Shankar IAS Prelims 2019 Test 10 Solutions PDF

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PRESTORMING - TEST 10 – ENVIRONMENT - I EXPLANATION KEY
1. Ans (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1: The Chakmas and Hajongs are ethnic people who lived in the Chittagong Hill Tracts,
most of which are located in Bangladesh. Chakmas are predominantly Buddhists, while Hajongs are
Hindus. They are found in northeast India, West Bengal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar.
So the Statement 1 is wrong
Statement 2: The nodal ministry with regard to issuance of citizenship is Ministry of Home affairs. This
fact can be easily inferred from Current Affairs where its Home Minister or MoS (Home) who speak on
citizenship matters. On the other hand, India year book also has this fact
(https://indiancitizenshiponline.nic.in/)
More on Chakma: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/who-are-chakmas/article19682129.ece
2. Ans (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1: Yes, EBs are alternative to cash donations. The primary motive of EB is to reduce
anonymity of political funding.
Statement 2: Yes, EB can be purchased by a citizen of India or a body incorporated in India will be
eligible to purchase the bond.
Statement 3: Electoral Bond (s) would be issued/purchased for any value, in multiples
of Rs.1,000, Rs.10,000, Rs.1,00,000, Rs.10,00,000 and Rs.1,00,00,000 from the Specified Branches of
the State Bank of India (SBI).
Statement 4: No, EB would be valid for only 15 days within which it has to be redeemed.
Other Features:
 Electoral Bond would be a bearer instrument in the nature of a Promissory Note and an interest
free banking instrument.
 The purchaser would be allowed to buy Electoral Bond(s) only on due fulfilment of all the extant
KYC norms and by making payment from a bank account. It will not carry the name of payee.
 The Electoral Bonds under the Scheme shall be available for purchase for a period of 10 days each
in the months of January, April, July and October, as may be specified by the Central Government.
An additional period of 30 days shall be specified by the Central Government in the year of the
General election to the House of People.
 The Electoral Bond(s) shall be encashed by an eligible political party only through a designated
bank account with the authorised bank
3. Ans (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1: A census of agriculture is a statistical operation for collecting, processing and
disseminating data on the structure of agriculture, covering the whole or a significant part of the
country.
Beginning with 1950, the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations has been
preparing and advocating decennial World Programme for the Census of Agriculture (WCA). Member
countries provide the reports of their agricultural censuses to the FAO Statistics Division. At the end of
each round of the WCA, FAO Statistics Division publishes consolidated information on structure of
agriculture, for various countries, in the form of Reports. So S1 is correct
Statement 2: Yes, UP is followed by Bihar and MH. There has been decrease in size of land holding but
increase in number of women farmers leading to feminization of agriculture.
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https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/slide-in-farm-size-but-women-land-owners-rise-agri-
census/articleshow/66035943.cms
Importance of this census: Agriculture play a vital role in India’s economy. 54.6% of the population is
engaged in agriculture and allied activities (census 2011) and it contributes 17.4% to the country’s
Gross Value Added (current price 2014-15, 2011-12 series). Evidence based policy making calls for
reliable data structures to be analysed for formulation and implementation of governance.
https://bit.ly/2Rau8v6
4. Ans (d)
Explanation:
Ecosystem services are the many and varied benefits that humans freely gain from the natural
environment and from properly-functioning ecosystems.
There are four categories of ecosystem services—habitat, provisioning, regulating and cultural. The
economics of Ecosystems and biodiversity takes into account this economic aspect of Environment
Below mentioned are some of the examples of Ecosystem Services.
5. Ans (d)
Explanation:
Nitrogen is required by all living organisms for the synthesis of organic molecules such as amino acids,
nucleic acids and proteins. The Earth’s atmosphere contains almost 80% nitrogen gas. It cannot be
used in this form by most living organisms until it has been fixed.
It can be fixed in following ways:
1. Atmospheric fixation.
2. Industrial fixation.
3. Biological fixation.
Biological fixation happens via Aerobic Azotobacter, Rhizobium, Anaerobic Clostridium, Anabaena,
Spirulina
6. Ans (c)
Explanation:
 Neuston - small aquatic organisms inhabiting the surface layer or moving on the surface film.
 Nekton - free-swimming
 Benthos - organisms that live on the bottom of a lake, stream, or river
 Periphyton - freshwater organisms attached or clinging to plants and other objects projecting
above the bottom sediments
 Plankton - free-floating
 Phytoplankton - free-floating algae
 Zooplankton - free-floating animals with limited powers of locomotion
 Tychoplankton - Suspended benthic organisms (not true plankton)
 Metaphyton - Phytoplankton existing within the macrophyte communities of littoral zones
7. Ans (a)
Explanation:
The Question insists for wrong statement which needs to be noted.
Statement 1: No, infact mud and sediments are enemies of coral reefs because they inhibit biotic
process.
Statement 2: Yes, Coral reefs grow very slow that once destroyed, they take years to grow/form.
NOOA says that corals grow at average of 0.3-2 cm/year with come exception at 10cm/year
Statement 3: The corals that build reefs are known as “hard” or “reef-building” corals. Soft corals,
such as sea fans and sea whips, do not produce reefs; they are flexible organisms that sometimes
resemble plants or trees. Soft corals do not have stony skeletons and do not always have
zooxanthellae. They can be found in both tropical seas and in cooler, darker parts of the ocean.
The coral polyps that build the reef survive by forming a symbiotic relationship with microscopic algae
called zooxanthellae.
Statement 4: Reef-building corals cannot tolerate water temperatures below 64° Fahrenheit (18°
Celsius). Many grow optimally in water temperatures between 73° and 84° Fahrenheit (23°–
29°Celsius), but some can tolerate temperatures as high as 104° Fahrenheit (40° Celsius) for short
periods.
So corals mostly live in topical water and within 30* latitude
8. Ans (d)
Explanation:
Species evenness is how evenly spread the population is across the species in an area- if you have 100
elephants and 105 lions, the population has high evenness but if you had 200 lions and 5 elephants,
even though the number of animals is the same, the population is not very even. So here, there is
species unevenness.
Statement 1: The variation is genes within a particular species – genetic variation
Statement 2: The variety of living organisms on earth – biodiversity
Statement 3: Species diversity is a measure of community complexity. It is a function of both the
number of different species in the community (species richness) and their relative abundances
(species evenness).
9. Ans (c)
Explanation:
Distribution of Taiga. It can be inferred that its restricted to northern hemisphere. On the other hand,
desert, temperate grasslands and tropical humid forests are seen in both hemispheres.
10. Ans (c)

Explanation:
This type of question is a tricky one as it involves memory. Neither is it feasible to remember all
animals/species in the list put by MoEF&CC. So best way is to keep a track of current affairs related to
the species and then getting to know its status (which is normally given in The Hindu)
11. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1: Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (EPA) gives power to the Central
Government to take all measures that it feels are necessary for protecting and improving the quality
of the environment and to prevent and control environmental pollution
ESAs are thus defined as those areas ‘that are ecologically and economically important, but vulnerable
even to mild disturbances, and hence demand careful management’
Statement 2: Activities permitted in the areas include ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices
by local communities, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, adoption of green technology and use of
renewable energy sources.
Statement 3: Yes, ESAs ensure that these areas act as “shock absorbers” to the protected areas by
regulating and managing the activities around such areas.
Further about ESAs:
 The basic aim is to regulate certain activities around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as
to minimise the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem encompassing the
protected areas
 The guidelines include a broad list of activities that could be allowed, promoted, regulated or
promoted. This is an important checklist for conservationists to keep in mind while identifying
threats in ESZs.
 Prohibited Activities: Tourism activities like flying over protected areas in an aircraft or hot air
balloon, and discharge of effluents and solid waste in natural water bodies or terrestrial areas.
 Activities Regulated: Felling of trees, drastic change in agriculture systems and commercial use of
natural water resources, including groundwater harvesting and setting up of hotels and resorts.
12. Ans (c)

Explanation:
India has launched 'Operation Samudra Maitri' to assist victims of earthquake and tsunami in Central
Sulawesi Province of the Republic of Indonesia. Three Indian Naval Ships – INS Tir, INS Sujatha and INS
Shardul – have also been mobilized to carry out humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR)
From Mains perspective, this question can be looked at. India is building up its Naval capability to
position itself as a new security provider amidst Chinese OBOR/BRI. Key element of this is to have
HARD missions with various countries.
http://bit.ly/MEAStatement
13. Ans (d)

Explanation:
What is a GGN?
UNESCO Global Geoparks are single, unified geographical areas where sites and landscapes of
international geological significance are managed with a holistic concept of protection, education and
sustainable development.
UNESCO’s work with Geoparks began in 2001. During the 38th session of UNESCO’s General
Conference in 2015, the 195 Member States of UNESCO ratified the creation of a new label, the
UNESCO Global Geoparks.
Prior to this, in 2004, 17 European and 8 Chinese geoparks came together at UNESCO headquarters in
Paris to form the GGN where national geological heritage initiatives contribute to and benefit from
their membership of a global network of exchange and cooperation.
Statement 3: Yes, the aim of any environmental treaty or organisation is to conserve ecology – be it
by raising finance or by research or by coordination. So in this perspective, S3 is correct
Statement 2: Its correct, can be inferred from the above introductory explanation.
Statement 1: GGN is an NGO founded in 2004 is a dynamic network where members are committed
to work together, exchange ideas of best practise, and join in common projects to raise the quality
standards of all products and practises.
News Item: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/88-million-year-old-isle-and-crater-to-be-
geoparks/article25105544.ece
14. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Seagrasses are marine flowering plants that resemble grass in appearance. Conditions for growth are
sandy or muddy bottoms, calmer seas, shallow coastal waters along with high salinity.
So, all the options are correct.
Additional Information: The functions of sea weed are to arrest wave, filtration of sediments,
stabilisaiton of benthic layer, habitat services, food production, filtration, nutrient sink.
15. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1: We must first understand the basic difference between NP & WLS. NP has higher degree
of protection that WLS. This can be collaborated from the fact that even collection of Non Timber
Forest Produce under FRA 2006 is prohibited.
Thus, a sanctuary can be upgraded as NP whereas a NP cannot be downgraded to WLS.
Statement 2: It’s WLS that’s created for protection of single species whereas NP is created for an area.
So NP follows an area based approach.
More information: http://bit.ly/DiffBetweenNPWLS
16. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1: Rann of Kutch is the largest. http://bit.ly/2A8pZhF
Statement 2: Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam is the largest tiger reserve in terms of Area. Pench Tiger
Reserve in Maharashtra is minimum in area. As per website of NTCA, Sunderbans in West Bengal has
the largest number of Tigers.
https://www.gktoday.in/gk/tiger-reserves-of-india/
17. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Concepts:
Insolvency: It is a term for when an individual or organization can no longer meet its financial
obligations with its lender or lenders as debts become due.
Bankruptcy: Bankruptcy is a legal term for when a person or business cannot repay their outstanding
debts. IBC Code thus defined bankruptcy as
(a) a debtor who has been adjudged as bankrupt by a bankruptcy order
(b) each of the partners of a firm, where a bankruptcy order under has been made against a firm; or
(c) any person adjudged as an undischarged insolvent;
Simply speaking, insolvency is a financial state of being – one that is reached when you are unable to
pay off your debts on time. Bankruptcy, on the other hand, is a legal process that serves the purpose
of resolving the issue of insolvency.
Statement 2, correct: This is exactly why Wilful defaulters list is put out. (and so acts like Fugitive
Economic offenders Act) where a person who has ability to repay (so he is not bankrupt) but doesn’t
pay back his dues and hence becomes an insolvent.
Above statement also infers that Statement 1 is wrong.
18. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Post Demonetisation it was NITI Aayog which was in charge of promoting digital transaction. But, to
have a holistic view, it was transferred to MEITY.
http://bit.ly/2PLKoOp
19. Ans (a)

Explanation:
http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/cri_8229.aspx
Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India
which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established
national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.
These areas were given statutory backing by WPA, 1972 as amended in 2002.
20. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Yawal wildlife sanctuary is in Maharashtra
21. Ans (a)

Explanation:
About Indian Rhino Vision 2020:
Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is a partnership among the Government of Assam, the International Rhino
Foundation, and the World Wide Fund for Nature, the Bodoland Territorial Council, and the U.S. Fish
& World Wildlife foundation that aims to attain a population of 3,000 wild greater one-horned rhinos
in seven of Assam’s protected areas by the year 2020.
Its main initiatives include:
 Improving the protection and security of rhinos in all rhino area
 Expanding the distribution of rhinos over seven protected areas to reduce the risks associated
with having a whole population in one area.
Statement 3: It’s inferred from the above description (3000 Rhinos)
Statement 1: IRV 2020 moved 18 Indian rhinos from Pabitora Wildlife Sanctuary and Kaziranga
National Park to Manas National Park
https://rhinos.org/where-we-work/indian-rhino-vision-2020/
Statement 3: The statement is wrong as IUCN has changed the status from Endangered to Vulnerable.
22. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 3: Soils in tropical rainforests are typically deep but not very fertile, partly because large
proportions of some mineral nutrients are bound up at any one time within the vegetation itself
rather than free in the soil.
Note: This type of options in questions needs to be noted. Inferences from this set of options are,
 You need not worry about Statement 1 because its available in all options
 The moment you know S2 is wrong, you must strike out other options thus
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
 Now we are to choose between Options 1 & 3. Here, we again need not worry about
Statement 3 as its present in all remaining options
 Thus, we can choose the answer based on S4
Learning: You need not know all options to get your questions correct. Intelligent working would do
23. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Just like men need food, shelter and clothing, the basic requirement for any species is habitat which
provides food, space and environment.
Statement 1: Even if it has high productive rates and no habitat, it wouldn’t survive. (eg) Common
Myna’s threat is due to electromagnetic radiation and loss of green cover
Statement 2: An exotic species introduction would not be “biggest” threat but a threat
Statement 3: This can be controlled as it’s mostly manmade
24. Ans (d)

Explanation:
What is Permafrost?
Permafrost is permanently frozen soil, and occurs mostly in high latitudes. Permafrost comprises 24%
of the land in the Northern Hemisphere, and stores massive amounts of carbon. As a result of climate
change, permafrost is at risk of melting, releasing the stored carbon in the form of carbon dioxide and
methane, which are powerful heat-trapping gases.
Statement 1: So thawing of permafrost will lead to increase in green house gases emission (as trapped
CO2 is released)
Statement 2: The pathogens are activated because at very low temperatures they lie in a dormant
state.
Statement 3: Damages to infrastructure can happen due to inundation of low lying areas due to
increase in sea level increase.
25. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 Species diversity indicates presence of different types of species of different family
 Genetic diversity describes how closely related the members of one species are in a given
ecosystem
 Ecosystem diversity: A region may have several ecosystems, or it may have one. Wide expanses of
oceans or deserts would be examples of regions with low ecological diversity. A mountain area
that has lakes, forests and grasslands would have higher biodiversity
Generally greater is diversity; greater is species stability, species richness, stability of ecosystem.
Statement 2, correct: When there exists different ecosystems, there is greater diversity. Imagine a
delta which is transition ecosystem between fresh water (river) and sea. Here there can be fresh
water, salt water species. Instead imagine only a river – only fresh water species can exist
Statement 3, incorrect: Imagine feline family which has cat, lion, tiger. This indicates genetic diversity
which contributes to its stability. So over a geography, there must be genetic diversity.
Statement 4, incorrect: A niche is the fit of a species living under specific environmental conditions.
The ecological niche describes how an organism or population responds to the distribution of
resources and competitors and how it in turn alters those same factors
In tropical rain forest, there is definite niche specialisation. (eg) creepers can’t spread on ground!
Statement 1, incorrect: Both species and genetic diversity is important.
26. Ans (a)

Explanation:
This can be seen from the following release of MoEF&CC.
http://www.moef.nic.in/downloads/public-
information/Critically%20endangered%20species%20brochure.pdf
27. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1: Sea turtles live in almost every ocean basin throughout the world, nesting on tropical
and subtropical beaches. They migrate long distances to feed, often crossing entire oceans.
In particular, Leatherbacks are capable of withstanding the coldest water temperatures (often below
40˚F) and are found as far south as Chile and as far north as Alaska.
Statement 2: http://www.moef.nic.in/downloads/public-
information/Critically%20endangered%20species%20brochure.pdf
Yes, Hawksbill is critically endangered.
28. Ans (d)

Explanation:
A straight forward question that can be answered easily. In this regard, government has been taking
efforts to minimise the effects of degradation.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/desertification-has-increased-in-90-per-cent-of-
the-indian-states-58057
29. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1 & 2: Small plants and shallow root systems compensate for the thin layer of soil, and
small leaves minimize the amount of water lost through the leaf surface.
Statement 3: Plants also grow close to the ground and to each other, a strategy that helps to resist the
effects of cold weather and reduce damage caused by wind-blown snow and ice particles. Fuzzy
coverings on stems, leaves, and buds and woolly seed covers provide additional protection from the
wind.
Other adaptations:
 Plants have also adapted to the long winters and short, intense polar summers. During the short
polar summer, plants use the long hours of sunlight to quickly develop and produce flowers and
seeds.
 Many Arctic species can grow under a layer of snow, and virtually all polar plants are able to
photosynthesize in extremely cold temperatures.
 In addition, many species are perennials, growing and blooming during the summer, dying back in
the winter, and returning the following spring from their root-stock. This allows the plants to
direct less energy into seed production.
 Some species do not produce seeds at all, reproducing asexually through root growth.
30. Ans (b)

Explanation:
According to International Rhino Foundation (a NGO working towards Rhino Conservation), following
map depicts the Rhino population spread. With this mind map, this question can be tackled
1. Orang National Park - Assam

2. Pobitora National Park - Assam
3. Manas National Park - Assam
4. Simlipal National park - Odisha
So option 4 can be eliminated to get the answer (B)
31. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 2: This can be starting point for this question as for sure, Mizoram with Cherrapunji-
Myaswaram region gets more rainfall than anywhere else in the world.
Also, Sikkim with its location near foothills of Himalayas has alpine to sub alpine climate.
Statement 1: Biodiversity hotspots are just 4 in India which is Himalayas, Indo Burma, Sundalands,
Western Ghats and Sri Lanka.
Conservation International a NGO designates Hotspots.
In Biodiversity reserves, Tamil Nadu has Agasthiamalai & Gulf of Mannar (which is also 1st Marine
Biosphere reserve)
Statement 3: Lion-tailed macaque is endemic to Western Ghats.
32. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Note: Gene Banks are Ex Situ where as Gene Sanctuary (commonly called as National Parks /
Biosphere reserves) is In Situ conservation.
So eliminating Botanical gardens, we get the answer as (B)
33. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Global Hunger Index is calculated by following parameters,
Statement 1: UNDERNOURISHMENT: the share of the population that is undernourished (that is,
whose caloric intake is insufficient);
Statement 2: CHILD WASTING: the share of children under the age of five who are wasted (that is,
who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute under nutrition);
Statement 3: CHILD STUNTING: the share of children under the age of five who are stunted (that is,
who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic under nutrition); and
Statement 4: CHILD MORTALITY: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (in part, a
reflection of the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments).
Statement 5: This doesn’t form part of GHI
Genesis of this question: Ramesh Chand, who is NITI Aayog member, had argued in an article in The
Hindu that GHI isn’t GHI but Global Hunger and Child Health Index”.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-misleading-hunger-index/article21255142.ece
What can we learn: In such questions, the question itself presents us an opportunity to learn. For
example, from Question it can be inferred that GHI is released by IFPRI and that IFPRI is a NGO.
So it’s not only answers that teach but questions itself.
34. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 HP is called the Fruit Bowl of India
 Living root bridges is in Meghalaya

 J&K is known for saffron cultivation (this is repeatedly mentioned in CBSE Geography books)
 While Karnataka has largest number of tigers, Nagpur is called the Tiger capital of India.
35. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1: Primary production refers to the conversion of CO2 and H2O into organic substance.
And in Ocean that's done by phytoplankton along the surface of the ocean. Since oceans occupy 79%
of earth, primary production in oceans is maximum.
Statement 2, correct: Primary production is mainly taking in CO2 and H2O to produce food for which
we need light and water. That's available in plenty around equator. And equator mostly hosts tropical
rainforest
36. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Note: by seeing the options, Statement 1 should not be considered (this will save time).
The benthic zone is the ecological region at the lowest level of a body of water such as an ocean, lake,
or stream, including the sediment surface and some sub-surface layers
Statement 1, Correct: Since height of the water column at benthic layer is maximum, the pressure is
invariably maximum at benthic layer.
Statement 2, Correct: it can be inferred from S1 that temperature will be minimum (both p & t are
inversely proportional)
Statement 3, incorrect: There exists an ecosystem at benthic layer which survives in minimum oxygen.
So oxygen is lesser but not absent (as upwelling and down welling always happens)
Statement 4, correct
37. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Species Name – IUCN Status
1. Great Indian Bustard - Critically Endangered
2. Red Panda - Endangered
3. Indian Elephant - Endangered
38. Ans (a)

Explanation:
NP WLS Comm Res Cons Res
Nos Area Nos Area Nos Area Nos Area
104 40501 544 118931 46 73 77 2594
39. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: The littoral zone is the part of a sea, lake or river that is close to the shore. In
coastal environments the littoral zone extends from the high water mark, which is rarely inundated, to
shoreline areas that are permanently submerged.
So with abundance of sunlight and oxygen, phytoplankton thrives
Statement 2, incorrect: As seen in Q36, benthic zone is at the bottom of the aquatic ecosystem and
thus zooplankton is minimum. It is because of absence of oxygen and sunlight.
40. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: The main difference between both these types of the food chain is that grazing
food chain starts from the green plants, which are the primary producers, whereas detritus food chain
begins from the dead organic matter or decomposed material, which is usually present in the soil.
The energy for the grazing food chain comes from the sun as the autotrophs (green plants) prepare
their food (photosynthesis) amid the presence of the sunlight. On the other hand, the energy for the
detritus food chain is taken from the detritus or the decomposed materials.
As such, grazing food chain produces a less amount of energy to the atmosphere whereas grazing food
chain produces more.
Statement 2, Correct: Grazing food chain starts with producer then herbivores followed by primary
carnivore and secondary carnivore.
The energy flow rate is fast but magnitude/amount of energy is low because of various levels of
organism.
Detritus food chain begins with dead organic matter. When organisms die then their body form a
source of energy and raw materials for other organisms. The amount of energy present is high in a
dead organism.
Now decomposers feed on them by degrading dead organic matter. The energy flow rate is very slow
but amount of energy is high as it doesn't any other organisms in between decomposers and dead
organic matter. Detritivores may be fed up upon by carnivores, thus building a food chain based on
detritus.
41. Ans (d)

Explanation:
The taiga, which is also known as the boreal (meaning northern) forest region, occupies about 17
percent of Earth's land surface area.
42. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 Keystone species are those species which play a regulatory role in ecosystems. And their removal
from ecosystem will create a sort of imbalance. And Keystone species is independent of
abundance.
 Indicator means something that indicates. Indicator species are those species which give any
indication of their habitat or other environmental conditions prevailing in habitat. They are
important because they regarded as "natural early warning systems" because of their sensitivity
to environment
So statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
43. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Mutualism describes a type of mutually beneficial relationship between organisms of different
species. It is a symbiotic relationship in which two different species interact with and in some cases,
totally rely on one another for survival
Some common examples:
 Plant Pollinators and Plants.
 Ants and Aphids.
 Oxpeckers and Grazing Animals.
 Clownfish and Sea anemones.
 Sharks and Remora Fish.
 Lichens & algae.
 Nitrogen-fixing Bacteria and Legumes.
 Humans and Bacteria.
 Coral polyp and zoozanthallae
Cattle and leach are not symbiotic because it’s Amensalism (it is any relationship between organisms
of different species in which one organism is inhibited or destroyed while the other organism remains
unaffected)
44. Ans (d)

Explanation:
UNEP defines Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) as a tool used to identify the environmental,
social and economic impacts of a project prior to decision-making. EIA thus is a process of evaluating
the likely environmental impacts of a proposed project or development, taking into account inter-
related socio-economic, cultural and human-health impacts, both beneficial and adverse.
So all 3 statements are correct.
45. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Biogeochemical cycles can be classed as gaseous, in which the reservoir is the air or
the oceans (via evaporation), and sedimentary, in which the reservoir is Earth’s crust.
Gaseous cycles include those of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, and water;
Sedimentary cycles include those of iron, calcium, phosphorus, sulphur, and other more-earthbound
elements.
46. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: The energy flow decreases not because decrease (or increase) in number of
organisms but it happens because of at each level that organisms take certain amount of energy for its
survival.
Statement 2, correct: Yes, as energy transfer (quantity) decreases from one level to another, there
can be a situation where terminal state is devoid of energy for its survival itself. At this stage, energy
flow stops as well.
47. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Mutualism: Same resource is shared by two species and thus there is no partitioning.
Competition: This is where each organism tries to carve out a compartment of resource exclusively for
itself such that it affects the other.
In commensalism & neutralism,
48. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: We know that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. With this
background, nutrients are recycled in the chain again and again. But the change or difference comes
when energy is stored lesser or more at any particular level.
Statement 2, Correct: Can be inferred from Q45
49. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 A niche describes the role of a species within an ecosystem.
 An ecosystem is made up of all of the communities that live in it
 A habitat is the area or environment in which an organism naturally lives
 Populations are all members of the same species in the habitat at one time.
 Whereas populations describes just one species, a community is all of the organisms in the habitat
at one time
So Ans is Ecological niche
50. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Primary succession looks like: lichen => grasses =>trees. Meaning, trees replaces grasses. The
question is why don’t trees replaces grasses in grassland. Secondary succession occurs in an area that
became bare due to destruction of existing community by fire, draught, landslide, earthquake etc.
51. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct: The word stability itself means a sense of continuity and resistance to change.
So, biological stability indicates that species/ecosystem must be stable in its productivity and must not
show large variation.
Statement 2&3, correct: Inference from above statement is that it must be able to adopt itself to
occasional disturbances & invasions to alien species.
Other factors which contributes to biological stability:
 biological diversity
 asynchrony across the species
 lesser human interference
 Climatic stability
 Effectiveness of environmental regulations
52. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Definition: A species whose status provides information on the overall condition of the ecosystem and
of other species in that ecosystem. They reflect the quality and changes in environmental conditions
as well as aspects of community composition.
So Statement 1 is correct
Some of the common indicator species:
Plant indicators: mosses, lichens, tree bark, bark pockets, tree rings, and leaves. Fungi too may be
useful as indicators.
Animal indicators and toxins: Changes in animal populations, whether increases or decreases, can
indicate pollution
So Statement 2 is correct
53. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Threatened Species: Any species that is likely to become extinct within the foreseeable future
throughout all or part of its range and whose survival is unlikely if the factors causing numerical
decline or habitat degradation continue to operate.
Indicator species: A species whose status provides information on the overall condition of
the ecosystem and of other species in that ecosystem. They reflect the quality and changes in
environmental conditions as well as aspects of community composition.
Keystone species: Species that has a disproportionate effect on its environment relative to its biomass
and whose removal initiates significant changes in ecosystem structure and loss of biodiversity.
Flagship species: A species used as the focus of a broader conservation marketing campaign based on
its possession of one or more traits that appeal to the target audience.
54. Ans (a)

Explanation:
One reason the rain forest soil is so poor is that most of the nutrients are stored in the plants
themselves.
In any forest, dead organic matter falls to the ground, providing valuable nutrients for new growth. In
cooler or drier climates, the nutrients build up in the soil.
But in a rain forest, with its abundance and variety of life, those nutrients are reabsorbed almost as
fast as they’re deposited. Also, the trees in tropical rain forests are often evergreens and so very few
leaves actually fall to the ground.
55. Ans (d)

Explanation:
56. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Eutrophication is the process of excess nutrients building up in a lake or pond of stagnant water.
During this process, the excess nutrients fuels the rapid growth of large amounts of algae, which in
turn covers the surface and prevents sunlight from reaching plants under this thick, mat-like layer.
This stops plants from carrying out photosynthesis, thus reducing the amount of oxygen in the water
and causing other organisms and fish to die off. If no more nutrients are introduced to the pond or
lake, the ecosystem will return to normal.
So Statement 1 & 2 are correct.
Statement 3, incorrect: Eutrophication can be reversed. Successful examples can be cited like
reclamation of Thames River or our own Namani Gange mission is a step towards that
http://www.bbc.com/earth/story/20151111-how-the-river-thames-was-brought-back-from-the-dead
57. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Such questions can be addressed with elimination various options.
 Easily it is that forest is mature state of succession and that eliminates options (a) & (b)
 Bryophytes (Statement 4) are small, non-vascular plants, such as mosses, liverworts and
hornworts.
 Lichens (Statement 3) are a complex life form that is a symbiotic partnership of two separate
organisms, a fungus and an alga
 So lichens must precede bryophyte as lichen is a type of fungi which helps biological generation
from the barren ecosystem.
So answer is 3-4-1-2.
58. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 2, correct: Upwelling is an oceanographic phenomenon that involves wind-driven motion
of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient-rich water towards the ocean surface, replacing the warmer,
usually nutrient-depleted surface water.
Statement 1 & 3, incorrect: Because decomposer organisms are mostly benthic they exist at bottom
of the ecosystem. Upwelling is related to movement of water and not organisms.
59. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile
ecosystems - terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity.
Statement 3, incorrect: Such areas also often represent a positive interface between nature, culture,
society, and technologies, such that both conservation and livelihood security are or can be achieved,
and positive links between wild and domesticated biodiversity are enhanced.
Statement 1, incorrect: Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (BDA) the State Government
in consultation with local bodies may notify in the official gazette, areas of biodiversity importance as
Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
Statement 2, correct: NBA/BHS are declared under Biological Diversity Act 2002.
About THE BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY ACT, 2002
An Act to provide for conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components and fair
and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources, knowledge and for
matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
This was enacted as India is a party to the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity signed at
Rio de Janeiro on the 5th day of June, 1992.
60. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Defamation.—Whoever, by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible
representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or
knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such person, is
said, except in the cases hereinafter expected, to defame that person.
61. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statements 1, 2, 4 are correct and they are verbatim the features of the Act.
Statement 3 is incorrect as NFSA envisages Targeted PDS and not universal.
Salient Features:
 Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the
rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform
entitlement of 5 kg per person per month
 Subsidised prices under TPDS and their revision : Foodgrains under TPDS will be made available at
subsidised prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per kg for rice, wheat and coarse grains
 Identification of Households: Within the coverage under TPDS determined for each State, the
work of identification of eligible households is to be done by States/UTs.
 Nutritional Support to women and children: Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children
in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional
norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes.
 Maternity Benefit: Pregnant women and lactating mothers will also be entitled to receive
maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000.
 Women Empowerment: Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head
of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
 Grievance Redressal Mechanism: Grievance redressal mechanism at the District and State levels.
 Food Security Allowance: Provision for food security allowance to entitled beneficiaries in case of
non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals.
 Penalty: Provision for penalty on public servant or authority, to be imposed by the State Food
Commission.
62. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct: After Lokpal Chief chief is now appointed by the Centre on the basis of
recommendation of search committee comprising of The Prime Minister. The Chief Justice of India
and the Leader of Opposition.
Statement 2 & 3, correct: Yes, CBI director will have tenure of 2 years and he or she is normally of
DGP Rank (eg Alok Verma)
63. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1 & 3, correct: Solicitor General is the second highest law officer in the country. He is
subordinate to the Attorney General of India, the highest law officer and works under him. He also
advises the government in legal matters. Solicitor general is appointed for period of three years by
Appointment Committee of Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister.
Statement 3, correct: Office and duties of Attorney General is created by Constitution under Article
76. While, Solicitor and Additional Solicitor Generals’ office and duties are governed by Law Officers
(Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987 and not by Constitution (thus they are statutory posts and not
constitutional).
Moreover, attorney generals has right to participate in the proceedings of Parliament, but cannot
vote. Whereas, Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals’ do not have these rights wrt to
participation in parliament
Statement 4: yes, SG is assisted by four ASGs
64. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct: India conducts the All India Tiger Estimation every four years. Three cycles of
the estimation have already been completed in 2006, 2010 and 2014
Statement 2, correct: NTCA was mandated to carry out estimation of population of tiger and its
natural prey species and assess status of their habitat. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was
amended in the year 2006 to create NTCA.
Statement 3, correct: Assessment uses Android phone-based application and desktop version of
M-STrIPES (Monitoring System for Tigers-Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) for collecting,
archiving and analyzing data.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=176261
65. Ans (d)

Explanation: Self Explanatory
66. Ans (d)

Explanation:
The following PIB release is self explanatory:
67. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 2, correct: Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting
protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors
between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.
Statement 3, correct: These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife
(Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972
Statement 1, correct: Yes, CR (and National park, Wildlife sanctuary) is declared by State government
68. Ans (a)

Explanation:
According to CBD 1992, The second worst threat is the biological invasion of alien species.
http://www.bsienvis.nic.in/Database/Invasive_Alien_species_15896.aspx
69. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Biological Diversity Act 2002 mandates all local bodies to setup Biodiversity Management Committees
(BMC). Structure: One Chairperson, Six Members: 1/3rd of nominated should be women, SC/ST
reservation as per state demography.
Functions:
1. Preserve and promote local biodiversity- breeds of birds, animals and plants.
2. Prepare People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR)- an Electronic database with inputs from locals.
3. Maintain data medicinal plants/resources used by local Vaidhya (traditional healer).
4. Advice State & National Biodiversity Boards on matters related to local biodiversity.
5. Under Nagoya Protocol of Convention on Biodiversity (CBD), they can collect fees for granting
access to Biodiversity register to researchers and commercial companies.
6. Approval of bio-utilization of any biological resource
70. Ans (d)

Explanation:
List of sites in Ramsar Convention is given in https://rsis.ramsar.org/ris-
search/?f[0]=regionCountry_en_ss%3AIndia&pagetab=1
Statement 1&3: Dal Lake and Pangong Tso lakes are not in Ramsar. Especially, Pangong Tso was in
news as Chinese and Indian troops were involved in a scuffle. (The lake also forms the background of
climax in 3 idiots movie)
http://bit.ly/2GBWRVT
71. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The Ministry of Civil Aviation is adding a Digital experience for Air
Travellers through DigiYatra Platform. The ‘DigiYatra’ is an industry-led initiative co-ordinated by
the Ministry.
 DigiYatra initiative envisages providing airline travellers in India, a pioneering ‘digitally unified
flying experience’ across all stages of their journey. All aviation stakeholders – airlines, airport
operators, security and immigration agencies, cab operators, retail establishment and others are
working to devise digital standards which can enable seamless exchange of data and information.
 The following PIB link describes the features of the scheme.
72. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 Canine distemper (sometimes termed hardpad disease) is a viral disease that affects a wide
variety of animal families. Distemper affects several body systems, including the gastrointestinal
and respiratory tracts and the spinal cord and brain, with common symptoms that include high
fever,
 Recently Gir Lions have been affected by the same virus.
73. Ans (d)

Explanation:
India is one of the fastest growing markets of electronics in the world. The National Policy on
Electronics aims to address the issue with the explicit goal of transforming India into a premier ESDM
hub.
 The strategies include setting up of a National Electronics Mission with industry participation
 The policy is expected to create an indigenous manufacturing eco-system for electronics in the
country. It will foster the manufacturing of indigenously designed and manufactured chips
creating a more cyber secure ecosystem in the country.
 The Policy envisages that a turnover of USD 400 billion will create an employment for two million
people.
 ESDM is of strategic importance as well. Not only in internal security and defence, the pervasive
deployment of electronics in civilian domains such as telecom, power, railways, civil aviation, etc.
can have serious consequences of disruption of service.
So all statements are correct.

74. Ans (d)

Explanation:
The genesis of RTI is transparency and 2nd ARC says “RTI as master key to good governance”. But,
there are information that may violate individual privacy (Art 21), trade secrets (Art 19) and National
security which may hamper both individual liberty and country’s sovereignty.
Sec 8(i) balances this by providing exemptions. Some of the exemptions are,
1. Information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the security, sovereignty and integrity
of India.
2. information which may constitute contempt of court.
3. Information received in confidence from foreign government
4. Information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/758550/
75. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Fourth Industrial Revolution is building on the Third IR, the digital revolution that has been occurring
since the middle of the last century. It is characterized by a fusion of technologies that is blurring the
lines between the physical, digital, and biological spheres.
When compared with previous industrial revolutions, the Fourth is evolving at an exponential rather
than a linear pace.
The possibilities of billions of people connected by mobile devices, with unprecedented processing
power, storage capacity, and access to knowledge, are unlimited.
And these possibilities will be multiplied by emerging technology breakthroughs in fields such as
artificial intelligence, robotics, the Internet of Things, autonomous vehicles, 3-D printing,
nanotechnology, biotechnology, materials science, energy storage, and quantum computing.
Please read NITI Aayog paper on “AI for All” which will speak about areas in daily life where IR4 can be
used - http://niti.gov.in/writereaddata/files/document_publication/NationalStrategy-for-AI-
Discussion-Paper.pdf
76. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1 & 3, correct: The heliosphere is a bubble in space "blown" into the interstellar
medium (the hydrogen and helium gas that fill the galaxy) by the solar wind. Outermost edge of the
heliosphere is called the heliopause.
Statement 2, correct: The solar wind is made of particles, charged (ionized) atoms from the
solar corona, and fields, in particular magnetic fields.
77. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 2, incorrect: This may be possible only with bullet trains.
Train 18 high-speed, “engine-less” train sets, its most significant technology upgrade in its fleet of
passenger coaches since the induction of the German-make Linke Hoffmann Busch around two
decades ago.
Train 19, 20 are expected by 2019, 2020.
https://www.financialexpress.com/infrastructure/railways/train-18-how-icf-made-world-class-engine-
less-train-set-in-just-18-months-man-who-led-the-project-explains/1364333/
78. Ans (d)

Explanation:
RSBY has been launched by Ministry of Labour and Employment (which has now been transferred to
Min of Health and Family Welfare), Government of India to provide health insurance coverage for
Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. The objective of RSBY is to provide protection to BPL households
from financial liabilities arising out of health shocks that involve hospitalization.
A centrally sponsored health insurance scheme which covers
1. BPL families (a unit of five) and 11 other defined categories namely
2. Building & Other Construction Workers, (Statement 1)
3. licensed Railway porters, (Statement 4)
4. Street Vendors (Statement 2)
5. MGNREGA workers (who have worked for more than fifteen days during preceding financial year),
(Statement 3)
6. Beedi workers,
7. Domestic workers,
8. Sanitation Workers,
9. Mine Workers,
10. Rickshaw pullers,
11. Rag pickers and Auto/Taxi drivers, who are enrolled under RSBY.
PMJAY is an improved version of RSBY
https://www.orfonline.org/research/can-pmjay-fix-india-healthcare-system-crossing-five-hurdles-
path-universal-health-coverage-44940/
79. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct: The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of
International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are
likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
Statement 2, correct: It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
Statement 3, incorrect: Currently, two wetlands of India are in Montreux record viz. Keoladeo
National Park, Rajasthan and Loktak Lake, Manipur. Further, Chilka lake was placed in the record but
was later removed from it.
80. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Environmental assessment (EA) is the assessment of the environmental consequences (positive and
negative) of a plan, policy, program, or actual projects prior to the decision to move forward with the
proposed action.
EIA is carried out under Environment Protection Act, 1986. Since EIA 2006, the various developmental
projects have been re-categorised into category ‘A’ and category ‘B’ depending on their threshold
capacity and likely pollution potential, requiring prior Environmental Clearance (EC) respectively from
MoEF or the concerned State Environment Impact Assessment Authorities (SEIAAs).
As such all 4 statements are part of EIAs.
1. Estimation of quantities of air emissions from the proposed project.
2. Identification of impacts due to any anticipated rise in noise levels on the surrounding
environment.
3. Existing ground and surface water resources, their quality and quantity within the zone.
4. Impact on historical monuments and heritage site.
81. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct: Yes, Biosphere reserve indicates area where humanity, economy, ecology and
environment can co exist. They are designated by UNESCO.
Statement 2, correct: Biosphere reserves have three interrelated zones that aim to fulfil three
complementary and mutually reinforcing functions:
 The core area(s) comprises a strictly protected ecosystem that contributes to the conservation of
landscapes, ecosystems, species and genetic variation.
 The buffer zone surrounds or adjoins the core areas, and is used for activities compatible with
sound ecological practices that can reinforce scientific research, monitoring, training and
education.
 The transition area is the part of the reserve where the greatest activity is allowed, fostering
economic and human development that is socio-culturally and ecologically sustainable.
Statement 3, incorrect: Notified areas which cover a larger area of land which may cover multiple
National Parks, Sanctuaries and reserves as well.
82. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems” (GIAHS) are outstanding
landscapes of aesthetic beauty that combine agricultural biodiversity, resilient ecosystems and a
valuable cultural heritage. It is designated by FAO
Statement 2, correct: Its goals and objectives include,
 To leverage global and national recognition of the importance of agricultural heritage systems
 Capacity building of local farming communities and local and national institutions
 To promote enabling regulatory policies and incentive environments to support the conservation
Statement 3, Correct: Indian sites
1. Kuttanad below Sea Level Farming System
2. Grand Anicut (Kallanai) and associated farming system in Cauvery Delta Zone of Tamil Nadu
3. Koraput Traditional Agriculture
4. Saffron Heritage of Kashmir
http://www.fao.org/giahs/en/
83. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct & 3 incorrect: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is
a membership Union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organisations.
It provides public, private and non-governmental organisations with the knowledge and tools that
enable human progress, economic development and nature conservation to take place together.
Statement 2, correct: WCS is prepared by IUCN in collaboration with UNESCO,FAO. UNEP & WWF
funds it.
https://www.iucn.org/
84. Ans (c)

Explanation:
A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region that is both a significant reservoir of biodiversity and
is threatened with destruction. The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term "biodiversity
hotspot"
Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers’ hotspots as its institutional blueprint in 1989, and in
1996, the organization made the decision to undertake a reassessment of the hotspots concept.
According to CI, to qualify as a hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria:
Statement 1, correct: It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world’s
total) as endemics, and
Statement 2, correct: It has to have lost at least 70% of its original habitat
85. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct: What is a hope spot? A hope spot is an area of an ocean that needs special
protection because of its wildlife and significant underwater habitats.
Hope Spots are special places that are critical to the health of the ocean — Earth’s blue heart. Hope
Spots are about recognizing, empowering and supporting individuals and communities around the
world in their efforts to protect the ocean. Dr. Sylvia Earle introduced the concept in her 2009 TED
talk
Statement 2, correct: Hope spots are declared by IUCN in association with Mission Blue (an NGO
founded by Dr Earle)
Statement 3, incorrect: Andamans, Lakshwadeep declared ‘hope spots’ by IUCN. Two groups of
islands are the first in India to make it to the list of 50 global hope spots with significant wildlife and
underwater habitats
86. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 2, correct: This technological intervention comes from the National Tiger Conservation
Authority (NTCA) and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun.
Statement 1, correct: Conservation drones will hover over select tiger reserves of the country,
marking the beginning of significant technological intervention in wildlife conservation.
Though intended primarily for the monitoring of tiger population in the reserves, the unmanned
aircraft would collect and transmit visual data on animal movements, poaching activities and instances
of forest fire from inaccessible forest terrains on a real-time basis. The drones could be used for the
management of habitats and species.
87. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 2, correct: It’s because energy transfer obeys laws of thermodynamics where at each level
loss of energy is depicted at each level.
Statement 1, correct: This is because biomass of producers is maximum in terrestrial ecosystem (and
minimum in aquatic ecosystem) and hence pyramid is upright (and inverted in aquatic ecosystem)
88. Ans (a)

Explanation:
In Karnataka, anyone who has a minimum of 100 acres of land bordering a national park can convert it
to a “Wildlife Private Conservancy”. Of this land, 5% can be used to construct buildings for ecotourism;
the rest has to be kept for flora and fauna
89. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct: South Asian River Dolphin is in IUCN Red List of threatened species. (Indus and
Ganges river dolphin are their two subspecies) So their conservation and population monitoring is a
key requirement.
Found only in India and Pakistan, the Indus dolphins are confined to only a 185 km stretch between
Talwara and Harike Barrage in India’s Beas river in Punjab.
Dolphins are a key indicator of river health- if a river is healthy the dolphins will be there and if not,
we have the example of Sutlej.
Statement 2, Correct: Indus river dolphins are one of only four river dolphin species and subspecies in
the world that spend all of their lives in freshwater.
They are believed to have originated in the ancient Tethys Sea.
They have adapted to life in the muddy river and are functionally blind. They rely on echolocation to
navigate, communicate and hunt prey including prawns, catfish and carp.
90. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Red Algae – why is it called “Red” Algae: Energy is necessary and the Sun is the ultimate source of all
the energy on earth. As the radiation from the sun travels down the sea depths, only the most
energetic components of the solar spectrum are able to reach greater depth.
Bluish portion of the spectrum has the shortest wavelength and the highest energy. So, this bluish
component is able to penetrate deep down in the ocean depths.
Red algae is just named ‘red’, because of the pigment it contains - ‘phycoerythrin’. This
phycobilin/phycoerythrin can absorb the blue light and use it for photosynthesis, thus using the little
solar energy that reached the deepest part of the ocean for manufacturing food.
91. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Burning of agricultural biomass residue, or Crop Residue Burning (CRB) has been identified as a major
health hazard. In addition to causing exposure to extremely high levels of Particulate Matter
concentration to people in the immediate vicinity, it is also a major regional source of pollution,
contributing between 12 and 60 per cent of PM concentrations..
Reasons for residue burning:
Statement 1, Correct: Livestock use the crop residue from which animal fodder is made. (eg) Rice
husk, rice straws are used as fodder. When there is a decline in cattle population or there is shift
towards synthetic fodder, stubble is burnt. (it is bulky & voluminous and hence it cannot be stored as
well)
Statement 2, Correct: Composting is a technique by which organic manure and fertilizers are made.
This takes longer time and hence there is space requirement to compost. Hence, composting is not
favoured. (Also there is decline in popularity of organic manures & movement towards synthetic
fertilizer)
Statement 1, incorrect: It causes loss of vital components such as nitrogen, phosphorus, sulphur and
potassium from the topsoil layer, making the land less fertile and unviable for agriculture in the long
run
Statement 4, Correct: Increased mechanisation means that straws become unsuitable to be used as
fodder. This is because the way the straw is cut makes it unsuitable for cattle consumption.
92. Ans (c)

Explanation: Biofloc technology (BFT) is considered the new “blue revolution” in aquaculture. Such
technique is based on in situ microorganism production which plays three major roles:
(i) maintenance of water quality, by the uptake of nitrogen compounds generating in situ microbial
protein;
(ii) nutrition, increasing culture feasibility by reducing feed conversion ratio (FCR) and a decrease of
feed costs; and
(iii) competition with pathogens
93. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 3, incorrect: Temperature (or any climatic extreme) is not suitable for an ecosystem to
survive. It is this extreme temperature because of which we don’t find life in both cold and hot desert.
Eliminating (b) & (d), we are left with (a) and (c). In (a) and (c), S1 & S4 are common and hence if we
can decide on S2, this question cab be answered.
Statement 2, correct: Less glacial disturbance means lesser extremes of temperature which can help
life to thrive.
Statement 1 & 3, correct: High insolation and high rainfall means that we have greater sunlight and
water which are basic building blocks of life on earth.
94. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 3, incorrect: Helabidu belongs to Hoysala architecture. Halebidu (which used to be called
Dorasamudra or Dwarasamudra) was the regal capital of the Hoysala Empire in the 12th century. It is
home to some of the best examples of Hoysala architecture. Most notable are the ornate
Hoysaleshwara and Kedareshwara temples
Statement 1, correct: It is a historic site of ancient and medieval era Buddhist, Hindu and Jain
monuments in north Karnataka (India) dated from the fourth century through the twelfth century CE.
Aihole is 22 miles (35 km) from Badami and about 6 miles (9.7 km) from Pattadakal, both of which are
major centres of historically important Chalukya monuments.
Statement 2, correct: The town is renowned for its Chennakeshava Temple, one of the finest
examples of Hoysala architecture.
95. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Reserve State
(a) Valmiki Tiger reserve Bihar
(b) Pihibit Tiger reserve UP
(c) Palamu Tiger reserve Jharkhand
(d) Pench Tiger reserve MP
96. Ans (b)
Explanation: Changpa tribes
97. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 3, incorrect & Statement 1 correct: The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has
been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the
weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
So NALSA is not a constitutional body but a statutory body.
Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal
system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid
Eligibility for getting free legal aid:
Every person who has to file or defend a case shall be entitled to legal services under this Act if that
person is –
(a) a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe;
(b) a victim of trafficking in human beings or begar
(c) a woman or a child;
(d) a mentally ill or otherwise disabled person;

(e) a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial
disaster; or
(f) an industrial workman; or
(g) in custody, including custody in a protective home
(h) a juvenile
Statement 2, correct: Can be inferred from organogram
98. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct: The Conference on Disarmament (CD) is a multilateral disarmament forum
established by the international community to negotiate arms control and disarmament agreements
Statement 2, incorrect: The Conference is formally independent from the United Nations.
However, while it is not formally a UN organization, it is linked to it in various ways. First and
foremost, the Director-General of the United Nations Office at Geneva serves as the Secretary-General
of the Conference. UNGA can pass resolutions recommending specific topics to the Conference.
Finally, the Conference submits a report of its activities to the General Assembly yearly, or more
frequently, as appropriate.
Statement 3, correct: The Conference was created with a permanent agenda, also known as the
"Decalogue," which includes the following topics:
 Nuclear weapons in all aspects
 Other weapons of mass destruction
 Conventional weapons
 Reduction of military budgets
 Reduction of armed forces
 Disarmament and development
 Disarmament and international security
 Collateral measures; confidence building measures; effective verification methods in relation to
appropriate disarmament measures, acceptable to all parties
 Comprehensive programme of disarmament leading to general and complete disarmament under
effective international control
99. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Rapid Action Force: RAF stands for "Rapid Action Force", A specialized force, raised in Oct. 1992
initially with 10 unattached battalions and increased with 5 more units on 01/01/2018.
These units were set up to deal with riots and riot like situations, to instill confidence amongst all
sections of the society and also, handle internal security duty.
NIA: NIA Act was enacted on 31-12-08 and the National Investigation Agency (NIA) was born. At
present NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India.
CISF: The CISF came into existence in 1969 with a modest beginning, having three battalions, to
provide integrated security cover to the Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) which, in those years,
occupied the commanding heights of the economy.
NSG: The National Security Guard (NSG) is an Indian special forces unit under the Ministry of Home
Affairs (MHA). for combating terrorist activities with a view to protect states against internal
disturbances". The NSG personnel are often referred to in the media as Black Cats because of the
black outfit and black cat insignia worn on their uniform
100. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1, correct: A Central Government constituted committee for the National Capital Region in
compliance with the Hon'ble Supreme Court order dated January 7, 1998.
Statement 2, correct: The Authority shall deal with environmental issues pertaining to the National
Capital Region which may be referred to it by the Central Government
Detailed functions of authority can be found in GO
http://epca.org.in/EPCA_Reconstitution_Gazette%20Notification_5_July2016.pdf

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PRESTORMING - TEST 10 – ENVIRONMENT - I EXPLANATION KEY

10. Ans (c)

11. Ans (d)

12. Ans (c)

13. Ans (d)

14. Ans (d)

15. Ans (d)

16. Ans (d)

17. Ans (a)

18. Ans (d)

19. Ans (a)

20. Ans (a)

21. Ans (a)

22. Ans (c)

23. Ans (d)

24. Ans (d)

25. Ans (c)

26. Ans (a)

27. Ans (c)

28. Ans (d)

29. Ans (d)

30. Ans (b)

1. Orang National Park - Assam

31. Ans (a)

32. Ans (b)

33. Ans (b)

So it’s not only answers that teach but questions itself.

34. Ans (c)

 Living root bridges is in Meghalaya

35. Ans (c)

36. Ans (b)

37. Ans (c)

38. Ans (a)

39. Ans (a)

40. Ans (c)

41. Ans (d)

42. Ans (a)

43. Ans (b)

44. Ans (d)

45. Ans (c)

46. Ans (b)

47. Ans (b)

48. Ans (c)

49. Ans (c)

50. Ans (c)

51. Ans (b)

52. Ans (c)

53. Ans (c)

54. Ans (a)

55. Ans (d)

56. Ans (a)

57. Ans (d)

58. Ans (b)

59. Ans (c)

60. Ans (c)

61. Ans (b)

62. Ans (d)

63. Ans (c)

64. Ans (d)

65. Ans (d)

66. Ans (d)