ADMINISTRATION ASNT MODULE

MODULE 1
1. SNT-TC-1A 1992 is applicable to how many NDT methods?
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10
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2. Which of the following statements is true with respect to SNT-TC-1A?
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This document specifies the requirements for establishment of qualification and examination program.

This document provides guidelines for the establishment of qualification and certification program.

This document specifies the requirements for establishment of a qualification and certification program.

This document provides guidelines for the establishment of qualification and examination program
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3. Written testimony of qualification is termed:-
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Documentation

Certification

Testimonial

Authentication
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4. Certifying agency is defined as:-
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The Employer

The Outside Agency

The ASNT Level III

Both The Employer and the ASNT Level III

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5. Which of the following NDT Levels should be qualified to set up and claibrate equipment and to interpret and evaluate results with respect
to applicable codes, standards and sepcifications?
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Level I

Level II

Level III

Level II and Level III

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6. To be considered for certification at Level III a candidate should satisfy which of the following criteria?
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Four years at college or university with a degree in engineering or science plus one years experience in NDT.

Four years at college or university with a degree in engineering or science plus two years experience in NDT.

Three years experience as NDT Level II and one years experience as NDT Level I.

Five years experience as NDT Level II.

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7. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the Written Practice?
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The employer shall establish a written practice.

The written practice should describe levels of responsiblity.

The written practice shall be submitted to clients for acceptability.

The written practice shall be maintained on file.

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8. The requirement for vision examination are as follows:-
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Jaeger J1 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered annually.

Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 15 inches administered annually.

Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered annually.

Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered bi-annually.

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9. The following results were obtained as a result of examination: Practical: 90% General Theory: 68% Specfic Theory: 92% What is the
composite grade and has the candidate passed or failed?
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 83.3% Pass

83.3% Fail

85.5% Pass

85.5% Fail
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10. The number of questions for Ultrasonic Testing at Level 1 General Theory is:
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20

30

35

40
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11. The number of questions for magnetic particle inspection at Level III specific theory is:
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15

20

30

40
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12. When carrying out practical examination at NDT Level III how many check points are necessary to confirm an understanding of NDT
variables and the employers procedural requirements?
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10

15
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13. When carrying out practical examination at NDT Level II the minimum number of samples to be tested is?
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 1

4
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14. A candidate for re-examination must wait a minimum of:-
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7 Days

20 Days

30 days

Receive suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level III before examination

30 Days and receove suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level III before examination
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15. A candidate is required to be examined directly to Level II in Penetrant Inspection. How many months experience must the candidate
have?
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6
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16. Outside training services must be in accordance with the employers written practice and are the responsibility of:-
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NDT Level III

Outside Agency

Employer

Customer
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17. Colour contrast differentiation should be conducted upon initial certification and then:-
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 Annually

At 2 year intervals

At 3 year intervals

At 5 year intervals
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18. The employers certification shall be deemed ??? when employment is terminated.
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Suspended

Annulled

Nullified

Revoked
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19. How many different techniques are identified in leak testing?
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5
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20. Initial experience may be gained simultaneously in two or more methods if the candidate spends a minimum of ??? of work time on each
method for which certification is sought.
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20%

25%

33%

50%

MODULE 2

1. The code of ethics shall be ??? upon every person issued a certificate by ASNT as an NDT Level III?
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 Binding

Optional

Negotiable

Mandatory
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2. An NDT Level III must be completely ??? in any professional report statement on testimony?
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Prejucdiced

Impersonal

Objective

Conventional
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3. An NDT Level III who accepts gratuities from equipment suppliers for specifying their products may be charged under the code of ethics
with?
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Improper conduct

Conflict of interest

Unauthorised practice

None of the above

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4. Conflict of interest with an employer?
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Is unacceptable

May be acceptable if agreement on compensation can be made

Shall be disclosed to the employer

Shall not be made known

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5. The use of employment agencies for securing salaried positions and paying of a commission is considered?
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 Unacceptable

Acceptable

Open to ruling of the Ethics Committe

A felony
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6. Which of the following may be grounds for a charge of a violation of the code of ethics?
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Conviction of a felony

Revocation of professional engineers licence

Suspension of professional engineers licence

All of the above

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7. An NDT Level III shall serve which of the following?
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Employer

Client

Public

All of the above

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8. Which of the following statements is true? An NDT Level III shall...
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Issue no public statments

Criticise NDT matters conneced with public policy

Issue no public statements which are paid for by an interested party

Express no opinion on NDT matters

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9. An NDT Level III who reviewed work that was performed by himself on behalf of another employer when an employed public official wold
be considered?
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 Ethical

Improper conduct

Conflict of interest

Unauthorised practice
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10. An NDT Level III faces a situation where the Health and Safety of the public are not protected. Which of the following actions shall be
taken?
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Notify the proper authority

Refuse to accept responsibility for the deisgn

If necessary sever relationship with the employer

All of the above

MODULE 3

1. How many levels of qualification are defined in CP 189?

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6
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2. Who is responsible for the content of the product technology welding presented as part of training of NDT personnel?
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Metallurgist

Welding engineer

NDT instructor

NDT Level III

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3. A determination of the significance of a relevant indication is defined as?
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Evaluation

Interpretation

Assessment

Appraisal
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4. The skills, training, knowledge and experience required for personnel to properly perform to a specified NDT level is defined as?
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Qualification

Certification

Testimonial

Proficiency
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5. A company requires and NDT instructor. The person in mind has no academic credentials. How many years of NDT expereince as an
NDT Level II or equivalent must the individual have attained?
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 1 year

3 years

5 years

10 years
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6. The requirements for near distance vision are as follows?
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Jaegar J1 at not less than 12 inches administered annually

Jaegar J2 at not less than 12 inches administered annually

Jaegar J1 at not less than 15 inches administered annually

Jaegar J1 at not less than 15 inches administered bi-annually

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7. If an individual has not performed the duties in the method for which he is certified during any consecutive 12 month period his certification
shall be?
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Revoked

Suspended

Terminated

Invalidated
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8. NDT Level III perosnnel shall be recertified by the employer every five years by?
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Examination

ASNT Level III points systems

Verifying the individuals ASNT NDT Level III is current in each method for which recertification is sought

Written documentation
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9. Who is responsible for documentation of records of certification?
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 Outside agency

NDT Level III

NDT Instructor

Employer
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10. The required training hours to go direct to Level II in penetrant inspection is?
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16

24

40
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11. Total number of hours in NDT to be eligible to take the Level II radiography exam (holds Level I) is?
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270

400

800

1200
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12. The minimum number of questions in a Level I radiography general theory exam is?
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15

20

30

40
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13. The minimum number of questions in a Level II magnetic particle inspection specific exam is?
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 15

20

30

40
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14. CP189 details the minimum requirements for the qualification and certification of NDT perosnnel in how many methods?
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10
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15. The use of a mass spectrometer for leak testing is considered to be a?
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Test technique

NDT discipline

NDT method

Test method
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16. Which of the following is not necessary to a document as part of the individuals NDT records?
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Academic qualifications

Vision examination

Levels of certification

Record of previous experience

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17. The employers representative who administers the Level III examinations shall possess?
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 Written testimony from the employer

A company Level III certificate

An ASNT Level III certification

Certification that the individual has met the applicable requirements of SNT-TC-1A
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18. The practical examination at Level II the candidate shall demonstrate proficiency in the applicable NDT method on a minimum of ???
samples?
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10
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19. The employer has deemed an individuals conduct has been unethical and his certification is therefore?
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Revoked

Suspended

Terminated

Invalidated
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20. Reinstatement of suspended certification shall be determined by?
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The employer

The NDT Level III

The outside agency

Either the employer or the NDT level III may be correct dependant upon the NDT level to be reinstated

ANSWERS MODULE 1
 1. 10
2. This document provides guidelines for the establishment
of qualification and certification program.
3. Certification
4. The Employer
5. Level II
6. Four years at college or university with a degree in
engineering or science plus one years experience in NDT.
7. The written practice shall be submitted to clients for
acceptability.
8. Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches
administered annually.
9. 83.3% Fail
10. 40
11. 15
12. 10
13. 1
14. 30 Days and receove suitable additional training as
determined by NDT Level III before examination
15. 3
16. Employer
17. At 3 year intervals
18. Revoked
19. 4
20. 25%
2. Bottom of Form
Bottom of Form
Bottom of Form

ANSWERS MODULE 2
1. Binding
2. Objective
3. Conflict of interest
4. Shall be disclosed to the employer
5. Acceptable
6. All of the above
7. All of the above
8. Issue no public statements which are paid for by an interested
party
9. Conflict of interest
10. All of the above
ANSWERS MODULE 3
 1. 5
2. NDT Level III
3. Evaluation
4. Qualification
5. 10 years
6. Jaegar J1 at not less than 12 inches administered annually
7. Suspended
8. Verifying the individuals ASNT NDT Level III is current in
each method for which recertification is sought
9. Employer
10. 16
11. 1200
12. 40
13. 15
14. 9
15. Test technique
16. Academic qualifications
17. An ASNT Level III certification
18. 2
19. Revoked
20. Either the employer or the NDT level III may be correct
dependant upon the NDT level to be reinstated

PCN MODULE 1
1. Which of the following describes the PCN vision requirements?
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PSL 44

ISO 9712
 EN 4179

The Jaegar Eyechart

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2. What is the date of implementation of this document?
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01.02.01

03.10.00

01.04.97

01.01.92
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3. How many hours training are requested for access to Visual Testing L2 for a candidate holding VT L1?
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16

24

40

80
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4. What is the maximum amount of on the job training which can be claimed against the training requirements in Gen 97?
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25% of the time required

30% of the time required

33% of the time required

50% of the time required

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5. How many hours training are required prior to taking the Basic Radiation Safety exam?
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None

8
 16

24
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6. Which of the following documents is PCN accredited against as a Certification Body operating Certification of Personnel?
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ISO 9712: 1992

EN 473: 1993

EN 45012: 1989

EN 45013: 1989
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7. What is the document number of PCN's code of conduct for accredition holders?
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GEN 97

ISO 9712

CP 27

PSL 31
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8. Which Appendix relates to the Welds sector?
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D
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9. To which of the following answers does this definition refer? The procedure for revalidation of certification without examination after the
first five year period of validity.
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Recertification

Re-examination
 Renewal

Validation
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10. Details of work activities are required for renewal of certification, which PCN document details these requirements?
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CP 16

CP 19

CP 27

PSL 32
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11. The pass mark for all supplementary exams shall be?
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80%

75%

70%

Depends on which method is taken

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12. PCN Test Centres will retain exam results for a period of?
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9 years

10 years

11 years

12 years
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13. A change of employer shall require re-examination?
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True

False
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14. Applicants for Level 2 supplementary examinations shall be required to show evidence of the accumulation of points?
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 True

False
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15. The procedure for recertification of PCN L3 cetificates is detailed in PCN document?
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OP16

CP17

CP19

PSL4
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16. Calculate the Composite grade for the Basic exam? Part A scored 78% and Part B scored 94%.
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78%

80%

85%

86%
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17. What result do these scores for a Basic L3 exam give? Part A scored 68% and Part B scored 84%.
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Fail, retest at Part A allowed

Fail, no retest allowed

Pass

More information is needed to decide

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18. What result do the following scores give for a PT L2 exam? General 70% Specific 70% Parctical 90%.
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Fail, retest of any parts 2 allowed

Fail, no retest allowed

 Pass

More information needed to decide

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19. What result do the following scores give for a VT Level 1 exam? General 90% Specific 68% Practical 90%.
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Fail, retest allowed on specific exam

Fail, no retest allowed

Pass

More information needed to decide

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20. What result do the following scores give for a UT Welds Method Level 3 exam? C1 70% C2 80% C3 80%.
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Fail, retest of any 3 parts allowed

Fail, no retest allowed

Pass

More information needed to decide

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21. In the Level 3 exam which paper covers the understanding of PCN Gen 97?
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C2

C3

A1

A2
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22. How many questions are asked in the ET Level 1 general exam?
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30

40
 30 + 4 narrative

40 + 4 narrative
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23. How long is calculated as being allowed for each multiple choice question in a Level 2 exam paper?
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2.5 minutes

2 minutes

1.5 minutes

1 minute
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24. When considering eligibility for Level 3 exams and NOT holding a Level 2 Certificate in that method how much work experience is
required - if the candidate does not hold a degree?
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12 months

24 months

48 months

72 months
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25. Which organisation has accredited PCN as an accreditation body?
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European Commission

ISO

UKAS

BINDT
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26. It is possible to be examined as a Level 1 Radiographic Interpreter?
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True

False
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27. Part B of the Basic L3 exam must include questions from the principal method for which L3 Certification is sought?
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 True

False
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28. The Basic exam is passed in May 1998 and the Method exam is passed in June 2000 does the examinee qualify for a Level 3 in that
method?
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Yes

No
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29. The C2 exam of the Method Level 3 comprises?
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40 multichoice questions

30 multichoice questions

30 multichoice questions plus 3 from 5 narrative

20 multichoice questions
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30. To which of the following does this definition relate? A specific way of utilising an NDT method.
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NDT Method

NDT Technique

NDT Instruction

NDT Procedure

ANSWERS PCN MODULE 1

1. PSL 44
2. 01.04.97
3. 24
4. 33% of the time required
5. 16
6. EN 45013: 1989
7. CP 27
8. C
9. Renewal
 10. CP 16
11. 80%
12. 11 years
13. False
14. True
15. CP17
16. 86%
17. Fail, no retest allowed
18. Pass
19. Fail, retest allowed on specific exam
20. Fail, retest of any 3 parts allowed
21. A2
22. 40
23. 1.5 minutes
24. 72 months
25. UKAS
26. False
27. True
28. Yes
29. 20 multichoice questions
30. NDT Technique
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9. Bottom of Form

PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 1

1. Products used in load carrying applications require more careful testing because?
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Failure can cause loss of life

Failure can cause loss of use of the product

Failure can be expensive

 Failure can cause danger to other structures

All the above

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2. Loads which are most likely to cause failure are?
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Single direction

Multi directional

Duo directional

Pahse orientated
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3. The general term for a local variation in material continuity is called?
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A discontinuity

A defect

An indication

A crack
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4. Where an unacceptable condition occurs in a material, due to local variations in material continuity the term given specifically to this is?
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A discontinuity

A flaw

A defect

Any of the above

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5. Which of the following could be considered a discontinuity?
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Crack

Change of section
 Drilled holed

All the above

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6. The study and description of a material property related to analytical studies and testing attempts to quantify the toughness of a material is
known as?
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Fracture mechanics

Acceptance standards

Defect reliability

Defect analysis
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7. A flaw which is deemed to be unacceptable standards is called?
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A discontinuity

A defect

An indication

A blemish
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8. Which of the following is NOT considered a mode of failure?
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Fracture

Plastic deformation

Fatigue

Elastic deformation
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9. Brittle fracture is most likely to occur?
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At high temperatures

At low temperatures
 Under cyclic loading

In a corrosive environment
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10. NDT is generally not carried out on cast irons because?
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Cast iron is inherently free from major defects

Due to the high carbon content cast iron can withstand high tensile stresses

It is generally used in applications where the loads are principally comprehensive

The low cost of cast iron cannot justify the high cost of NDT
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11. To make by hand, machinery or by agency: To produce by labour and usally machinery, defines the?
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Manufacturing process

Engineering process

Machinery process

Technology
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12. Processing is one or more steps that change a Products?
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Shape

Properties

Chemical analysis

Shape and Properties

All the above

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13. Changing a material's shape can be accomplished in which of the following states?
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Solid

Liquid
 Plastic

Solid and Liquid

All of the above

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14. Which of the following is an example of reshaping?
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Casting

Forging

Grinding

All of the above

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15. The process of solidification during casting can be likened to that of the?
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Forging process

Rolling process

Welding process

Extrusion process
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16. Reshaping of a material whilst in a plastic or semi-solid form is called?
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Casting

Rolling

Extrusion

All of the above

Rolling and Extrusion

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17. Which of the following could be referred to as an engineering material?
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 Plastic

Concrete

Glass

All of the above

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18. Which of the following properties of a material can be used to predict the deflection of a certain size beam under known loads?
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Tensile strength

Elastic limit

Younges modules

Ductility
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19. Which of the following must be considered when choosing an engineering material for a particular application?
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Cost

Loading

Mechanical properties

Inspection costs

Any of the above

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20. Which of the following could effect the properties of an engineering material?
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Composition

Heat treated condition

Crystal structure

Composition and heat treated condition

Composition, heat treated condition and crystal strucure

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21. Which of the following is classed as a chemical property?
 Top of Form

Electrical conductivity

Thermal conductivity

Corrosion resistance

Machine resistance
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22. Which of the following is classed as a Physical property?
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Density

Conductivity

Melting point

All of the above

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23. A test designed to determine a materials castability would be classified as looking for a?
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Mechanical property

Physical property

Processing property

Chemical property
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24. Internal forces acting upon imaginary planes cutting the body being loaded are?
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Stresses

Pressures

Strain

Fatigues
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25. A stress caused by forces at an angle to the plane is known as a?
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 Comprehensive stress

Tensile stress

Normal stress

Shear stress
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26. A non-destructive test is usually classified as a?
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Indirect test

Direct test

Destructive test

Indirect and direct test

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27. If a material is loaded until its elastic limit is exceeded, what condition will occur?
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The material may fracture

The material may be work hardened

The material will show no harmful effects

The material may fracture and the material may be work hardened
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28. The ultimate strength of material is?
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Lower than the breaking strength for ductile materials

Lower than the rupture strength for ductile materials

The same as the breaking strength for brittle materials

None of the above

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29. The modulus of elasticity is also known as?
Top of Form
 Stress's modulus

Young's modulus

Strain's modulus

Resilience
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30. Which of the following materials exhibits better compressive strength than tensile strength?
Top of Form

Cast iron

Concrete

Wood

Concrete and wood

All the above

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31. When a metal is very brittle which test is used to replace the tensile test?
Top of Form

The shear test

The transverse rupture test

The compression test

The endurance test

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32. Fatigue failure may initiate from?
Top of Form

An area of corrosion

An internal flaw

A surface notch

All the above

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33. Which of the following is a Notched Bar test?
Top of Form
 Tensile impact test

Charphy test

Izod test

Charpy test and izod test

All the above

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34. Hardness tests can be used to determine material?
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Hardness

Composition

Heat treated condition

All the above

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35. The superficial Rockwell test is carried out on materials that?
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Only allow very small surface blemishes

Are very ductile

Have very large surface areas

None of the above

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36. Calculate the factor of safety given that a materials has a working stress of 15, 000 ibs per square inch and an elastic limit of 60, 000 lbs
per square inch?
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8
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37. Which of the following is a notched bar test?
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 Charpy

Creep

Izod

Charpy and Izod

All of the above

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38. To what angle should a bend test be normally bent?
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180 degrees

150 degrees

90 degrees

None of the above

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39. Which of the following is a hardness test?
Top of Form

Rockwell

Creep

Charpy

Izod
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40. Stresses that act along or parallel to a plane are known as?
Top of Form

Shear stresses

Tensile stresses

Compressive stresses

All of the above

PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 2

1. Electrons in an atom can exist?
 Top of Form

Only in exact energy levels

Only in exact energy shells

At random throughout the atom

In Exact energy levels and in exact energy shells

All the above

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2. A material that has high hardness and good electrical and thermal connectivity is known as?
Top of Form

A plastic material

A ceramic material

A metallic material

A liquid material
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3. What term is used to define the change of state directly from solid to gas?
Top of Form

Crystalisation

Vaporisation

Sublimation

None of the above

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4. Which of the following is a crystal lattice that has nine atoms, eight at each corner and one centrally between them?
Top of Form

Hexagonal close packing

Body centred cubic

Face centred cubic

Body centred tetragonal

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5. Which of the following materials is Body centred cubic at room temperature?
Top of Form
 Copper

Gold

Iron

Nickel
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6. A property of a fine grain material is that it will?
Top of Form

Machine more easily than corse grain

Case harden more easily than coarse grain

Have higher strength than coarse grain

All the above

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7. Permanent deformation can occur in which of the following ways?
Top of Form

Static deformation

Twinning deformation

Elastic deformation

All of the above

Bottom of Form
8. Work done to produce plastic deformation below a materials re-crystallisation temperature is known as?
Top of Form

Recovery work

Cold work

Twinning

Plasticity work
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9. Solution heat treatment requires which of the following?
Top of Form
 To dissolve maximum amount of equilibrium preciptant in the solid solution

Very high temperatures

Diffusion times in excess of 24 hours

All of the above

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10. Preciptation hardening is most commonly carried out on which of the following materials?
Top of Form

Carbon steel

Lead

Copper

Alluminium
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11. Altropic changes occur in the?
Top of Form

Liquid state

Solid state

Gaseous state

Liquid or solid state

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12. Which of the following is an allotropic material?
Top of Form

Iron

Copper

Lead

Aluminium
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13. A heat treatment process that requires a material to be heated above its critical temperature for some period of time for carbon to unite in
solid solution with iron in the gamma or F.C.C. lattice is known as?
Top of Form
 Spherodizing

Annealing

Austentitization

Normalising
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14. A process used to decrease hardness, increase ductility and occasionally improve machinability of high carbon steels is called?
Top of Form

Annealing

Austenitization

Spheroidizing

Stress relieving
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15. A treatment that is used to give minimum hardness and maximum ductility of steel is?
Top of Form

Annealing

Austenitization

Spheroidizing

Normalising
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16. Localised corrosion causing deep extend holes is known as?
Top of Form

Fisives

Pitting

Worm holes

None of the above

Bottom of Form
17. Which of the following is classed as permanent deformation?
Top of Form
 Twinning

Rotational deformation

Slip

Twinning and Slip

All of the above

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18. Annealing will achieve which of the following properties?
Top of Form

Increase ductility and decrease hardness

Increase ductility and increase hardness

Decrease ductility and increase hardness

Decrease ductility and decrease hardness

Bottom of Form
19. Of the following metals which is most suceptible to corrosion by sea water?
Top of Form

Gold

Copper

Zinc

Lead
Bottom of Form
20. During the hardening of steel which of the following quenching media will produce the severest quench?
Top of Form

Water

Brine

Oil

Air
Bottom of Form
21. Which is the most common metallic element found on earth?
Top of Form
 Iron

Titanium

Aluminium

Magnesium
Bottom of Form
22. The product of a blast furnace is known as?
Top of Form

Iron

Steel

Pig iron

A pig
Bottom of Form
23. What is the approproximate carbon content of Pig iron?
Top of Form

1-2%

2-3%

3-4%

4-5%
Bottom of Form
24. When the carbon content of iron is reduced below 2% it is called?
Top of Form

Steel

Gray iron

White iron

Ductile iron
Bottom of Form
25. A Bessemer converter is?
Top of Form
 A method of producing cast iron

A method of producing pig iron

A method of producing wrought iron

A method of producing steel

Bottom of Form
26. Practically all steel is made with the use of?
Top of Form

Hydrogen

Oxygen

Nitrogen

Helium
Bottom of Form
27. The carbon content of low carbon steel is?
Top of Form

6-25 points of carbon

25-50 points of carbon

0.06%-0.25% of carbon

6-25 points and 0.06%-0.25% of carbon

None of the above

Bottom of Form
28. The carbon content of high carbon steel is?
Top of Form

6-25 points of carbon

25-50 points of carbon

50-160 points of carbon

Over 160 points of carbon

Bottom of Form
29. An alloy steel is a steel containing one or more?
Top of Form
 Elements

Atoms

Mixtures

Components
Bottom of Form
30. What do the letters AISI?
Top of Form

American Institute of Steel Industries

American Iron and Steel Industries

American Industries of Steel Institutes

American Iron and Steel Institute

Bottom of Form
31. Which of teh following is a classification of Stainless Steel?
Top of Form

Ferritic

Martensitic

Austenitic

Ferritic and Austenitic

All of the above

Bottom of Form
32. Austenitic stainless steel most typically contain?
Top of Form

18% Chromium 8% Nickel

15% Chromium 10% Nickel

10% Chromium 15% Nickel

8% Chromium 18% Nickel

Bottom of Form
33. Which of the following metals can be magentised?
Top of Form
 Martensitic stainless

Ferritic stainless

Austenitic stainless

Martensitic stainless and Ferritic stainless

None of the above

Bottom of Form
34. Which of the following may be used as an alloying element of steel?
Top of Form

Copper

Nickel

Aluminium

None of the above

All the above

Bottom of Form
35. Steel has a carbon content of less than?
Top of Form

4%

3%

2%

1%
Bottom of Form
36. Which is the main alloying element of austenitic stainless steels?
Top of Form

Nickel

Manganese

Molybdenum

Chromium
Bottom of Form
37. Which of the following furnaces is NOT used to produce steel?
 Top of Form

Blast furnace

Bessemer converter

Basic oxygen furnace

Open hearth furnace

Bottom of Form
38. Tool and die steels are classed as?
Top of Form

Low carbon steels

Medium carbon steels

High carbon steels

Alloy steels
Bottom of Form
39. Which of the following alloying additions are used to produce tool and die steels?
Top of Form

Nickel

Chromium

Manganese

All of the above

Both Chromium and Manganese

Bottom of Form

PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 3

1. Which of the following is classified as a non-ferrous light alloy?
Top of Form

Beryllium base

Zinc base
 Tin base

Copper base
Bottom of Form
2. Of the following, which is considered the most important structural non-ferrous metal?
Top of Form

Copper

Zinc

Tin

Aluminium
Bottom of Form
3. Aluminium cannot be used in most areas where vibrations combine with high stress. There are special care has to be taken to remove all
stress raisers. Which below is considered a stress rasier?
Top of Form

A notch

A scratch

A sudden change of section

A notch and a scratch

All of the above

Bottom of Form
4. When applying the term annealed to pure aluminium it is interpreted to mean?
Top of Form

Work hardenning

Re-crsytalisation

Stress releasing

Normalising
Bottom of Form
5. Which NDT method can be used to give general sorting of aluminium alloys?
Top of Form

UT

MT
 RT

ET
Bottom of Form
6. Which metal is most used in electrical work, wiring, etc?
Top of Form

Copper

Brass

Aluminium

Steel
Bottom of Form
7. It is generally understood that the principal alloying elements of brass are?
Top of Form

Copper and tin

Copper and zinc

Bronze and tin

Tin and zinc

Bottom of Form
8. Which two NDT methods are usually used to inspect Magnesium components?
Top of Form

Radiography and penetrant

Radiography and magnetic particle

Ultrasonic and magnetic particle

Ultrasonic and penetrant

Bottom of Form
9. Wrought zinc and its alloys have very little NDT inspection on them, when a material is plated with zinc it is known as?
Top of Form

Anodizing

Wrapping
 Galvanising

Flashing
Bottom of Form
10. Thermoplasting can be?
Top of Form

Melted down and re-used without loss of properties

Softened by heat

Will char when heated

Melted down and re-used without loss of properties and softened by heat
Bottom of Form
11. Thermosetting plastics are?
Top of Form

Rigid

Deteriorated by heat

Charred by heat

All of the above

Bottom of Form
12. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is classed as a light alloy?
Top of Form

Beryllium base

Zinc base

Tin base

All of the above

Bottom of Form
13. Which of the metals listed below has the highest strength to weight ratio?
Top of Form

Beryllium

Titanium
 Aluminium

Zinc
Bottom of Form
14. One of the major drawbacks of magnesium alloys is?
Top of Form

Poor corrosion resistance

Notch sensitivity

High density

More expensive than using beryllium which exhibits similar properties

Bottom of Form
15. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is almost exclusively die-cast?
Top of Form

Aluminium

Copper

Magnesium

Zinc
Bottom of Form
16. Cobalt is used as an alloying constituent in?
Top of Form

Bearing alloys

Solders

Permanent magnets

Dental alloys
Bottom of Form
17. Manufacturing is a term used generally to describe the ??? of a bulk material?
Top of Form

Designing

Production
 Shape changing

Casting
Bottom of Form
18. Which of the following is classed as a manufacturing process?
Top of Form

Casting

Welding

Machining

Rolling

All of the above

Bottom of Form
19. Which of the following manufacturing processes is the most economical method of producing complex shapes?
Top of Form

Casting

Forging

Rolling

Welding
Bottom of Form
20. In modern manufacturing industries which of the following factors are considered?
Top of Form

Markets

Product life

Design

Manufacturing process

All of the above

Bottom of Form
21. Which of the following is required when making a sand casting?
Top of Form
 A mold

A pattern

A flask

All of the above

Bottom of Form
22. Shrinkage within a casting can occur in which of the following states?
Top of Form

Liquid state

Solidification

Solid state

Solidification and solid state

All of the above

Bottom of Form
23. Pattern makers shrinkage occurs in?
Top of Form

Liquid state of casting

Solidification state of casting

Solid state of casting

All of the above

Bottom of Form
24. When a change of wall thickness is required in a casting what would give the best design results?
Top of Form

Sudden section change

Small radii

Large radii

All of the above

Bottom of Form
25. Metal is fed into the casting cavity through a ??? system?
Top of Form
 Flow system

Gating system

Pouring system

Riser system
Bottom of Form
26. Wells outside the normal finished casting are there to allow for?
Top of Form

Gas evolution

Sand erosion

Shrinkage

Airlocks
Bottom of Form
27. Directional solidification in Castings is helped by the use of?
Top of Form

Cores

Feederheaders

Chills

Chaplets
Bottom of Form
28. Where holes or cavities are required in the finished casting a ??? is used in the modling stage?
Top of Form

Chill

Ingate

Riser

Core
Bottom of Form
29. Green sand is a mixture of sand and?
Top of Form
 Clay

Silicon

Water

Clay and water

All of the above

Bottom of Form
30. The upper half of a flask is called?
Top of Form

A drag

A cope

A draft

A mould
Bottom of Form
31. Small metal supports which become part of the casting during pouring are called?
Top of Form

Chills

Chaplets

Cores

Risers
Bottom of Form
32. Which of the following casting processes is best used for small intricate casting - upto 2kg - requiring close tolerances?
Top of Form

Centrifugal casting

Investment casting

Continuous casting

Permanent mold casting

Bottom of Form
33. The casting process which gives improved material density towrads the outside of teh mold is?
Top of Form
 Centrifugal casting

Investment casting

Continuous casting

Permanent mold casting

Bottom of Form
34. The casting process which produces bar is known as?
Top of Form

Centrifugal casting

Last wax process

Continuous casting

Plaster mold casting

Bottom of Form
35. Splashed metal entrapped by molten metal that does not re-fuse is called?
Top of Form

Hot tear

Chill

Inclusion

Cold shut
Bottom of Form
36. The bottom part of the flask is known as the?
Top of Form

Cope

Bottom board

Drag

Runner
Bottom of Form
37. Which of the following is used to give preferential solidification of castings?
Top of Form
 Chills

Chaplets

Cores

None of the above

Bottom of Form
38. In the casting process what name is given to the part which is used to represent the finished item?
Top of Form

The mould

The spruce

The pattern

The shell
Bottom of Form
39. The crystal structure of a casting adjacent to the mould wall will be?
Top of Form

Fine equiaxed grains

Core equiaxed grains

Columnar grains

Dendritic
Bottom of Form
40. Shrinkage occuring in the casting process can be divided into how many stages?
Top of Form

4
Bottom of Form

PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 4

1. Which of the following is required - in theory - for two perfectly matched faces?
Top of Form
 Atomic cleanliness

Atomic closeness

Pressure

Atomic cleanliness and atomic pressure

All the above

Bottom of Form
2. Fusion bonding creates a metallurgical effect similar to?
Top of Form

Rolling

Forging

Casting

Sintering
Bottom of Form
3. The bonding process giving very high efficiency is?
Top of Form

Fusion bonding

Pressure bonding

Flow bonding

Atomic bonding
Bottom of Form
4. A bonding process where only very small amounts of the base metal is used is called?
Top of Form

Fusion bonding

Pressure bonding

Flow bonding

Cold bonding
Bottom of Form
5. Flow bonding is a particular type of bond, which listed below would be classed as a flow bond?
Top of Form
 Fusion welding

Braze welding

Metal arc welding

None of the above

Bottom of Form
6. Which of these defects can be found in fusion welds?
Top of Form

Porosity

Slag

Cracks

All of the above

Bottom of Form
7. That portion of the base metal affected by the welding process is known as?
Top of Form

The weld zone

The heat input zone

The weld affect zone

The heat affected zone

Bottom of Form
8. Multiple cooling rates can have adverse affects on weld areas. What can be done to offset this problem?
Top of Form

Use different alloy rods to control temperature

Using a pre-heat

Use different alloy rods to control temperature and using a pre-heat

Nothing can be done to offset the problem

Bottom of Form
9. Angular distortionmay occur in a weld when?
Top of Form
 Restraints are used

Multipass welds are used

Single pass welds are used

Multiple welds and single pass welds are used

Bottom of Form
10. Longitudinal stresses in a weld are at a maximum?
Top of Form

Along the weld centre line

On the weld fusion face

At the heat affected zone

Lomgitudinal stresses are uniform across teh weld

Bottom of Form
11. What is required to form a fusion bond?
Top of Form

Melting of parent metals

A filler rod

Pressure

All of the above

Bottom of Form
12. Flow bonding is a term used in the welding process which of the following would be classed as flow bonding?
Top of Form

Brazing

Braze welding

Soldering

All of the above

Bottom of Form
13. To join two metals which of teh following is essential?
Top of Form
 Atomic closeness

Atomic cleanliness

Melting

Atomic closeness and cleanliness

All the above

Bottom of Form
14. In order to produce a fully homgenous material afetr welding which of the following is required?
Top of Form

Preheat

Post heat treatment

Low heat input welding

Fillers of different composition

Bottom of Form
15. In electric arc welding, a metal rod is one electrode, the other is?
Top of Form

The work material

The rod flux

The earth

The work material and the rod flux

Bottom of Form
16. Stud welding is used primarily to?
Top of Form

Bond two dissimilar metals

Attach threaded fasteners to plates

Rivot plates together

Fuse bar ends together

Bottom of Form
17. A welding electrode coatings provides?
Top of Form
 A shield for the arc against the atmosphere

Added heat input

Additional stresses to the weld

None of the above

Bottom of Form
18. Where gas is used as a shield for the welding process the gas is commonly?
Top of Form

Argon

Helium

Hydrogen

Argon and Helium

All of the above

Bottom of Form
19. When using gas metal arc welding what range of filler wire diameter is available?
Top of Form

0.1-0.5mm

0.5-3mm

0.1-30mm

0.5-10mm
Bottom of Form
20. Automatic welding under a flux is more commonly known as?
Top of Form

TIG welding

Manual metal arc welding

Submerged arc welding

Stick welding
Bottom of Form
21. Spot welding is commonly used in which of the following applications?
Top of Form
 Car manufacturing

Seam welding

Shipbuilding

Fabrication yards
Bottom of Form
22. Which welding process takes place in a vacuum?
Top of Form

Plasma arc welding

Electron beam welding

Friction welding

Explosion welding
Bottom of Form
23. Which welding process is generally used to weld the ends of heavy round bars or tubes?
Top of Form

Ultrasonic welding

Electroslag welding

Plasma arc welding

Friction welding
Bottom of Form
24. Explosion welding is generally used to join?
Top of Form

Two or more metals of different composition

Butt welds

Very think titanium sheeting

Plastics
Bottom of Form
25. The drawing symbol at the bottom of the page marked one illustrates a?
Top of Form
 Bevel groove

Fillet

J Groove

Vee Groove
Bottom of Form
26. The drawing symbol at the bottom of the page marked two illustrates a?
Top of Form

Vee Groove

J Groove

U Groove

Bevel Groove
Bottom of Form
27. AWS categorise weld defects into three classes which below is a dimensional defect?
Top of Form

Slag

Warping

Lack of fusion

Porosity
Bottom of Form
28. Which of the following is classed as a structural defect?
Top of Form

Undercut

Slag

Incomplete fusion

Slag and incomplete fusion

All of the above

Bottom of Form
29. Which of the following defects occur in the base metal?
Top of Form
 Lamination

Slag inclusion

Lack of fusion

Lack of penetration
Bottom of Form
30. Welds without preheat are said to have?
Top of Form

Very low thermal gradients

Low thermal gradients

Medium thermal gradients

High thermal gradients

Bottom of Form
31. Why is it advisable to leave final inspection of a weld until well after welding has finished?
Top of Form

Because the welds will be too hot to test

Due to the possibility of distortion

Due to the possibility of post weld cracking

All of the above

Bottom of Form
32. What is the approximate arc column temperature in an electric arc weld?
Top of Form

6000 degrees celsius

5000 degrees celsius

4000 degrees celsius

3000 degrees celsius

Bottom of Form
33. Which of the following is classified as an inert gas?
Top of Form
 Hydrogen

Helium

Oxygen

All of the above

Hydrogen and helium only

Bottom of Form
34. Which weld process has a non-consumable electrode?
Top of Form

Manual metal arc

Metal inert gas

Tungsten inert gas

Manual metal arc and metal inert gas

Bottom of Form
35. The weld symbol µ is used to symbolise a?
Top of Form

Fillet weld

U-Groove

Bevel groove

None of the above

Bottom of Form
36. When using basic symbols for NDT what letters are used to denote liquid penetrant testing?
Top of Form

LPT

FPT

PT

RPT
Bottom of Form
37. hich of the following processes could be performed using oxyacetylene equipment?
Top of Form
 Flame cutting

Brazing

Soldering

Brazing and Soldering

All of the above

Bottom of Form
38. How might a weld arc be shielded from oxidation?
Top of Form

Flux powders

Welding rod coatings

Inert gases

Welding rod coatings and inert gases

All of the above

Bottom of Form
39. The ease with which a solid union may be made between two parts by welding is known as?
Top of Form

Weldability

Joining

Buttering

Soldering
Bottom of Form
40. A typical temperature range to stress relieve ferritic steel is?
Top of Form

100-150 degrees celsius

250-300 degrees celsius

600-650 degrees celsius

900-950 degrees celsius

Bottom of Form
 PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 5
1. Which of the following metals has very little ductility?
Top of Form

Copper

Steel

Iron

Aluminium
Bottom of Form
2. Mechanical properties are generally improved?
Top of Form

In the direction of rolling

30 degrees to the direction of rolling

45 degrees to the direction of rolling

90 degrees to the direction of rolling

Bottom of Form
3. Grain refinement for metals existing in one crystalline form can be accomplished by?
Top of Form

Hot working

Cold working

Recrystallisation

Hot working and recrystallisation

All the above

Bottom of Form
4. For steels hot working is performed at temperatures of?
Top of Form

500-750 degrees celsius

750-950 degrees celsius

 950-1300 degrees celsius

1300-1500 degrees celsius

Bottom of Form
5. How generally is a decarburised layer removed?
Top of Form

Heat treatment

Surface removal

Stress relief

Annealing

All of the above

Bottom of Form
6. Improved properties can be achieved by?
Top of Form

Cold rolling

Hot rolling

Extrusion

All of the above

Bottom of Form
7. Most materials used in Mill work start out as?
Top of Form

Cast ingots

Slabs

Billets

Blooms
Bottom of Form
8. Which listed below have approximately square cross sections?
Top of Form

Slab

Bloom
 Billet

Bloom and Billet

All of the above

Bottom of Form
9. Of these methods listed below which will eliminate the need for an ingot?
Top of Form

Hot rolling

Continuous casting

Extrusion

None of the above

Bottom of Form
10. Which of the following may be considered as a flat product of the steel mill?
Top of Form

Sheet

Plate

Strip

Sheet and Strip

All of the above

Bottom of Form
11. Mill work covers many products. Which below would be classed as a mill product?
Top of Form

Pipe

Tube

Casting

Pipe and tube

None of the above

Bottom of Form
12. Pipe and tube may be manufactured using which technique?
Top of Form
 Extruding

Rolling

Resistance welding

Extruding and Rolling

All of the above

Bottom of Form
13. One type of forging operation uses?
Top of Form

Rolling

Casting

Open dies

Extrusion
Bottom of Form
14. The principal NDT method to locate internal discontinuities in forgings is?
Top of Form

UT

RT

ET

MT
Bottom of Form
15. Impact forging is more commonly known as?
Top of Form

Open die forging

Drop forging

Closed die

Rotary swaging
Bottom of Form
16. The term used in powder metallurgy for the bonding of the solid particles is?
Top of Form
 Pressing

Blending

Sintering

Mixing
Bottom of Form
17. A typical application of powder metallurgy parts is?
Top of Form

Cutting tools

Castings for human implants

Extrusion of thin sections

Metal fabrication of minute welds

Bottom of Form
18. Which of the following has an essentially rectangular cross-section?
Top of Form

Bar

Bloom

Slab

Billet
Bottom of Form
19. Which of the following is an advantage of the continuous casting process?
Top of Form

Removes the requirement for ingots

Reduces wastage of material

Can produce intricate cross sections

Removes the requirement for ingots and reduces wastage of material

All of the above

Bottom of Form
20. Sheets of metal before it is rolled into pipe using a welding bell is called?
Top of Form
 Strip stock

Skelp

Pipe stock

Tube stock
Bottom of Form
21. Which extrusion process uses less pressure due to lower build ups of friction container and billet?
Top of Form

Direct hot working

Indirect cold working

Indirect hot working

Direct cold working

Bottom of Form
22. Powder metallurgy is used to shape produce refractory metals. Which of the following is classed as a refractory material?
Top of Form

Inconel

Magnesium

Tungsten

Beryllium
Bottom of Form
23. The shearing operation has many forms - names - of those listed below which is a shearing operation?
Top of Form

Bending

Drawing

Forming

Parting
Bottom of Form
24. During the bending process what stresses are produced within the material?
Top of Form
 Compressive

Shear

Tensile

Compressive and Tenisle

All of the above

Bottom of Form
25. In explosive forming?
Top of Form

Gun powder is used

High explosive is used

Slow buring propellants are used

High explosive and slow buring propellants are used

Bottom of Form
26. Which of the following is a hole making operation?
Top of Form

Splitting

Parting

Blanking

Notching
27. In the machining process metal is removed in the form of?
Top of Form

Swarf

Chips

Fillings

Turnings
Bottom of Form
28. High speed steels are generally used for which type of cutting tool?
Top of Form
 Grinders

Drills

Files

Abrasives
Bottom of Form
29. The letters N/C in machine work stand for?
Top of Form

Numerical control

Number cycle

Numerical cutting

Number counting
Bottom of Form
30. Which of the following may be used as a cutting tool material?
Top of Form

Diamonds

Cast iron

Cemented carbides

Both diamonds and cemented carbides

Bottom of Form
31. What material is usually used in injection molding?
Top of Form

Thermosetting plastics

Thermoplastics

Ceramics

Powder metals
Bottom of Form
32. What materials are required for reinforced plastic molding?
Top of Form
 Filler

Resin

Wood Shavings

Filler and Resin

All of the above

Bottom of Form
33. Laminates are a composite form which below would be classed as a laminate?
Top of Form

Fibreglass

Honeycomb

Ceramics

Fibreglass and Honeycomb

Bottom of Form
34. The letters EDM stands for?
Top of Form

Electronic digital meter

Electro discharge motor

Electrical discharge machinery

Electro dispensing machine

Bottom of Form
35. The common term used to denote the 'light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation' is?
Top of Form

Laser

Cathode ray tube

Photon Gun

Optical microscope
Bottom of Form
36. Composites may be made up of which of the following material combinations?
Top of Form
 Combinations of different metals

Combinations of different metals and non metals

Combinations of different non metals

All of the above

Bottom of Form
37. Case hardening is accomplished by?
Top of Form

Carburizing

Heat treating

Flame hardening

Carburizing and flame hardening

Bottom of Form
38. With which NDT method is surface cleanliness most important?
Top of Form

UT

PT

MT

RT
Bottom of Form
39. Abrasive finishing could be classified by which of the following methods?
Top of Form

Wire brush

Polishing

Buffing

All of the above

Bottom of Form
40. Electro plated surfaces are ususally quite thin. Which common NDT methd is used to measure the plate thickness?
Top of Form
 MT

UT

ET

PT
Bottom of Form
41. Which materials can best be anodised?
Top of Form

Steel

Copper

Aluminium

Brass
Bottom of Form
42. Which of the following is not a form of case hardening?
Top of Form

Spheroidising

Carburing

Flame hardening

Nitriding
Bottom of Form
43. Which of the following is a measuring device?
Top of Form

Micrometer

Vernier

Steel rule

All of the above

Bottom of Form
44. Fixed guages are used?
Top of Form
Only on single purpose applications

To measure internal bores

Shape relationships

All of the above

Bottom of Form

Bottom of Form