SEO-Optimized title for English exam passage

TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. tomorrow B. slowly C. below D. allow
Question 2: A. roofs B. cloths C. books D. clothes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. ordinary B. emphasis C. decompose D. calendar
Question 4: A. comfortable B. necessary C. community D. memorable
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each the
following exchanges.
Question 5: John: “Do you fancy a drink?” -Catherine: “______”
A. No, ever! B. I’m not sure I do. Thank all the same C. I don’t want D. It is none of your business
Question 6: “Excuse me, can you tell me where I can catch a bus to London, please?” - “______”
A. Sure, go ahead B. Sorry, I’m new here myself C. OK. Here’s your ticket D. Yes, please
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closest in meaning to the given
sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 7: If only I had taken that job in the bank.
A. I wish I tool that job in the bank B. I regret not taking that job in the bank
C. I regret not take that job in the bank D. I don’t take that job in the bank
Question 8: Apart from Bill, all the students said they would come to the party.
A. All the students said that they would come to the party with Bill
B. All the students said they would come to the party without Bill
C. Every student said they would come to Bill’s party D. Bill was the only student who wouldn’t come to the party.
Question 9: I strongly disapproved of your behavior, However, I will help you this time.
A. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time
B. Despite I strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time
C. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time
D. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combine the two sentences given
Question 10: I bought an Italian pair of shoes for $150. They went missing after two days.
A. I bought an Italian pair of shoes that went missing after two days.
B. The Italian pair of shoes that I bought for $150 went missing after two days.
C. The Italian pair of shoes, which I had bought for $150, went missing after two days.
D. My Italian pair of shoes that went missing after two days were bought for 150$.
Question 11: I like Nha Trang, it has a beautiful beach
A. I like Nha Trang that it has a beautiful beach B. I like Nha Trang when has a beautiful beach
C. I like Nha Trang where it has a beautiful beach D. I like Nha Trang, which has a beautiful beach
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
During the 19th century, women in the United States organized and participated in a large number of reform
movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, grant
rights to people who were denied them, and, most importantly, free slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social
status of women and slaves. Woman like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and abolitionists
who supported the rights of both women and blacks. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd
Garrison and Wendell Phillips, also supported the rights of women to speak and to participate equally with men in
antislavery activities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism offered women a previously denied
1
entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and improve the
conditions of others.
When the civil war ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution adopted in
1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists
worked tirelessly to influence more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory
had yielded to demands by feminists, but the states on the East Coast resisted more stubbornly than before. A
women’s suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878, but it continually failed to pass until 1920,
when the Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote.
Question 12: What cannot be infered from the passage ?
A. The Black were given the right to vote before women.
B. Women’s sufferage bill had been discussed in the Congress for 50 years.
C. The eastern states did not like the idea of women’s right to vote.
D. The abolitionists believed in anti-slavery activities.
Question 13: What is the word “primarily” closest in meaning to?
A. Somewhat B. Always C. Above all D. Finally
Question 14: What is not among the reformation of movements of women?
A. Freeing the slaves B. passing the laws C. reorganizing the prison. D. prohibiting the sale of alcohol.
Question 15: What does the 19th Amendent guarantee?
A. Voting rights for the black.B. Voting rights for women.C. Citizenship for the black. D. Citizenship for women
Question 16: the word “ban” in the line 2 most nearly means to____.
A. limit B. encourage C. publish D. prohibit
Question 17: According to the passage, why did women become active in politics ?
A. to be elected to the public office. B. To support Alizabeth Cady Stanton.
C. To amend the Declaration of Independence. D. To improve the living conditions exitsted at that time.
Question 18: When were women allowed to vote throghout the US?
A. After 1920 B. After 1870 C. After 1866 D. After 1878
Question 19: What is the topic of the passage?
A. The 14th and 15th Amendment B. Women’s sufferage. C. Abolitionists D. The Woyming Territory.
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 20: Having finished his term paper before the deadline, it was delivered to professor before the class
Question 21: I’m very glad that you’ve done lots of progress this semester. Make)
Question 22: You can enjoy a sport without joining in a club or belonging to a team.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth.
A. marked B. separated C. shared D. hidden
Question24: We’ve lived there for years and grown fond of the surroundings. That is why we do not want to leave.
A. loved the surroundings B. planted many trees in the surroundings
C. possessed by the surroundings D. haunted by the surroundings
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Mr.Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. Inapplicable B. hostile C. amiable D. futile
Question 26: Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.
A. Genuine B. eternal C. permanent D. satisfactory
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question
2
Question 27: Where is Jimmy? - He is work. He is busy his monthly report.
A. in/ about B. to/ through C. at/with D. on/ for
Question 28: Most children enjoy with their parents and siblings.
A. played B. play C. to play D. playing
Question 29: It’s too late; you shouldn’t go. Don’t worry! We can for a night.
A. put you up B. put you through C. put you away D. put you aside
Question 30: nonverbal language is important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A. - / an B. The / - C. A/ the D. The/ a
Question 31: Tim asked Sarah English so far.
A. how long was she learning B. how long she has been learning
C.she had been learning how long D. how long she had been learning
Question 32: John often says he boxing because it a cruel sport.
A.had not liked/ was B. not liked/ had been C. does not like/ is D. did not like/ were
Question 33: I do not think there is a real between men and women at home as well as in our society.
A.attitude B. equality C. value D. measurement
Question 34: Most of us would agree that physical does not play a major part in how we react to the people we meet.
A. attractiveness B. attract C. attractively D. attractive
Question 35: You should more attention to what your teacher explains.
A. make B. get C. set D. pay
Question 36: I there once a long time ago and back since.
A. have gone/ was B. went/ have not been C. go/ am not D. was going/ has not been
Question 37: The more and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A.confident B. confide C. confidently D. confidence
Question 38: It’s hard work looking three children all day.
A. after B. to C. up D. through
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks form 36-40
Your Job
What sort of job should you look for? Much depends on your long-term aim. You need to ask__(39) whether you
want to specialise in a particular field, work your way up to higher levels of responsibility or___(40)of your current
employment into a broader field. This job will be studied very carefully when you send your letter of ___(41) for
your next job. It should show evidence of serious career planning. Most important, it should extend you, develop you
and give you increasing responsibility. Incidentally, if you are interested in travelling, now is the time to pack up and
go. You can do temporary work for a__(42) when you return, pick up where you_(43) left off and get the second job.
Question 39: A. you B. yourself C. oneself D. if
Question 40: A. off B. into C. out D. over
Question 41: A. applicants B. application C. form D. employment
Question 42: A. ages B. while C. day D. time
Question 43: A. may B. should C. are D. have
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors the physical location of the
restaurant, e.g., rural or urban; the type of restaurant, e.g., informal or formal; and certain standards that are more
universal. In other words, some standards 5 of etiquette vary significantly while other standards apply almost
anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a particular area may sometimes require
instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience. For example, while it is acceptable to
read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is 10 inappropriate to do the same in a more luxurious setting. And, if you are
3
eating in a very rustic setting it may be fine to tuck your napkin into your shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban
restaurant this behavior would demonstrate a lack of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in virtually every
restaurant it is unacceptable 15 to indiscriminately throw your food on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely
draw from the above is that while the types and locations of restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them, some
rules apply to all restaurants.
Question 44: With what topic is this passage primarily concerned?
A. instruction in proper etiquette B. rules of etiquette
C. variable and universal standards of etiquette D. the importance of good manners
Question 45: Which of the following words is most similar to the meaning of “rustic”?
A. ancient B. Urban C. Unsophisticated D. agricultural
Question 46: The author uses the phrase “safe to say” in order to demonstrate that the idea is
A. somewhat innocent B. quite certain C. very clever D. commonly reported
Question 47: What is the author’s main purpose in this passage?
A. to describe variations in restaurant manners B. to assist people in learning sophisticatedmanners
C. to simplify rules of restaurant etiquette D. to compare sophisticated and rustic restaurants
Question 48: What does the word “it” refer to line 5?
A. knowing the type of restaurant B. clear instruction C. learning the proper etiquette D. sensitivity
Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette?
A. eating in rustic settings B. tucking a napkin in your shirt
C. reading a magazine at a coffee shop D. not throwing food on the floor
Question 50: The word “manners” in line 13 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Tact B. Ceremony C. Experience D. Character
TEST 2
Question 1. A. uniform B. situation C. unemployment D. amusing
Question 2. A. benefit B. every C. bed D. enjoy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
Question 3. A. suspicion B. telephone C. relation D. direction
Question 4. A. reduction B. popular C. financial D. romantic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 5. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and indication its
correct use.
Question 6. Tom said that if he had to do another homework tonight, he would not be able to attend the concert.
Question 7. The children forgot…… up the from the office and they worried.
A. picking B. note C. now D. are
Question 8. Several deserts are a quite vast and uninhabited ________.
A. plain B. territory C. corridor D. shrub
Question 9. His health would be improved________.
A. if he continued to smoke heavily B. unless he stopped smoking heavily
C. if he gave up smoking D. if only he doesn't smoke any more.
Question 10. Many tall and wide mountain ranges do not let much rain get ________ the desert.
A. into B. away C. out D. from
Question 11. I wanted to go a more ________ route across Montana.
4
A. north B. northerly C. northerner D. northernmost
Question 12. Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the __ of extinction.
A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge
Question 13. ________ she could not say anything.
A. So upset was she that B. So upset was she C. However upset was she that D. Therefore upset was she that
Question 14. Migrant workers are________ to exploitation.
A. eager B. vulnerable C. available D. considerate
Question 15. Internationally, 189 countries have signed _______ accord agreeing to create Biodiversity Action Plans
to protect endangered and other threatened species.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 16. Carl ________ studied harder; he failed the test again.
A. must have B. should have C. could have D. needn't have
Question 17. ________ to the skin, they eventually got to the station.
A. Soaked B. Soaking C. To soak D. Having soaked
Question 18. It's no good________ to him; he never answers letters.
A. write B. to write C. writing D. for writing
Question 19. When old Mr. Barnaby died, several people___ their claim to the substantial legacy that he left.
A. placed B. drew C. assumed D. laid
Question 20. Would you mind closing the window please?
A. Yes of course. Are you cold? B. No, not at all. I will close it now.
C. Yes I do. You can close it. D. Yes of course you can do it.
Question 21. Do you have the time please?
A. I am very sorry. I am already late. B. I am busy right now. I am afraid.
C. I am sorry I don’t have a watch here. D. Yes I have some time for you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 22. The people of the province wanted to become a sovereign state.
A. rich B. self-ruling C. new D. colonized
Question 23. The prince was next in the order of succession.
A. death B. eating C. height D. replacement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 24. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Question 25. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning .
A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 26. Slippery as the roads were, they managed to complete the race.
A. The roads were so slippery that they could hardly complete the race.
B. The roads were slippery but they managed to complete the race.
C. The roads were slippery so they could hardly complete the race.
D. The roads were so slippery; therefore, they could hardly complete the race.
Question 27. They decided to go for a picnic though it was very cold.
A. Because it was very cold, they decided to go for a picnic. B. However cold it was, they decided to go for a picnic.
C. If it had been cold, they would not have gone for a picnic. D. It was very cold so they decided to go for a picnic.
Question 28. Both Peter and Mary enjoy scientific expedition.
5
A. It is not Peter, but Mary, that enjoys scientific expedition.
B. Peter enjoys scientific expedition. Therefore, does Mary.
C. However Peter enjoys scientific expedition and Mary does.
D. Peter enjoys scientific expedition, and so does Mary.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 29. Henry should have done his homework last night, but he watched TV instead.
A. Henry did not do his homework last night because he was busy with the television set.
B. Henry watched TV last night instead of doing his homework.
C. Henry did not watch TV last night because he had to do his homework.
D. Henry did his homework while watching TV.
Question 30. Seeing that he was angry, she left the office.
A. She didn't want to make him angry, so she left. B. He wouldn't have been so angry if she hadn't been there.
C. He grew very angry when he saw her leaving the office.D. She left the office when she saw how angry he was.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
English has without a (31) ____ become the second language of Europe and the world. European countries which
have most (32) ____ assimilated English into daily life are England's neighbors in Northern Europe: Ireland, the
Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, and the rest of Scandinavia. The situation is so (33) ____ that any visitor to the
Netherlands will soon be aware of the pressure of English on daily life: television, radio and print bring it into every
home and the schoolyard conversation of children; advertisers use it to (34) ____ up their message, journalists take
refuge in it when their home-bred skills fail them. Increasingly one hears the (35) ____ that Dutch will give way to
English as the national tongue within two or three generations.
Question 31. A. question B. doubt C. problem D. thought
Question 32. A. successfully B. victorious C. successful D. lucrative
Question 33. A. plain B. open C. blatant D. marked
Question 34. A. life B. energy C. pep D. enthusiasm
Question 35. A. feeling B. posture C. judgment D. view
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
ARE HUMAN BEINGS GETTING SMARTER?
Do you think you're smarter than your parents and grandparents? According to James Flynn, a professor at a New
Zealand university, you are! Over the course of the last century, people who have taken IQ tests have gotten
increasingly better scores-on average, three points better for every decade that has passed. This improvement is
known as "the Flynn effect," and scientists want to know what is behind it.
IQ tests and other similar tests are designed to measure general intelligence rather than knowledge. Flynn knew that
intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result of our environment and experiences, but the
improvement in test scores was happening too quickly to be explained by heredity. So what was happening in the
20th century that was helping people achieve higher scores on intelligence tests?
Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. Some suggest that the improved test scores simply
reflect an increased exposure to tests in general. Because we take so many tests, we learn test-taking techniques that
help us perform better on any test. Others have pointed to better nutrition since it results in babies being born larger,
healthier, and with more brain development than in the past. Another possible explanation is a change in educational
styles, with teachers encouraging children to learn by discovering things for themselves rather than just memorizing
information. This could prepare people to do the kind of problem solving that intelligence tests require.
Flynn limited the possible explanations when he looked carefully at the test data and discovered that the improvement
in scores was only on certain parts of the IQ test. Test takers didn't do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections
6
of the test; they did better on sections that required a special kind of reasoning and problem solving. For example, one
part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for patterns and connections between them
and decide which shape should be added to the set.
According to Flynn, this visual intelligence improves as the amount of technology in our lives increases. Every time
you play a computer game or figure out how to program a new cell phone, you are exercising exactly the kind of
thinking and problem solving that helps you do well on one kind of intelligence test. So are you really smarter than
your parents? In one very specific way, you may be.
Question 36. The Flynn effect is____________.
A. used to measure intelligent B. an increase in IQ test scores over time
C. unknown in some parts of the world D. not connected to our experiences
Question 37. The Flynn effect must be the result of____________.
A. heredity B. our environment and experiences C. taking fewer tests D. memorizing information
Question 38. IQ tests evaluate____________.
A. our knowledge B. our environment C. our intelligence D. our memories
Question 39. Which sentence from the article gives a main idea?
A. Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect.
B. As we take so many tests in our lives, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test.
C. Test-takers didn’t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test.
D. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for pattern and
connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set.
Question 40. According to the article, newer education techniques include____________.
A. exposure to many tests B. children finding things out themselves
C. memorizing information D. improved test scores
Question 41. Why does the author mention computer games?
A. to give an example of technology that improve our visual intelligence.
B. to explain why young people have poor vocabularies.
C. to encourage the reader to exercise. D. to show that young people are not getting more intelligent.
Question 42. Which statement would Professor Flynn agree with?
A. People today are more intelligent than in the past in every way. B. People today have fewer problems to solve.
C. People today are taking easier tests. D. People today have more visual intelligence.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common to think of
learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and
people continue to learn throughout their lives.
Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food,
and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their
environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their
world. When they enter school, children learn basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics.
They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded
and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish
school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising
children, and finding and keeping a job.
Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is
important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists,
social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to understand how certain experiences change
7
people’s behaviors. Employers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the
behavior of workers, voters, and consumers.
Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who study
memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later
retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior
and how behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences.
There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single
stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of
learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as
lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior
and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation – that is, by watching
others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning in clued learning languages, concepts, and motor skills.
Question 43. According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of?
A. Acquisition of academic knowledge B. Acquisition of social and behavioral skills
C. Knowledge acquisition and ability development D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom
Question 44. According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom?
A. Literacy and calculation B. Interpersonal communication C. Life skills D. Right from wrong
Question 45. Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as
examples of _____.
A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves B. the changes to which people have to orient themselves
C. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education
Question 46. Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage?
A. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life.
B. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older.
C. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school.
D. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions.
Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves
with the study of learning because they need to ______.
A. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest
B. change the behaviors of the objects of their interest towards learning
C. thoroughly understand the behaviors of the objects of their interest
D. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning
Question 48. The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. recovers B. generates C. creates D. gains
Question 49. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviors.
B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used.
C. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge.
D. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviors.
Question 50. The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. simple forms of learning B. practical examples of learning inside the classroom
C. general principles of learning D. application of learning principles to formal education
TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 01: A. aunt B. daunting C. autumn D. taught
8
Question 02: A. chore B. technology C. achieve D. exchange
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 03: A. enthusiasm B. appropriate C. communicate D. entertainment
Question 04: A. powerful B. electricity C. standard D. peaceful
Question 05: New Zealand has relatively few species of animals because of its long isolation from other landmasses.
A. respectively B. approximately C. considerably D. comparatively
Question 06: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. essential B. delighted C. exciting D. informative
Question 07: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.
A. restrain B. stay unchanged C. remain unstable D. fluctuate
Question 08. The story told by the teacher amused children in the class.
A. frightened B. jolted C. saddened D. astonished
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 09: In my opinion, the new foreign coach does his job relative well.
Question 10: Hardly he had got downstairs when the phone stopped ringing.
Question 11: I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a teacher for a long time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 12: Friendship should be based on _______ understanding.
A. deep B. mutual C. unselfish D. together
Question 13: Many plants can grow in water, ______ nutrients are added.
A. besides B. as long as C. above all D. in case
Question 14: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I_______ last week.
A. should have done B. can have done C. may have done D. must have done
Question 15: You won’t know what to do_______ you listen carefully.
A. when B. unless C. because D. if
Question 16: If we don’t preserve the world’s wild life, many rare species are likely to_______ completely.
A. die out B. die down C. die away D. die from
Question 17. Waste paper can be used again after being_______.
A. produced B. recycled C. wasted D. preserved
Question 18: John asked me_______ that film the night before.
A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. if had I seen
Question 19: It was_______ we could not go out.
A. such dark that B. so dark that C. very so dark D. too dark that
Question 20: Many high school students in Vietnam have to work hard to ________ at a university.
A. win a place B. get a cold C. lose touch with D. keep pace with
Question 21: It was obviously a difficult situation, but he remained __________.
A. optimistic B pessimistic C. optimistically D. pessimism
Question 22: By the end of next month, we _______ our project.
A. have finished B. will be finished C. will have finished D. finished
Question 23: If you had not been careless, you _______.
A. will not be sacked B. are not sacked C. will not have been sacked D. would not have been sacked
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 36 to 42.
Although most universities in the United States are on a semester system, which offers classes in the fall and
spring, some schools observe a quarter system comprised of fall, winter, spring, and summer quarters. The academic
year, September to June, is divided into three quarters of eleven weeks each beginning in September, January, and
March: the summer quarter, June to August, is composed of shorter sessions of vary length.
9
There are several advantages and disadvantages to the quarter system. On the plus side, students who wish to
complete their degrees in less than the customary four years may take advantage of the opportunity to study year
round by enrolling in all four quarters. In addition, although most students begin their programs in the fall quarter,
they may enter at the beginning of any other quarters. Finally, since the physical facilities are kept in operation year
round, the resources are used effectively to serve the greatest number of students. But there are several disadvantages
as well. Many faculty complain that eleven-week term is simply not enough for them to cover the material required
by most college coursed. Students also find it difficult to complete the assignments in such a short period of time.
In order to combine the advantages of the quarter system with those of the semester system some colleges
and universities have instituted a three-term trimester system. In fourteen weeks, faculty and students have more time
to cover material and finish course requirements, but the additional term provides options for admission during the
year and accelerates the degree programs for those students who wish to graduate early.
Question 24: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. Universities in the United States C. The Quarter System B. The Academic Year D. The Semester System
Question 25: A semester system______________
A. has eleven-week sessions B. gives students the opportunity to study year round
C. Isn’t very popular in the United States D. has two major sessions a year
Question 26: How many terms are there in a quarter system?
A. Four regular terms and one summer term B. Three regular terms and one summer term
C. Two regular terms and two summer terms D. One regular term and four summer terms
Question 27: When is the academic year?
A. September to August B. June to August C. August to June D. September to June
Question 28: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to_____________
A. faculty B. weeks C. courses D. material
Question 29: The word “instituted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______________
A. established B. considered C. recommended D. attempted
Question 30: Where would this passage most probably be found?
A. In a college catalog for a university in the United States
B. In a general guide to colleges and universities in the United States
C. In a American newspaper D. In a dictionary published in the United States
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
How many people do you communicate with in a day? Probably a lot more than you did ten years ago. With a few
pieces of equipment, we can ‘talk’ to people in more and more ways, not (31)____ face-to-face and on the phone, but
also via the Internet. It is very important, therefore, for everyone to try and improve their communication skills. Despite
all the technological advances of (32)___ years, the art of good conversation is still at the heart of successful
communication. (33) _ it’s a good idea to remember the four golden rules of good communication. Firstly, be as clear as
you can. Misunderstandings arise if we don’t say exactly what we mean. Secondly, we have to work hard at listening.
Pay attention to what the other person is saying. Thirdly, ask other people what they think, don’t only tell them what you
think. And finally show respect for people, give them time to say what they want, and (34)___ interest in what they say.
If you (35)___ these rules, you will be a good communicator.
Question 31. A. yet B. even C. just D. still
Question 32. A. close B. last C. late D. recent
Question 33. A. So B. There C. Such D. Or
Question 34. A. get B. put C. show D. be
Question 35. A. act B. move C. go D. follow
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 43.
If we took a look at how people in Europe communicated just one hundred years ago, we would be very
surprised to find out that English was hardly used outside the United Kingdom. The language most commonly used
between people of different nationalities, and particularly the aristocracy, was French. In fact, French was the
language of diplomacy, culture and education. However, that is not the case nowadays. English has replaced French
as the international language of communication. Today, there are more people who speak English as a second
language than people who speak it as a first language.
10
There are many reasons why English has become the language of international communication. Britain’s
colonization of many parts of the world had something to do with it, but it is mainly due to America’s rise to the
position of major world power. This helped spread popular American culture throughout the world bringing the
language with it.
But is it good that English has spread to all parts of the world so quickly? Language specialists seem to be
divided over this issue. There are those who claim that it is important to have a language that the people in our
increasingly globalized world have in common. According to others, English is associated with a particular culture
and therefore promotes that culture at the expense of others. Linguists have suggested “Esperanto”, an artificially put-
together language, as a solution to international communication problems but without success. So English will
continue being the world language until some other language, maybe Chinese, which is the most widely-spoken
native language in the world, takes over as the world’s international language instead of English.
Question 36: According to the passage, a century ago ______________.
A. educated people throughout Europe spoke English. B. foreign travelers to England spoke only French.
C. French was much more popular than English. D. only the French aristocracy could speak English.
Question 37: What is chiefly responsible for the growth in popularity of English?
A. Britain’s becoming an international power B. The French losing many colonies
C. American’s becoming powerful D. The development of American culture
Question 38: What is meant by “the language of diplomacy” ( line 4)
A. The language used by ordinary people. B. The language used by the English and the French
C. The language used by the aristocracy. D. The language used by governments
Question 39: What is true according to the passage?
A. The linguists don’t like Esperanto B. Esperanto is not a natural language
C. Esperanto is difficult to learn D. Esperanto is becoming more and more popular
Question 40: The linguists’ opinion on the spread of English is___________.
A. split B. positive C. negative D. undecided
Question 41: The author believes that ___________.
A. English is easier to learn than Chinese B. English will probably be replaced as an international language
C. Chinese is going to be the next language of international communication
D. Chinese is growing in popularity among non-native speakers
Question 42: These days ___________.
A. French is the language of diplomacy B. more non-natives speak English than natives
C. more people speak French than English D. French is a dying language
Question 43: What would be a good title for this passage?
A. English in the future B. English as an international language
C. English language means English culture D. English - a difficult language to learn
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 44: She spoke so fast that nobody understood her.
A. So fast did she speak that nobody understood her. B. Such fast she spoke that nobody understood her.
C. So fast she spoke that nobody understood her. D. Such fast did she speak that nobody understood her.
Question 45: He didn’t install an alarm, so the thieves broke into his house last night.
A. If he installed an alarm, the thieves didn’t break into his house last night.
B. Had he installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house last night.
C. Because he hadn’t installed an alarm, the thieves would break into his house last night.
D. If he had installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t break into his house last night.
Question 46: I won’t sell the painting, no matter how much you offer me.
A. Whenever you offer me to buy the painting, I won’t sell it.
B. How many money you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.
C. Whatever price you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.
D. In spite of your offering me how much money, but I won’t sell the painting.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
Question 47: - Nam : “Your parents must be proud of your results at school”. - Mai :“_______” .
A. Sorry to hear that B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging C. Of course D. I am glad you like it.
11
Question 48: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to
the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- John : “ Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please ? ” - Passer-by: “_______ ”
A. Not way, sorry. B. Just round the corner over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
A. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
B. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
C. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
D. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
Question 50: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph.
A. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her.
B. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph.
C. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph.
D. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph.
TEST 4
Question 01: A. talked B. passed C. called D. washed
Question 02: A. come B. something C. comb D. grow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 03: A. Adorable B. ability C. impossible D. entertainment
Question 04: A. engineer B. corporate C. difficult D. different
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 05: There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year ago.
A. closed up B. closed C. closed down D. closed into
Question 06: Aquatic sports have long been acknowledged as excellent ways to take physical exercise.
A. reduced B. encouraged C. recognized D. practiced
Question 07: Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional.
A. voluntary B. free C. pressure D. mandatory
Question 08: I am looking for a temporary job in my home town.
A. permanent B. good C. complicated D. professional
Question 09: They asked me what did happen last night, but I was unable to tell them.
Question 10: Not until she left I knew that she had been very important to me.
Question 11: The meeting was so length that many people had to leave before it ended.
Question 12: Hurry up! It’s time we______ for next week’s examination.
A. have studied B. studied C. had studied D. will study
Question 13: The film didn’t really______ our expectation, unfortunately.
A. put in for B. come up to C. fall short of D. meet with
Question 14: My mother tells me that she______ since she was four.
A. has been singing B. has been sung C. sang D. had sung
Question 15: He congratulated the team______ all their games.
A. to win B. winning C. for their winning D. on having won
12
Question 16: The book is so interesting that I can't_____.
A. put down it B. put it down C. put down D. be put down
Question 17. ______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. No longer has B. No sooner had C. Not until had D. Hardly had
Question 18: A number of students nowadays______ ideal jobs when they graduated from university.
A. doesn’t find B. don’t find C. wasn’t find D. wasn’t founded
Question 19: The worker was______ his boss expected, so he was offered a raise.
A. more hard-working B. as hard-working than C. more hard-working than D. more hard-working as
Question 20: ______ , I would give a party.
A. Should she come next month B. If she come next month
C. She were to come next month D. If she came here now
Question 21: The teacher, along with her students, ______ going to school at the moment.
A. is B. was C. were D. are
Question 22: We are going to________ .
A. have our house be redecorated B. have our house redecorated
C. have our house to be redecorated D. get our house being redecorated
Question 23: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye___ with the interviewers.
A. contact B. touch C. link D. connection
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have
neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now
number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely
by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification.
This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal
tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting
these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival – and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to
circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animals reserves. They then charge admission prices
to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support.
This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase
in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect,
but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
Question 24. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Endangered species B. Problems with industrialization C. The Bengal tiger D. International boycotts
Question 25. The word “poachers” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. Concerned scientists B. Enterprising researchers C. Illegal hunters D. Trained hunters
Question 26. The word “callousness” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. incompetence B. indirectness C. insensitivity D. independence
Question 27. What does the word “this” refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tiger B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
Question 28. Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. all of them
Question 29. Which of the following could best replace the word “ allocated”?
A. set aside B. combined C. taken D. organized
Question 30. What does the term “ international boycott” refer to?
A. A global increase in animal survival B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks D. Buying and selling of animal products overseas
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct w ord or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The University of Oxford, informally called "Oxford University", or simply "Oxford", (31) __ in the city of
Oxford, in England, is the oldest university in the English-speaking world. It is also considered as one of the world's
13
leading (32)___ institutions. The university traces, its roots back to at least the end of the 11th century, although the
exact date of foundation remains unclear. Academically, Oxford is consistently ranked in the world's top ten
universities. The University is also open to overseas students, primarily from American universities, who may enroll
in study abroad programs during the summer months for more than a century, it has served as the home of the Rhodes
Scholarship, (33) __ brings highly accomplished students from a number of countries to study at Oxford as (34) __
The University of Oxford is also a place where many talented leaders from all over the world used to study. Twenty-
five British Prime Ministers attended Oxford, including Margaret Thatcher and Tony Blair. At (35) __ 25 other
international leaders have been educated at Oxford, and this number includes King Harald V of Norway and King
Abdullah II of Jordan. Bill Clinton is the first American President to attend Oxford. Forty-seven Nobel prize winners
have studied or taught at Oxford.
Question 31. A. put B. placed C. located D. stood
Question 32. A. learning B. academic C. graduating D. scholar
Question 33. A. that B. where C. whose D. which
Question 34. A. postgraduates B. postgraduated C. postgraduation D. postgraduating
Question 35. A. last B. least C. late D. lately
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career
as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to
thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and
move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your
life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by
assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you
find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel ? Do you want to work with children ?
Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is
important to you.
Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept.
Then rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not
want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent –
that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in
some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the
other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.
If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales,
offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional
training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative
associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember
that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight
attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors.
Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new interests and skills that may point
the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one.
Question 36. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _______.
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 37. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ________.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 38. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
Question 39. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not
want to live in a big city ?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
Question 40. Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job except____.
14
A. Your likes and your dislikes B. The atmosphere at work
C. Geographical location D. Your strengths and weaknesses
Question 41: It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that ________.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
Question 42: In paragraph 4, the author suggests that ________.
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following is true ?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
Question 44: Although my parents are busy at work, they try to find time for their children.
A. My parents are so busy at work that they cannot find time for their children.
B. My parents are too busy at work to find time for their children.
C. Busy at work as my parents are, they try to find time for their children.
D. My friends rarely have time for their children because they are busy at work.
Question 45: I did not come to your party due to the rain.
A. If it rained, I came to your party. B. If it had not rained, I would have come to your party.
C. Suppose it did not rain, I would come to your party. D. If it did not rain, I would come to your party
Question 46: She spoke so fast that nobody understood her.
A. So fast did she speak that nobody understood her. B. Such fast she spoke that nobody understood her.
C. So fast she spoke that nobody understood her. D. Such fast did she speak that nobody understood her.
Question 47: Lan is talking to a taxi driver at the airport.
- Taxi driver : “ Shall I help you with your big suitcase ? ” - Lan : “______”
A. Not a chance B. That‘s very kind of you C. I can‘t agree more D. What a pity!
Question 48: - Nam : “This is a souvenir for you. I bought it when I was in Scotland.”- Hoa : “ ________ “.
A. Thank you very much. It’s so beautiful. B. My pleasure. It’s really nice.
C. Don’t mention it. It must have cost a lot. D. Thanks anyway.
Question 49: David broke his leg. He couldn’t play in the final.
A. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now
C. David couldn’t play in the final due to his broken leg.
D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final.
Question 50: My father couldn't go to my sister's wedding party. He was so ill.
A. My father was so ill that he could go to my sister's wedding party.
B. My father is so ill that he couldn't go to my sister's wedding party.
C. My father is too ill that he can't go my sister's wedding party.
D. My father was so ill that he couldn't go to my sister's wedding party.
TEST 5
15
Question 1: A. category B. vacancy C. scary D. apply
Question 2: A. admit B. provide C. decide D. require
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. secondary B. requirement C. admission D. certificate
Question 4: A. forget B. offer C. relate D. impress
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of
Question 5: Physically inactive people are at risk of developing heart disease.
A. passive B. active C. dynamic D. lively
Question 6: Computers and telecommunication are bound to have a huge influence on various aspects of our life.
A. equivalent B. diverse C. like D. similar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to each of
Question 7: When he heard the news, Simon got on the next train to London.
A. got away B. got of C. got off D. got in
Question 8: No one knew precisely what would happen to human being in space.
A. informally B. flexibly C. wrongly D. casually
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
exchanges.
Question 9: ~ Laura: “What shall we do this evening?” ~ Annie: “________________"
A. I went out for dinner. B. Oh, that’s bad! C. No problem. D. Let’s go out for dinner.
Question 10: ~ Jane: “Thank you very much for the lovely flowers.” ~ Susan: “________________"
A. You’re welcome.B. It was an excellent choice. C. Yeah, the flowers are nice.D. You like flowers, don’t you?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 11: He was the last one leaving the burning building in time.
A. burning B. leaving C. one D. in time
Question 12: If you work hard, you would be successful in anything you do.
A. you work B. would be C. in D. anything
Question 13: Poverty in the United States is noticeably different from that in other country.
A. from B. noticeably C. the D. other
questions.
Question 14: What are the entry________ at this university?
A. required B. requirements C. require D. requirement
Question 15: Damage to the building resulted________ an unusually high wind.
A. at B. down C. on D. in
Question 16: Cameron, ________ directed “The Titanic”, is one of the leading faces in Hollywood.
A. whose B. who C. whom D. that
Question 17: I want this test________ in ink.
A. written B. to write C. write D. writing
Question 18: The local clubs are________ every effort to interest more young people.
A. doing B. taking C. making D. giving
Question 19: It is high time Tom________ more active in class.
A. was B. must be C. has been D. were
Question 20: The wedding day was________ chosen by the parents of the groom.
A. careless B. carefully C. carelessly D. careful
Question 21: He found a watch when he________ in the street.
A. was walking B. had been walking C. had walked D. walked
Question 22: Neither the boy’s parents nor I________ satisfied with his progress.
A. are B. has C. am D. have
Question 23: I don't really get________ with my sister's husband.
A. away B. on C. through D. in
16
Question 24: Hung doesn’t take good care________ himself.
A. in B. of C. about D. for
Question 25: I can't think of any possible________ for his absence.
A. exploration B. expedition C. explanation D. expectation
to each of the questions.
People used to know more or less how their children would live. Now things are changing so quickly that they
don’t even know what their own lives will be like in a few years’ time. What follows is not science fiction. It is how
experts see the future. You are daydreaming behind the steering wheel; is it too dangerous? No! That’s no problem
because you have it on automatic pilot, and with its hi-tech computers and cameras, your car “knows” how to get
home safe and sound. What is for lunch? In the old days you used to stop off to buy a hamburger or a pizza. Now you
use your diagnostic machine to find out which foods your body needs. If your body needs more vegetables and less
fat, your food-preparation machine makes you a salad.
After lunch, you go down the hall to your home office. Here you have everything you need to do your work.
Thanks to your information screen and your latest generation computer, you needn’t go to the office any more. The
information screen shows an urgent message from a co-worker in Brazil. You can instantly send back a reply to him
and go on to deal with other matters.
Question 26: What does “its” in line 5 refer to?
A. Your car. B. Your home. C. The future. D. The steering wheel.
Question 27: Which of the following statement is true about life in the future?
A. People will go to work as they do today. B. Hi-tech equipment will be out of the question.
C. It will be dangerous to drive cars because they are too fast. D. People can have balanced diets for their meal.
Question 28: According to the passage, what do people use a diagnostic machine for?
A. To make food for them. B. To sell food for humans.
C. To provide them with food. D. To find out which foods their body needs.
Question 29: The word “urgent” in the last paragraph probably means________.
A. expected B. pressing C. unnecessary D. hurry
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT true about life in the future?
A. Eating is a problem because food contains too much fat.
B. There’s no need to concentrate much when people are driving.
C. Contacts between people are almost instant. D. Getting information is a matter of just a few seconds.
Question 31: What is “reply” CLOSEST in meaning to?
A. answer B. request C. replay D. question
Question 32: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. What foods people will eat in the future. B. The role of the computer in future life.
C. What life is like in the future. D. Life in the future will be the same as life at present.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each o f the numbered blanks.
Many American customs will surprise you; the same thing happens to us when we (33)_______ another
country. People from various cultures handle many small daily things differently. What a dull world it (34)_______
be if this were not true! Some differences are minor, and people soon become accustomed to them. At (35)_______ ,
for example, some foreign women may be startled at the idea of (36)_______ their hair cut or styled by men. Visitors
maybe amazed to see men wearing wigs. People may find the transitory quality of much American life odd, for
example, one (37)_______ rent art by the week or the entire furnishings of an apartment, from sofa and bed to the last
spoon, on less than eight hours’ notice. “Package” living is part of today’s American scene.
Question 33:A. arrive B. travel C. visit D. come
Question 34:A. would B. can C. may D. will
Question 35:A. least B. first C. all D. last
Question 36:A. having B. giving C. showing D. taking
Question 37:A. shall B. must C. should D. can
Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost every part of the world except the
northernmost and southernmost regions. One commonly known species is the honeybee, the only bee that produces
17
honey and wax. Humans use the wax in making candles, lipsticks, and other products, and they use the honey as a
food. While gathering the nectar and pollen with which they make honey, bees are simultaneously helping to fertilize
the flowers on which they land. Many fruits and vegetables would not survive if bees did not carry the pollen from
blossom to blossom. Bees live in a structured environment and social structure within a hive, which is a nest with
storage space for the honey. The different types of bees each perform a unique function. The worker bee carries
nectar to the hive in a special stomach called a honey stomach, other workers make beeswax and shape it into a
honeycomb, which is a waterproof mass of six-sided compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in completed cells.
As the workers build more cells, the queen lays more eggs.
All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the queen. The male honeybees are
called drones; they do no work and cannot sting. They are developed from unfertilized eggs, and their only job is to
impregnate a queen. The queen must be fertilized in order to lay worker eggs. During the season, when less honey is
available and the drones is of no further use, the workers block the drones from eating the honey so that they will
starve to death.
Question 38: Which of the following is the best title for this reading?
A. The Honey Bee - Its Characteristics and Usefulness B. Making Honey
C. The Many Species of Bees D. The Useless Drone
Question 39: According to the passage, the drone_________.
A. comes from eggs fertilized by other drones B. collects less honey than workers
C. mates with the queen and has no other purpose D. can be male or female
Question 40: The author implies that_________.
A. bees are unnecessary in the food chain B. drones are completely dispensable
C. drones are never females D. the queen can be a worker
Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that beeswax is_________.
A. absorbent B. complex in structure C. pliable D. sweet
Question 42: The word “species” in the first sentence probably means_________.
A. enemies B. mates C. killers D. varieties
Question 43: It is stated in paragraph 2 that a hive is_________.
A. a storage space B. a nest C. a type of bee D. a type of honey
Question 44: The word “They” in the last paragraph refers to_________.
A. queens B. workers C. honeybees D. drones
Question 45: According to the passage, honey is carried to the hive in a honey stomach by the_________.
A. workers B. males C. drones D. queens
Question 46: You must read the instructions. You won’t know how to use this machine without reading them.
A. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine.
B. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions.
C. Unless you read the instructions, you won’t know how to use this machine.
D. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won’t be known.
Question 47: The book is very interesting. My brother bought it yesterday.
A. The book which is very interesting my brother bought yesterday.
B. The book which my brother bought it yesterday is very interesting.
C. The book my brother bought yesterday is not interesting.
D. The book which my brother bought yesterday is very interesting.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each
Question 48: “Are you waiting for your exam result?” she said
A. She asked me if I was waiting for my exam result. B. She asked me was I waiting for my exam result.
C. She asked me whether was I waiting for the exam result. D. She asked me whether I was waiting for your exam.
Question 49: They arrived late, so they didn’t have good seats.
A. However late they arrived, they had very good seats. B. The late arrivers still had good seats.
C. Unless they arrived early, they wouldn’t have good seats.
D. If they had arrived earlier, they might have got good seats.
Question 50: He couldn’t come to the conference because he was seriously ill.
18
A. Although he was ill, he came to the conference.
B. His illness was very serious that he couldn’t come to the conference.
C. Because of his serious illness, he couldn’t come to the conference.
D. He couldn’t come to the conference, so he became seriously ill.
TEST 6
other three in pronunication in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. nowadays B. dykes C. ruins D. pesticides
Question 2: A. opposite B. economic C. appropriate D. technology
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. government B. interview C. reference D. understand
Question 4: A. equipment B. scholarship C. develop D. discourage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the bold, italic
Question 5: A magician is an entertainer who performs a series of deceptive tricks based on the principles of physics,
optics, and psychology.
A. skillful B. incomprehensible C. misleading D. obvious
Question 6: The adhesive qualities of this new substance far surpass those of all others of its type.
A. disintegrating B. dissolving C. damaging D. sticky
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold,
italic word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: An employer must be very careful in dealing with subordinates and documenting their files in order to
avoid complaints.
A. bosses B. coordinators C. outside help D. employees
Question 8: It’s incomprehensible to a nonaddict that an illicit drug can control the life of a young abuser.
A. readable B. favorable C. imperative D. understandable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
Question 9: A smile can be observed, described, and reliably identify; it can also be elicited and manipulated under
experimental conditions.
Question 10: A food additive is any chemical that food manufactures intentional add to their products.
Question 11: A number of the American Indian languages spoken at the time of the European arrival in the New
World in the late fifteen century have become extinct.
questions.
Question 12: Andrea has a________ rug on the floor in her bedroom.
A. sheepskin lovely long white B. long lovely white sheepskin
C. lovely long sheepskin white D. lovely long white sheepskin
Question 13: I haven’t________ decided where to go on holiday.
A. already B. yet C. still D. just
Question 14: Computers that once took up entire rooms are now________ to put on desktops and into wristwatches.
A. small enough B. smaller than C. so small D. as small as
Question 15: The average________ watches television for about 15 hours a week.
A. spectator B. observer C. audience D. viewer
Question 16: Although Brenda came last, everyone agreed she had________ her best.
A. had B. got C. done D. made
Question 17: We didn’t________ to the station in time to catch the train.
A. reach B. get C. make D. arrive
Question 18: Bill took not only a French class________ a Japanese class.
A. but too B. too C. but also D. and
Question 19: Sharon did not attend the meeting because she was________ the weather.
A. under B. in C. due to D. on
19
Question 20: One prefers to shop at Harrods, ________?
A. isn’t it B. doesn’t one C. don’t you D. isn’t one
Question 21: How many________ the game is still unknown.
A. fans attended B. fans attending C. did fans attend D. has attended
Question 22: The second bus, ________ didn’t stop either.
A. that was full B. what was full C. which was full, D. that was fully,
Question 23: ________ here for hours and I feel tired.
A. I have stood B. I’m standing C. I have been standing D. I had been standing
Under certain circumstances, the human body must cope with gases at greater-than-normal atmospheric
pressure. For example, gas pressures increase rapidly during a dive made with scuba gear because the breathing
equipment allows divers to stay underwater longer and dive deeper. The pressure exerted on the human body
increases by 1 atmosphere for every 10 meters of depth in seawater, so that at 30 meters in seawater a diver is
exposed to a pressure of about 4 atmospheres. The pressure of the gases being breathed must equal the external
pressure applied to the body; otherwise breathing is very difficult. Therefore all of the gases in the air breathed by a
scuba diver at 40 meter are present at five times their usual pressure. Nitrogen, which composes 80 percent of the air
we breathe, usually causes a balmy feeling of well-being at this pressure. At a depth of 5 atmospheres, nitrogen
causes symptoms resembling alcohol intoxication, known as nitrogen narcosis. Nitrogen narcosis apparently results
from a direct effect on the brain of the large amounts of nitrogen dissolved in the blood. Deep dives are less
dangerous if helium is substituted for nitrogen, because under these pressures helium does not exert a similar narcotic
effect.
As a scuba diver descends, the pressure of nitrogen in the lungs increases. Nitrogen then diffuses from the
lungs to the blood, and from the blood to body tissues. The reverse occurs when the diver surfaces; the nitrogen
pressure in the lungs falls and the nitrogen diffuses from the tissues into the blood, and from the blood into the lungs.
If the return to the surface is too rapid, nitrogen in the tissues and blood cannot diffuse out rapidly enough and
nitrogen bubbles are formed. They can cause severe pains, particularly around the joints.
Another complication may result if the breath is held during ascent. During ascent from a depth of 10 meters,
the volume of air in the lungs will double because the air pressure at the surface is only half of what it was at 10
meters. This change in volume may cause the lungs to distend and even rupture. This condition is called air
embolism. To avoid this event, a diver must ascend slowly, never at a rate exceeding the rise of the exhaled air
bubbles, and must exhale during ascent.
Question 24: The word “exert” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to________.
A. permit B. cause C. need D. change
Question 25: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The equipment divers use B. How to prepare for a deep dive
C. The symptoms of nitrogen bubbles in the bloodstream
D. The effects of pressure on gases in the human body
Question 26: The word “They” in bold in paragraph 2 refers to________.
A. joints B. pains C. tissues D. bubbles
Question 27: What happens to nitrogen in body tissues if a diver ascends too quickly?
A. It is reabsorbed by the lungs. B. It goes directly to the brain.
C. It forms bubbles. D. It has a narcotic effect.
Question 28: It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following presents the greatest danger to a diver?
A. Nitrogen diffusion B. An air embolism C. Nitrogen bubbles D. Pressurized helium
Question 29: The word “rupture” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. shrink B. burst C. hurt D. stop
Question 30: What should a diver do when ascending?
A. Breathe helium B. Relax completely C. Breathe faster D. Rise slowly
Fashions go round and round
Fashions have always changed with time. No (31)_____ Roman girls worried about having the latest hairstyle
and boys in Ancient Egypt wanted to have sandals that were cool and not the sensible ones their mothers preferred.
20
Looking (32)________ over recent times, there seem to be two main differences in the way fashions have
changed compared to earlier times. Firstly, (33)________ more people have a choice of clothes available to them.
There are few places in the world where the trainers, the caps or the T-shirts of teenagers do not change from one
year to the next. Secondly, styles are (34)________ within a much shorter time than they used to be. For instance, in
the 1960s, (35)________ had the same low waists and narrow skirts as forty years before.
In the early years of the 21st century, the shops are full of long skirts and coloured scarves like the ones in
fashion only thirty years before. Soon, we will find that the really fashionable people look no different from the rest
of us, because it is only ten years since their clothes were in fashion before!
Question 31: A. way B. doubt C. chance D. matter
Question 32: A. about B. round C. behind D. back
Question 33: A. far B. some C. even D. much
Question 34: A. exchanged B. returned C. repeated D. accepted
Question 35: A. jackets B. blouses C. trousers D. dresses
There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to one
another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit. However,
tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them.
The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of the
Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates. There are a few enormous plates
and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in
constant – yet slow – motion. The plates may move away from or toward other plates. In some cases, they collide
violently with the plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the rock. Over a long time,
this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens.
Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only scientific
instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they cause little harm or
damage. More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. They
may additionally injure and skill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change it appearance.
Since most of the Earth’s surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet’s oceans.
Underwater earthquakes cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the ocean. When this
occurs, a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions from the place
where the earthquake happened. A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousnads of kilometres. As it
approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunamis to increase in height.
Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami – one more than ten meters in height – can travel far inland. As it
does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people.
Question 36: Which of the following statements does paragraph 1 support?
A. A tsunami happens in tandem with an earthquake.
B. The most severe type of natural disaster is an earthquake.
C. Earthquakes cause more destruction than tsunamis.
D. Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis do.
Question 37: The word “it” in bold in paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. The core B. The crust C. The Earth D. The mantle
Question 38: What is the passage mainly about?
A. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen. B. What kind of damage natural disasters can cause.
C. How earthquakes and tsunamis occur. D. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes.
Question 39: The word “adjoining” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to________.
A. residing B. approaching C. bordering D. appearing
Question 40: The word “perceive” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________.
A. detect B. prevent C. comprehend D. locate
Question 41: Which of the following is true regarding the crust?
A. It is the smallest of the Earth’s three layers. B. It is thicker on land than it is under the water.
C. There many separate pieces that make it up. D. The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much.
Question 42: Based on the passage, what is probably true about tsunamis?
A. They kill more people each year than earthquakes. B. They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound.
21
C. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean. D. They can be deadly to people standing near shore.
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes?
A. How severe the majority of them are B. What kind of damage they can cause
C. How often powerful ones take place D. How many people they typically kill
Question 44: I should have finished my work last night but I was exhausted.
A. Last night I was exhausted but I tried to finish my work.
B. My work was finished last night but I was exhausted.
C. I did finish my work last night though I was exhausted.
D. I was exhausted so I didn’t finish my work yesterday as planned.
Question 45: The boss was annoyed that his secretary came to work late.
A. The secretary came to work late, which annoyed the boss.
B. The secretary came to work late causing annoyance.
C. That the secretary came to work late annoys the boss.
D. The boss disapproved of his secretary’s coming to work late.
Question 46: “Why don’t you choose German as your optional subject?” said Jane.
A. Jane admitted that I choose German as my optional subject.
B. Jane suggested that I choose German as my optional subject.
C. Jane reminded me of choosing German as my optional subject.
D. Jane suggested choosing German as my optional subject.
Question 47: - Andy: “Is it all right if I use your bike?” – Anna: “______________.”
A. Please accept it with my best wishes. B. Go straight ahead. C. Sure, go ahead. D. Oh, sorry.
Question 48: - James: “What do you think about the election?” – Jessica: “____________________.”
A. I must be off. Thank you. B. The Democratic Party had to win.
C. Really? The Republican Party won. D. The Democratic should have won.
Question 49: The leader went so fast that no one could keep up with him.
A. If only the leader had gone faster. B. What a fast leader!
C. If the leader hadn’t gone so fast, we could have kept up with him.
D. I wish the leader could not have kept up with us.
Question 50: Mary lost the ticket. She didn’t go to the concert.
A. If Mary had lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
B. Had Mary not lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
C. Hadn’t Mary lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
D. If Mary hadn’t lost the ticket, she would go to the concert.
TEST 7
Question 1. A. attracts B. humans C. follows D. genders
Question 2. A. open B. other C. only D. smoking
Question 3. A. finish B. visit C. passion D. invite
Question 4. A. stimulate B. romantic C. permission D. pollutant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic
Question 5. I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself.
A. be lonely B. be special C. be quiet D. be private
22
Question 6. The old people in the neighborhood are constantly visiting each other.
A. quite often B. rarely C. continuously D. occasionally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic
Question 7. The film is not worth seeing. The plot is too dull.
A. interesting B. simple C. complicated D. boring
Question 8. There is practically no difference between the two options.
A. virtually B. hardly C. usually D. exactly
Question 9. Dad has just come back home from a shop.
- Dad: "I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!" - Son: "_________ "
A. Have a nice day B. The same to you! C. What a lovely toy! Thanks. D. What a pity!
Question 10. Sam is talking to Mai on the first day at school.
- Sam: "How long does it take you to get to school? - Mai: " _."
A. About 2 kilometres B. 2 years ago C. About 15 minutes D. 15 pounds
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 11. The pupils haven't done their homework, what is too bad.
Question 12. My daughter has learned English at the age of 8.
Question 13. I'm looking forward to attend your wedding this spring.
questions.
Question 14. She told him________ up hope.
A. not give B. to not give C. not to give D. to give not
Question 15. Her mother asked her to________ the table for the evening meal.
A. place B. lay C. spread D. put
Question 16. To save energy, we should remember to________ the lights before going out.
A. turn down B. turn on C. turn off D. turn up
Question 17. You'll get a cold if you_________ your warm clothes.
A. haven't changed B. won't change C. didn't change D. don't change
Question 18. She sings as_________ as her mother.
A. beauty B. beautifully C. beautiful D. beautify
Question 19. My dad is a_________ smoker. He smokes every day.
A. strong B. hooked C. plentiful D. heavy
Question 20. Britain's Prince William arrived_________ Hanoi on Wednesday for his first visit to Vietnam.
A. at B. to C. on D. in
Question 21. Health officials said both men and women should avoid_________ to places where Zika cases have
been confirmed if they plan to have children.
A. to travel B. being travelled C. travelling D. to travelling
Question 21. Mrs. Smith, _________ has a lot of teaching experience, is going to join our school in September.
A. whose B. who C. whom D. that
Question 23. Michael_________ water sports when he was younger.
A. is used to play B. is used to playing C. used to playD. used to playing
Question 24. Almost everyone for home by the time we arrived.
A. left B. leaves C. had left D. leave
Question 25. That's a nice coat, and the colour________ you well.
A. suits B. matches C. shows D. fits
May 7, 1840, was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century Peter
Illich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied
composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890,
during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a
23
living stipend of about $1,000.00 a year. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as
well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame
von Meck's patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the
music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping Beauty.
Tchaikovsky's music, well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the
first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music behind the
dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893, ostensibly of cholera, though there are now some scholars who argue
that he committed suicide.
Question 26. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT______.
A. She had economic troubles. B. She was generous.
C. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky's music. D. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky.
Question 27. According to the passage, for what is Tchaikovsky's music most well-known?
A. the richness and melodic drama of the music B. its lively, capricious melodies
C. its repetitive and monotonous tones D. the ballet-like quality of the music
Question 28. It is known that before Tchaikovsky, _________.
A. the music behind the dance had been given very little attention.
B. the music behind the dance had been taken seriously
C. serous dramatic music had been already brought to dance
D. music had been famous for its rich melodic passages
Question 29. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky's productivity in composing. B. Tchaikovsky's unhappiness leading to suicide.
C. Tchaikovsky's influence on ballet music. D. the patronage of Madame von Meck.
Question 30. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. the cause of Tchaikovsky's death B. Tchaikovsky's relationship with Madame Von Meck
C. development of Tchaikovsky's music for ballets D. the life and music of Tchaikovsky
Question 31. According to the passage, "Swan Lake" and "The Sleeping Beauty" are_________.
A. songs B. operas C. plays D. dances
Question 32. Which of the following could best replace the word "terminated"?
A. hated B. resolved C. discontinued D. exploited
Question 33. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "behind"?
A. in back of B. concealing C. going beyond D. supporting
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The tourist industry is (34)________ to be the largest industry. Before 1950 one million people travelled
abroad each year but by the 1900s the figure (35)________ to 400 million every year.
Such large numbers of tourists, however, are beginning to cause problems. For example, in the Alps the skiers
are destroying the mountains they came to enjoy. Even parts of Mount Everest in the Himalayas are reported to be
covered (36)____ old tins, tents, and food that have been (37)____. But at a time when we have greater freedom to
travel than ever before, more and more people are asking how they can enjoy their holidays without causing
problems by spoiling the countryside. Now there is a new holiday guide called "Holidays That Don't Cost The Earth".
It tells you how you can help the tourist industry by asking your travel agent the right questions (38)_____ you go on
holiday.
Question 34. A. seen B. considered C. figured D. regarded
Question 35. A. were rising B. had risen C. has risen D. rose
Question 36. A. under B. with C. beneath D. by
Question 37. A. thrown away B. launched C. littered D. disposed
Question 38. A. after B. as soon as C. before D. when
Under the Medicare insurance policy, people approaching 65 may enroll during the seven- month period that
includes three months before the sixty-fifth birthday, the month in which the birthday falls, and three months after the
birthday. However, if they wish the insurance coverage to begin when they reach 65, they must enroll three months
before their birthday. People who do not enroll within their first enrollment period may enroll later, during the first
24
three months of each year. Those people, however, must pay 10% additional for each twelve- month period that
elapsed since they first could have enrolled. The monthly premium is deducted from social security payments,
railroad retirement or civil service retirement benefits.
Question 39. The period after the sixty-fifth birthday during which people may apply for Medicare is .
A. one month B. January 1 to March 31 yearly C. a quarter of a year D. seven months
Question 40. You can infer that people over 65 who enroll two years after they could have enrolled pay 10% more
for two years and then could .
A. continue to pay more than people who enrolled before they were 65
B. pay less than people who enrolled before 65
C. pay the same as people who enrolled before 65 D. be excluded from the Medicare plan completely
Question 41. To start coverage by Medicare on their sixty-fifth birthday, people must apply______.
A. three months before their birthday B. seven months before their birthday
C. four months before their birthday D. the month in which their birthday occurs
Question 42. The author's purpose is to________.
A. tell people when they may enroll in Medicare B. stimulate enrollment in Medicare
C. describe the benefits of Medicare D. advertise Medicare
Question 43. The word "deducted" in the passage can be replaced by________.
A. subtracted B. protected C. escaped D. taken away
Question 44. The word "elapsed" in the passage most closely means________.
A. finished B. passed C. ended D. expired
Question 45. People would pay 10% more for their insurance if they________.
A. were under 65 B. enrolled after their sixty-fifth birthday
C. applied seven months before their sixty-fifth birthday D. enrolled in a private plan
Question 46. Jim has won a jackpot prize. 10% of it was donated to flooded areas.
A. Jim has won a jackpot prize, 10% which half was donated to flooded areas.
B. Jim has won a jackpot prize, 10% of which was donated to flooded areas.
C. Jim has won a jackpot prize, 10% of that was donated to flooded areas.
D. Jim has won a jackpot prize, which was donated to flooded areas.
Question 47. My sister didn't leave the car key. I couldn't pick her up at the airport.
A. If my sister have left the car key, I could have picked her up at the airport.
B. If my sister had left the car key, I could pick her up at the airport.
C. If my sister had left the car key, I could have picked her up at the airport.
D. If my sister left the car key, I could pick her up at the airport.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
Question 48. Chatting with friends is interesting.
A. People chatting with friends are interesting. B. The only interesting thing is chatting with friends.
C. The friends we chat with are interesting. D. It is interesting to chat with friends.
Question 49. She started working as a teacher of English ten years ago.
A. She had worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
B. She had been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
C. She has worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
D. She has been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
Question 50. They asked me to send my latest photo.
A. My latest photo was sent by them. B. I was sent their latest photo.
C. The latest photo they asked about was sent to me. D. I was asked to send my latest photo.
25
TEST 8
Question 1: A. host B. prove C. compose D. program
Question 2: A. pencil B. penalty C. personality D. peasant
Question 3: A. prisoner B. disaster C. agency D. president
Question 4: A. pity B. event C. medal D. spirit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic
Question 5: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute
A. again and again B. from time to time C. very rapidly D. time after time.
Question 6: Human beings are constantly contaminating natural habitats of the wildlife.
A. polluting B. promoting C. destroying D. protecting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic
Question 7: The proposal will go ahead despite strong objections from the public
A. support B. disagreement C. agreement D. dislike
Question 8: Mathematics, a required subject in all schools, is divided into many branches.
A. assembled B. separated C. strengthened D. shortened
Question 9: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where many
jobs are found.
Question 10: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the
education of every child.
Question 11: It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.
Question 12: Only because she had to support her family________ to leave school.
A. that Alice decides B. so Alice decided C. Alice decided D. did Alice decide
Question 13: ________ today, there would be nowhere for them to stay.
A. If they arrive B. Had they arrive C. Were they to arrive D. Provided they arrived
Question 14: An economic________ is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot of
unemployment and poverty.
A. improvement B. depression C. development D. mission
Question 15: Our plan________ by the members of the committee
A. considers B. considered C. is considering D. is being considered
Question 16: The children were quite attracted by the tamer and his animals________ were performing on the stage.
A. that B. which C. whom D. who
Question 17: Government have________ laws to protect wildlife from overhunting and commercial trade.
A. enacted B. enabled C. enlarged D. encouraged
Question 18: I________ a terrible accident while I________ on the beach.
A. see/ am walking B. saw/ was walking C. was seeing/ walked D. have seen/ were walking
Question 19: There's a rumor that the National Bank is going to________ the company I work for.
A. take on B. take out of C. take over D. take off
Question 20: Peter won’t come to see you tomorrow, ________?
A. is he B. will you C. will he D. does he
Question 21: By working systematically, you________ achieve the results you desire.
A. should B. may C. had better D. would rather
Question 22: As soon as I________ smoking, I felt a lot better.
A. took up B. took out C. gave out D. gave up
Question 23: Smoking is not permitted here, so you’d better________ your cigarette.
26
A. extinguish B. to extinguish C. extinguishing D. extinguished
Marian Anderson’s brilliant singing career began at age six when she sang spirituals at the Union Baptist
Church in her hometown of Philadelphia. She toured Europe in the 1920s, drawing vast acclaim. However, when she
returned to the United States she was still barred from performing on the American operatic stage. After she was
prevented from singing in Washington’s segregated Constitution Hall in 1939, Eleanor Roosevelt intervened and
arranged for Miss Anderson to perform at the Lincoln Memorial. A crowd of 75,000 people came to watch her sing
before the Memorial. Marian Anderson’s beautiful contralto voice broke down racial barriers, showing white
Americans that blacks had a profound contribution to make to America’s cultural life.
Eventually, in 1955, she became the first African- American singer to perform at New York’s Metropolitan
Opera. In her many years of touring, she had to endure a racism that forced her to enter concert halls and hotels
through service entrances. Her grace under this stress showed a moral perseverance that paralleled that of the famous
Martin Luther King, Jr.
Question 24: We can conclude from the passage that Marian Anderson first toured Europe instead of the United
States because_______.
A. it was too expensive to tour in the United States
B. she was not allowed to perform in the United States
C. she was paid more in Europe D. there were better operatic facilities in Europe
Question 25: The word "barred" in line 3 could best be replaced by which of the following ?
A. purged B. released C. overpowered D. prohibited
Question 26: The significance of Anderson's Lincoln Memorial performance was that_______.
A. 75,000 people came B. her contralto voice was beautiful C. She was too young D. she was a black performer
Question 27: The phrase "broke down racial barriers" in the first paragraph means_______.
A. shattered obstacles B. disclosed opportunities C. revealed inaccuracies D. analyzed destinations
Question 28: The word "eventually" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by_______.
A. sooner B. in the long run C. at last D. recently
Question 29: According to the passage, what did Marian Anderson have in common with Martin Luther King, Jr?
A. singing in church B. a performance at the Lincoln Memorial C. a clear strong voiceD. moral perseverance
Question 30: What is NOT TRUE about Marian Anderson?
A. She had contralto voice. B. She was a black singer.
C. Her singing career started after she was ten years old.
D. She was the first who performed at New York’s Metropolitan Opera in 1955.
It’s quite rare to meet teenagers who don’t like sports. When you are young, you know how important
(31)______ to do physical exercise if you want to be healthy and strong, and for that reason you often concentrate on
just one sport with so (32)______ enthusiasm that in the end you can’t live without it. The problem is, though, that as
you grow up you have less and less spare time. At your age you have to study harder if you want to get good marks to
go to university, with perhaps only one afternoon a week to do any sport. This happens just when you are the best
(33)______ for many sports, such as gymnastics and swimming. By the time you finish all your studies you will
probably be too old to be really good at sports like those, but if you spend enough time on (34)______ while you are
young, then one day you will find that you are very good at your sport but too old to study, and you will find it
(35)______ to get a good job. Somehow, it doesn’t seem fair.
Question 31: A. this is B. you are C. it is D. things are
Question 32: A. keen B. many C. great D. much
Question 33: A. stage B. age C. period D. time
Question 34: A. training B. practice C. exercise D. sporting
Question 35: A. impractical B. unlikely C. improbable D. impossible
Sometimes people add to what they say even when they don't talk. Gestures are the "silent language"
of every culture. We point a finger or move another part of the body to show what we want to say. It is
27
important to know the body language of every country or we may be misunderstood. In the United States,
people greet each other with a handshake in a formal introduction. The handshake must be firm. If the
handshake is weak, it is a sign of weakness or unfriendliness. Friends may place a hand on the other's arm
or shoulder. Some people, usually women, greet a friend with a hug.
Space is important to Americans. When two people talk to each other, they usually stand about two
and a half feet away and at an angle, so they are not facing each other directly. Americans get
uncomfortable when a person stands too close. They will move back to have their space. If Americans touch
another person by accident, they say, "Pardon me." or "Excuse me." Americans like to look the other person
in the eyes when they are talking. If you don't do so, it means you are bored, hiding something, or are not
interested. But when you are stare at someone, it is not polite. For Americans, thumbs-up means yes, very
good, or well done. Thumbs down means the opposite. To call a waiter, raise one hand to head level or
above. To show you want the check, make a movement with your hands as if you are signing a piece of
paper. It is all right to point at things but not at people with the hand and index finger. Americans shake
their index finger at children when they scold them and pat them on the head when they admire them.
Learning a culture's body language is sometimes confusing. If you don't know what to do, the safest thing
to do is to smile.
Question 36: From the passage we can learn that_______.
A. gestures don't mean anything while talking B. It's confusing to understand a culture's body language
C. gestures can help us to express ourselves D. American people often use body language in communication
Question 37: The word “firm ” in the first paragraph refers to_________.
A. tight B. small C. light D. fast
Question 38: If you are introduced to a stranger from the USA, you should_______.
A. greet him with a hug B. place a hand on his shoulder C. shake his hand weaklyD. shake his hand firmly
Question 39: American people often________.
A. show their friendship by touching each other. B. face each other directly when they are talking
C. say "Pardon me" to each other when they are talking
D. get uncomfortable when you stand or sit too close to them
Question 40: When your friend give you a thumbs-up, he, in fact, ______.
A. shows his rudeness to you B. shows his anger to you
C. expresses his satisfaction to you D. expresses his worries about you
Question 41: The word “confusing” in the second paragraph refers to_______.
A. easy to understand B. difficult to understand C. convenient to understand D. comfortable to understand
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT true about the culture of the United States?
A. It's impolite to look the other person in the eyes while talking.
B. It's rude to look at the other person for a long time.
C. Pointing at someone is usually considered rude.
D. It's all right to raise your hand slightly to attract the waiter's attention.
Question 43: From this passage, we should pay much attention to_________ when communicating with Americans.
A. gesture B. posture C. body language and space D. Both A & C
Question 44: I did not come to your party due to the rain.
A. If it did not rained, I would come to your party. B. It was the rain that prevented me from coming to your party.
C. Even though it rained, I came to your party. D. Suppose it did not rain, I would come to your party.
Question 45: As soon as he approached the house, the policeman stopped him.
A. No sooner had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him.
B. Hardly had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him.
C. No sooner had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him.
D. Hardly he had approached the house when the policeman stopped him.
Question 46: I have never talked to the headmaster before .
A. It’s the first time I ever talked to the headmaster B. It’s the first time I had ever talked to the headmaster.
C. It’s the first time I have ever talked to the headmaster.
D. It’s the first time I will ever have talked to the headmaster.
28
Question 47: - Nam: “I’m really tired. I’m taking next week off.“ - Mai: “_____________“
A. Take care, my love. Have a nice weekend! B. Really? I don’t know what you are going to do.
C. That sounds like a good idea. The break will do you good. D. Well, you must be telling a lie!
Question 48: - Huy: “I would like some more tea.” - Dung : “____________“.
A. Well, I’d rather have coffee B. Certainly you are C. I’m sorry. I haven’t got any left D. No. I’ve had enough
Question 49: They spent more money. They had to work harder.
A. The more money they spent, the harder they had to work.
B. The more they spent money, the harder work they had to.
C. The more money they spent, the more harder they had to work.
D. The more they spent money, the more hard they had to work.
Question 50: I don’t remember the man. You met him at the canteen last week.
A. I don’t remember the man whom you met him at the canteen last week.
B. I don’t remember the man whose you met at the canteen last week.
C. I don’t remember the man whom you met at the canteen last week.
D. I don’t remember the man that you met him at the canteen last week.
TEST 9
Question 1: A. measure B. breathe C.breath D. head
Question 2: A. missed B. stopped C. talked D. arrived
Question 3: A. explain B. involve C. purpose D. control
Question 4: A. dictation B. communicate C. occasion D. reservation
Question 5: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to
brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversify
Question 6: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students.
A. strict B. outspoken C. firm D. tactful
Question 7: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.
A. constant B. objective C. changeable D. ignorant
Question 8: In big cities, animals should be kept under control.
A. out of dispute B. out of hand C. out of order D. out of discipline
Question 9: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have become extinct
have increased.
Question 10: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
Question 11: If you think carefully before making your decision, you will avoid to get into trouble later.
Question 12: Those who don’t get_________ their colleagues are sometimes isolated at their jobs.
A. up with B. on to C .by with D. along with
Question 13: When I_________ to visit her yesterday, she_________ a party.
A. come/ was prepared B. came/ prepared C. came/ was preparing D. came/has prepared
29
Question 14: Peter is so_________ that he never thinks of anything bad and unsuccessful.
A. optimistic B. disappointed C. pessimistic D. keen
Question 15: If you finish the report, please give it to your supervisor. He will read_________ and make any
necessary changes.
A. out B. through C. over D. with
Question 16: I_________ Tom with me if I had known you and he didn’t get along well with each other. A.
won’t bring B. didn’t bring C. hadn’t brought D. wouldn’t have brought
Question 17: Last year Matt earned_________ his brother, who had a better position.
A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as more as D. twice as many as
Question 18: Reagan_________ an actor years ago.
A. is said to be B. was said being C. was said have been D. is said to have been
Question 19: No sooner_________ the feast will start tomorrow.
A. will the bell ring than B. the bell will ring than C. the bell will ring when D. will the bell ring when
Question 20: A (n)_________ child means a child who behaves badly and saddens his parents.
A. active B. hard – working C. obedient D. insubordinate
Question 21: Much progress on computers_________ since 1950.
A. has been made B. has done C. has been done D. has made
Question 22: It looks like they’re going to succeed_________ their present difficulties.
A. despite B. because of C. even though D. yet
Question 23: Everyone likes_________ when they have got some success.
A. to congratulate B. to be congratulating C. to be congratulated D. being congratulated
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially
survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say
that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You
should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the
release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-off and landings you are advised to keep your feet flat on the
floor. Before takeoff you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seat between you
and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary. In the even that you are forewarned of the possible
accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane come to complete stop.
If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or
clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible,
follow crew command and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are
fully inflated and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the
ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.
Question 24: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off ?
A. The nearest one. B. The ones that can be found in the dark.
C. The two closest to the passenger’s seat. D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them.
Question 25. The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. vacate B. escape C. maintain D. return
Question 26. According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor______.
A. during take-off and landings B. throughout the flight
C. especially during landings D. only if an accident is possible
Question 27. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Airline industry accident statistics. B. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passengers survival.
C. Procedures for evacuating aircraft. D. Safety instructions in air travel.
Question 28. Airline passenger are to do all of the following EXCEPT______.
A. fasten their seat belt before take-off B. locate the nearest exist
C. carry personal belongings in an emergency D. ask questions about safety
Question 29. The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. expanded B. lifted C. increased D. assembled
Question 30. Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions______.
A. if smoke is in the cabin B. before take-off C. before locating the exits D. in an emergency
30
There is usually one important subject missing from most school timetables. Very few students are
(31)______ how to organize their learning, and how to make the best use of their time. Let’s take some simple
examples. Do you know how to (32)______ up words in a dictionary , and do you understand all the information the
dictionary contains ? Can you (33)______ notes quickly, and can you understand them afterwards ? For some
reason, many schools give learners no help with these matters. Teachers ask students to (34)______ pages from
books , or tell them to write ten pages, but don’t explain how to do it. Learning by heart can be useful, but it is
important to have a genuine understanding of a subject. You can (35)______ a lot of time memorizing books, without
understanding anything about the subject.
Question 31: A. taught B. learned C. educated D. graduated
Question 32: A. find B. get C. research D. look
Question 33: A. do B. send C. make D. revise
Question 34: A. concentrate B. remind C. forget D. memorize
Question 35: A. pass B. waste C. tell D. use
In the exploration of the linguistic life circle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to learn a second language in
adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never completely master a foreign language, especially in
phonology - hence the foreign accent. Their development often 'fossilizes' into permanent error patterns that no
teaching or correction can undo. Of course there are great individual differences, which depend on effort, attitudes,
amount of exposure, quality of teaching, and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap for the best adults in the best
circumstances.
Many explanations have been advanced for children's superiority: they exploit the simplified, repetitive
conversation between parents and children, make errors unself-consciously, are more motivated to communicate, like
to conform, are not set in their ways, and have no first language to, interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely,
based on what is known about how language acquisition works.: Recent evidence is calling these social and
motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out: sheer age.
Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues. They tested Korean and
Chinese-born students at the University of Illinois who had spent at least ten years in the U.S. The immigrants were
given a list of 276 simple English sentences, half of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who
came to the U.S. between the ages of three an seven performed identically to American-born students. Those who
arrived between the ages of 8 and 15 did worse the later they arrived, and those who arrived between 17 and 39 did
the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated their age of arrival.
Question 36: The passage mainly discusses_______.
A. adult differences in learning a foreign language B. children's ability to learn a language
C. the age factor in learning languages fast D. Research into language acquisition
Question 37: The word 'cap' is closest in meaning to_______.
A. prize B. limit C. covering D. level
Question 38: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all the following reasons
EXCEPT___.
A. they make many mistakes B. they want to talk C. their approach is flexible D. they frequently repeat words
Question 39: The word 'set' is closest in meaning to_______.
A. fixed B. changed C. stable D. formed
Question 40: The word 'unrelated' could be replaced by_______.
A. unconnected B. unfamiliar C. unclassified D. unidentified
Question 41: In the experiment in the passage, the psychologists discovered_______.
A. most students had lived in the U.S. for more than ten years B. older students were unable to learn English
C. young students learn English best D. students who arrived late were worst of all
Question 42: The word 'who' refers to_______.
A. Elissa Newport B. Koreans C. students D. colleagues
Question 43: According to the passage, what was the purpose of examining a sample number of immigrants ?
A. To compare different age groups B. To detect differences in nationalities
C. To confirm different language characteristics D. To measure the use of grammar
31
Question 44: Although my father’s always busy, he often helps me with my homework.
A. My father’s always busy, but he often helps me with my homework.
B. My father’s always busy, and he often helps me with my homework.
C. My father’s always busy, so he often helps me with my homework.
D. My father’s always busy because he often helps me with my homework.
Question 45: We had to put off our wedding until September.
A. It was not until September that our wedding had to be put off.
B. Not until September did we have to put off our wedding.
C. Our wedding until September had to be postponed.
D. Our wedding had to be postponed until September.
Question 46: As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home.
A. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected.
B. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home.
C. Calling home, he said that he had arrived at the airport.
D. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home.
Question 47: - Nam: “ I don’t think English is too hard to study.” - Huy: “____________ “ .
A. I do too B. I don’t neither C. Neither do I D. I do either
Question 48: - Duy: “ How nice ! You performed so beautifully!“ - Huong: “____________“
A. Thank you. I am happy you like me. B. Thank you. But I don’t think I did well.
C. Thank you. But I am not so sure. D. Thank you. It’s very encouraging.
Question 49: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
Question 50: Put your coat on. You will get cold.
A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on. B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.
C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold. D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.
TEST 10
Under certain circumstances, the human body must cope with gases at greater-than-normal atmospheric
pressure. For example, gas pressures increase rapidly during a dive made with scuba gear because the breathing
equipment allows divers to stay underwater longer and dive deeper. The pressure exerted on the human body
increases by 1 atmosphere for every 10 meters of depth in seawater, so that at 30 meters in seawater a diver is
exposed to a pressure of about 4 atmospheres. The pressure of the gases being breathed must equal the external
pressure applied to the body; otherwise breathing is very difficult. Therefore all of the gases in the air breathed by a
scuba diver at 40 meter are present at five times their usual pressure. Nitrogen, which composes 80 percent of the air
we breathe, usually causes a balmy feeling of well-being at this pressure. At a depth of 5 atmospheres, nitrogen
causes symptoms resembling alcohol intoxication, known as nitrogen narcosis. Nitrogen narcosis apparently results
from a direct effect on the brain of the large amounts of nitrogen dissolved in the blood. Deep dives are less
dangerous if helium is substituted for nitrogen, because under these pressures helium does not exert a similar narcotic
effect.
As a scuba diver descends, the pressure of nitrogen in the lungs increases. Nitrogen then diffuses from the
lungs to the blood, and from the blood to body tissues. The reverse occurs when the diver surfaces; the nitrogen
pressure in the lungs falls and the nitrogen diffuses from the tissues into the blood, and from the blood into the lungs.
32
If the return to the surface is too rapid, nitrogen in the tissues and blood cannot diffuse out rapidly enough and
nitrogen bubbles are formed. They can cause severe pains, particularly around the joints.
Another complication may result if the breath is held during ascent. During ascent from a depth of 10 meters,
the volume of air in the lungs will double because the air pressure at the surface is only half of what it was at 10
meters. This change in volume may cause the lungs to distend and even rupture. This condition is called air
embolism. To avoid this event, a diver must ascend slowly, never at a rate exceeding the rise of the exhaled air
bubbles, and must exhale during ascent.
Question 1: The word “exert” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. permit B. cause C. need D. change
Question 2: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The equipment divers use B. How to prepare for a deep dive
C. The symptoms of nitrogen bubbles in the bloodstream D. The effects of pressure on gases in the human body
Question 3: The word “They” in bold in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. joints B. pains C. tissues D. bubbles
Question 4: What happens to nitrogen in body tissues if a diver ascends too quickly?
A. It is reabsorbed by the lungs. B. It goes directly to the brain.
C. It forms bubbles. D. It has a narcotic effect.
Question 5: It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following presents the greatest danger to a diver?
A. Nitrogen diffusion B. An air embolism C. Nitrogen bubbles D. Pressurized helium
Question 6: The word “rupture” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. shrink B. burst C. hurt D. stop
Question 7: What should a diver do when ascending?
A. Breathe helium B. Relax completely C. Breathe faster D. Rise slowly
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. government B. interview C. reference D. understand
Question 9: A. equipment B. scholarship C. develop D. discourage
Question 10: An employer must be very careful in dealing with subordinates and documenting their files in order to
avoid complaints.
A. bosses B. coordinators C. outside help D. employees
Question 11: It’s incomprehensible to a non-addict that an illicit drug can control the life of a young abuser.
A. readable B. favorable C. imperative D. understandable
Question 12: I should have finished my work last night but I was exhausted.
A. Last night I was exhausted but I tried to finish my work.
B. My work was finished last night but I was exhausted.
C. I did finish my work last night though I was exhausted.
D. I was exhausted so I didn’t finish my work yesterday as planned.
Question 13: The boss was annoyed that his secretary came to work late.
A. The secretary came to work late, which annoyed the boss.
B. The secretary came to work late causing annoyance.
C. That the secretary came to work late annoys the boss.
D. The boss disapproved of his secretary’s coming to work late.
Question 14: “Why don’t you choose German as your optional subject?” said Jane.
A. Jane admitted that I choose German as my optional subject.
B. Jane suggested that I choose German as my optional subject.
C. Jane reminded me of choosing German as my optional subject.
D. Jane suggested choosing German as my optional subject.
33
Fashions go round and round
Fashions have always changed with time. No (15) ____ Roman girls worried about having the latest hairstyle
and boys in Ancient Egypt wanted to have sandals that were cool and not the sensible ones their mothers preferred.
Looking (16) _______ over recent times, there seem to be two main differences in the way fashions have
changed compared to earlier times. Firstly, (17) ______ more people have a choice of clothes available to them.
There are few places in the world where the trainers, the caps or the T-shirts of teenagers do not change from one
year to the next. Secondly, styles are (18) ______ within a much shorter time than they used to be. For instance, in
the 1960s, (19) ______ had the same low waists and narrow skirts as forty years before.
In the early years of the 21st century, the shops are full of long skirts and coloured scarves like the ones in
fashion only thirty years before. Soon, we will find that the really fashionable people look no different from the rest
of us, because it is only ten years since their clothes were in fashion before!
Question 15: A. way B. doubt C. chance D. matter
Question 16: A. about B. round C. behind D. back
Question 17: A. far B. some C. even D. much
Question 18: A. exchanged B. returned C. repeated D. accepted
Question 19: A. jackets B. blouses C. trousers D. dresses
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
Question 20: A smile can be observed, described, and reliably identify; it can also be elicited and manipulated under
experimental conditions.
Question 21: A food additive is any chemical that food manufactures intentional add to their products.
Question 22: A number of the American Indian languages spoken at the time of the European arrival in the New
World in the late fifteen century have become extinct.
There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to one
another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit. However,
tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them.
The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of the
Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates. There are a few enormous plates
and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in
constant – yet slow – motion. The plates may move away from or toward other plates. In some cases, they collide
violently with the plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the rock. Over a long time,
this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens.
Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only scientific
instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they cause little harm or
damage. More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. They
may additionally injure and skill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change it appearance.
Since most of the Earth’s surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet’s oceans.
Underwater earthquakes cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the ocean. When this
occurs, a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions from the place
where the earthquake happened. A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of kilometres. As it
approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunamis to increase in height.
Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami – one more than ten meters in height – can travel far inland. As it
does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people.
Question 23: Which of the following statements does paragraph 1 support?
A. A tsunami happens in tandem with an earthquake. B. The most severe type of natural disaster is an earthquake.
C. Earthquakes cause more destruction than tsunamis. D. Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis do.
Question 24: The word “it” in bold in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. The core B. The crust C. The Earth D. The mantle
Question 25: What is the passage mainly about?
A. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen. B. What kind of damage natural disasters can cause.
C. How earthquakes and tsunamis occur. D. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes.
Question 26: The word “adjoining” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
34
A. residing B. approaching C. bordering D. appearing
Question 27: The word “perceive” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. detect B. prevent C. comprehend D. locate
Question 28: Which of the following is true regarding the crust?
A. It is the smallest of the Earth’s three layers. B. It is thicker on land than it is under the water.
C. There many separate pieces that make it up. D. The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much.
Question 29: Based on the passage, what is probably true about tsunamis?
A. They kill more people each year than earthquakes. B. They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound.
C. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean. D. They can be deadly to people standing near shore.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes?
A. How severe the majority of them are B. What kind of damage they can cause
C. How often powerful ones take place D. How many people they typically kill
other three in pronunication in each of the following questions.
Question 31: A. nowadays B. dykes C. ruins D. pesticides
Question 32: A. opposite B. economic C. appropriate D. technology
Question 33: - Mary: “Is it all right if I use your bike?” – Joan: “___________.”
A. Please accept it with my best wishes. B. Go straight ahead. C. Sure, go ahead. D. Oh, sorry.
Question 34: - Mike: “What do you think about the election?” – Essien: “___________.”
A. I must be off. Thank you. B. The Democratic Party had to win.
C. Really? The Republican Party won. D. The Democratic should have won.
Question 35: The leader went so fast that no one could keep up with him.
A. If only the leader had gone faster. B. What a fast leader!
C. If the leader hadn’t gone so fast, we could have kept up with him.
D. I wish the leader could not have kept up with us.
Question 36: Mary lost the ticket. She didn’t go to the concert.
A. If Mary had lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
B. Had Mary not lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
C. Hadn’t Mary lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
D. If Mary hadn’t lost the ticket, she would go to the concert.
Question 37: A magician is an entertainer who performs a series of deceptive tricks based on the principles of
physics, optics, and psychology.
A. skillful B. incomprehensible C. misleading D. obvious
Question 38: The adhesive qualities of this new substance far surpass those of all others of its type.
A. disintegrating B. dissolving C. damaging D. sticky
questions.
Question 39: Andrea has a ______ rug on the floor in her bedroom.
A. sheepskin lovely long white B. long lovely white sheepskin
C. lovely long sheepskin white D. lovely long white sheepskin
Question 40: I haven’t _______ decided where to go on holiday.
A. already B. yet C. still D. just
Question 41: Computers that once took up entire rooms are now _____ to put on desktops and into wristwatches.
A. small enough B. smaller than C. so small D. as small as
Question 42: The average ______ watches television for about 15 hours a week.
A. spectator B. observer C. audience D. viewer
Question 43: Although Brenda came last, everyone agreed she had ______ her best.
A. had B. got C. done D. made
35
Question 44: We didn’t _______ to the station in time to catch the train.
A. reach B. get C. make D. arrive
Question 45: Bill took not only a French class _______ a Japanese class.
A. but too B. too C. but also D. and
Question 46: Sharon did not attend the meeting because she was ______ the weather.
A. under B. in C. due to D. on
Question 47: One prefers to shop at Harrods, ______?
A. isn’t it B. doesn’t one C. don’t you D. isn’t one
Question 48: How many ______ the game is still unknown.
A. fans attended B. fans attending C. did fans attend D. has attended
Question 49: The second bus, _______, didn’t stop either.
A. that was full B. what was full C. which was full D. that was full
Question 50: ______ here for hours and I feel tired.
A. I have stood B. I’m standing C. I have been standing D. I had been standing
36

SEO-Optimized title for English exam passage

Încărcat de

Informații document

Descriere originală:

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

SEO-Optimized title for English exam passage

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

TEST 1

S-ar putea să vă placă și