Sample Exam

Q. 1: Which of the following is false?

A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.
B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

Q. 2: According to the ISTQB Glossary, debugging:

A. Is part of the fundamental testing process.
B. Includes the repair of the cause of a failure.
C. Involves intentionally adding known defects.
D. Follows the steps of a test procedure.

Q. 3: System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week of testing, a
tester suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan of 'finding as many defects as
possible during system test' might be more closely met by redirecting the test effort according
to which test principle?
A. Impossibility of exhaustive testing.
B. Importance of early testing.
C. The absence of errors fallacy.
D. Defect clustering.

Q. 4: Test Implementation has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and
optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Q. 5: A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) application to

automate their bill-paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the
package prior to putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason
for testing?
A. To build confidence in the application.
B. To detect bugs in the application.
C. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
D. To train the users

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Q. 6: Reporting Discrepancies as defects is a part of which phase: -

A. Test Monitoring and Control
B. Test execution
C. Test Completion
D. Test Implementation

Q. 7: Choose the correct sentence about the developer’s and the tester’s mindsets.
A. They are different, because a tester’s primary goal is to raise bugs, and a developer’s
primary task is to debug and fix them.
B. They are different, because a developer’s primary goal is to design and build a product and a
tester’s primary task is to verify its quality.
C. They are the same, because the primary goal for both of them is to care about the highest
possible product quality.
D. They are the same, because tester and developer are just the project roles and any person
can fulfill both these roles.

Q. 8: Select the right relation between quality assurance, quality control, and testing.

A. Testing is a synonym of quality assurance, which is a part of quality control.

B. Testing is a form of quality control, which is a part of quality assurance.
C. Quality control is a form of quality assurance, which is a synonym for testing.
D. Quality control is a synonym of quality assurance, which is a part of testing.

Q. 9: Which of the following is true of the V-model?

A. It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
B. It only models the testing phase.
C. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
D. It includes the verification of designs.

Q. 10: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component
testing:
i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
ii) Whitebox-based testing of the code without recording defects.
iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.
iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.
A. i and ii.
B. i, ii and iii
C. iii.

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Sample Exam

D. ii and iv

Q. 11: Consider the following statements about regression tests:

I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed.
II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).
III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse effect elsewhere in
the system.
IV. They are only effective if automated.
Which pair of statements is true?
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV

Q. 12: Which of these is a functional test?

A. Checking the on-line bookings screen information and the database contents against the
information on the letter to the customers.
B. Measuring response time on an on-line booking system.
C. Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.
D. Checking how easy the system is to use.

Q. 13: Consider the following statements about maintenance testing:

I. It requires both re-test and regression test and may require additional new tests.
II. It is testing to show how easy it will be to maintain the system.
III. It is difficult to scope and therefore needs careful risk and impact analysis.
IV. It need not be done for emergency bug fixes.
Which of the statements are true?
A. II and III
B. II and IV
C. I and III
D. I and IV

Q. 14: Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?
A. Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.

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Sample Exam

B. Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
C. Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.
D. Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.

Q. 15: Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is true?
A. Reviews are a cost-effective early static test on the system.
B. Reviews are not generally cost-effective as the meetings are time-consuming and require
preparation and follow up.
C. Reviews must be controlled by the author.
D. There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.

Q. 16: In a checklist-based approach, a checklist used by a tester may include:

A. An excerpt from the test plan describing test levels and test types defined in the project
B. A list of typical functional defects that were found in the previous versions of a software
C. A list of tools that should be bought prior to introducing the automation project
D. Desired usability characteristics of a software

Q. 17: You are responsible for the functional testing of the new mobile application for tourists.
The application allows a user to plan a route, modify it, read info about the monuments, etc.
All these functional requirements are documented in the form of use cases. Together with
your team, you are planning to perform a review of the application regarding its functionality.
Which review type will probably be the most beneficial in this case?
A. Scenarios and dry runs
B. Checklist based
C. Perspective based
D. Role-based

Q. 18 Which of the following is an organizational success factor for reviews?

A. A culture of learning and process improvement is promoted.
B. Participants have adequate time to prepare.
C. The review is conducted in an atmosphere of trust.
D. Defects found are acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively.

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Sample Exam

Q. 19: Purchase discount is 0% for up to 500$, 5% is added for each additional 500$ up to
2000$, and 25% is applied for above 2000$. Which test inputs in $ would be selected for
equivalence partitions?
A. -250, 700, 1400, 1800, 4000
B. 250, 1000, 3000
C. -100, 250, 650, 1300, 1700, 2900
D. 200, 720, 1600, 1800, 2100

Q. 20: Bank fee is 0% for balance less than 500 $, 2% for less than 1000 $, and 4% for 1000 $ or
more. Which test inputs in $ would be selected using BVA?
A. 0.00, 0.01, 499.99, 500.00, 500.01, 999.99, 1000.00, 1000.01
B. -0.01, 0.00, 499.99, 500.00, 999.99, 1000.00
C. -0.01, 499.99, 500.00, 999.99, 1000.00
D. 0.00, 500.00, 500.01, 1000.00, 1000.01

Q. 21: Given the state diagram in following Figure, which test case is the minimum series of
valid transitions to cover every state?

A. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
B. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
C. SS - S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S3 - S4 - ES
D. SS - S1 - S4 - S2 - S1 - S3 – ES

Q. 22: Use case testing is useful for which of the following?

P. Designing acceptance tests with users or customers.
Q. Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested.
R. Finding defects in the interaction between components.
S. Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field.
T. Identifying the percentage of statements exercised by a set of tests.

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Sample Exam

A. P, Q and S
B. P, Q and R
C. R, S and T
D. Q, S and T

Q. 23: Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii. Technical Review.
iv. Decision Table Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.
A. iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
B. ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
C. i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
D. vi is static, i-v are dynamic.

Q. 24: What is a key characteristic of white box testing techniques?

A. They are mainly used to assess the structure of a specification.
B. They are based on the skills and experience of the tester.
C. They are used both to measure coverage and to design tests to increase coverage.
D. They use a formal or informal model of the software or component.

Q. 25: How do experience-based techniques differ from s black box techniques?

A. They depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is structured rather than
on a documented record of what the system should do.
B. They depend on having older testers rather than younger testers.
C. They depend on an individual's personal view rather than on a documented record of what
the system should do.
D. They depend on a documented record of what the system should do rather than on an
individual's personal view.

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Sample Exam

Q. 26: A system calculates the bonus for airplane pilots. The bonus is based on the total
number of flying hours, which is the sum of the number of hours on a flight simulator and the
number of hours on regular flights. The business rules R1–R5 for admitting the bonus are
presented in the following decision table.
R1 R2 R3 R4 R5
Simulator hours < 100 101– 200 101-200 >200 >200
Flight hours - <200 >=201 <100 >=101
Bonus 0% 10% 20% 20% 25%

Which of the following sets of test inputs is a minimal set that achieves the equivalence
partitioning coverage for the output value? Assume each test input is a pair (s, f ), where s
denotes the simulator hours and f—flight hours.
A. (25, 300), (200, 199), (150, 345), (350, 0), (227, 101)
B. (0, 0), (101, 0), (200, 207), (200, 99), (205, 210)
C. (90, 0), (120, 90), (210, 80), (200, 201)
D. (0, 300), (200, 50), (300, 50), (300, 300)

Q. 27: What can we be sure about, if we achieved 100% statement coverage of a given code?
A. That our tests executed all executable statements in the code
B. That we tested any possible behavior of the code
C. That our tests achieved 100% decision coverage as well
D. That there are no decision points in the code

Q. 28: You test the program that takes a sequence of numbers as the input and returns these
numbers sorted. Before you start your testing, you get the idea (without referring to any
documentation) to check what happens, if you enter the empty set of numbers as the input.
This is an example of which technique?
A. Black-box testing
B. White-box testing
C. Error guessing
D. Checklist-based testing

Q. 29: Select the sentence that correctly explains the issue of using test techniques during

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the exploratory testing session.

A. All test techniques are allowed, because exploratory testing does not impose on tester any
particular way of acting.
B. All test techniques are forbidden, because exploratory testing is based on knowledge,
intuition, and experience.
C. All test techniques are forbidden, because exploratory testing is not a scripted testing and
test actions cannot be planned in advance.
D. All test techniques are allowed, because exploratory tester needs to have a test basis from
which he derives test ideas.
Q. 30: Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Recommending the budget for tool selection.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test cases
A. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Q. 31: Which of the following is the most important difference between the metrics-based
approach and the expert-based approach to test estimation?
A. The expert-based approach takes longer than the metrics-based approach.
B. The metrics-based approach can be used to verify an estimate created using the expert-
based approach, but not vice versa.
C. The metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data while the expert-based
approach relies on team wisdom
D. The metrics-based approach is more accurate than the expert-based approach.

Q. 32: Which of the following is an advantage of independent testing?

A. Independent testers don't have to spend time communicating with the project team.
B. Programmers can stop worrying about the quality of their work and focus on producing more
code.
C. The others on a project can pressure the independent testers to accelerate testing at the end
of the schedule.
D. Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs and
implementations.

Q. 33: Consider the following statements

i. A defect may be closed without being fixed
ii. Defects may not be raised against documentation
iii. The final stage of defect tracking is fixing
iv. The defect record does not include information on test environments
v. Defects should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs
the test

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A. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false

B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
D. i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

Q. 34: A test plan included the following clauses among the exit criteria:
# System test shall continue until all significant product risks have been covered to the extent
specified in the product risk analysis document.
# System test shall continue until no must-fix defects remain against any significant product
risks specified in the product risk analysis document.
During test execution, the test team detects 430 must-fix defects prior to release and all must-
fix defects are resolved. After release, the customers find 212 new defects, none of which
were detected during testing. This means that only 67% of the important defects were found
prior to release, a percentage which is well below average in your industry. You are asked to
find the root cause for the high number of field failures. Consider the following list of
explanations:
I. Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed.
II. The organization has unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that testing can
find.
III. A version-control issue has resulted in the release of a version of the software that was
used during early testing.
IV. The product risk analysis failed to identify all the important risks from a customer point of
view.
V. The product risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became
available.
Which of the following statements indicate which explanations are possible root causes?
A. II, III and IV are possible explanations, but I and V are not possible.
B. I, IV and V are possible explanations, but II and III are not possible.
C. All five are possible explanations.
D. III, IV and V are possible explanations, but I and II are not possible.

Q. 35: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration
Management?
i) Identifying the version of the software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testware items.
v) Analyzing the need for new testware items.
A. ii, iv and v
B. i, iii and v
C. i, ii and iv
D. ii, iii and iv

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Q. 36: Put the test cases that implement the following test conditions into the best order for
the test execution schedule, for a test that is checking modifications of customers on a
database.
1. Print modified customer record.
2. Change customer address: house number and street name.
3. Capture and print the on-screen error message.
4. Change customer address: postal code.
5. Confirm existing customer is on the database by opening that record.
6. Close the customer record and close the database.
7. Try to add a new customer with no details at all.
A. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3, 7, 6
B. 5,1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6
C. 5, 4, 2, 1, 7, 3, 6
D. 4, 2, 5,1, 6, 7, 3

Q. 37: Consider the following list of either product or project risks:

I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.
II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.
III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.
IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.
V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.
B. II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
C. I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
D. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.

Q. 38: Consider the following excerpt of a document:

The following metrics should be collected:
• Number of defects found, split by defect type and detection phase
• Time to repair (for each raised bug)
• Number of test cases planned, designed, implemented, executed, automated
• Test results for each test run (passed, failed, blocked, not executed)
This is an example of a part of which document?
A. Test policy

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B. Test case
C. Test procedure
D. Test plan.

Q. 39: Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support
testing?
1. Over-reliance on the tool
2. Greater consistency and repeatability
3. Objective assessment
4. Unrealistic expectations
5. Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool
6. Ease of access to information about tests or testing
7. Repetitive work is reduced
A. Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7, Risks: 4, 5 and 6
B. Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
C. Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7
D. Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5

Q. 40: Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an
organization?
A. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.
B. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.
C. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.
D. Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.

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