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MH3100-Real Analysis I

PYP Solution
2016-2017

1. Let f be a function such that f : C −→ N such that:


(
i x = ai
f (x) =
N + i x = bi
Let f (x) = n ∈ N, then we can always find a unique x:
(
an n≤N
x=
bn−N n > N
The existence of x for every value of f (x) ∈ N implies that f (x) is onto.
We can always find a unique x from the equation f (x) = n ∈ N since C is a set with all
distinct elements. Hence it implies f (x) is one to one.
∴ f (x) is a bijective function
2. (a) Let z ∈ f (A ∩ B), i.e., z ∈ {f (x) : x ∈ A ∩ B}
Since A ∩ B ⊆ A and A ∩ B ⊆ B, then we have:
z ∈ {f (x) : x ∈ A ∩ B} ⊆ {f (x) : x ∈ A}
z ∈ {f (x) : x ∈ A ∩ B} ⊆ {f (x) : x ∈ B}
Thus z ∈ {f (x) : x ∈ A} ∩ {f (x) : x ∈ B}, i.e., z ∈ f (A) ∩ f (B)
∴ f (A ∩ B) ⊆ f (A) ∩ f (B)
(b) Let X, Y ∈ P(R) and let f be a function.
(=⇒) Suppose f is one to one function.
Let z ∈ f (X) ∩ f (Y ), i.e., z ∈ f (X) and z ∈ f (Y ).
z ∈ f (X) and z ∈ f (Y ) =⇒ ∃x ∈ X and y ∈ Y such that z = f (x) = f (y)
Since f is one to one, f (x) = f (y) =⇒ x = y
Thus x, y ∈ X ∩ Y =⇒ z ∈ f (X ∩ Y ) =⇒ f (X) ∩ f (Y ) ⊆ f (X ∩ Y ) (∗)
∴ By (a) and (∗), we have f (X) ∩ f (Y ) = f (X ∩ Y )
(=⇒) Suppose ∀X, Y ∈ P(R), f (X) ∩ f (Y ) = f (X ∩ Y ), i.e., f (X) ∩ f (Y ) ⊆ f (X ∩ Y )
Let x, y ∈ R. Consider set X = {x} and Y = {y}.
x 6= y =⇒ x∩y =∅
=⇒ f (X ∩ Y ) = f (∅) = ∅
=⇒ f (X) ∩ f (Y ) = ∅ (f (X) ∩ f (Y ) ⊆ f (X ∩ Y ) = ∅)
=⇒ f (x) 6= f (y)

1
∴ f is one to one

3. Bolzano-Weierstrass: Every bounded sequence has a convergent subsequence


Suppose that (xn ) is a bounded sequence such that |xn | ≤ M where M is a positive real
number.
Define a closed, bounded, non-empty interval Ii to be the following:
Step 1 Divide the interval [−M, M ] into 2 parts, [−M, 0] and [0, M ]. Then choose which
of this 2 intervals has infinitely many terms of sequence (xn ). Suppose [0, M ] has infinitely
many terms of sequence (xn ). Define I1 = [0, M ]
1
Step 2 Repeat this process, then we will have length `(Ii ) = 2i−1 . Note that because there
are infinite term in (xn ) and in the process of defining the interval Ii we always choose an
interval which contains infinitely many terms of xn ), thus we can always repeat this process
endlessly.
Now we define a subsequence (xnk ) from the sequence (xn ) in the following way:
Step 1 Pick any term (xn ) inside the interval I1 . Let say xp , then let n1 = p.
Step 2 Pick any term (xn ) inside the interval Ii for i ≥ 2. Let say we pick xr such that r ≥ nk
∀k < i. , then let ni = r.
Since l(In ) → 0 as n → ∞, by Nested Interval Property, ∃!x ∈ ∞
T
i=1 Ii .

Claim: (xnk ) → x
Proof
Wanted to show: ∀ > 0, ∃K > 0 such that ∀k ≥ K, |xnk − x| < 
Let  > 0. Set K= max(1,d− log2 e). Then ∀k ≥ K, we have:
1 1
|xnk − x| ≤ `(Ik ) = < ≤
2k−1 2k
∴ (xnk ) → x

4. (a) Suppose that a sequence of real number (an ) → l.


∀ > 0, ∃N > 0, such that ∀n ≥ N , |an − l| < 
From triangular inequality, we have ||an | − |l|| ≤ |an − l|.
∀ > 0, ∃N > 0, such that ∀n ≥ N :

||an | − |l|| ≤ |an − l| < 

∴ If (an ) → l, then (|an |) → |l|


(b) Consider sequence (an ) = −1.
Then we have (|an |) → |1|, but (an ) → −1 6= 1.
Hence the converse is not true.

5. (a) To find the derivatives of f (x), we need to consider 3 cases.


2 2
For case |x| < 1, we can apply product rule to get f 0 (x) = 2x(e−x − x2 e−x )
For case |x| > 1, we can get f 0 (x) = 0 since f (x) is a constant

2
For case |x| = 1, we need to consider the limit from left and right.

lim+ f 0 (x) = 0
x→1

2 2
lim− f 0 (x) = 2(1)(e−(1) − (1)2 e−(1) ) = 0
x→1

∴f 0 (1) = limx→1+ f 0 (x) = limx→1− f 0 (x) = 0


We can compute f 0 (−1) in a similar manner. We will get f 0 (1) = f 0 (−1) = 0. Hence
we have: ( 2 2
2x(e−x − x2 e−x ) |x| < 1
f 0 (x) =
0 |x| ≥ 1

(b) Let f (x) = ex + x − 1 defined on x ∈ R.


The derivatives f 0 (x) = ex + 1 > 0 which means f (x) is a strictly increasing function.
We know f (−1) = e−1 − 2 < 0 and f (1) = e.
Since f (x) is continuous on the whole real number and f (−1) < 0 < f (1), then by
Intermediate Value Theorem, we have c ∈ R such that f (c) = 0.
Since f (x) is strictly increasing function, then means there will only one value of c
satisfying f (c) = 0. Since f (0) = 0, therefore 0 is the only solution to the equation
f (x) = 0 =⇒ ex = 1 − x

6. (a) Since ∞ 1
P
n=1 xn is converge, then limn→∞ xn = 0 =⇒ limn→∞ xn = ∞
P∞ 1
∴ n=1 xn diverges
(b) Let (xn ) = 1. Then we have ∞
P 1
P∞
n=1 xn diverges, but n=1 xn does not converge. Hence
the converse is not true.
(c) Since ∞
P
n=1 x n is converge absolutely (since the term is all positive numbers), then
xn
limn→∞ xn+1 < 1
2    
x
= lim xn
xn
lim 2 n

lim < (1)(1) = 1
n→∞ x n+1
n→∞ xn+1 n→∞ xn+1

√  r   r 
xn xn+1 x n xn+1
lim √ = lim lim < (1)(1) = 1
n→∞ xn+1 xn+2 n→∞ xn+1 n→∞ xn+2
P∞ √
∴ ∞ 2
P
n=1 xn and n=1 xn xn+1 converge

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