PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY (PART 2)

1. When cleansing the skin with alcohol and then iodine for the collection of a blood culture, the iodine (or iodophor)
should remain in contact on the skin for at least:
A. 10 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 60 seconds D. 5 minutes
2. What is the purpose of adding 0.025% - 0.050% sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the
collection of blood cultures?
A. Inhibits phagocytosis and complement C. Enhances growth of anaerobes
B. Promotes formation of a blood clot D. Functions as a preservative
3. Select the media of choice for recovery of Vibrio cholerae from a stool specimen:
A. MacConkey agar and thioglycolate media
B. TCBS and alkaline peptone water
C. Blood agar and selenite F broth
D. Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar
4. Blood agar plates are ideally prepared with 5% RBCs obtained from:
A. Sheep B. Horses C. Humans D. Dogs
5. Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:
A. Yersinia enterocolitica C. Clostridium perfringens
B. Yersinia intermedia D. Clostridium difficile
6. Prereduced and Vitamin K1 supplemented blood agar plates are recommended isolation media for:
A. Mycobacterium marinum and M. avium
B. Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus and Clostridium spp.
C. Proteus spp.
D. Enterococcus spp.
7. Which procedure is appropriate for culture of genital specimens in order to recover Chlamydia spp.?
A. Inoculate cycloheximide treated McCoy’s cells
B. Plate onto blood and chocolate agr
C. Inoculate into thioglycolate broth
D. Plate onto modified Thayer-Martin agar within 24 hours
8. The Voges-Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation?
A. Acetoin B. Nitrite C. Acetic acid D. H2S
9. At which pH does the methyl red (MR) test become positive?
A. 7.0 B. 6.5 C. 6.0 D. 4.5
10. A positive Simmons citrate test is seen as:
A. Blue color in the medium after 24-hour incubation at 35 oC
B. Red color in the medium after 18-hour incubation at 35 oC
C. Yellow color in the medium after 24-hour incubation at 35 oC
D. Green color in the medium after 18-hour incubation at 35 oC
11. Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of indole?
A. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde C. Bromcresol purple
B. MR D. Cytochrome oxidase
12. Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase?
A. Enterobacter, Escherichia and Salmonella C. Morganella, Providencia and Proteus
B. Klebsiella and Enterobacter D. Proteus, Escherichia and Shigella
13. An isolate of E.coli recovered from the stoll of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested for what sugar
before sending to a reference laboratory for serotyping?
A. Sorbitol B. Mannitol C. Raffinose D. Sucrose
14. Which genera of Enterobacteriacea are usually nonmotile at 36 oC?
A. Shigella, Klebsiella and Yersinia
B. Escherichia, Edwardsiella and Enterobacter
C. Proteus, Providencia and Salmonella
D. Serratia, Morganella and Hafnia
15. Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from Klebsiella pneumoniae?
A. Urease C. Citreate
B. Sucrose D. Indole
16. A visitor to South America returns with diarrhea, and infection with Vibrio cholerae is suspected. Select the bast media
for recovery and identification of this organism.
A. MaConkey agar C. TCBS agar
B. Blood Agar D. Xylose lysine desoxycholate agar
17. What atmosphric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from specimens inoculated onto a Campy-
selective agar at 35-37 oC and 42 oC?
A. 5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2` C. 20% O2, 20% CO2, and 60% N2
B. 10% O2, 10% CO2, and 80% N2 D. 20% O2, 5% CO2, and 75% N2
18. A mixture of slender gram-negative rods and coccobacilli with rounded ends was recovered from blood cultures from a
patient following root canal surgery. Given the following results after 48 hours, what is the most likely organism?
Catalase 0 Oxidase +
Lysine decarboxylase 0 Indole 0
Urease 0 X and V requirement 0
Ornithine decarboxylase + Growth on BAP +, with pitting of agar
Carbohydrates 0 Growth on MacConkey 0
A. Eikenella corrodens C. Cardiobacterium hominis
B. Actinobacillus sp. D. Proteus sp.
19. Which medium should be used to recover Bordetella pertussis from a nasopharyngeal specimen?
A. Chocolate agar C. MacConkey agar
B. Blood agar D. Bordet-Gengou agar
20. Which media is recommended for the recovery of Brucella spp. from blood and bone marrow specimens?
A. Biphasic Castaneda bottles with Brucella broth
B. Blood culture bottles with Brucella broth
C. Bordet-Gengou agar plates and thioglycolate broth
D. Blood culture bottles with thioghlycolate broth
21. In addition to CO2 requirement and biochemical characteristics, Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus are
differentiated by growth on media containing which two dyes?
A. Basic fuchsin and thionin C. Carbol fuchsin and iodine
B. Methylene blue and crystal violet D. Safranin and methylene blue
22. Which medium is best for recovery of Legionella pneumophila from clinical specimens?
A. Chocolate agar C. New yeast extract agar
B. Bordet-Gengou agar D. Buffered caharcoal yeast extract agar
23. The majority of Haemophilus influenzae infections are caused by which of the following capsular serotypes?
A. a B. b C. c D. d
24. Which Haemophilus sp. is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes?
A. H. aphrophilus C. H. ducreyi
B. H. haemolyticus D. H. parahaemolyticus
25. Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus species?
A. S. aureus C. S. intermedius
B. S. epidermidis D. S. saprophyticus
26. S. saprophyticus is best differentiated from S. epidermidis by susceptibility to:
A. 5 ug lysostaphin C. 10 units penicillin
B. 5 ug novobiocin D. 0.04 units of bacitracin
27. Bacitracin A disks (0.04 units) are used for the presumptive identification of which group of beta-hemolytic
Streptococcus spp.?
A. Group A B. Group B C. Group C D. Group F
28. The bile solubility test causes lysis of:
A. Streptococcus bovis colonies on a blood agar plate
B. Streptpcoccus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate
C. Group A streptococci in broth culture
D. Group B streptococci in broth culture
29. Streptococcus pneumonia and Viridans streptococci can be differentiated by which test?
A. Optochin disk test C. CAMP test
B. Bacitracin disk test D. Bile esculin test
30. The salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively identify:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus equines
B. Streptococcus bovis D. Grp D streptococci (enterococci)
31. The Quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus spp.?
A. S. pyogenes B. S. agalactiae C. S. sanguis D. S, pneumonia
32. The L-pyrolidonyl-B-naphtylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which streptococci?
A. Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci
B. Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci
C. Non-Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Group D streptococci (nonenterococcus)
33. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a wound were found to be penicillin resistant. Given the following results,
what is the most likely identification?
Bile esculin + Bile solubility 0
6.5% salt + SXT R
PYR +
A. Enterococcus faecalis C. Streptococcus bovis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Group B streptococci
34. Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) media is used primarily for the selective recovery of which organism from genital
specimens?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Neisseria sicca
B. Neisseria lactamica D. Neisseria flavescens
35. The superoxol test is used as a presumptive test for:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Neisseria lactamica
B. Neisseria meningitidis D. Moraxella catarrhalis
36. Culture on Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) medium of a vaginal swab produced several colonies of gram-negative
diplococci that were catalase and oxidase positive and superoxol negative. Given the following carbohydrate
reactions, select the most likely identification:
Glucose + Fructose 0
Maltose + Lactose +
Sucrose 0
A. N. gonorrhoeae C. N. flavescens
B. N. sicca D. N. lactamica
37. Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can best be differentiated by which tests?
A. Motility and beta-hemolysis on blood agar plate
B. Oxidase and alpha-hemolysis on blood agar plate
C. Lecithinase and glucose
D. Lecithinase and catalase
38. Culture of a finger wound specimen from a meat packer produced short gram-positive bacilli on a blood agar plate
with no hemolysis. Given the following test results at 48 hours, what is the most likely identification?
Catalase 0 Motility (wet prep) 0
H2S (TSI) + Gelatin stab Bottle brush growth
A. Bacillus cereus C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
B. Listeria monocytogenes D. Bacillus subtilis
39. A non-spore-forming, slender gram-positiverod forming palisades and chains was recovered from a vaginal cultures
and grew well on tomato juice agar. The most likely identification is:
A. Lactobacillus spp. C. Neisseria spp.
B. Bacillus spp. D. Streptococcus spp.
40. A gram-positive branching filamentous organism recovered from a sputum specimen was found to be positive with
modified acid-fast stain method. What is the most likely presumptive identification?
A. Bacillus spp. C. Corynebacterium spp.
B. Nocardia spp. D. Listeria spp.
41. Routine laboratory testing for Treponema pallidum involves:
A. Culturing C. Acid-fast staining
B. Serological analysis D. Gram staining
42. Which of the following organisms is the cause of Lyme disease?
A. Treponema pallidum C. Babesia microti
B. Neisseria meningitidis D. Borrelia burgdorferi
43. Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
44. Which organism typically produces “fried-egg” colonies on agar within 1-5 days of culture from a genital specimen?
A. Mycoplasma hominis C. Leptospira interrogans
B. Borrelia burgdorferi D. treponema pallidum
45. A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler’s methylene blue stain showed various letter shapes
and metachromatic granules. The most likely identification is:
A. Corynebacterium spp. C. Listeria spp.
B. Nocardia spp. D. Gradnerella spp.
46. Which of the following is the best rapid, noncultural test to perform when Gradnerella vaginalis is suspected in a
patient with vaginosis?
A. 10% KOH B. 3% H2O2 C. 30% H2O2 D. All of these
47. A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of beta-
hemolysis and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification?
A. Bacteroides ureolyticus C. Clostridium perfringens
B. Bacteroides fragilis D. Clostridium difficile
48. Which spore type and location is found on C. tetani?
A. Round, terminal spores C. Ovoid, subterminal spores
B. Round, subterminal D. Oval, terminal spores
49. Which Clostridium spp. is most often recovered from a wound infection with gas gangrene?
A. C. sporogenes C. C. novyi
B. C. sordellii D. C. perfringens
50. A Gram stain smear taken from the periodontal pockets of a 30-year-old male with poor dental hygiene showed sulfur
granules containing gram-positive rods (short diphtheroids and some unbranched filaments). Colonies on blood agar
resembled “molar teeth” in formation. The most likely organism is:
A. Actinomyces israelii C. Streptococcus intermedius
B. Propionibacterium acnes D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
51. Mycobacteria stained with Ziehl-neelsen or Kinyuon methods using a methylene blue counterstain, are seen
microscopically as:
A. Bright red rods against a blue background
B. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background
C. Orange-red rods against a black background
D. Bright blue rods against a pink background
52. Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from a digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded red
mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentine
pattern after 14 days at 37 oC. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive
identification?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Mycobacterium kansasii
B. Mycobacterium ulcerans D. Mycobacterium avium complex
53. Which of the following mycobacteria produces pigmented colonies in the dark (is a scotochromogen)?
A. M. szulgai C. M. tuberculosis
B. M. kansasii D. All of these
54. All of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce the enzyme required to convert niacin to niacin ribonucleotide except:
A. M. kansasii C. M. avium
B. M. tuberculosis D. All of these
55. Which nonpathogenic Mycobacterium sp. is isolated most often from clinical specimens and is called the “tapwater
bacillus”?
A. M. kansasii C. M. leprae
B. M. avium D. M. gordonae
56. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. would be most likely to grow on MacConkey agar plate?
A. M.chelonei-fortuitum complex C. M. marinum
B. M. ulcerans D. M. avium-intracellulare comples
57. For which clinical specimens is the potassium hydroxide direct mount technique for examination of fungal elements
used?
A. Skin B. CSF C. Blood D. Bone marrow
58. The India ink stain is used as a presumptive test for the presence of which organism?
A. Aspergillus niger in blood C. Histoplasma capsulatum in CSF
B. Crytococcus neoformans in CSF D. Candida albicans in blood/body fluids
59. Which of the following yeast enzymes is detected using birdseed (niger seed) agar?
A. Phenol oxidase C. Urease
B. Catalase D. Nitrate reductase
60. Which of the following yeasts is characteristically positive for germ tube production?
A. Candida tropicalis C. Crytococcus neoformans
B. Candida pseudotropicalis D. Candida albicans
61. Dimorphic molds are found in the infected tissue in which form?
A. Mold phase C. Encapsulated
B. Yeast phase D. Latent
62. The mycelial form of which dimorphic mold produces thick-walled, rectangular, or barrel-shaped alternate
arthroconidia?
A. Coccidioides immitis C. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Sporothrix schenckiiD. Blastomyces dermatitidis
63. The yeast form of which dimorphic fungus appears as oval or elongated cigar shaped, some with multiple buds?
A. Coccidioides immitis C. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Sporothrix schenckiiD. Blastomyces dermatitidis
64. The yeast form of which dimorphic mold shows a large parent yeast cell surrounded by smaller budding yeast cells?
A. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis C. Coccidioides immitis
B. Sporothrix schenckii D. Histoplasma capsulatum
65. Tinea versicolor is a skin infection caused by:
A. Malassezia furfur C. Trichophyton schoenleinii
B. Trichophyton rubrum D. Microsporum gypseum
66. Which Trichophyton sp. causes the favus type of tinea capitis seen in Scandinavian countries and in the Appalachian
region of the United States?
A. T. verrucosum C. T. tonsurans
B. T. violaceum D. T. schoenleinii
67. The hair baiting test is used to differentiate which two species of Trichophyton that produce red colonies on
Sabouraud’s agar plates?
A. T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum C. T. tonsurans and T. violaceum
B. T. tonsurans and T. schoenleinii D. T. verrucosum and T. rubrum
68. Which virus is the most common etiological agent of viral respiratory diseases in infants and children?
A. Respiratory syncytial virus C. Coxsackie A virus
B. Measles virus D. Coxsackie B virus
69. Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes gastroeneteritis in infants and young children but asymtomatic
infection in adults?
A. Coxsackie B virus C. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Rotavirus D. Rhabdovirus
70. A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood
disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella and roseola is:
A. Rotavirus C. Coxsackie A virus
B. Adenovirus type 40 D. Parvovirus B19
71. Which virus is associated with venereal and respiratory tract warts and produces lesions of the skin and mucous
membranes?
A. Polyomavirus C. Adenovirus
B. Poxvirus D. Papillomavirus
72. Which technique is most widely used for the confirmation of infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A. Western blot assay C. Complement fixation
B. ELISA D. Polymerase chain reaction
73. The infective stage is the sheathed filariform larva:
A. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Both
B. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Neither
74. All of the following larva migrate through the lungs except one:
A. Ascaris B. Hookworm C. Pinworm D. Stongyloides
75. Habitat of the adult Trichinella spiralis:
A. Small intestines C. Blood
B. Skeletal muscles D. CSF
76. The adult female is characterized by having a barber’s pole appearance due to the looping of the whitish uterus
around the reddish digestive tract:
A. Dracunculus medinensis C. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
B. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Necator americanus
77. Visceral larva migrans is associated with this organism:
A. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Dracunculus medinensis
B. Toxocara canis D. Onchocerca volvulus
78. Nematode parasite thought to have been the “fiery serpent” of the ancient Israelites. This parasite, which has
various species of Cyclops as its intermediate host, is:
A. Dicrocoelium dendrticum C. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Dipetalonema perstans D. Dracunculus medinensis
79. A dog parasite that almost never develops to an adult in humans has been found in some persons as a cause of a
subcutaneous nodule or a solitary peripheral nodule in the lung. This nematode is:
A. Ancylostoma braziliense C. Dipylidium caninum
B. Dirofilaria immitis D. Echinococcus granulosus
80. Microcytic anemia is associated with this parasite:
A. Trichinella spiralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Heterophyes heterophyes
81. Suitable specimen for the identification of microfilaria:
A. Urine B. Feces C. Blood D. Sputum
82. Which of the following microfilariae is unsheathed?
A. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Loa loa
B. Onchocerca volvulus D. Brugia malayi
83. Eye worm producing fugitive swelling or Calabar swelling:
A. Loa loa C. Dipetalonema perstans
B. Onchocerca volvulus D. Mansonella ozzardi
84. Rhabditiform larva with purposeless motion and short buccal cavity:
A. Hookworm B. Strongyloides C. Both of these D. None of these
85. Operculated ovum containing a miracidium and can appear in sputum, often accompanied by blood and Charcot-
Leyden crysrtals:
A. Fasciola hepatica C. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Paragonimus westermani D. Dipylidium caninum
86. Eggs of this fluke are small and shaped like an old-fashioned electric light bulb:
A. Clonorchis sinensis C. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Fasciola lanceolata D. Echinostoma ilocanum
87. A soil and water amoeba isolated from cases of meningoencephalitis:
A. Naegleria B. Dientamoeba fragilis C. Isospora belli D. AOTA
88. This is diagnostic of Entamoeba histolytica if present in the amoebic trophozoite:
A. Pus cells B. Nuclei C. Red cells D. Macrophage
89. The string test (Entero-Test) for obtaining a small specimen of duodenal contents for parasitic infection would be
most appropriate for:
A. Giardia lamblia C. Endolimax nana
B. Chilomastix mesnili D. Entamoeba histolytica
90. Largest and the most robust Trichomonas sp.:
A Trichomonas hominis C. Trchomonas tenax
B. Trichomonas vaginalis D. NOTA
91. Mature and gravid proglottids are typically shaped like melon seeds:
A. Hymenolepis nana C. Taenia saginata
B. Hymenolepis diminuta D. Dipylidium caninum
92. Cysticercosis is caused by the disseminated larva of:
A. Hymenolepis nana C. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Necator americanus D. Taenia solium
93. Almond-shaped scolex with two lateral grooves:
A. Taenia saginata C. Hymenolepis diminuta
B. Taenia solium D. Diphyllobothrium latum
94. Chagas’ disease is caused by:
A. Leishmania braziliensis C. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense D. Leishmania tropica
95. Xenodiagnosis is usually performed for the diagnosis of:
A. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Leishmania donovani
B. Schistosoma japonicum D. Leishmania gambiense
96. Asexual development and multiplication of malarial parasites:
A. Sporogony B. Schizogony C. Both D. Neither
97. Asexual life cycle of malaria parasite occur in:
A. Man B. Anopheles mosquito C. Flies D. Ticks
98. Stage predominantly seen in the smear is the band form of the developing trophozoite:
A. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax
99. Causes blackwater fever:
A. P. vivax B. P. malariae C. P. ovale D. P. falciparum
100. Plasmodium sp which has an affinity for mature or older red blood cells:
A. P. vivax B. P. malariae C. P. ovale D. P. falciparum

END OF EXAM
PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY (PART3)
1. Which of the following systems is used to remove antibiotics from body fluids that have been sent to the laboratory for
bacteriologic culture?
A. ARD system B. Roll tube system C. Isolator system D. API-ZYM system
2. The flagella staining technique most commonly used in clinical laboratories is:
A. Wayson B. Kinyoun C. Dienes D. Leifson
3. A tryptophan broth culture produces a red color following the addition of Ehrlich’s reagent. The color produced
indicates the presence of:
A. Indole B. Acetylmethylcarbinol C. Ammonia D. Nitrates
4. Aplastic anemia is a possible complication of treatment with which antimicrobial agent?
A. Gentamicin B. Chloramphenicol C. Ampicillin D. Tobramycin
5. The chemotherapeutic agents that are structurally similar to the vitamin p-aminobenzoic acid and act to inhibit
bacteria by the inhibition of folic acid synthesis are:
A. Aminoglycosides B. Penicillins C. Tetracyclines D. Sulfonamides
6. The broth culture suspension of the test organism for use in a tube dilution is adjusted to macth the turbidity of a:
A. 0.1 McFarland standard C. 0.4 McFarland standard
B. 0.2 McFarland standard D. 0.5 McFarland standard
7. Quality assurance testing requires selecting an organism that will demonstrate a positive reaction on a citrate agar
slant. Select the organism from the list below that would give a positive reaction:
A. S. sonnei B. K. pneumoniae C. E. coli D. Y. enterocolotica
8. To ensure that anaerobic conditions have been achieved in anaerobic jars or chambers, an oxygen-sensitive indicator
is employed such as:
A. Phenol red B. Methylene blue C. Crystal violet D. Bromcresol purple
9. Symptoms of gastritis and peptic ulceration are mot closely associated with which of the following specimen types?
A. C. jejuni B. E.coli C. Helicobacter pylori D. lactococcus garviae
10. The organism Leptospira interrogans serovar icterohaemorrhagiae is the etiologic agent of:
A. Lyme disease B. Typhoid fever C. Relapsing fever D. Weil’s disease
11. A coagulase-negative staphylococcus was isolated from a urine culture. It was identified as Staphlococcus
saprophyticus on the basis of its being:
A. Catalase positive B. DNase positive C. Resistant to novobiocin D. Sensitive to penicillin
12. A nonhemolytic streptococcus isolated from a urine culture gave the following reactions: bile esculin positive, no
growth in 6.5% NaCl. This streptococcus should be identified as:
A. S. agalactiae B. S. mutans C. Group D eneterococcus D. Group D nonenetrococcus
13. A small gram-positive bacillus was isolated from a spinal fluid from an infant. It grew on blood agar with faint beta-
hemolysis. It was catalase positive and demonstrated active motility at 25 oC but not at 37oC. The technologist should
immediately suspect:
A. B. anthracis B. Lactobacillus sp. C. Y. pseudotuberculosis D. Listeria monocytogenes
14. The etiologic agent of pseudomembranous colitis is:
A. C. difficile B. V. parahemolyticus C. Helicobacter pylori D. Streptococcus pyogenes
15. A small oxidase-positive gram-negative rod was isolated on enriched blood agar that had been incubated in a
microaerophilic atmosphere of 5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2. The most likely organism would be:
A. Y. enterocolitica B. Vibrio cholera C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Aeromonas hydrophilia
16. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar with added L-cysteine (BCYE) is the primary medium for the isolation of:
A. B. bacilliformis B. C. pneumonia C. Legionella pneumophila D. Helicobacter pylori
17. The K antigen of the family Enterobacteriaceae are:
A. The somatic antigens C. Heat labile
B. The antigens used to group Shigella D. Located on the flagellum
18. Culture media such as Mueller-Hinton broth, trypticase soy agar with sheep blood, or Todd Hewitt broth will not
support the growth of nutritionally variant streptococci (NVS) because they are deficient in:
A. Vitamin B12 B. Hemin C. Thiol derivatives D. Beta-galactosidase
19. The recommended culture medium for the recovery of Chlamydia from clinical specimens is:
A. McCoy cells B. TCBS C. Fletcher media D. WI-38 cells
20. Tap water bacillus
A. MTB B. M.marinum C. M. gordonae D. M. ulcerans
21. Production of yellow pigment is characteristic of which species of Enetrobacter?
A. E.cloacae B. E.aerogenes C. E.sakazakii D. E.gergpviae
22. The appropriate culture media for the recovery of Gardnerella vaginalis is:
A. BCYE agar B. CIN agar C. Human Blood Tween (HBT) agar D. Middlebrook agar
23. The characteristic colonial morphology of Actinomyces israelli on solid agar resembles:
A. Bread crumbs B. Fried egg C. A molar tooth D. Ground glass
24. The concentration of calcium and magnesium ions contained in the susceptibility testing medium is significant when
testing the susceptibility of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to:
A. Tetracycline B. Polymixin B C. Nalidixic acid D. Gentamicin
25. The leading cause of preventable blindness in the world, caused by an obligate intracellular parasite is:
A. Bartonellosis B. Trachoma C. Psittacosis D. Hansen’s disease
26. Streptobacillus moniliformis is the etiologic agent of:
A. Scalded skin syndrome B. Yaws C. Acute gastroenteritis D. Rat bite fever
27. The indicator employed in TSI agar and urease test medium is:
A. Phenol red B. Bromcresol purple C. Brmthymol blue D. Neutral red
28. In solid media and in thioglycollate broth, Clostridium tetani produces spores which are:
A. Round and terminal B. Oval and eccentric C. Oval and subterminal D. Usually absent
29. When a germicide is selected for use in the mycobacteriology laboratory, the one that should be avoided because it is
nontuberculoidal is:
A. 70% ethyl alcohol B. Sodium hypochlorite C. Formaldehyde D. Quaternary ammonium
30. The spreading of Proteus may be inhibited by:
A. Sodium chloride B. Lactic acid C. Glycerin D. Trimetophrim lactate
31. Skin test for tuberculosis:
A. PPD B. Schick C. Dick D. DPT
32. Which of the following correctly describes the genus Staphylococcus?
A. Susceptible to 0.04 units bacitracin C. Gram-negative cocci in clusters
B. Catalase positive D. Motile
33. Which statement is incorrect for Staphylococcus epidermidis?
A. Coagulase negative C. DNase negative
B. Fails to grow on mannitol salt agar D. Susceptible to novobiocin
34. Which of the following infections can be attributed to staphylococcus aureus?
A. Skin and wound infections C. Osteomyelitis and food poisoning
B. Toxic shock syndrome and bacteremia D. All of the above
35. Streptolysin O is:
A. Oxygen stable C. Observed as surface hemolysis
B. Antigenic D. All of the above
36. Which reaction is incorrect for Enterococcus?
A. Positive growth in 6.5% salt broth C. Negative catalase reaction
B. Positive hydrolysis of bile-esculin media D. PYR negative
37. Sequelae of group __ Streptococcus infection may lead to acute rheumatic fever of acute glomerular nephritis.
A. A C. C E. D, Non-Enterococcus
B. B D. D, Enterpcoccus F. Viridans
38. A gram-negative diplococcus isolated from the middle ear aspirate grew on chocolate agar but was inhibited on
Martin-Lewis agar. The organism failed to produce acid from glucose, maltose, lactose and sucrose. It was DNase
positive and is most likely:
A. N. gonorrhoeae B. N. lactamica C. N. meningitis D. M. catarrhalis
39. All Neisseria species are positive for the enzyme:
A. Coagulase B. DNase C. Oxidase D. Penicillinase
40. An isolate recovered from a blood culture specimen was subcultured onto chocolate agar and produced gram-
negative diplococci that were oxidase positive and produced acid from glucose and maltose but not from lactose or
sucrose. The isolate is most likely:
A. Neisseria meningitidis C. Moraxella catarrhalis E. Neisseria sicca
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Neisseria lactamica
41. An infant has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Further testing of the spinal fluid would likely indicate:
A. Increased white blood cells with a predominance of lymphocytes, decreased glucose and increased protein
B. Increased white blood cells with a predominance of neutrophils, increased glucose and decreased protein
C. Decreased white blood cells, increased protein and decreased glucose
D. Increased white blood cells with a predominance of neutrophils, increased protein and decreased glucose
42. Gram-negative diplococci are isolated from a female genital tract specimen. Which of the following is the most
appropriate action?
A. Report “Neisseria gonorrhoeae isolated” and perform susceptibility testing
B. Report amount of gram-negative diplococci (few, moderate, many) and estimate number of neutrophils
present
C. Report “normal flora isolated” and discard specimen
D. Plate specimen on blood agar
43. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is associated with:
A. Autoimmune response to group A streptococcal infection
A. Adrenal hemorrhage from Neisseria meningitidis
B. Septicemia from Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Hemolytic reaction from Staphylococcus aureus
44. Which statement correctly describes the mode of action of the antibiotic listed for modified Thayer-Martin medium?
A. Vancomycin inhibits gram-negative bacteria C. Colistin inhibits gram-positive bacteria
A. Nystatin inhibits fungi and molds D. Trimethoprim lactate inhibits gram-positive bacteria
45. Which of the following organisms is DNase positive?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Moraxella catarrhalis E. Neisseria sicca
B. Neisseria meningitidis D. Neisseria lactamica
46. All members of the family Enterobacteriaceae:
A. Oxidize glucose B. Ferment glucose C. Ferment lactose D. Ferment sucrose
47. An organism producing a yellow color in the open tube and a blue-green color in the closed tube of an OF glucose
determination is said to:
A. Ferment glucose B. Oxidize glucose C. Unable to utilize carbohydrates
48. Pseudomonas mallei is the causative agent in:
A. Glanders B. Melioidosis C. Neonatal sepsis D. Onion bulb rot
49. Acinetobacter can be differentiated from Neisseria by:
A. A positive oxidase reaction for Neisseria C. Carbohydrate utilization patterns
B. Gram stain D. Pigment production
50. The serotypes of H. influenzae found most frequently in infections is:
A. a B. b C. c D. d E. e
51. Which is not a characteristic of Vibrio cholerae?
A. Motile with single polar flagellum C. Ferments glucose and sucrose
 B. Oxidase negative D. Positive string test
52. The presence of clue cells may be diagnostic for:
A. G. vaginalis B. Tularemia C. C. jejuni D. Pertussis
53. On Bordet-Gengou medium, B. pertussis appears:
A. Dry, heaped, serrated C. Smooth, shiny, resembling mercury droplets
B. Iridescent, brown D. White, raised, rough
54. To differentiate bacillus anthracis from Bacillus cereus:
A. B. anthracis is beta hemolytic on blood agar and nonmotile; B. cereus is nonhemolytic and motile
B. B. cereus is beta hemolytic on blood agar and motile; B. anthracis is nonhemolytic on blood agar and
nonmotile
C. B. anthracis produces acid from glucosa and maltose; B. cereus does not
D. B. anthracis is lecithinase positive; B. cereus is lecithinase negative
55. On potassium tellurite medium, Corynebacterium diphtheiae produces:
A. Beta-hemolytic colonies C. Black colonies
B. Enhanced pleomorphic properties D. Pink to red colonies
56. A gram-positive bacillus isolated from the spinal fluid of a 1-month-old infant is catalase positive, beta-hemolytic, and
bile-esculin positive and exhibits tumbling motility in a wet preparation. This organism is most likely:
A. L. acidophilus B. E. rhusiopathiae C. L. monocytogenes D. C. jeikeium
57. Sputum samples for tuberculosis are optimally collected:
A. In the morning on 3 consecutive days C. By collecting sputum for 24-hour period for 1 day
B. In the evening on 3 consecutive days D. By collecting sputum for three 24-hour
58. A required component in media for Mycobacterium is:
A. Hemoglobin B. Lactose C. Potato flour D. Whole egg
59. Which of the following is noted for a positive result for niacin accumulation?
A. M. tuberculosis B. M. fortiutum-chelonae C. M. avium-intracellulare D. M. gordonae
60. The characteristic invasiveness of pathogenic leptospires may be due to their production of:
A. Coagulase B. Neuraminidase C. Lipase D. Hyaluronidase
61. Ricketssia akari is the causative agentof:
A. Trench fever B. Boutonneuse fever C. Rickettsialpox D. Scrub typhus
62. The fundamental unit of the fungus is the:
A. Hypha B. Conidium C. Mycelium D. Capsule
63. Broad, coenocytic hyphae found in tissue would be most typical of infection with:
A. Aspergillus B. Blastomyces C. Nocardia D. Rhizopus
64. The formation of arthroconidia is a characteristic important in identification of all of the following, except:
A. Coccidioides B. Geotrichum C. Trichosporon D. Sporothrix
65. Which microscopic method is preferred to examine nails, skin or hair?
A. Saline mount B. KOH preparation C. India ink D. Giemsa stain
66. Fungal cultures should be held and observed for growth for at least:
A. 72 hours B. 1 week C. 1 month D. 2 months
67. A case of tinea unguium produced green-brown, velvety colonies that were gently folded. Microscopically, the fungus
produced numerous thin-walled macroconidia with three and four cells. Microconidia were absent. The organism is
most likely:
A. Trichophyton tonsurans C. Microsporum canis
B. Epidermophyton floccosum D. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
68. A group of darkly pigmented fungi found on vegetation and in the soil are the:
A. Dermatophytes B. Dimorphic fungi C. Dematiaceous fungi D. Hyalohyphomycetes
69. Black piedra is caused by:
A. Exophiala werneckii B. Malassezia furfur C. Trichosporon beigelii D. Piedraia hortae
70. Dimorphic fungi exhibit:
A. A mycelial phase at 25 to 30 C and a yeast phase at 35 to 37 C
A. A yeast phase at 25 to 30 C and a mycelial phase at 35 to 37 C
B. Both a mycelial phase and a yeast phase at 25 to 30 C, depending on the isolation medium
C. A yeast phase only in vivo and mycelial phase only in vitro
71. The type of cell culture that best supports the growth of human cytomegalovirus is:
A. Chicken embryo cells B. HeLa cells C. Human fibroblast cells D. Hep-2 cells
72. Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes gastroeneteritis in infants and young children but asymtomatic
infection in adults?
A. Coxsackie B virus B. Rotavirus C. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Rhabdovirus
2. A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood
disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella and roseola is:
A. Rotavirus B. Adenovirus C. Coxsackie A virus D. Parvovirus B19
3. Which virus is associated with venereal and respiratory tract warts and produces lesions of the skin and mucous
membranes?
A. Polyomavirus B. Poxvirus C. Adenovirus D. Papillomavirus
4. Which technique is most widely used for the confirmation of infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A. Western blot assay B. ELISA C. Complement fixation D. Polymerase chain reaction
5. The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of the following?
A. Chickenpox B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma C. Burkitt’s lymphoma D. Smallpox

6. All of the following larva migrate through the lungs except one:
A. Ascaris B. Hookworm C. Pinworm D. Stongyloides
7. Habitat of the adult Trichinella spiralis:
 A. Small intestines B. Blood C. Skeletal muscles D. CSF
8. Rat lungworm causing eosinophilic meningoencephalitis in man:
A. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Dracunculus medinensis D. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
9. Microcytic anemia is associated with this parasite:
A. Trichinella spiralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Heterophyes heterophyes
10. Which of the following microfilariae is unsheathed?
A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Loa loa C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Brugia malayi
11. Microfilaria is sheathed, the body nuclei extend almost to the tip of the tail
A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Loa loa C. Brugia malayi D. Onchocerca volvulus
12. Rhabditiform larva with purposeless motion and short buccal cavity:
A. Hookworm B. Strongyloides C. Both of these D. None of these
13. Operculated ovum containing a miracidium and can appear in sputum, often accompanied by blood and Charcot-
Leyden crysrtals:
A. Fasciola hepatica C. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Paragonimus westermani D. Dipylidium caninum
14. Oriental lung fluke causing pulmonary distomiasis or endemic hemoptysis:
A. Spelotrema brevicaeca C. Paragonimus westermani
B. Metagonimus yokogawai D. Echinostoma ilocanum
15. Broad or fish tapeworm:
A. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Taenia saginata C. Sparganum mansoni D. Dipylidium caninum
16. Cysticercosis is caused by the disseminated larva of:
A. Hymenolepis nana C. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Necator americanus D. Taenia solium
17. This is diagnostic of Entamoeba histolytica if present in the amoebic trophozoite:
A. Pus cells B. Nuclei C. Red cells D. Macrophage
18. Amoeba cyst with only one nucleus when fully mature:
A. Iodamoeba butschlii B. Dientamoeba fragilis C. Entamoeba coli D. Entamoeba histolytica
19. The string test (Entero-Test) for obtaining a small specimen of duodenal contents for parasitic infection would be most
appropriate for:
A. Giardia lamblia B. Endolimax nana C. Chilomastix mesnili D. Entamoeba histolytica
20. What trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomal chromatin?
A. Endolimax nana B. Entamoeba histolytica C. Entamoeba coli D. Iodamoeba butschlii
21. A pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility, found in urine specimen, is identified as:
A. Trichomonas hominis B. Giardia lamblia C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. E. histolytica
22. Chagas’ disease is caused by:
A. Leishmania braziliensis C. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense D. Leishmania tropica
23. Asexual development and multiplication of malarial parasites:
A. Sporogony B. Schizogony C. Both D. Neither
24. Which stage of the malaria parasite is injected by mosquitoes?
A. Oocyst B. Merozoite C. Sporozoite D. Gametocyte
25. Asexual life cycle of malaria parasite occur in:
A. Man B. Anopheles mosquito C. Flies D. Ticks
26. In the life cycle of Plasmodium sp., man is the:
A. Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Reservoir host D. AOTA
27. Stage predominantly seen in the smear is the band form of the developing trophozoite:
A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax
28. Causes black water fever:
A. P. vivax B. P. malariae C. P. ovale D. P. falciparum
29. Plasmodium sp which has an affinity for mature or older red blood cells:
A. P. vivax B. P. malariae C. P. ovale D. P. falciparum

END OF THE EXAM