Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

TEST - 1 (Code-C)
Test Date : 14/10/2018

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (4) 109. (4) 145. (1)
2. (4) 38. (4) 74. (2) 110. (3) 146. (3)
3. (1) 39. (4) 75. (1) 111. (4) 147. (1)
4. (1) 40. (1) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (2)
5. (2) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (4) 150. (1)
7. (2) 43. (4) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (1)
10. (3) 46. (1) 82. (1) 118. (4) 154. (4)
11. (1) 47. (3) 83. (4) 119. (2) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (3)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (2) 157. (2)
14. (2) 50. (2) 86. (2) 122. (4) 158. (4)
15. (4) 51. (3) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (4) 88. (1) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (1) 53. (1) 89. (4) 125. (1) 161. (3)
18. (1) 54. (1) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163. (3)
20. (2) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (2) 164. (4)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (2) 165. (1)
22. (3) 58. (1) 94. (2) 130. (1) 166. (2)
23. (3) 59. (3) 95. (3) 131. (2) 167. (4)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (4) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (4) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (4) 63. (1) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (1) 64. (1) 100. (4) 136. (2) 172. (1)
29. (4) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (4)
30. (3) 66. (2) 102. (3) 138. (4) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (1)
32. (4) 68. (3) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (1) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (1) 70. (1) 106. (4) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (1) 107. (4) 143. (1) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (1) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)

ANSWERS & HINTS

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3)
2
2 v max
Hint : The interval in which displacement is zero. 0  v max  2 S2  S2  ...(ii)
2
Solution : For the curve, ACB displacement is zero
x 2
v max  1 1
S  S1  S2  
C 2    

A B  2  2  2  3  100
v max   S 
 5

t  4 15 m/s
0 T
 4. Answer (1)
 S
Vav  0 2v1v 2
t Hint : v av 
v1  v 2
2. Answer (4)
Hint : Solution : v1 = 36 km/h = 10 ms–1

Displacement and velocity may be positive or v2 = 54 km/h = 15 ms–1

negative.
S1  S2
v av 
4th t1  t2
v

s S
2nd S
S1   10  t1  t1  2
2 10
+ve

0 S
S
Solution : Direction of displacement is vertically S2   15  t2  t2  2
2 15
downward.
S<0 S
v av   12 ms1
Direction of velocity is downward S 1 1

2 10 15 
So, v < 0
3. Answer (1) 5. Answer (2)

 2  v
Hint : v max   S Hint : a 
 t
Solution : v = t2 + 4t
 
u=0 vmax v=0
At t = 1 s, v = 5 ms–1
Solution : S1 S2
t = 2 s, v = 12 ms–1
S1 S2
2
v max 12  5
2
v max  2S1  S1  ...(i) a  7 ms2
2 2 1

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Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
6. Answer (1) v0
a (constant)
dv t0
Hint : a  v
dx 1 2
x   x0  ut  at
Solution: 2
1 v0 2
x   x0  0  t
v x 2 t0
 1 ...(i)
v 0 x0 1 v0 2
x   x0  t
v0 2 t0
v  x  v0 ...(ii)
x0 10. Answer (3)
|Total displacement travelled|
dv v Hint : | Average velocity | = Total time taken
 0 ...(iii) Solution:
dx x0

dv  v 0   v 
a v  x  v0   0 
dx  x0 B A
  x0  O

v 02 v 02
 x | Displacement | = 10 m
x02 x0
5 
7. Answer (2) Time taken =  s
10 2
dv 10 20
Hint : a  slope of v  t graph | Average velocity | =

 ms1
dt 
Solution : a = slope of v – t graph 2
= –ve value (constant) 11. Answer (1)
Hint : Reaction time
a
Solution:
Distance travelled during reaction time
0 t
S1 = 10 × 1 = 10 m ...(i)
Distance travelled during retarded motion

v 2 100
8. Answer (2) S2    50 m ...(ii)
2a 2  1
Total distance travelled
Hint : Average speed = Total travelled distance = S1 + S2 = 60 m
Total time taken
Distance of car from red signal
Detailed Solution : From t = 0 to t = 4 s x1 = 4 m
= 70 – 60 = 10 m
From t = 4 s to t = 6 s x2 = 0 12. Answer (2)
From t = 6 s to t = 10 s x3 = 4 m
1 2
Hint : h  v 0t  gt
404 8 4 2
Average speed =   ms1
10 10 5 Solution :
9. Answer (2) t=6

1 2
Hint : S  S0  ut  at
2
5 7
Solution:
v h

v0 4 8

0 t
t0

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
Particle will be at maximum height at t = 6 s.
1 2
Solution : h  u0t  gt
1 2
h  10  62  180 m.
2
13. Answer (3)
u0
Hint : v 22  v12  2a0l

Detailed solution : v 22  v12  2a0l h

v 22  v12
l
2a0 1 2
h  u0t  gt
2
–3.2 = 6t – 5t2
l 5t2 – 6t – 3.2 = 0
2
t = 1.6 s
l 16. Answer (2)
v 2  v12  2a0
2
Total travelled distance
Hint : Average speed =
 v 2  v12  v12  v 22 Total time taken
v 2  v12  a0  2 
 2a  2 Solution : Time taken by cyclist A
 0 
36
2h
v12  v 22 18
v
2 Time taken by B cyclist from cycling
14. Answer (2)  1 3
 2    h
Hint : d + x = v0t ...(i)  2 2
1 2 Average speed of B for actual riding
x at ...(ii)
2
36
Solution : 32 + x = 10t ...(i)   24 km/h
3
1 2
x  1 t 2 ...(ii)
2 17. Answer (1)
Hint : S = S1 + S2 + S3
10 ms–1 a = 1 ms–2
1
Solution : S1   1 4 2  8 m
2
32 m x
S2 = v0t2 = (a1t1)t2 = 1 × 4 × 10 = 40 m
1 2 0  v 02  2a2S3
32  t  10t  0
2
t2 – 20t + 64 = 0 16
S3  4m
22
20  400  256 20  12
t  S = 40 + 8 + 4 = 52 m
2 2
18. Answer (1)
t = 4, 16
aA u A
t=4s Hint : 
aB uB
15. Answer (4)
Hint : Stone will acquire velocity of frame of Detailed solution : tA = tB = t0
reference when it leave frame of reference. 0 = 20 – aAt0

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Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
Velocity at t = 5 s
20
 aA  v = 7.5 ms–1
t0
 5  37.5
10 a  (7.5)      9.4 ms2
Similarly aB  4
  4
t0
21. Answer (2)
aA 20 2
  t2
aB 10 1
t vdt
Hint : v  1
t2
19. Answer (3)
Hint : Total time (n – 1) T0 time interval
t 1
dt

1 2
Solution : h  gt 5 2
2
Solution : v
 (30t
 0
 4t  2)dt
5

7
0 dt
6
5
5  30t 3 4t 2 
4    2t 
 3 2 0
3
(5  0)
2
1
1
 (10t 3  2t 2  2t )05
Total time = (7 – 1) T0 5
= 6 T0
1
 [10  125  50  10]  262 ms1
1 5
h  gt 2
2
22. Answer (3)
1
h  g {36T02 } Hint : Smaller least count.
2
Solution : Least count is minimum in = 0.001 m, so
h  18 gT02 it is most precise.
23. Answer (3)
180  18  10  T02
Hint : In multiplication, product has number of
T0 = 1 s
significant figures equal to least significant figure
20. Answer (2) present in calculation.
dv Solution :
Hint : a  v
dx V = IR
Solution : V = 1.25 × 25.425

–1
= 31.78125
v(ms )
= 31.8 (3 significant figures)
24. Answer (3)
A
10 Hint : Limitations of dimensional analysis.
B Solution :
5
1. Two and more physical quantities may have
x(m) same dimensional expression.
0 3 7
2. Numerical constant has no dimensions.
dv 5
 3. Method of dimensions can be used only for
dx 4 product of physical quantities.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
25. Answer (2) 29. Answer (4)
Hint : n1u1 = n2u2 Hint : [L] = [pavbmc]
a b c Solution : [L] = [M1L2T–1]
 M   L  T 
Solution : n2  n1  1   1   1  [p] = [M1L2T–3]
 M2   L2  T2 
–34 [v] = [M0L1T–1]
h = 6.6 × 10 J-s
[m] = [M1L0T0]
[h] = [M1L2T–1]
[M1L2T–1] = k [M1L2T–3]a [M0L1T–1]b [M1L0T–0]c
a = 1, b = 2, c = –1
1 2 1
1=a+0+c
34  kg   m   s 
n2  6.6  10  10 g   5m   100 s 
2 = 2a + b + 0
      –1 = –3a – b
 1 
 6.6  1034 102   102  a = –1, b = 4, c = 2
 25  30. Answer (3)
= 2.64 × 10 –31
2
1 1 l 
26. Answer (4) Hint : k  mv 2  m  
Hint : Planck’s constant and angular momentum 2 2 t 
have same dimensions. 2
1 1 l 
Solution : Solution : k  mv 2  m  
2 2 t 
1. Energy density and pressure have same
dimensions.
k m l t
2. Relative density and plane angle have no  100   100   100  2  100
k m l t
dimension.
= 1% + 4% + 2% = 7%
Q [M1L2 T 2 ]
[C ]   31. Answer (4)
m Q [MK]
Hint : It has no dimension.
 [M0L2 T 2K 1]
ds cos 
Solution : Solid angle d  
Q r2
[L ]   [M0L2 T 2 ]
m
 ds cos   0 0 0
27. Answer (4) [d  ]     [M L T ]
 r2 
Hint : n1u1 = n2u2
32. Answer (4)
Solution : [E] = [M1L2T–2]
Hint : Fundamental forces.
2 kgm2s–2 = [2 kg]1 [2 m]2 [n s]–2
Solution : Gravitational force is the weakest force.
22
2  2 2 Gravitational forces are central forces, electrostatic
n forces are central forces, strong nuclear forces are
2
n =4 not central forces.
n = 2, similarly we can find the relation for 33. Answer (1)
momentum and power. 34. Answer (1)
28. Answer (1) Hint : Mass and energy are inter-convertable.
Hint : Trignometric ratios have no dimensions Solution : Conservation laws in nature.
Solution : [LHS] = [RHS] 1. Law of conservation of energy
[y] = [Ax2] 2. Law of conservation of linear momentum
y  3. Law of conservation of angular momentum
[ A]   2   [L1]
x  35. Answer (2)
[] = [M0L0T0] Hint : Raman effect.
[] = [M0L1T0] Solution : CV Raman won noble prize for scattering
[A2] = [M0L1T0] of light by molecules.

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Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
36. Answer (3) 41. Answer (3)
  
Hint : Non-zero digits are significant. Hint : arel  aA  aB
  
Solution : Trailing zeros in a number without Solution : arel  aA  aB
decimal are insignificant.
=g–g=0
37. Answer (1)
42. Answer (1)
Hint : z = xy Hint : L.C = 1MSD – 1VSD
Z X Y Solution : L.C = 1MSD – 1VSD
 
Z X Y  VSD 
 MSD 1  
Solution : z = xy  MSD 
1 MSD = 1 mm
Z X Y
  19 MSD = 20 VSD
Z X Y
19
Z 0.4 0.1 1 1 VSD = VSD
   20
Z 4 1 5
 19 
Z 1 L.C = 1 1    0.05 mm
  20 
4 5 43. Answer (4)
Z = 0.8 m 44. Answer (2)
Z = (4 ± 0.8) m Hint : R = R1 + R2
38. Answer (4) Solution : Req = R1 + R2
Hint : If there is no digit after 5 then last digit should R R1  R2 0.1  0.1
be even.  
Req R1  R2 30
Solution : 2.765 rounding off (3 significant)
R 0.2 2
= 2.76  100   100  %
Req 30 3
5.735 = 5.74
45. Answer (3)
39. Answer (4)
Hint : Mean absolute error
Hint : Minimum percentage error.
|x1|  |x2 |      |xn |
Solution : Percentage error in 2.000 m 
n
0.001 Solution : xm = 330 ms–1
  100  0.05%
2.000 x1 = |342 – 330| = 12
40. Answer (1) x2 = |338 – 330| = 8
Hint : The difference with average value should be x3 = |318 – 330| = 12
least. x4 = |322 – 330| = 8
Solution : t1 = |10.00 – 9.95| = 0.05 s 12  8  12  8
  10 ms1
t2 = |10.00 – 10.10| = 0.10 s 4

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (1) 47. Answer (3)
Hint: Chromium has half-filled d-subshell.
h Solution: Cr(24) : [Ar]4s13d 5
Hint: Orbital angular momentum = l  l  1
2 48. Answer (4)
Hint: n-factor for acid is number of replaceable H+
Solution: For f - orbital, I = 3 ions
Solution: n-factor = 1
h 3h Mol. wt 120
Orbital angular momentum = 3  3  1  Eq. wt.   120
2  n-factor 1

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
49. Answer (4) 54. Answer (1)
Hint: No. of particles = No. of moles × NA Hint: Dilution equation, M1V1 = M2V2
Solution: Solution: For stock solution,
Moles of oxygen atom = 0.3 × 14 = 4.2
49  1.5  10
No. of electrons of oxygen atoms = 4.2 × 8 × NA M1   7.5
98
= 33.6 NA
Now, M1V1 = M2V2
50. Answer (2)
7.5 × V1 = 0.1 × 2.5 × 1000
 y y
Hint: CxHy   x   O2  x CO2  H2O V1 = 33.33 ml
 4 2
55. Answer (2)
x Moles of CO2 obtained
 Hint: Normality = Molarity × n-factor
y 2  Moles of H2O obtained
 8.8   9.033  1022 
x  44   
   1 6.022  1023
Solution:
y  5.4  3 Solution: Molarity of OH     0.3 M
2  500 103
 18 
 Empirical formula = CH3 0.3
 Molarity of Ca(OH)2 = M
2
Molecular wt. 2  30
n  4  0.3 
Empirical formula wt. 15  Normality of Ca(OH)2 =   2  0.3 M
 Molecular formula = n × empirical formula  2 
56. Answer (3)
= 4 (CH3) = C4H12
Hint: No. of atoms = No. of molecules × atomicity
51. Answer (3)
Solution: Remaining molecules of CO2 =
Hint: Only four lines of Balmer series of hydrogen
atom lie in visible region  440 103 
  6.022  1023   1020
Solution: For n = 6 (5th excited state) transition to 44 
 
n=1
 No. of remaining atoms = 59.22 × 1020 × 3
* Maximum possible transitions
= 1.77 × 1022
=   6  1  5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 =15
57. Answer (4)
* Maximum Paschen transitions
1 1
= 3(6  3, 5  3, 4 3) Hint: FeO  O2  Fe 2O3
4 2
52. Answer (4)
1 1
Hint: For one electron species, energy of subshell Solution: FeO  O2  Fe2O3
1 mole 4 2
depends only on the value of n. (72g) 0.25 mole
(8g)
Solution: For 3rd shell, No. of degenerates orbitals = n2
= 32 = 9. 8
% increase in wt.   100  11.11%
53. Answer (1) 72
58. Answer (1)
z
v n z2 h
Hint: Frequency  f     2   3 Hint:  
r n  n mv
 
 z  Solution: H2 has minimum molar mass so have
longest de-Broglie wavelength.
Solution:
59. Answer (3)
 32 
 3  Hint: s, p and d-subshells have 1, 3 and 5 orbitals
THe fLi2  2 9
   respectively.
TLi2  fHe  2  32
2
Solution:
 3 
1  In l subshell, number of orbitals = 2l + 1

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Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
60. Answer (2) Solution: Mass of 1 ml D2O = 1 g
Hint: Electrons in half filled p-subshell have different
orientations.  1 
 20 
Solution: Orientation of orbitals is given by magnetic M   3  50 M
quantum number. 1 10
61. Answer (2) 66. Answer (2)
Hint: Law of multiple proportions is illustrated for
1 2
 1 1 compounds which have two same elements.
Hint:   R Z  2  2 
 n1 n2  Solution: CH4 : for 12 g C, wt. of H = 4 g = x
Solution: For second line of Lyman series : C2H4 : for 12 g C, wt. of H = 2 g = y
1 1 1
 R  (1)2   2  2  x 4 2
x 1 3     = Simple whole no. ratio
y 2 1
1 8 9 67. Answer (4)
 R R
x 9 8x Hint: M1 V1 + M2 V2 = M3 V3
1 2 1 1 
For 3rd line of Lyman series :   R  (1)   2  2  Solution: 0.5 × 2 + 1 × 1= M3 × 3
1 4 
2
15 9 15 135 M3   0.67 M
R    3
16 8 x 16 128 x
68. Answer (3)
128 x 3
 
135 Hint: 2 AI  O2 
 Al2O3
2
62. Answer (3) 3
Hint: Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d 8 Solution: 2 Al  O2 
 Al2O3
2
Solution: 29Cu = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d 10 3

s-electrons in Cu atom = 7 KClO3  KCl  O2
2
63. Answer (1) 3
From stoichiometry, 2 mole Al require mole O2
6 z 2
Hint: v n  2.18 10 m/sec
n 3
and mole O2 is obtained by 1 mole KCIO3.
2
2
v  2.18  106  69. Answer (3)
Solution: 4 He

 4 1
Hint: Divalent metal chloride should be MCl2
c 3  108 275
Solution: Mol. wt.= 2 × vapour density = 60 × 2 = 120
64. Answer (1) x + 2 × 35.5 = 120
Hint: For minimum molar mass, one molecule x = 49
should contain at least one atom of oxygen
49
wt.of oxygen Eq. wt. of metal   24.5
Solution:% of oxygen =  100 2
wt.of compound
70. Answer (1)
16 Hint: Average atomic mass =
4  100
Mol.wt.  % abundance of isotope  atomic mass
Minimum mol. wt. = 400 amu 100
65. Answer (4) 13  x  12  (100  x)
Solution: 12.011 
nsolute 100
Hint: Molarity (M) = V L  x = 1.1%

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
71. Answer (1) 78. Answer (4)
Hint: Mass of electron is 9.1 × 10–31 kg
h
Solution: Positron is the particle having mass equal Hint:  x   p 
4
to electron but having a unit positive charge
72. Answer (2) h
Solution:  x  m   v 
Hint: -particle is He nucleus (He2+) which contains 4
2 protons and 2 neutrons.
h 6.626  1034
e x  
Solution: For neutron, 0 4 m  v  100 
m 4  103  6.626 1024
  
e
For other particles, order is
m  x  2.5  1010 m  2.5 Å
electron > proton > -particle 79. Answer (4)
73. Answer (4) Hint: For principal quantum number n, l can be 0, 1,
Hint: l = 2 means d-subshell 2, ... (n – 1)
Solution: d-subshell can have maximum 10 Solution: for n = 2,
electrons. l  2, it will have value 0 and 1.
74. Answer (2) 80. Answer (1)
Hint: -rays, X-rays , UV, visible, IR, microwaves
n2
Wavelength increases Hint: rn  0.53 Å
Z
Frequency decreases Solution: n = 2, Z = 4
Solution: Visible waves have higher frequency than
IR. 22
 r4  0.53   0.53 Å
75. Answer (1) 4
81. Answer (2)
Xsolute  1000
Hint: molality(m) = Hint: Ti : [Ar] 4s2 3d 2
Xsolvent  MWsolvent
Solution:
0.2  1000 Ti2+ : [Ar] 3d2
Solution: m   13.89
0.8  18 82. Answer (1)
76. Answer (2)
 1 1
Hint: Exchange energy of electrons is defined for Hint: E  13.6 Z2  2  2  eV/atom
degenerate orbitals.  n1 n2 
Solution: Exchange energy of electrons is defined Solution: For, n1 = 4 and n2 = 5
as energy released when an electron exchanges its
position with electron having same spin present in 9
E   13.6 eV/atom
degenerate orbitals. 16  25
77. Answer (2) 83. Answer (4)
1 h Hint: Electron density of the p-orbitals lie along the
Hint: KE  mv 2 ,   , v   axes.
2 mv
Solution: dxy orbital does not have electron density
v v  mv 2 1 2 along the axis.
Solution:      mv 2   KE
 h h 2 h 84. Answer (3)
2 1
 34
 3.313  1027  107 sec 1 Hint: One AVOGRAM =
6.626  10 NA

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Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
85. Answer (2) 87. Answer (4)
Hint: Isoelectronic species have same number of
wt.of element
Hint: % of an element   100 electrons.
wt.of compound
Solution: Species Total electrons
16 N2 14
Solution: For YO: % of oxygen =  100
M  16
CO 14

40 
1600 O22 14
 M  24
M  16 O2 17
–
For second oxide: Let YOx CN 14
16 x 88. Answer (1)
% of oxygen = 16 x  24  100
2
Hint: Ionisation energy  13.6  Z eV
1600 x n2
20  Solution: Z = 2, n = 1
16 x  24
13.6  22
 Ionisation energy   54.4 eV
3 12
x
8 89. Answer (4)
Hint: Bohr’s model is valid only for one electron
 YO x  YO 3  Y8 O3
species.
8
Solution: According to Bohr’s theory, angular
86. Answer (2) momentum of an electron is quantised.
Hint: No. of molecules = No. of moles × NA 90. Answer (3)
10
Solution: H2 : No. of molecules  NA  5NA nhc
2 Hint: E 

O2 : No. of molecules = 10 NA 60
Solution: Energy released = 66.26 × J
100
CO2 : No. of molecules = 8 NA 60 n  6.626 1034  3 108
 66.26  
64 100 100 109
SO2 : No. of molecules = N A  NA .
64  n = 2 × 1019

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (2)
Hint: Nuclear membrane is found in all eukaryotes.
Solution: Mycoplasma, BGA, Bacillus, purple
photosynthetic bacteria & E.coli are prokaryotes.
92. Answer (3)
Hint: Body of plants and animals are composed of
cells & product of cells was proposed by Theodor
Schwann.
Solution: Theodor Schwann was a British zoologist.
93. Answer (4)
Hint: Chloroplast is the site of photosynthesis and
contain pigments in eukaryotes.
Solution: Chromatophores are membranous
extension in the cytoplasm of a cyanobacterial cell
which have photosynthetic pigments
94. Answer (2)
Hint: This inclusion body provides buoyancy to the
bacteria
Solution: Ribosomes are found in all prokaryotes
and eukaryotes. Cyanophycean granules are found in
cyanobacteria only while gas vacuoles are found in
blue-green algae (BGA) as well as in purple & green
photosynthetic bacteria
95. Answer (3)
Hint: Lipid molecules of plasma membrane have
polar head and non-polar tail.
Solution: Polar head is hydrophilic in nature and it
interacts with water. Rest all the statements
regarding plasma membranes are true.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
96. Answer (4)
Hint: Movement of molecules across the membrane
without help of carrier proteins and ATP is called
simple diffusion
Solution: Simple diffusion occurs only for those
molecules which are neutral or non-polar, while
transport of polar and hydrophilic substances need
carrier proteins.
97. Answer (2)
Hint: Smallest cell organelle is known as organelle
within organelle.
Solution: Ribosome is known as organelle within
organelle and its r-RNA part is synthesized inside the
nucleolus.
98. Answer (3)
Hint: These structures are present in pits.
Solution: Symplast of two adjacent cells are
connected via cytoplasmic strands or
plasmodesmata. They are lined by plasma
membrane.
99. Answer (3)
Hint: The given figure is of golgi bodies
Solution: Enzymatic precursors for lysosomes are
synthesized in ER. Golgi does processing and
packaging of materials for intra as well as extra-cellular
targets.
Rest all the features of golgi are true.
100. Answer (4)
Hint: ER, Golgi, lysosomes & vacuoles function in
a coordinated manner.
Solution: Oxidation of fatty acids, proteins and
carbohydrate occurs inside the mitochondria.
Rest all functions are performed by organelles of
endomembrane system.
101. Answer (3)
Hint: This organelle has hydrolytic enzymes which
become functional at acidic pH.
Solution: Lysosomes have hydrolytic enzymes for
digestion of almost all types of macromolecules
which are functional at acidic pH.
102. Answer (3)
Hint: This organelle is found in almost all eukaryotic
cells and is site of ATP synthesis.
Solution: Mitochondria are sausage shaped, have
their own 70S ribosomes i.e, palade particles and
they are viewed after staining with Janus green.
Usually their number is high in those cells which
have high metabolism.
12/17
Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
103. Answer (2)
Hint: ‘S’ is a unit
Solution: ‘S’ stands for Svedberg coefficient or
sedimentation coefficient and it is indirect measure of
density and size of ribosomal sub units.
104. Answer (2)
Hint: These structures are absent in prokaryotes.
Solution: Cytoskeleton are proteinaceous
filamentous structures which provide mechanical
strength & support to the cell.
105. Answer (3)
Hint: Microfilaments are solid unbranched rod like
fibrils.
Solution: Microtubules have diameter of 25 nm.
Intermediate filaments are involved in formation of
scaffolds of chromatin.
106. Answer (4)
Hint: This structure is absent in higher plants.
Solution: Centrioles have 9 peripheral fibrils of
tubulin and these are absent in the centre therefore
the arrangement is 9 + 0.
107. Answer (4)
Hint: In leucoplast granum remains absent.
Solution: Protoplast is a cell without cell wall.
108. Answer (2)
Hint: Both mitochondria and chloroplast are semi
autonomous structures.
Solution: Mitochondria, chloroplast and bacteria all
have ds circular DNA, 70S ribosomes porins on
outer membrane and self duplication ability.
Mitochondria and chloroplast are partially dependent
on nucleus.
109. Answer (4)
Hint: Polyribosomes are formed in cytoplasm
Solution: Polysomes are not formed with the help of
RER
110. Answer (3)
Hint: Nucleolus is found inside the nucleus
Solution: Nucleolus is non-membrane bound
structure found in nucleoplasm of nucleus. They are
larger in cells involved in protein synthesis.
111. Answer (4)
Hint: Chromatin is packed DNA
Solution: Packed DNA has RNA, histones and
some non-histone proteins.
Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
112. Answer (1)
Hint: Chromatids of chromosomes are held together
at primary constriction.
Solution: Primary constriction is known as
centromere which holds the two halves of a
chromosome.
113. Answer (2)
Hint: Such chromosomes appear L-shaped during
anaphase.
Solution: A chromosome with centromere slightly
away from the centre is submetacentric chromosome.
114. Answer (4)
Hint: Loops of lampbrush chromosomes have hair
like structure and with protein that are known as
informosomes.
Solution: Lampbrush chromosomes form loops
which have hair like structures. These hairs are
bound to protein. Some of which are called
informosome i.e, having mRNA + protein. These
loops participate in transcription and form m-RNA
115. Answer (3)
Hint: These structures help in photorespiration
along with chloroplast and mitochondria.
Solution: Peroxisomes are involved in photorespiration
because they have enzymes for formation as well
as destruction of peroxide.
116. Answer (3)
Hint: These structures are tubular and help bacteria
to attach with rocks also.
Solution: Fimbriae are bristle like structures which
help bacteria to attach with rocks or host cell.
117. Answer (2)
Hint: The cell also has cell wall with plasmodesmata.
Solution: Plant cells have cell wall with
plasmodesmata. Their 90% volume is occupied by
vacuoles.
118. Answer (4)
Hint: Bacterial type ribosomes are also found in
some cell organelles of eukaryotes.
Solution: Both ribosomes and plasma membrane
are similar in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
119. Answer (2)
Hint: Crossing over occurs in pachytene stage.
Solution: Point at which crossing over occurs forms
the recombination nodule.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
120. Answer (3)
Hint: Spindle fibres are not directly attached to the
centromere.
Solution: A disc-shaped structure is found over
centromere through which spindle fibres are attached
called kinetochore.
121. Answer (2)
Hint: Meiosis involves two sequential karyokinesis
and cytokinesis.
Solution: Except DNA duplication and histone
protein synthesis, rest all phenomenon occur twice
in meiosis.
122. Answer (4)
Hint: Tubulin protein synthesis occurs in the stage
where duplication of mitochondria & chloroplast
occurs.
Solution: Most of the cell organelles get duplicated
in G1. But Golgi, chloroplast and mitochondria are
doubled at G 2 phase along with tubulin protein
synthesis.
123. Answer (3)
Hint: Interphase is known as the most active stage
of cell cycle.
Solution: Interphase constitute more than 95%
duration of cell cycle of a human cell. Rest all the
features regarding the interphase are true.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: Last phase of karyokinesis in mitosis involves
reappearance of cell organelles and nuclear
membrane.
Solution: At the end of mitosis, the chromosomes
decondense into chromatin which occurs in
telophase.
125. Answer (1)
Hint: Major restriction point inhibits cells to go for
DNA synthesis.
Solution: Major control on cell cycle can be
imposed on G1  S transition step.
126. Answer (3)
Hint: Number of mitotic divisions to form ‘n’ number
of cells are = n – 1
Solution: Number of generations (n) required to form
‘x’ number of cells are = 2n
For 32 cells
Mitotic divisions = 32 – 1 = 31
Number of generations = 25 = 32, x = 5
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
127. Answer (2)
Hint: The given stage is the best stage to study
morphology of chromosomes.
Solution: Given stage is Metaphase I. where,
 Bivalent chromosomes align at equator forming
two metaphasic plates
 Alignment of bivalents is totally random process.
 Spindle fibre attaches to each chromosome of
homologous pair
 Separation of chromosomes occur at anaphase I
128. Answer (2)
Hint: Each chromosome has 2 chromatids
Solution: 1 Bivalent = 2 chromosomes
20 Bivalent = 20 × 2 = 40 chromosomes
Since 1 chromosome = 2 chromatids
40 chromosomes = 80 chromatids
129. Answer (2)
Hint: Recombinase enzyme catalyses the process
occurring in pachytene stage.
Solution: Crossing over is enzyme mediated
process and it produces recombinants.
130. Answer (1)
Hint: Dyad of cells appear in last stage of heterotypic
division
Solution: Dyad of cells are formed at the end of
telophase I.
131. Answer (2)
Hint: Cell plate represents the future middle lamella
of adjacent cells.
Solution: Cell plate help in cytokinesis of plant cells
which represent the middle lamella of adjacent cells.
132. Answer (2)
Hint: Treatment of colchicine produces polyploid
condition.
Solution: Colchicine inhibits formation of tubulin and
therefore microtubules. Lack of microtubules results
in inhibition of spindle fibres formation and its affect
will be visible first at metaphase.
133. Answer (4)
Hint: Mitosis does not involve crossing over.
Solution: Mitosis helps in reproduction in unicellular
organisms. It helps in repair and regeneration but
cannot produce recombinants.
134. Answer (2)
Hint: Interkinesis is resting phase between meiosis
I and II.
14/17
Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
Solution: Meiosis I and II involves into sequential
karyokinesis. Chromosomes do not decondense upto
DNA level in interkinesis because after telophase I
chromatin recondense in prophase II.
135. Answer (3)
Hint: Meiosis involves crossing over as well as
reduction of chromosome number.
Solution: Four cells produced after telophase II are
genetically dissimilar to each other as well as to
their parents.
136. Answer (2)
Hint : Compounds whose role or function we do not
understand at the moment.
Solution : Primary metabolites are essential for
physiological processes and have identifiable
functions. Secondary metabolities include alkaloids,
antibiotics, rubber, essential oils, spices etc.
137. Answer (3)
Hint : Order of percentage of biomolecules in cells.
Solution : Water > proteins > nucleic acids >
carbohydrates > lipids > ions
70  90%  10  15%  5  7%  3%  2%  1%
A  C  B  D  E
138. Answer (4)
Hint : Polymers are found in retentate/acid insoluble
fraction.
Solution : Cysteine, calcium & cytosine are
micromolecules that are obtained in filtrate/acid
soluble fraction. Cellulose is a polymer of glucose
and due to its large size it cannot cross the filtration
membrane.
139. Answer (2)
Hint : Bones are reservoirs of some elements.
Solution : Matrix of bone is largely composed of
hydroxyapatite crystals of calcium phosphate.
Essential fatty acids & essential amino acids are
supplied in diet.
140. Answer (4)
Hint : Identify a molecule which is a monomer.
Solution : Inulin is a polymer of fructose, while
insulin is a polymer of amino acids. Lactose is a
disaccharide. Polymers can be broken into
monomers by addition of water (hydrolysis).
141. Answer (1)
Hint : Dehydration is a condensation reaction
involving loss of water molecule.
Solution : Cystine formation requires removal of H2
and disulfide bonds are formed between two amino
acids. Formation of lecithin, adenosine and collagen
requires formation of ester & glycosidic bonds
respectively.
Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
142. Answer (3)
Hint : Structural sugar found in RNA.
Solution : Cellulose is unbranched structural
homopolymer of glucose comprising of (1-4)
glycosidic linkages. Ribose is a monomer formed
without glycosidic bond. Cytidylic acid is a
nucleotide found in RNA.
143. Answer (1)
Hint : Reducing sugar.
Solution : Sugars with free aldehyde or ketone
groups are detected by Benedict’s and Fehling’s
solution. Glucose and galactose have free aldehyde
group while fructose has free keto group. Sucrose
has no free keto or aldehyde group.
144. Answer (1)
Hint : Isomerism in hexose sugars.
Solution : Galactose & glucose are aldose sugars
while fructose is ketohexose. Ribose is a pentose
sugar.
145. Answer (1)
Hint : Pentose sugar derived from C5H10O5.
Solution : 5 carbon sugar in RNA (ribonucleic acid)
is ribose. DNA has deoxyribose with molecular
formula C5H10O4.
146. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify a nucleotide. Ribozyme is RNA acting
as enzyme.
Solution : ATP is adenosine triphosphate.
147. Answer (1)
Hint : Formation of polymers and disaccharides
requires glycosidic bonds.
Solution : Glucose is a monomer of cellulose but
cellulose is unbranched homopolymer glucose.
148. Answer (2)
Hint : Unsaturated fatty acids have low melting
points.
Solution : Gingelly oil/sesame oil and arachidonic
acid are unsaturated fatty acids, hence will have
lower melting points in comparison to other saturated
lipids given.
149. Answer (3)
Hint : Double bonds cannot be introduced beyond 9th
carbon position in most animals usually.
Solution : Linoleic acid has 2 double bonds
(9 & 12th carbon). Plants are able to synthesize
essential fatty acids by introducing double bonds at
12th & 15th carbon. Oleic acid has a single double
bond at 9th position. In most mammals, arachidonic
acid can be formed from linoleic acid.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
150. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify a homopolymer.
Solution : Chitin comprises of repeating units of (1
 4) N-acetylglucosamine. Nucleic acids (DNA),
proteins i.e. RuBisCO and insulin are
heteropolymers.
151. Answer (4)
Hint : Organic cofactor loosely attached to
apoenzyme.
Solution : Niacin and riboflavin are vitamins requires
for formation of coenzymes such as NAD, FAD &
FMN.
152. Answer (3)
Hint : First alphabet of amino acid is considered as
the basis of single alphabet code.
Solution : Tyrosine is coded by Y, phenylalanine by
‘F’ and glutamic acid by E. This is because
threonine, proline & glycine have already been named
as T, P & G respectively.
153. Answer (1)
Hint : Two or more amino acids can be linked by
peptide bonds.
Solution : Collagen is a heteropolymer of amino
acids. Chitin & cellulose are polysaccharides whose
monomers are linked by glycosidic bonds. Choline is
nitrogenous compound found in lecithin.
154. Answer (4)
Hint : All components given are sugars in raffinose.
Solution : Tripeptide has 3 amino acids &
triglyceride has 3 fatty acids linked to glycerol.
155. Answer (4)
Hint : Active site are formed at tertiary level of
protein organisation. Hydrogen bonds stabilise
predominantly protein structure formed at secondary
level of organisation.
Solution : Ionic bonds, Van der Waals forces,
hydrophobic interactions along with hydrogen bonds
stabilise quaternary structure.
156. Answer (3)
Hint : DNA of a eukaryote comprises of A, T, G, C
as nitrogenous base.
Solution : Cytosine is a nitrogenous base while
cysteine is an amino acid.
157. Answer (2)
Hint : Amino acids are monomers of proteins.
Solution : Amino acids are substituted methanes.
They exist as zwitterions at isoelectric pH.
Trihydroxypropane is glycerol. DNA & RNA are
negatively charged molecules.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
158. Answer (4)
Hint : Identify odd one out w.r.t. macromolecules.
Solution : Lipids are neither polymer nor
macromolecules.
159. Answer (2)
Hint : Thymine is exclusive to DNA.
Solution : Thiamine is vitamin B1 while thymine is
nitrogenous base in DNA.
160. Answer (3)
Hint : Hydrolytic enzymes work by addition of water
to break the bond between biomolecules.
Solution : Hydrolases belong to class III according
to nomenclature given by IUB. Phosphodiesterases
also belong to this class of enzymes.
161. Answer (3)
Hint : While overcoming competitive inhibition Km
value increases.
Solution : Succinate is the substrate for enzyme
succinate dehydrogenase. Malonate is its
competitive inhibitor.
162. Answer (2)
Hint : Positional information of amino acids decides
specificity of enzyme action.
Solution : Apoenzymes are proteinaceous part of
holoenzymes. Enzymes never alter the equilibrium of
the reaction, they act by lowering activation energy
barrier.
163. Answer (3)
Hint : White fat is unilocular and adipocytes are
signet ring shaped cells.
Solution : Brown fat in newly born prevents shivering
in them. White fat acts as a reservior of energy and
the triglycerides are hydrolysed upon need.
164. Answer (4)
Hint : Intercalated discs are interdigitations between
adjacent cells that act as boosters of cardiac
impulse.
Solution : Cardiac fibres are striated and the edges
of sarcomeres are ‘Z’ lines. Connexons are part of
gap junctions present at intercalated discs. Visceral
muscles are uninucleated.
165. Answer (1)
Hint : Muscle fibres associated with limbs and heart
are striped in appearance.
Solution : Striated muscles include both cardiac &
skeletal muscles. The alternate light and dark bands
refer to the horizontal arrangement of actin & myosin
filaments.
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Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
166. Answer (2)
Hint : Muscles under the control of our will are
voluntary.
Solution : Smooth and cardiac muscles are
involuntary in nature i.e. they are not under the
control of our will. Smooth muscles contain
unbranched, unstriped, uninucleate fibres.
167. Answer (4)
Hint : Concentric arrangement of calcium salts
surrounding osteocytes.
Solution : The lamellae refer to concentric
arrangement of calcium phosphate salts surrounding
osteocytes in diaphysis of long bones of mammals.
168. Answer (2)
Hint : Exocrine glands release/pour their secretions
through ducts.
Solution : Insulin is a secretion of ductless part of
gland pancreas. Saliva, earwax and milk are
secretions of exocrine glands.
169. Answer (3)
Hint : Endocrine glands lack ducts.
Solution : Endocrine glands do not have ducts and
release their secretion into blood capillaries.
170. Answer (2)
Hint : Multiple layer in epithelial tissue are effective
in protection.
Solution : At surfaces prone to stress (wear & tear)
or abrasion compound epithelium is effective.
171. Answer (2)
Hint : Junctions involved in cementing neighbouring
cells.
Solution : Tight junctions help to stop substances
from leaking across a tissue.
172. Answer (1)
Hint : Stratified i.e. compound epithelium lines
surfaces that face mechanical stress.
Solution : Stratum germinativum comprises of cells
that divide regularly and forms the bottommost layer
of straitified epithelium. Diffusion surfaces and tubular
parts of nephron are lined by single layered simple
epithelium.
173. Answer (4)
Hint : Wine flask shaped cells of alimentary canal.
Solution : Goblet cells are mucus secreting
unicellular glands of alimentary canal. Cerumen and
sweat are secreted by sebaceous & sudorific glands
respectively. Hormones are secretions of endocrine
glands.
Test - 1 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
174. Answer (2)
Hint : Neurilemma is a contribution of Schwann
cells.
Solution : Schwann cells form myelin sheath &
neurilemma in neurons of PNS. Oligodendrocytes
form myelin sheath in CNS. Neurilemma is absent in
CNS. Oligodendrocytes are branched cells while
Schwann cells are not branched.
175. Answer (1)
Hint : Nissl's granules are clusters of RNA &
ribosomes.
Solution : Nissl's granules are site of protein
synthesis located in cell body of neuron/soma & in
dendrites (afferent processes). They are absent in
afferent processes also called axons.
176. Answer (4)
Hint : Response to stimulus is a feature of structural
& functional units of neural system.
Solution : Extensibility is a property of muscle fibres
while neurons exhibit both excitability & conductivity.
177. Answer (1)
Hint : I band is composed of actin filaments while A
band comprises of both actin & myosin filaments.
Solution : Length of both actin & myosin filaments
remain constant. Size of A band also remains
contant. Only the extent of overlap between actin &
myosin filaments increases thereby reducing size of
Henson’s zone.
‰ ‰ ‰
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
178. Answer (2)
Hint : Brush border membrane (BBM) due to
microvilli increase surface area for reabsorption &
absorption.
Solution : Cilia in trachea push mucus with
entrapped particles in specific (upward) direction.
BBM cuboidal is a feature of tubular part of nephrons
while BBM columnar epithelium dominants in
intestine.
179. Answer (1)
Hint : Keratinised epithelium occurs on water
resistant surfaces in living beings.
Solution : Stratum corneum is the topmost layer of
stratified keratinised epithelium. Pharynx, tongue &
cornea are non-keratinised epithelial surfaces.
Microvilli in alimentary canal support absorption of
nutrients not reabsorption. Transitional epithelium is
distensible/stretchable. Little intercellular matrix is
present in epithelial tissue.
180. Answer (4)
Hint : ‘Osteo’ refers to bone & clasts refers to
destruction/demineralisation.
Solution : Osteocytes & osteoblasts are bone
forming cells while osteoclasts are bone dissolving/
dissolution cells that decrease bone calcium.
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Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

TEST - 1 (Code-D)
Test Date : 14/10/2018

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (2) 145. (2)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (3) 110. (3) 146. (2)
3. (4) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (1) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (2) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (4) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (4) 151. (1)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (4)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (3) 46. (3) 82. (1) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (1) 119. (4) 155. (3)
12. (1) 48. (1) 84. (4) 120. (4) 156. (3)
13. (1) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (2) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (2)
16. (3) 52. (3) 88. (4) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (3) 161. (4)
18. (1) 54. (1) 90. (1) 126. (4) 162. (4)
19. (4) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (1)
20. (4) 56. (1) 92. (2) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (2) 165. (4)
22. (3) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (4) 166. (1)
23. (3) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (1) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (1) 97. (2) 133. (4) 169. (1)
26. (2) 62. (2) 98. (2) 134. (3) 170. (3)
27. (3) 63. (4) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (1)
28. (1) 64. (2) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (1)
29. (1) 65. (1) 101. (1) 137. (1) 173. (1)
30. (2) 66. (1) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (4) 67. (3) 103. (3) 139. (1) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (4) 105. (2) 141. (1) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (4) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (3)
36. (3) 72. (1) 108. (4) 144. (1) 180. (2)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)

ANSWERS & HINTS

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) 7. Answer (4)
Hint : Mean absolute error Hint : Minimum percentage error.
|x1|  |x2 |      |xn | Solution : Percentage error in 2.000 m

n 0.001
Solution : xm = 330 ms–1   100  0.05%
2.000
x1 = |342 – 330| = 12
8. Answer (4)
x2 = |338 – 330| = 8 Hint : If there is no digit after 5 then last digit should
x3 = |318 – 330| = 12 be even.
x4 = |322 – 330| = 8 Solution : 2.765 rounding off (3 significant)
12  8  12  8 = 2.76
  10 ms1
4 5.735 = 5.74
2. Answer (2) 9. Answer (1)
Hint : R = R1 + R2 Hint : z = xy
Solution : Req = R1 + R2
Z X Y
R R1  R2 0.1  0.1  
  Z X Y
Req R1  R2 30
Solution : z = xy
R 0.2 2
 100   100  % Z X Y
Req 30 3  
Z X Y
3. Answer (4)
Z 0.4 0.1 1
4. Answer (1)   
Z 4 1 5
Hint : L.C = 1MSD – 1VSD
Solution : L.C = 1MSD – 1VSD Z 1

 VSD  4 5
 MSD 1  
 MSD  Z = 0.8 m
1 MSD = 1 mm Z = (4 ± 0.8) m
19 MSD = 20 VSD 10. Answer (3)
Hint : Non-zero digits are significant.
19
1 VSD = VSD Solution : Trailing zeros in a number without
20
decimal are insignificant.
 19  11. Answer (2)
L.C = 1 1    0.05 mm
 20  Hint : Raman effect.
5. Answer (3) Solution : CV Raman won noble prize for scattering
  
Hint : arel  aA  aB of light by molecules.
   12. Answer (1)
Solution : arel  aA  aB
=g–g=0 Hint : Mass and energy are inter-convertable.
6. Answer (1) Solution : Conservation laws in nature.
Hint : The difference with average value should be 1. Law of conservation of energy
least. 2. Law of conservation of linear momentum
Solution : t1 = |10.00 – 9.95| = 0.05 s 3. Law of conservation of angular momentum
t2 = |10.00 – 10.10| = 0.10 s 13. Answer (1)

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Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
14. Answer (4) Solution : [E] = [M1L2T–2]
Hint : Fundamental forces. 2 kgm2s–2 = [2 kg]1 [2 m]2 [n s]–2
Solution : Gravitational force is the weakest force. 22
Gravitational forces are central forces, electrostatic 2  2
n2
forces are central forces, strong nuclear forces are n2 = 4
not central forces.
n = 2, similarly we can find the relation for
15. Answer (4) momentum and power.
Hint : It has no dimension.
20. Answer (4)
ds cos  Hint : Planck’s constant and angular momentum
Solution : Solid angle d  
r2 have same dimensions.
Solution :
 ds cos   0 0 0
[d  ]   2   [M L T ]
1. Energy density and pressure have same
 r  dimensions.
16. Answer (3) 2. Relative density and plane angle have no
dimension.
2
1 1 l 
Hint : k  mv 2  m   Q [M1L2 T 2 ]
2 2 t  [C ]  
m Q [MK]
2
1 1 l   [M0L2 T 2K 1]
Solution : k  mv 2  m  
2 2 t 
Q
[L ]   [M0L2 T 2 ]
k m l t m
 100   100   100  2  100
k m l t 21. Answer (2)
= 1% + 4% + 2% = 7% Hint : n1u1 = n2u2
17. Answer (4) a b c
Hint : [L] = [pavbmc]  M   L  T 
Solution : n2  n1  1   1   1 
Solution : [L] = [M1L2T–1]  M2   L2  T2 
–34
h = 6.6 × 10 J-s
[p] = [M1L2T–3]
[h] = [M1L2T–1]
[v] = [M0L1T–1]
a = 1, b = 2, c = –1
[m] = [M1L0T0]
1 2 1
[M1L2T–1] = k [M1L2T–3]a [M0L1T–1]b [M1L0T–0]c  kg   m   s 
n2  6.6  10 34      
1=a+0+c  10 g   5m   100 s 
2 = 2a + b + 0  1 
 6.6  1034 102   102 
–1 = –3a – b  25 
a = –1, b = 4, c = 2 = 2.64 × 10–31
18. Answer (1) 22. Answer (3)
Hint : Trignometric ratios have no dimensions Hint : Limitations of dimensional analysis.
Solution : [LHS] = [RHS] Solution :
[y] = [Ax2] 1. Two and more physical quantities may have
y  same dimensional expression.
[ A]   2   [L1] 2. Numerical constant has no dimensions.
x 
[] = [M0L0T0] 3. Method of dimensions can be used only for
product of physical quantities.
[] = [M0L1T0]
23. Answer (3)
[A2] = [M0L1T0]
Hint : In multiplication, product has number of
19. Answer (4)
significant figures equal to least significant figure
Hint : n1u1 = n2u2 present in calculation.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
Solution : 27. Answer (3)
V = IR Hint : Total time (n – 1) T0 time interval
V = 1.25 × 25.425 1 2
= 31.78125 Solution : h  gt
2
= 31.8 (3 significant figures) 7
24. Answer (3) 6
Hint : Smaller least count. 5

Solution : Least count is minimum in = 0.001 m, so 4

it is most precise. 3

25. Answer (2) 2

1
t2
t vdt Total time = (7 – 1) T0
Hint : v  1
t2 = 6 T0
t dt
1
1 2
5
h gt
2 2
Solution : v 
0 (30t  4t  2)dt
1
5
h  g {36T02 }
0 dt 2

5 h  18 gT02
 30t 3 4t 2 
   2t 
 3 2 0 180  18  10  T02
(5  0) T0 = 1 s
28. Answer (1)
1
 (10t 3  2t 2  2t )05 aA u A
5 Hint : 
aB uB
1
 [10  125  50  10]  262 ms1 Detailed solution : tA = tB = t0
5
0 = 20 – aAt0
26. Answer (2)
20
dv  aA 
Hint : a  v t0
dx
Solution : 10
Similarly aB 
t0
–1
v(ms )
aA 20 2
 
A
aB 10 1
10
29. Answer (1)
B
5 Hint : S = S1 + S2 + S3

x(m) 1
0 3 7 Solution : S1   1 4 2  8 m
2
dv 5 S2 = v0t2 = (a1t1)t2 = 1 × 4 × 10 = 40 m

dx 4
0  v 02  2a2S3
Velocity at t = 5 s
v = 7.5 ms–1 16
S3  4m
 5  37.5 22
a  (7.5)      9.4 ms2
4
  4 S = 40 + 8 + 4 = 52 m

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Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
30. Answer (2)
20  400  256 20  12
Total travelled distance t 
Hint : Average speed = 2 2
Total time taken
t = 4, 16
Solution : Time taken by cyclist A
t=4s
36
2h 33. Answer (3)
18
Hint : v 22  v12  2a0l
Time taken by B cyclist from cycling

 1 3 Detailed solution : v 22  v12  2a0l

 2    h
 2  2 v 22  v12
l
Average speed of B for actual riding 2a0

36
  24 km/h
3 l
2 2

l
31. Answer (4) v 2  v12  2a0
2
Hint : Stone will acquire velocity of frame of
reference when it leave frame of reference.  v 2  v12  v12  v 22
v 2  v12  a0  2 
 2a  2
1 2  0 
Solution : h  u0t  gt
2
v12  v 22
v
2
u0
34. Answer (2)

h 1 2
Hint : h  v 0t  gt
2
Solution :
1 2 t=6
h  u0t  gt
2
–3.2 = 6t – 5t2
5t2 – 6t – 3.2 = 0
5 7
t = 1.6 s
h
32. Answer (2)
4 8
Hint : d + x = v0t ...(i)

1 2
x at ...(ii)
2
Particle will be at maximum height at t = 6 s.
Solution : 32 + x = 10t ...(i)
1
h  10  62  180 m.
1 2
x   1 t 2 ...(ii)
2 35. Answer (1)
10 ms–1 a = 1 ms–2 Hint : Reaction time
Solution:
Distance travelled during reaction time
32 m x
S1 = 10 × 1 = 10 m ...(i)
1 2 Distance travelled during retarded motion
32  t  10t  0
2
v 2 100
t2 – 20t + 64 = 0 S2    50 m ...(ii)
2a 2  1

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
Total travelled distance = S1 + S2 = 60 m Solution : a = slope of v – t graph
Distance of car from red signal = –ve value (constant)
= 70 – 60 = 10 m a
36. Answer (3)
|Total displacement travelled| 0 t
Hint : | Average velocity | = Total time taken
Solution:

40. Answer (1)

B
O
A dv
Hint : a  v
dx
Solution:
| Displacement | = 10 m
v x
5   1 ...(i)
Time taken =  s v 0 x0
10 2
10 20 v0
| Average velocity | =  ms1 v  x  v0 ...(ii)
  x0
2
dv v
 0 ...(iii)
37. Answer (2) dx x0
1 2
Hint : S  S0  ut  at dv  v 0   v 
2 a v  x  v0   0 
Solution: dx  x0   x0 
v

v 02 v 02
v0  x
x02 x0
0 t
t0
41. Answer (2)
v
a  0 (constant) v
t0 Hint : a 
t
1 2
x   x0  ut  at Solution : v = t2 + 4t
2
At t = 1 s, v = 5 ms–1
1 v0 2
x   x0  0  t t = 2 s, v = 12 ms–1
2 t0
1 v0 2 12  5
x   x0  t a  7 ms2
2 t0 2 1
38. Answer (2) 42. Answer (1)
Total distance travelled 2v1v 2
Hint : Average speed = Hint : v av 
Total time taken v1  v 2
Detailed Solution : From t = 0 to t = 4 s x1 = 4 m
Solution : v1 = 36 km/h = 10 ms–1
From t = 4 s to t = 6 s x2 = 0
v2 = 54 km/h = 15 ms–1
From t = 6 s to t = 10 s x3 = 4 m
S1  S2
404 8 4 v av 
Average speed =   ms1 t1  t2
10 10 5
39. Answer (2) S
S
Hint : a 
dv
slope of v  t graph S1   10  t1  t1  2
dt 2 10

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Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
44. Answer (4)
S
S Hint : Displacement and velocity may be positive or
S2   15  t2  t2  2 negative.
2 15
4th
v
S
v av   12 ms1 s
S 1 1
 2nd
2  10 15 
+ve
43. Answer (1)
0
 2  Solution : Direction of displacement is vertically
Hint : v max   S
 downward.
S<0
 
u=0 vmax v=0 Direction of velocity is downward
Solution : S1 S2 So, v < 0
S1 S2 45. Answer (3)
2
2 v max Hint : The interval in which displacement is zero.
v max  2S1  S1  ...(i)
2 Solution : For the curve, ACB displacement is zero
x
2
2 v max
0  v max  2 S2  S2  ...(ii) C
2

2
v max  1 1 A B
S  S1  S2  
2    

 2  2  2  3  100
v max   S  t
 5 0 T

 S
Vav  0
 4 15 m/s t

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) 48. Answer (1)
2
Hint: E 
nhc Hint: Ionisation energy  13.6  Z eV
 n2
Solution: Z = 2, n = 1
60 13.6  22
Solution: Energy released = 66.26 × J  Ionisation energy   54.4 eV
100 12
49. Answer (4)
34 8
60 n  6.626 10  3 10 Hint: Isoelectronic species have same number of
 66.26  
100 100 109 electrons.
Solution: Species Total electrons
 n = 2 × 1019
N2 14
47. Answer (4)
CO 14
Hint: Bohr’s model is valid only for one electron
O22 14
species.
O2 17
Solution: According to Bohr’s theory, angular –
CN 14
momentum of an electron is quantised.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
50. Answer (2) 55. Answer (2)
Hint: No. of molecules = No. of moles × NA Hint: Ti : [Ar] 4s2 3d 2
10 Solution:
Solution: H2 : No. of molecules  NA  5NA
2 Ti2+ : [Ar] 3d 2
O2 : No. of molecules = 10 NA 56. Answer (1)

n2
CO2 : No. of molecules = 8 NA Hint: rn  0.53 Å
Z
64
SO2 : No. of molecules = N A  NA . Solution: n = 2, Z = 4
64
51. Answer (2) 22
 r4  0.53   0.53 Å
wt.of element 4
Hint: % of an element   100
wt.of compound 57. Answer (4)
Hint: For principal quantum number n, l can be 0, 1,
16
Solution: For YO: % of oxygen =  100 2, ... (n – 1)
M  16
Solution: for n = 2,
1600 l  2, it will have value 0 and 1.
40   M  24
M  16 58. Answer (4)
For second oxide: Let YOx
h
16 x Hint:  x   p 
4
% of oxygen = 16 x  24  100
h
1600 x Solution:  x  m   v 
20  4
16 x  24
h 6.626  1034
3 x  
x 4 m  v  100 
8 4  103  6.626 1024
  
 YO x  YO 3  Y8 O3
8  x  2.5  1010 m  2.5 Å
52. Answer (3) 59. Answer (2)
1
Hint: One AVOGRAM = 1 h
NA Hint: KE  mv 2 ,   , v  
2 mv
53. Answer (4)
Hint: Electron density of the p-orbitals lie along the v v  mv 2 1 2
Solution:      mv 2   KE
axes.  h h 2 h
Solution: dxy orbital does not have electron density
2
along the axis.   3.313  1027  107 sec 1
54. Answer (1) 6.626  1034
60. Answer (2)
 1 1
Hint: E  13.6 Z  2  2  eV/atom
2
Hint: Exchange energy of electrons is defined for
 n1 n2  degenerate orbitals.
Solution: For, n1 = 4 and n2 = 5 Solution: Exchange energy of electrons is defined
as energy released when an electron exchanges its
9
E   13.6 eV/atom position with electron having same spin present in
16  25 degenerate orbitals.

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Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
61. Answer (1) 68. Answer (3)

Xsolute  1000 3
Hint: molality(m) = Hint: 2 AI  O2 
 Al2O3
Xsolvent  MWsolvent 2
3
Solution: 2 Al  O2 
 Al2O3
0.2  1000 2
Solution: m   13.89
0.8  18 3

KClO3  KCl  O2
62. Answer (2) 2
Hint: -rays, X-rays , UV, visible, IR, microwaves 3
From stoichiometry, 2 mole Al require mole O2
Wavelength increases 2
Frequency decreases 3
and mole O2 is obtained by 1 mole KCIO3.
Solution: Visible waves have higher frequency than 2
IR. 69. Answer (4)
63. Answer (4) Hint: M1 V1 + M2 V2 = M3 V3
Hint: l = 2 means d-subshell
Solution: d-subshell can have maximum 10 Solution: 0.5 × 2 + 1 × 1= M3 × 3
electrons.
2
64. Answer (2) M3   0.67 M
3
Hint: -particle is He nucleus (He2+) which contains
2 protons and 2 neutrons. 70. Answer (2)
Hint: Law of multiple proportions is illustrated for
e
Solution: For neutron, 0 compounds which have two same elements.
m
Solution: CH4 : for 12 g C, wt. of H = 4 g = x
e
For other particles, order is C2H4 : for 12 g C, wt. of H = 2 g = y
m
electron > proton > -particle x 4 2
   = Simple whole no. ratio
65. Answer (1) y 2 1
Hint: Mass of electron is 9.1 × 10–31 kg 71. Answer (4)
Solution: Positron is the particle having mass equal
nsolute
to electron but having a unit positive charge Hint: Molarity (M) = V L 
66. Answer (1)
Solution: Mass of 1 ml D2O = 1 g
Hint: Average atomic mass =

 % abundance of isotope  atomic mass  1 

 20 
100 M   3  50 M
13  x  12  (100  x) 1 10
Solution: 12.011 
100 72. Answer (1)
x = 1.1% Hint: For minimum molar mass, one molecule
67. Answer (3) should contain at least one atom of oxygen
Hint: Divalent metal chloride should be MCl2
wt.of oxygen
Solution: Mol. wt.= 2 × vapour density = 60 × 2 = 120 Solution:% of oxygen =  100
wt.of compound
x + 2 × 35.5 = 120
x = 49 16
4  100
Mol.wt.
49
Eq. wt. of metal   24.5 Minimum mol. wt. = 400 amu
2

9/17
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
73. Answer (1) 79. Answer (4)

z 1 1
Hint: v n  2.18 10
6
m/sec Hint: FeO  O2  Fe 2O3
n 4 2
1 1
2 Solution: FeO  O2  Fe2O3
6
2.18  10  1 mole 4 2
 v 4 He 
4 1 (72g) 0.25 mole
Solution:   (8g)

c 3  108 275
8
% increase in wt.   100  11.11%
74. Answer (3) 72
Hint: Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d 8 80. Answer (3)
Solution: = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d 10 Hint: No. of atoms = No. of molecules × atomicity
29Cu
Solution: Remaining molecules of CO2 =
s-electrons in Cu atom = 7
 440 103 
75. Answer (2)   6.022  1023   1020
44 
 
1  1 1
2
Hint:   R Z  2  2   No. of remaining atoms = 59.22 × 1020 × 3
 n1 n2  = 1.77 × 1022
Solution: For second line of Lyman series : 81. Answer (2)
Hint: Normality = Molarity × n-factor
1 1 1
 R  (1)2   2  2 
x 1 3   9.033  1022 
 
6.022  1023
1 8 9 Solution: Molarity of OH  
   0.3 M
 R R 500 103
x 9 8x
0.3
21 1 1   Molarity of Ca(OH)2 = M
For 3rd line of Lyman series :   R  (1)   2  2  2
1 4 
 0.3 
15 9 15 135  Normality of Ca(OH)2 =   2  0.3 M
R     2 
16 8 x 16 128 x 82. Answer (1)
Hint: Dilution equation, M1V1 = M2V2
128 x
  Solution: For stock solution,
135
49  1.5  10
76. Answer (2) M1   7.5
98
Hint: Electrons in half filled p-subshell have different
orientations. Now, M1V1 = M2V2

Solution: Orientation of orbitals is given by magnetic 7.5 × V1 = 0.1 × 2.5 × 1000

quantum number. V1 = 33.33 ml
77. Answer (3) 83. Answer (1)
Hint: s, p and d-subshells have 1, 3 and 5 orbitals z
respectively. v n z2
Hint: Frequency  f     2   3
Solution: r n  n
 
In l subshell, number of orbitals = 2l + 1  z 
78. Answer (1) Solution:
 32 
h  3 
Hint:   THe fLi2  2 9
mv   
TLi2  fHe  2  32
2
Solution: H2 has minimum molar mass so have  3 
longest de-Broglie wavelength. 1 

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Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
84. Answer (4) Molecular wt. 2  30
n  4
Hint: For one electron species, energy of subshell Empirical formula wt. 15
depends only on the value of n.
 Molecular formula = n × empirical formula
Solution: For 3rd shell, No. of degenerates orbitals = n2
= 4 (CH3) = C4H12
= 32 = 9. 87. Answer (4)
85. Answer (3) Hint: No. of particles = No. of moles × NA
Hint: Only four lines of Balmer series of hydrogen Solution:
atom lie in visible region Moles of oxygen atom = 0.3 × 14 = 4.2
Solution: For n = 6 (5th excited state) transition to No. of electrons of oxygen atoms = 4.2 × 8 × NA
n=1
= 33.6 NA
* Maximum possible transitions
88. Answer (4)
=   6  1  5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 =15 Hint: n-factor for acid is number of replaceable H+
ions
* Maximum Paschen transitions
Solution: n-factor = 1
= 3(6  3, 5  3, 4 3)
Mol. wt 120
86. Answer (2) Eq. wt.   120
n-factor 1
 y y 89. Answer (3)
Hint: CxHy   x   O2  x CO2  H2O
 4 2 Hint: Chromium has half-filled d-subshell.
Solution: Cr(24) : [Ar]4s13d 5
x Moles of CO2 obtained
 90. Answer (1)
y 2  Moles of H2O obtained
h
 8.8  Hint: Orbital angular momentum = l  l  1
2
x  44 
Solution:    1
Solution: For f - orbital, I = 3
y  5.4  3
2 
 18  h 3h
Orbital angular momentum = 3  3  1 
 Empirical formula = CH3 2 

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (3)
Hint: Meiosis involves crossing over as well as
reduction of chromosome number.
Solution: Four cells produced after telophase II are
genetically dissimilar to each other as well as to
their parents.
92. Answer (2)
Hint: Interkinesis is resting phase between meiosis
I and II.
Solution: Meiosis I and II involves into sequential
karyokinesis. Chromosomes do not decondense upto
DNA level in interkinesis because after telophase I
chromatin recondense in prophase II.
93. Answer (4)
Hint: Mitosis does not involve crossing over.
Solution: Mitosis helps in reproduction in unicellular
organisms. It helps in repair and regeneration but
cannot produce recombinants.
94. Answer (2)
Hint: Treatment of colchicine produces polyploid
condition.
Solution: Colchicine inhibits formation of tubulin and
therefore microtubules. Lack of microtubules results
in inhibition of spindle fibres formation and its affect
will be visible first at metaphase.
95. Answer (2)
Hint: Cell plate represents the future middle lamella
of adjacent cells.
Solution: Cell plate help in cytokinesis of plant cells
which represent the middle lamella of adjacent cells.
96. Answer (1)
Hint: Dyad of cells appear in last stage of heterotypic
division
Solution: Dyad of cells are formed at the end of
telophase I.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
97. Answer (2)
Hint: Recombinase enzyme catalyses the process
occurring in pachytene stage.
Solution: Crossing over is enzyme mediated
process and it produces recombinants.
98. Answer (2)
Hint: Each chromosome has 2 chromatids
Solution: 1 Bivalent = 2 chromosomes
20 Bivalent = 20 × 2 = 40 chromosomes
Since 1 chromosome = 2 chromatids
40 chromosomes = 80 chromatids
99. Answer (2)
Hint: The given stage is the best stage to study
morphology of chromosomes.
Solution: Given stage is Metaphase I. where,
 Bivalent chromosomes align at equator forming
two metaphasic plates
 Alignment of bivalents is totally random process.
 Spindle fibre attaches to each chromosome of
homologous pair
 Separation of chromosomes occur at anaphase I
100. Answer (3)
Hint: Number of mitotic divisions to form ‘n’ number
of cells are = n – 1
Solution: Number of generations (n) required to form
‘x’ number of cells are = 2n
For 32 cells
Mitotic divisions = 32 – 1 = 31
Number of generations = 25 = 32, x = 5
101. Answer (1)
Hint: Major restriction point inhibits cells to go for
DNA synthesis.
Solution: Major control on cell cycle can be
imposed on G1  S transition step.
102. Answer (3)
Hint: Last phase of karyokinesis in mitosis involves
reappearance of cell organelles and nuclear
membrane.
Solution: At the end of mitosis, the chromosomes
decondense into chromatin which occurs in telophase.
103. Answer (3)
Hint: Interphase is known as the most active stage
of cell cycle.
Solution: Interphase constitute more than 95%
duration of cell cycle of a human cell. Rest all the
features regarding the interphase are true.
12/17
Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
104. Answer (4)
Hint: Tubulin protein synthesis occurs in the stage
where duplication of mitochondria & chloroplast
occurs.
Solution: Most of the cell organelles get duplicated
in G1. But Golgi, chloroplast and mitochondria are
doubled at G 2 phase along with tubulin protein
synthesis.
105. Answer (2)
Hint: Meiosis involves two sequential karyokinesis
and cytokinesis.
Solution: Except DNA duplication and histone
protein synthesis, rest all phenomenon occur twice
in meiosis.
106. Answer (3)
Hint: Spindle fibres are not directly attached to the
centromere.
Solution: A disc-shaped structure is found over
centromere through which spindle fibres are attached
called kinetochore.
107. Answer (2)
Hint: Crossing over occurs in pachytene stage.
Solution: Point at which crossing over occurs forms
the recombination nodule.
108. Answer (4)
Hint: Bacterial type ribosomes are also found in
some cell organelles of eukaryotes.
Solution: Both ribosomes and plasma membrane
are similar in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
109. Answer (2)
Hint: The cell also has cell wall with plasmodesmata.
Solution: Plant cells have cell wall with
plasmodesmata. Their 90% volume is occupied by
vacuoles.
110. Answer (3)
Hint: These structures are tubular and help bacteria
to attach with rocks also.
Solution: Fimbriae are bristle like structures which
help bacteria to attach with rocks or host cell.
111. Answer (3)
Hint: These structures help in photorespiration
along with chloroplast and mitochondria.
Solution: Peroxisomes are involved in photorespiration
because they have enzymes for formation as well
as destruction of peroxide.
112. Answer (4)
Hint: Loops of lampbrush chromosomes have hair
like structure and with protein that are known as
informosomes.
Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
Solution: Lampbrush chromosomes form loops
which have hair like structures. These hairs are
bound to protein. Some of which are called
informosome i.e, having mRNA + protein. These
loops participate in transcription and form m-RNA
113. Answer (2)
Hint: Such chromosomes appear L-shaped during
anaphase.
Solution: A chromosome with centromere slightly
away from the centre is submetacentric chromosome.
114. Answer (1)
Hint: Chromatids of chromosomes are held together
at primary constriction.
Solution: Primary constriction is known as
centromere which holds the two halves of a
chromosome.
115. Answer (4)
Hint: Chromatin is packed DNA
Solution: Packed DNA has RNA, histones and
some non-histone proteins.
116. Answer (3)
Hint: Nucleolus is found inside the nucleus
Solution: Nucleolus is non-membrane bound
structure found in nucleoplasm of nucleus. They are
larger in cells involved in protein synthesis.
117. Answer (4)
Hint: Polyribosomes are formed in cytoplasm
Solution: Polysomes are not formed with the help of
RER
118. Answer (2)
Hint: Both mitochondria and chloroplast are semi
autonomous structures.
Solution: Mitochondria, chloroplast and bacteria all
have ds circular DNA, 70S ribosomes porins on
outer membrane and self duplication ability.
Mitochondria and chloroplast are partially dependent
on nucleus.
119. Answer (4)
Hint: In leucoplast granum remains absent.
Solution: Protoplast is a cell without cell wall.
120. Answer (4)
Hint: This structure is absent in higher plants.
Solution: Centrioles have 9 peripheral fibrils of
tubulin and these are absent in the centre therefore
the arrangement is 9 + 0.
121. Answer (3)
Hint: Microfilaments are solid unbranched rod like
fibrils.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
Solution: Microtubules have diameter of 25 nm.
Intermediate filaments are involved in formation of
scaffolds of chromatin.
122. Answer (2)
Hint: These structures are absent in prokaryotes.
Solution: Cytoskeleton are proteinaceous
filamentous structures which provide mechanical
strength & support to the cell.
123. Answer (2)
Hint: ‘S’ is a unit
Solution: ‘S’ stands for Svedberg coefficient or
sedimentation coefficient and it is indirect measure of
density and size of ribosomal sub units.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: This organelle is found in almost all eukaryotic
cells and is site of ATP synthesis.
Solution: Mitochondria are sausage shaped, have
their own 70S ribosomes i.e, palade particles and
they are viewed after staining with Janus green.
Usually their number is high in those cells which
have high metabolism.
125. Answer (3)
Hint: This organelle has hydrolytic enzymes which
become functional at acidic pH.
Solution: Lysosomes have hydrolytic enzymes for
digestion of almost all types of macromolecules
which are functional at acidic pH.
126. Answer (4)
Hint: ER, Golgi, lysosomes & vacuoles function in
a coordinated manner.
Solution: Oxidation of fatty acids, proteins and
carbohydrate occurs inside the mitochondria.
Rest all functions are performed by organelles of
endomembrane system.
127. Answer (3)
Hint: The given figure is of golgi bodies
Solution: Enzymatic precursors for lysosomes are
synthesized in ER. Golgi does processing and
packaging of materials for intra as well as extra-cellular
targets.
Rest all the features of golgi are true.
128. Answer (3)
Hint: These structures are present in pits.
Solution: Symplast of two adjacent cells are
connected via cytoplasmic strands or
plasmodesmata. They are lined by plasma
membrane.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
129. Answer (2)
Hint: Smallest cell organelle is known as organelle
within organelle.
Solution: Ribosome is known as organelle within
organelle and its r-RNA part is synthesized inside the
nucleolus.
130. Answer (4)
Hint: Movement of molecules across the membrane
without help of carrier proteins and ATP is called
simple diffusion
Solution: Simple diffusion occurs only for those
molecules which are neutral or non-polar, while
transport of polar and hydrophilic substances need
carrier proteins.
131. Answer (3)
Hint: Lipid molecules of plasma membrane have
polar head and non-polar tail.
Solution: Polar head is hydrophilic in nature and it
interacts with water. Rest all the statements
regarding plasma membranes are true.
132. Answer (2)
Hint: This inclusion body provides buoyancy to the
bacteria
Solution: Ribosomes are found in all prokaryotes
and eukaryotes. Cyanophycean granules are found in
cyanobacteria only while gas vacuoles are found in
blue-green algae (BGA) as well as in purple & green
photosynthetic bacteria
133. Answer (4)
Hint: Chloroplast is the site of photosynthesis and
contain pigments in eukaryotes.
Solution: Chromatophores are membranous
extension in the cytoplasm of a cyanobacterial cell
which have photosynthetic pigments
134. Answer (3)
Hint: Body of plants and animals are composed of
cells & product of cells was proposed by Theodor
Schwann.
Solution: Theodor Schwann was a British zoologist.
135. Answer (2)
Hint: Nuclear membrane is found in all eukaryotes.
Solution: Mycoplasma, BGA, Bacillus, purple
photosynthetic bacteria & E.coli are prokaryotes.
136. Answer (4)
Hint : ‘Osteo’ refers to bone & clasts refers to
destruction/demineralisation.
Solution : Osteocytes & osteoblasts are bone
forming cells while osteoclasts are bone dissolving/
dissolution cells that decrease bone calcium.
14/17
Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
137. Answer (1)
Hint : Keratinised epithelium occurs on water
resistant surfaces in living beings.
Solution : Stratum corneum is the topmost layer of
stratified keratinised epithelium. Pharynx, tongue &
cornea are non-keratinised epithelial surfaces.
Microvilli in alimentary canal support absorption of
nutrients not reabsorption. Transitional epithelium is
distensible/stretchable. Little intercellular matrix is
present in epithelial tissue.
138. Answer (2)
Hint : Brush border membrane (BBM) due to
microvilli increase surface area for reabsorption &
absorption.
Solution : Cilia in trachea push mucus with
entrapped particles in specific (upward) direction.
BBM cuboidal is a feature of tubular part of nephrons
while BBM columnar epithelium dominants in
intestine.
139. Answer (1)
Hint : I band is composed of actin filaments while A
band comprises of both actin & myosin filaments.
Solution : Length of both actin & myosin filaments
remain constant. Size of A band also remains
contant. Only the extent of overlap between actin &
myosin filaments increases thereby reducing size of
Henson’s zone.
140. Answer (4)
Hint : Response to stimulus is a feature of structural
& functional units of neural system.
Solution : Extensibility is a property of muscle fibres
while neurons exhibit both excitability & conductivity.
141. Answer (1)
Hint : Nissl's granules are clusters of RNA &
ribosomes.
Solution : Nissl's granules are site of protein
synthesis located in cell body of neuron/soma & in
dendrites (afferent processes). They are absent in
afferent processes also called axons.
142. Answer (2)
Hint : Neurilemma is a contribution of Schwann
cells.
Solution : Schwann cells form myelin sheath &
neurilemma in neurons of PNS. Oligodendrocytes
form myelin sheath in CNS. Neurilemma is absent in
CNS. Oligodendrocytes are branched cells while
Schwann cells are not branched.
Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
143. Answer (4)
Hint : Wine flask shaped cells of alimentary canal.
Solution : Goblet cells are mucus secreting
unicellular glands of alimentary canal. Cerumen and
sweat are secreted by sebaceous & sudorific glands
respectively. Hormones are secretions of endocrine
glands.
144. Answer (1)
Hint : Stratified i.e. compound epithelium lines
surfaces that face mechanical stress.
Solution : Stratum germinativum comprises of cells
that divide regularly and forms the bottommost layer
of straitified epithelium. Diffusion surfaces and tubular
parts of nephron are lined by single layered simple
epithelium.
145. Answer (2)
Hint : Junctions involved in cementing neighbouring
cells.
Solution : Tight junctions help to stop substances
from leaking across a tissue.
146. Answer (2)
Hint : Multiple layer in epithelial tissue are effective
in protection.
Solution : At surfaces prone to stress (wear & tear)
or abrasion compound epithelium is effective.
147. Answer (3)
Hint : Endocrine glands lack ducts.
Solution : Endocrine glands do not have ducts and
release their secretion into blood capillaries.
148. Answer (2)
Hint : Exocrine glands release/pour their secretions
through ducts.
Solution : Insulin is a secretion of ductless part of
gland pancreas. Saliva, earwax and milk are
secretions of exocrine glands.
149. Answer (4)
Hint : Concentric arrangement of calcium salts
surrounding osteocytes.
Solution : The lamellae refer to concentric
arrangement of calcium phosphate salts surrounding
osteocytes in diaphysis of long bones of mammals.
150. Answer (2)
Hint : Muscles under the control of our will are
voluntary.
Solution : Smooth and cardiac muscles are
involuntary in nature i.e. they are not under the
control of our will. Smooth muscles contain
unbranched, unstriped, uninucleate fibres.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
151. Answer (1)
Hint : Muscle fibres associated with limbs and heart
are striped in appearance.
Solution : Striated muscles include both cardiac &
skeletal muscles. The alternate light and dark bands
refer to the horizontal arrangement of actin & myosin
filaments.
152. Answer (4)
Hint : Intercalated discs are interdigitations between
adjacent cells that act as boosters of cardiac
impulse.
Solution : Cardiac fibres are striated and the edges
of sarcomeres are ‘Z’ lines. Connexons are part of
gap junctions present at intercalated discs. Visceral
muscles are uninucleated.
153. Answer (3)
Hint : White fat is unilocular and adipocytes are
signet ring shaped cells.
Solution : Brown fat in newly born prevents shivering
in them. White fat acts as a reservior of energy and
the triglycerides are hydrolysed upon need.
154. Answer (2)
Hint : Positional information of amino acids decides
specificity of enzyme action.
Solution : Apoenzymes are proteinaceous part of
holoenzymes. Enzymes never alter the equilibrium of
the reaction, they act by lowering activation energy
barrier.
155. Answer (3)
Hint : While overcoming competitive inhibition Km
value increases.
Solution : Succinate is the substrate for enzyme
succinate dehydrogenase. Malonate is its
competitive inhibitor.
156. Answer (3)
Hint : Hydrolytic enzymes work by addition of water
to break the bond between biomolecules.
Solution : Hydrolases belong to class III according
to nomenclature given by IUB. Phosphodiesterases
also belong to this class of enzymes.
157. Answer (2)
Hint : Thymine is exclusive to DNA.
Solution : Thiamine is vitamin B1 while thymine is
nitrogenous base in DNA.
158. Answer (4)
Hint : Identify odd one out w.r.t. macromolecules.
Solution : Lipids are neither polymer nor
macromolecules.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
159. Answer (2)
Hint : Amino acids are monomers of proteins.
Solution : Amino acids are substituted methanes.
They exist as zwitterions at isoelectric pH.
Trihydroxypropane is glycerol. DNA & RNA are
negatively charged molecules.
160. Answer (3)
Hint : DNA of a eukaryote comprises of A, T, G, C
as nitrogenous base.
Solution : Cytosine is a nitrogenous base while
cysteine is an amino acid.
161. Answer (4)
Hint : Active site are formed at tertiary level of
protein organisation. Hydrogen bonds stabilise
predominantly protein structure formed at secondary
level of organisation.
Solution : Ionic bonds, Van der Waals forces,
hydrophobic interactions along with hydrogen bonds
stabilise quaternary structure.
162. Answer (4)
Hint : All components given are sugars in raffinose.
Solution : Tripeptide has 3 amino acids &
triglyceride has 3 fatty acids linked to glycerol.
163. Answer (1)
Hint : Two or more amino acids can be linked by
peptide bonds.
Solution : Collagen is a heteropolymer of amino
acids. Chitin & cellulose are polysaccharides whose
monomers are linked by glycosidic bonds. Choline is
nitrogenous compound found in lecithin.
164. Answer (3)
Hint : First alphabet of amino acid is considered as
the basis of single alphabet code.
Solution : Tyrosine is coded by Y, phenylalanine by
‘F’ and glutamic acid by E. This is because
threonine, proline & glycine have already been named
as T, P & G respectively.
165. Answer (4)
Hint : Organic cofactor loosely attached to
apoenzyme.
Solution : Niacin and riboflavin are vitamins requires
for formation of coenzymes such as NAD, FAD &
FMN.
166. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify a homopolymer.
Solution : Chitin comprises of repeating units of (1
 4) N-acetylglucosamine. Nucleic acids (DNA),
proteins i.e. RuBisCO and insulin are
heteropolymers.
16/17
Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
167. Answer (3)
Hint : Double bonds cannot be introduced beyond 9th
carbon position in most animals usually.
Solution : Linoleic acid has 2 double bonds
(9 & 12th carbon). Plants are able to synthesize
essential fatty acids by introducing double bonds at
12th & 15th carbon. Oleic acid has a single double
bond at 9th position. In most mammals, arachidonic
acid can be formed from linoleic acid.
168. Answer (2)
Hint : Unsaturated fatty acids have low melting
points.
Solution : Gingelly oil/sesame oil and arachidonic
acid are unsaturated fatty acids, hence will have
lower melting points in comparison to other saturated
lipids given.
169. Answer (1)
Hint : Formation of polymers and disaccharides
requires glycosidic bonds.
Solution : Glucose is a monomer of cellulose but
cellulose is unbranched homopolymer glucose.
170. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify a nucleotide. Ribozyme is RNA acting
as enzyme.
Solution : ATP is adenosine triphosphate.
171. Answer (1)
Hint : Pentose sugar derived from C5H10O5.
Solution : 5 carbon sugar in RNA (ribonucleic acid)
is ribose. DNA has deoxyribose with molecular
formula C5H10O4.
172. Answer (1)
Hint : Isomerism in hexose sugars.
Solution : Galactose & glucose are aldose sugars
while fructose is ketohexose. Ribose is a pentose
sugar.
173. Answer (1)
Hint : Reducing sugar.
Solution : Sugars with free aldehyde or ketone
groups are detected by Benedict’s and Fehling’s
solution. Glucose and galactose have free aldehyde
group while fructose has free keto group. Sucrose
has no free keto or aldehyde group.
174. Answer (3)
Hint : Structural sugar found in RNA.
Solution : Cellulose is unbranched structural
homopolymer of glucose comprising of (1-4)
glycosidic linkages. Ribose is a monomer formed
without glycosidic bond. Cytidylic acid is a
nucleotide found in RNA.
Test - 1 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
175. Answer (1)
Hint : Dehydration is a condensation reaction
involving loss of water molecule.
Solution : Cystine formation requires removal of H2
and disulfide bonds are formed between two amino
acids. Formation of lecithin, adenosine and collagen
requires formation of ester & glycosidic bonds
respectively.
176. Answer (4)
Hint : Identify a molecule which is a monomer.
Solution : Inulin is a polymer of fructose, while
insulin is a polymer of amino acids. Lactose is a
disaccharide. Polymers can be broken into
monomers by addition of water (hydrolysis).
177. Answer (2)
Hint : Bones are reservoirs of some elements.
Solution : Matrix of bone is largely composed of
hydroxyapatite crystals of calcium phosphate.
Essential fatty acids & essential amino acids are
supplied in diet.
‰ ‰ ‰
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
178. Answer (4)
Hint : Polymers are found in retentate/acid insoluble
fraction.
Solution : Cysteine, calcium & cytosine are
micromolecules that are obtained in filtrate/acid
soluble fraction. Cellulose is a polymer of glucose
and due to its large size it cannot cross the filtration
membrane.
179. Answer (3)
Hint : Order of percentage of biomolecules in cells.
Solution : Water > proteins > nucleic acids >
carbohydrates > lipids > ions
70  90%  10  15%  5  7%  3%  2%  1%
A  C  B  D  E
180. Answer (2)
Hint : Compounds whose role or function we do not
understand at the moment.
Solution : Primary metabolites are essential for
physiological processes and have identifiable
functions. Secondary metabolities include alkaloids,
antibiotics, rubber, essential oils, spices etc.
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