Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Transistors

Q1. A transistor has …………………

1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. four pn junctions
Answer : 2
Q2. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………
1. four
2. three
3. one
4. two
Answer : 4
Q3. The base of a transistor is ………….. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
1. collector
2. base
3. emitter
4. collector-base-junction
Answer : 1
Q5. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….
1. acceptor ions
2. donor ions
3. free electrons
4. holes
Answer : 4
Q6. The collector of a transistor is …………. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. A transistor is a …………… operated device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both voltage and current
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q8. In a npn transistor, ……………. are the minority carriers
1. free electrons
2. holes
3. donor ions
4. acceptor ions
Answer : 2
Q9. The emitter of a transistor is ………………… doped

1
 1. lightly
2. heavily
3. moderately
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. In a transistor, the base current is about ………….. of emitter current
1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 35 %
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q11. At the base-emitter junctions of a transistor, one finds ……………
1. a reverse bias
2. a wide depletion layer
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. The input impedance of a transistor is ………….
1. high
2. low
3. very high
4. almost zero
Answer : 2
Q13. Most of the majority carriers from the emitter ………………..
1. recombine in the base
2. recombine in the emitter
3. pass through the base region to the collector
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q14. The current IB is …………
1. electron current
2. hole current
3. donor ion current
4. acceptor ion current
Answer : 1
Q15. In a transistor ………………..
IC = IE + IB
IB = IC + IE
IE = IC – IB
IE = IC + IB
Answer : 4
Q16. The value of α of a transistor is ……….
 more than 1
 less than 1
 1
 none of the above
Answer : 2
Q17. IC = αIE + ………….
1. IB
2. ICEO
3. ICBO

2
 4. βIB
Answer : 3
Q18. The output impedance of a transistor is ……………..
1. high
2. zero
3. low
4. very low
Answer : 1
Q19. In a tansistor, IC = 100 mA and IE = 100.2 mA. The value of β is …………
1. 100
2. 50
3. about 1
4. 200
Answer : 4
Q20. In a transistor if β = 100 and collector current is 10 mA, then IE is …………
1. 100 mA
2. 100.1 mA
3. 110 mA
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q21. The relation between β and α is …………..
1. β = 1 / (1 – α )
2. β = (1 – α ) / α
3. β = α / (1 – α )
4. β = α / (1 + α )
Answer : 3
Q22. The value of β for a transistor is generally ………………..
1. 1
2. less than 1
3. between 20 and 500
4. above 500
Answer : 3
Q23. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is …………… arrangement
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q24. The input impedance of a transistor connected in …………….. arrangement is the
highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is the
highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above

3
Answer : 3
Q26. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in a common base
arrangement is …………….
1. 180o
2. 90o
3. 270o
4. 0o
Answer : 4
Q27. The power gain in a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q28. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor
connected in common emitter arrangement is ………………
1. 0o
2. 180o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q29. The voltage gain in a transistor connected in ………………. arrangement is the
highest
1. common base
2. common collector
3. common emitter
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q30. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the base-emitter resistance ……………
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common collector arrangement is
………..
1. equal to 1
2. more than 10
3. more than 100
4. less than 1
Answer : 4
Q32. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor
connected in common collector arrangement is ………………
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q33. IC = β IB + ………..
1. ICBO
2. IC

4
 3. ICEO
4. αIE
Answer : 3
Q34. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + ………….
1. ICEO
2. ICBO
3. IC
4. (1 – α ) IB
Answer : 1
Q35. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + […….. / (1 – α )]
1. ICBO
2. ICEO
3. IC
4. IE
Answer : 1
Q36. BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of …………..
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q37. ICEO = (………) ICBO
1. β
2. 1 + α
3. 1 + β
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q38. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in CE mode with same
bias voltages, the values of IE, IB and IC will …………..
1. remain the same
2. increase
3. decrease
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q39. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ………..
1. 9
2. 0.9
3. 900
4. 90
Answer : 4
Q40. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a …………… circuit
1. high resistance to low resistance
2. low resistance to high resistance
3. high resistance to high resistance
4. low resistance to low resistance
Answer : 2
Q41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ………….
1. electron current in the emitter
2. electron current in the collector
3. hole current in the emitter
4. donor ion current

5
Answer : 3
Q42. The leakage current in CE arrangement is ……………. that in CB arrangement
1. more than
2. less than
3. the same as
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q43. A heat sink is generally used with a transistor to …………
1. increase the forward current
2. decrease the forward current
3. compensate for excessive doping
4. prevent excessive temperature rise
Answer : 4
Q44. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a transistor is
………….
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q45. The collector-base junction in a transistor has ……………..
1. forward bias at all times
2. reverse bias at all times
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 2

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Amplifiers with Negative

Feedback
Q1. When negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its voltage gain ……………….
1. Is increased
2. Is reduced
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. The value of negative feedback fraction is always …………….
1. Less than 1
2. More than 1
3. Equal to 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 mV from the output is fed back to the input, then
feedback fraction is ………..
1. 10
2. 1
3. 01
4. 15
Answer : 3

6
Q4. The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 db. If a negative feedback of 3 db is applied,
the gain of the amplifier will become …………..
1. 5 db
2. 300 db
3. 103 db
4. 97 db
Answer : 4
Q5. If the feedback fraction of an amplifier is 0.01, then voltage gain with negative feedback is
approximately………..
1. 500
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 5000
Answer : 2
Q6. A feedback circuit usually employs ……………… network
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. Inductive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. The gain of an amplifier with feedback is known as ………….. gain
1. Resonant
2. Open loop
3. Closed loop
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. When voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance ………….
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance …………..
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. Negative feedback is employed in ……………..
1. Oscillators
2. Rectifiers
3. Amplifiers
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. Emitter follower is used for …………
1. Current gain
2. Impedance matching
3. Voltage gain
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. The voltage gain of an emitter follower is ………..

7
 1. Much less than 1
2. Approximately equal to 1
3. Greater than 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q13. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance ……..
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. Emitter follower is a ……………….. circuit
1. Voltage feedback
2. Current feedback
3. Both voltage and current feedback
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. If voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance …………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q16. When a negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its bandwidth……….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. Insufficient data
Answer : 1
Q17. An emitter follower has ………… input impedance
1. Zero
2. Low
3. High
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. This question will be available soon

Q19. The output impedance of an emitter follower is ……….

1. High
2. Very high
3. Almost zero
4. Low
Answer : 4

1. An ideal operational amplifier has

8
 A. infinite output impedance

B. zero input impedance

C. infinite bandwidth

D. All of the above

Answer: Option C

2. Another name for a unity gain amplifier is:

A. difference amplifier

B. comparator

C. single ended

D. voltage follower
Answer: Option D

3. The open-loop voltage gain (Aol) of an op-amp is the

A. external voltage gain the device is capable of

B. internal voltage gain the device is capable of

C. most controlled parameter

D. same as Acl
Answer: Option B

4. What is the output waveform?

9
 A. sine wave

B. square wave

C. sawtooth wave

D. triangle wave
Answer: Option D

5. A series dissipative regulator is an example of a:

A. linear regulator

B. switching regulator

C. shunt regulator

D. dc-to-dc converter
Answer: Option A

6. What is this circuit?

10
 A. a low-pass filter

B. a high-pass filter

C. a bandpass filter

D. a band-stop filter
Answer: Option D

7. A noninverting closed-loop op-amp circuit generally has a gain factor:

A. less than one

B. greater than one

C. of zero

D. equal to one
Answer: Option B

8. In order for an output to swing above and below a zero reference, the op-amp circuit
requires:
A. a resistive feedback network

B. zero offset

C. a wide bandwidth

D. a negative and positive supply

Answer: Option D

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9. Op-amps used as high- and low-pass filter circuits employ which configuration?
A. noninverting

B. comparator

C. open-loop

D. inverting
Answer: Option D

10.

Decreasing the gain in the given circuit could be achieved by

A. reducing the amplitude of the input voltage

B. increasing the value of the feedback resistor

C. increasing the value of the input resistor

D. removing the feedback resistor

Answer: Option C

Linear Integrated Circuit Questions and Answers – Clippers and Clampers

1. Which circuit is used for obtaining desired output waveform in operational amplifier?
a) Clipper
b) Clamper
c) Peak amplifier
d) Sample and hold
View Answer
Answer: a

12
2. The clipping level in op-amp is determined by
a) AC supply voltage
b) Control voltage
c) Reference voltage
d) Input voltage
View Answer
Answer: c

3. In a positive clipper, the diode conducts when

a) Vin < Vref
b) Vin = Vref
c) Vin > Vref
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b.

4. What happens if the potentiometer Rp is connected to negative supply?

a) Output waveform below -Vref will be clipped off

b) Output waveform above +Vref will be clipped off
c) Output waveform above -Vref will be clipped off
d) Output waveform below +Vref will be clipped off
View Answer
Answer: c

13
5. Find the output waveform for when Vin < Vref

View Answer
Answer: c

6. What happens if the input voltage is higher than reference voltage in a positive clipper?
a) Output voltage = Reference voltage
b) Output voltage = DC Positive voltage
c) Output voltage = Input voltage
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

14
Answer: a

7. A positive small signal halfwave rectifier can

a) Rectify signals with peak value only
b) Rectify signals with value of few millivolts only
c) Rectify signals with both peak value and down to few millivolts
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c

8. Determine the output waveform of negative small signal half wave rectifier.

15
View Answer
Answer: d

9. Diode in small signal positive halfwave rectifier circuit acts as

a) Ideal diode
b) Clipper diode
c) Clamper diode
d) Rectifier diode
View Answer
Answer: a

10. How to minimize the response time and increase the operating frequency range of the op-
amp?
a) Positive halfwave rectifier with two diodes
b) Positive halfwave rectifier with one diode
c) Negative halfwave rectifier with two diodes
d) Negative halfwave rectifier with one diode
View Answer
Answer: c

16
11. Why a voltage follower stage is connected at the output of the negative small signal half
wave rectifier?
a) Due to Non-uniform input resistance
b) Due to Non-uniform output resistance
c) Due to Uniform output voltage
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b

12. A circuit with a predetermined dc level is added to the output voltage of the op-amp is called
a) Clamper
b) Positive clipper
c) Halfwave rectifier
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
13. Determine the output waveform for a peak amplifier with input =4Vpsinewave and Vref=1V.

17
View Answer

Answer: a

14. An op-amp clamper circuit is also referred as

a) DC cutter
b) DC inserter
c) DC lifter
d) DC leveller
View Answer
Answer: b

15. At what values of Ci and Rd a precision clamping can obtained in peak clamper when the
time period of the input waveform is 0.4s?
a) Ci=0.1µF and Rd=10kΩ
b) Ci=0.47µF and Rd=10kΩ

18
c) Ci=33µF and Rd=10kΩ
d) Ci=2.5µF and Rd=10kΩ
View Answer
Answer: a

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Power Electronics

Q1. A Triac has three terminals viz ………………

1. Drain, source, gate
2. Two main terminal and a gate terminal
3. Cathode, anode, gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. A triac is equivalent to two SCRs …………..
1. In parallel
2. In series
3. In inverse-parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q3. A triac is a …………. switch
1. Bidirectional
2. Unidirectional
3. Mechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The V-I characteristics for a triac in the first and third quadrants are essentially identical to
those of ………………. in its first quadrant
1. Transistor
2. SCR
3. UJT
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. A triac can pass a portion of …………… half-cycle through the load
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. A diac has ………….. terminals
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. A triac has …………….. semiconductor layers
1. Two

19
 2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
Answer : 3
Q8. A diac has …………… pn junctions
1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. The device that does not have the gate terminal is ……………….
1. Triac
2. FET
3. SCR
4. Diac
Answer : 4
Q10. A diac has ……………… semiconductor layers
1. Three
2. Two
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q11. A UJT has ……………….
1. Two pn junctions
2. One pn junction
3. Three pn junctions
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. The normal way to turn on a diac is by ………………..
1. Gate current
2. Gate voltage
3. Breakover voltage
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. A diac is …………………. switch
1. An c.
2. A d.c.
3. A mechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. In a UJT, the p-type emitter is ……………. doped
1. Lightly
2. Heavily
3. Moderately
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. Power electronics essentially deals with control of a.c. power at …………
1. Frequencies above 20 kHz
2. Frequencies above 1000 kHz
3. Frequencies less than 10 Hz
4. 50 Hz frequency

20
Answer : 4
Q16. When the emitter terminal of a UJT is open, the resistance between the base terminal is
generally ………………..
1. High
2. Low
3. Extremely low
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q17. When a UJT is turned ON, the resistance between emitter terminal and lower base terminal
…………….
1. Remains the same
2. Is decreased
3. Is increased
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q18. To turn on UJT, the forward bias on the emitter diode should be …………… the peak point
voltage
1. Less than
2. Equal to
3. More than
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q19. A UJT is sometimes called …………. diode
1. Low resistance
2. High resistance
3. Single-base
4. Double-base
Answer : 4
Q20. When the temperature increases, the inter-base resistance (RBB) of a UJT ………….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q21. This question will be available soon

Q22. When the temperature increases, the intrinsic stand off ratio ……….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Essentially remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. Between the peak point and the valley point of UJT emitter characteristics we have …………..
region
1. Saturation
2. Negative resistance
3. Cut-off
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q24. A diac is turned on by …………………
1. A breakover voltage

21
 2. Gate voltage
3. Gate current
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. The device that exhibits negative resistance region is ………………..
1. Diac
2. Triac
3. Transistor
4. UJT
Answer : 4
Q26. The UJT may be used as ……………….
1. Am amplifier
2. A sawtooth generator
3. A rectifier
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q27. A diac is simply ………………
1. A single junction device
2. A three junction device
3. A triac without gate terminal
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q28. After peak point, the UJT operates in the ……………. region
1. Cut-off
2. Saturation
3. Negative resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q29. Which of the following is not a characteristic of UJT?
1. Intrinsic stand off ratio
2. Negative resistance
3. Peak-point voltage
4. Bilateral conduction
Answer : 4
Q30. The triac is …………….
1. Like a bidirectional SCR
2. A four-terminal device
3. Not a thyristor
4. Answers (1) and (2)
Answer : 1

Power Electronics Questions and Answers – Thyristors-1

1. A thyristor (SCR) is a
a) P-N-P device
b) N-P-N device
c) P-N-P-N device

22
d) P-N device
View Answer
Answer: c

2. Which terminal does not belong to the SCR?

a) Anode
b) Gate
c) Base
d) Cathode
View Answer
Answer: c

3. An SCR is a
a) four layer, four junction device
b) four layer, three junction device
c) four layer, two junction device
d) three layer, single junction device
View Answer
Answer: b

4. Choose the false statement.

a) SCR is a bidirectional device
b) SCR is a controlled device
c) In SCR the gate is the controlling terminal
d) SCR are used for high-power applications
View Answer
Answer: a

5. In the SCR structure the gate terminal is located

a) near the anode terminal
b) near the cathode terminal
c) in between the anode & cathode terminal

23
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b.

6. The static V-I curve for the SCR is plotted for

a) Ia (anode current) vs Ig (gate current), Va (anode – cathode voltage) as a parameter
b) Ia vs Va with Ig as a parameter
c) Va vs Ig with Ia as a parameter
d) Ig vs Vg with Ia as a parameter
View Answer
Answer: b

7. If the cathode of an SCR is made positive with respect to the anode & no gate current is
applied then
a) all the junctions are reversed biased
b) all the junctions are forward biased
c) only the middle junction is forward biased
d) only the middle junction is reversed biased
View Answer
Answer: c.

8. For an SCR in the reverse blocking mode, (practically)

a) leakage current does not flow
b) leakage current flows from anode to cathode
c) leakage current flows from cathode to anode
d) leakage current flows from gate to anode
View Answer
Answer: c

9. With the anode positive with respect to the cathode & the gate circuit open, the SCR is said to
be in the
a) reverse blocking mode
b) reverse conduction mode
c) forward blocking mode

24
d) forward conduction mode
View Answer
Answer: c

10. For an SCR in the forward blocking mode (practically)

a) leakage current does not flow
b) leakage current flows from anode to cathode
c) leakage current flows from cathode to anode
d) leakage current flows from gate to anode
View Answer
Answer: b

Power Electronics Question and Answers – MOSFETs-1

1. The MOSFET combines the areas of _______ & _________
a) field effect & MOS technology
b) semiconductor & TTL
c) mos technology & CMOS technology
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a.

2. Which of the following terminals does not belong to the MOSFET?

a) Drain
b) Gate
c) Base
d) Source
View Answer
Answer: c

3. Choose the correct statement

a) MOSFET is a uncontrolled device
b) MOSFET is a voltage controlled device
c) MOSFET is a current controlled device

25
d) MOSFET is a temperature controlled device
View Answer
Answer: b

4. Choose the correct statement(s)

i) The gate circuit impedance of MOSFET is higher than that of a BJT
ii) The gate circuit impedance of MOSFET is lower than that of a BJT
iii) The MOSFET has higher switching losses than that of a BJT
iv) The MOSFET has lower switching losses than that of a BJT
a) Both i & ii
b) Both ii & iv
c) Both i & iv
d) Only ii
View Answer
Answer: c.

5. Choose the correct statement

a) MOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, two terminal device
b) MOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, three terminal device
c) MOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, three terminal device
d) MOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, two terminal device
View Answer
Answer: c

6. The arrow on the symbol of MOSFET indicates

a) that it is a N-channel MOSFET
b) the direction of electrons
c) the direction of conventional current flow
d) that it is a P-channel MOSFET
View Answer
Answer: b

7. The controlling parameter in MOSFET is

a) Vds

26
b) Ig
c) Vgs
d) Is
View Answer
Answer: b

8. In the internal structure of a MOSFET, a parasitic BJT exists between the

a) source & gate terminals
b) source & drain terminals
c) drain & gate terminals
d) there is no parasitic BJT in MOSFET
View Answer
Answer: b

9. In the transfer characteristics of a MOSFET, the threshold voltage is the measure of the
a) minimum voltage to induce a n-channel/p-channel for conduction
b) minimum voltage till which temperature is constant
c) minimum voltage to turn off the device
d) none of the above mentioned is true
View Answer
Answer: a

10.The output characteristics of a MOSFET, is a plot of

a) Id as a function of Vgs with Vds as a parameter
b) Id as a function of Vds with Vgs as a parameter
c) Ig as a function of Vgs with Vds as a parameter
d) Ig as a function of Vds with Vgs as a parameter
View Answer
Answer: b

27
Power Electronics Question and Answers – MOSFETs-2
1. In the output characteristics of a MOSFET with low values of Vds, the value of the on-state
resistance is
a) Vds/Ig
b) Vds/Id
c) 0
d) ∞
View Answer
Answer: b

2. At turn-on the initial delay or turn on delay is the time required for the
a) input inductance to charge to the threshold value
b) input capacitance to charge to the threshold value
c) input inductance to discharge to the threshold value
d) input capacitance to discharge to the threshold value
View Answer
Answer: b

3. Choose the correct statement

a) MOSFET suffers from secondary breakdown problems
b) MOSFET has lower switching losses as compared to other devices
c) MOSFET has high value of on-state resistance as compared to other devices
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b

4. Which among the following devices is the most suited for high frequency applications?
a) BJT
b) IGBT
c) MOSFET
d) SCR
View Answer

28
Answer: c

5. Choose the correct statement

a) MOSFET has a positive temperature co-efficient
b) MOSFET has a high gate circuit impedance
c) MOSFET is a voltage controlled device
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d

6. Consider an ideal MOSFET. If Vgs = 0V, then Id = ?

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Id(on)
d) Idd
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gate current = 0 so device is off (ideally).

7. For a MOSFET Vgs=3V, Idss=5A, and Id=2A. Find the pinch of voltage Vp
a) 4.08
b) 8.16
c) 16.32
d) 0V
View Answer
Answer: b

8. How does the MOSFET differ from the JFET?

a) JFET has a p-n junction
b) They are both the same
c) JFET is small in size
d) MOSFET has a base terminal
View Answer
Answer: a

29
9. The basic advantage of the CMOS technology is that
a) It is easily available
b) It has small size
c) It has lower power consumption
d) It has better switching capabilities
View Answer
Answer: c

10. The N-channel MOSFET is considered better than the P-channel MOSFET due to its
a) low noise levels
b) TTL compatibility
c) lower input impedance
d) faster operation
View Answer
Answer: d

Power Electronics Questions and Answers – Thyristors-3

1. During the transition time or turn-on time
a) The forward anode voltage decreases from 90 % to 10 % & the anode current also decreases
from 90 to 10 % of the initial value
b) The forward anode voltage increases from 10 % to 90 % & the anode current also increases
from 10 % to 90 % of the initial value
c) The forward anode voltage decreases from 90 % to 10 % & the anode current increases from
10 % to 90 % of the initial value
d) The forward anode voltage increases from 10 % to 90 % & the anode current decreases from
90% to 10% of the initial value
Answer: c
2. For an SCR the total turn-on time consists of
i) Delay time
ii) Rise time and
iii) Spread time
During the delay time the
a) anode current flows only near the gate
b) anode current rises from zero to very high value

30
c) losses are maximum
d) anode to cathode voltage is zero
Answer: a
3. The minimum value of anode current below which it must fall to completely turn-off the device
is called as the
a) holding current value
b) latching current value
c) switching current value
d) peak anode current value
Answer: a
4. For an SCR the total turn-on time consists of
i) Delay time
ii) Rise time and
iii) Spread time
During the rise time the
a) anode current flows only near the gate
b) anode current rises from zero to very high value
c) losses are maximum
d) anode to cathode voltage is zero
Answer: c
5. The latching current is _________ than the holding current
a) lower
b) higher
c) same as
d) negative of
Answer: b.

6. For an SCR the total turn-on time consists of

i) Delay time
ii) Rise time and the
iii) Spread time
The spread time interval depends upon
a) the value of gate current
b) junction temperature
c) area of the cathode

31
d) area of the anode
View Answer
Answer: c

7. For effective turning off of the SCR after the anode current has reached zero value,
______________
a) chargers are injected by applying reverse anode-cathode voltage
b) chargers are removed by applying reverse anode-cathode voltage
c) chargers are injected by applying gate signal
d) chargers are removed by applying gate signal
View Answer
Answer: b

8. To avoid commutation failure

a) circuit turn-off time must be greater than the thyristor turn-off time
b) circuit turn-off time must be lesser than the thyristor turn-off time
c) circuit turn-off time must be equal to the thyristor turn-off time
d) none of the above mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a

9. The gate characteristics of thyristor is a plot of

a) Vg on the X-axis & Ig on the Y-axis
b) Ig on the X-axis & Vg on the Y-axis
c) Va on the X-axis & Ig on the Y-axis
d) Ig on the X-axis & Va on the Y-axis
View Answer
Answer: b

10. The area under the curve of the gate characteristics of thyristor gives the
a) total average gate current
b) total average gate voltage
c) total average gate impedance

32
d) total average gate power dissipation
View Answer
Answer: d

Power Electronics Question and Answers – IGBTs-1

1. IGBT possess
a) low input impedance
b) high input impedance
c) high on-state resistance
d) second breakdown problems
View Answer
Answer: b
2. IGBT & BJT both posses ___
a) low on-state power losses
b) high on-state power losses
c) low switching losses
d) high input impedance
View Answer

Answer: a
3. The three terminals of the IGBT are
a) base, emitter & collector
b) gate, source & drain
c) gate, emitter & collector
d) base, source & drain
View AnswerAnswer: c
4. In IGBT, the p+ layer connected to the collector terminal is called as the
a) drift layer
b) injection layer
c) body layer
d) collector Layer
View AnswerAnswer: b
5. The controlling parameter in IGBT is the
a) IG
b) VGE
c) IC
d) VCE
View Answer

33
Answer: b
6. In IGBT, the n– layer above the p+ layer is called as the
a) drift layer
b) injection layer
c) body layer
d) collector Layer
View Answer

Answer: a
7. The voltage blocking capability of the IGBT is determined by the
a) injection layer
b) body layer
c) metal used for the contacts
d) drift layer
View Answer

Answer: d

8. The controlled parameter in IGBT is the

a) IG
b) VGE
c) IC
d) VCE
View Answer
Answer: c

9. The structure of the IGBT is a

a) P-N-P structure connected by a MOS gate
b) N-N-P-P structure connected by a MOS gate
c) P-N-P-N structure connected by a MOS gate
d) N-P-N-P structure connected by a MOS gate
View Answer
Answer: c

10. The major drawback of the first generation IGBTs was that, they had
a) latch-up problems
b) noise & secondary breakdown problems
c) sluggish operation

34
d) latch-up & secondary breakdown problems
View Answer
Answer: d

Power Electronics Questions and Answers – IGBTs-2

1. When latch-up occurs in an IGBT
a) Ig is no longer controllable
b) Ic is no longer controllable
c) the device turns off
d) Ic increases to a very high value
View Answer
Answer: b
2. A latched up IGBT can be turned off by
a) forced commutation of current
b) forced commutation of voltage
c) use of a snubber circuit
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a

3. The static V-I curve of an IGBT is plotted with

a) Vce as the parameter
b) Ic as the parameter
c) Vge as the parameter
d) Ig as the parameter
View Answer
Answer: c

4. Latch-up occurs in an IGBT when

a) Vce reaches a certain value
b) Ic reaches a certain value
c) Ig reaches a certain value

35
d) the device temperature reaches a certain value
View Answer
Answer: b

5. In an IGBT, during the turn-on time

a) Vge decreases
b) Ic decreases
c) Vce decreases
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c

6. Choose the correct statement

a) IGBTs have higher switching losses as compared to BJTs
b) IGBTs have secondary breakdown problems
c) IGBTs have lower gate drive requirements
d) IGBTs are current controlled devices
View Answer
Answer: c

7. The approximate equivalent circuit of an IGBT consists of

a) a BJT & a MOSFET
b) a MOSFET & a MCT
c) two BJTs
d) two MOSFETs
View Answer
Answer: a.

8. An IGBT is also know as

a) MOIGT (Metal oxide insulated gate transistor)
b) COMFET (Conductively modulated FET)
c) GEMFET (Grain modulated FET)
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

36
Answer: d

9. The body of an IGBT consists of a

a) p-layer
b) n-layer
c) p-n layer
d) metal
View Answer
Answer: a

10. At present, the state-of-the-art semiconductor devices are begin manufactured using
a) Semiconducting Diamond
b) Gallium-Arsenide
c) Germanium
d) Silicon-Carbide
View Answer
Answer: d

Optical Communications Questions and Answers – Optical

Bistability, Digital Optics and Optical Computation
1. ___________ provides a series of optical processing functions.
a) Wavelength convertors
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Detectors
d) Bi-stable optical devices
View Answer
Answer: d

2. ___________ comprise of Fabry-Perot cavity.

a) Wavelength convertors
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Bi-stable optical devices

37
d) Detectors
View Answer
Answer: c

3. The optical path length in nonlinear medium is integer number of ______ wavelength.
a) Half
b) Double
c) Three-fourth
d) Single
View Answer
Answer: a

4. As compared to laser, the value of _________ in the cavity controls the optical transmission.
a) Amplification
b) Refractive index
c) Rectification
d) Reflection
View Answer
Answer: b

5. ___________ are able to latch between two distinct optical states.

a) a) Wavelength convertors
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Detectors
d) Bistable optical devices
View Answer
Answer: d

6. __________ can act as AND, OR, NOT gate.

a) Wavelength convertors
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Detectors

38
d) Bistable optical devices
View Answer
Answer: d

7. _______ proves superior to _______

a) BOD’s, electronic devices
b) Electronic devices, BOD’s
c) BOD’s, convertors
d) Convertors, BOD’s
View Answer
Answer: a

8. ________ BOD’s provides optical feedback.

a) Extrinsic
b) Intrinsic
c) Detector
d) Bistable
View Answer
Answer: b

9. ___________ devices employ artificial nonlinearity.

a) Extrinsic
b) Intrinsic
c) Hybrid
d) Bistable
View Answer
Answer: c

10. Hybrid devices have limited ________ speed.

a) Switching
b) Planar
c) Curvature

39
d) Electrical
View Answer
Answer: a

11. _______ exhibit optical bistability.

a) Extrinsic lasers
b) Intrinsic lasers
c) Detectors
d) Semiconductor lasers
View Answer
Answer: d

12. ___________ is fabricated with tandem electrode.

a) Full convertor
b) Semiconductor
c) Detector diode
d) Bistable laser diode
View Answer
Answer: d

13. Optical pulsing can be obtained using _________

a) BODs
b) WDM
c) Detector
d) Semiconductor
View Answer
Answer: a

14. A weak second beam is introduced in _________

a) BOD differential amplifier
b) WDM
c) Detector

40
d) Semiconductor laser
View Answer
Answer: a

Optical Communications Questions and Answers – LED Power and Efficiency

1. The absence of _______________ in LEDs limits the internal quantum efficiency.

a) Proper semiconductor
b) Adequate power supply
c) Optical amplification through stimulated emission
d) Optical amplification through spontaneous emission
View Answer
Answer: c

2. The excess density of electrons Δnand holes Δpin an LED is

a) Equal
b) Δpmore than Δn
c) Δn more than Δp
d) Does not affects the LED
View Answer
Answer: a

3. The hole concentration in extrinsic materials is _________ electron concentration.

a) much greater than
b) lesser than
c) equal to
d) negligible difference with
View Answer
Answer: a

4. The carrier recombination lifetime becomes majority or injected carrier lifetime. State whether
the given statement is true or false.
a) True

41
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b

5. In a junction diode, an equilibrium condition occurs when

a) Δngreater than Δp
b) Δnsmaller than Δp
c) Constant current flow
d) Optical amplification through stimulated emission
View Answer
Answer: c.

6. Determine the total carrier recombination lifetime of a double heterojunction LED where the
radioactive and nonradioactive recombination lifetime of minority carriers in active region are 70
ns and 100 ns respectively.
a) 41.17 ns
b) 35 ns
c) 40 ns
d) 37.5 ns
View Answer
Answer: a

7. Determine the internal quantum efficiency generated within a device when it has a radiative
recombination lifetime of 80 ns and total carrier recombination lifetime of 40 ns.
a) 20 %
b) 80 %
c) 30 %
d) 40 %
View Answer
Answer: b

8. Compute power internally generated within a double-heterojunction LED if it has internal

quantum efficiency of 64.5 % and drive current of 40 mA with a peak emission wavelength of
0.82 μm.

42
a) 0.09
b) 0.039
c) 0.04
d) 0.06
View Answer
Answer: b

9. The Lambertian intensity distribution __________ the external power efficiency by some
percent.
a) Reduces
b) Does not affects
c) Increases
d) Have a negligible effect
View Answer
Answer: a

10. A planar LED fabricated from GaAs has a refractive index of 2.5. Compute the optical power
emitted when transmission factor is 0.68.
a) 3.4 %
b) 1.23 %
c) 2.72 %
d) 3.62 %
View Answer
Answer: c

11. A planar LED is fabricated from GaAs is having a optical power emitted is 0.018% of optical
power generated internally which is 0.018% of optical power generated internally which is 0.6 P.
Determine external power efficiency.
a) 0.18%
b) 0.32%
c) 0.65%
d) 0.9%
View Answer

43
Answer: d

12. For a GaAs LED, the coupling efficiency is 0.05. Compute the optical loss in decibels.
a) 12.3 dB
b) 14 dB
c) 13.01 dB
d) 14.6 dB
View Answer
Answer: c

13. In a GaAs LED, compute the loss relative to internally generated optical power in the fiber
when there is small air gap between LED and fiber core. (Fiber coupled = 5.5 * 10-4Pint)
a) 34 dB
b) 32.59 dB
c) 42 dB
d) 33.1 dB
View Answer
Answer: b

14. Determine coupling efficiency into the fiber when GaAs LED is in close proximity to fiber
core having numerical aperture of 0.3
a) 0.9
b) 0.3
c) 0.6
d)0.12
View Answer
Answer: a

15. If a particular optical power is coupled from an incoherent LED into a low-NA fiber, the
device must exhibit very high radiance . State whether the given statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

44
Answer: a

Applied Chemistry Questions and Answers –

Photovoltaic Cell and Solar Cell Applications
1. The term photo voltaic comes from ________
a) Spanish
b) Greek
c) German
d) English
View Answer
Answer: b

2. The volt is the units of emf that was named after its inventor _________
a) Alessandro volta
b) Alxender volta
c) Alexa volta
d) Alexandro volta
View Answer
Answer: a

3. The term photo voltaic is in use since _________

a) 1840
b) 1844
c) 1849
d) 1850
View Answer
Answer: c

4. When the source of light is not sun light then the photo voltaic cell is used as ____________
a) Photo diode
b) Photo voltaic cell
c) Photo detector

45
d) Photo transmitter
View Answer
Answer: c

5. The region where the electrons and holes diffused across the junction is called ________
a) Depletion Junction
b) Depletion region
c) Depletion space
d) Depletion boundary
View Answer
Answer: b

6. The current produce by the solar cell can be given by _________

a) IL – ID + ISh
b) IL + ID – ISh
c) IL + ID + ISh
d) IL – ID – ISh
View Answer
Answer: d

7. The amount of photo generated current increases slightly with increase in _________
a) Temperature
b) Photons
c) Diode current
d) Shunt current
View Answer
Answer: a

8. Solar cells are made from bulk materials that are cut into wafer of _________ thickness.
a) 120-180μm
b) 120-220μm
c) 180-220μm

46
d) 180-240μm
View Answer
Answer: d

9. __________ is one of the most important materials is also known as solar grade silicon.
a) Crushed silicon
b) Crystalline silicon
c) Powdered silicon
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: b

10. __________ photo voltaic devices in the form of thin films.

a) Cadmium Telluroide
b) Cadmium oxide
c) Cadmium sulphide
d) Cadmium sulphate
View Answer
Answer: a

11. __________ is a direct band gap material.

a) Copper Indium Gallium Selenide
b) Copper Selenide
c) Copper Gallium Telluride
d) Copper Indium Gallium Diselenide
View Answer
Answer: a

12. Dye-sensitized solar cells are made from ________ organic dye.
a) Ruthium melallo
b) Aniline
c) Safranine

47
d) Induline
View Answer
Answer: a

13. Quantum dot solar cells are based on _______

a) Gratzel cell
b) Solar cell
c) Voltaic cell
d) Galvanic cell
View Answer
Answer: a

14. The quantum dot used are _______

a) Cds
b) CdTe
c) PbO
d) GaAs
View Answer
Answer: a

15. Organic polymer solar cells are made from Polyphenylene.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a

62

48
 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) on Soldering and Brazing

The filler metal used in brazing has melting point of above

a. 200°C
b. 300°C
c. 420°C
d. 520°C
(Ans:c)

The commonly used flux in brazing is

a. Borax
b. Rosin
c. Lead sulphide
d. Zinc chloride
(Ans:a)

Which of the following is function(s) of flux used in brazing?

i. Protect surface from oxidation

ii. Reduce surface tension of filler
iii. Assist its penetration
a. i only
b. ii only
c. i and ii
d. i, ii and iii
(Ans:d)

In soldering the melting point of filler metal is

a. below 420°C
b. above 420°C
c. below 520°C
d. above 520°C
(Ans:b)

The composition of soft solder is

a. lead-37%, tin-63%
b. lead-50%, tin-50%
c. lead-63%, tin-37%
d. lead-70%, tin-30%
(Ans:a)

The composition of electrician solder is

a. lead-37%, tin-63%
b. lead-50%, tin-50%
c. lead-63%, tin-37%
d. lead-70%, tin-30%

49
 (Ans:d)

Which of the following is not true?

a. Soft solder – lead-37%, tin-63%

b. Medium solder – lead-50%, tin-50%
c. Electrician solder – lead-64%, tin-36%
d. Plumber’s solder – lead-70%, tin-30%
(Ans:c)

Basic Logic Gates - MCQs with answers

Q1. Which component in an inverter circuit plays a crucial role in the removal of minority
charge carriers at base specifically due to sudden variation of signal between logic
states?

a. Load Resistor
b. Base Inductor
c. Capacitor
d. None of the above

ANSWER: c. Capacitor
Q2. Which of the below stated application/s employ Ex-OR gate from the arithmetic
functioning point of view?

a. Matching Circuit
b. Equality Detector
c. Inequality Comparator
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above

Q3. Which gates are sequentially cascaded or involved in an entire logic-array of AND-
OR-INVERT (AOI) configuration?

a. AND-OR-AND
b. AND-OR-NOT
c. AND-OR-NOR
d. AND-OR-EX-OR

ANSWER: b. AND-OR-NOT

Operating Conditions of Gates - MCQs with answers

Q1. Which boolean expression satisfies the logic statement condition “If A= 1 & B= 0 or if
B=1 & A=0 ,then output Y =1” ?

50
a. Y = AB +BA
b. Y = AB + BA
c. Y = A B + B A
d. Y = AB+BA

ANSWER: c. Y = A B + B A

Q2. Which gate generates no output when two of its inputs are at the opposite logic
level?

a. X-NOR
b. X-OR
c. XOR
d. NOR

ANSWER: a. X-NOR

Q3. Which gate behaves as an inversion or complementation reminder before the AND
operation of inputs ?

a. OR gate
b. NOR gate
c. Bubbled AND gate
d. None of the above

ANSWER: c. Bubbled AND gate

Logic Gates - General Questions

1. The output of an AND gate with three inputs, A, B, and C, is HIGH when ________.
A. A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

B. A = 0, B = 0, C = 0

C. A = 1, B = 1, C = 1

D. A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.

51
 View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report

2. If a 3-input NOR gate has eight input possibilities, how many of those possibilities will result
in a HIGH output?
A. 1

B. 2

C. 7

D. 8

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.

View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report

3. If a signal passing through a gate is inhibited by sending a LOW into one of the inputs, and
the output is HIGH, the gate is a(n):
A. AND

B. NAND

C. NOR

D. OR

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.

View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report

4. A device used to display one or more digital signals so that they can be compared to
expected timing diagrams for the signals is a:

52
 A. DMM

B. spectrum analyzer

C. logic analyzer

D. frequency counter

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.

View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report

5. When used with an IC, what does the term "QUAD" indicate?
A. 2 circuits

B. 4 circuits

C. 6 circuits

D. 8 circuits

Answer: Option B

Digital Circuits Questions and Answers – Logic Gates and Networks

1. The output of a logic gate is 1 when all the input are at logic 0 as shown below:
INPUT OUTPUT

A B C

0 0 1

53
0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 0

INPUT OUTPUT

A B C

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 1

The gate is either

a) A NAND or an EX-OR
b) An OR or an EX-NOR
c) An AND or an EX-OR
d) A NOR or an EX-NOR
View Answer
Answer: d

2. The code where all successive numbers differ from their preceding number by single bit is
a) Binary code
b) BCD
c) Excess 3
d) Gray
View Answer

54
Answer: d

3. The following switching functions are to be implemented using a decoder:

f1 = ∑m(1, 2, 4, 8, 10, 14) f2 = ∑m(2, 5, 9, 11) f3 = ∑m(2, 4, 5, 6, 7)
The minimum configuration of decoder will be
a) 2 to 4 line
b) 3 to 8 line
c) 4 to 16 line
d) 5 to 32 line
View Answer
Answer: c

4. How many AND gates are required to realize Y = CD + EF + G ?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d

5. The NOR gate output will be high if the two inputs are
a) 00
b) 01
c) 10
d) 11
View Answer
Answer: a

6. How many two-input AND and OR gates are required to realize Y = CD+EF+G?
a) 2, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 3, 3
d) None of the Mentioned
View Answer

55
Answer: a

7. A universal logic gate is one which can be used to generate any logic function. Which of the
following is a universal logic gate?
a) OR
b) AND
c) XOR
d) NAND
View Answer
Answer: d

8. A full adder logic circuit will have

a) Two inputs and one output
b) Three inputs and three outputs
c) Two inputs and two outputs
d) Three inputs and two outputs
View Answer
Answer: d.

9. How many two input AND gates and two input OR gates are required to realize Y = BD + CE
+ AB?
a) 1, 1
b) 4, 2
c) 3, 2
d) 2, 3
View Answer
Answer: a

10. Which of following are known as universal gates?

a) NAND & NOR
b) AND & OR
c) XOR & OR
d) None of the Mentioned
View Answer

56
Answer: a

11. The gates required to build a half adder are

a) EX-OR gate and NOR gate
b) EX-OR gate and OR gate
c) EX-OR gate and AND gate
d) Four NAND gates
View Answer
Answer: c

Digital Circuits Questions and Answers – Combinational Circuits

1. Which of the circuits in figure (a to d) is the sum-of-products implementation of figure (e)?

57
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
View Answer
Answer: d

2. Which of the following logic expressions represents the logic diagram shown?

a) X=AB’+A’B
b) X=(AB)’+AB
c) X=(AB)’+A’B’
d) X=A’B’+AB
View Answer
Answer: d

3. The device shown here is most likely a ________

a) Comparator
b) Multiplexer
c) Inverter
d) Demultiplexer
View Answer
Answer: d

58
4. What type of logic circuit is represented by the figure shown below?

a) XOR
b) XNOR
c) AND
d) XAND
View Answer
Answer: b

5. For a two-input XNOR gate, with the input waveforms as shown below, which output
waveform is correct?

a) d
b) a
c) c
d) b
View Answer
Answer: a

59
6. Which of the following combinations of logic gates can decode binary 1101?
a) One 4-input AND gate
b) One 4-input AND gate, one inverter
c) One 4-input AND gate, one OR gate
d) One 4-input NAND gate, one inverter
View Answer
Answer: b

7. What is the indication of a short to ground in the output of a driving gate?

a) Only the output of the defective gate is affected
b) There is a signal loss to all load gates
c) The node may be stuck in either the HIGH or the LOW state
d) The affected node will be stuck in the HIGH state
View Answer
Answer: b

8. For the device shown here, assume the D input is LOW, both S inputs are LOW and the input
is LOW. What is the status of the Y’ outputs?

a) All are HIGH

b) All are LOW
c) All but are LOW
d) All but are HIGH
View Answer
Answer: d

9. The carry propagation can be expressed as ________

a) Cp = AB
b) Cp = A + B

60
c) Cp = A XOR B
d) Cp = A + B’
View Answer
Answer: b

10. 3 bits full adder contains

a) 3 combinational inputs
b) 4 combinational inputs
c) 6 combinational inputs
d) 8 combinational inputs
View Answer
Answer: d

Digital Circuits Questions and Answers – Flip Flops

This set of Digital Electronics/Circuits Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Flip Flops – 1”.

1. Latches constructed with NOR and NAND gates tend to remain in the latched condition due
to which configuration feature?
a) Low input voltages
b) Synchronous operation
c) Gate impedance
d) Cross coupling
View Answer
Answer: d

2. One example of the use of an S-R flip-flop is as:

a) Transition pulse generator
b) Racer
c) Switch debouncer
d) Astable oscillator
View Answer
Answer: c

61
3. The truth table for an S-R flip-flop has how many VALID entries?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c

4. When both inputs of a J-K flip-flop cycle, the output will

a) Be invalid
b) Change
c) Not change
d) Toggle
View Answer
Answer: c

5. Which of the following is correct for a gated D-type flip-flop?

a) The Q output is either SET or RESET as soon as the D input goes HIGH or LOW
b) The output complement follows the input when enabled
c) Only one of the inputs can be HIGH at a time
d) The output toggles if one of the inputs is held HIGH
View Answer
Answer: a

6. A basic S-R flip-flop can be constructed by cross-coupling of which basic logic gates?
a) AND or OR gates
b) XOR or XNOR gates
c) NOR or NAND gates
d) AND or NOR gates
View Answer
Answer: c

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7. The logic circuits whose outputs at any instant of time depends only on the present input but
also on the past outputs are called
a) Combinational circuits
b) Sequential circuits
c) Latches
d) Flip-flops
View Answer
Answer: b

8. Whose operations are more faster among the following?

a) Combinational circuits
b) Sequential circuits
c) Latches
d) Flip-flops
View Answer
Answer: a

9. How many types of sequential circuits are?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a

10. The sequential circuit is also called

a) Flip-flop
b) Latch
c) Strobe
d) None of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b

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11. The basic latch consist of
a) Two inverters
b) Two comparators
c) Two amplifiers
d) None of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a

12. If Q = 0, the output is said to be

a) Set
b) Reset
c) Previous state
d) Current state
View Answer
Answer: a

13. The output of latches will remain in set/reset untill

a) The trigger pulse is given to change the state
b) Any pulse given to go into previous state
c) They don’t get any pulse more
d) None of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a

14. What is a trigger pulse?

a) A pulse that starts a cycle of operation
b) A pulse that reverses the cycle of operation
c) A pulse that prevents a cycle of operation
d) None of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a

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15. The circuits of NOR based S-R latch classified as asynchronous sequential circuits, why?
a) Because of inverted outputs
b) Because of triggering functionality
c) Because of cross-coupled connection
d) Both a & b
View Answer
Answer: c

VLSI Questions and Answers – Simulators

1. Simulator converts circuit information to
a) design plan
b) does verification
c) set of equations
d) floor plan
View Answer
Answer: c

2. The electrical behaviour of a circuit is given using

a) design rules
b) floor plan
c) structures and layouts
d) mathematical modelling
View Answer
Answer: d

3. Which gives the main electrical behaviour of various parts of circuit?

a) circuit simulator
b) timing simulator
c) logic level simulator
d) functional simulator
View Answer

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Answer: a

4. Which takes lots of simulating time?

a) circuit simulator
b) timing simulator
c) logic level simulator
d) functional simulator
View Answer
Answer: a

5. Timing simulator concentrates on

a) quiscent nodes
b) active nodes
c) passive nodes
d) electrical nodes
View Answer
Answer: b

6. The accuracy of simulation depends on accuracy of

a) fabrication house parameters
b) electrical parameters
c) active parameters
d) functional parameters
View Answer
Answer: a

7. Which is important during the design phase?

a) circuit simulator
b) timing simulator
c) logic level simulator
d) functional simulator
View Answer
Answer: b

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8. Run times are _______ to number of devices and nodes
a) linearly related
b) inversely related
c) expoenentially equal
d) does not relate
View Answer
Answer: a

9. Improvement of transistor modelling includes

a) body effect
b) channel length modulation
c) carrier velocity saturation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d

10. Channel length modulation is for voltages

a) exceeding threshold
b) exceeding onset of saturation
c) exceeding power supply
d) exceeding onset of non saturation
View Answer
Answer: b

11. The charge carriers reach _____ scattering limited velocity before pinch off
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) less
d) equal
View Answer
Answer: a

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12. Less current is available from
a) short channel transistor
b) large channel transistor
c) very large channel transistor
d) does not depend on channel transistor
View Answer
Answer: a

13. Which can cope up with large sections of layout?

a) circuit simulator
b) timing simulator
c) logic level simulator
d) functional simulator
View Answer
Answer: c

14. Logic simulators can be replaced by simulators which operate at transistor level.
a) true
b) false
View Answer
Answer: b

Digital Circuits Questions and Answers – Shift Register Counters

This set of Digital Electronics/Circuits Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Shift Register Counters”.

1. What is a recirculating register?

a) Serial out connected to serial in
b) All Q outputs connected together
c) A register that can be used over again
d) None of the Mentioned
View Answer

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Answer: a

2. When is it important to use a three-state buffer?

a) When two or more outputs are connected to the same input
b) When all outputs are normally HIGH
c) When all outputs are normally LOW
d) When two or more outputs are connected to two or more inputs
View Answer
Answer: a

3. A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing the nibble 1110. Its input is LOW. The nibble 0111
is waiting to be entered on the serial data-input line. After two clock pulses, the shift register is
storing ________
a) 1110
b) 0111
c) 1000
d) 1001
View Answer
Answer: d

4. In a parallel in/parallel out shift register, D0 = 1, D1 = 1, D2 = 1, and D3 = 0. After three clock

pulses, the data outputs are ________
a) 1110
b) 0001
c) 1100
d) 1000
View Answer
Answer: b

5. The group of bits 10110111 is serially shifted (right-most bit first) into an 8-bit parallel output
shift register with an initial state 11110000. After two clock pulses, the register contains
a) 10111000
b) 10110111
c) 11110000

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d) 11111100
View Answer
Answer: d

6. By adding recirculating lines to a 4-bit parallel-in serial-out shift register, it becomes a

________, ________, and ________out register.
a) Parallel-in, serial, parallel
b) Serial-in, parallel, serial
c) Series-parallel-in, series, parallel
d) Bidirectional in, parallel, series
View Answer
Answer: a

7. What type of register would have a complete binary number shifted in one bit at a time and
have all the stored bits shifted out one at a time?
a) Parallel-in Parallel-out
b) Parallel-in Serial-out
c) Serial-in Parallel-out
d) Serial-in Serial-out
View Answer
Answer: c

8. In a 4-bit Johnson counter sequence there are a total of how many states, or bit patterns?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: d

9. If a 10-bit ring counter has an initial state 1101000000, what is the state after the second
clock pulse?
a) 1101000000

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b) 0011010000
c) 1100000000
d) 0000000000
View Answer
Answer: b

10. How much storage capacity does each stage in a shift register represent?
a) One bit
b) Two bits
c) Four bits
d) Eight bits
View Answer
Answer: a

Linear Integrated Circuit Questions and Answers – 555

Timer as an Astable Multivibrator
This set of Linear Integrated Circuit Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“555 Timer as an Astable Multivibrator”.

1. Free running frequency of Astable multivibrator?

a) f=1.45/(RA+2RB)C
b) f=1.45(RA+2RB)C
c) f=1.45C/(RA+2RB)
d) f=1.45 RA/( RA+RB)
View Answer
Answer: a

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2. Find the charging and discharging time of 0.5µF capacitor.

a) Charging time=2ms; Discharging time=5ms

b) Charging time=5ms; Discharging time=2ms
c) Charging time=3ms; Discharging time=5ms
d) Charging time=5ms; Discharging time=3ms
View Answer
Answer: b

3. Astable multivibrator operating at 150Hz has a discharge time of 2.5m. Find the duty cycle of
the circuit.
a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 95.99%
d) 37.5%
View Answer
Answer: d

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4. Determine the frequency and duty cycle of a rectangular wave generator.

a) Frequency=63.7kHz; Duty cycle=50%

b) Frequency=53.7kHz; Duty cycle=55%
c) Frequency=43.7kHz; Duty cycle=50%
d) Frequency=60kHz; Duty cycle=55%
View Answer
Answer: b

5. How to achieve 50% duty cycle in adjustable rectangular wave generator? (Assume R1 –>
Resistor connected between supply and discharge and R2 –> Resistor connected between
discharge and trigger input.)
a) R1 < R2
b) R1 > R2
c) R1 = R2
d) R1 ≥ R2
View Answer
Answer: c

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6. How to obtain symmetrical waveform in Astable multivibrator?
a) Use clocked RS flip-flop
b) Use clocked JK flip-flop
c) Use clocked D-flip-flop
d) Use clocked T-flip-flop
View Answer
Answer: b

a) 1450Hz
b) 1333Hz
c) 1871Hz
d) 1700Hz
View Answer
Answer: c

8. How does a monostable multivibrator used as frequency divider?

a) Using square wave generator
b) Using triangular wave generator
c) Using sawtooth wave generator

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d) Using sine wave generator
View Answer
Answer: a

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