FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 1 -(MODULE 3)

BIOLOGY
GENETICS
Exercise -1
SA-2016
1. What is the number of chromosomes in an individual with Turner’s syndrome?
A. 44
B. 45
C. 46
D. 47

SA2015
No questions.
SA2014
2. A women is heterozygous for color blindness marries a color blind man. What be the
rations of carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1
generation?
A. 1:2:2:1
B. 2:1:1:2
C. 1:1:1:1
D. 1:1:2:2

3. Children suffering from Phenylketonuria are given food low in phenyl Alanine an
supplemented with tyrosine. This is because they
A. Are unable to utilize phenylalanine
B. Do not require phenylalanine
C. Have increased tyrosine anabolism
D. Have increased tyrosine catabolism.

SA2013
4. Person with blood group A can(a) donate blood to, and (b) receive blood from,
A. (a) Persons with blood group AB , and (b ) person with any blood group
B. (a) Persons with blood group A, AB , and (b ) person with A or O blood group
C. (a) Persons with blood group B ,AB and (b ) person with B or O blood group
D. (a) Persons with any blood group (b ) person with O blood group

SA2012
5. Huntington’s disease is disease of
A. Nervous system
B. Circulatory system
C. Respiratory system
D. Excretory system

SA2011
6. How many sex chromosomes does a normal human inherit from father?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 23
D. 46

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FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 2 -(MODULE 3)

7. If parents have free ear lobes and the offspring has attached ear lobes, then the parents
must be
A. Homozygous
B. Heterozygous
C. Co dominant
D. Nullizygous

8. Mendel showed that unit factors, now called alleles, exhibit a dominant/ recessive
relationship. In a Monohydrib cross, the ……..trait disappears in the first filial generation.
A. Dominant
B. Co dominant
C. Recessive
D. Semi dominant

9. If a man with X linked dominant disease has six sons with a woman having a normal
complement of genes then the sons will
A. Not show any symptoms of the disease
B. Show strong symptoms of the disease
C. Three will show a disease symptoms, while three will not
D. Five will show a disease symptom, when one will not

SA2010
10. Gregor Mendel described the physical traits in the pea plant as being controlled by 2
‘factors’. What term is used to define these factors today?
A. Chromosomes
B. Alleles
C. Genes
D. Hybrids

11. The two alleles of a locus which an offspring receive from the male and female gamets
are situated on
A. Two different homologs of the same chromosome
B. Two different chromosomes
C. Sex chromosomes
D. A single chromosome

12. Mohini, a resident of Chandigarh went to Shimla with her parents. There she found the
same plant that they have in their backyard, at home. However, she observed that while
the plant in their backyard bore white flowers, those in Shimla had pink flowers. She
brought home seeds of the plant from Shimla and planted them in Chandigarh. Upon
performing self breeding for several generations she found that the plant from Shimla
produces only white flowers.
A. According to you what might be the reason for this observation – genetic or
environmental factors?
B. Suggest the simple experiment to determine whether this variation is Genetical in
nature
C. Suggest another experiment to check whether this variation in flower color is due to
environmental factors.

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FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 3 -(MODULE 3)

SA2009
13. An individual has O blood group is his /her blood sample
A. Clumps only when antiserum A is added
B. Clumps only when antiserum B is added
C. Clumps when both antiserum A and antiserum B are added
D. Doesn’t clump when either antiserum A or antiserum B is added

14. In humans, Rhesus disease can arise when,

A. Father is Rh+ and Rh- mother
B. Mother is Rh+ and Rh- father
C.
Either Father or mother Rh+
D.
Either father or mother Rh-

Exercise set-2
15. Which of the following conditions shows anticipation in paternal transmission?
A. Huntington disease
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Fragile X syndrome

16. Marfan syndrome is caused by mutations in the gene which encodes _______.
A. Collagen
B. Dystrophin
C. Elastin
D. Fibrillin

17. In a condition such as color blindness the recurrence risk will be greatest for which of the
following relatives of an affected individual?
A. Brother
B. Nephew
C. Grand son
D. Grand daughter

18. Which of the following is not a recognized complication of cystic fibrosis?

A. Cancer of the esophagus
B. Congenital absence of the vas deferens
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Liver cirrhosis

19. Which of the following disorders does not show X-linked inheritance?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Haemophilia A
D. Haemophilia B

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FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 4 -(MODULE 3)

20. Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a
white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be
oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic. The flower color trait in
radishes is an example of which of the following?
A. Codominance
B. Epistasis
C. Sex linkage
D. Incomplete dominance

21. The genotype of F1 individuals in a tetra hybrid cross is AaBbCcDd. Assuming

independent assortment of these four genes, what are the probabilities that F2 offspring
will have the following genotype “aabbccdd”
A. 1/64
B. 1/ 256
C. 1/16
D. 1/ 32

22. A cross between an individual with an unknown genotype and a homozygous recessive
individual is known as:
A. Test cross
B. Monohybrid cross
C. Epistasis
D. None of the above

23. A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son
who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh
negative and is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively. A third gene for the MN
blood group has codominant alleles M and N. Which of the following is a possible
genotype for the mother?
A. ii
B. IAIB
C. IBIB
D. IAi

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FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 5 -(MODULE 3)

IMMUNITY AND HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES

Exercise Set -1
SA 2016
1. Which of the following entities causes syphilis?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Neisseria gonorrhea
C. HIV
D. Hepatitis B

SA 2015
2. Widal test is prescribed to diagnose:
A. Typhoid
B. Pneumonia
C. Malaria
D. Filaria

3. Which one of the following cell types is a part of innate immunity?

A. Skin epithelial cells
B. B cells
C. T lymphocytes
D. Liver cells

SA 2014
4. A person was saved from poisonous snake bite by antivenom injection. Which of the
following immunity explains this form of protection?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Naturally acquired passive immunity
C. Artificially acquired active immunity
D. Artificially acquired passive immunity

SA 2013
5. A pathogen which can’t be cultured in an artificial medium is,
A. Protozoan
B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Bacterium

SA 2012
6. A smear of blood from a healthy individual is stained with a nuclear stain called
hematoxylin and then observed under the microscope. Which of the following cell type
would be higher in number?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes

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FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 6 -(MODULE 3)

7. Myeloid tissue is a type of:

A. Hematopoietic tissue
B. Cartilage tissue
C. Muscular tissue
D. Areolar tissue

SA 2011
8. The form of cancer called “carcinoma” is associated with
A. Lymph cells
B. Mesodermal cells
C. Blood cells
D. Epithelial cells

SA 2010
9. Which of the following is water borne disease?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Chickenpox
C. Malaria
D. Cholera

SA 2009
No questions
Exercise Set -2
10. Which one is responsible of the disease characterised with swelling and thickening of
skin in leg
A. Culex mosquito
B. Filarial worm
C. Anopheles mosquito
D. Plasmodium

11. Give the correct sentences

I. Passive immunity – antibody are directly introduces in body
II. Lactation – secretion of yellowish fluid colostrums
III. Hepatitis B- Made from fungi
IV. Histamine- Produce from “MAST CELLS”
A. II and III
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
D. I, II,III and IV

12. Statement X: Carrier of HIV virus person appears Healthy

Statement Y: Body ache lasting over four weeks in ARC
Statement Z: Loss of body weight by 10% without any reason occurs in the AIDS at the
final stage
A. Statement X, Y and Z all are wrong
B. Statement X and Y are wrong but Z is right
C. Statement X and Z are wrong but Y is right
D. Statement X, Y and Z are right.

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FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 7 -(MODULE 3)

13. Western blotting test : AIDS – immunodeficiency syndrome

WIDAL test: -----------------------------------
A. Typhoid, increases in size of spleen and liver
B. Typhoid , pain in stomach
C. Typhoid , Burning in intestine
D. All of the above.

14. Because of smoking which kind of changes occurs in blood?

A. Proportion of Co2 and in hemoglobin also carbon dioxide concentration decreases
B. Proportion of o2 decreases and in hemoglobin proportion of o2 increases
C. Proportion of o2 decreases and in hemoglobin proportion of o2 decreases
D. Proportion of Co2 and in hemoglobin also oxygen decreases.

15. Aspergillosis is recognized in tissue by the presence of

A. Metachromatic granules
B. Psuedohyphae
C. Septate hyphae
D. Budding cells

16. Fungi tolerate pH of about:

A. 2 – 3
B. 2- 5
C. 2- 9
D. 2- 7

17. Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by Tiger mosquito?

A. Yellow fever
B. Japanese encephalitis
C. Dengue
D. Chikangunya

18. Immunocompromised persons are suffered from several fungal diseases. Which of the
following is the least frequently associated
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Aspergillus fumigatus
C. Malassezia furfur
D. Mucor species

19. Assertion: Severe acute respiratory syndrome originated in china.

Reason: China is the most populated country of the world.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
B. Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation for A
C. A is true and R is false
D. Both A and R are false

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FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 8 -(MODULE 3)

20. Rickettsia is a group of:

A. Fungi
B. Bacteria
C. Viruses
D. Protozoa

21. AZT is the treatment of:

A. TB
B. AIDS
C. Malaria
D. Kala-azar

22. Which of the industrial processes identified by world health organization –WHO can
cause cancer ?
A. Isopropyl alcohol manufacturing
B. Rubber and furniture industry
C. Hematite mining
D. All the above

23. Symptoms of diphtheria is:

A. Suffocation
B. Fear of water
C. Gum bleeding
D. Stomach ache

24. Assertion: Escherichia coli, Shigella sp, Salmonella sp, are all responsible for diarrhoea.
Reason: Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoea and adequate supply of fluid
electrolytes should be given.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
B. Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation for A
C. A is true and R is false
D. Both A and R are false

25. Mountax test is for :

A. Diphtheria
B. Tuberculosis
C. Scarlet fever
D. Rheumatoid fever

26. Aflatoxin is produced by a

A. Virus
B. Fungus
C. Nematode
D. Bacteria

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FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 9 -(MODULE 3)

27.
Column 1 Column 2
I. Epilepsy p. Degeneration of neurons in the cerebral
cortex
II. Alzheimer’s disease q. Irregular electrical discharge in the neurons

III. Parkinson’s disease r. Decreased production of acetylcholine.

IV. Huntington’s disease s. Degeneration of dopamine releasing neurons

t. Formation of blood clots in the brain.

A. I-t, II-s, III-r, IV-p

B. I-q, II-r, III-p, IV-s
C. I-q, II-r, III-s, IV-p
D. I-q, II-s, III-r, IV-p

28. Melanuria is caused by:

A. Proline
B. Alanine
C. Tyrosine
D. Tryptophan

29. Out of the given following diseases, which disease results due to disorder in lysosomes?
A. Arthritic joint
B. Hurle’s syndrome
C. Tay sach’s disease
D. All the above.

30. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic disorder occurs in:
A. Tetany
B. Arthritis
C. Muscular atrophy
D. Osteoporosis

31. Asthma is characterized by:

A. Pain in lung
B. Damage in diaphragm
C. Alveolar wall degradation
D. Spasm in bronchial muscle

32. Deposition of uric acid at the joints:

A. Gout
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteo- arthritis
D. None of these

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FIITJEE KVPY (QUESTION BANK) BIOLOGY - 10 -(MODULE 3)

GENETICS
ANSWER KEY

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A
6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C
11. B 12. (Will be 13. B 14. B 15. A
discuss)
16. D 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. D
21. B 22. A 23. D

IMMUNITY AND HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES

ANSWER KEY

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. D
11. C 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. C
16. A 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. B
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. B
26. B 27. C 28. C 29. C 30. C
31. D 32. A

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