
A. wise B. modest C. arrogant D. generous
Question 9: The weather is horrible at the moment, isn’t it? I hope it clears up later.
A. becomes brighter B. shines C. is not cloudy D. clean
Question 10: There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year ago.
A. closed up B. closed C. closed down D. closed into
questions.
Question 11: He was offered the job thanks to his performance during his job interview.
A. impressive B. impressively C. impression D. impress
Question 12: Someone who is is hopeful about the future or the success of something in
particular.
A. pessimist B. optimistic C. optimist D. pessimistic
Question 13: Ben went _ the competition and won the first prize.
A. on B. in for C. away D. through
Question 14: As an , Mr.Pike is very worried about the increasing of teenager crimes.
A. educational B. education C. educator D. educate
Question 15: I _hurry. It’s nearly 8.00, and my first class starts at 8.15.
A. would prefer B. can’t help C. can’t D. had better
Question 16: He managed to keep his job the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. although B. despite C. unless D. therefore
Question 17: Don’t touch that wire or you’ll get an electric .
A. shock B. fire C. charge D. current
Question 18: The car had a(n) tire, so we had to change the wheel.
A. bent B. flat C. cracked D. injured
Question 19: The children have every reason to be proud their efforts.
A. at B. to C. in D. of
Question 20: As a famous person many children admire, it is important for her to act
responsibly.
A. whose B. which C. when D. whom
Question 21: A number of students for a rise since last year.
A. ask B. have asked C. has asked D. asked
Question 22: Our flight was delayed, but the plane finally shortly after midnight.
A. took on B. put off C. took up D. took off
Perry had a rough childhood. He was physically and sexually abused growing up, gotkicked out of
high school, and tried to commit suicide (23) —once as a preteen andagain at 22. At 23 he move to
Atlanta and took (24) odd jobs as he started working onhis stage career.
In 1992 he wrote, produced, and starred in his first theater (25) , I Know I’ve BeenChanged,
somewhat informed by his difficult upbringing. Perry put all his savings into theshow and it failed miserably;
the run lasted just one weekend and only 30 people came towatch. He kept up with the production, working
more odd jobs and often slept in his car toget by. Six years later, Perry finally (26) through when, on
its seventh run, the showbecame a success. He‘s since gone on to have an extremely successful career
(27) adirector, writer, and actor. In fact, Perry was named Forbes’ highest paid man in the field..
Question 23: A. twice B. two C. second D. double
Question 24: A. up B. off C. in D. to
Question 25: A. producer B. productivity C. production D. productive
Question 26: A. went B. broke C. got D. put
Question 27: A. same B. as C. like D. as soon as
One of the highest honors for formalists, writers, and musical composers is the PulitzerPrize. First
awarded in 1927, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Ernest Hemingway, Harper Lee,John F. Kennedy, and
Rodgers and Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous awards,this prize was named after its
founder, Joseph Pulitzer.
Joseph Pulitzer’s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one ofhardship, hard work
and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to United States in1864. He wanted to be a reporter,
but he started his American life by fighting in the AmericanCivil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the
German - language newspaper, the WestlichePost. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon
became a partial owner of the paper.
In 1978, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition,the newspaper
took a controversial approach to new. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the averagereader, so he produced
exciting stories of scandal and intrigue. Such an approach iscommonplace today, but in Pulitzer’s
time it was new and different. The approach led to thediscovery of many instances of corruption by
influential people. Pulitzer ‘paper became veryfamous and is still produced today.
The success of Joseph Pulitzer’s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wantedto give
something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establishuniversity programs for
the teaching of journalism, and he funded numerous scholarships toassist journalism students. Finally, he
wanted to leave a legacy that would encourage writers toremember the importance of quality. On his death,
he gave two million dollars to ColumbiaUniversity so they could award prizes to great writers
The Pulitzer Prize recipients are a very select group. For most, winning a Pulitzer Prize isthe highlight
of their career. If an author, journalist, or composer you know has won a PulitzerPrize, you can be sure they
are at the top of their profession.
Question 28: Why does the writer mention “John F. Kennedy” in line 3?
A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards.
B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize.
C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners.
D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.
Question 29: According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize?
A. to encourage people to remember his name and success.
B. encourage writers to remember the importance of quality.
C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals.
D. to encourage people to appreciate the work of the Pulitzer winners.
Question 30: The word “partial" in the passage is closest in meaning to......
A. in part only B. brand new C. one and only D. very important
Question 31: According the passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Columbia University graduates B. journalism students
C. noted writers and composers D. most newspaper reporters
Question 32: According to the reading passage, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the average reader?
A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature.
B. He wrote stories about the war.
C. He produced his own experience.
D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and inreigue.
Question 33: Which sentece about Joseoph Pulitzer is true according to the reading passage?
A. He received a scholarship when he was a university studont.
B. He was rich even when he was young.
C. He was a reported during the American Civil War.
D. He immigated to the United States from Hungary.
Question 34: Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is NOT true according to the reading passage?
A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first time writer to the win the prize in 1917.
B. The prize is aimed at encouraging a writer’s career.
C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award the prizewinners.
D. Receiving the prize on the highest honors for writers.
Being aware of one's own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen - is at
the very heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not only moods but also thoughts
about those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise are less likely to be ruled by
them and are thus better able to manage their emotions.
Managing emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does it mean giving free rein to every
feeling. Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have popularized the notion of Emotional
Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has value and significance. As Goleman
said, "A life without passion would be a dull wasteland of neutrality, cut off and isolated from the richness of
life itself." Thus, we manage our emotions by expressing them in an appropriate manner. Emotions can also
be managed by engaging in activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts, or reassure us when we feel anxious.
Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you might think
that individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be less able to
manage them. However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability to assign meaning to
them - to know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or mood. Psychologists have found that, among
individuals who experience intense emotions, individual differences in the ability to assign meaning to those
feelings predict differences in the ability to manage them. In other words, if two individuals are intensely
angry, the one who is better able to understand why he or she is angry will also be better able to manage the
anger.
Self-motivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which enables a person to get moving and
pursue worthy goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the temptation to act on impulse.
Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, "the root of all emotional self-control."
Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and to
persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success - whether one is trying
to build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet. One researcher examined whether this trait
can predict a child's success in school. The study showed that 4-year-old children who can delay instant
gratification in order to advance toward some future goal will be “far superior as students” when they
graduate from high school than will 4-year-olds who are not able to resist the impulse to satisfy their
immediate wishes.
Question 35: Which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?
A. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be also able to manage them.
B. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better.
C. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.
D. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.
Question 36: According to paragraphs 1 to 3, people should be aware of their emotions so that they can
.
A. stop feeling angry B. manage their emotions appropriately
C. experience feelings more intensively D. explain their emotions to others
Question 37: All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions EXCEPT
.
A. we can manage our emotions B. we should ignore some feelings
C. every feeling is important D. emotions are part of a satisfying life
Question 38: The word “critical” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. indecisive B. inessential C. dynamic D. important
Question 39: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. intense emotions B. psychologists
C. individuals D. individual differences
Question 40: In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of emotions
by .
A. giving an example of why people get angry
B. describing how people learn to control their emotions
C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion
D. explaining why some people are aware of their emotions
Question 41: The word “pursue” in paragraph 4 mostly means .
A. be involved in something B. improve or develop something
C. try to achieve something D. find out about something
Question 42: According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can resist
impulses because they can .
A. have more friends at school
B. easily understand new information
C. focus on their work and not get distracted
D. be more popular with their teachers
Question 43: I would rather you wore something more formal to work.
A. I’d prefer you wearing something more formal to work.
B. I’d prefer you to wear something more formal to work.
C. I’d prefer you will wear something more formal to work.
D. I’d prefer you wear something more formal to work.
Question 44: Had we left any later, we would have missed the train.
A. We didn't miss the train because it left late.
B. We left too late to catch the train.
C. Because the train was late, we missed it.
D. We almost missed the train.
Question 45: “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” said Henry’s boss.
A. Henry's boss criticized him for doing his job carelessly.
B. Henry's boss asked him not to do his job with care.
C. Henry's boss suggested doing the job more carefully.
D. Henry's boss warned him to to the job carefully.
Question 46: Helen Killer, who was both blind and deafness, overcame her inabilitites with the help of
her teacher, Ann Sulivan
A. who B. blind C. deafness D. inabilities
Question 47: Education, whether it happens at school or anywhere else, is a important part in our life.
A. Education B. whether C. or D. a important part
Question 48: I can’t go out tonight because I have too many work to do.
A. can’t B. because C. too many D. to do
Question 49: Computer is a miraculous device. It is capable of doing almost anything you ask it to.
A. Computer can’t do anything you ask it to because it is a miraculous device.
B. Computer is unable to do almost anything you ask it to so it is a miraculous device.
C. Computer is a miraculous device since it is possible for doing anything you ask it to.
D. Computer is a miraculous device because it is impossible for doing almost anything you ask it to.
Question 50: The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue.
A. The house, which is very beautiful, was painted blue.
B. The house, the gate of whom was painted blue, is very beautiful.
C. The house, the gate of which was painted blue, is very beautiful.
D. The house, the gate of that was painted blue, is very beautiful.
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BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN
1-D 2-A 3-A 4-B 5-A 6-C 7-B 8-B 9-C 10-C
11-A 12-B 13-B 14-C 15-D 16-A 17-A 18-B 19-D 20-D
21-B 22-D 23-A 24-A 25-C 26-B 27-B 28-B 29-B 30-A
31-C 32-D 33-D 34-A 35-B 36-B 37-B 38-D 39-A 40-C
41-C 42-C 43-B 44-D 45-A 46-C 47-D 48-C 49-C 50-C

11 Đề Thi Thử Tiếng Anh 2018 Có Đáp Án Chi Tiết - Megabook (Bản WORD)

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BỘ ĐỀ 2018 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2018

MÔN ANH VĂN ĐỀ MEGABOOK 2018- ĐỀ SỐ 01

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A. Nice to see back you B. Take it easy

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A. need regular interaction with their families.

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ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2018

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BỘ ĐỀ 2018 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2018

A. on herself B. on her own C. of her own D. in herself

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BỘ ĐỀ 2018 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2018

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A. the vast number of different foods we eat

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BỘ ĐỀ 2018 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2018

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BỘ ĐỀ 2018 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2018

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