02/05/2019 Code-B

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET-2019 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test-13
Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : 4. When the three blocks attached with light strings as
shown in the figure are released from rest, they
1. A student is trying to estimate value of acceleration
accelerate with an acceleration of 1 m/s2. Blocks
due to gravity (g), by throwing a ball vertically
have masses 3 kg, 2 kg, 5 kg as shown in figure.
upward. If maximum percentage error in the
The coefficient of friction between block and table is
measurement of velocity of throw is 2% and in the
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
measurement of time of ascent is 2% then
maximum percentage error in the estimation of g is 2 kg
(1) 10% (2) 6%
(3) 16% (4) 4% 3 kg 5 kg
2. Two cars A and B starts from a point at the same
time in a straight line and their positions at time t are
xA = 3t + t2 and xB = 2t 2 – t. At what time do the
cars have the same velocity? (Where xA, xB are in
meter and t is in second) (1) 0.5 (2) 0.6
(1) 4 s (2) 6 s (3) 0.7 (4) 0.8
(3) 1 s (4) 2 s 5. A pendulum in vertical plane having length of string
3. A ball is projected at some angle with horizontal l and mass of bob m is kept horizontal. Now the bob
under gravity, such that its time of flight is 10 s and is released from horizontal position. The tension in
range 100 m. The maximum height attained by the string when it makes an angle of 60° with vertical
ball is (g = 10 m/s2) is
(1) 100 m mg 3
(1) (2) mg
(2) 125 m 2 4
(3) 150 m 3
(3) mg (4) mg
(4) 200 m 2
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Test-13 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

6. The x-component of forces acting on a body of mass

10 kg kept at rest and free to move, along
x-direction as shown in figure. The maximum speed
gained by body is 12 m
F 2m

20 N (1) 20 m/s (2) 130 m/s

10 N
(3) 135 m/s (4) 140 m/s

x 11. A metal wire of length 6 m area of cross-section

O 2m 4m 5m 6m
2 cm2 and young’s modulus 3 × 109 N/m2 behaves
–5 N as a spring of spring constant K. The spring
constant K is
(1) 4 m/s (2) 7 m/s
(1) 10 kN/m (2) 200 kN/m
(3) 6 m/s (4) 5 m/s
(3) 20 kN/m (4) 100 kN/m
7. A body of mass 5 kg initially at rest explodes into
three fragments having mass ratio 3:1:1. Two 12. A satellite orbits a planet of unknown mass in a
fragments of equal mass just after explosion moves circle of radius 4 × 107m. The magnitude of the
with speed of 60 m/s perpendicular to each other. The gravitational force on the satellite from the planet is
kinetic energy of third part just after explosion is 160 N. The kinetic energy of the satellite in this orbit
(1) 400 J is
(2) 800 J (1) 8 × 108 J (2) 16 × 108 J
(3) 1200 J (3) 24 × 108 J (4) 32 × 108 J
(4) 1600 J 13. A hollow sphere of external radius R and thickness
8. A thin uniform rod of length 1 m and mass 500 g, is t(<< R) is made of material of relative density ρ. Sphere
attached to a uniform disc of diameter 20 cm and mass will float in water in fully immersed condition, if
100 g at one end as shown in figure. The distance
of centre of mass of system from free end of rod is R R
(1) t = (2) t =
3ρ 2ρ

R 2R
(3) t = (4) t =
ρ 3ρ
1m 10 cm
14. The kinetic energy versus position for three harmonic
(1) 0.8 m (2) 0.9 m oscillators that have the same mass, but different
time period TA, TB, TC are as shown in figure. Which
(3) 0.7 m (4) 0.6 m
of the following relation is correct?
9. Which of the following is correct? (where symbols
have their usual meanings) KE
 
(1) F = r × τ
 
(2) τ = r × F A

  B
(3) F = τ × r
C
 
(4) τ = F × r
x
10. A solid ball rolls without slipping on a rough track, –xm O +xm
starting from rest and from height 12 m and leaves
(1) TA < TB < TC (2) TA = TB = TC
the track at height 2 m as shown in figure. The final
speed of the ball at point A is (g = 9.8 m/s2). (3) TA > TB < TC (4) TA > TB > TC

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-B)

15. One of the harmonic frequency for a particular string 21. A spherical drop of water carrying a charge of 30 pC
under tension is 390 Hz. The just lower frequency is has potential of 500 V at its surface (when potential
325 Hz. The next higher frequency after the harmonic is zero at infinity). If three such drops of same
frequency 195 Hz is charge and radius combine to form a single spherical
drop, then the potential at the surface of the new
(1) 225 Hz (2) 290 Hz drop is
(3) 250 Hz (4) 260 Hz 1/3
(1) 500 V (2) 500 (3) V
16. The displacement equation of a sound wave travelling
through air is S(x, t) = (5μm) cos[(3140 rad/s)t + 2/3 500
(3) 500 (3) V (4) V
(12μm–1)x + φ]. The minimum time taken for any (3)1/3
given air molecule to move displacements from
S = 5 μm to S = –5 μm is 22. The circuit has 6 V battery and 3 uncharged capacitors
of capacitances C1 = 2 μF, C2 = 3 μF and C3 = 1.5
(1) 4 ms (2) 3 ms μF. The switch is thrown to the left side until capacitor
(3) 2 ms (4) 1 ms C1 is fully charged, then the switch is thrown to the
17. If length and radius of a wire both are doubled then right. The final charge on capacitor C1 is
the value of Young’s modulus Y 1 2
(1) Will become double (2) Will remain same
+
(3) Will become half (4) Will become triple V0 C2
–

R C1 C3
18. For an ideal gas in a container = 0.4 . The gas
Cp
is made up of molecules which are (1) 4 μC (2) 5 μC
(1) Monoatomic (3) 6 μC (4) 8 μC
(2) Diatomic 23. The electric potential V(x) along a platinum wire
(3) Triatomic (resistivity ρ = 11 × 10 –8 Ω m) carrying uniform
current, falls from a point of higher potential V = 12
(4) Mixture of diatomic and triatomic gases
mV at x = 0 to a point of zero potential at x = 3 m.
19. 5.6 litre of helium gas at STP is adiabatically The wire has a radius of 7 mm. The current in the
compressed to 0.7 litre. Taking initial temperature of wire is
gas to be T1. The work done by the gas in this
(1) 4.9 A (2) 6.4 A
process is
(3) 3.6 A (4) 5.6 A
9
(1) RT1 24. The root mean square speed of oxygen molecules
8
(O2) at a certain absolute temperature is v. If the
9 absolute temperature of gas is increased to 4 times
(2) − RT1 and oxygen gas dissociates into atomic oxygen, the
8
new rms speed is
15 (1) v (2) 2 v
(3) RT1
8
(3) 2 2 v (4) 4 v
15
(4) − RT1 25. A cyclotron with dee radius 53 cm is operated at an
8
oscillator frequency of 14 MHz to accelerate protons,
20. Charge q is distributed uniformly over a thin quarter the magnitude of the perpendicular magnetic field
ring of radius R. The electric field at the centre of required to achieve resonance is (Take mass of
ring is proton 1.6 × 10–27 kg)

1 2 2q 1 2 2q (1) 0.77 T
(1) (2)
4 π2 ε 0 R 2 2π2 ε 0 R 2 (2) 0.88 T
(3) 0.55 T
1 2 2q 1 2 2q
(3) (4) (4) 0.66 T
4πε0 R 2 2πε0 R 2
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Test-13 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

26. Five long parallel wires are separated by distance 31. An electron accelerates through a potential difference
d = 50 cm as shown in figure. The currents into the of 4.9 V collides with a mercury atom and transfers
page are i1 = 2 A, i3 = 0.25 A, i4 = 4 A and i5 = 2 A, it to first excited state. The wavelength of a photon
the current out of the page is i2 = 4 A. The magnitude corresponding to the transition of mercury atom to
of the net force per unit length acting on wire 3 due its ground state is about
to the currents in the other wires is
(1) 2050 Å
y
(2) 2240 Å
(3) 2530 Å
i1 i2 i3 i4 i5
x x x x x (4) 2935 Å
d d d d
32. A source of light of power 1.5 mW emits light of
(1) 8 × 10–7 N/m (2) 7 × 10–7 N/m wavelength 400 nm. The emitted light is incident on
(3) 6 × 10–7 N/m (4) 9 × 10–7 N/m a photoelectric cell. If 0.10% of the incident photons
27. A wire bent into a semicircle of radius 20 cm is produce photoelectrons, the current in the cell is
rotated with constant angular speed 40 rev/s in a (1) 0.28 μA (2) 0.38 μA
uniform magnetic field of 20 mT with the help of
handle H. The average emf induced in the loop in (3) 0.58 μA (4) 0.49 μA
half rotation is 33. When an unpolarized light is transmitted through two
x x x polarizing sheets oriented such that no light is
x x x
x
x x x x transmitted, through second sheet. If a third
x
polarizing sheet is placed between them, then
x xx x xx x x xx x
x
x x x xx x xx x H (1) No light will pass through last sheet
x x x x x
x x x x x
(2) Light may pass through last sheet
(1) 16 π mV (3) No light will incident on the last sheet
(2) 64 π mV
(4) Light always passed through last sheet
(3) 8 π mV
34. In an ordinary color television, electrons are
(4) 20 π mV accelerated through a potential difference of 15 kV.
28. In an series RLC circuit, the amplitude of the voltage The de-Broglie wavelength of such electrons is
across the inductor (1) 0.2 Å
(1) May be greater than source emf
(2) 0.3 Å
(2) Always greater than source emf
(3) 0.4 Å
(3) May be less than source emf
(4) 0.1 Å
(4) Both (1) and (3)
35. If 10% of radioactive material decays in 5 days, then
29. The intensity of a travelling plane electromagnetic
the amount of original material left after 20 days is
wave of magnetic field amplitude 2 × 10–6 T is
(approximately)
400 W 1500 W (1) 50% (2) 60%
(1) (2)
π m2 π m2
(3) 66% (4) 70%
600 W 700 W 36. The audio signal voltage across the collector
(3) (4) resistance of 4 kΩ in common emitter transistor
π m2 π m2
amplifier is 8 V. If the current amplification factor of
30. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of the transistor is 98 and the base resistance is 2 kΩ,
intensities l and 9l are superimposed. The maximum then the input signal voltage is
and minimum possible intensities in the resulting
2 1
beams are respectively (1) V (2) V
49 50
(1) 4l, 2l (2) 16l, 4l
1 2
(3) V (4) V
(3) 10l, 8l (4) 16l, 12l 60 45
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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-B)

37. In reverse biasing of p-n junction diode 42. If voltmeter is showing zero reading then, the reading
of ammeter in the circuit shown will be
(1) The positive terminal of the battery is connected
to p-side and negative terminal to n-side of the
battery and the depletion region becomes thin
(2) The positive terminal of the battery is connected
to p-side and negative terminal to n-side of the
battery and the depletion region becomes thick
(3) The positive terminal of the battery is connected
(1) 3 A (2) 4 A
to n-side and negative terminal to p-side of the
battery and the depletion region becomes thin (3) 8 A (4) 2 A
(4) The positive terminal of the battery is connected 43. A metallic ring is attached with the wall of a room.
to n-side and negative terminal to p-side of the If a bar magnet is released from rest, then
battery and the depletion region becomes thick acceleration of the bar magnet will

38. A radioactive nucleus undergoes radiactive decay

S
2α
according to the scheme A ⎯⎯⎯ → A1 . If the mass
number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72 a
respectively, then mass number and atomic number N
of A1 are respectively.
(1) 172 and 68
(1) a > g when magnet is below the ring
(2) 173 and 70
(2) a = g always
(3) 181 and 73
(3) a > g when magnet is above the ring
(4) 168 and 60
(4) a < g when magnet is above and below the ring
39. An object of length 10 cm is placed on principal axis
44. A bar magnet of length 10 m and magnetic moment
along its length. If its far side is at 20 cm from the
25 Am2 is bent in the form of an arc as shown in
concave mirror of focal length 7.5 cm, the size of the
figure. The new magnetic dipole moment is
image is
(1) 20 cm 10 m

(2) 10 cm
(3) 18 cm
120°
(4) 9 cm
40. Due to the effect of scattering, the sun appears to be
75 75 3
(1) Green (1) Am2 (2) Am2
2 2π
(2) Oval
25 25 3
(3) Red (3) Am2 (4) Am2
2 2π
(4) Both (2) and (3) 45. An air compressor is powered by a 250 rad/s
41. A concave lens of focal length 20 cm is in contact electric motor using a belt driven system. The motor
with convex lens of focal length 50 cm. The pulley is 10 cm in radius and the tension in the
upper part of V-belt is 150 N and in lower part is
equivalent focal length of combination is
30 N. The power of the motor is
(1) 33.3 cm
(1) 3 kW
(2) 44.5 cm (2) 8 kW
(3) –27.5 cm (3) 10 kW
(4) – 33.3 cm (4) 12 kW
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Test-13 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

CHEMISTRY
46. Number of Cl– ions present in 0.1 mol CaCl2 is (1) 4.67 (2) 2.67
(1) 0.1 NA (2) 0.2 NA (3) 1.67 (4) 3.67
(3) 0.3 NA (4) 0.4 NA 57. At 25°C water is neutral and has pH 7. If
47. Degeneracy of IInd excited state of He+ ion is temperature of water becomes 60°C then
(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) It becomes acidic
(3) 5 (4) 9 (2) It becomes basic
48. Maximum number of electrons present in Ni for (3) It remains neutral with pH 7
which | m | = 1, is (4) It remains neutral with pH < 7
(1) 10 (2) 8 58. n-factors of H3PO4, H3PO3 and H3PO2 respectively
(3) 12 (4) 14 are
49. Pair of species of same magnetic nature (1) 3, 2 and 1 (2) 1, 2 and 3
(paramagnetic/diamagnetic) is
(3) 3, 3 and 2 (4) 3, 3 and 3
(1) N2 and O2 (2) N2 and O2–
59. Molecule which can disproportionate is
(3) NO and CN– (4) CN– and NO+
(1) HClO4 (2) H3PO4
50. Species having linear shape is
(3) H2SO4 (4) H3PO3
(1) XeO4 (2) CrO2Cl2
60. Water-gas shift reaction is
(3) CN22– (4) SO2
1270 K
51. Pair of orbitals which can not involve in bond (1) C(s) + H2O(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CO(g) + H2 (g)
formation (if Y-axis is internuclear axis) is
673 K
(1) px + px (2) s + px (2) CO(g) + H2O(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
FeCrO 4
→ CO2 (g) + H2 (g)
(3) py + py (4) s + py
(3) 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2
52. If temperature of 1 mol gas increase by 20% then its
1270 K
volume at constant pressure (4) CH4 (g) + H2O(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Ni
→ CO(g) + 3H2
(1) Increase by 20% (2) Decrease by 20% 61. Select the incorrect statement about hydrides.
(3) Increase by 80% (4) Decrease by 80% (1) Metallic hydrides are conductors of heat and
53. If critical temperature of a gas is 160 K then its electricity
Boyle’s temperature will be
(2) All metallic hydrides follow law of constant
(1) 400 K (2) 270 K composition
(3) 540 K (4) 600 K (3) H2O, HF are electron rich hydrides
54. Work done in reversible adiabatic process is (4) Metals of group 7, 8 and 9 do not form hydride
numerically not equal to
62. Thermally least stable carbonate is
(1) –PextΔV (2) nCv ΔT
(1) BeCO3 (2) MgCO3
nR Δ T
(3) (4) ΔU (3) BaCO3 (4) CaCO3
γ −1
63. Ion having highest hydration enthalpy is
55. Reaction for which enthalpy of reaction is equal to
enthalpy of formation, (1) Ba2+ (2) Na+
(1) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl (g) (3) Be2+ (4) K+
(2) H2 (g) + Br2 (l) → 2HBr (l) 64. Select the incorrect reaction, without considering the
(3) CaO (s) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3 (s) step of balancing atoms, from the following.
1 3 (1) Al + NaOH + H2O → Na[Al(OH)4] + H2
(4) N2 (g) + H2 (g) → NH3 (g)
2 2 (2) Na2B4O7 + HCl + H2O → NaCl + NaBO2 + NaOH
56. Equilibrium constant KP of reaction Δ
(3) B2H6 + NH3 ⎯⎯ → B3N3H6 + H2
X(g)  Y(g) + Z(g), when reactant X(g) decomposes
(4) Na2B4O7 + H2O → NaOH + H3BO3
to 50% at 5 atm pressure is
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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-B)

65. Oxide which is not acidic 71. Which of the following is/are not greenhouse gas(s)?
(1) CO (2) CO2 (1) SO2 (2) CH4
(3) GeO2 (4) SiO2 (3) CFCs (4) N2O
66. Zeolites are examples of 72. The type of isomerism not shown by the complex
(1) Chain silicates (2) Orthosilicates [Co(en)2 ClBr]I is

(3) Pyrosilicates (4) 3D silicates (1) Ionization isomerism

67. Strongest –I effect is shown by (2) Geometrical isomerism

(1) –NO2 (2) –CN (3) Linkage isomerism

(4) Optical isomerism
⊕
(3) − NR3 (4) –F 73. Scandium has hcp structure at room temperature.
68. Most stable carbocation in the following is At higher temperature it transforms to bcc structure.
⊕ ⊕ The ratio of density of scandium at room
(1) CH3 CH2 (2) (CH3 )2 CH temperature to higher temperature (assuming molar
⊕ ⊕ mass and atomic radius of scandium remains
(3) PhCH2 (4) CH2 = CH − CH2 constant with temperature)
69. Select the most stable conformer of CH2(OH) CH2(F) 3 3 4 2
in the (1) (2)
4 2 3 3
OH
F OH 4 3 1
(3) (4)
2 3 2
H F
74. When initial concentration of reactant becomes 4
(1) (2) times then the half-life period of a first order reaction
H becomes
H
H H (1) Tripled (2) Doubled
H H H
OH (3) Halved (4) Same
OH
H 75. Products of electrolysis of highly concentrated
H H H2SO4 solution are
(3) (4) (1) H2(g), O2(g) (2) H2(g), SO2(g)
F (3) H2(g), S2O82–(aq.) (4) O2(g), S2O82–(aq.)
H H H 76. Reaction taking place at cathode during corrosion of
F H H
iron is
70. Product formed in the reaction (1) Fe2+ + 2e– → Fe
Red Hot (2) O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e– → 2H2O(l)
Fe Tube
CH CH Product (P) (3) H2O(l) + e– → 1/2 H2(g) + OH–(aq)
(873 K)
(4) O2 + 2H+(aq) + 4e– → 2OH–(aq)
Product (P) is
77. If FeCl3 is added to excess of hot water then
CH3
CH3 (1) Positive solution of FeO/Fe2+ is formed
CH3
(2) Positive solution of Fe2O3.xH2O/Fe3+ is formed
(1) (2)
(3) Negative solution of Fe2O3.xH2O/OH– is formed
H3C (4) Negative solution of Fe2O3/Fe(OH)2– is formed
78. Select the correct statement in the following
CH3
(1) Blister copper is purest form of copper
(2) CaSiO3 is obtained as slag during extraction of
(3) (4) iron.
(3) Ni is purified by zone refining.
(4) Ag is extracted commercially by
CH3 electrometallurgy.

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Test-13 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

79. Compound which does not disproportionate on 85. Compound that does not give effervescence of CO2
hydrolysis is on reaction with NaHCO3 is
(1) XeF2 (2) XeF4 (1) PhCH2OH (2) CH3COOH
(3) Cl2 (4) Br2 OH COOH
80. Which substance is not greenish in colour? NO2
(1) FeSO4 (2) Cr2O3
(3) (4)
(3) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (4) Fe(OH)3
81. Complex does not show d2sp3 hybridization
(1) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (2) K3[Co(ox)3] NO2 NO2
86. Major product obtained in the given reaction is
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Br3 (4) K3[CoF6]
O OH
82. CH3Br + AgF → CH3F + AgBr
Name of above reaction is
(1) Finkelstein reaction (2) Swarts reaction LiAlH4 (Excess)
(3) Hunsdiecker reaction (4) Gattermann reaction CH3
83. Correct order of nucleophilic substitution reaction in
the following is
NO2 O
Cl Cl Cl Cl OH
OH
NO2 NO2 NO2
(1) > > >
(1) (2)
CH3 CH3
NO2 NO2 NO2
Cl Cl Cl Cl
NO2 O NO2 O
NO2 NO2 NO2
OH O H
(2) > > >

NO2 NO2 NO2 (3) (4)

CH3 CH3
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
NO2 NO2 NO2
NH2 OH NH2 OH
> >
(3) > 87. Most basic compound in the following is
(1) PhCH2NH2 (2) PhNH2
NO2 NO2 NO2
NH
Cl Cl Cl Cl
NO2 NO2 NO2

(4) > > > (3) H 2N NH2 (4) PhCH2CONH2

88. Glucose is
(1) Aldotriose (2) Ketotriose
NO2 NO2 NO2
(3) Aldohexose (4) Ketohexose
84. Major product obtained in the given reaction is 89. Elastomeric copolymer(s) is/are
(I) B2H6/THF (1) Buna–S (2) Buna–N
CH3 CH CH2
(ii) H2O2/OH– (3) Neoprene (4) Both (1) and (2)
OH 90. Monomer units used for formation of Nylon-2-Nylon-6
polymer are
(1) CH3 CH CH3 (2) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2OH (1) Glycine and ethylene glycol
OH O (2) Glycine and aminocaproic acid
(3) Styrene and aminocaproic acid
(3) CH 3 CH CH 2OH (4) CH3 C CH3
(4) Styrene and urea
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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-B)

BOTANY
91. Amongst the following, smallest cell is 97. Which of the following provides useful information for
identification of names of various species found in an
(1) RBC (2) WBC
area?
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Ostrich egg
(1) Monograph (2) Manual
92. The main arena of cellular activities is
(3) Botanical garden (4) Museum
(1) Nucleoplasm (2) Cytoplasm
98. Multicellular body organisation and saprotrophic mode
(3) Nucleolus (4) Nucleosome of nutrition are features of
93. Which of the following organelles constitute an (1) Monerans (2) Slime moulds
endomembrane system? (3) Protistans (4) Fungi
(a) Mitochondria (b) Lysosomes 99. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. dinoflagellates.
(c) Vacuoles (d) Golgi complex (1) These are golden brown photosynthetic protists
(e) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) They are mostly marine and some are found in
fresh water.
(1) (a) only
(3) They have reserve food in the form of carbohydrate
(2) (b) and (c) only
and oils
(3) (d) and (e) only (4) Most of them are filamentous and lack flagella
(4) All, except (a) except in the reproductive stage
94. Match the following columns and select the correct 100. Rhizopus differs from bacteria as the former has
option. (1) Cell wall
Column I Column II (2) Reserve food material as starch
a. G1 phase (i) Separation of two homologous (3) 70S ribosome
chromosomes from each other (4) Membrane bound organelles
b. Interkinesis (ii) Duplication of centrioles 101. Which of the following function is not performed by
c. Metaphase (iii) Synthesis of nucleotides rhizome?

d. Anaphase I (iv) Alignment of chromosomes (1) Synthesise of food by photosynthesis

at the equator (2) Storage of food
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) Perennation
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) Reproduction
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 102. Radial symmetry of flower is not found in
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (1) Mustard (2) Bean
95. A diploid cell has 24 chromosomes. What will be (3) Datura (4) Chilli
number of bivalents and number of chromatids 103. Select the odd one w.r.t. “The lily family”.
respectively in its zygotene stage?
(1) Petunia (2) Tulip
(1) 12 and 48 (2) 12 and 24 (3) Asparagus (4) Aloe
(3) 24 and 48 (4) 24 and 12 104. In terrestrial plants, cuticle is absent on the surface
96. Only flowering plants are included in of
(1) Kingdom-Plantae (1) Epidermis of stem
(2) Class-Pteropsida (2) Epidermis of monocot leaf

(3) Division-Angiospermae (3) Epidermis of dicot leaf

(4) Order-Cycadales (4) Epiblema of root

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Test-13 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

105. Lateral roots arise from 112. Magnesium is not involved in the
(1) Hypodermis (2) Epidermis (1) Formation of middle lamella
(3) Pericycle (4) Cork cambium (2) Synthesis of chlorophyll
106. Dendrochronology deals with study of (3) Synthesis of DNA and RNA
(1) The age of a tree by counting the number of annual (4) Anion-cation balance in cells
rings
113. In rice plants, optimum temperature for higher rate of
(2) Morphological adaptation of a plant in its habitat photosynthesis is
(3) The age of the fossil of a tree (1) 45-48°C (2) 30-45°C
(4) The structure of wood of different trees
(3) 15-20°C (4) 20-25°C
107. Plant body is differentiated into holdfast, stipe and frond 114. A three carbon molecule is the end product of
in
(1) Glycolysis
(1) Ulothrix (2) Chara
(2) Alcoholic fermentation
(3) Laminaria (4) Chlamydomonas
(3) Krebs cycle
108. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation
ones.
115. Which of the following is a natural auxin?
(a) The non-vascular terrestrial plants which are also
called amphibians of the plant kingdom are the (1) Indole-3-butyric acid
first embryophytes. (2) 2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(b) All bryophytes are heterosporous. (3) Naphthalene acetic acid
(c) Mosses are thalloid and liverworts are leafy (4) 2, 4, 5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
bryophytes. 116. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
(d) Equisetum belongs to the class Sphenopsida. (1) Gibberellin – Delayed ripening of fruits
(e) Salvinia is a xerophytic fern. (2) Cytokinin – Delay senescence of
leaves
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) Ethylene – Increase male flowers in
(3) (d) only (4) (a) and (d) only
cucumber
109. Ploidy of endosperm in gymnosperms after fertilization is
(4) Abscisic acid – Induce dormancy of seeds
(1) n (2) 2n
117. Which phytohormone acts as an antagonist to auxin,
(3) 3n (4) 4n w.r.t. apical dominance?
110. How many plants given below produce non- (1) Cytokinin (2) Ethylene
endospermic seeds? (3) ABA (4) Gibberellin
118. In onion, vegetative propagation occurs through
(1) Modified floral bud

(1) Five (2) Three (2) Modified underground stem

(3) Four (4) Two (3) Leaf bud

(4) Offset
111. Absorption of mineral ions from soil to cytoplasm of
root cells is 119. The male reproductive structure (sex organ) in Chara is
(1) Only a passive process (1) Nucule

(2) Only an active process (2) Globule

(3) Passive as well as active process (3) Oogonium

(4) Due to simple diffusion only (4) Archegonium

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-B)

120. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature 128. Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in
of water pollinated flowers? correct order and choose the appropriate option
(1) Mucilaginous covering on pollen grains (a) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(2) Long, sticky unwettable stigma (b) Isolation of DNA
(3) Presence of nectaries and fragrance (c) Detection of hybridised DNA
(4) Light and unwettable pollen grains (d) Blotting of DNA fragments to synthetic membrane
121. Double fertilization involves (1) (a), (c), (d), (b) (2) (b), (d), (a), (c)
(1) One male gamete, two female gametes and two (3) (b), (c), (a), (d) (4) (d), (b), (c), (a)
polar nuclei
129. Pomato is an example of
(2) Two male gametes, two female gametes and one
polar nuclei (1) Intravarietal somatic hybrid

(3) One male gamete and two polar nuclei only (2) Intraspecific somatic hybrid

(4) Two male gametes, two polar nuclei and one (3) Intergeneric somatic hybrid
female gamete (4) Interspecific mutation breeding
122. Pollen tablets are used 130. The large holed Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of
(1) In artificial breeding (2) In ‘in vitro’ fertilization (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) For cryopreservation (4) As food supplements (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
123. How many true breeding pea plant varieties were (3) Streptococcus
selected by Mendel? (4) Aspergillus niger
(1) 7 (2) 4 131. Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter
(3) 14 (4) 21 ears and limbs. This is

124. When a single gene product produce more than one (1) Allen’s rule (2) Bergmann’s rule
effect, the phenomenon is known as (3) Jordan’s rule (4) Rensch’s rule
(1) Incomplete dominance 132. Which of the following are structural features of
ecosystem?
(2) Pleiotropy
(a) Productivity (b) Decomposition
(3) Multiple allelism
(c) Stratification (d) Species composition
(4) Euploidy
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (c) and (d)
125. Both male and female individuals have same number
of chromosomes in which sex determination is (3) Only (a) and (d) (4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(a) XY type (b) XO type 133. An example of recently extinct species in Russia is
(1) Steller’s sea cow (2) Quagga
(c) ZW type (d) ZO type
(3) Thylacine (4) Dodo
The correct ones are
134. Amongst the following, highest DDT concentration in
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (a) and (c)
aquatic food chain shall occur in
(3) Only (a) and (d) (4) All, except (d)
(1) Phytoplankton (2) Zooplankton
126. Central dogma of molecular biology was proposed by (3) Fish eating birds (4) Fish
(1) H. Temin (2) Francis Crick 135. FOAM is associated with
(3) D. Baltimore (4) Watson (1) Noise pollution
127. Which one of the following is not a stop codon? (2) Global warming
(1) UAA (2) UAG (3) Integrated waste water treatment
(3) UAC (4) UGA (4) Forest conservation

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Test-13 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

ZOOLOGY
136. A terminal method used to prevent any more 144. Glucose and amino acids are absorbed by
pregnancies is (1) Facilitated transport using carrier proteins only
(1) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) (2) Active transport only
(2) Intrauterine device (IUD) (3) Active transport and facilitated transport
(3) Vasectomy and tubectomy (4) Only by simple diffusion
(4) Diaphragms, cervical caps & vaults 145. Point-to-point coordination is provided by
137. Isolation of genetic material from yeast will require (1) Endocrine system (2) Neural system
all, except (3) Skeletal system (4) Muscular system
(1) Chilled ethanol (2) Protease 146. Select the correct statement w.r.t. events occuring
(3) Ribonuclease (4) Cellulase in cardiac cycle.
(1) Simultaneous closure of auriculoventricular valves
138. The following immunoglobulins may be present in a
and semilunar valves
newly born because of transfer from mother to child
(2) Simultaneous opening of auriculoventricular
(1) lgA and lgG (2) lgG and lgM
valves and semilunar valves
(3) lgA and lgM (4) lgG and lgE (3) Simultaneous contraction of all the four
139. In rDNA technology, Agrobacterium tumefaciens chambers of heart
can be used as vector for (4) Simultaneous relaxation of all the four chambers
(1) Monocot plant cells only of heart
(2) Dicot plant cells only 147. Which of the following substances can be absorbed
directly by the gastric mucosa?
(3) Monocot and dicot plant cells
(1) Simple sugars and amino acids
(4) Animal cells
(2) Alcohol, simple sugars and medicines
140. A patient underwent surgery for kidney transplant.
(3) Alcohol, simple aminoacids and medicines
However, within days the transplanted kidney got
rejected. Which mechanism is responsible for the (4) Medicines, simple amino acids and sugars
graft rejection? 148. Select the incorrect function w.r.t glucagon.
(1) Dialysis (1) Mainly acts on the liver cells i.e hepatocytes
(2) Humoral immune response (2) Stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
(3) Cell-mediated immune response (3) Increases cellular glucose uptake and utilisation
(4) Auto-immune response (4) Contributes to hyperglycemia
141. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t evolution 149. Increased production of how many of the the following
hormones is essential during pregnancy?
(1) Stochastic process
(a) Prolactin (b) Cortisol
(2) Based on chance events in nature
(c) Thyroxine (d) Estrogen
(3) Direct process in the sense of determinism (e) Progesterone (f) hCG
(4) Based on chance mutations in the organism (g) hPL
142. A 20-year old boy reports to the hospital with fever, (1) Four (2) Five
chills, cough and headache along with bluish-gray
(3) Six (4) Seven
discoloration to lips and fingernails. He is most likely
to be diagnosed with 150. Which of the following groups of gases correctly
mimics the primitive atmosphere in the Urey Miller
(1) Common cold (2) Typhoid fever experiment?
(3) Pneumonia (4) Malaria (1) CH4, NO2, H2O (gas), CO2
143. Respiration takes place through gills in all except (2) CH4, NH3, H2O (gas), H2
(1) Delphinus (2) Balanoglossus (3) H2, NO2, CH4, CO2
(3) Hippocampus (4) Scoliodon (4) H2S, NO2, CH4, CO2

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-B)

151. The tympanic membrane is 158. Teeth of sharks and rays are modified
(1) A sound drum with fine hair and wax secreting (1) Bones with strong attachment.
gland. (2) Placoid scales.
(2) Formed of a soft cartilaginous material which (3) Bones with superficial attachment.
cannot be replaced if damaged.
(4) Ctenoid scales.
(3) Composed of connective tissue covered with
159. The component which forms the largest percentage
skin outside and mucus membrane inside.
of the total cellular mass in animals is
(4) The first part of the middle ear which also
(1) Lipids (2) Carbohydrates
contains three ear ossicles.
(3) Proteins (4) Water
152. The following structure gets embedded in the
endometrium of the uterus of a conceiving mother to 160. How many PCR cycles and required to produce 32
grow into the foetus. copies of a dsDNA piece?
(1) Zygote (2) Morula (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Blastocyst (4) Blastomere (3) 5 (4) 6

153. In restriction enzymes such as EcoRI and Hind II, 161. Specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in the
the roman numeral indicates DNA are recognized by

(1) The specific base sequence known as (1) Restriction exonucleases

recognition sequence. (2) Restriction endonucleases
(2) The number of multiple cloning sites. (3) All restriction enzymes
(3) Order in which the enzyme was isolated. (4) DNA ligases
(4) Copy number of the origin of replication. 162. The function of nitrogenous waste conversion i.e NH3
to urea is performed in vertebrates by
154. Choose the odd one w.r.t. striated muscles.
(1) Kidneys
(1) Voluntary in nature
(2) Liver
(2) Closely attached to skeletal system
(3) Gall bladder
(3) Present in visceral organs of the body
(4) Ureotelic animals do not produce ammonia at
(4) Primarily involved in locomotory action any stage of metabolism
155. A 30 year old female has menstrual cycle of 32 163. NH2
days. How many days before the start of N
menstruation would ovulation occur? N Molecule A
(1) 18 days (2) 14 days N NH
(3) 16 days (4) 12 days
O
156. The average amount of haemoglobin is X in
every Y of blood. HN
Molecule B
Choose the options to fill the blanks correctly. O NH
Identify molecule (A) and molecule (B).
X Y
(1) 12 − 16 gms 10 ml A B
(2) 12 − 16 gms 100 ml (1) Uracil Adenine
(3) 12 − 16 gms 1000 ml (2) Adenine Uracil
(4) 14 − 18 gms 1000 ml (3) Adenosine Uridine
157. The peak of ECG that leads to the atrial systole is (4) Uridine Adenosine
(1) P-wave 164. pCO2 of blood present in aorta is equal to pO2 of
(2) QRS complex blood present in
(3) T wave (1) Renal artery (2) Hepatic artery
(4) ST segment (3) Pulmonary artery (4) Pulmonary vein

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Test-13 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

165. Study following diagram carefully. 169. The junction whose primary function is to prevent
substances from leaking across a tissue are
(1) Gap junctions
(2) Tight junctions
(3) Adhering junctions
(4) Hemidesmosomes
170. Excretory product excreted by the adult frog is:
(1) Ammonia
(2) Uric acid
(3) Urea
(4) Ammonia and urea
Identify labelled regions A, B and C of the ovum.
171. Which of the following articulates with head of
A B C humerus to form the shoulder joint?
(1) Perivitelline Zona Corona (1) The depression above the acromion
space pellucida radiata
(2) The depression below the acromion process
(2) Corona Perivitelline Zona
(3) A cavity in pelvic bone called the acetabulum
radiata space pellucida
(3) Perivitelline Corona Zona (4) A cavity called the foramen magnum
space radiata pellucida 172. The scala vestibuli ends at the X whereas the
(4) Zona Perivitelline Corona scala tympani terminates at the Y .
pellucida space Radiata Choose the options that fill the blanks correctly.
166. Out of the following which movements are possible
by some cells of the human body? X Y
(a) Cilliary movement (1) Round window Oval window
(b) Amoeboid movement (2) Oval window Round window
(c) Flagellar movement (3) Eustachian tube Tympanum
(4) Tympanum Eustachian tube
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (a) and (b) only 173. In the kidneys, many of the straight tubes called
(3) (c) and (a) only ________ converge and open into the renal pelvis
through medullary pyramids in the calyces.
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
167. If protein energy malnutrition is accompanied by Choose the option that fills the blank.
calorie deficiency in children, it is characterized as (1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(1) Kwashiorkor (2) Henle's loop
(2) Pellagra (3) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Marasmus
(4) Collecting ducts
(4) Beri-Beri
174. Which of the following is not a function of the neural
168. Select the incorrect option w.r.t the alimentary canal system of the body?
of Periplaneta americana?
(1) Receiving and interpretation of stimuli.
(1) Crop is followed by gizzard or proventriculus.
(2) Does not contain adhering junction.
(2) Hepatic caecae are present at the junction of
midgut and hindgut. (3) Innervation of all the cells of the body and their
(3) Malpighian tubules help in removal of excretory continuous regulation.
products from haemolymph. (4) Co-ordinating and integrating homeostatic
(4) Entire foregut is lined by cuticle activities of the organs.

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-B)

175. The correct description of the sino-atrial node (SAN) 177. The antrum first appears prominently in the
is
(1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle
(1) A specialized neural tissue which generates
(3) Tertiary follicle (4) Graafian follicle
action potential without external stimulus.
(2) Present in the lower left corner of the right 178. The Nobel prize for discovering and establishing
atrium. penicillin as an effective antibiotic was awarded to

(3) A specialized cardiac musculature which can (1) Louis Pasteur

generate action potential without external (2) Alexander Fleming
stimulus
(3) Fleming, Chain and Florey
(4) A nodal tissue which can autonomously
generate action potential but with regular external (4) Ernst Chain and Howard Florey
stimuli. 179. The most abundant protein of the animal world is
176. Which of the following drugs is native to South (1) RuBisCo (2) Collagen
America?
(3) Albumin (4) Fibrinogen
(1) Papaver somniferum
180. Choose the odd one w.r.t. chemical nature.
(2) Cannabis sativa
(1) Insulin (2) Cortisol
(3) Erythroxylum coca
(4) Atropa belladona (3) Glucagon (4) Pituitary hormone

  

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 02/05/2019 Code-B

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET-2019 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test-13

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (2)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (2) 146 (4)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (3) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (3)
5. (4) 41. (4) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (4) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (4) 79. (1) 115. (1) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (2) 80. (4) 116. (3) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (1) 81. (4) 117. (1) 153. (3)
10. (4) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (2) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (4) 48. (3) 84. (2) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (1) 49. (4) 85. (1) 121. (4) 157. (1)
14. (1) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (2)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (3) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (4) 52. (1) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (2) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (2) 161. (2)
18. (1) 54. (1) 90. (2) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (1) 56. (3) 92. (2) 128. (2) 164. (3)
21. (3) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (4) 58. (1) 94. (1) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (4) 59. (4) 95. (1) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (4) 134. (3) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (3) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (3) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (1) 101. (1) 137. (4) 173. (4)
30. (2) 66. (4) 102. (2) 138. (1) 174. (3)
31. (3) 67. (3) 103. (1) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (3)
34. (4) 70. (4) 106. (1) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (3) 71. (1) 107. (3) 143. (1) 179. (2)
36. (1) 72. (3) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (2)
Test Series for NEET - 2019 Hints & Solutions of Test-13 (Code B)

02/05/2019 Code - B

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET-2019 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test-13

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
1. Answer (4) v2 = 2gl (1 – cos60°)
2. Answer (4) 60°
v2 = gl
dx A
vA = = 3 + 2t
dt mg
T = + mg
2 mg
dxB
vB = = 4t – 1
dt 3
T = mg
then vA = vB 2
3 + 2t = 4t – 1 6. Answer (1)
7. Answer (3)
4 = 2t
According to conservation of momentum
t=2s

3. Answer (2) 5 × 0 = 3v 3 + 60 2

2u y  60 2
T = v3 = = 20 2 m/s
g 3
2uy 1
10 = K= × 3 × 400 × 2 = 1200 J
g 2
2 8. Answer (4)
uy2
1 ⎛ uy ⎞ 1 2
H= = ⎜ ⎟ g = ( 5 ) × 10
2g 2 ⎝ g ⎠ 2
= 125 m
4. Answer (1)

a=
( 5 – 3 – 2μk ) g
(5 + 3 + 2) ( 0.1) (1.1) + ( 0.5 )( 0.5 )
then xcm =
1 × 10 = (2 – 2μk)10 0.6

then μk = 0.5 0.11 + 0.25

=
5. Answer (4) 0.6

mv 2 0.36
T − mg cos 60° = = m
l 0.6
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Hints & Solutions of Test-13(Code B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

14. Answer (1)

6
xcm = m
10 1
KE = KA2
2
xcm = 0.6 m 1
KE ∝ spring constant ∝
T2
500 × 0.5 + 100 × 1.1
xcm = 15. Answer (4)
600
The common factor
250 + 110 325 Hz, 390 Hz is 65 Hz
= = 0.6 m
600 then next higher = 195 + 65
= 260 Hz
9. Answer (2)
16. Answer (4)
  
τ = r ×F
2π
10. Answer (4) = 3140
T
mg (12 – 2 ) = KT + KR
T π
then =
2 3140
⎛ K ⎞
= KT ⎜ 1 + R ⎟⎟
⎜ KT 3.14
⎝ ⎠ =
3140
⎛ 2⎞ =1ms
mg (10 ) = KT ⎜ 1 + ⎟
⎝ 5⎠ 17. Answer (2)
1 ⎛7⎞ y is the property of material.
m ( 98 ) = mv 2 ⎜ ⎟ 18. Answer (1)
2 ⎝5⎠
R 10 5
980 Cp = ⇒ R ⇒ R , then f = 3
= v2 0.4 4 2
7
19. Answer (2)
then v = 140 m/s
T1V1γ−1 = T2V2 γ−1
11. Answer (4)
5 5
−1 −1
9 –4 T1(5.6)3 = T2 (0.7)3
YA 3 × 10 × 2 × 10
K= = 2
L 6
T1(8) = T2
3
= 105 N/m
T2 = 4T1
12. Answer (4)
1
R [T1 − 4T1 ]
9
GMm W = 4 = − RT1
160 = 5 8
r2 −1
3
⎛ GMm ⎞ 2 20. Answer (1)
160 = ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2r ⎠ r
+ +
KE = 80 × 4 × 107 m + +
+
+
KE = 32 × 108 J
+
13. Answer (1) +
A+
4
If floats 4πR 2 t ρg ≤ πR 3 × 1× g B+
3 dθ -
+ θ
R + C
t≤ 
3ρ R dE

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Hints & Solutions of Test-13 (Code B)

Charge on element AB
3R × 4T × 2
2q New r.m.s speed in atomic stale v ′ =
dq = (dl ) M
πR
v′ = 2 2 v
2q
dq = (Rd θ) 25. Answer (2)
πR
2q qB
= dθ n=
π 2πm
π
1 2q 2πmn
∫
E = dE cos θ =
4πε0 πR 2 ∫ 4 cos θd θ
−π
4
B=
q
= 0.88 T
2q 2
E= 26. Answer (1)
4 π2 ε 0 R 2
F3 = F31 ( – iˆ ) + F32 iˆ + F34 iˆ + F35 iˆ
1 2 2q
E=
4 π2 ε 0 R 2 μ0 i 3 ⎡ 2 4 2⎤
= – + + 4 + ⎥ iˆ
21. Answer (3) 2πd ⎢⎣ 2 1 2⎦

8 × ( 2 × 10 –7 ) × 0.25
1
rnew = ( n ) 3 r0 =
0.5
q
V =K = 8 × 10–7 N/m
r0
27. Answer (2)
3q
V′ = K 1 −Δφ
e=
(3) 3 × r0 Δt
2
2
V ′ = (3)3 500 V π × ( 2 × 10 –1 ) × 20 × 10−3
=
2 1
= 500(3)3 V 80
22. Answer (4) = 64π mV
Charge stored on C1 28. Answer (4)
q1 = C1V = 12μC 29. Answer (2)
When switch turned right common potential
B02
12 I= c
V = = 4V 2μ0
3
4 × 10 −12 × 3 × 108
Final charge on C1 q1′ = 4 × 2 = 8 μC =
2 × 4π × 10 −7
23. Answer (4)
1500 W
ρl 3 =
Resistance of wire R = = × 10−2 Ω π m2
A 14
30. Answer (2)
V 12 × 10 −3 × 14
i= = 2
R 3 × 10−2 lmax = ( 9l + l )
= 5.6 A = 16l
24. Answer (3)
2
lmin = ( 9l − l )
3RT
Initial r.m.s speed v = = 4l
M
(4)
Hints & Solutions of Test-13(Code B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

31. Answer (3)

8 4
= 98 ×
hc Vin 2
eV =
λ
8 2
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 Vin = =
λ= 196 49
1.6 × 10 −19 × 4.9
37. Answer (4)
32. Answer (4)
38. Answer (1)
n hc
= 1.5 × 10−3 Mass number = 180 – 8 = 172
t λ
Atomic number = 72 – 4 = 68
n 1.5 × 10 −3 × 4 × 10 −7
= 39. Answer (3)
t 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
n 6
= × 10 +16
t 20
6
⇒ Number of photo electrons per second = × 10 +13
20
6
i= × 1.6 × 10 −6
20 For object side (A)
i = 0.49 μA
1 1 1
33. Answer (2) + =
VA ( –20 ) –7.5
34. Answer (4)
1 –2 1
= +
12.27 VA 15 20
λ= A° = 0.1 Aº
V
–40 + 15
=
35. Answer (3) 15 × 20
N = N0e–λt –25
=
9N0 = N0e – λ×5 15 × 20

1 15 × 20
5λ = log e …(i) VA = – ⇒ –12 cm
0.9 25
After 20 days For side (B) of object
1 1 1 2
20λ = loge …(ii) + =−
x VB −10 15
Devide (1) by (2) 1 1 2
then = –
VB 10 15
1 ⎞
log10 ⎛⎜ ⎟
1
= ⎝ 0.9 ⎠ = log10 (0.9) 1 –5
=
4 1 log10 x VB 15 × 10
log10 ⎛⎜ ⎞⎟
⎝x⎠
VB = –30 cm
log10x = 4log10 (0.9) then image size along the principle axis is
x = 0.658 |ΔV| = 30 – 12 ⇒ 18 cm
= 65.8% 40. Answer (3)
36. Answer (1) 41. Answer (4)
V0 R 1 1 1
A= =β L = +
Vin Rin f f1 f2

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Hints & Solutions of Test-13 (Code B)

1 1 1 L = 2 R sin60°
= +
f −20 50
=R 3
−5 + 2
=
100 25
M= ×R 3
f = – 33.3 cm 10
42. Answer (4)
30
At resonance condition VLC = 0 = 2.5 × 3
2π
Vrms
irms = 75 3
R = A × m2
2π
220 V 45. Answer (1)
=
110 Ω
150 N
=2A
43. Answer (4) 30 N
44. Answer (2)
P = τ.ω
2π
R = 10 = (120) (0.10) (250)
3
P = 120 × 25
30
R=
2π = 3 kW

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2)
160 8
Number of Cl– ions = 0.1 × 2 × NA = 0.2 NA. =
Tb 27
47. Answer (4)
⇒ Tb = 20 × 27 = 540 K
Degeneracy of ‘n = 3’ is 9.
48. Answer (3) 54. Answer (1)
49. Answer (4) In adiabatic process, Q = 0.
Both CN– and NO+ are having 14 electrons and are ΔU = Q + W
diamagnetic in nature.
ΔU = W
50. Answer (3)
nR
– – ⇒ W = Δ U = nCv Δ T = ΔT
(N C N) Linear shape. γ −1
51. Answer (2) 55. Answer (4)
52. Answer (1) Enthalpy of formation is valid for 1 mole of product
formation by using reactants at respective standard
V1 V2
= states.
T1 T2
56. Answer (3)
V1 V
⇒ = 2
T 1.2T X(g)  Y(g) + Z(g)
1 0 0
⇒ V2 = 1.2 V1 0.5 0.5 0.5

53. Answer (3) P : Total pressure

8a At equilibrium
Tc 27Rb 8
= = P α2 5 × 0.52 5
Tb a 27 Kp = = = = 1.67 atm
1 − α 2 1 − 0.52 3
Rb
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Hints & Solutions of Test-13(Code B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

57. Answer (4) 71. Answer (1)

On increase in temperature, pH and pOH of water Greenhouse gases : CFCs, N2O, CH4.
both decrease because pKw decreases. SO2 is not a greenhouse gas.
58. Answer (1) 72. Answer (3)
H3PO4(nf = 3), H3PO3(nf = 2) and H3PO2 (nf = 1) Complex containing ambidentate ligands will show
59. Answer (4) linkage isomerism.
Δ 73. Answer (2)
4H3 PO3 ⎯⎯ → 3H3 PO4 + PH3
74. Answer (4)
60. Answer (2)
Half life of first order reaction is independent of initial
61. Answer (2) reactant concentration.
Metallic hydrides such as TiH1.73, VH0.56, etc. are 75. Answer (3)
non-stoichiometric.
at anode
62. Answer (1) 2SO42– – 2e– ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → S2O82–

63. Answer (3) 76. Answer (2)

Hydration energy decreases as charge density In corrosion :

decreases. Cathode : O2 + 4H+ + 4e– → 2H2O(l)
64. Answer (2) Anode : 2Fe(s) → 2Fe2+ + 4e–
Na2B4O7 + 2HCl + 5H2O → 2NaCl + 4H3BO3 77. Answer (2)
65. Answer 1) If FeCl3 is added to excess of hot water, positively
charged solution of hydrated ferric oxide is formed
CO2, SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic in nature. Fe2O3.xH2O/Fe3+
66. Answer (4) 78. Answer (2)
Zeolites are example of 3D silicates. 79. Answer (1)
67. Answer (3) • XeF6 + 3H2O → XeO3 + 6HF (non redox)
⊕
Order of –I effect is : − NR3 > − NO2 > − CN > − F • 6XeF4 + 12H2O → 2XeO3 + 4Xe + 24HF + 3O2
• Cl2 + H2O → HOCl + HCl
68. Answer (3)
• Br2 + H2O → HOBr + HBr
⊕
PhCH2 → Most stable carbocation among the given 80. Answer (4)
carbocations due to more resonance. All are greenish except Fe(OH)3, which is reddish
69. Answer (2) brown.
Due to H-bonding, gauche form becomes most 81. Answer (4)
stable. In K3[CoF6] hybridization is sp3d2.
82. Answer (2)
O H
Alkyl fluoride is formed by halide exchange. This is
H F known as Swarts reaction.
83. Answer (2)
Electron withdrawing group makes aryl halides more
H H H susceptible to nucleophilic substitution.
84. Answer (2)
70. Answer (4)
Anti-markovnikov’s addition takes place.
CH CH 85. Answer (1)
Red hot Fe Tube
CH CH (873 K)
Compounds having pKa < 6.35, give CO2(g) on
HC CH reaction with NaHCO3.

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Hints & Solutions of Test-13 (Code B)

86. Answer (3) 90. Answer (2)

LiAlH4 will reduce – ketones, carboxylic acid and nH2N CH2 COOH + nH2N (CH2)5 COOH
–NO2 group. Glycine Aminocaproic acid
Δ
87. Answer (3)
Guanidine is considered as one of the most basic O O
organic bases.
88. Answer (3) ( NH CH2 C NH (CH2)5 C )n
89. Answer (4) Nylon–2–Nylon–6

BOTANY
91. Answer (3) 102. Answer (2)
Mycoplasma is the smallest cell and are only 0.3 Bean - zygomorphic flower
μm in length while bacteria could be 3 to 5 μm. 103. Answer (1)
92. Answer (2) Petunia - solanaceae
93. Answer (4) 104. Answer (4)
Mitochondria are endosymbiont organelles and rest Cuticle is absent in roots and hydrophytes.
constitute an endomembrane system.
105. Answer (3)
94. Answer (1)
The cells of pericycle gives rise to lateral roots.
Nucleotide synthesis occurs in G1 phase
106. Answer (1)
In metaphase, chromosomes align themselves at
the equator. The age of tree can be known by counting the
number of annual rings in the T.S. of stem. This is
95. Answer (1)
known as Dendrochronology.
A pair of synapsed chromosome is called bivalent.
107. Answer (3)
96. Answer (3)
Brown algae shows body differentiation into holdfast,
Angiosperms - all flowering plants. stipe and frond.
97. Answer (2) 108. Answer (2)
Manual contains complete listing and description of Bryophytes are homosporous.
the plants.
Mosses are leafy bryophytes.
98. Answer (4)
Salvinia is an aquatic fern.
Slime moulds — unicellular 109. Answer (1)
Fungi — multicellular Endosperm of gymnosperms formed before
99. Answer (4) fertilization and it is haploid(n).
Most of the dinoflagellates are unicellular, motile 110. Answer (2)
and biflagellate. Non-endospermic seeds - Pea, Bean, Gram.
100. Answer (4) 111. Answer (3)
Rhizopus is a fungus 112. Answer (4)
Fungi have, 70S and 80S ribosomes, chitinous cell Na+, Cl– and K+ are involved in the anion-cation
wall, glycogen as reserve food material and balance in cells.
membrane bound organelles. 113. Answer (4)
Bacteria lack membrane bound organelles. Rice is a C3 plant
101. Answer (1) 114. Answer (1)

Rhizome is underground stem Pyruvic acid is a three carbon molecule.

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Hints & Solutions of Test-13(Code B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

115. Answer (1) 125. Answer (2)

Natural auxins – Indole-3-acetic acid Same number of chromosomes in male and female
Indole-3-butyric acid occur in XX – XY type of sex determination and ZZ
– ZW type of sex determination.
116. Answer (3)
126. Answer (2)
Ethylene increase female flower in cucumber.
Central dogma – unidirectional flow of information
117. Answer (1) from DNA to RNA
118. Answer (2) 127. Answer (3)
Bulb of onion is modified underground stem. UAC codes for Tyrosine.
119. Answer (2) 128. Answer (2)
Oogonium/nucule – female sex organ 129. Answer (3)
120. Answer (3) 130. Answer (2)
Presence of nectaries is a feature of flowers Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of a bacterium.
pollinated by insects. 131. Answer (1)
121. Answer (4) 132. Answer (2)
122. Answer (4) Productivity and decomposition are functional
aspects of ecosystem.
In recent years, pollen tablets are used as food
supplements. Because pollen grains are rich in 133. Answer (1)
nutrients. 134. Answer (3)
123. Answer (3) Highest concentration will occur in top carnivore
Mendel selected 14-true-breeding pea plant varieties. 135. Answer (3)
124. Answer (2) FOAM – Friends of Arcata Marsh

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) 140. Answer (3)
Sterilisation i.e. Tubectomy or vasectomy is advised T-lymphocytes which mediate cell mediated immunity
as a terminal method to prevent any more are responsible for graft rejection as it differentiates
pregnancies because these techniques are highly self from non-self. Immunosuppressants are used to
effective (but reversibility is poor) suppress their activity in organ transplantation
141. Answer (3)
137. Answer (4)
Examples of evolution by anthropogenic action tell us
To dissolve membranes and release DNA we use
that evolution is not a directed process in the sense
lysozyme in animals, cellulase in plants and chitinase of determinism.
in fungus.
142. Answer (3)
RNA in removed with ribonuclease and proteins with
Disease Key symptoms
protease.
Common cold - Nasal congestion, discharge,
Chilled ethanol helps precipitate out purified DNA cough headache, sore throat
138. Answer (1) Typhoid - Stomach pain, high fever, headache,
IgG can cross placenta and enters foetal circulation. loss of appetite, weakness,
(eg anti-D antibodies are of lgG type) constipation

lgA is present in mother’s milk. Pneumonia - Fever, chills, cough, headache,

gray to bluish discoloration of lips
lgM cannot cross placenta (eg Anti-A and anti B are and nails
lgM type) and both are not present in mother’s milk.
Malaria - Cyclic fever and chills recurring
139. Answer (2) every 3 to 4 days.
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of only 143. Answer (1)
dicot plants and can therefore be used as a vector Delphinus (common dolphin) is a mammal and
in them. mammals respire through lungs.

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Hints & Solutions of Test-13 (Code B)

144. Answer (3) 155. Answer (2)

Small amounts of glucose and amino acid are Post-ovulatory period is always 14 days. However,
absorbed by simple diffusion but it is not the only ovulation would occur on (14 + extra days of cycle)
mechanism. after the 1st day of menstruation i.e 14 + 4 = 18th
Both active transport and facilitated transport play a day.
role in absorption of glucose 156. Answer (2)
145. Answer (2) Average haemoglobin of a healthy individual is
The neural system provides an organized network of 12-16 gm per 100 ml.
point-to-point connections for a quick coordination. 157. Answer (1)
146. Answer (4) P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or
It is impossible for all four chambers to contract depolarisation) of the atria which leads to contraction
simultaneously i.e. atrial systole and ventricular (systole) of both the atria.
systole do not occur simultaneously. All 4 valves of 158. Answer (2)
heart are never open simultaneously. Teeth of chondrichthyes (Acrodont type) are modified
147. Answer (2) placoid scales which are backwardly directed.
Absorption of simple sugars, alcohol and medicines Chondrichthyes are cartilaginous fishes and have no
takes place is stomach. Mainly protein digestion bones.
occurs in stomach. 159. Answer (4)
148. Answer (3) Average Composition of Cells
Insulin increases the cellular glucose uptake and
Component % of the total cellular mass
utilization where as glucagon reduces it.
Water 70-90
149. Answer (4)
hCG and hPL are exclusively produced by women Proteins 10-15
during pregnancy. Carbohydrates 3
Also, during pregnancy levels of other hormones like Lipids 2
oestrogens, progesterone, cortisol, prolactin
Nucleic acids 5-7
thyroxine etc increase several fold in the maternal
blood because these are essential for supporting fetal Ions 1
growth, metabolic changes in mother and 160. Answer (3)
maintenance of pregnancy. Total number of copies formed = 2n
150. Answer (2)
The reducing atmosphere of primitive Earth was where n = number of cycles
composed of CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapour. It was
completely devoid of free O2. 25 = 32 cycles
151. Answer (3) 161. Answer (2)
Tympanum (ear drum) is an inward extension of the
external auditory meatus and is the last part of the Restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the
length of a DNA sequence and recognizes specific
outer ear. A partition between external ear and
palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
middle ear.
162. Answer (2)
152. Answer (3)
After attachment of the trophoblast layer the Ureotelic animals like mammals, terrestrial
blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of the amphibian and marine fishes convert the ammonia
produced by metabolism into urea in the liver. It is
uterus. This is called implantation. The inner cell mass
then released into blood which is filtered and
of this structure gets differentiated as the embryo. excreted out by kidneys
153. Answer (3) 163. Answer (2)
Roman numerals following the names indicates the
Molecule (A) is bicyclic, therefore it is a purine i.e.
order in which the enzyme was isolated from that
adenine.
strain of bacteria.
Molecule (B) is monocyclic, therefore it is a
154. Answer (3) pyrimidine i.e uracil.
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Hints & Solutions of Test-13(Code B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

Adenosine and uridine are as follows: 172. Answer (2)

HOCH 2 O Adenine HOCH 2 O Uracil At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends
at the oval window while the scala tympani
terminates at round window.
173. Answer (4)

OH OH OH OH The DCTs of many nephrons open into a straight

tube called the collecting duct, many of which
Adenosine Uridine
converge and open into renal pelvis.
164. Answer (3)
174. Answer (3)
165. Answer (2) As the nerve fibres do not innervate all the cells of
Corona radiata is the outermost layer followed by zona the body and the cellular functions need to be
pellucida and perivitelline space. continuously regulated, a special kind of control and
co-ordination is provided by hormones (endocrine
166. Answer (4) system).
Macrophages and leucocytes of blood exhibit 175. Answer (3)
amoeboid movement.
SAN is a specialized cardiac musculature present in
Ciliary movement (not locomotion) is performed by the right upper corner of the right atrium.
cells lining the fallopian tubes and bronchi. Flagellar It is auto-excitable which means it can generate
movement helps in swimming of spermatozoa. action potentials without external stimuli.
167. Answer (3) AVN is present in lower left corner of the right atrium.
Kwashiorkor is caused due to protein deficiency 176. Answer (3)
unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. Coca alkaloid or cocaine obtained from coca plant
168. Answer (2) Erythroxylum coca is native to South America.

A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic caecae are 177. Answer (3)
present at the junction of foregut and midgut, which Antrum appears in tertiary follicle.
secrete digestive juices. 178. Answer (2)
169. Answer (2) Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be discovered by
Sir Alexander Fleming. It’s full potential as an
Gap junctions - Facilitate intercellular
effective antibiotic used to treat soldiers in World
communication
War II was established by Ernst Chain and Howard
Adhering junctions - Perform intercellular Florey.
cementation Therefore all three scientists were together awarded
Tight junctions - Stop substances from the Nobel prize in 1945 for this discovery.
leaking across a tissue 179. Answer (2)
170. Answer (3) RuBisCo (Ribulose Bisphosphate Carboxylase
Oxygenase) is the most abundant protein in the
The frog excretes urea and is thus a ureotelic animal.
whole of the biosphere.
171. Answer (2)
Collagen is most abundant protein in the animal world.
The head of the humerus articulates below the
180. Answer (2)
acromion in a depression called the glenoid cavity to
form the shoulder joint. Cortisol is a steroid hormone.

  

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