750+ Indian Polity

Indian Polity
800 +MCQ Q&A
www.Gurujobalert.com
1. Under which of the following conditions, the Ans: A
UPSC can serve the needs of a state?
1. When requested by the President 5. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are
2. When requested by the Governor ensured by:
3. With the approval of Parliament A. Art. 311
4. With the approval of President B. Art. 312
5. With the approval of the concerned sate C. Art. 315
legislature. D. Art. 310
Ans: A
A. 2 and 4
B. 2 and 5 6. The features of Indian federal system are:
C. 1 and 5 1. Division of powers
D. 1 and 3 2. Separation of powers
Ans: A 3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
2. Assertion: The Chief Minister is the channel 5. A written Constitution
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of communication between the Governor and the
council of ministers. Reason: The Chief Minister A. 1, 2 and 5
is the head of the state council of ministers.
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B. 1, 4 and 5
Select the correct code: C. 2, 3 and 5
A. A is false but R is true. D. 1, 3 and 5
B. A is true but R is false.
C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A.
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Ans: D
7. The features of Indian parliamentary system

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D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct are:
explanation of A. 1. Independent judiciary.
Ans: D 2. Collective responsibility of the executive to
the legislature.
3. The incorrect statements about Central 3. A written Constitution.
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Vigilance Commission are: 4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives.

1. It was set up on the recommendations of 5. Individual responsibility of the executive to
Administrative Reforms Commission. the legislature.
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2. It is headed by the Central Vigilance

Commissioner appointed by the Prime Minister. A. 1, 2 and 4
3. Its functions, in certain cases, overlap with B. 1, 2, 4 and 5
the functions of the UPSC. C. 2, 4 and 5
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4. It is certainly a substitute for an Ombudsman. D. 2, 3 and 4

5. It receives complaints directly from aggrieved Ans: C
persons.
A. 1, 4 and 5 8. Money bill can be introduced in the state
B. 3 and 4 legislature only on the recommendation of:
C. 1, 2 and 4 A. Governor
D. 3, 4 and 5 B. Chief Minister
Ans: C C. Speaker
D. Finance Minister
4. Which of the following is not a department Ans: A
under the Ministry of Home Affairs?
A. Department of Law and Order 9. Which of the following statements are
B. Department of Home correct?
C. Department of Internal Security 1. The Constitution does not fix the number of
D. Department of States members of the UPSC.
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2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
be persons who have held office under the explanation of A.
Government of India or of a state atleast for five C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
years. explanation of A.
3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold D. A is true but R is false.
office for a term of five years or until they attain Ans: C
the age of 60 years.
4. The salaries and allowances of the members 12. Which of the following enjoys the
of the UPSC are determined by the Parliament. constitutional status?
5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on 1. Finance Commission
the Consolidated Fund of India. 2. NITI Aayog
3. Zonal Councils
A. 1 and 5 4. National Development Council
B. 1, 4 and 5 5. Election Commission
C. 2, 4 and 5 6. University Grants Commission
D. 2, 3 and 4
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Ans: A A. 1, 3, 5 and 6
B. 1 and 5
10. Which of the following statements are
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C. 1, 2, 5 and 6
correct about the difference between a censure D. 1, 3 and 5
motion and a no-confidence motion? 1. A Ans: B
censure motion should state the reasons for its
adoption whereas a no-confidence motion need
not state the reasons for its adoption.
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13. Article 154 states that the Governor can
exercise his executive authority either directly or
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2. A no-confidence motion can be moved only through officers subordinate to him. The word
against the council of ministers, whereas a subordinates includes:
censure motion can be moved against the A. All the ministers except the Chief Minister
council of ministers or an individual minister or B. Only the Cabinet Ministers
a group of ministers. C. Only the Chief Minister and the Deputy Chief
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3. The Government must resign if a no- Minister

confidence motion is passed, whereas the D. All the ministers and the Chief Minister
Government need not resign if a censure motion Ans: D
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is passed.
4. A censure motion can be moved in both, the 14. In which of the following respects, the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas no- Finance Commission differed from the erstwhile
confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Planning Commission?
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Sabha. 1. Legal status

A. 1, 2 and 3 2. Composition
B. 2, 3 and 4 3. Tenure
C. 2, 3 and 4 4. Form of organisation
D. 1, 3 and 4 5. Functions
Ans: A
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5
11. Assertion: Lord Ripon's Resolution of 1882 B. 1, 2, 4 and 5
was hailed as the 'Magna Carta' of local C. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
government. Reason: Lord Ripon is regarded as D. 1, 2 and 5
the 'father of local self-government in India.' Ans: A
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the
following questions by using the codes given 15. Which of the following acts introduced the
below: principle of election in India?
A. A is false but R is true. A. Indian Councils Act of 1909

B. Indian Councils Act of 1892 Ans: D
C. Indian Councils Act of 1861
D. Indian Councils Act of 1919 19. Which of the following are correct about
Ans: B Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
1. He is appointed by the President.
16. The correct statements regarding the 2. He enjoys the status of a Cabinet-rank
difference between the pardoning powers of minister.
President and Governor are: 3. He is a member of the Union cabinet.
1. The Governor can pardon sentences inflicted 4. He attends Cabinet meetings as a special
by court martial while the President cannot. invitee.5. He is the de facto executive head of
2. The President can pardon death sentence the Aayog.
while Governor cannot.
3. The Governor can pardon death sentence A. 1, 2, 3 and 5
while the President cannot. B. 2, 4 and 5
4. The President can pardon sentences inflicted C. 1, 2, 4 and 5
by court martial while the Governor cannot. D. 2, 3, 4 and 5
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A. 2 and 4 Ans: B
B. 3 and 4
20. Which of the following are true of the
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C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3 recommendations of Ashok Mehta Committee on
Ans: A Panchayati Raj?
17. Which of the following statements are

correct?
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1. Creation of Mandal Panchayat covering a
population of 10,000 to 15,000.
2. The state legislature to have a committee on
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1. Parliament can increase a tax. Panchayati Raj to look after the needs of weaker
2. Parliament cannot reduce a tax. sections.
3. Parliament can abolish a tax. 3. If Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded,
4. Parliament cannot increase a tax. elections must be held within one year.
5. Parliament can reduce a tax. 4. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by
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the village development officer.

A. 3, 4 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 4 A. 1, 2 and 3
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C. 3 and 4 B. only 2
D. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 4
Ans: A D. 2 and 4
Ans: B
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18. Consider the following statements with

regard to All-India Services: 21. The word 'Budget' is mentioned in which of
1. Article 312 of the Constitution specifies the the following Articles of the Constitution of
procedure for their creation. India:
2. The All-India Services Act was enacted in A. None
1950. B. Art. 266
3. Indian Forest Service is managed by the C. Art. 265
Ministry of Forests and Environment. D. Art. 112
4. A new All-India Service can be created by the Ans: A
Rajya Sabha.
Of the above, the incorrect statements are: 22. 'The state shall take steps to organise
A. 1, 3 and 4 village Panchayats and endow them with such
B. 2 and 3 powers as may be necessary to enable them to
C. 1 and 4 function as units of selfgovernment.' This
D. 2 and 4 provision is mentioned in:

A. Part I of the Constitution A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
B. Part IV-A of the Constitution explanation of A.
C. Part IV of the Constitution B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
D. Part III of the Constitution explanation of A.
Ans: C C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
23. Assertion: The Prime Minister's Office Ans: C
influences the formulation of plans.
Reason: The PM is the Chairman of the NITI 27. The Indian federation is based on the
Aayog Select the correct code: pattern of:
A. A is true but R is false. A. USA
B. A is false but R is true. B. Switzerland
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct C. Russia
explanation of A. D. Canada
D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct Ans: D
explanation of A.
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Ans: C 28. Which of the following is not correct about a
cantonment board?
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24. The term 'Cabinet' is mentioned in which of A. It works under the administrative control of
the following articles of the Constitution? the Union Defence Ministry.
A. Not mentioned in the Constitution B. It is established for municipal administration
B. Article 75
C. Article 74
D. Article 352
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for civilian population inthe cantonment area.
C. It is created by an executive resolution.
D. It is a statutory body.
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Ans: D Ans: C
25. Assertion: The budget makes a distinction 29. Assertion: The expenditure 'charged' on the
between the expenditure 'charged' on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the
Consolidated Fund ofIndia and the expenditure vote of Parliament. Reason: It is in the nature of
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'made' from the Consolidated Fund of India. obligatory payment. Assertion (A) and Reason
Reason: The expenditure 'charged' on the (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by
Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the using the codes given below.
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vote of Parliament. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) A. A is true but R is false.
Pattern Answer the following questions by using B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
the codes given below. explanation of A.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
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explanation of A. explanation of A.
B. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct Ans: B
explanation of A.
D. A is false but R is true. 30. The District and sessions Judge works
Ans: C directly under the control of:
A. Governor of the state
26. Assertion: The salaries and allowances of B. High Court of the state
members of the UPSC are charged on the C. Law Minister of the state
consolidated Fund of India. Reason: Under the D. District Collector
provisions of the Constitution, additional Ans: B
functions may be conferred on the Commission
by President. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 31. The Governor of a state:
Pattern Answer the following questions by using 1. Possesses executive, legislative and judicial
the codes given below powers analogous to the President.

2. Has to act with the aid and advice of the Constitution lays down the provisions with
council of ministers always. regard to the appointment and service
3. Has the power to appoint and remove the conditions of the Comptroller and
members of State Public Service Commission. AuditorGeneral of India.
4. Has the power to allocate business of the Reason: He cannot function independently
government among the various ministers. unless he enjoys the constitutional protection.
Of the above, the correct statements are: Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the
A. 2, 3 and 4 following questions by using the codes given
B. 1 and 4 below.
C. 1 and 2 A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
D. 1, 3 and 4 explanation of A.
Ans: B B. A is false but R is true.
32. Which of the following are true of the explanation of A.
Central Administrative Tribunal? D. A is true but R is false.
1. It was established under the provisions of Ans: B
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Article 312-A of the Constitution.
2. It was set up by an order of the President of 36. Which of the following statements related to
India. the Central Administrative Tribunal are correct?
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3. It was set up in 1985. 1. It is a statutory body.
4. It was set up by an Act of Parliament. 2. Its members are drawn from administrative
A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
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background only.
3. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in
the code of civil procedure.
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C. 3 and 4 4. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All
D. 1, 2 and 3 India Services as well as Central Services and
Ans: C Central Government posts.
5. It was setup in 1985.
33. The UPSC derives its functions from which A. 1 and 4
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of the following sources? B. 1, 3, 4 and 5

1. Constitution C. 2, 3 and 5
2. Parliamentary laws D. 2 and 3
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3. Executive rules and orders Ans: B

4. Conventions
37. Assertion: The Finance Commission
A. 1 and 2 facilitates the maintenance of financial balance
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B. 1 and 3 between the Union and the states in the Indian

C. 1 only federal system. Reason: The Constitution of
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 India has given more financial powers to the
Ans: D Union Government. Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Pattern Answer the following questions by using
34. The present relationship between the the codes given below:
President and the council of ministers is A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
governed by the provisions of: explanation of A.
A. 42nd Amendment Act B. A is true but R is false.
B. 48th Amendment Act C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
C. 44th Amendment Act explanation of A.
D. 54th Amendment Act D. A is false but R is true.
Ans: C Ans: C
35. Assertion: Article 149 of the Indian 38. Assertion: Audit in India is equally

concerned with the legal and technical as well as a financial year. Reason: The unspent voted
the propriety aspects of expenditure. Reason: expenditure would lapse by the end of the
The provision under which the audit is financial year. Select the correct code:
performed by CAG says that he has 'to ascertain A. A is true but R is false.
whether the moneys shown in the accounts as B. A is false but R is true.
having been disbursed were legally available for C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
and applicable to the purpose to which they had explanation of A.
been applied and whether the expenditure D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
conforms to the authority which governs it.' explanation of A.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) PatternAnswer the Ans: D
following questions by using the codes given
below. 42. The correct statements about Finance
A. A is false but R is true. Commission are:
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1. It is to act as the balancing wheel of Indian
explanation of A. fiscal federalism
C. A is true but R is false. 2. It consists of a chairman and three other
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D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct members.
explanation of A. 3. Qualifications of the members of the
Ans: A Commission are determined by the President.
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4. It is constituted under the provisions of Article
39. Assertion: The Estimates Committee has 280.
been described as a 'continuous economy
committee'. Reason: It is a means of legislative
control over administration. Assertion (A) and
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A. 1 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
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Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following D. 2 and 3
questions by using the codes given below. Ans: A
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. 43. Who/which of the following has called the
B. A is false but R is true erstwhilePlanning Commission as 'The Economic
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C. A is true but R is false. Cabinet, not merely for the Union but also for
D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct the states'?
explanation of A. A. Ashok Chanda
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Ans: D B. K. Santhanam
C. O.R. Gadgil
40. Which of the following expenditures are D. Administrative Reforms Commission
'charged' on the Consolidated Fund of India? Ans: A
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1. Salaries and allowances of Chairman of

Council of States. 44. Assertion: The UPSC makes recruitment to
2. Salaries and allowances of Comptroller and Group A and Group B services. Reason: The Staff
Auditor-General. Selection Commission makes recruitment to
3. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement of Group C services. Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
any arbitral tribunal. Pattern Answer the following questions by using
4. Salaries and allowances of Deputy Speaker. the codes given below
A. 1, 2 and 3 A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
B. 2 and 3 explanation of A.
C. 2 and 4 B. A is true but R is false.
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Ans: B explanation of A.
41. Assertion: The principle of the rule of lapse Ans: A
leads to 'rush of expenditure' towards the end of

45. The ultimate responsibility of taking due by a state legislature can be reserved for the
action on the comments of the C & AG vests consideration of the President.
with: 4. The Parliament can authorise the President to
A. President of India sanction expenditure from the Consolidated
B. National Development Council Fund of the state.
C. Parliament A. 1, 2 and 3
D. Supreme Court B. 1 and 3
Ans: C C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
46. Statutory grants are given to states by the Ans: B
Centre on the recommendation of:
A. NITI Aayog 50. Assertion: The duty of CAG is not merely to
B. Finance Ministry ensure the legality of expenditure but also its
C. National Development Council propriety. Reason: He has to uphold the
D. Finance Commission Constitution and the laws of Parliament in the
Ans: D field of financial administration. Assertion (A)
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and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following
47. Which of the following statements are questions by using the codes given below:
A. A is false but R is true.
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correct?
1. Balwantray Mehta Committee was appointed B. A is true but R is false.
in 1957. C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
2. Ashok Mehta Committee submitted its report
in 1977.
3. G.V.K. Rao Committee submitted its report in
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explanation of A.
D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A.
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1986. Ans: C
4. L.M. Singhvi Committee submitted its report
in 1987. 51. Which of the following can provide for the
appointment of a Joint Public Service
A. 1, 2 and 3 Commission?
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B. 1, 3 and 4 A. UPSC
C. 1 and 4 B. Parliament of India
D. 1, 2 and 4 C. President of India
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Ans: B D. State Governors

Ans: B
48. Statutory recognition to the portfolio system
was accorded by: 52. The personnel system of any local authority,
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A. Indian Councils Act of 1892 corporate body or public institution can be

B. Indian Councils Act of 1871 placed within the jurisdiction of the UPSC by:
C. Indian Councils Act of 1882 A. President of India
D. Indian Councils Act of 1861 B. Parliament
Ans: D C. Supreme Court
D. Central Ministry of Personnel
49. Which of the following will be the Ans: B
consequences of the proclamation of Financial
Emergency by the President? 53. The Balwantray Mehta Committee was a
1. The President can give directions to the states committee on:
to observe the principles of financial propriety. A. Panchayati Raj institutions
2. The President can reduce the salaries and B. Community development programme
allowances of government employees excluding C. Democratic-decentralisation
the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts. D. Administrative arrangements for rural
3. All money bills and other financial bills passed development

Ans: B 5. If superceded, elections must be held within
one year
54. Assertion: The President of India can be
impeached for the violation of the Constitution. A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Reason: The Constitution lays down the B. 1, 3 and 4
procedure for impeachment of the President. C. 1, 3, 4 and 5
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the D. 1, 2, 4 and 5
following questions by using the codes given Ans: A
below.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct 58. Erstwhile Planning Commission was set up
explanation of A. on the recom-mendation of:
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct A. Constituent AssemblyMatching PatternMatch
explanation of A. List I with List II and select the correct answers
C. A is true but R is false. by using codes givenbelow the lists.
D. A is false but R is true B. Advisory Planning Board
Ans: A C. National Planning Committee
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D. Gorwala Report
55. The 73rd Amendment Act does not apply to Ans: B
the states of:
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1. Nagaland 59. Which of the following are not the concerns
2. Mizoram of the UPSC?
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Meghalaya
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1. Classification of services
2. Promotion
3. Training
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A. 1, 2 and 4 4. Disciplinary matters
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 5. Talent hunting
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 and 3 A. 1 and 4Matching PatternMatch List-I with
Ans: B List-II and select the correct answer by using the
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codesgiven below the respective lists.

56. The Indian President's veto power is a B. 1, 3 and 4
combination of: C. 1 and 3
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1. Pocket veto D. 2, 4 and 5

2. Absolute veto Ans: C
3. Suspensive veto
4. Qualified veto 60. Which of the following statements related to
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UPSC are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 1. It derives its functions only from the
B. 1, 3 and 4 Constitution.
C. 2 and 3 2. It is not consulted on matters related to the
D. 2, 3 and 4 reservation of posts for the BCs, SCs and STs.
Ans: A 3. The President can exclude posts, services and
matters from the purview of consultation with
57. The recommendations of the Ashok Mehta UPSC.
Committee on Panchayati Raj are: 4. The President can place the personnel system
1. Creation of a two-tier system of any local authority, corporate body or public
2. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs institution within the jurisdiction of UPSC.
3. Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati A. 1, 2 and 4
Raj institutions B. 1, 2 and 3
4. Open participation of political parties in C. 2 and 3
Panchayati Raj affairs D. 2, 3 and 4

Ans: C Contingency Fund enables the government to
meet any unforeseen expenditure. Assertion (A)
61. Which is incorrectly matched? and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following
A. Right to Association-Article 19. questions by using the codes given below.
B. Right to Protection of Life-Article 20. A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies-Article 32. explanation of A.
D. Prohibition of Discrimination-Article 15 B. A is true but R is false.
Ans: B C. A is false but R is true.
62. The executive officer of the cantonment explanation of A.
board is appointed by the: Ans: A
A. Chief Secretary of the state
B. Defence Secretary 68. Assertion: All doubts and disputes arising
C. President of India out of or in connection with the election of a
D. President of the board President or Vice-President shall be inquired
Ans: C into and decided by the Supreme Court whose
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decision shall be final.
63. The most important Legislative power of the Reason: Parliament may, by law, regulate any
matter relating to or connected with the election
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Governor is:
A. Nominating members to the state legislature. of a President or a Vice-President.
B. Issuing ordinances Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
C. Dissolving the state legislative Assembly
D. Assenting bills passed by the state legislature
Ans: B
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Answer the following questions by using the
codes given below.
A. A is true but R is false.
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B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
64. The Zonal Councils have been established explanation of A.
by: C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
A. Article 263 of the Constitution explanation of A.
B. States reorganisation Act D. A is false but R is true.
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C. Zonal Councils Act Ans: B

D. An order of the President of India
Ans: B 69. Which of the following statements is
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incorrect?
65. The origins of UPSC can be traced to: A. Dissolution means the end of the Assembly.
A. 1909 Act B. Prorogation means the end of the Assembly.
B. 1947 Act C. Proroagation means end of a session of the
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C. 1930 Act Assembly.

D. 1919 Act D. Adjournment means an interruption in normal
Ans: D business of the Assembly.
Ans: B
66. Which of the following is a committee on
Panchayati Raj institutions? 70. The words 'socialist' and 'secular' were
A. G.V.K. Rao Committee added to the Preamble by:
B. Ashok Mehta Committee A. 42nd amendment
C. Balwantray Mehta Committee B. 44th amendment
D. L.M. Singhvi Committee C. 46th amendment
Ans: B D. 41st amendment
Ans: A
67. Assertion: The Constitution of India has
authorised the parliament to create a 71. The first municipal corporation in India was
Contingency Fund of India. Reason: The set up at Madras in:

A. 1667 A. Act of the Parliament
B. 1687 B. Executive resolution
C. 1678 C. Constitutional provision
D. 1767 D. Resolution of the Santhanam Committee
Ans: B Ans: B
72. Which of the following categories of bills 76. Assertion: No person shall be eligible for
require prior consent of the President before appointment as a Governor unless he is a citizen
their introduction? of India and has completed the age of thirty
1. Bills to reorganise states. years. Reason: The Governor shall not hold any
2. Bills affecting taxes in which the states are other office of profit. Assertion (A) and Reason
interested. (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by
3. State bills imposing restrictions on freedom of using the codes given below:
trade. A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
4. Bills involving expenditure from the explanation of A.
Consolidated Fund of India. B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
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explanation of A.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. A is false but R is true.
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B. 2, 3, and 4 D. A is true but R is false.
C. 1, 2, 3 Ans: C
D. 1, 2 and 4
Ans: A
73. Which one of the following pairs is correctly

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77. Which of the following are not correct about
CAG of India?
1. He is appointed by the President for a period
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matched? of five years.
A. 1853 Act – Governor-General of India 2. His salary and conditions of service are
B. 1861 Act – Portfolio system determined by President.
C. 1935 Act – Bicameralism 3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of
D. 1919 Act – Dyarchy at the Centre 60 years.
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Ans: B 4. He can be removed by the President on his

own.
74. The correct statements about ordinance 5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts
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making power of the Governor are: of Central and state governments.

1. It is laid down in Article 213.
2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the A. 2, 3 and 4
President or state council of ministers. B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of C. 1, 4 and 5

the state legislature. D. 3, 4 and 5
4. It can be issued only during the recess of Ans: B
State Legislative Assembly and not the
Legislative Council. 78. Which one of the following amendments to
5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime. the Constitutions, for the first time, made it
obligatory for the President to act on the advice
A. 2, 3 and 4 of the council of ministers?
B. 1, 3 and 5 A. 54th amendment
C. 1, 2 and 3 B. 44th amendment
D. 2, 4 and 5 C. 24th amendment
Ans: C D. 42nd amendment
Ans: D
75. The Central Vigilance Commission was set
up by: 79. Which of the following civil services find

mention in the Constitution? 3. Provision for reservation of seats for
1. Indian Administrative Service backward classes.
2. Indian Forest Service 4. Giving representation to MPs and MLAs in
3. Indian Police Service Panchayats.
4. All-India Judicial Service
5. Indian Foreign Service A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 2
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 5 D. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 Ans: B
D. 1 and 3
Ans: C 83. Assertion: NITI Aayog is neither a statutory
body nor a constitutional body.
80. Assertion: A person who holds, or who has Reason: It is established by an executive
held, office as President shall not be eligible for resolution of the Union Cabinet. Assertion (A)
re-election to that office. and Reason (R) Pattern
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Reason: No person shall be eligible for election Answer the following questions by using the
as a President unless he is qualified for election codes given below:
as a member of the House of People. A. A is false but R is true.
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Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
following questions by using the codes given explanation of A.
below.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A.
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explanation of A.
D. A is true but R is false.
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B. A is true but R is false. Ans: B
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. 84. Assertion: All-India Services are instruments
D. A is false but R is true. of national integration. Reason: Its members are
Ans: D appointed by President of India. Assertion (A)
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and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following

81. Assertion: Chairman and members of the questions by using the codes given below
UPSC are appointed by President. Reason: The A. A is true but R is false.
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UPSC is a constitutional body. Assertion (A) and B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following explanation of A.
questions by using the codes given below C. A is false but R is true.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct D. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
G
explanation of A. explanation of A.
B. A is false but R is true. Ans: B
explanation of A. 85. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has no power to
D. A is true but R is false. vote on the demands-forgrants. Reason: A money
Ans: C bill or finance bill dealing with taxation cannot
be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Assertion (A)
82. Which of the following are the compulsory and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following
provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act on questions by using the codes given below:
Panchayati Raj? A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
1. Indirect elections of the chairpersons of explanation of A.
Panchayats at the intermediate and district B. A is true but R is false.
levels. C. A is false but R is true.
2. Fresh elections within six months in case of D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
dissolution. explanation of A.

Ans: A D. Maharashtra
Ans: D
86. Who characterises Indian Union as 'a
federation with a centralising tendency?' 91. The correct statements about the Directive
A. Granville Austin Principles of State Policy are:
B. B.R. Ambedker 1. They are borrowed from the Irish
C. Ivor Jennings Constitution.
D. K.C. Wheare 2. They are incorporated in Part V of the
Ans: C Constitution.
3. They seek to provide social and economic
87. No-confidence Motion, to be admitted in the base to democracy.
Lok Sabha, needs the support of: 4. The state must compulsorily implement them.
A. 160 Members 5. All of them are Gandhian in nature.
B. 80 Members
C. 140 Members A. 1, 3, 4 and 5
D. 50 Members B. 1 and 3
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Ans: D C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
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88. Assertion: India has imposed severe Ans: B
restrictions on the political activities of civil
servants. Reason: The civil servants in India 92. The recommendations of Balwantray Mehta
enjoy the right to vote. Assertion (A) and Reason
(R) Pattern Answer the following questions by
using the following codes.
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Committee includes: 1. Open participation of
political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs.
2. Genuine transfer of power and responsibility
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A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
explanation of A. 3. Constitutional protection for Panchayati Raj.
B. A is false but R is true. 4. District Collector should be the Chairman of
C. A is true but R is false. the Zila Parishad.
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct 5. Panchayat Samiti to be the executive body.
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explanation of A.
Ans: A A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 4 and 5
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89. Assertion: The Governor of a state is a C. 1, 2 and 5

nominal (titular) executive head. Reason: The D. 2, 3 and 4
Constitution has provided for a parliamentary Ans: B
government in the states. Assertion (A) and
G
Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following 93. Which of the following Lokpal Bills had
questions by using the codes given below: Prime Minister in their jurisdiction?
A. A is false but R is true. 1. The Lokpal Bill of 1968
B. A is true but R is false. 2. The Lokpal Bill of 1971
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct 3. The Lokpal Bill of 1977
explanation of A. 4. The Lokpal Bill of 1985
D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct 5. The Lokpal Bill of 1990
explanation of A.
Ans: C A. 3 and 5
B. 3, 4 and 5
90. The institution of Lokayukta was created for C. 2, 3 and 5
the first time by the state of: D. 1, 3 and 5
A. Orissa Ans: A
B. Bihar
C. Pubjab 94. Which of the following are not the

departments of Finance Ministry? purpose.
1. Department of Expenditure
2. Department of Economic Affairs A. 1, 2 and 4
3. Department of Banking B. 1, 2 and 3
4. Department of Revenue C. 1, 3 and 4
5. Department of Budget D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
A. 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 98. Assertion: The budget is placed in the Upper
C. 2 and 5 House (Rajya Sabha) at the end of the Finance
D. 3 and 5 Minister's Budget Speech in the Lok Sabha.
Ans: D Reason: The budget is presented to the Lok
Sabha on the last working day of February.
95. Assertion: The writ jurisdiction of the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the
Supreme Court and high courts in India is same. following questions by using the codes given
Reason: Both, the Supreme Court and the High below.
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Court can issue the writs of Habeas Corpus, A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo explanation of A.
warranto. Answer the following questions by
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B. A is false but R is true.
using the codes given below. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
A. A is true but R is false. explanation of A.
explanation of A.
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Ans: C
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explanation of A. 99. Dyarchy was introduced by:
D. A is false but R is true. A. Indian Councils Act of 1909
Ans: D B. Government of India Act of 1919
C. Government of India Act of 1935
96. Which is correctly matched? D. Independence Act of 1947
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A. President's rule – Article 365 Ans: B

B. Inter-State Council – Article 264
C. Duties of Prime Minister – Article 74 100. Which one of the following devices calls
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D. Amendment procedure – Article 268 the attention of minister towards a matter of

Ans: A public importance?
A. Half-an-hour discussion
97. Which of the following are the functions of B. Short duration discussion
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the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament? C. Adjournment motion

1. To examine, in the light of CAG's report, the D. Calling attention notice
accounts showing the appropriation of sums Ans: D
granted by the Parliament.
2. To examine, in the light of CAG's report, the 101. Assertion: The Constitution has not fixed
statement of accounts of state corporations, the number of members of the UPSC. Reason:
trading and manufacturing projects except of The Chairman and members of the UPSC are
those as are allotted to the committee on public appointed by President. Assertion (A) and
undertakings. Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following
3. To examine the statement of accounts of questions by using the codes given below
autonomous and semiautonomous bodies, the A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
audit of which is conducted by the CAG. explanation of A.
4. To examine if any money has been spent on B. A is false but R is true.
any service during a financial year in excess of C. A is true but R is false.
the amount granted by house of people for that D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A. 4. A member other than Chairman of the SPSC
Ans: A shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or
any other member of the UPSC or as Chairman
102. Assertion: The Governor is dejure head of of that or any other SPSC, but not for any other
state administration. Reason: The Chief Minister employment either under the Government of
is de-facto head of state administration. India or under the government of a state.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
following questions by using the codes given B. 2 and 4
below: C. 1 only
A. A is true but R is false. D. 1 and 3
B. A is false but R is true. Ans: A
explanation of A. 105. Which of the following are true of the Staff
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct Selection Commission?
explanation of A. 1. It was set up in 1976.
Ans: D 2. It enjoys the status of a subordinate office of
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Ministry of Personnel.
103. Which of the following statements are 3. It was created by executive resolution.
correct with regard to the expenditure charged 4. It recruits personnel to non-technical Class III
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upon the Consolidated Fund of India? posts in the Secretariat, the attached offices and
1. It is subject to the vote of Parliament. the subordinate offices in the Central
2. It is subject to the discussion in Parliament.
3. It is subject to the vote of Lok Sabha only.
4. It is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
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Government.
A. 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
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C. 2 and 4
A. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1 and 4 Ans: A
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4 106. Which of the following acts laid the
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Ans: D foundation of Central administration?

A. Regulating Act of 1773
104. Which of the following statements are B. Charter Act of 1853
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correct with regard to the prohibition as to the C. Charter Act of 1833

holding of offices by members of Public Service D. Pitts India Act of 1784
Commissions on ceasing to be such members? 1. Ans: A
The Chairman of the UPSC shall be ineligible for
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further employment either under the 107. According to the Balwantray Mehta
Government of India or under the government of Committee, the District Collector should be:
a state. A. The Chairman of the Zila Parishad
2. The Chairman of a SPSC shall be eligible for B. A member of the Zila Parishad with the right
appointment as Chairman or any other member to vote
of the UPSC or as Chairman of any other SPSC, C. A non-voting member of the Zila Parishad
but not for any other employment either under D. Kept out of the Zila Parishad
the Government of India or under the Ans: A
government of a state.
3. A member other than Chairman of the UPSC 108. A new All-India Service can be created by:
shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman of A. An act of Parliament
the UPSC or as Chairman of a SPSC, but not for B. An order of the President
any other employment, either under the C. A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
Government of India or under the government of D. A resolution of the UPSC
a state. Ans: A

109. Which of the following writs is not explanation of A.
specifically provided in the Constitution of India? B. A is false but R is true.
A. Prohibition C. A is true but R is false.
B. Mandamus D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
C. Injunction explanation of A.
D. Quowarranto Ans: A
Ans: C
114. In which of the following
110. Which of the following are the objectives of recommendations, the Ashok Mehta Committee
the National Development Council? differed from Balwantray Mehta Committee?
1. To promote common economic policies in all 1. Two-tier system of Panchayati Raj.
vital spheres. 2. Official participation of political parties at all
2. To secure the cooperation of states in the levels of Panchayat elections.
execution of the Plan. 3. Zila Parishad as the executive body.
3. To review the working of the Plan from time 4. Entrusting development functions to the Zila
to time. Parishad.
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4. To consider important questions of social and A. 1 and 2
economic policy affecting development. B. 1, 2 and 4
A. 1, 2 and 4
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C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 2 Ans: C
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
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115. Assertion: Parliamentary control over
public expenditure is diminished by the creation
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111. Which of the following is exclusively a of the Contingency Fund of India.
committee of the Lower House: Reason: The Contingency Fund of India is
A. Committee on Delegated Legislation operated by the President of India.
B. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct code:
C. Estimates Committee A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
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D. Committee on Assurances explanation of A.

Ans: C B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A.
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112. Which of the following is not correctly C. A is true but R is false.

matched? D. A is false but R is true.
A. Article 153 - Office of the Governor Ans: D
B. Article 155 - Removal of Governor
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C. Article 156 - Term of the Governor 116. Assertion: The members of All-India
D. Article 154 - Executive authority of Governor Services work in the Central Government, state
Ans: B governments and union territories. Reason: They
are selected and recruited on the basis of all-
113. Assertion: There shall be a council of India competitive examinations conducted by the
ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to UPSC. Select the correct code:
aid and advise the President who shall, in the A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
exercise of his functions, act in accordance with explanation of A.
such advice. Reason: The question whether any, B. A is true but R is false.
and if so what, advice was tendered by ministers C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
to the President shall not be inquired into in any explanation of A.
court. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern D. A is false but R is true.
Answer the following questions by using the Ans: C
codes given below.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct 117. Assertion: The 73rd amendment to the

Constitution gives a constitutional status to the A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
Gram Sabha. Reason: The Balvantray Mehta explanation of A.
Committee report made a formal mention of the B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Gram Sabha. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) explanation of A.
Pattern Answer the following questions by using C. A is false but R is true.
the codes given below: D. A is true but R is false.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct Ans: C
explanation of A.
B. A is false but R is true. 122. 'Since their inception, the NDC and its
C. A is true but R is false. standing committee have virtually relegated the
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct Planning Commission to the status of a research
explanation of A. arm.' This statement is associated with:
Ans: C A. H.M. Patel
B. K. Santhanam
118. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in C. M. Brecher
the Constitution on the recommendation of: D. Ashok Chanda
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A. Shah Commission Ans: C
B. Santhanam Committee
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C. Administrative Reforms Commission 123. Which of the following must be approved
D. Swaran Singh Committee by the Public Accounts Committee before being
Ans: D submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting?
119. If any question arises as to the age of a

judge of a High Court, the question shall be
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A. Excess grant
B. Additional grant
C. Exceptional grant
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decided by the President after consultation with: D. Token grant
A. The Attorney-General of India Ans: A
B. The Governor of the concerned state
C. The Chief Justice of India 124. Which of the following is not a feature of
D. The Chief Justice of the concerned High Government of India Act of 1935?
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Court A. Provincial autonomy

Ans: C B. Dyarchy at the Centre
C. All-India Federation
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120. 'The state shall strive to promote the D. Dyarchy in the provinces
welfare of people by securing and protecting as Ans: D
effectively as it may, a social order in which
justice-social, economic and political-shall 125. The need for a separate parliamentary
G
inform all the institutions of the national life.' committee on public undertakings was first
This provision is contained in which of the visualised by:
following articles of the Indian Constitution? A. Ashok Mehta
A. Article 37 B. Lanka Sundaram
B. Article 38 C. Krishna Menon Committee
C. Article 46 D. G.V. Mavalankar
D. Article 39 Ans: B
Ans: B
126. The number of demands in the General
121. Assertion: The President of India Budget for civil expenditures is:
determines the qualifications of the Chairman A. 103
and members of the Finance Commisson. B. 106
Reason: The Chairman and members of the C. 109
Finance Commission are appointed by the D. 102
President of India. Select the correct code: Ans: A

127. Who said the 'Indian Constitution state governments.
established a unitary state with subsidiary 4. He has control over the issue of money from
federal features rather than federal state with the Consolidated Fund of India.
subsidiary unitary features?'
A. K.C. Wheare A. 2, 3 and 4
B. Granville Austin B. 1, 2 and 3
C. Ivor Jennings C. 1, 3 and 4
D. B.R. Ambedker D. 2 and 4
Ans: A Ans: B
128. Assertion: There shall be a council of 131. The accounts of the Union and of the
ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to States shall be kept in such form as prescribed
aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of by:
his functions, except in so far he is by or under A. Finance Minister of India in consultation with
the Constitution, required to exercise his CAG of India.
functions, or any of them in his discretion. B. CAG of India with the approval of Planning
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Reason: The Chief Minister shall be appointed by Commission.
the Governor and other ministers shall be C. CAG of India with the approval of the
appointed by the Governor on the advice of the
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President.
Chief Minister.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) D. President of India in consultation with CAG of
Pattern Answer the following questions by using India
the codes given below:
A. A is true but R is false.
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Ans: D
132. According to Administrative Reforms

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explanation of A. Commission, the Lokpal would be appointed by
C. A is false but R is true. the President after consultation with the:
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1. Chief Justice of India
explanation of A. 2. Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha
Ans: B 3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
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4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

129. While appointing a Lokayuka, the Governor
in most of the states consults: A. 1, 2 and 3
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1. President of India B. 2, 3 and 4

2. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly C. 1, 3 and 4
3. Leader of the opposition in the Legislative D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Assembly Ans: C
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4. Chief Justice of the State High Court

5. Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative 133. How many members are nominated to the
Council. State Legislative Council by the Governor?
A. One-third
A. 1, 2 and 4 B. One-sixth
B. 3 and 4 C. One-twelfth
C. 1, 4 and 5 D. One-eighth
D. 3, 4 and 5 Ans: B
Ans: B
134. District Judges are appointed by:
130. Which of the following statements with A. The Chief Justice of High Court
regard to the CAG are correct? B. The Chief Minister of state
1. He is responsible only to the Parliament. C. The State Public Service Commission
2. He certifies the net proceeds of any tax. D. The Governor of state
3. He compiles and maintains the accounts of Ans: D

135. Which of the following expenditures are D. Central Vigilance Commission-1964
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India? Ans: B
1. Salaries of the Supreme Court judges
2. Pensions of the Chairman of UPSC 139. Which of the following are not the federal
3. Debt charges for which the Government of features of Indian Constitution?
India is liable 1. Supremacy of Constitution
4. Emoluments and allowances of the Prime 2. All-India services
Minister 3. Single citizenship
4. Independent judiciary
A. 1, 2 and 4 5. Bicameral legislature
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 6. Integrated judiciary
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3 A. 1, 5 and 6
Ans: D B. 1, 4 and 5
C. 2, 3 and 6
136. Which of the following statements with D. 2, 3 and 4
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regard to the erstwhile Planning Commission are Ans: C
correct?
1. It was constituted on 15th March, 1950.
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140. A Joint Public Service Commission can be
2. It had representation from the state created by:
governments. A. An order of the President
3. It acted as a kind of a bridge between Union
Government, National Development Council and
state governments.
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B. A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
C. An act of Parliament
D. A resolution of the concerned state
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4. It was a collegiate body. legislatures
Ans: C
A. 1 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 141. The conditions of service of members of
C. 1, 2 and 3 All-India Services are determined by:
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D. 2 and 4 A. President of India

Ans: A B. Constitution of India
C. Parliament of India
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137. Assertion: The Governor shall hold office D. Union Public Service Commission
during the pleasure of the President. Reason: Ans: C
The Governor of a state shall be appointed by
the President India. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 142. Which of the following are true of the
G
Pattern Answer the following questions by using provisions of the 74th Amendment Act on
the codes given below: municipalities?
A. A is true but R is false. 1. Wards Committees, for wards with population
B. A is false but R is true. of two lakhs.
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct 2. The state Governor may authorise them to
explanation of A. levy, collect and appropriate taxes.
D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct 3. A Municipal council for smaller Urban area.
explanation of A. 4. The Twelfth Schedule contains 20 functional
Ans: C items for the municipalities.
A. 1, 3 and 4
138. Which of the following is not correctly B. 1, 2 and 4
matched? C. 3 and 4
A. Prevention of Corruption Act-1947 D. 3 only
B. Special Police Establishment-1942 Ans: D
C. Central Bureau of Investigation-1963

143. The CAG of India can be removed from the 2. The principles which should govern the
office only in like manner and on like grounds grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of
as: the Consolidated Fund of India.
A. Attorney General of India 3. The measures needed to augment the
B. Chairman of the UPSC Consolidated Fund of a state to supplement the
C. Supreme Court Judge resources of the municipalities in the state on
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha the basis of the recommendations made by the
Ans: C Finance Commission of the state.
4. Any other matter referred to it by the
144. The main objective of the National President in the interests of sound finance.
Development Council is: A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. To promote common economic policies in all B. 1, 2 and 3
vital spheres. C. 1 and 2
B. To ensure balanced and rapid development of D. 1, 2 and 4
all parts of the country. Ans: A
C. To strengthen and mobilise the efforts and
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resources of the nation insupport of the plan. 149. Which of the following are true of the
D. To secure cooperation of states in execution President's ordinance making power?
1. It is laid down in Article 123.
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of the plan.
Ans: D 2. Its ambit is coextensive with the legislative
power of Parliament.
145. The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in the
Parliament in:
A. 1968
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3. He can promulgate an ordinance only when
the Lok Sabha is not in session.
4. It is a discretionary power of the President.
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B. 1971 A. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1972 B. 1 and 2
D. 1967 C. 1, 2 and 4
Ans: A D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
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146. The Railway budget has:

A. 36 demands 150. Assertion: The UPSC is the Central
B. 42 demands recruiting agency in India. Reason: It is an
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C. 32 demands independent constitutional body. Assertion (A)

D. 34 demands and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following
Ans: C questions by using the codes given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
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147. The Vote on Account is passed: explanation of A.

A. After the voting of demands B. A is true but R is false.
B. Either after the voting of the demands or C. A is false but R is true.
after the general discussion. D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
C. After the general discussion explanation of A.
D. Before the general discussion Ans: D
Ans: C
151. A President's rule can be imposed in a
148. On which of the following items, the state under the provisions of:
Finance Commission makes recommendations to 1. Article 356
the President? 2. Article 360
1. The distribution between the Union and the 3. Article 352
states of the net proceeds of taxes and the 4. Article 365
allocation between the states of the respective
shares of such proceeds. A. 1 and 4

B. 1 and 3 deals with the suability of the State of India?
C. only 1 A. Article 200
D. 1 and 2 B. Article 100
Ans: A C. Article 300
D. Article 330
152. The correct statements about Ans: C
municipalities include:
1. They are known by various other names in 156. Which of the following is not a formally
different states. prescribed device available to the members of
2. They are controlled by the state governments. Parliament?
3. Vesting of the executive authority in the A. Half-an-hour discussion
Chairman. B. Zero Hour
4. They are statutory bodies. C. Short duration discussion
A. 1, 2 and 4 D. Question Hour
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: B
C. 1, 2 and 3
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D. 1 and 2 157. Which of the following are the limitations
Ans: B on the sovereignty of Indian Parliament? 1.
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Fundamental Rights 2. Judicial Review 3.
153. The correct statements about Fundamental Federalism 4. Written Constitution
Rights are: A. 1, 3 and 4
1. They are enforceable in the court of law.
2. These rights are absolute.
3. They can be suspended during national
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B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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emergency, except some. Ans: D
4. They are available only to Indian citizens.
5. They are contained in Part IV of the 158. Assertion: The number of members of
Constitution. UPSC is determined by the President. Reason:
The members of the UPSC are appointed by the
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A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 President. Select the correct code:

B. 1, 3 and 5 A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
C. 1 and 3 explanation of A.
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D. 1, 3, 4 and 5 B. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct

Ans: C explanation of A.
C. A is false but R is true.
154. Assertion: The Rajamannar Committee D. A is true but R is false.
G
recommended the abolition of the IAS and IPS. Ans: B

Reason: The IAS and IPS violate the principles of
federalism and ministerial responsibility at the 159. In which of the following circumstances
state level. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern the President can remove a member of the UPSC
Answer the following questions by using the without referring the matter to the Supreme
codes given below Court?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1. If he engages, during his term of office, in any
explanation of A. paid employment outside the duties of his office.
B. A is true but R is false. 2. If he is adjudged an insolvent.
C. A is false but R is true. 3. If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of
D. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct infirmity of mind or body.
explanation of A. 4. If he becomes, in any way, concerned or
Ans: A interested in any contract or agreement made by
or on behalf of the Government of India or the
155. Which article of the Indian Constitution government of a state.

A. 4 only 164. The National Development Council consists
B. 2 and 3 of:
C. 1, 2 and 3 A. The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all
D. 1 only the states, SelectedCentral Cabinet Ministers,
Ans: C Administrators of union territories and
themembers of the NITI Aayog.
160. Which of the following Cabinet Committees B. The Prime Minister, all Union Cabinet
is not chaired by the Prime Minister? Ministers, Chief Ministers of allthe states,
A. Economic Affairs Committee Administrators of union territories and the
B. Appointments Committee members of the NITIAayog.
C. Political Affairs Committee C. The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all
D. Committee on Parliamentary Affairs the states, the CentralCabinet Ministers and the
Ans: D Members of the NITI Aayog.
D. The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all
161. No demand for a grant is to be made the states and themembers of the NITI Aayog.
except on the recommendation of: Ans: B
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A. Finance Minister
B. Comptroller and Auditor-General 165. The ex-officio members of the erstwhile
Planning Commission were: 1. Home Minister
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C. Prime Minister
D. President 2. Finance Minister
Ans: D 3. Defence Minister
162. Which of the following are the provisions of

Article 75 of the Constitution?
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4. Human Resources Minister
5. Planning Minister
6. Agriculture Minister
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1. Ministers shall be appointed by the President
on the advice of Prime Minister. A. 2, 3, 5 and 6
2. The council of ministers shall be collectively B. 1, 2, 4 and 5
responsible to the House of People. C. 1, 2 and 5
3. The question whether any, and if so what, D. 2 and 5
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advice was tendered by ministers to the Ans: D

President shall not be inquired into in any court.
4. The salaries and allowances of ministers shall 166. Which of the following are true of Central
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be determined by Parliament. Vigilance Commission?

A. 2 and 4 1. It was set up in 1964.
B. 1, 2 and 4 2. It is a statutory body.
C. 2, 3 and 4 3. Its functions are advisory in the same sense as
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D. 1, 2 and 3 those of UPSC.

Ans: B 4. Its mode of receiving complaints is similar to
that of the Parliamentary Commissioner for
163. The salient features of the Government of Administration in UK.
India Act, 1935 are: A. 1, 3 and 4
1. All India Federation B. 1, 2 and 3
2. Provincial Autonomy C. 1 and 3
3. Dyarchy at the Centre D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states Ans: B
A. 2, 3 and 4 167. The Governor-General of Bengal became

B. 1, 2 and 3 the Governor-General of India by:
C. 1 and 2 A. Indian Councils Act of 1861
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. Government of India Act of 1858
Ans: D C. Pitts India Act of 1784

D. Charter Act of 1833 172. The Chairman and members of the UPSC
Ans: D hold office for a term of:
A. Four years
168. In which of the following stated years, the B. Five years
Lokpal Bill was not introduced in the C. Three years
Parliament? D. Six years
A. 1968 Ans: D
B. 1985Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
C. 1971 173. Which of the following are correct with
D. 1978 regard to the functions of the UPSC?
Ans: D 1. To conduct examinations for appointments to
the services of the Union.
169. The institution of Lokayukta was created 2. To assist states, if requested, in framing and
first in Maharashtra in: operating schemes of joint recruitment for any
A. 1973 services for which candidates possessing special
B. 1972 qualifications are required.
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C. 1971 3. To advise the Union and state governments on
D. 1970 all matters relating to methods of recruitment to
civil services and for civil posts.
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Ans: C
4. To present, annually, to the President a report
170. Under which of the following as to the work done by it.
circumstances, the Governor can reserve a state
bill for the consideration of the President?
1. If it is ultra vires.
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A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
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2. If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
State Policy. Ans: B
3. If it endangers the position of the state High
Court. 174. The correct statements about cantonment
4. If it is dealing with the compulsory acquisition boards are:
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of property under Article 31A. 1. This system of municipal administration is a

British legacy in our country.
A. 1, 3 and 4 2. They are set up under the resolutions passed
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B. 1, 2 and 3 by the Ministry of Defence.

C. 2, 3 and 4 3. The Ministry of Defence exercises direct
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 administrative control over them.
Ans: D 4. It consists of elected members only.
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5. The executive officer of the board is appointed

171. Assertion: The Chief Minister can dismiss a by the President of the board.
minister of state government. Reason: The Chief
Minister is the head of the state council of A. 1 and 3
ministers. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern B. 3, 4 and 5
Answer the following questions by using the C. 1, 3 and 5
codes given below: D. 2, 3 and 4
A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct Ans: A
explanation of A.
B. A is true but R is false. 175. Assertion: The 73rd Amendment Act is a
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct significant landmark in the evolution of
explanation of A. grassroots democratic institutions in the
D. A is false but R is true. country. Reason: The Act has brought the
Ans: D Panchayati Raj institutions under the purview of
justiciable part of the the Constitution. Assertion

(A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following B. A is true but R is false.
questions by using the codes given below. C. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
explanation of A. D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
explanation of A. Ans: D
C. A is false but R is true
D. A is true but R is false. 180. Which of the following are the federal
Ans: A features of the Indian Constitution?
1. Rigid Constitution
176. Central Vigilance Commission was set up 2. Bicameral legislature
on the recommendation of: 3. Office of the CAG
A. Gorwala Report 4. Collective responsibility
B. Administrative Reforms Commission of India 5. Office of the Governor
C. Kripalani Committee
D. Santhanam Committee A. 1 and 2
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Ans: D B. 1, 2 and 5
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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177. Assertion: A member of All-India Service D. 1, 2 and 3
can appeal against the order of a State Ans: A
Government to the President of India. Reason:
Article 311 of the Constitution says that a civil
servant cannot be removed or dismissed by any
authority which is subordinate to the authority
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181. Panchayati Raj form of rural local
government was adopted first by (in the order):
A. Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
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by which he was appointed. Assertion (A) and B. Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following C. Rajashtan and Andhra Pradesh
questions by using the following codes. D. Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct Ans: C
explanation of A.
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B. A is false but R is true. 182. Which of the following audit is

C. A is true but R is false. discretionary and not obligatory on the part of
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct CAG?
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explanation of A. A. Audit of Authority

Ans: D B. Audit of Accountancy
C. Audit of Propriety
178. The erstwhile Planning Commission was D. Audit of Appropriation
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described as the 'Economic Cabinet' by: Ans: C

A. P.P. Agarwal
B. D.R. Gadgil 183. Assertion: India has adopted the
C. Santhanam parliamentary form of government.
D. Ashok Chanda Reason: The President is the titular head of the
Ans: D state while the council of ministers headed by
the Prime Minister is the real executive
179. Assertion: The salaries of the members of authority.
the UPSC cannot be changed to their Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
disadvantage during their tenure. Reason: The Answer the following questions by using the
independence of the Public Service Commission codes given below.
has to be maintained. Assertion (A) and Reason A. A is true but R is false.
(R) Pattern Answer the following questions by B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
using the codes given below explanation of A.
A. A is false but R is true. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct

explanation of A. C. 2 and 4
D. A is false but R is true. D. 1 and 3
Ans: B Ans: C
184. The functions of National Development 188. Which of the following is not a condition of
Council includes: admissibility of cut motions in the Parliament?
1. To consider the national plan as formulated by A. It should not relate to expenditure charged on
the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog). the Consolidated Fund ofIndia.
2. To secure the cooperation of states in the B. It should relate to more than one demand.
execution of the plan. C. It should not raise a question of privilege.
3. To review the working of the plan from time to D. It should not make suggestions for the
time. amendment of existing laws.
4. To consider questions of social and economic Ans: B
policy affecting development.
A. 2 and 4 189. Which of the following are the features of
B. 1, 2 and 3 74th Amendment Act on municipalities?
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C. 1, 3 and 4 1. reservation of seats for scs and sts in
D. 2 and 3 proportion of their population (to the total
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Ans: C population) in municipal Area.
2. Mandatory periodic elections every 5 years.
185. Which of the following Constitutional 3. The procedure for maintenance of accounts
Amendment act provided for the appointment of
the same person as Governor for two or more
states?
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and audit would be decided by the State
Governor.
4. Constitution of Nagar Panchayats for smaller
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A. 7th Amendment urban area.
B. 24th Amendment 5. One-third of the seats shall be reserved for
C. 11th Amendment women, excluding the number of seats reserved
D. 4th Amendment for SC and ST women.
Ans: A
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A. 3, 4 and 5
186. The functions of the UPSC can be extended B. 2, 3 and 5
by: C. 1, 2 and 4
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A. Parliament D. 1 and 2
B. Ministry of Personnel Ans: D
C. Prime Minister
D. President 190. The Finance Commission does not
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Ans: A recommend on:

A. The distribution of net proceeds of taxes
187. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly between the union and thestates.
matched? B. The amount of money to be allocated to the
1. Vote on account - To allow enough time for states from Public Accountof India.
legislative scrutiny and discussion of the budget. C. The principles to be followed by the centre
2. Charged items - Not submitted to the while giving grants-in-aid tothe states out of the
Parliament. consolidated Fund of India.
3. Vote of credit - Blanck cheque given to the D. Any other matter referred to the Commission
executive. by President in the interestof sound finance.
4. Excess grant - Submitted directly to the Lok Ans: B
Sabha for its approval
191. Which of the following is not involved in
A. 3 and 4 the preparation of budget?
B. 1, 2 and 4 A. Finance Ministry

B. Finance Commission 195. Assertion: The emoluments and allowances
C. NITI Aayog of the Governor shall not be diminished during
D. Comptroller and Auditor-General his term of office. Reason: Where the same
Ans: B person is appointed as Governor of two or more
states, the emoluments and allowances payable
192. The composition of National Development to the Governor shall be allocated among the
Council includes: states in such proportion as the President may
1. Chief Ministers of all the states by order determine. Assertion (A) and Reason
2. All Union Cabinet Ministers (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by
3. Prime Minister using the codes given below:
4. Administrators of union territories A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
5. Selected Union Cabinet Ministers explanation of A.
6. Members of NITI Aayog B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 C. A is false but R is true.
B. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 D. A is true but R is false.
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C. 1, 2, 3 and 6 Ans: B
D. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
196. Assertion: No expenditure can be incurred
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Ans: A
without the approval of the Parliament. Reason:
193. Consider the following statements about Our democratic government, like that of Britain,
municipal corporations:
1. They are established in the states by the acts
of the concerned state legislatures.
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is based on the concept of sovereignty of the
parliament. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the
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2. They are established in the union territories codes given below.
by an order of the Chief Administrator. A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
3. They work under direct control and explanation of A.
supervision of state governments. B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
4. Their deliberative functions are separated explanation of A.
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from the executive functions. C. A is false but R is true.

Of the above, the correct statements are: D. A is true but R is false.
A. 1, 3 and 4 Ans: D
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B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 197. Which of the following pairs are correctly
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 matched?
Ans: A 1. Article 266 – No tax shall be levied or
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collected except by authority of law.

194. Assertion: A minister at the Central level 2. Article 117 – No tax can be imposed unless
can be dismissed by the Prime Minister. Reason: asked for by the executive government.
A minister is appointed by President only on the 3. Article 113 – No expenditure can be
advice of Prime Minister. Assertion (A) and sanctioned unless asked for by the executive
Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following government.
questions by using the codes given below: 4. Article 265 – No expenditure can be incurred
A. A is true but R is false. except with the authorisation of the legislature.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct A. 2, 3 and 4
explanation of A. B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct C. 2 and 3
explanation of A. D. 1, 3 and 4
Ans: B Ans: C

198. The functions of Estimates Committee Assume to himself all the functions of the state
include: 1. To suggest alternative policies in government including the High Court.
order to bring out efficiency and economy in 2. Declare that the powers of the state
administration. legislature shall be exercisable under the
2. To see that the expenditure conforms to the authority of the Governor.
authority which governs it. 3. Assume to himself all the functions of the
3. To examine whether the money is well laid out state government except the High Court.
within the limits of the policy implied in the 4. Declare that the powers of the state
estimates. legislature shall be exercisable under the
4. To suggest the form in which estimates shall authority of the parliament.
be presented to the Parliament. Of the above, Of the above, the correct statements are:
the correct statements are: A. 3 and 4
A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 1 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 2 Ans: A
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Ans: A
203. Which of the following articles of the
199. The budget was formally introduced in Constitution broadly govern the relationship
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India in: between the Prime Minister and the President?
A. 1868 1. Article 75
B. 1860
C. 1950
D. 1947
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2. Article 73
3. Article 78
4. Article 76
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Ans: B 5. Article 74
200. Who/which of the following can abolish a A. 1, 3, 4 and 5

State Legislative Council. B. 1, 3 and 5
A. State Assembly C. 1, 2, 3 and 5
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B. President D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C. Governor Ans: B
D. Parliament
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Ans: D 204. Assertion: Under the Constitution, the

Chief Minister holds office till the pleasure of the
201. Which of the following are true of Central Governor. Reason: The Chief Minister is
Vigilance Commission? appointed by the Governor. Assertion (A) and
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1. It was set up on the recommendation of Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following
Santhanam Committee. questions by using the codes given below:
2. It does not exercise superintendence over the A. A is true but R is false.
functioning of CBI. B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3. It is set up by an executive resolution of the explanation of A.
Government of India. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
4. It consists of a chairman and three members. explanation of A.
A. 1 and 3 D. A is false but R is true.
B. 1, 2 and 4 Ans: B
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4 205. Which of the following were the functions
Ans: A of erstwhile Planning Commission?
1. To formulate development plans of state
202. In the event of declaration of constitutional governments.
emergency in the state, the President can: 1. 2. To secure public cooperation in national

development. 209. The Chairman of which of the following
3. To consider important questions of social and parliamentary committees is invariably from the
economic policy affecting development. members of ruling party?
4. To provide secretarial assistance to the NDC. A. Committee on Delegated Legislation
B. Estimates Committee
A. 2, 3 and 4 C. Public Accounts Committee
B. 2 and 4 D. Committee on Public Undertakings
C. 1, 2 and 4 Ans: B
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C 210. Assertion: The members of All-India
Services can give independent and impartial
206. Which of the following statements are true advise to political executives in the states.
about the Governor of a state? Reason: They enjoy constitutional safeguards
1. The executive power of the state is vested in with regard to security of service. Assertion (A)
him. and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following
2. He must have attained 35 years of age. questions by using the codes given below
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3. He holds office during the pleasure of the A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
President. explanation of A.
4. The grounds for his removal are laid down in
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B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
the Constitution. explanation of A.
C. A is false but R is true.
A. 1, 2, and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
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Ans: A
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D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 211. The Central Administrative Tribunal deals
Ans: C with:
A. Disciplinary matters
207. List-I List-II A. Board of Control – 1. B. Recruitment matters
Regulating Act of 1773 C. Recruitment and all service matters
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B. Central Administration – 2. Government of D. Promotion matters

India Act of 1858 Ans: C
C. Governor-General of India – 3. Pitts India Act
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of 1784 212. The Inter-State Council consists of

D. Secretary of state for India – 4. Charter Act of 1. Prime Minister
1833 2. Chief Ministers of all states
Codes: A B C D 3. Chief Ministers of union territories with
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legislatures
A. 1 2 3 4 4. Eight Union Cabinet Ministers
B. 3 1 4 2 5. Administrators of union territories with
C. 3 1 2 4 legislatures
D. 4 2 3 1
Ans: B A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
208. Which of the following is correctly C. 1, 2 and 3
matched? D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
A. 1935 Act – Dyarchy in states Ans: C
B. 1919 Act – Provincial autonomy
C. 1947 Act – Responsible government 213. Assertion: Under the Government of India
D. 1909 Act – Principle of election Act of 1935, the Residuary powers were vested
Ans: C in the Central Legislature.
Reason: The Government of India Act of 1935

divided the subjects into three lists viz. the C. Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks
federal, provincial and concurrent. Select the from the reassembly of theParliament.
correct code: D. Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct President.
explanation of A. Ans: D
explanation of A. 218. 'The position of pre-eminance, accorded to
C. A is false but R is true. Planning Commission, is inconsistent with the
D. A is true but R is false. conception of a Cabinet form of Government.'
Ans: C The above statement is associated with:
A. Ashok Chanda
214. Panchayati Raj is a system of: B. K. Santhanam
A. Local government C. Administrative Reforms Commission
B. Rural local self-government D. Estimates Committee
C. Local self-government Ans: A
D. Local administration
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Ans: B 219. Who is regarded as the 'Father of All-India
Services?'
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215. Which of the following are the voluntary A. Lord Cornwallis
provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act on B. Sardar Patel
Panchayati Raj? C. Lord Macaulay
1. Making provision for reservation to the
backward classes.
2. Authorising the Panchayats to prepare plans
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D. B.R. Ambedker
Ans: B
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for economic development. 220. The features of Government of India Act of
3. Organisation of Gram Sabhas. 1858 includes:
4. Conferring financial powers on Panchayats 1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown
with regard to taxes, fees and so on. rule.
5. Setting up of a State Election Commission to 2. Establishment of a Board of Control over the
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conduct elections to the Panchayats. Court of Directors.

3. Reaffirmation of the system of open
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 competition.
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B. 1, 2 and 5 4. Separating the legislative and executive

C. 1, 2 and 4 functions of the Governor- General.
D. 1, 2, 4 and 5 5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of
Ans: C State for India.
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216. Which act provided for direct control of A. 1, 3 and 5

Indian affairs by the British Government? B. 1, 3 and 4
A. Pitts India Act of 1784 C. 1 and 5
B. Charter Act of 1833 D. 1, 2 and 4
C. Regulating Act of 1773 Ans: A
D. Charter Act of 1858
Ans: A 221. Which of the following are true of the
Contingency Fund of India.
217. Which of the following statements about 1. It was created under the provisions of Article
President's ordinance-making power is not 267.
correct? 2. It was created in 1951.
A. It is co-extensive with legislative power of 3. It is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf
Parliament. of the President.
B. Laid down in Article 123. 4. Its amount will be determined by the

President. C. A is true but R is false.
A. 2, 3 and 4 Ans: B
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3 225. Assertion: A minister at the state level
D. 3 and 4 continues in office till he enjoys the confidence
Ans: C of the Chief Minister. Reason: The Chief Minister
can ask him to resign or advise the Governor to
222. Consider the following statements about dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
the Governor: Select the correct code:
1. He submits his resignation letter to the Chief A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Justice of the state. explanation of A.
2. He should have completed 35 years of age. B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
3. His emoluments, allowances and privileges explanation of A.
are determined by the President. C. A is true but R is false.
4. No criminal proceedings can be instituted D. A is false but R is true.
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against him. Ans: A
Of the above, the incorrect statements are:
A. 2, 3 and 4
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226. The final work of UPSC in recruitment
B. 1, 3 and 4 process is:
C. 2 and 4 A. Selection
D. 1 and 3
Ans: D
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B. Appointment
C. Certification
D. Placement
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223. Which of the following statements are Ans: C
correct regarding the powers of a Governor to
reserve a bill for the consideration of the 227. Which of the following distinguishes the
President? audit of the CAG from the audit made by
1. It is laid down in Article 200. professional auditors?
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2. It is not a discretionary power of the A. Audit of Propriety

Governor. B. Audit of Authority
3. It is compulsory, if the bill endangers the C. Audit of Accountancy
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position of High Court. D. Audit of Appropriation

4. He can reserve any bill passed by the state Ans: A
legislature.
A. 1 and 3 228. Which of the following factors have led to
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B. 1, 2 and 3 the decline of Indian Parliament?

C. 2, 3 and 4 1. Growth of delegated legislation.
D. 3 and 4 2. Low level of attendance in the Parliament.
Ans: A 3. Frequent promulgation of ordinances.
4. Frequent amendment of the Constitution.
224. Assertion: The Constitution of India in 5. Setback in Parliamentary behaviour and
quasi-federal. Reason: It has given more powers ethics.
to the Central Government than to the state
governments. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) A. 2, 3 and 4
PatternAnswer the following questions by using B. 1, 2, 3 and 5
the codes given below: C. 1, 3, 4 and 5
A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct D. 1, 3 and 5
explanation of A. Ans: B
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. 229. The President of India is elected by an

electoral college consisting of: powers in financial matters. Reason: The Lok
A. Elected members of Parliament and state Sabha alone votes the demands for grants.
legislatures Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the
B. Elected members of Parliament and state following questions by using the codes given
legislative assemblies below.
C. Members of Parliament and state legislatures A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
D. Elected members of Lok Sabha and members explanation of A.
of Rajya Sabha and stateLegislative Assemblies B. A is false but R is true.
Ans: B C. A is true but R is false.
230. The Constitution says that the state council explanation of A.
of ministers hold office during the pleasure of Ans: A
the Governor. The words 'during the pleasure of
the Governor' in reality me 234. The 52nd Amendment to the Constitution
A. Pleasure of the Chief Minister A. brought persons working in certain
B. Pleasure of the Legislative Assembly organisationswhose character of duties was akin
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C. Pleasure of the Prime Minister to the armedforces, within the ambit of Article
D. Pleasure of the President 33 of theConstitution
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Ans: B B. sought to curb political defections
C. extended reservation for Scheduled Castes
231. Which of the following is not correct about andScheduled Tribes till 1990
Finance Commission?
A. Consists of a Chairman and four other
members.
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D. provided an Autonomous District Council in
Tripura
Ans: B
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B. Constituted at the expiration of every fifth
year. 235. Which amendment of the Constitution
C. Its advice is binding on the Government. accorded precedence to the Directive Principles
D. Recommends the distribution of proceeds of of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
taxes between Centre andstates. A. none of the above.
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Ans: C B. 44th Amendment

C. 42nd Amendment
232. Which of the following will be the D. 39th Amendment
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consequences of declaration of national Ans: C

emergency by the President?
1. The President can issue directives to the state 236. Which among the following Act marked a
executives. second milestone towards a completely
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2. The President can extend the normal tenure of responsible government in India?
the Lok Sabha. A. 1919 Act
3. The President can suspend all the B. 1909 Act
Fundamental Rights of citizens. C. 1935 Act
4. The President can modify the distribution D. 1858 Act
pattern of financial resources between Centre Ans: C
and states.
237. The President can grant pardon in
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 A. all cases involving death sentence
B. 1, 3 and 4 B. all offences against laws in the union and
C. 1and 4 concurrentlist
D. 1, 2 and 3 C. all cases of punishment by Court Martial
Ans: C D. all the above cases
Ans: D
233. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has less

238. Once a Budget has been presented in the D. elected for a term of five years
Parliament, the government has to get all money Ans: B
bills related to the union budget passed within
______? 244. The power to form new states or change
A. 75 Days the boundaries of existing states rests with
B. 60 Days A. none of the above
C. 30 Days B. the President
D. 90 Days C. the Parliament
Ans: A D. the Election Commission
Ans: C
239. An ordinance promulgated by the
President usually remains in force for 245. Which one of the following amendments
A. six weeks from the date of issue accorded precedence to the Directive Principles
B. six months after the commencement of the over Fundamental Rights?
nextsession of Parliament A. 24th Amendment
C. six months from the date of issue B. 39th Amendment
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D. six weeks after the commencement of the C. 44th Amendment
nextsession of Parliament D. 42nd Amendment
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Ans: D Ans: D
240. The central government can assign any 246. Which one of the following is a bulwark of
function to the state with the consent of
A. the President
B. the state government
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personal freedom?
A. Quo Warranto
B. Certiorari
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C. the Parliament C. Habeas Corpus
D. the Chief Justice of India D. Mandamus
Ans: B Ans: C
241. The first commission appointed by the 247. The Governor recommends the imposition
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Government in 1948 to examine the case for the of the President's rule in a state
reorganisation of states on linguistic basis was A. On the recommendation of the state
headed by legislature
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A. Justice S K Dhar B. If he is satisfied that the government of the

B. Justice M C Mahajan statecannot be carried in accordance with the
C. Justice Wanchoo provisionsof the Constitution of India
D. None of the above C. On the recommendation of the Chief Minister
G
Ans: A D. On the recommendation of the council of

minister
242. The Comptroller and Auditor General holds Ans: B
office
A. for a term of five years 248. Which of the following statements
B. for a term of six years regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?
C. during the pleasure of the Parliament A. he loses his office if the house is dissolved
D. during the pleasure of the President beforethe end of the normal tenure
Ans: B B. if he intends to resign, the letter of his
resignation isto be addressed to the Deputy
243. The legislative council of a state is Speaker
A. elected for a term of six years C. he holds office during the pleasure of the
B. a permanent house, and is not subject to President
dissolution D. He need not be a member of the house at the
C. elected for a term of four years timeof election as Speaker, but must become a

memberof the house within six months of the Ans: A
date of hiselection
Ans: B 254. Which one of the following is the correct
definition of the term 'whip'?
249. Who among the following enjoys the A. A situation in which all the members of a
distinction of being the first woman Dalit Chief politicalparty attend the session of Parliament
Minister of a state? but need notparticipate in the voting
A. Padmaja Naidu B. a document published by the government,
B. Sarojani Naidu containingfull information on an issue of national
C. Mayawati importance,presented to the Parliament
D. Nandani Satpati C. state in which all the members of the political
Ans: C partyare required to be present in the
Parliament and voteaccording to the instructions
250. The procedure for the election of the of the party
President of India can be modified through an D. none of the above
amendment in the Constitution which must be Ans: C
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passed by
A. two-thirds majority by the Lok Sabha 255. What is the maximum strength of the Lok
Sabha at present?
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B. two-thirds majority by both Lok Sabha and
RajyaSabha and be ratified by legislatures of at A. 500
least onehalf of the states B. 550
C. two-thirds majority by the Rajya Sabha
D. two-thirds majority by the Lok Sabha as well
as theRajya Sabha
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C. 525
D. 545
Ans: B
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Ans: B
256. To be eligible for election as President, a
251. The President can nominate two members candidate must be
of the Lok Sabha to give representation to A. there is no age limit prescribed by the
A. Parsis Constitution
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B. Indian Christians B. over 35 years of age

C. Buddhists C. over 55 years of age
D. the Anglo-Indians D. over 60 years of age
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Ans: D Ans: B
252. The Parliament of India cannot be 257. Which among the following states have
considered a sovereign body because been excluded from Bariki and Kummari
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A. its authority is confined to jurisdiction communities in the list under (Scheduled Castes)
earmarked bythe Constitution Order (Amendment) Bill, 2016?
B. laws passed by the Parliament can be A. Uttaranchal
declaredunconstitutional by the Supreme Court B. Chhattisgarh
C. of the presence of certain Fundamental C. West Bengal
Rights ofcitizens in the Constitution D. Odisha
D. of all the above factors Ans: D
Ans: D
258. A Money Bill can originate
253. The Constitution of India has created A. only in the Lok Sabha
A. a very strong centre B. only in a joint sitting of the two houses
B. none of the above C. only in the Rajya Sabha
C. a very weak centre D. in either house of Parliament
D. a Centre which is weak during normal times Ans: A
but verystrong during emergencies

259. In which year was the Keshavananda 265. The Prime Minister is
Bharati Case implemented in the basic structure A. appointed by the President in consultation
of the Constitution? with theSpeaker
A. 1976 B. elected by the Lok Sabha
B. 1980 C. appointed by the President
C. 1978 D. elected by the two houses of Parliament at a
D. 1973 jointsitting
Ans: D Ans: C
260. A member of a state Public Service 266. Who is authorised to decide a dispute
Commission can be removed on the ground of regarding the disqualification of members of
misbehaviour only after an enquiry has been Parliament?
conducted by A. Supreme Court
A. the Supreme Court of India B. Election Commission
B. the High Court of the state C. The President
C. a committee appointed by the governor of the D. President in consultation with Election
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state Commission
D. a committee appointed by the President Ans: D
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Ans: B
267. In December 2005, the Parliament passed
261. The Supreme Court of India is a court of a bill which seeks to revive the Legislative
record, which implies that
A. all the decisions have evidentiary value and
cannotbe questioned in any court
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Council in
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Andhra Pradesh
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B. it has the power to punish for its contempt C. Bihar
C. it has to keep a record of all its decisions D. All the above states
D. both ( b) and ( c) Ans: B
Ans: D
268. What is the minimum duration of stay
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262. The Directive Principles of State Policy are essential before a person can apply for Indian
contained in citizenship?
A. Part III of the Constitution A. 10 years
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B. Part IV of the Constitution B. 3 years

C. Schedule VII of the Constitution C. 7 years
D. in all the above parts D. 5 years
Ans: B Ans: D
G
263. The High Court of a State is directly under 269. The Fundamental Duties of citizens
A. the Chief Justice of India A. are contained in Schedule IX of the
B. the President Constitution
C. the Supreme Court of India B. are contained in Part IV-A of the Constitution
D. the Governor of the state C. lie scattered throughout the Constitution
Ans: C D. are contained in the Presidential Order issued
in1979
264. The judges of the Supreme Court hold Ans: B
office till they attain the age of
A. 62 years 270. The members of the Council of Ministers
B. 70 years A. receive the same salaries and allowances
C. 65 years whichare paid to the members of Parliament
D. there is no age limit plus certainsumptuary allowances
Ans: C B. receive such salaries as are fixed by the

President inconsultation with the Speaker of Lok 275. Who among the following enjoys the
Sabha and thePrime Minister distinction of serving as the Chief Minister of a
C. receive a monthly salary of Rs 15,000 and state in India for the longest period?
freeaccommodations. A. Bhajan Lal
D. receive a fixed salary as stipulated in the B. Jyoti Basu
SecondSchedule of the Constitution C. Sharad Pawar
Ans: A D. BD Jatti
Ans: B
271. In which case did the Supreme Court take
the view that the Fundamental Rights and 276. Which of the following judicial powers of
Directive Principles are complementary to each the Governor has been wrongly listed?
other and there was no need to sacrifice one for A. he is consulted by the President while
the other? appointingjudges of the High Court of the State
A. Keshavananda Bharati case B. none of the above
B. Minerva Mills case C. he can grant pardon in case of court martial
C. all the above cases D. he can remit, or suspend a sentence
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D. Golak Nath case Ans: C
Ans: B
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277. That India is a union of states means
272. When a bill is considered by the two A. It is more centralised
houses of Parliament at a joint sitting, the B. It is more decentralised
decision is taken by
A. two-thirds majority
B. absolute majority of total membership
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C. None of the above
D. It is a confederation
Ans: A
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C. majority of each house separately
D. simple majority 278. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed
Ans: D A. to resolve dispute over sharing of Cauveri
waters
273. How many seats are reserved for the B. to examine Centre-State relations
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members of the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok C. to find a solution to the Punjab crisis
Sabha? D. to examine the working of the public
A. 57 sectorundertakings
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B. 47 Ans: B
C. 37
D. 27 279. Which of the following states are first to
Ans: B get Plastic Photo Identity Card?
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A. Mizoram and Sikkim

274. Which among the following are correct B. Assam and Nagaland
about the provisions of the Government of India C. Nagaland and Mizoram
Act, 1858? D. Assam and Tripura
A. It reconstituted the Council of the Governor- Ans: B
General
B. It also provided for the establishment of new 280. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
legislative councils for Bengal A. is nominated by the President
C. The number of additional member in the B. is elected by the members of Lok Sabha and
Provincial Legislative Councils was also RajyaSabha
increased C. is elected by the Lok Sabha
D. It ended the system of double government by D. is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha
abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Ans: B
Directors
Ans: D 281. A law passed by a state on a concurrent

subject gets precedence over the law of the D. the Cheif Justice of India
centre Ans: A
A. if the Supreme Court so decides
B. if it was passed by the state legislature and 287. The tenure of the Vice-President is
approvedby the President before enactment of A. six years
the central law B. dependent on the will of the President
C. if it was passed earlier than the central law C. five years
D. if the majority of state legislatures so decide D. co-terminus with that of the President
Ans: B Ans: C
282. Which of the following is a feature common 288. Which of the following amendments
to both the Indian Federation and the American imposed restrictions on the Fundamental Rights
Federation? of the citizens to protect the sovereignty and
A. Dual judiciary integrity of the country?
B. three lists of powers in the Constitution A. the 14th Amendment
C. a Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution B. the 24th Amendment
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D. a single citizenship C. the 16th Amendment
Ans: C D. the 39th Amendment
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Ans: C
283. If the Vice-President wishes to resign from
his office, he has to address his resignation to 289. The Standing Committee, apart from
A. the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
B. none of the above
C. the President
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examining the grants of all ministries and
departments, are able to examine
A. bills of technical nature
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D. the Speaker of Lok Sabha B. long-term policies
Ans: C C. all the above.
D. annual reports of ministries and departments
284. Right to freedom can be restricted Ans: C
A. on all the above grounds
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B. in the interest of security of the state 290. The Constitution of India vests the
C. in the interest of friendly relations with residuary powers in
foreignstates A. None of the above
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D. in the interest of public order B. the Union and State governments jointly
Ans: A C. the states
D. the Union Government
285. The following is the pardoning power of Ans: D
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the President
A. in matters where there is death sentence 291. The Canadian Federal model provides
B. in matters relating to court martial A. two lists of Legislative powers, one for the
C. in matters relating to rejection of mercy Centreand the other for the Provinces and the
appeal residuarypowers are vested in the Centre.
D. in matters relating to President's executive B. two lists of legislative powers, one for the
power Centre,the other for the Provinces and the
Ans: C residuary powersare vested in the Provinces.
C. one list of Legislative powers for the
286. The judges of the Supreme Court have to provinces andthe residuary powers vested in the
take an oath or affirmation before entering upon Centre.
their office, which is conducted to them by D. two lists equal number of Legislative powers,
A. the President onefor Centre and the other for Provinces.
B. the Attorney General of India Ans: A
C. the Vice-President

292. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is D. appointed by the Prime Minister
A. elected by members of the Lok Sabha Ans: C
B. appointed by the President
C. appointed by the President on the 298. Who administers the oath of office to the
recommendationsof the Prime Minister members of council of ministers in a state?
D. elected by the members of the two houses at A. the Attorney General of the state
a jointsitting B. the Governor
Ans: A C. the Chief Justice of the State High Court
D. none of the above
293. The University Grants Commission (UGC) Ans: B
of India is a
A. Constitutional Body 299. The President, who is the head of the state
B. Statutory body set up by the Union under the parliamentary system prevailing in
government in 1956 India,
C. Neither statutory nor Constitutional A. enjoys absolute powers
D. Quasi-Statutory Body B. enjoys limited but real powers
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Ans: B C. enjoys no powers
D. enjoys only nominal powers
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294. The salary and allowances of the Governor Ans: D
are charged to
A. none of the above 300. As per Article 124A, National Judicial
B. the Consolidated Fund of India
C. the Consolidated Fund of the State
D. the Contingency Fund of India
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Appointments Commission (NJAC) is a
A. 9 member constitutional body
B. 6 member constitutional body
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Ans: C C. 10 member constitutional body
D. 5 member constitutional body
295. In which case did the Supreme Court strike Ans: B
down the provisions of the Constitution that
accorded primacy to Directive Principles over 301. In case of conflict between the central and
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Fundamental Rights? state law on a subject in the concurrent list

A. Keshavananda Bharati case A. both laws stand nullified
B. Golak Nath case B. the law of the state prevails
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C. Minerva Mills case C. the law of the centre prevails

D. Sajjan Singh case D. the law which was passed first prevails
Ans: C Ans: C
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296. The scope of life and personal liberty 302. To which of the following bills must the
(Article 21) includes President accord his sanction without sending it
A. right to housing back for reconsideration?
B. right to bonus A. bills passed by both the houses of Parliament
C. right to work B. bills seeking amendment to the Constitution
D. right to good health C. Ordinary Bills
Ans: D D. Money Bills
Ans: D
297. The members of the Council of Ministers
are 303. In the event of the resignation or death of
A. appointed by the President at his discretion the Prime Minister
B. appointed by the President on the A. the senior most member of the Council of
recommendationof the Parliament Ministersautomatically becomes the Prime
C. appointed by the President on the advice of Minister
thePrime Minister B. the President can take any of the above

actions D. none of these
C. The Lok Sabha stands automatically dissolved Ans: C
andfresh elections must be held within six
months 309. Which one of the following distinctions
D. the Council of Ministers stands between Fundamental Rights and Directive
automaticallydissolved Principles of State Policy has been wrongly
Ans: D listed?
A. none of the above
304. Which of the following is not a statutory B. Both the Directive Principles and
function of the UPSC? FundamentalRights, are justiciable
A. to advise the government on the methods of C. Directive Principles are non-justiciable,
recruitment,promotion and control of public whileFundamental Rights are justiciable
services D. Directive Principles are positive instructions
B. to hear appeals from civil servants and togovernment, while Fundamental Rights are
redress theirgrievances negativeinjunctions to the governmentto refrain
C. to look after the interests and right of civil from doingcertain things
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servants Ans: A
D. to act as a watchdog on the functioning of the
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statePublic Service Commissions 310. Which one of the following statements is
Ans: D correct?
A. The Prime Minister has only limited power in
305. The election to the office of the President
is conducted by
A. the Speaker of Lok Sabha
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thechoice of the Cabinet colleagues because of
thediscretionary powers vested with the
President
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B. the Election Commission of India B. The Prime Minister chooses his Cabinet
C. the Prime Minister's Office colleaguesafter due consultation with the
D. the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs President of India
Ans: B C. The Prime Minister has full discretion in the
choiceof persons to be included in the Council of
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306. The maximum strength of the elected Ministers

members in a state legislative assembly can be D. The Prime Minister of India chooses his
A. 500 ministersonly from members of either house of
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B. 250 the Parliament

C. 450 Ans: C
D. 300
Ans: A 311. Though the Council of Ministers is
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collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the

307. Which of the following programme has individual ministers are constitutionally
been recently ranked as the world's largest responsible to
public works programme by the World Bank? A. the Prime Minister
A. MGNREGA B. None of the above
B. Antyodaya Yojana C. the President
C. NREGA D. the Speaker
D. Food for Work programme? Ans: C
Ans: A
312. How many Standing Committees were set
308. Which one of the following has been up by the Parliament in 1993 to scrutinise the
wrongly listed as a Union Territory? grants of various ministries?
A. Chandigarh A. 21
B. Pondicherry B. 13
C. Tripura C. 11

D. 17 C. 2
Ans: D D. 12
Ans: D
313. Assertion (A): If the Budget presented to
the Rajya Sabha is not passed within the 318. Read the following statements regarding
stipulated period, the Budget proposals are not Prime Minister's Jan Dhan Yojana and select
affected Reason (R): In financial maters the Lok which among the following is not True. 1. The
Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is the
A. A is false but R is true ambitious scheme for comprehensive financial
B. A is true but R is false inclusion by providing bank accounts to every
C. both A and R are true but R is not a households in India.
correctexplanation of A 2. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was
D. both A and R are true and R is the correct launched on 28 August 2014
explanationof A 3. People can open zero balance accounts only in
Ans: D public sector banks under PMJDY.
4. RuPay debit card will be available for those
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314. Which one of the following functions of the who open accounts under PMJDY.
Prime Minister has been wrongly listed? Select the correct code.
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A. he chairs the meetings of the various standing
andad hoc committees of Parliament A. 2 & 3
B. he coordinates the working of various B. 1 & 2
departments
C. he presides over the meeting of the Cabinet
D. he prepares the agenda for the meetings of
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C. Only 3
D. Only 4
Ans: C
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theCabinet
Ans: A 319. A member of a Parliament or a state
legislature can be elected as President but
315. The President can make laws through A. he has to relinquish his seat within six months
ordinances of hiselection
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A. during the recess of the Parliament B. a member of Parliament can contest but a
B. under no circumstances memberof state legislature cannot contest
C. only on subjects contained in the concurrent C. he has to resign his seat before contesting
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list theelection
D. on certain subjects even when Parliament is D. he has to relinquish his seat as soon as he is
insession elected
Ans: A Ans: D
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316. The Ministry of Personnel is under the 320. In which year the S.R. Bommai vs Union of
charge of the following India were news in the centre in determing
A. Prime Minister Centre-State relations?
B. Finance Minister A. 2000
C. Defence Minister B. 1995
D. Home Minister C. 2004
Ans: A D. 1994
Ans: D
317. How many members of the Rajya Sabha
can be nominated by the President from 321. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before the
amongst persons who have distinguished expiry of its term by
themselves in art, literature, social service, etc. A. the President on the advice of the Prime
A. none Minister
B. 10 B. the President at his discretion

C. none of the above hold office without being a member of the state
D. the Prime Minister in consultation with the legislature for a maximum period of
Speaker A. three months
Ans: A B. one year
C. six months
322. Match list I (Parties) with List II (Trade D. two years
Unions) and the select correct answer: List - I Ans: C
List - II (A) Indian National (1) C.I.T.U. Congress
(B) Bharatiya Janata (2) A.I.T.U.C. Party (C) 327. The Chief Justice of a High Court receives
Communist Party (3) B.M.S. (D) Communist a monthly salary of
Party (4) INTUC of India Marxist (5) B.K.S. A. 1,00,000
Code: A B C D B. 85,000
A. 4 3 1 5 C. 75,000
B. 3 4 1 5 D. 80,000
C. 4 3 2 1 Ans: A
D. 3 4 2 1
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Ans: C 328. Bibek Debroy committee report is related
to which of the following?
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323. Which one of the following statements A. Financial inclusion
regarding distribution of powers between the B. Restructuring the railways
Centre and the States is correct? C. Road safety issues
A. powers of the States have been specified in
theConstitution and the remaining powers
belong tothe Centre
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D. Coastal area management
Ans: B
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B. powers have been divided into two lists 329. National Institution for Transforming India
C. powers of the Centre have been specified and Aayog is a policy think-tank of Government of
theremaining powers have been allotted to the India that
States A. replaces Finance Commission
D. powers have been divided into three lists B. None of these
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Ans: D C. replaces Planning Commission

D. replaces University Grants Commission
324. The detailed provisions regarding Ans: C
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acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship

are contained in 330. The judges of the Supreme Court
A. the Indian Independence Act, 1947 A. can be removed by the President on
B. the orders issued by the Provisional therecommendation of the Parliament
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Government in1946 B. cannot be removed from office during their

C. an act passed by the Indian Parliament in tenure
1955 C. can be removed by the President on the
D. Part VII of the Constitution recommendationof the Council of Ministers
Ans: C D. can be removed from office by the President
at hisdiscretion
325. No taxes can be levied or expenditure Ans: A
incurred without the approval of
A. the Council of Ministers 331. The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued
B. the Parliament A. by a superior court to a subordinate court to
C. all the above dosomething in the nature of its allotted duty
D. the President B. in the form of an order to stop proceedings in
Ans: B acertain case
C. by a superior court to the lower court
326. A member of the council of ministers can directing it totransferthe record of proceedings

in a case for itsreview A. 73rd Amendment act
D. in the form of an order calling upon a person B. 86th Amendment Act
whohas detained another person to bring that C. 97th Amendment Act
personbefore court and show authority for such D. 94th Amendment act
detention Ans: B
Ans: D
337. The Preamble of the Constitution of India
332. In case of disagreement on a bill, other was first amended by
than money bill, the only means of resolving the A. Forty Second Amendment Act
deadlock is B. Forty Fourth Amendment Act
A. President's discretionary power used C. Eleventh Amendment Act
B. Pass it by a joint session of the two Houses D. Seventh Amendment Act
C. Put off the bill indefinitely Ans: A
D. Pass it arbitrarily
Ans: B 338. In which part of the Constitution does the
concept of welfare state find elaboration?
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333. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved before A. Directive Principles of State Policy
the expiry of its term by B. all the above
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A. the President on the recommendations of the C. Fundamental Rights
UnionCouncil of Ministers D. Preamble
B. It cannot be dissolved Ans: A
C. the President
D. the Vice-President, who is the ex-officio
Chairmanof Rajya Sabha
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339. Which one of the following writs literally
means 'what is your authority'?
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Ans: B A. Certiorari
B. Prohibition
334. Which one of the following pairs is NOT C. Quo Warranto
correctly matched? D. Habeas Corpus
A. Article 20(2): Immunity from double Ans: C
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punishment
B. Article 22(4): Safeguards under Preventive 340. Which of the following Articles empowers
Detention the President of India to call for joint sitting of
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C. Article 15(4): Special provisions for socially both Houses of Parliament?

andeducationally backward classes of SC and A. Art 108
ST. B. Art 102
D. Article 16(4): Discrimination in favour of C. Art 110
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women inService under the State. D. Art 101

Ans: D Ans: A
335. In the appointment of which official the 341. Generally, the Governor belongs to
President has no say? A. none of the above
A. Attorney General of India B. the Indian Administrative Service
B. judges of High Courts C. some other state
C. judges of the Supreme Court D. the state where he is posted
D. judges of District and Session Courts Ans: C
Ans: D
342. The amendment procedure of the Indian
336. Which among the following amendment constitution has been modelled on the
has added Right to Education as a fundamental constitutional pattern of
duty of every parent to send their children to A. Switzerland
School 0-6 years of age? B. Canada

C. USA 348. The salaries and allowances of the
D. South Africa members of the council of ministers in a state
Ans: D are determined by
A. the Parliament
343. Which one of the following immunities of B. the Governor in consultation with President
the Governor of the state has been wrongly C. the state legislature
listed? D. the Governor in consultation with the state
A. The Governor is entitled to rent-free legislature.
officialresidence. Ans: C
B. No legal proceeding can be instituted against
theGovernor during the last year of his term 349. Which of the following bills can be
C. He is not answerable before any court for introduced in the Parliament only with the prior
anythingdone in the exercise of his official duties approval of the President?
D. No criminal proceedings can be launched A. bill pertaining to impeachment of President
againstGovernor during his term of office B. bill pertaining to powers of the Supreme
Ans: B Court
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C. Money Bills
344. The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens D. all the above
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have been criticised on the ground that Ans: C
A. they are couched in language beyond
thecomprehension of ordinary citizens 350. The members of the Council of Ministers
B. they are absolute
C. they are hemmed in by too many restrictions
D. both (a ) and (b )
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can be dismissed by the President
A. on the recommendation of the Lok Sabha
B. on the recommendation of the Speaker of the
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Ans: D LokSabha
C. on his own
345. The Presidential address is prepared by D. on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
A. the Special Secretary of the President Ans: D
B. the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
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C. the Prime Minister and his Cabinet 351. Who presides over the joint sessions of
D. a Cabinet Minister of the President's choice Parliament?
Ans: C A. the Speaker
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B. the President
346. Which of the following states sends the C. the Speaker and Vice-President by rotation
largest number of members to Lok Sabha after D. the Vice-President
Uttar Pradesh? Ans: A
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A. Bihar
B. None of the above 352. The name of the candidate for the office of
C. Maharashtra the President of India has to be proposed by
D. Madhya Pradesh A. any five members of Parliament
Ans: C B. any five members of the Electoral College
C. any 50 citizens
347. Under the Indian Constitution, the D. any 50 members of the Electoral College
responsibility for the enforcement of Ans: D
Fundamental Rights rests with
A. all the courts 353. The President can declare financial
B. the High Courts emergency
C. both (a ) and (c ) A. if the majority of the state legislatures so
D. the Supreme Court recommend
Ans: C B. if there is a threat to the financial stability or
creditof India

C. to meet the extraordinary expenses of A. its dismissal by the President
conducting awar B. resignation of the Prime Minister
D. on the recommendation of the Comptroller C. advice by the President to the Prime Minister
andAuditor General torelinquish office
Ans: B D. None of the above
Ans: D
354. Which of the following statements is not
correct? 359. Which one of the following statements
A. In the event of the dissolution of the Lok about the Union Council of Ministers is not
Sabha anybill pending in the Rajya Sabha, but correct?
passed by theLok Sabha, does not lapse A. it acts as chief advisor to the President
B. In the event of dissolution of the Lok Sabha, B. it is responsible for the administration of
any billpending in the Lok Sabha lapses. foreignrelations
C. In the event of dissolution of the Lok Sabha, C. it is responsible for the implementation of the
any billpassed by the Lok Sabha and pending in centrallaws
the RajyaSabha lapses. D. it plays a key role in the impeachment of
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D. In the event of the dissolution of the Lok thePresident
Sabha, anybill pending in the Rajya Sabha, but Ans: D
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not passed by theLok Sabha, lapses
Ans: D 360. Money bills can be introduced in the state
legislature with the prior consent of
355. The portfolios among the members of the
Council of Ministers are allocated by
A. the President on the recommendations of the
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A. the Chief Minister
B. the Governor
C. the President
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PrimeMinister D. the Speaker
B. the Speaker in consultation with the Prime Ans: B
Minister
C. the Prime Minister 361. The Supreme Court of India enjoys the
D. the President in his discretion power of judicial review which implies that it can
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Ans: A A. review its own judgements

B. declare the laws passed by the legislature
356. A national emergency remains in and ordersissued by the executive as
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operation, with the approval of the Parliament, unconstitutional if theycontravene any provision
for of the Constitution
A. a maximum period of three years C. review the working of the subordinate courts
B. a maximum period of six months D. initiate cases at its own discretion
G
C. a maximum period of one year Ans: B

D. an indefinite period
Ans: D 362. The 42nd Amendment increased the term
of the Lok Sabha from five years to
357. In which case the Supreme Court gave a A. None of the above
ruling that the Preamble was a part of the B. seven years
Constitution? C. six years
A. All the above cases D. nine years
B. Berubari case Ans: C
C. Golak Nath case
D. Keshavananda Bharati case 363. The Contingency Fund of the state is
Ans: D operated by
A. all the above jointly
358. The defeat of government in Rajya Sabha B. the Governor
leads to C. the Chief Minister

D. the State Finance Minister C. six months
Ans: B D. one month
Ans: A
364. Narendra Modi mentioned to replace
Planning Commission by National Development 370. The writ of Quo Warranto is an order from
and Reform Commission (NDRC) on the line of a superior court
A. China A. directing to produce a person detained by an
B. Look east policy officialbefore the nearest court within 24 hours
C. Brazil B. to the lower court to transfer a case pending
D. Japan beforeit to the superior court for trial.
Ans: A C. to an inferior court to stop proceedings in a
particularcase
365. The President made a Proclamation of D. whereby it can call upon a person to show
Emergency on grounds of internal disturbances underwhat authorityhe is holding the office
for the first time in Ans: D
A. 1962
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B. 1965 371. The President of India is elected on the
C. none of the above basis of
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D. 1975 A. single member territorial representation
Ans: D B. proportional representation
C. none of the above methods
366. The members of the legislative assembly
are
A. elected by the local bodies
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D. proportional representation by a single-
transferablevote
Ans: D
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B. elected by the people
C. returned through all three methods 372. Before entering upon his office, the
D. nominated by the Governor President has to take an oath or an affirmation,
Ans: B which is administered by
A. the Chief Election Commissioner
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367. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can B. the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
be delayed by the Rajya Sabha for a maximum C. the Chief Justice of India
period of D. the Vice-President
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A. two months Ans: C

B. 14 days
C. three months 373. The Governor of the state can remove
D. one month which of the following?
G
Ans: B A. The Chairperson of the State Finance

Commission
368. The Governor of a state is B. None of the Above
A. appointed by a Special Committee constituted C. The Chairperson of the State Public
forthis purpose ServiceCommission
B. appointed by the President D. Chief Justice of the High Court
C. elected by the state legislature Ans: A
D. nominated by the Prime Minister
Ans: B 374. The minimum age at which a person can be
appointed Prime Minister of India is
369. The Parliament can extend the life of the A. 30 years
Lok Sabha during the National Emergency in the B. 35 years
first instance for a period of C. 21 years
A. one year D. 25 years
B. three months Ans: D

375. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is provided that no law passed to give effect to
A. 552 Directive Principles of State Policy contained in
B. 470 Articles 39 (b ) and ( c) shall be deemed to be
C. 475 void on the ground that it abridges the rights
D. 550 conferred by Articles 14 and 19?
Ans: A A. 25th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
376. The theory of 'basic structure of the C. 44th Amendment
Constitution' implies D. 24th Amendment
A. those features of the Constitution which can Ans: A
bechanged only after seeking prior approval of
themajority of the judges of the Supreme Court 381. Generally, the High Court of a state
B. those features of the Constitution which can consists of a Chief Justice and
bechanged by the Parliament with the prior A. nine other judges
approvalof the majority of the state legislatures B. such other judges as may be determined by
C. that certain features of the Constitution are theParliament
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so basicto the Constitution that they cannot be C. such other judges as may be determined by
abrogated. thePresident
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D. none of the above D. 11 other judges
Ans: C Ans: C
377. The Government of India instituted Bharat

Ratna and Padma Shri awards under
A. Article 18 of the Constitution
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382. Who decides disputes regarding
disqualification of members of Parliament?
A. the President in Consultation with the
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B. none of the above Articles ElectionCommission
C. Article 25 of the Constitution B. the concerned house
D. Article 14 of the Constitution C. the President
Ans: A D. the Election Commission
Ans: A
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378. If the office of the President falls vacant,

the same must be filled within 383. The Governor of a state holds office
A. three months A. as long as he enjoys the confidence of the
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B. 18 months statecouncil of ministers

C. one year B. as long as he enjoys the confidence of the
D. six months statelegislature.
Ans: D C. as long as he enjoys the confidence of the
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ChiefMinister
379. Each Standing Committee of Parliament D. during the pleasure of the President
for scrutiny of grants of various ministries Ans: D
comprises of
A. 10 members of Lok Sabha and 5 members of 384. The power to control the expenditure of
RajyaSabha the Government of India rests exclusively with
B. 25 members of Lok Sabha and 10 members of A. the Parliament
RajyaSabha B. the Union Finance Minister
C. 20 members of Lok Sabha and 10 members of C. the Comptroller and Auditor General
RajyaSabha D. the President
D. 30 members of Lok Sabha and 15 members of Ans: A
RajyaSabha
Ans: D 385. The government resigns if a no-confidence
motion is passed in
380. Which amendment of the Constitution A. Rajya Sabha

B. Joint session of Parliament B. all the above
C. Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha C. state legislative assembly
D. Lok Sabha D. Rajya Sabha
Ans: D Ans: D
386. Which of the following Ministries deals 392. The day-to-day administration of a union
with the Table of Precedence? territory is looked after by
A. Ministry of Personnel A. the President
B. Ministry of Home B. the Union Home Minister
C. Prime Minister's Office C. the Lt. Governor
D. None of the Above D. a state minister of home affairs
Ans: B Ans: A
387. The Preamble was for the first time 393. Which one of the following has been
amended by the described as the soul of the Indian Constitution?
A. 42nd Amendment A. the chapter on Fundamental Rights
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B. 24th Amendment B. the chapter on Directive Principles of State
C. none of the above Policy
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D. 44th Amendment C. the provisions regarding Judicial Review
Ans: A D. the Preamble
Ans: D
388. Which of the following has been wrongly
listed as a condition for becoming a citizen of
India?
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394. The famous JVP Committee consisting of
Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel and
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A. citizenship by descent Pattabhi Sitaramayya, was appointed in
B. citizenship by naturalisation December 1948 to
C. citizenship by birth A. determine the compensation to be paid to the
D. citizenship through acquisition of property rulersof Indian states consequent to the merger
Ans: D of theirstates with India
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B. examine the issue of reorganisation of states

389. The Supreme Court holds its meetings at on linguisticbasis
New Delhi, but it can meet elsewhere C. None of the above
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A. with the approval of the President D. examine the case of establishment of secular
B. if a majority of judges of Supreme Court so polityin the country
decide Ans: B
C. with the approval of the Parliament
G
D. on the request of the state legislature 395. The Constitution has tried to ensure the
Ans: A independence of judges of the Supreme Court by
A. all these provisions
390. With regard to the re-election of the Vice- B. making removal of judges quite difficult
President C. charging their salaries and allowances on
A. the Constitution permits re-election for a theConsolidated Fund of India
maximumof two terms D. debarring judges from carrying on practice
B. the Constitution permits re-election only once beforeany court in India after retirement
C. the Constitution places a clear ban Ans: A
D. the Constitution is absolutely silent
Ans: D 396. Under which article of the Indian
Constitution can the President be impeached?
391. Which of the following bodies is presided A. Article 75
over by a non-member? B. Article 76
A. Lok Sabha C. Article 356

D. Article 61 D. all the above
Ans: D Ans: B
397. The judges of the Supreme Court, after 403. Who among the following stood for total
retirement, are not permitted to carry on revolution in the country?
practice before A. Anne Besant
A. any of the above B. Jyotiva Phule
B. the Supreme Court C. Mahatma Gandhi
C. the district and session courts D. Jai Prakash Narayan
D. the High Courts Ans: D
Ans: A
404. If the Governor of a state wishes to
398. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha makes use relinquish his office before the expiry of his
of his casting vote only term, he has to address his resignation to
A. in case of emergency A. the Union Home Minister
B. in case of a tie, viz., when the votes are B. the Prime Minister
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equallydivided C. the President
C. to save the existing government D. Chief Justice of India
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D. in case of constitutional amendments, Ans: C
Ans: B
405. The objective of this Amendment is to
399. The Election Commission of India has a
A. Constitutional power
B. Advisory power
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encourage economic activities of cooperatives
which in turn help progress of rural India. The
amendment referred to is
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C. Quasi Judicial Power A. 94th Amendment Act
D. Regulatory power B. 73rd Amendment Act
Ans: C C. 97th Amendment Act
D. 86th Amendment Act
400. Judicial activism has enhanced the powers Ans: C
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and prestige of
A. the political parties 406. Securities and Exchange Board of India is
B. the President a
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C. the Parliament A. Advisory body

D. the Supreme Court B. Constitutional body
Ans: D C. Regulatory body
D. Quasi Judicial body
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401. Members of the UPSC can be removed Ans: C

from office before the expiry of their term by
A. the President on the recommendation of 407. The Prime Minister of India occupies a
theParliament superior position than the British Prime Minister
B. the Prime Minister because
C. the Chairman of the UPSC A. he heads the largest democracy of the world
D. the President on the recommendation of the B. his office cannot be abolished
Supremecourt C. his office has been created by the
Ans: D Constitution
D. the procedure for his removal is much
402. On what ground can a judge of a High tougher thanthat of the British Prime Minister
Court be removed? Ans: C
A. insanity
B. proved misbehaviour or incapacity 408. Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens
C. insolvency were

A. added to the Constitution by the 44th 413. At present, India consists of
Amendment A. 28 states and 7 union territories
B. enshrined in the original Constitution B. 24 states and 7 union territories
C. added to the Constitution by the 42nd C. 21 states and 11 union territories
Amendment D. 25 states and 9 union territories
D. added to the Constitution in the wake of the Ans: A
SupremeCourt judgment in Keshavananda
Bharati case, withthe consent of all the political 414. The portfolios to the various members of
parties the council of ministers in a state are allocated
Ans: C by
A. the Speaker of legislative assembly
409. The Governor can recommend imposition B. the Chief Minister
of President's rule in the state C. The Governor on the advice of the Chief
A. at his discretion Minister.
B. on the recommendations of the state D. the Governor
legislature Ans: C
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C. only on demand from the President
D. on the recommendation of the state council 415. The judges of the Supreme Court are
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ofministers A. elected by the Parliament
Ans: A B. appointed by the President on the advice of
theParliament
410. Which of the following falls within the
discretionary powers of the Governor?
A. he can appoint any person as Chief Minister,
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C. appointed by the President on the advice of
thePrime Minister
D. appointed by the President on the advice of
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ifthe majority party in the state legislature has the ChiefJustice of India.
noacknowledged leader Ans: D
B. he can reserve a bill passed by the state
legislaturefor the assent of the President 416. The person who is appointed as Chief
C. all the above Minister
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D. he can dismiss the council of ministers if he A. must be a member of either house of state
isconvinced that it has lost majority support legisalature
Ans: C B. should be a member of the legislative council
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only
411. The final decision whether a member of the C. must possess the qualifications to be elected
Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification under asmember of state legislature but not be a
the Defection Law rests with member ofthe legislature
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A. the Election Commission D. should not be a member of either house of

B. the Supreme Court statelegislature
C. the Speaker Ans: A
D. the President
Ans: C 417. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India was created
412. Of the following, who ensures that no A. through a resolution of the Union Cabinet
money is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of B. none of the above.
India without the authority of the Parliament? C. under the Constitution
A. the Attorney General D. through an enactment of Parliament
B. the Comptroller and Auditor General Ans: C
C. none of the above
D. The Finance Commission 418. Which of the following constitutional
Ans: B amendments has been described as a 'mini
revision of the Constitution'?

A. the 44th Amendment for overa year
B. the 42nd Amendment C. the Parliament is not in session
C. the 39th Amendment D. the bill was sponsored by the President but
D. the 52nd Amendment theParliament refused to pass the same
Ans: B Ans: C
419. At present, right to property is a 425. Usually each state has a High Court, but a
A. Fundamental Right common High Court for two or more states or
B. Human Right for two or more states and union territories can
C. Legal Right be established by
D. Natural Right A. the President
Ans: C B. the Parliament
C. all the above jointly.
420. If the President wishes to tender his D. the Chief Justice of India
resignation before the expiry of his normal term, Ans: B
he has to address the same to
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A. the Election Commission 426. The Supreme Court propounded the theory
B. the Vice-President of India of 'basic structure of the Constitution' in
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C. the Speaker of Lok Sabha A. Minerva Mills case
D. the Chief Justice of India B. Gopalan v. State of Madras case
Ans: B C. Keshavananda Bharati case
421. How many types of political units existed in

India at the time of independence?
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D. Golak Nath case
Ans: C
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A. only one 427. The salary and allowances of the
B. two Comptroller and Auditor General
C. three A. are determined by the Parliament
D. four B. have been prescribed in the Constitution
Ans: B C. are determined by the President in
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consultation withthe Chief Justice of India

422. The Vice-President is the ex-officio D. are determined by the Union Council of
Chairman of Ministers
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A. the Planning Commission Ans: A

B. None of the above
C. the National Development Council 428. Which of the following states/union
D. the Rajya Sabha territories have a common High Court?
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Ans: D A. Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir,

B. Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
423. The composition of the Union Public C. Assam and Bengal
Service Commission has been D. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
A. laid down in the Constitution Ans: B
B. determined by the Parliament
C. determined by the President 429. A half-an-hour discussion can be raised in
D. determined by the Union Home Ministry the house after giving notice to
Ans: A A. the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
B. the concerned minister
424. The President can promulgate an C. the presiding officer
ordinance only when D. the Secretary General of the House
A. there is disagreement between the two Ans: D
houses of theParliament
B. the bill has been pending in the Parliament 430. Which of the following constitutes part of

the basic structure? D. legal right
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha Ans: D
B. Legislative procedure
C. Parliamentary democracy 436. The Chief Minister of a state can get rid of
D. None of the above any member of his council of ministers by
Ans: C A. all the above methods
B. dropping him from the council by reshuffling
431. Who is the Supreme Commander of the thesame
armed forces of India? C. asking him to tender his resignation
A. the President D. getting him dismissed through the Governor
B. the Union Defence Minister Ans: A
C. the Prime Minister
D. none of the above 437. MITRA app stands for
Ans: A A. Mobile Initiated Tracking and Rescue
application- developed by MP Police department
432. A person can be a member of the Council B. Mobile Initiated Tracking and Rescue
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of Ministers without being a member of the application- developed by Karnataka Police
Parliament for a maximum period of department
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A. three months C. Mobile Initiated Tracking and Rescue
B. one month application- developed by Puducherry Police
C. six months department
D. one year
Ans: C
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D. Mobile Initiated Tracking and Rescue
application- developed by ODISHA Police
department
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433. Consider the following statement Ans: C
regarding Armed Forces Special Powers
Act(AFPSA). 438. The Constitution describes the Indian
1. AFPSA was passed in Parliament in 1956. Union as
2. Recently AFPSA was revoked in Nagaland A. India, i.e., Bharat
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after 18 years. B. India, i.e., Hindustan

Which of the above is/are true? C. India, i.e., Bharatvarsha
A. only 2 D. None of the above.
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B. either 1 nor 2 Ans: A

C. either 1 or 2
D. only 1 439. For the enforcement of Fundamental
Ans: D Rights, the courts can issue
G
A. a notification
434. The 25th Amendment which affirmed the B. an ordinance
right of parliament to amend any part of the C. a writ
Constitution, was necessitated an account of the D. a decree
SC judgment in Ans: C
A. The Golak Nath Case
B. The Minerva Bills Case 440. The States Reorganisation Commission, set
C. None of the above. up in 1953 to consider the demand for linguistic
D. The Keshavanada Bharati Case states, was headed by
Ans: A A. H N Kunzru
B. Fazl Ali
435. Right to information is a C. K M Pannikkar
A. social right D. M C Mahajan
B. fundamental right Ans: B
C. cultural right

441. Which one of the following has been C. state list
wrongly listed as a duty of Indian citizens D. the union list
A. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity Ans: D
andintegrity of the country
B. to practice family planning and control 446. Which of the following committees of
population Parliament has the largest membership?
C. to promote harmony and the spirit of A. Business Advisory Committee
commonbrotherhood among the people of India B. Committee on Public Undertakings
D. to protect and preserve the natural C. Public Accounts Committee
environment D. Estimates Committee
Ans: B Ans: D
442. The Comptroller and Auditor General 447. The salaries and allowances of the High
submits his annual report regarding the Centre Court judges are charged to
to A. the Consolidated Fund of India
A. the Chief Justice of India B. the Consolidated Fund of the State
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B. the President C. the Consolidated Fund of India and the
C. the Parliament ConsolidatedFund of the State in equal
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D. the Chairman of the Planning commission proportion
Ans: B D. the Contingency Fund of India
Ans: B
443. Which of the following has not been
provided by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
relating to Panchayati Raj?
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448. A judge of the Supreme Court can
relinquish office before the completion of his
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A. The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries shall tenure by addressing his resignation to
bedisqualified to hold their offices if they have A. the Union Law Minister
morethan two children. B. none of the above
B. The states will constitute their finance C. the Chief Justice of India
commissionsto allocate resources to Panchayati D. the President
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Raj institutions. Ans: D

C. Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural local
bodiesshall be reserved for women at all levels. 449. In 1996, the Supreme Court upheld the
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D. If the Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded validity of civilian awards, but recommended
ordissolved by the state government, the that the total awards to be given each year in all
electionsshall be held within six months. categories should be restricted to
Ans: A A. 50
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B. 40
444. The term of Lok Sabha can be extended C. 75
beyond its normal term of five years D. 60
A. by the Parliament during national emergency Ans: A
B. by the President on the recommendations of
theElection Commission 450. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in
C. by the President at this discretion the Constitution to
D. by the President during all types of A. make the Fundamental Rights more
emergencies meaningful
Ans: A B. curb the growing power of the executive
C. curb subversive and unconstitutional
445. The Union Government has exclusive activities
powers on subjects in D. prevent misuse of Fundamental Rights
A. both (a ) and (b ) Ans: C
B. the concurrent list

451. Which one of the following sets of Bills is A. cannot be suspended under any condition
presented to the Parliament along with the B. can be suspended by the President with the
Budget? priorapproval of the Supreme Court at any time
A. Direct Taxes and Indirect Taxes Bill C. can be suspended by the President during all
B. Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill typesof emergencies
C. Finance Bill and Contingency Bill D. can be suspended by the President during
D. Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill nationalemergency
Ans: D Ans: D
452. What changes does the current 456. The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens
government want to make in its amendmentby- are contained in
ordinance to the Land Acquisition Act, 2013? A. Part III of the Constitution
A. it would not be returned to the person from B. Part IV of the Constitution
whom itwas acquired – it remained State C. the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
property. D. none of the above
B. All of the these Ans: A
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C. Under the previous Land Acquisition Act of
1894,once land was acquired by the State and 457. The entire country has been divided into
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compensationwas paid, the land belonged to the A. better utilisation of the limited resources of
State. the states
D. If the State did not go ahead with the project B. that the laws passed by various states do not
theywere meant to and the land lay fallow
Ans: B
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conflictwith each other
C. greater cooperation amongst states in the
field ofplanning and other matters of national
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453. The value of a vote of a member of importance
Parliament for election of the President of India D. all the above
is determined by dividing the Ans: A
A. total population of the country as per the
latestcensus by the number of Lok Sabha 458. Which kind of bills can be reserved by the
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members Governor for the assent of the President?

B. population of country as per the latest census A. none of the bills passed by the state
by thetotal strength of the two houses of legislature canbe reserved
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Parliament B. all bills passed by the state legislature

C. none of the above C. only certain types of bills passed by the
D. the total value of votes of members of all the statelegislature
statelegislative assemblies divided by the D. only financial bills
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elected membersof the two houses of Ans: C

Parliament,
Ans: D 459. If the Prime Minister is taken from the
Rajya Sabha
454. Under the Directive Principles of State A. he cannot take part in the voting when a vote
Policy, the state is expected to provide free and of noconfidenceis under consideration
compulsory education to all children up to the B. he cannot take part in the budget
age of deliberations inLok Sabha
A. 15 years C. he has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within
B. 16 years sixmonths
C. 14 years D. he can make policy statements only in the
D. 18 years RajyaSabha
Ans: C Ans: A
455. The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens 460. Which of the following is true about

statutory bodies? maximum number of representative to the Rajya
A. Statutory bodies must exist even if Parliament Sabha?
isunhappy with. A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Statutory bodies are set up by statutes B. Uttar Pradesh
whichParliament and State Legislatures cannot C. West Bengal
pass D. Andhra Pradesh
C. Statutory bodies are set up by statutes Ans: B
whichParliament and State Legislatures can
pass 466. Which one of the following has been
D. Statutory bodies are set up by statutes of wrongly listed as a Directive Principle based on
theconstitution 'liberal principles'?
Ans: C A. protection of monuments and places of
artistic orhistorical importance
461. Who among the following gave the idea of B. provision of a uniform civil code for the
a Constituent Assembly for India in the year country
1934? C. separation of judiciary and executive
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A. H.C. Mukherjee D. promotion of cottage/small industries
B. B.R.Ambedkar Ans: D
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C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. M.N.Roy 467. Which of the following comes under the
Ans: D jurisdiction of both the High Courts and the
462. The salary and allowances of the

Comptroller and Auditor General are paid out of
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Supreme Court?
A. disputes between the states inter se
B. disputes between the Centre and the States
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A. the Contingency Fund of the concerned state C. protection against violation of the
B. the Contingency Fund of India Constitution.
C. the General Budget D. protection of the Fundamental Rights
D. the Consolidated Fund of India Ans: D
Ans: D
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468. Which of the following articles deals with

463. The 86th Amendment deals with the amendment procedure of the constitution?
A. continuation of reservation for backward A. all the these
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classes ingovernmentemployment. B. Article 358

B. reservation of 30 percent posts for women C. Article 367
ingovernment recruitment D. Article 368
C. allocation of more Parliamentary seats to Ans: D
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recentlycreated states
D. free and compulsory education for all 469. The administrators of Union Territories are
childrenbetween the age of 6 and 14 years designated as
Ans: D A. Administrators
B. all these
464. Which of the following states/union C. Lieutenant Governor
territory has a legislative assembly consisting of D. Chief Commissioners
only 30 members? Ans: B
A. Goa
B. all the above 470. During financial emergency, the President
C. Pondicherry can
D. Mizoram A. do all these things
Ans: B B. ask states to reserve the money or financial
billspassed by the state legislature for his
465. Which one of the following states sends the consideration

C. order the reduction of salaries and C. the 1970s
allowances of allcentral and state civil servants D. the 1960s
D. order the reduction of salaries of Supreme Ans: A
Court andHigh Court Judges
Ans: A 474. The Parliament or a state legislature can
declare a seat vacant if a member absents
471. Which of the following fact about recently himself without permission from the sessions for
launched Jal Kranti Abhiyan is not correct? A. 60 days
1. Jal Kranti Abhiyan aims at turning one water B. 30 days
scared village in each district of the country into C. 90 days
water surplus village through water D. 120 days
conservation techniques. Ans: A
2. Under the nationwide campaign, a village with
acute water scarcity on a pilot project will be 475. Who among the following advocated
selected as Jal Gram where a comprehensive partyless democracy in India?
integrated development plan will be framed and A. Acharya Vinobha Bhave
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several water conservation activities will be B. M. N. Roy.
launched. C. Mahatma Gandhi
3. Activities proposed under the campaign
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D. Jayaprakash Narayan
include rain water harvesting, recycling of waste Ans: D
water, micro irrigation for using water efficiently
and mass awareness program.
4. A cadre of local water professional Jal Mitra
will be created and they will be given training to
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476. Which of the following committees of
Parliament is concerned with the regularity and
economy of expenditure?
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create mass awareness. A. Public Accounts Committee
5. It will also include cleaning of the rivers and B. Estimates Committee
water reservoirs surrounding that village. C. Committee on Public Undertakings
Codes D. all the above
A. All of the above Ans: A
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B. Only 5
C. Only 4 477. Which of the following formed the State
D. Only 2 Reorga-nisation Commission group (1953)?
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Ans: D A. Fazl Ali and Kanzru

B. Katju and Fazl Ali
472. Which of the following statements is C. Kanzru and Katju
correct? D. Pannikar and Katju
G
A. the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by Ans: A

oneyear at a time
B. the term of the Lok Sabha cannot be 478. Two statements, one labelled the Assertion
extendedbeyond five years 'A' and the other labelled the Reason 'R', are
C. the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by given below. Examine these statements carefully
thePresident for a full term of five years and decide if the Assertion 'A' and the Reason 'R'
D. the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by are individually true and if so, whether the
thePresident with the consent of the Speaker for Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
anunlimited period Assertion (A) : Equality before law is not
Ans: A applicable to the President of India. Reason (R) :
The President of India enjoys special privileges
473. The concept of 'judicial activism' gained under the Constitution of India. Select the
currency in India during answer from the codes given below:
A. the 1990s A. A is false but R is true
B. the 1980s B. A is true but R is false

C. both A and R are true but R is not the 484. Which of the following provisions of the
correctexplanation of A Constitution can be amended by Parliament by a
D. both A and R are true and R is the correct simple majority?
explanationof A A. provisions concerning federal judiciary
Ans: A B. Articles relating to citizenship
C. provisions concerning representation of
479. Seats are allotted to various states in the states inParliament
Lok Sabha on the basis of D. provisions concerning establishment of High
A. their size and resources Court
B. their population Ans: B
C. their size, resources and population
D. None of the above 485. The Prime Minister holds office
Ans: B A. for a fixed term of five years
B. as long as he enjoys the confidence of
480. The Attorney General of India is Parliamentespecially the Lok Sabha
A. None of the above C. as long as he enjoys the confidence of the
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B. the highest financial as well as legal officer of Councilof Ministers
theUnion Government D. during the pleasure of the President
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C. the highest legal officer of the Union Ans: B
Government
D. the highest financial officer of the Union 486. A government is classified as federal or
Government
Ans: C
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unitary on the basis of
A. relations between three organs of
government
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481. When the Vice-President discharges the B. none of the above
duties of the office of the President, he is C. relations between the executive and the
entitled to legislature
A. an officiating allowance of Rs 5000 in D. relations between Centre and States
addition tohis own salary as Vice-President Ans: D
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B. the salary and allowances attached to the

office ofthe President 487. The legislative council in a state can be
C. None of the above abolished by the Parliament on the
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D. the salary of Vice-President as well as recommendation of

President A. the President
Ans: B B. the state legislative assemby
C. the Governor
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482. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha addresses D. none for the above
his letter of resignation to Ans: B
A. the Vice-President
B. the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha 488. A new state can be created in India
C. the President A. by a simple majority of Parliament
D. the Prime Minister B. by a two-thirds majority in Parliament
Ans: B C. by a simple majority of Parliament and
approval ofmajority of the states
483. The UPSC can be assigned additional D. by two-thirds majority in each house of
duties on the recommendation of Parliamentand approvalby a majority of states
A. the Parliament Ans: A
B. the President
C. the Council of Ministers 489. A Select or Joint Committee of the two
D. the Union Home Minister houses of Parliament is formed by
Ans: A A. the Speaker in consultation with the

President business
B. the Speaker in consultation with the Prime D. freedom of speech, assembly and association
Minister Ans: A
C. the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Chairman 495. The number of judges of High Court is
of theRajya Sabha jointly determined by
Ans: C A. the President of India
B. the Parliament
490. The Punjab Reorganisation Act, which C. the Chief Justice of India
created the states of Punjab and Haryana in D. the Governor of the state
1966, was enacted on the basis of the Ans: A
recommendations of the
A. Dhar Commission 496. Members of the UPSC are appointed by
B. Mahajan Commission A. the President
C. Shah Commission B. the Union Home Minister
D. Dass Commission C. None of the above
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Ans: C D. The Chairman of the UPSC
Ans: A
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491. Which one of the following Fundamental
Rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as 497. The reference to the National Capital
'the heart and soul of the Constitution.' Territory of Delhi is found in
A. right to religion
B. right to constitutional remedies
C. right to equality
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A. Article 239BB
B. Article 239AA
C. Article 239A
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D. all the above D. Article 239B
Ans: B Ans: B
492. The strength of the legislative council of a 498. The power of judicial review in India is
state cannot exceed _____ of the membership of A. implicit
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the legislative assembly. B. given by the Parliament

A. one-fourth C. explicit
B. one-third D. given by the President
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C. one-half Ans: A
D. one-fifth
Ans: B 499. Which amendment of the Constitution
provided constitutional status to the
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493. The President can dismiss a member of the municipalities?

Council of Ministers A. 70th
A. at his discretion B. 73rd
B. none of the above C. 74th
C. with the consent of the Speaker D. 72nd
D. on the recommendation of the Prime Minister Ans: C
Ans: D
500. The members of the state legislative
494. Which one of the following rights conferred assembly participate in the election of
by the Constitution is also available to non- A. the Vice-President
citizens? B. the President
A. right to freedom of religion C. Members of the legislative council
B. freedom to move, reside and settle in any part D. both (a ) and (c )
of theterritoryof India Ans: D
C. freedom to practise any occupation, trade or

501. The 24th Amendment which affirmed the provision forwomen, children and backward
right of the Parliament to amend any part of the classes
Constitution, was necessitated on account of the C. permits the state to nationalise all means of
Supreme Court judgment in productionand distribution
A. the Golak Nath case D. permits the state to make special provisions
B. the Keshavananda Bharati case forwomen, children and backward classes
C. none of the above cases Ans: D
D. the Minerva Mills case
Ans: A 506. The salaries and allowances of the
members of the Council of Ministers
502. Which of the following policy initiatives to A. are determined by the President in
ensure security of women in the country under consultation withthe Prime Minister
the Nirbhaya funds was proposed by the union B. are determined by the Parliament from time
ministry of Home Affairs in March 2015? to time
A. Initiative to prevent and monitor obscene C. have been stipulated in the Constitution
onlinecontent. D. are fixed by the President in consultation
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B. Investigative units on crime against with theSpeaker
women(IUCAW) Ans: B
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C. All of the above
D. Central victim compensation fund (CVCF) 507. The Constitution of India
Ans: C A. provides single citizenship
503. Under the new Committee system

launched in April 1993, out of the 17 standing
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B. provides multiple citizenship
C. contains no provision regarding citizenship
D. provides double citizenship
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committees Ans: A
A. all the committees are constituted jointly by
theChairman of the Rajya Sabha and Speaker of 508. Match list I (Events) with List II (Years)
theLok Sabha and select correct answer: List I List II (A)
B. eight are constituted by the Chairman of the Formation of the Bhartiya (1) 1990 Janta Party
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RajyaSabha and nine by the Speaker of the Lok (B) Acceptance of the Mandal (2) 1980
Sabha Commission Report (C) Formation of the First
C. six are constituted by the Chairman of the (3) 1957 Communist Government in an Indian
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RajyaSabha and 11 by the Speaker of the Lok State (D) Passing of the 42nd (4) 1976
Sabha Amendment Act Code: A B C D
D. five are constituted by the Chairman of the A. 3 4 2 1
RajyaSabha and 12 by the Speaker of the Lok B. 1 2 3 4
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Sabha C. 1 2 4 3
Ans: C D. 2 1 3 4
Ans: B
504. How many times has the President of India
declared financial emergency so far? 509. A person can move the Supreme Court
A. only thrice directly in the event of violation of Fundamental
B. only twice Rights under
C. never A. none of the above
D. only once B. Article 19
Ans: C C. Article 34
D. Article 32
505. The right to equality Ans: D
A. permits the state to make discrimination on
groundof residence 510. A motion of no-confidence against the
B. prevents the state from making special Council of Ministers can be moved in the Lok

Sabha if it is supported by at least D. for the rest of the term
A. 50 members Ans: B
B. 100 members
C. 55 members 516. Who of the following was a member of
D. one-third of the total members of Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha at the time of appointment as Prime
Ans: A Minister?
A. Narasimha Rao
511. For the first time, the President made a B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 in C. Charan Singh
A. 1962 D. Indira Gandhi
B. 1971 Ans: D
C. 1965
D. 1952 517. Generally, the Prime Minister is
Ans: A A. a close friend of the President
B. the leader of the majority party in the
512. The titles and special privileges of the Parliament
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former rulers of the princely states were C. the senior most member of the Parliament
abolished by D. not a member of Parliament
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A. the 42nd Amendment Ans: B
B. None of the these
C. the 24th Amendment 518. One of the main advantage of the Standing
D. the 26th Amendment
Ans: D
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Committee is
A. discussion on the Budget is held
simultaneously inthe Parliament and the
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513. Which of the following legislative powers is standing committees
enjoyed by the Governor of a state? B. members of Council of Ministers are able to
A. all the above powers serveon the standing committees
B. he can nominate certain members of the C. none of the above
Anglo-Indiancommunity to the legislative D. members of the Rajya Sabha are able to
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assembly exerciseindirect control over financial matters

C. he can nominate certain members of the Ans: D
legislativecouncil
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D. he can summon or prorogue the state 519. Which of the following pairs are NOT
legislature correctly matched? (1) Call Attention Motion: To
Ans: A draw attention of the minister on a matter of
urgent public importance. (2) Adjournment
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514. Which of the following constitutional Motion: To adjourn the house before the expiry
amendments has been described as a 'mini- of the time (3) Privilege Motion: To draw
revision of the Constitution.'? attention of the Speaker towards incorrect /
A. The 52nd Amendment incomplete answer by a minister (4) Cut Motion:
B. The 42nd Amendment Move a proposal to reduce expenditure in the
C. The 39th Amendment Budget Proposals.
D. The 44th Amendment A. 1 and 3
Ans: B B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
515. In the event of the death or resignation of D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
the President, the Vice-President discharges the Ans: B
duties of the office of President
A. for a maximum period of one year 520. Who appoints the members of the All India
B. for a maximum period of six months Services?
C. for a maximum period of four months A. the President

B. the Chairman of the Union Public Service 526. Which of the following states were initially
Commission given the status of autonomous state and
C. the Attorney General of India subsequently made fullfledged states?
D. the Union Home Minister A. Meghalaya and Sikkim
Ans: A B. Assam and Bihar
C. Nagaland and Assam
521. The President can declare constitutional D. Meghalaya and Jammu and Kashmir
emergency in state Ans: A
A. only on the recommendation of the council
ofministers of the state 527. The 42nd Amendment
B. if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in A. made the Directive Principles justiciable
whichthe government of the state cannot be B. introduced Fundamental Duties for the first
carried on inaccordance with the Constitution time
C. only on the recommendation of the Governor C. added a new schedule (Schedule VII) to the
D. only on the recommendation of the Union Constitution
Councilof Ministers D. did None of the above things
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Ans: B Ans: B
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522. The final authority to make a proclamation 528. Which one of the following financial
of emergency rests with powers is enjoyed by the President?
A. the Parliament A. the President can advance money out of
B. the President
C. the Prime Minister
D. Council of Ministers
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theContingency Fund of India
B. the President appoints a Finance Commission
torecommend the distribution of taxes between
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Ans: B theUnion and the State governments
C. money bills can be introduced in the
523. Who was the Chairman of the Commission Parliament onlyon the recommendation of the
appointed by the Government of India to review President
the question of CentreState relations D. all the above
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A. R S Sarkaria Ans: D
B. Manmohan Singh
C. S C Sarkar 529. Some of the Indian states have bicameral
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D. Swaran Singh legislatures. The names of the two houses of

Ans: A state legislature are
A. Lok Sabha and Legislative Council
524. Which among the following political party B. Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council
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of India has an election symbol almost close to C. the Legislative Assembly and Senate
the election symbol of Republican Party of USA? D. Sabha and Samiti
A. Samajwadi party Ans: B
B. Janta Dal (United)
C. Telugudesam Party 530. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956,
D. Bahujan Samaj party divided the entire country into
Ans: D A. 22 states and 9 union territories
B. four categories of states
525. The President can proclaim national C. 17 states and 7 union territories
emergency only on the written advice of D. 14 states and 6 union territories
A. the Prime Minister Ans: D
B. the Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. the Union Cabinet 531. The following states were created after
D. the Chief Justice of India 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological
Ans: C order of their formation.

1. Haryana 536. The vacancy in the office of the
2. Sikkim VicePresident
3. Nagaland A. has to be filled within reasonable time, as
4. Meghalaya there is notime limit prescribed in the
Constitution
A. 2, 3, 4, 1 B. has to be filled within six months
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. has to be filled within a year
C. 2, 4, 1, 3 D. has to be filled within three months
D. 3, 1, 4, 2 Ans: A
Ans: D
537. Which Indian state has launched the
532. Which one of the following was elected Village Monitoring Project (VMP) to uplift
President of India unopposed? villagers?
A. Dr Neelam Sanjiva Reddy A. Kerala
B. K R Narayanan B. Maharashtra
C. Dr S Radhakrishnan C. Haryana
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D. Dr Rajendra Prasad D. Punjab
Ans: A Ans: C
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533. The Constitution grants right against 538. The responsibility for the recruitment of All
exploitation to India Services rests with
1. Children
2. Women
3. Tribals
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A. the Union Public Service Commission
B. the President
C. the Parliament
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4. Dalits D. the Union Home Ministry
Select the correct answer using the following Ans: A
codes:
A. 1 and 3 539. The President of India is
B. 1, 2 and 3 A. elected by the elected members of Lok Sabha
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C. 1 and 2 B. elected through an electoral college

D. 2, 3 and 4 consisting of theelectedmembers of Parliament
Ans: C and state legislativeassemblies
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C. directly elected by the people

534. Which one of the following VicePresidents D. elected by the two houses of Parliament at a
resigned from his office to contest for the office jointsitting
of President? Ans: B
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A. VV Giri
B. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad 540. How many judges of the Supreme Court
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy have been removed from their office before the
D. both (b ) and (c ) expiry of their normal term through
Ans: A impeachment
A. only one
535. Members of the UPSC hold office B. three
A. till they attain the age of 70 years C. none
B. for a term of six years or till they attain the D. two
age of65 years Ans: C
C. during the pleasure of the President
D. as long as they enjoy the confidence of 541. The President of India can be removed by
Parliament the process of impeachment on the grounds of
Ans: B A. On Corruption charges
B. Proved in-capacity

C. None of the Above 546. The quasi judicial power of the Central
D. Violation of the Constitution Information Commission means
Ans: D A. The Commission does not have the power to
securecompliance of its decisions from the
542. In the event of the death or resignation of public authority.
a Chief Minister B. Is a high-powered independent body which
A. the council of ministers automatically inter alialooks into the complaints made to it and
standsdissolved decides notto appeal
B. the Governor immediately appoints a new C. The Commission can order inquiry into any
ChiefMinister matterif there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto
C. the Chief Justice of the High Court assumes power).
theduties of Chief Minister D. The Commission does not submit an annual
D. the senior most member of the council of reportto the Central Government on the
ministerstakes over as the Chief Minister implementation ofthe provisions of this Act.
Ans: A Ans: C
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543. Who among the following are appointed by 547. Question Hour in the Parliament refers to
the President of India? A. the second hour of the sitting
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1. governors of states B. the first hour of the sitting
2. Chief Justice and judges of High Courts C. the lunch hour after the sitting
3. Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme D. the last hour of the sitting
Court
4. The Vice-President
Select the correct answer from the codes given
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Ans: B
548. Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the

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below: expiry of its normal term of five years?
A. 1, 2 and 4 A. the President on the recommendation of the
B. 1, 3 and 4 Speaker
C. 1, 2, and 3 B. the President
D. 1 and 2 C. the President on the recommendation of the
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Ans: C PrimeMinister
D. the Prime Minister
544. The amendment procedure of the Indian Ans: C
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Constitution has been modelled on the

constitutional pattern of 549. Which of the following statements is
A. Canada correct?
B. Switzerland A. The electoral college for the election of
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C. USA theVicePresident is the same as that for the

D. Union of South Africa electionof the President
Ans: D B. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides
over thejoint session of both houses of
545. The Constitution secures the independence Parliament
of the Comptroller and Auditor General by C. The nominated members of both houses of
A. by giving the CAG complete control over Parliamenthave voting right in the election of
hisadministrative staff the Vice-President but not in the election of the
B. all the above President
C. providing that his salary and service D. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected
conditions shallnot be changed to his by theelected members of the Rajya Sabha
disadvantage Ans: C
D. making the removal of CAG very difficult
Ans: B 550. Which one of the following Prime Ministers
never attended the Parliament during his

tenure? correctexplanation of A
A. VP Singh B. both A and R are true and R is the correct
B. Atal Behari Vajpayee explanationof A
C. Choudhary Charan Singh C. A is true but R is false
D. Chandra Shekhar D. A is false but R is true
Ans: C Ans: C
551. Which one of the following is a Directive 555. Lok Sabha is superior to the Rajya Sabha
Principle of State Policy? because
A. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in A. it can oust the Council of Ministers through a
anyform shall be punishable by law. voteof no-confidence
B. The state shall endeavour to protect and B. it is directly elected
improve theenvironment. C. it alone controls the finances
C. The state shall not discriminate against any D. of all the above reasons
personon grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or Ans: D
place ofbirth.
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D. The state shall not deny to any person 556. Which of the following is the largest
equalitybefore law. contributor to the total tax revenue of the
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Ans: B government (Central state and union territory
administrations)?
552. The President can call a joint session of the A. customs duties
two houses of Parliament
A. under all the above conditions
B. if the amendment proposed to the bill by one
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B. corporation tax
C. excise duties
D. income tax
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houseis not acceptable to the other house Ans: C
C. if the house does not take any action for six
monthson a bill remitted by the other house 557. The advice of the Supreme Court is
D. if a bill passed by one house is rejected by the A. binding on the President
other B. binding on the President if it is tendered
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Ans: A unanimously
C. binding in certain cases and not binding in
553. If a financial emergency is declared, what othercases.
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is its impact on the relations between the Centre D. not binding on the President
and the state? Ans: D
A. None of the above.
B. The President can reduce the salaries of all 558. Which one of the following procedures is
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the states'servants except the judges of High valid for passing a Constitutional amendment
Courts. seeking abolition of the Vidhan Parishad ?
C. The state legislatures are deprived of the A. Resolution in the Rajya Sabha and consent of
right toenact Money Bills. eachhouse of the Parliament by majority of the
D. The President can reduce the salaries of state memberspresent and voting.
civilservants including those of the judges of B. Resolution in the Vidhan Parishad and
HighCourts. consent ofthe Vidhan Sabha by simple majority,
Ans: D followedby consent of the each house of the
Parliament bysimple majority.
554. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India C. Resolution in either house of the Parliament
enjoys the power of Judicial Review Reason (R): andconsent of each house of Parliament by
The Supreme Court of India is obliged to enforce absolutemajority of the whole house, coupled
the laws enacted by the Parliament without with two-thirdsmajority of the members present
going into their constitutionality. and voting.
A. both A and R are true but R is not a D. Resolution in the Vidhan Sabha by a majority

ofthe total membership of the house and by 564. Given below are two statements, one
majorityof not less than two-thirds of the labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
members of thehouse present and voting, as Reason (R) Assertion (A): The Constitution of
followed by consent ofeach house of the India provides for the appointment of a Governor
Parliament by the majority of themembers for a state for a period of five years. Reason (R):
present and voting. The governor holds office during the pleasure of
Ans: D the President. In the context of the above two
statements, which one of the following is
559. The President can impose his rule in a correct?
state on account of failure of constitutional A. both A and R are true and R is the correct
machinery under explanationof A
A. Article 379 B. A is false but R is true
B. Article 361 C. A is true but R is false
C. Article 371 D. both A and R are true but R is not a correct
D. Article 356 explanationof A
Ans: D Ans: D
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560. What can be the maximum gap between 565. In which case the Supreme Court held that
the two sessions of Parliament? the Preamble was not a part of the Constitution?
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A. four months A. None of the above
B. six months B. Berubari case
C. three months
D. nine months
Ans: B
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C. Keshavananda Bharati case
D. Golak Nath case
Ans: B
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561. Who enjoys the distinction of having held 566. The states were reorganised on linguistic
the office of the Prime Minister for the longest basis in
duration? A. 1951
A. Indira Gandhi B. 1966
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B. Rajiv Gandhi C. 1947

C. Lal Bahadur Shastri D. 1956
D. Jawaharlal Nehru Ans: D
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Ans: D
567. The pension of the judges of the High
562. The members of the Rajya Sabha are Court is charged to
elected A. the Consolidated Fund of the State where he
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A. for life lastserved

B. for a term of five years B. the Consolidated Fund of India
C. for a term of four years C. none of the above funds
D. for a term of six years D. the Contingency Fund of India
Ans: D Ans: B
563. Under which of the following writs can the 568. At present, the Chief Justice of India draws
High Court direct public official or the a monthly salary of
government not to enforce a law which is A. Rs 80,000
unconstitutional? B. Rs 75,000
A. Certiorari C. Rs 1,00,000
B. Prohibition D. Rs 90,000
C. Mandamus Ans: C
D. Quo Warranto
Ans: B 569. Which one of the following courts can a

citizen move for the enforcement of Directive C. the Kalekar Commission
Principles of State Policy? D. none of the above
A. None of the courts Ans: A
B. both (a ) and ( b)
C. the Supreme Court 575. The two persons who played a vital role in
D. the High Court the integration of princely states were:
Ans: A A. Sardar Patel and Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Sardar Patel and K M Munshi
570. Which one of the following wanted the C. Sardar Patel and V.P. Menon
Directive Principles of State Policy to be the D. Sardar Patel and Rajendra Prasad
basis of all future legislation? Ans: C
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. B N Rau 576. After a bill is passed by the Parliament it is
C. K M Munshi sent to the President for his assent, who can
D. B R Ambedkar return it for reconsideration to the Lok Sabha.
Ans: D But if the bill is repassed by the Parliament and
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sent to the President for his assent he
571. The Legislature of which one of the A. can get it nullified through the Supreme
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following states passed a resolution in December Court
2005 demanding creation of a separate High B. can send the bill to the Parliament for
Court for the state reconsiderationfor the second time
A. None of the above
B. Sikkim
C. Haryana
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C. has to sign it
D. can submit the same to the people for
referendum
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D. Punjab Ans: C
Ans: C
577. Which of the following jurisdictions of the
572. The Lok Sabha secretariat works under the Supreme Court of India has been wrongly listed?
direct supervision of A. Original Jurisdiction
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A. none of the above B. Advisory Jurisdiction

B. the Speaker C. Appellate Jurisdiction
C. The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs D. Adjudicating administrative conflicts
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D. the President of India Ans: D

Ans: B
578. Which one of the following Prime Ministers
573. The differences between the two houses of resigned after losing a vote of confidence in the
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Parliament are resolved through Lok Sabha?

A. a joint session of the two houses A. Indira Gandhi
B. the mediation of Minister for Parliamentary B. Chandra Shekhar
Affairs C. Charan Singh
C. a joint committee of the two houses, D. VP Singh
speciallyconstituted for this purpose Ans: D
D. mediatory efforts of the officers of the two
houses 579. The Jammu & Kashmir legislative council
Ans: A has the following number of members
A. 36
574. Which of the following commissions B. 90
recommended the abolition of the IAS and the C. 60
IPS? D. 40
A. the Rajamannar Commission Ans: A
B. the Kher Commission

580. The correct chronological order in which B. must have been a judge of a High Court for
the following states of India were created is atleast five years
1. Andhra Pradesh C. must have been an advocate of a High Court
2. Maharashtra for notless than 10 years
3. Punjab D. must have attained the age of 55 years
4. Nagaland Ans: D
A. 2, 1, 4, 3 585. Who has been vested with the power to

B. 4, 3, 2, 1 decide whether the restrictions imposed on the
C. 1, 2, 4, 3 Fundamental Rights of Indian citizen are
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 reasonable or not?
Ans: C A. the courts
B. none of the above
581. The Chief Minister, who is the head of the C. the Parliament
government in a state, is D. the President
A. elected by the state legislature Ans: A
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B. appointed by the governor
C. appointed by the President 586. The power to impose reasonable
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D. appointed by the governor on the advice of restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of Indian
ChiefJustice of the High Court. citizens rests with
Ans: B A. the Supreme Court
582. Which one to the following statements

related to Money Bill is NOT correct ?
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B. the Parliament
C. the President
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A. If any question arises whether the bill is Ans: B
Money Billor not, the decision of the Lok Sabha
Speaker isfinal. 587. Which of the following statements is
B. A Money Bill cannot be introduced except on correct?
therecommendation of the President. A. the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by
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C. It cannot be introduced in the Council of themembers of Rajya Sabha from amongst

States themselves
D. In case of a deadlock over a Money Bill, the B. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio
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Presidentcan summon a joint sitting of Chairmanof the Rajya Sabha

Parliament. C. the Attorney General of India acts as the
Ans: D Chairmanof the Rajya Sabha, in addition to
performing theduties of his office
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583. Impeachment proceedings can be initiated D. the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
against the President in either house of nominated by thePresident in Consultation with
Parliament only if a resolution signed by- the Prime Minister
members of the House is moved. Ans: B
A. 15 per cent of total
B. 10 per cent of total 588. Which one of the following has been
C. 25 per cent of total wrongly listed as a special feature of
D. 20 per cent of total Fundamental Rights in India?
Ans: C A. Fundamental Rights are more sacrosanct
than rightsgranted by ordinary laws
584. Which of the following has been wrongly B. Fundamental Rights are justicable and can
listed as criteria for appointment as a judge of beenforced through the Supreme Court
the Supreme Court C. none of these
A. must, in the opinion of the President, be a D. Fundamental Rights are subject to
distinguished jurist reasonablerestrictions

Ans: C matched?
A. Article 16: Equal opportunities
589. Who of the following was the first Speaker B. Article 17: Abolition of titles
of the Lok Sabha? C. Article 14: Equality before law
A. Ananthaswayanam Ayenger D. Article 18: Permission of military titles
B. GS Dhillon Ans: B
C. GV Mavalankar
D. Hukum Singh 595. Which one of the following Fundamental
Ans: C Rights has been subject of maximum litigation
since the inauguration of the Constitution?
590. The salaries of the judges of the Supreme A. right to constitutional remedies
Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of B. right against exploitation
India to ensure that C. right to property
A. the Parliament does not reduce their salaries D. right to freedom of speech
due topolitical considerations Ans: C
B. they get their salaries regularly
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C. they dispense justice impartially 596. Which of the following has been wrongly
D. none of the above listed as a Standing Joint Committee of the two
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Ans: C houses of Parliament.
A. Committee on Government Assurances
591. Which ONE of the following statements is B. Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes
correct with regard to the office of the Attorney -
General of India?
A. The President appoints a person who is
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andScheduled Tribes
C. Committee on Offices of Profit
D. Committee on Salaries and Allowances of
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qualifiedto be a judge of a High Court, to be the membersof Parliament
Attorney-General to India. Ans: A
B. He shall perform his duties only in the
SupremeCourt 597. The High Courts are empowered to issue
C. He shall have the right of audience in all the writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
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Courtswithin the territory of India. under

D. He enjoys a fixed tenure A. Article 226
Ans: C B. Article 228
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C. Article 225
592. Which one of the following is not a D. Article 227
Fundamental Right? Ans: A
A. right to property
G
B. right against exploitation 598. In the event of the death or resignation of

C. right to freedom of religion the Governor, the duties of his office are
D. right to equality discharged by
Ans: A A. the Chief Justice of the High Court
B. Speaker of Legislative Assembly
593. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian C. the Chief Minister
citizens were D. none of the above
A. incorporated by the 42nd Amendment Ans: A
B. incorporated in the original Constitution
C. outlined in an Act of Parliament passed in 599. When a person acts as Governor of more
1952 than one state his salary is
D. incorporated by the 44th Amendment A. paid by the Union Government
Ans: B B. charged to the Consolidated Fund of India
C. shared by the concerned states
594. Which of the following is not correctly D. paid by the state named by the President

Ans: C D. It divides the powers between the Centre and
thestates.
600. The Directive Principles are Ans: A
A. directives to the government to pursue a
policy ofnon-alignment 604. Which of the following amendments was
B. positive instructions to the government to the most comprehensive amendment of the
work forthe attainment of set objectives Constitution?
C. negative injunctions to the government to A. the 68th Amendment
refrainfrom encroachingon the freedom of the B. the 44th Amendment
people C. the 42nd Amendment
D. directives to the state to enhance the D. the 52nd Amendment
internationalprestige of the country Ans: C
Ans: B
605. the Proclamation of National Emergency
601. How many types of emergencies have been ceases to operate unless approved by the
envisaged by the Constitution? Parliament within
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A. four A. one month
B. three B. six months
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C. only one C. three months
D. two D. two months
Ans: B Ans: A
602. Which of the following are included in

Article 78 of the Indian Constitution, defining
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606. The First Amendment to the Constitution,
which was carried out in 1951, related to
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the duties of Prime Minister ? A. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
1. To communicate to the President all decisions B. security of the country
of the Council of Ministers relating to the C. security of the Prime Minister
administration of the affairs. D. protection of agrarian reform laws in certain
2. To take prior Presidential sanction for the states
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budget before submitting it in the Parliament. Ans: D

3. To furnish the information called for by the
President regarding administration of affairs of 607. The Constitution of India does not
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the Union. guarantee the Right to

4. If the President so requires, to submit for A. Property
consideration of the Council of Ministers a B. Equality
matter on which a Minister has taken a decision C. Education
G
without submitting the same for consideration D. Life and Liberty

by the Council beforehand. Ans: A
Select the correct code:
A. 1, 3 and 4 608. Who of the following is the executive head
B. 1 and 2 of a state?
C. 2 and 4 A. the President
D. 1 and 3 B. none of the above
Ans: A C. the Chief Minister
D. the Governor
603. Which of the following features of Indian Ans: D
Federalism has been wrongly listed?
A. It provides equal representation to the states 609. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are
in theRajya Sabha. subject to approval by
B. It has a written Constitution. A. none of the above
C. It provides for a independent judiciary. B. the state council of ministers

C. the state legislature resolutionpassed by a two-third majority of its
D. the President members
Ans: C Ans: D
610. Which one of the following Chief Justice of 615. The Supreme Court of India was set up
India enjoys the distinction of having acted as A. through an Act of Parliament in 1950
President of India? B. under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
A. Justice P N Bhagwati C. by the Constitution
B. Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan D. under the Government of India Act, 1935
C. Justice M Hidyatullah Ans: C
Ans: C 616. Which amendment affirmed the right of the
Lok Sabha to amend any part of the
611. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of Constitution?
A. the Minorities Commission A. the 44th Amendment
B. the Planning Commission B. the 42nd Amendment
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C. the Finance Commission C. the 24th Amendment
D. None of the above D. the 39th Amendment
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Ans: B Ans: C
612. Which one of the following rights is 617. Consider the following
available only to the citizens within the territory
of India?
1. freedom of speech
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1. Fundamental Rights are justiciable
2. Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable
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2. right to form associations or unions A. Only 1 is true
3. equality before law B. Both are true
4. freedom to assemble peacefully without arms C. Both are false
Select the correct answer using the code given D. Only 2 is true.
below Ans: B
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A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 4 618. Which of the following statements
C. 2, 3, and 4 correctly describes 'a hung Parliament'?
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D. 1, 2 and 4 A. A lame duck Parliament

Ans: D B. The Parliament lacks the quorum to conduct
business
613. The Parliament of India consists of C. The Prime Minister has resigned but the
G
A. the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Parliamentis not dissolved
B. the Lok Sabha, Prime Minister and Speaker D. A Parliament in which no party has a clear
C. None of the above majority
D. the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Ans: D
Ans: A
619. Under the provisions of which Article of
614. Judges of the High Court can be removed the Constitution the government abolished the
from office before expiry of their term by the practice of untouchability?
President A. Article 20
A. on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of B. Article 17
theHigh Court C. Article 18
B. at his discretion D. Article 16
C. on the recommendation of the Chief Minister Ans: B
of thestate
D. on a request of Parliament made through a 620. The three types of Proclamations of

Emergency made by the President have to be was the evolution of the office of the Speaker
placed before each house of Parliament for its B. It abolished the Council of India, established
approval by the Government of India Act of 1858.
A. within one month in case of national C. It enlarged the deliberative functions of the
emergencyand within two months in case of legislative councils at both the levels
emergency dueto break down of constitutional D. Expansion of Viceroy's executive council
machinery andfinancial emergency Ans: D
B. within one month
C. within two months 626. In India Money bill is certified by
D. within six months A. Chairman of the Upper House
Ans: A B. Speaker
C. Finance Minister
621. The enforcement of the Directive D. Prime Minister
Principles of State Policy depends on Ans: B
A. the resources available with the government
B. all the above 627. Consider the following statements with
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C. the will of the government in power regard to compulsory singing of national anthem
D. the judiciary 1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of
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Ans: A speech and expression.
2. It will be violative of the freedom of
622. The writ of Mandamus is issued by a conscience and practice and propagation of
superior court
A. to command a person or public authority to
dosomething in the nature of public duty
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religion.
3. There is no legal provision obliging any one to
sing the national anthem Of these statements
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B. to produce an illegally detained person before
acourt within 24 hours A. none of the above is correct
C. to command a person or public authority to B. 2 and 3 are correct
stopproceedings in a case in national interest C. 1 and 2 are correct
D. in all the above cases D. 1, 2, and 3 are correct
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Ans: A Ans: D
623. The chairman of the legislative council is 628. The judges of the High Court are appointed
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A. elected by the members of legislative council by the President in consultation with

B. an ex-officio presiding officer A. the Governor of the state
C. appointed by the speaker of legislative B. all the above
assembly C. the Chief Justice of India
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D. appointed by the governor D. the Chief Justice of the High Court

Ans: A Ans: B
624. Which one of the following factors has 629. The Governor of a state can issue
been responsible for the slow implementation of ordinances
the Directive Principles? A. only in the event of breakdown of
A. Lack of political will constitutional machineryin the state
B. vastness of the country B. only after taking formal approval of the
C. Lack of resources with the government President
D. all the above factors C. only when the Chief Minister asks him to do
Ans: D so
D. only during the recess of the State legislature
625. Which among the following proposal is Ans: D
made under August Offer?
A. One important development during the period 630. The cases involving an interpretation of the

Constitution fall within the Ans: C
A. Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
B. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court 636. A money bill can be introduced in the state
C. none of these jurisdiction. A. in either house of the state legislature
D. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court B. in both the houses at a joint sitting
Ans: D C. only in the legislative council
D. only in the legislative assembly
631. The Constitution has vested the 'residuary Ans: D
powers' with the Centre. But the final authority
to decide whether a matter falls under residuary 637. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither
powers or not rests with the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is
A. the President available?
B. the Supreme Court A. a member of the panel of Chairmen
C. the Rajya Sabha announced bythe Speaker
D. the Parliament B. the senior-most member of the Lok Sabha
Ans: B C. a member chosen by the Council of Ministers
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D. a member nominated by the President
632. Which one of the following was a Union Ans: A
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Territory before it was accorded the status of a
full-fledged state? 638. The concept of Public Interest Litigation,
A. Tripura which has become quite popular in India in
B. all the above
C. Manipur
D. Himachal Pradesh
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recent years, originated in
A. the United Kingdom
B. Australia
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Ans: B C. the United States
D. Canada
633. The UPSC submits an annual report on its Ans: A
work to
A. the Parliament 639. Which one of the following has been added
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B. the President to the list of original Fundamental Rights?

C. the Union Home Minister A. right to Constitutional Remedies
D. the Chief Justice of India B. right to Freedom of Religion
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Ans: B C. right to elementary education

D. right to property
634. Which among the following are true about Ans: C
Cabinet Mission Plan Proposal?
G
A. The Princely states could not be persuaded to 640. How many Directive Principles were added
accede to the federation to Part IV of the constitution by the 42nd
B. Rejection of Pakistan amendment?
C. Expansion of Viceroy's executive council A. Three
D. It ended the British rule in India B. Two
Ans: B C. Four
D. None
635. For how many years, Hyderabad is Ans: C
envisaged as the common capital for Andhra
Pradesh and Telangana as per Andhra Pradesh 641. The Supreme Court tenders advice to the
Reorganisation Act 2014? President on a matter of law or fact.
A. 7 years A. only if the issue poses a threat to the unity
B. 5 years andintegrity of the country
C. 10 years B. on its own
D. 12 years C. only if he seeks such advice

D. only if the matter relates to Fundamental D. the President on the advice of the Parliament
Rights ofcitizens Ans: A
Ans: C
647. The council of ministers of an Indian state
642. Which one of the following Directive is collectively responsible to
Principles reflects socialist ideology? A. the legislative council
A. to provide adequate means of livelihood to all B. both the houses of the state legislature
B. all the above C. the legislative assembly
C. to prevent concentration of wealth and means D. the Governor
ofproduction and to ensure equitable Ans: C
distribution ofwealth and material resources
D. to ensure a decent standard of living and 648. Which of the following Lok Sabhas enjoyed
leisure forall workers a term of more than five years?
Ans: B A. Sixth Lok Sabha
B. Fifth Lok Sabha
643. Which of the following subjects was C. Eighth Lok Sabha
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transferred by the 61st amendment of 1976 from D. Fourth Lok Sabha
the state list to the concurrent list? Ans: B
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A. Health
B. Irrigation 649. The Comptroller and Auditor General of
C. Education India was relieved of his responsibilities of
D. all the above
Ans: C
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maintenance of accounts in
A. 1981
B. 1976
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644. Which one of the following has been C. 1967
wrongly listed as judicial power of the President D. 1989
of India? Ans: C
A. he can remove the judge of a Supreme Court
ongrounds of misconduct 650. The main objective of the Fundamental
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B. He can grant pardon, reprieve and respite to Rights is to

a personawarded punishment A. ensure all the above
C. he can consult the Supreme Court on any B. ensure individual liberty
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questionof law or fact C. ensure independence of judiciary

D. he appoints the Chief Justice and other D. promote a socialist pattern of society
judges of theSupreme Court Ans: B
Ans: A
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651. Which group of Articles relate to the

645. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house but relationship of the President and the Council of
A. one half of its member retire after two years Ministers?
B. one-third of its members retire every two A. 71, 75 and 78
years B. 72, 75 and 78
C. one-fifth of its members retire every year C. 73, 75 and 78
D. one-half of its members retire after three D. 74, 75 and 78
years Ans: D
Ans: B
652. Proclamation of President's rule in a state
646. The Comptroller and Auditor General is can be made
appointed by A. if the President, on receipt of a report from
A. the President thegovernor of the state or otherwise is satisfied
B. the Parliament that asituation has arisen in which the
C. the Prime Minister government of thestate cannot be carried on in

accordance with theprovisions of the 657. The Constitution of India envisages three
Constitution types of services
B. when a bill introduced by the state A. Navy, Air Force and Army
government isdefeated in the state legislature B. None of the above
C. if the President, on receipt of report from C. civil, military and para-military
thegovernor of the state, is satisfied that a D. All India Services, Central Services and
situationis likely to arise in which the StateServices
government of thestate cannot be carried on in Ans: D
accordance with theprovisions of the
Constitution. 658. Which one of the following has been
D. when the governor and the Chief Minister of wrongly listed among the special powers of the
a statediffer on a vital issue Rajya Sabha
Ans: A A. None of the above
B. Resolution for creation of new All India
653. The Presiding officer of which House is not Servicescan be initiated in the Rajya Sabha only.
a member of that house? C. Laws on any subject of state list can originate
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A. Legislative Assembly onlyin the Rajya Sabha if it is satisfied that it is
B. Rajya Sabha necessaryto do so in national interest.
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C. Lok Sabha D. Resolution for the removal of the Vice-
D. All President ofIndia can be initiated only in the
Ans: B Rajya Sabha.
654. Which of the following amendments

curtailed the Supreme Court's power of Judicial
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Ans: A
659. The Finance Commission is constituted to

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Review? recommend criteria for:
A. 44th Amendment A. Auditing the receipts and expenditures of the
B. 29th Amendment UnionGovt.
C. 42nd Amendment B. Preparing the annual budget of Union
D. none of the above government
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Ans: C C. Distribution of financial resources between

Unionand the states
655. The Directive Principles aim at D. Framing a finance bill
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A. achieving all the above objectives Ans: C

B. ensuring individual liberty
C. providing a social and economic base for a 660. India has adopted a federal system of
genuinedemocracy in the country government which is based on division of powers
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D. ensuring strengthening of the country's between the Union and the States. However,
independence which of the following powers has not been
Ans: C divided between them
A. legislative
656. Which one of the following emergencies B. judicial
can be declared by the President on his own? C. executive
A. emergency due to failure of the D. financial
constitutionalmachinery in a state Ans: B
B. emergency due to external aggression or
armedrebellion 661. The maximum duration of the zero hour in
C. None of the above Lok Sabha can be
D. emergency due to threat to the financial A. two hours
stability orcredit of India B. one hour
Ans: C C. unspecified
D. 30 minutes

Ans: C 3. 21st June was selected because it represents
one of the two solstices and it is the longest day
662. The President can make use of his in the Northern Hemisphere which has special
discretionary powers significance in many parts of the world.
1. when there is a dispute between the Prime Codes:
Minister and the cabinet A. 2 & 3
2. when there is no majority party in the Lok B. 1 & 2
Sabha and he has to choose a Prime Minister C. 1 & 3
3. when the ruling party loses its majority in the D. All of the above.
Lok Sabha. Ans: A
4. when he decides to refer the advice of the
Union Cabinet back for reconsideration 666. At least how many members are require for
Select the correct answer from the codes given introduction of No-Confidence motion in the Lok
below: Sabha.
A. 1 and 2 A. 100 members
B. 1 only B. 75 members
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C. 2 and 4 C. 50 members
D. 2, 3 and 4 D. 200 members
Ans: C
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Ans: C
663. The ordinary Judges of High Courts receive 667. The bill was introduced in the Parliament
a monthly salary of
A. Rs 80,000
B. Rs 70,000
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by Union Social Justice Minister Thawar Chand
Gehlot as per the provisions of which Article of
the Constitution?
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C. Rs 75,000 A. 14
D. Rs 90,000 B. 341
Ans: A C. 45
D. 342
664. Which of the following defects of judicial Ans: B
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activism has been wrongly listed?

A. it has added to the arrears of the courts 668. The original Constitution classified the
because thecourts have tended to entertain Fundamental Rights into seven categories but
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public interest litigationseven on trivial matters now there are only

B. it has greatly undermined the position of the A. four categories
judiciary B. six categories.
C. none of the above C. three categories
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D. the courts have tended to assume a positive D. five categories

policymakingrole which has actually been Ans: B
assigned by theConstitution to the
representatives of the people 669. Who enacts the laws for the those Union
Ans: B Territories which do not have Legislative
Assembly?
665. Which of the following Directive Principles A. Union Home Minister
of state policy are based on Gandhian ideology? B. The President
1. organisation of village panchayats C. The Chief Administrative Officer of the
2. compulsory education for all children up to territory
the age of 14 years D. The Parliament
3. prohibition on use of intoxicating drinks Ans: D
except for medicinal purposes as 'International
Day of Yoga'. This resolution was adopted under 670. The central government can issue
the agenda of 'Global Health and Foreign Policy'. directions to the state with regard to subjects in

A. the state list A. Madhya Pradesh
B. the concurrent list B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. all these lists C. Assam
D. the union list D. Bihar
Ans: C Ans: B
671. The term 'closure' in Parliamentary 676. Which of the following states put forth
terminology implies demand for greater autonomy for the states?
A. end of the day's proceedings A. Andhra Pradesh
B. the end of session of Parliament B. all the above
C. none of the above C. Punjab
D. stoppage of debate on a motion D. Jammu and Kashmir
Ans: D Ans: B
672. Given below are two statements, one 677. Who said in the Constituent Assembly that
labelled as Asertion (A) and the other labelled as the Directive Principles of State Policy are like a
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Reason (R) Assertion (A): Wilful disobedience or 'cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of
non-compliance of court orders and use of the bank'?
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derogatory language about judicial behaviour A. Jawaharlal Nehru
amounts to contempt of court. Reason (R): B. K M Munshi
Judicial activism cannot be practised without C. B R Ambedkar
arming the judiciary with punitive powers to
punish contemptious behaviour.
A. A is true but R is false
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D. K T Shah
Ans: D
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B. both A and R are true but R is not a 678. How many seats have been reserved for
correctexplanation of A the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
C. A is false but R is true A. 20
D. both A and R are true and R is the correct B. 30
explanationof A C. 25
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Ans: B D. none
Ans: A
673. At present, various states have been
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allocated seats in the Lok Sabha on the basis of 679. What happens if a Money Bill passed by
A. 1961 Census the Lok Sabha is partially amended by the Rajya
B. 1981 Census Sabha?
C. 1971 Census A. The Lok Sabha has to send the bill for
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D. 1951 Census reconsiderationto the Rajya Sabha

Ans: C B. a joint sitting of the two houses is called to
resolvethe differences
674. The Sarkaria Commission favoured C. the bill lapses
A. none of the above D. the Lok Sabha can proceed with the Bill
B. selection of the Governor of a State by the without theamendments proposed by the Rajya
Presidentfrom a panel of names given by the Sabha
concerned stategovernments Ans: D
C. abolition of the office of the governor
D. retention of the office of the Governor 680. Which of the following is not the power of
Ans: D the Prime Minister?
A. Advise the President
675. The Governor of which of the following B. Head the government
states has been vested with special powers C. Recommend the names of the ministers for
regarding Scheduled Tribes? appointment

D. Appoint the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or not?
Ans: D A. select Parliamentary Committee
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
681. At present the UPSC consists of a C. Prime Minister
chairman and D. President
A. ten other members Ans: B
B. nine other members
C. eight other members 686. The Parliamentary Subject Committees
D. seven other members were introduced in 1993 on the recommendation
Ans: A of
A. the Joint Parliamentary Committee set up in
682. The quorum or minimum number of 1990
members required to hold the meeting of either B. the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
house of Parliament is _____ C. the leaders of all the political parties
A. one-fourth represented inthe Parliament
B. one-fifth D. the Rules Committee of the House
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C. one-tenth Ans: D
D. one-third
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Ans: C 687. The Council of Ministers has to tender its
resignation if a vote of no-confidence is passed
683. Consider the following statements against it
regarding the Directive Principles of State
Policy.
1. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the
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A. by the two houses at a joint sitting
B. by the Rajya Sabha
C. by the Lok Sabha
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Directive Principles from the Government of D. by the two houses of Parliament by two-
India Act, 1935. thirdsmajority
2. The Directive Principles aim at realising the Ans: C
high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and
fraternity enshrined in the Preamble to the 688. The President can declare national
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Constitution. emergency
3. The Directive Principles have to be kept in A. only in the event of armed rebellion
mind by the government while formulating B. in none of the above cases
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policy and framing laws. C. only in the event of foreign invasion

4. The Directive Principles are justiciable. Of D. in both (a ) and ( b)
these statements Ans: D
G
A. 2 and 4 are correct 689. The members of the Rajya Sabha, except
B. 2, 3 and 4 are correct the nominated ones, are
C. 2, and 3 are correct A. elected partially by legislative assemblies and
D. 1, 3 and 4 are correct partiallyby the local self-governing bodies
Ans: C B. directly elected by the people
C. elected by local self-governing bodies
684. Who convenes the joint sessions of the Lok D. elected by the legislative assemblies of the
Sabha and Rajya Sabha? states
A. the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs Ans: D
B. the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
C. the Speaker 690. The Comptroller and Auditor General
D. the President performs
Ans: D A. only accounting functions
B. accounting, auditing and judicial functions
685. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill C. only audit functions

D. both accounting and audit functions C. the Chief Minister of the state
Ans: C D. the State Council of Ministers
Ans: C
691. The Sikhs in India are permitted to carry
Kirpan. Under which one of the following 696. Which group of judges took interest in
Fundamental Rights are they permitted to do so? Public Interest Litigation?
A. none of the above. A. Ray and Beg
B. right to life and liberty B. Bhagwati and Krishna Iyer
C. right to freedom of religion C. Shah and Sikri
D. right to freedom D. Kania and Sastri
Ans: C Ans: B
692. How many times has the President 697. Which of the following statements about
declared national emergency so far? the right to freedom of religion is NOT correct?
A. twice A. Restrictions can be imposed on the right to
B. only once freedomof religion on grounds of maintenance of
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C. thrice publicorder, morality or health.
D. never B. Every religious denomination has the right
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Ans: C toestablish and maintain institutions for
religious andcharitable purposes.
693. In case of differences between the two C. Funds appropriated by a religious
houses of Parliament over a bill, a joint session
of the two houses is held where decision is taken
by majority vote. In case there is a tie (votes in
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denomination forpromoting and maintaining a
particular religion aretaxable.
D. The state can regulate the economic,
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favour and against a bill are equal) how is the financial,political or other secular activities
same resolved? which may beassociated with religious practices.
A. the bill is again submitted to vote of the two Ans: A
housesat a joint sitting after a gap of four weeks
B. the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can make 698. Which one of the following Committee
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use ofhis casting vote contains representatives of both the House viz.
C. The bill is shelved for the session and taken Lok Sabha and Rajya Shabha
up forconsideration at the next session afresh A. The Rules Committee
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D. the Speaker can make use of his casting vote B. The Committee on Public Undertakings.
Ans: D C. The Public Accounts Committee
D. The Business Advisory Committee
694. The doctrine of judicial review is adopted Ans: C
G
in India
A. to overcome the limitations of a rigid 699. Which one of the following
Constitution Committees/Commissions recommended
B. on account of all these factors theinclusion of Fundamental Duties in the
C. to ensure smooth functioning of the Constitution?
Constitution. A. Sarkaria Commission
D. to ensure proper working of the B. Balram Jakhar Committee
parliamentarysystem of government C. Swaran Singh Committee
Ans: C D. Ashok Mehta Committee
Ans: C
695. As a matter of convention, while
appointing the Governor of a state, the President 700. Which one of the following was inserted as
consults per Bihar Reorganisation Act (2008)?
A. the Chief Justice of India A. Jharkhand
B. none of the above B. Uttaranchal (now renamed Uttrakhand)

C. None of the above 706. Which among the following is the nodal
D. Chhattisgarh agency for the government's recently launched
Ans: A Digital India Week programme?
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
701. The Vice-President of India is B. The Department of Electronics & IT
A. elected by the members of Lok Sabha and C. Telecom ministry
RajyaSabha at a joint sitting D. TRAI
B. elected by the same electoral college which Ans: C
electsthe President
C. elected by members of Rajya Sabha alone 707. Which of the following parliamentary
D. directly elected by the people committee scrutinises the report of the
Ans: A Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
A. the Committee on Public Undertakings
702. The writ of Certiorari is issued by a B. all the above
superior court C. the Public Accounts Committee
A. to an inferior court to transfer the record D. the Estimates Committee
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ofproceedings in a case for its review Ans: C
B. to an inferior court to stop further
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proceedings in aparticularcase 708. The structure of administration in various
C. to a public authority to produce a person union territories
detainedby it before the court within 24 hours A. has been prescribed in the Constitution
D. to an officer to show his right to hold a
particularoffice
Ans: A
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B. is determined by the Parliament
C. is determined by the President
D. is determined by the Union Home Minister
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Ans: B
703. The President holds office for a term of five
years 709. The Governor of a state is administered the
A. from the date determined by the Parliament oath of office by
B. from the date on which he is elected A. the Chief Justice of the State High Court
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C. from the date on which he enters office B. the President

D. from the date notified by the Election C. the Chief Justice of India
Commission D. none of the above
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Ans: C Ans: A
704. The main objective of the cultural and 710. The Prime Minister is
educational rights granted to the citizens is A. the head of the government
G
A. to preserve the rich cultural heritage of India B. the head of the state
B. all the above C. the head of the state as well as government
C. to evolve a single integrated Indian culture D. None of the above
D. to help the minorities to conserve their Ans: A
culture
Ans: D 711. The Centre provides grants-in-aid to the
states
705. Which one of the following Fundamental A. for use in centrally sponsored schemes
Rights is restrained by the Preventive Detention B. for meeting expenses of state plan project
Act? C. to cover gaps on revenue accounts so that
A. right to equality states canundertakevarious beneficial activities
B. right to constitutional remedies D. to maintain friendly relations between the
C. right to religion centre andthe states
D. right to freedom Ans: C
Ans: D

712. The Directive Principles of State Policy are public importance through
A. justiciable A. cut motion
B. only some Directive Principles are justiciable B. no-confidence motion
C. non-justiciable C. adjournment motion
D. None of the above D. censure motion
Ans: C Ans: C
713. What is the major function of the UPSC? 718. Which one of the following matters stands
A. to advise the President regarding claims of excluded from the jurisdiction of Inter-state
civilservants for costs incurred in the course of Council in India?
executionof duties A. Adjudication of any dispute or compliant
B. to advise the President regarding disciplinary withrespect to the use, distribution or control of
actionagainst a civil servant water,or in any inter-state river or river-valley.
C. all the above B. Enquiring into and advise upon disputes
D. to conduct examinations for appoint-ment to which mayhave arisen between the States.
AllIndia and Central Services C. Recommendation on any such subject and,
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Ans: C inparticular, recommendation for a better
coordinationof policy and action with respect to
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714. Who among the following members were that subject.
present in the drafting Committee of the D. Investigation and discussion of subjects in
Constitution of India? whichsome or all of the States or the Union and
A. Sardar Patel
B. N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
C. H.C. Mukherjee
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one ormore States, have common interest
Ans: A
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D. B. Kripalani 719. The Supreme Court consists of a Chief
Ans: B Justice and
A. nine judges
715. Which one of the following Directive B. Seven judges
Principles did not form part of the original C. 30 judges
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Constitution and was added subsequently D. 11 judges

through constitutional amendments? Ans: C
A. right of the workers to participate in the
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managementof industries 720. A writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior

B. all the above court
C. to protect and improve the environment and A. to an inferior court or body exercising judicial
tosafeguard forests and wild life orquasi-judicial functions to transfer the record
G
D. to minimise inequality in income, status, ofproceedings in a case for its review

facilitiesand opportunities amongst individuals B. to prevent an inferior court or tribunal
and groups fromexceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary
Ans: B to therules of natural justice
C. whereby it can call upon a person to show
716. In India, power of judicial review is underwhat authorityhe is holding the office
restricted because D. to an authority to produce an illegally
A. the judges are transferrable detainedperson before the court for trial
B. the Constitution is supreme Ans: B
C. the Legislature is supreme
D. the Executive is supreme 721. Under the Indian Constitution, a citizen
Ans: B A. can be deprived of life and personal liberty
only inaccordance with the procedure
717. Members of the state legislature can focus established by law
the attention of the government on matters of B. can be deprived of life and personal liberty by

thePresident during emergency be removed from his office before expiry of his
C. cannot be deprived of his life and personal term by
libertyunder any condition A. the Prime Minister
D. None of the above B. the President at his discretion
Ans: A C. the President on the advice of the Council of
theMinisters
722. In India, New All India Services can be D. the President on the recommendation of the
created Parliament
A. by the Union Government in consultation with Ans: D
theUPSC
B. by the President on the advice of the Union 728. Which of the following committees has
Councilof Ministers associate members from the Rajya Sabha?
C. by the Parliament A. Public Accounts Committee
D. through an amendment in the Constitution B. Committee on Privileges
Ans: D C. all the above
D. Estimates Committee
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723. The jurisdiction of the High Court can be Ans: A
extended or restricted by
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A. the legislature of the concerned state 729. What is special about National Monuments
B. the Parliament Authority Web Portal?
C. the Chief Justice of India A. The application can use the app to upload
D. the President
Ans: B
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thegeo coordinates of his plot which falls within
theprohibited and regulated area of the
monument
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724. Which article of the Constitution permits B. It will address various queries of startups in
the Supreme Court to review its own judgement atimebound manner.Select correct code:
or order? C. The web portal will provide single window
A. Article 139 clearancefor applicants to get no-objection
B. Article 137 certificates (NoC)within six working days for
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C. Article 130 construction-relatedworks.

D. Article 138 D. The portal uses the technology of Indian
Ans: B SpaceResearch Organisation (ISRO) for
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mapping-relatedservice.
725. Impeachment proceedings against the Ans: B
President of India can be initiated
A. only in a joint sitting of the two Houses of 730. The provisions related to the High Court of
G
Parliament the newly created State are mentioned in the

B. by the Supreme Court A. Constitution of India
C. only in the Lok Sabha B. Respective State Act
D. in either House of Parliament C. None of the Above
Ans: D D. Report Submitted to the Parliament
Ans: B
726. The President of India made use of his veto
power only once in 731. Lok Sabha passes vote on account to
A. the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill A. meet the expenditure during the period
B. the Dowry Prohibition Bill between theintroduction of Budget and its
C. the PEPSU Appropriation Bill passage.
D. the Hindu Code Bill B. to meet expenditure on secret services
Ans: A C. none of the above
D. to enable the government to meet
727. The Comptroller and Auditor General can unexpectedexpenditure

Ans: A 737. Right to private property was dropped
from the list of Fundamental Rights by the
732. If a state fails to comply with the directives A. 44th Amendment
of the Central Government, the President can B. 52nd Amendment
A. send reserve police force to secure C. 42nd Amendment
compliance withdirections D. none of the above
B. declare break-down of constitutional Ans: A
machinery inthe state and assume responsibility
for its governance 738. The Comptroller and Auditor General acts
C. can do either (a ) or ( b) as
D. dissolve the state legislature and order fresh A. guardian of all the above
elections B. the guardian of public finances
Ans: B C. the guardian of people's liberties
D. the chief legal advisor of the government
733. Which one of the following emergencies Ans: B
can be declared by the President only on receipt
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in writing of the decision of the Union Cabinet? 739. After a bill is passed by the Parliament and
A. emergency due to breakdown of sent to the President for his consideration, he
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constitutionalmachinery in a state can
B. all the above emergencies A. send back the bill to Parliament for
C. emergency due to threat to financial stability reconsideration
orcredit of India or any part of the territory
thereof
D. emergency due to war, external aggression or
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B. refuse to sign it
C. change certain clauses of the bill
D. sleep over it
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armedrebellion Ans: A
Ans: D
740. Which of the following statements
734. The Council of Ministers is collectively regarding the Supreme Court of India is not
responsible to correct?
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A. the President of India A. It acts as the protector of the Directive

B. the Prime Minister Principles ofState Policy.
C. the Lok Sabha B. It acts as the guardian of the Constitution.
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D. the Rajya Sabha C. It has final power to investigate disputes

Ans: C regardingelection of the President and the Vice-
President.
735. Who is legally competent to declare war or D. It acts as the guardian of the liberties of the
G
conclude peace? peopleof India.

A. Prime Minister Ans: A
B. the Council of Ministers
C. the President 741. Who decides the disputes regarding
D. the Parliament election of the President?
Ans: C A. the Supreme Court
B. the Election Commission
736. The salary of the Governor is charged C. both Supreme Court and High Courts
under D. the Parliament
A. The Consolidated Fund of India and Ans: A
consolidatedfund of the state on 50: 50 sharing
B. The Contingency Fund of the state 742. The Representation of the People
C. The Consolidated Fund of India (Amendment) Act, 2010 seeks to amend the
D. The Consolidated Fund of the state A. None of these
Ans: D B. Representation of the People Act, 1951

C. Representation of the People Act, 1964 C. to remove the Vice-President
D. Representation of the People Act, 1950 D. to recommend the creation of new All India
Ans: B Services
Ans: D
743. Who among the following may belong to
the Rajya Sabha but can speak in both the Lok 748. In the event of non-enforcement of the
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha Directive Principles of State Policy by the
A. ministers who are member of the Rajya Sabha government, the citizen can approach
B. the leader of the house in the Rajya Sabha A. the High Court
C. nominated members of the Rajya Sabha who B. any court of his choice
areexperts of a particular field C. the Supreme Court
D. the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha D. none of these
Ans: A Ans: D
744. Which one of the following states sends 749. Which one of the following freedoms
maximum representatives to the Lok Sabha? enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution has
rt
A. Madhya Pradesh since been abolished?
B. West Bengal A. freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
e
C. Himachal Pradesh B. freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of
D. Uttar Pradesh property
Ans: D C. freedom to carry on any profession,
745. Which of the following conditions does not

contribute to the independence of the judiciary
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occupation,trade or business
D. freedom to reside and settle in any part of the
country
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in India? Ans: B
A. Retired judges are not permitted to carry on
practicebefore any court or tribunal in India. 750. A member of Parliament enjoys immunity
B. No change in salary and service condition of from prosecution for having said anything
judgescan be made which operates against their A. at a Press Conference
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interestafter their appointment. B. in the Parliament and its committees

C. Once appointed, the judges cannot be C. during the session of the Parliament
removed fromtheir office before the date of anywhere
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retirement. D. at any of the above places

D. The salary and allowances of the judges are Ans: B
chargedto the Consolidated Fund of India and
are not subjectto Parliamentary vote. 751. The office of the Prime Minister in India
G
Ans: C A. has been created by the Constitution

B. is extra-constitutional growth
746. Judicial activism has led to increase in the C. has been created by a Parliamentary Statute
powers of D. is the combination of all the above
A. all the above organs Ans: A
B. the legislature
C. the executive 752. Which of the following is in the concurrent
D. the judiciary list?
Ans: D A. public health and sanitation
B. treasure trove
747. Which of the following powers is C. population control and family planning
exclusively vested in the Rajya Sabha? D. capitation taxes
A. to initiate impeachment proceedings against Ans: C
thePresident
B. all the above powers 753. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity

enshrined in the Preamble of theConstitution of C. the Speaker
India were adopted under inspiration from D. the Prime Minister
A. the French Revolution Ans: B
B. the American Declaration of Independence
C. the UN Charter. 759. Which one of the following statement is
D. the Russian Revolution NOT correct in the American federal system?
Ans: A A. the residuary powers are vested in the states.
B. the federal government can change the name
754. The Vice-President of India can be andterritory of any constituent state.
removed from his office before the expiry of his C. all states possess equal rights and equal
term by representationin the Senate.
A. the President with the consent of the majority D. the powers of states are undefined but they
of thestate legislatures are notunlimited.
B. the Rajya Sabha by two-thirds majority Ans: B
C. a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha and
agreedby the Lok Sabha 760. How many members of the AngloIndian
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D. the President at his discretion community can be nominated by the President to
Ans: C the Parliament?
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A. unspecified number, which is decided by the
755. Unless approved by the state legislature, Councilof Ministers
an ordinance issued by the Governor remains in B. 12
force for a maximum period of
A. two years
B. three months
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C. 2
D. 10
Ans: C
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C. one year
D. six months 761. If a vote of 'no confidence' is passed
Ans: D against a Minister
A. None of the above
756. Union Home Ministry has declared entire B. the whole Council of Ministers has to resign
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Nagaland state as a 'disturbed area' for one year C. he has to tender his resignation
period with an immediate effect from effect D. the minister as well as the Prime Minister
from: have totender their resignation
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A. June 30, 2015 Ans: B

B. June 25, 2015
C. May 25, 205 762. The President of India is
D. April 30, 2015 A. the head of the state
G
Ans: A B. none of the above

C. the head of the state as well as government
757. The Central Government gives grants-in- D. the head of the government
aid to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of Ans: A
India on the basis of the recommendations of
A. the Union Finance Minister 763. The size of the Council of Ministers
B. None of the above A. is determined by the Prime Minister
C. the Planning Commission B. is determined by the Parliament
D. the Finance Commission C. has been specified in the Constitution
Ans: D D. is determined by the President
Ans: C
758. The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests
with 764. Which Fundamental Right guaranteed that
A. The Rules Committee of Parliament the Constitution prohibits traffic in human
B. the President beings?

A. Right to equality 770. Under the Constitution, the Central
B. Right to freedom Government collect various types of taxes, which
C. None of the above. it has to share with the state governments.
D. Right against exploitation Which of the following enjoys Constitutional
Ans: D authority to decide the share of the states in the
taxes?
765. The Election Commission coordinates with A. the Union Finance Minister
which Ministry for conducting the elections? B. the Planning Commission
A. Ministry of Personnel C. the Finance Commission
B. Home Ministry D. the Union Cabinet in consultation with the
C. Ministry of Finance President
D. Ministry of Law and Justice Ans: C
Ans: D
771. Which one of the following three types of
766. The Chief Justice of a High Court is emergencies has been declared by the President
appointed by maximum number of times?
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A. the President in consultation with the Chief A. national emergency
Justiceof India and the Governor of the state B. state emergency
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B. the Governor of the state C. financial emergency
C. the Chief Justice of India D. all the three emergencies have been declared
D. the President equalnumber of times
Ans: A
767. Freedom of speech under the Indian

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Ans: B
772. The 45th Amendment

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Constitution is subject to reasonable restrictions A. extended reservation of seats for Scheduled
on the grounds of protection of Castesand ScheduledTribes for a further period
A. sovereignty and integrity of the country of 10 years.
B. all the above B. abolished special courts
C. the dignity of the office of the Prime Minister C. regularised the Preventive Detention
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D. the dignity of the council of ministers Ordinance

Ans: A D. retained forests and education in the
Concurrent List
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768. Which among the following 4 States have Ans: A

been added under recently passed Constitution
(Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 773. Which one of the following statements is
2016 under this Constitutional (Scheduled correct?
G
Castes) Order, 1950? A. all the above

A. None of these B. a person appointed as a minister has to
B. West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Uttaranchal, U.P. become amember of either house of Parliament
C. M.P., A.P., Kerala, and Odisha within sixmonths
D. Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Kerala and West C. a nominated member of the Parliament
Bengal cannot beappointed as Minister
Ans: D D. the leader of the largest party in the Lok
Sabha isinvariably appointed as Prime Minister
769. Which authority can a citizen approach for Ans: B
securing right of personal freedom?
A. Supreme Court alone 774. Which of the following statements
B. both Supreme Court and High Courts correctly depicts the true nature of the Indian
C. the President Federal System?
D. the Parliament A. the Indian federation is more a functional
Ans: B than aninstitutionalconcept

B. the Indian federation is not the result of an levied and collected by the Centre Select the
agreementbetween the units correct code:
C. a one-dominant-party regime which is in
conflict withthe principle of federalism A. Both 1 & 3
D. it is a unitary state with subsidiary federal B. Both 1 & 2
featuresrather than a federal state with C. Both 3 & 4
subsidiary unitaryfeatures D. Both 1 & 4
Ans: D Ans: B
775. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha, 779. The Indian National Congress, which is
who is the chief of the Lok Sabha Secretariat, is regarded as the first organised political party of
appointed by India was founded in the year
A. the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs in A. 1888
Consultationwith the Speaker B. 1885
B. the Speaker C. 1883
C. the President D. 1887
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D. a committee of the House, especially Ans: B
constituted forthis purpose
e
Ans: B 780. The Rajya Sabha, which is the Upper
House of Parliament, has a maximum strength of
776. Who of the following can amend the A. 225 members
Fundamental Rights granted by the
Constitution?
A. the Parliament
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B. 330 members
C. 250 members
D. 350 members
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B. the Supreme Court Ans: C
C. None of the above
D. the President 781. Ad hoc judges can be appointed in the
Ans: A Supreme Court
A. by the Union Law Minister, but such
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777. Which one of the following official appointmentsmust be ratified by the Parliament
discharges the duties of the office of within two months
thePresident, if both the President and B. by the Chief Justice of India with the prior
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VicePresident are not available? consentof the President.

A. the Speaker of Lok Sabha C. by the President on the advice of the Union
B. the Chief Justice of India LawMinister.
C. Chairman of the Union Public Service D. by the Chief Justice of India after consulting
G
Commission otherjudges
D. the Prime Minister Ans: B
Ans: B
782. Which of the following committees
778. The Constitution of India has made comprises of members of Lok Sabha as well as
elaborate arrangement regarding the Rajya Sabha?
distribution of financial resources between the A. The Public Accounts Committee
Centre and the States. Which one is correct B. The Committee on Public Undertakings
among the following? C. The Estimates Committee
1. Certain taxes are imposed by the Centre but D. (a ) and ( b)
collected and appropriated by the States. Ans: D
2. Certain taxes are imposed and collected by
the Centre but are assigned to the States. 783. The chairman of the Union Public Service
3. The state may give grants-in-aid to the Centre Commission is appointed by
4. Certain taxes like the progressive tax are A. the Union Home Minister

B. the President in consultation with the Chief C. none of the above.
Justiceof India D. by the Supreme Court
C. the President Ans: B
D. the Prime Minister
Ans: C 789. The Directive Principles of State Policy
seek
784. Which one of the following does not take A. to establish the supremacy of the Constitution
part in the election of the President? B. to strengthen judiciary
A. none of the above C. to curb the authoritarian rule
B. elected members of Rajya Sabha D. to make the Constitution an instrument of
C. elected members of Lok Sabha socialchange.
D. members of the legislative councils Ans: D
Ans: D
790. The Union Public Service Commission,
785. The Parliament can legislate on any subject which is concerned with the recruitment of civil
in the state list services at the Centre,
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A. if two or more states make a request to A. was provided in the Constitution
Parliamentto do so B. was created through a Presidental Ordinance
e
B. in all the above cases in 1950
C. if the Rajya Sabha declares by a two-third C. was created by an executive resolution which
majorityresolutionthat it is expedient to do so in wasduly endorsedby the Parliament
nationalinterest
D. for the implementation of international
treaties oragreements
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D. was provided under the Indian Independence
Act,1947
Ans: A
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Ans: B
791. Who is competent to prescribe conditions
786. What is the maximum age for election to for acquisition of citizenship?
the office of the President? A. Parliament
A. 75 B. Parliament and state legislatures jointly.
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B. 70 C. President
C. no limit D. Election Commission
D. 65 Ans: A
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Ans: C
787. The main advantage of the Standing

Committee is
G
A. None of the above.

B. The Parliament is able to concentrate on
theexamination of demands of some ministries.
C. The Parliament is able to examine the grants
of allministriesand departments in detail.
D. The Parliament is absolved of the
responsibility ofexamining the grants of the
ministries and departments.
Ans: C
788. The Fundamental Rights of a citizen can be

suspended
A. by the Parliament through a law enacted
bytwothirds majority
B. by the President during a national emergency

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800 +MCQ Q&A

7. The features of Indian parliamentary system

Vigilance Commission are: 4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives.

2. It is headed by the Central Vigilance

4. It is certainly a substitute for an Ombudsman. D. 2, 3 and 4

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3. The Government must resign if a no- Minister

Sabha. 1. Legal status

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17. Which of the following statements are

the village development officer.

18. Consider the following statements with

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of the following sources? B. 1, 3, 4 and 5

3. Executive rules and orders Ans: B

B. 1 and 3 between the Union and the states in the Indian

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1. Salaries and allowances of Chairman of

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Ans: B D. State Governors

A. Indian Councils Act of 1892 corporate body or public institution can be

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codesgiven below the respective lists.

1. Pocket veto D. 2, 4 and 5

UPSC are correct?

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C. Zonal Councils Act Ans: B

C. 1930 Act Assembly.

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73. Which one of the following pairs is correctly

Ans: B 4. He can be removed by the President on his

making power of the Governor are: of Central and state governments.

3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of C. 1, 4 and 5

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and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following

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89. Assertion: The Governor of a state is a C. 1, 2 and 5

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A. President's rule – Article 365 Ans: B

D. Amendment procedure – Article 268 the attention of minister towards a matter of

the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament? C. Adjournment motion

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Ans: D foundation of Central administration?

correct with regard to the prohibition as to the C. Charter Act of 1833

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D. Committee on Assurances explanation of A.

112. Which of the following is not correctly C. A is true but R is false.

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119. If any question arises as to the age of a

Court A. Provincial autonomy

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132. According to Administrative Reforms

4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

1. President of India B. 2, 3 and 4

4. Chief Justice of the State High Court

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D. 2 and 4 A. President of India

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146. The Railway budget has:

C. 32 demands independent constitutional body. Assertion (A)

147. The Vote on Account is passed: explanation of A.