Alc Test Preparation

Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part I
1. In which year did the act come into operation?
a. 1947
b. 1949
c. 1953
d. 1963
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2. To which settlement machinery can the central government refer the

disputes under rule 81 - A?
a. Conciliation
b. Arbitration
c. Adjudicator
d. Supreme Court
3. Before the industrial disputes act was implemented in the year 1947, which
act took care of the industrial disputes?
a. Trade Disputes Act, 1929

b. Royal Commission on Labour, 1934
c. Labour Management Relations Act, 1947
d. None of the above
4. Choose the correct option that correctly states out the defect in the Trade
Disputes Act, 1929.
a. Restraints imposed on the rights of strike
b. To render the proceedings unstatutable under the Act for the settlement of
an industrial dispute
c. Solution to industrial unrest
d. All of the above

5. The bill passing rule 81A has made two new institutions for the prevention
and settlement of industrial disputes, i.e. Work Committees and _______
a. Industrial Tribunal
b. Commission on Labour
c. Arbitration
d. Adjudication
6. The industrial peace is secured through voluntary _______ and compulsory

________
a. Compromise and Arbitration

b. Adjudication and Arbitration
c. Work Committee and Industrial Tribunal
d. Negotiation and Adjudication
7. Choose the correct objective of the Industrial Disputes Act.
a. To prevent illegal strikes
b. To promote measures for securing and preserving good relations between the
employers and the employees
c. To provide relief to workmen in matters of lay - offs,

retrenchment, wrongful dismissals
d. All of the above
8. State true or false
i. Industrial disputes act can be described as the milestone in the historical

development of industrial law in India.
a. True
b. False
9. The act was first amended in the year ______

a. 1929
b. 1946
c. 1947
d. 1949
10. Power has been given to _______________ to require Works Committee to

be constituted in every industrial establishment employing 100 workmen or
more.
a. Appropriate Government
b. State Government
c. High Court
d. Board of Conciliation
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part II
1. Which permanent settlement machinery has been mentioned in the act

accountable for the speedy and amicable settlement of industrial disputes?
a. Adjudication
b. Conciliation
c. Arbitration
d. Appropriate government
ANSWER: b. Conciliation
2. State true of false.
i. The industrial disputes act bill empowers the conciliation to declare emergency if
required, by notification in the official Gazette.
a. True
b. False
Only Appropriate Govt. can declare emergency
3. A report of the select committee on the Industrial Disputes Bill, 1946 was
published in the Gazette of India, Part ____
a. V
b. IV
c. III
d. I
4. On which date did the industrial disputes act, 1947 receive assent and came
in the Statute Book?
a. 1st April, 1947

b. 23rd April, 1936
c. 28th April, 1937
d. 11th March, 1947
5. ________ means an interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute

or of any question relating thereto by any labour court.
a. Banking Company
b. Closure
c. Award
d. Conciliation Proceeding
6. State True or False
i. A controlled industry is any industry which is controlled by the union and has been
declared by any central act to be expedient in the public interest.
a. True
b. False
7. Clause (d) of section 2 of ______________ act defines Khadi.
a. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

b. Payment of wages act, 1936
c. Khadi and Village Industries commission Act, 1956
d. Industrial Relations Act, 1967
8. How many members does a conciliation board consist of as per the

appropriate government?
a. Chairman and 2 or 4 other members

b. Chairman and 1 more member
c. Chairman and 5 or 6 other members
d. Chairman and 10 other members
9. A person shall not be appointed as the presiding officer of a labour court

unless he has been the presiding officer under any provincial or state act for
not less than ____ years.
a. 2
b. 10
c. 5
d. 15
10. How many persons shall a national tribunal consist of which is to be

appointed by the central government?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part III
1. Which section in the industrial disputes act discusses about the disqualifications of
the presiding officers of labour courts?
a. 7A
b. 7B
c. 7C
d. 8
ANSWER: c. 7C
2. What is the required minimum age of the person to be appointed in the office of the
presiding officer of a labour court, Tribunal or National Tribunal?
a. 65 years
b. 60 years
c. 58 years
d. 50 years
3. As per section 8, if a vacancy arises in the office of the presiding officer of a labour
court, Tribunal or National Tribunal or in the chairman's office in the case of National
Tribunal, the __________ and in any other office the ___________ shall appoint
another person in accordance with the provisions of this Act.
a. Central Government for both

b. Appropriate Government for both
c. Central Government; Appropriate Government
d. Appropriate Government; Central Government
i. No settlement arrived at in the course of a conciliation proceeding shall be invalid by

reason only of the fact that such settlement was arrived at after the expiry of the period
referred to in sub-section (6) of section 12 or sub - section (5) of 13.
a. True
b. False
5. How many days of notice has to be given to the workman by the employer in case
of any changes to be made in the service conditions specified in the fourth schedule?
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 21 days
d. 45 days
i. The details in the arbitration act, 1940 are applicable to arbitrations under this section as
well
a. True
b. False

Reason: Both the arbitration act, 1940 and the arbitration section here are
different and are not interconnected.
7. Which of the below mentioned is the duty of a conciliation officer?
a. The board shall submit its report within 2 months of the date on which the dispute was
referred to
b. The court shall inquire that matters referred to it and report thereon to the appropriate
government within a period of 6 months.
c. Where any industrial dispute exists or is apprehended, the conciliation officer may,
or where the dispute relates to a public utility service and a notice under section 22
has been given shall hold the conciliation proceedings in the prescribed manner.
d. All of the above
8. Where do the labour court, tribunal and national tribunals submit their awards of
the dispute?
a. Appropriate government
b. Central government
c. Employer
d. Conciliation
i. Is it necessary for all the members of the board or court to sign the written award as per
section 16 of the act or can be signed by the presiding officer as the case may be?
a. False
b. True
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Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part IV
1. What is the time period in which all the awards of the arbitration are to be
published from the date of its receipt by the appropriate government?
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 day
2. State true or false.
i. As per section 17A, the award published under sub - section (1) shall be revised
and shall not be called in question by in any manner whatsoever.
a. True
b. False

Reason: The award under this section is final and cannot be questioned by
anybody.
3. If any declaration has been made in relation to an award under the provision
to sub - section (1), the appropriate government or the central government
within _______ days from the date of publication of the award under section
17, make an order rejecting or modifying the award.
a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 90 days
d. 1 year
4. If the date of operation is not mentioned in the awards, then according to

sub - section 1 or 3 when is the award put into effect?
a. One month after the date of enforcement

b. On the date of enforcement
c. One week after the day of enforcement
5. Which section deals with payment of wages to workman pending

proceedings in higher courts in the act?
a. 17B
b. 17
c. 17A
d. All of the above
i. Both the parties should agree upon the date of settlements and awards.
a. True
b. False
7. The arbitration award shall remain in operation for a period of _____ year as
mentioned in the act.
a. 1 year
b. 6 months
c. 24 months
8. The Central government has the rights to reduce the operation period if it
thinks to be fit. State True or False.
a. True
b. False
Reason: the appropriate government has the authority to do so.
9. As per section ___ a conciliation proceeding shall be deemed to have

commenced on the date on which a strike or lock - out is received by the
conciliation officer.
a. 20
b. 18
c. 22
d. 19
i. Section 21 deals with commencement and conclusion of proceedings.

a. False
b. True

Reason: the appropriate government has the authority to do so.
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Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part V
1. No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of

contract within ____ of giving such a notice.
a. 14 days
b. 6 weeks
c. 7 days

2. Choose the correct option where no workmen shall go on a strike in breach of
contract and no employer of any such workmen shall declare a lock - out during:
a. The pendency of conciliation proceedings before a board and 7 days after the conclusion
of such proceedings
b. The pendency of proceedings before labour court, tribunal or national tribunal and 2
months, after the conclusion of such proceedings
c. During any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any of the
matters covered by the settlement or award
d. All of the above
3. Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service.
a. 25B
b. 25
c. 25A
d. 26
4. How many days of service will be termed as continuous service when working in a
mine industry?
a. 190 days
b. 240 days
c. 365 days
d. 180 days
i. If a workmen is laid â€“ off for more than 45 days no compensation shall be payable in
respect of any period of the lay - off after the expiry of 45 days.
a. True
b. False
6. A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another

workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of the establishment is ___
a. Temporary workmen
b. Permanent workmen
c. Badli workmen
7. Will a workman be entitled to compensation if he does not present himself for work
at the establishment at the appointed time during normal working hours at least once
a day?
a. Yes
b. No
8. How much compensation does the workman deserve at the time of retrenchment?
a. Equivalent to 15 days average pay

b. 6 months
c. Equivalent to 30 days average pay
9. Which section deals with compensation to workmen in case of transfer of

undertakings?
a. Section 25F
b. Section 25FF
c. Section 25
d. Section 25E
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part VI
1. How many days of notice period is mandatory for a workman who has been in
continuous service for more than a year while retrenchment?
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 15 days
d. 45 days
2. When the ownership or management of an establishment is transferred, whether by

agreement or by law, every workman who has been in continuous service for not less
than 1 year is entitled to notice and compensation in accordance with the provisions
of section ____.
a. 25FF
b. 25FFA
c. 25F
d. 25FFF
3. How many does notice is the employer supposed to give before closing down an
establishment as per section 25FFA?
a. 90 days
b. 60 days
c. 30 days
d. 120 days
4. If an undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances, the

compensation to be paid to the workman under clause b of section 25F shall not
exceed his average pay of ____.
a. 1 month
b. 15 days
c. 60 days
d. 3 months
5. Which section deals with the prohibitions of lay - offs?
a. 25M
b. 25N
c. 25F
d. 25
6. What is the penalty faced by an employer if he lays - off or retrenches an employee

without prior permission?
a. Imprisonment for upto a month and a fine of upto 1000 rupees

b. Imprisonment for upto a month or;
c. Fine of upto 1000 rupees
d. All of the above
7. The penalty for closing an undertaking without prior notice is _____.

a. Imprisonment for upto 6 months or;
b. Fine upto 5000 rupees
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. All of the above
8. Match the following sections with their penalties.
1. Penalty for committing unfair labour practices ----- A. 27

2. Penalty for other offences ------------------------- B. 25U
3. Penalty for breach of settlement or award----------- C. 31
4. Penalty for instigation ---------------------------- D. 29
5. Penalty for aiding illegal strikes /lockout -------- E. 28
a. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 5-E

b. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-E, 5-A
c. 1-E, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D, 5-B
d. 1-A, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C
e. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-E
i. A proceeding under section 33 and section 33A is pending before a Tribunal or National
Tribunal can be transferred to a Labour Court.
a. True
b. False
i. No employer shall during the pendency of any such proceeding in respect to an industrial
dispute, take any action against any protected workmen concerned in such a dispute.
a. False
b. True
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part VII

1. What should be the percentage of "protected workmen" of the total number
of workmen employed in any establishment?
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
ANSWER: a. 1%
2. The ____________ can make rules for the distribution of protected workman
among various trade unions.
a. Central government
b. State authority
c. Appropriate government
d. Conciliation officer
3. A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a

registered trade union connected with the establishment is _________
a. Badli workmen
b. Conciliation officer
c. Skilled labour
d. Protected workmen
4. Which section in the act deals with recovery of money due from an
employer?
a. 33C
b. 33
c. 33A
d. 33B
i. Section 38 deals with the delegation of powers.
a. True
b. False
Reason: Section 39 deals with the delegation of powers.
6. Choose the correct option that declares the industry to be public utility
services under sub - clause VI of clause N of section 2
A. India Security Press

B. Banking Company
C. Defence establishment
D. Insurance Company
a. A, B & C
b. B & C
c. A & D
d. B & D
7. Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour

courts?
a. Withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege

b. Application and interpretation of standing orders
c. Illegality or otherwise of a strike or lock out
d. All of the above
8. Which of the options is a mBanning Beef â€“ Is it justified?atter mentioned

in the jurisdiction of labour courts?
a. The propriety or legality of an order passed by an employer under the standing

orders
b. Discharge or dismissal of workmen including reinstatement of, or grant of relief to,

workmen wrongfully dismissed
c. All matters other than those specified in the Third Schedule
d. Leave with wages and holidays
9. Condition of service for change of which notice is to be given; is mention in

which section of the act?
a. Section 9A
b. Section 7A
c. Section 7
d. Section 2a
10. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen?
a. To recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal
b. To discharge or dismiss workmen
c. Indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining

representative
d. To indulge in acts of force or violence
11. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer?
a. To incite or indulge in wilful damage to employerâ€™s property connected with

the industry
b. To advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal
c. For a recognised union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the
employer

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Settlement Machinery - Conciliation, Mediation, Arbitration

and Adjudication - MCQs with asnwers -Part 1
1. __________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to

essentially the same kind of third â€“ party intervention in promoting voluntary
settlement of disputes.
a. Mediation and Conciliation

b. Conciliation and Arbitration
c. Mediation and Court of Enquiry

2. As per which professor the distinction between mediation and conciliation
is hair - splitting?
a. Prof. Foxwell
b. Prof. Pigou
c. Prof. Davey
d. All of the above
3. Which of the settlement machinery implies a stronger form of intervention

and a mediator may be permitted to offer to the parties proposals for
settlement?
a. Conciliation
b. Adjudication
c. Arbitration
d. Mediation
e. Court of enquiry
4. The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an

industrial diplomat.
a. Peace - maker
b. Messenger
c. Adviser
i. The mediator imposes his will and judgement on both the disputing parties.
a. True
b. False
6. _________ can be described as - the practice by which the services of a

neutral third - party are used in a dispute as a means of helping the disputing
parties to reduce the extent of their differences and to arrive at an amicable
settlement.
a. Arbitration
b. Mediation
c. Adjudication
d. Conciliation
7. Which are the three kinds of mediators according to professor Pigou?
A. The eminent outsider

B. The non - governmental board
C. The board connected with some part of the governmental system of the country
D. Voluntary conciliation
E. Compulsory conciliation
a. A, B and C
b. C, D and E
c. A, C and D
d. B, C and E
Reason: Options "D" and "E" are not included in the types of mediation according
to Pigou.
8. Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the
disputes between two parties?
a. Cognition and Influence

b. Reasoning and Persuasion
c. Rationale and Coaxing
d. Motivation and Leadership
9. Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation

process?
a. Flexibility, informality and simplicity

b. Blase, clumsy and decisive
c. Candid, conceited and dismayed
d. Fierce, intrepid and meticulous
i. Under section 4 of the Industrial Disputes Act, it is the government in India who
appoints a conciliation officer for a specific area or even for a specific industry.
a. True
b. False
11. __________ and ____________ are the two attributes which every
conciliator should possess.
a. Independence and impartiality

b. Technicality and suspicion
c. Persuasion and perceiving
d. Conviction and arduous
12. Choose the odd man out.

a. Safety valve
b. Adviser
c. Face saver
d. Friendly personality
13. Which of these is one of the phases in the sequence of the conciliation
process
A. Emergency of appropriate mood for settlement of compromise

B. The hard posture phase
C. Outlet for feelings
a. Only A & C
b. Only B
c. Only A & B
d. Only B & C
14. Which amongst these is a technique used by the conciliator?
a. Searching for accommodation

b. Being adamant
c. Listening attentively
d. Unbiased
15. What kind of pressures do the disputing parties face from the conciliator?
a. Personal
b. Social
c. Political
d. Economic
e. All of the above

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and Adjudication - MCQs with answers - Part 2
1. ____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an impartial

outsider who makes a decision which is usually binding on both the parties.
a. Arbitration
b. Adjudication
c. Court of enquiry
2. What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes Act?
a. Securing an award
b. Dominance
c. Adjudication
d. Binding of the award on the parties
3. Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge.
a. Legal and statutory

b. Lawful and constitutional
c. Legitimate and compromising
d. Judicial and legislative
4. Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on?
a. Compromise and liberty

b. Fair play and impartiality
c. Equity and Justice
d. All of the above
5. The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach?
a. Quasi - judicial
b. Split the difference
c. Judicial
d. Non â€“ judicial
6. In which of these countries has arbitration been a popular way to resolve

conflicts?
A. USA
B. New Zealand
C. India
D. UK
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
7. The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary courts

or labour tribunals.
a. Expeditious
b. Compromising
c. Binding
d. Delayed
i. Arbitration is formal in character and is an expensive form of settlement.
a. True
b. False
Reason: Arbitration is informal and is inexpensive and hence is the most popular
form of settlement.
9. Choose the odd man out.
a. Judgement is often arbitrary and ill - advised as the arbitrators are not well -
versed in the economic and technical aspects of industry.
b. Arbitration deprives labour of its right to go on strike because of the provision in

the agreement
c. Delay often occurs in arriving at the award and settlement of disputes leading to a
morale breakdown of the employees
d. Arbitration is based on the consent of both parties
10. When the two contending parties are unable to compose their differences
by themselves or with the help of the mediator or conciliator, agree to submit
the dispute to impartial authority whose decision they are ready to accept is
called _________
a. Voluntary arbitration
b. Voluntary Mediation
c. Compulsory arbitration
d. Compulsory Mediation

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1. Which of the following is an essential element in voluntary arbitration?
a. Subsequent attendance of witnesses and investigations

b. Industries of strategic importance are involved
c. Country is passing through grave economic crisis
d. All of the above
Reason: Except for option "a" all are the situations when compulsory arbitration
is imposed on the disputing parties.
2. What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration?
a. Compulsory implication of award
b. Non - compromising
c. It deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights
3. Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed

on the disputing parties?
a. When an industrial dispute is apprehended
b. Disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method
c. The issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement
d. All of the above

Reason: The option a, c and d are the conditions under which a dispute is referred
to arbitration under the industrial disputes act, 1947.
4. Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful

arbitrator?
a. High integrity
b. Knowledge of collective bargaining
c. Understanding of complexities of labour â€“ management relationship
d. All of the above
5. Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator be hired?
a. Legal profession
b. Government servants
c. Psychologists
d. All of the above
6. Match the following procedure of investigation with the correct step no. in
the sequence of events.
A. 1 ------- 1. Collecting facts and supporting materials

B. 2 ------- 2. Hearing out to both the parties along with mastery of the facts of
dispute
C. 3 ------- 3. Investigation of the facts and circumstances
a. A-1, B-2, C-3

b. A-2,B-1,C-3
c. A-2,B-3,C-1
7. Choose the correct option that states the principle followed by an arbitrator.
A. High integrity
B. Fair hearing
C. Natural justice
D. Maintain harmonious labour - management relations
a. A & D
b. B & D
c. B & C
d. A & C
8. With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into

prominence for resolving industrial disputes.
a. Bombay Industrial Disputes Act

b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. V. V. Giri
9. __________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration.
a. The code of discipline (1958)

b. Indian Labour Conference (1962)
c. ILO
d. Industrial Disputes Act
10. The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by
_____.
a. National Tribunal
b. Court of Enquiry
c. Indian Labour Conference (1962)
d. ILO

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1. In which year did the government appoint National Arbitration Promotion

Board along with a tripartite composition to make voluntary arbitration more
acceptable?
a. July 1965
b. July 1968
c. July 1966
d. July 1967
2. Which of the following option is a factor which has contributed to the slow
progress of arbitration?
a. Absence of recognised unions which could bind the workers to a common

agreement
b. To advise parties in important cases to accept arbitration
c. To review the position periodically
d. To evolve principles, norms and procedures for the guidance

Reason: Except option "a" all are the functions of the national arbitration
promotion board.
3. In which year was V.V. Giri appointed as the Labour Minister?
a. 1953
b. 1962
c. 1947
4. __________ has criticised compulsory arbitration on four main grounds.
a. Alexander Frey
b. V.V. Giri
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. American Labour Movement
i. Royal Commission on Labour was against voluntary arbitration.
a. True
b. False
Reason: Royal Commission on Labour was against Compulsory arbitration.
6. Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved
dispute?
a. Court of enquiry
b. Adjudication
c. Arbitration
d. National Tribunal
7. Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into adjudication?
a. Disputing parties
b. Conciliator
c. Trade Union
d. Government
8. __________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party appointed

by the government for the purpose of deciding the nature of final settlement.
a. Adjudication
b. National Tribunal
c. Arbitration
9. The importance of adjudication has been emphasised by the ________.
a. Government
b. Civil Court
c. Supreme Court

10. The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of
_______ justice but also the claims of national economy.
a. Economic
b. Social
c. Freedom of contract

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1. Who was the chairman of the Committee on Unfair Labour Practices?
a. Justice V.A. Naik

b. Chagla C. J
c. Justice Bavdekar
i. Compulsory adjudication is when the parties refer the dispute to adjudication.
a. True
b. False
Reason: When parties refer the dispute to adjudication it is called voluntary
adjudication.
3. Which of these is a three tier system of adjudication?

A. National Tribunal
B. Labour Court
C. Court of Enquiry
a. A & C
b. B & C
c. A & B
d. A, B and C
4. Match the following adjuducation system with the disputes listed in the
schedule.
1. Labour Court ------------- A. Disputes listed in Schedule II of the act
2. Industrial Tribunal ------ B. Disputes which are of national importance
3. National Tribunal -------- C. Disputes listed in Schedule II or III of the act
a. 1-A, 2-c, 3-b

b. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
c. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
d. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
5. A labour court shall consist of one person who has been a District Judge for
a period of not less than ___ years.
a. 3 years
b. 7 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years

i. Submitting the award to the appropriate government as soon as practicable on the

conclusion of the proceedings is a duty of the labour court.
a. True
b. False
7. Which of these matters are specified in the third schedule of the industrial
disputes act?
A. Classification of grades
B. Rationalisation
C. Application and interpretation of standing orders
D. Withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege
a. A & B
b. A, B & D
c. B, C & D
d. A, B, C & D
8. How many central government industrial tribunals cum labour courts in

India?
a. 10
b. 9
c. 15
d. 12
9. In the year 1959, in which place was the Indian Labour Conference held?
a. Coimbatore
b. Madras
c. Mumbai
d. Delhi
10. In which year was the central Industrial Relations Machinery set up?
a. 1945
b. 1956
c. 1965
d. 1972

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Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 - MCQs with answers - Part 1
i. Bonus is an ex - gratia payment.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Bonus is not an ex - gratia payment but the statutory right of the
employee.
2. Which formula was given by labour appellate tribunal for the calculation of
bonus?
a. Full bench formula

b. Accrual formula
c. Rounding formula
3. In which year did the government set up the tripartite commission?
a. 1951
b. 1972
c. 1961
d. 1965
4. The bonus act is the outcome of the recommendation made by the

_________.
a. State government
b. Central government
c. Labour Court
d. Tripartite commission
5. On which date was the bonus act implemented by the government?
a. 2nd September, 1980

b. 2nd September, 1965
c. 1st September, 1965
d. 3rd September, 1965
6. The act is not applicable to _______ except those operating in competition

with similar other private undertakings.
a. Public enterprises
b. Private enterprises
c. Factories
d. Banks except RBI and LIC
7. Which section in the act deals with the computation of available surplus?
a. Section 3
b. Section 3A
c. Section 5
d. Section 1
i. Under section 32 of income tax act, any amount by way of depreciation admissible
in accordance is deductible from the gross profit calculation.
a. True
b. False
9. Complete the formula used for calculating bonus for basic salary which is
more than 3500.
Bonus = _______ * (Bonus Months)* 20%
a. Basic salary
b. Ex gratia
c. 3500
d. 8400
10. As per the act what is the minimum number of days an employee must
have worked in an establishment to be eligible for bonus?
a. 240 working days

b. 30 working days
c. 120 working days
d. 365 working days

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Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 - MCQs with answers - Part 2
1. On what grounds an employee will be disqualified from getting bonus?
a. Fraud
b. Riotous or violent behaviour while on the premises
c. Theft, misappropriation or sabotage of any property of the establishment
d. All of the above
2. What is the minimum amount of bonus paid to an employee?
a. 8.33%
b. 8.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.3%
3. The maximum amount of bonus to be paid in an accounting year as per

section 10 of this act is ____.
a. 8.33%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 15%
i. Where the salary or wages of an employee exceeds 2500 rupees per month the
bonus payable as per section 10 of the act shall be calculated on 2500 rupees per
month only.
a. True
b. False
5. Which section deals with the computation of number of working days?
a. Section 10
b. Section 11
c. Section 13
d. Section 14
i. If any employee is found guilty of misconduct causing financial loss to the

employer, then it is lawful for the employer to deduct the amount of loss from the
amount of bonus payable by him to the employee.
a. True
b. False
7. What is the mode of paying bonus to the employeeâ€™s as specified in the

act?
a. Cash
b. Cheque
c. Account transfer
d. In kind
8. The payment of bonus shall be made within ______ from the date on which
the award becomes enforceable or the settlement comes into operation where
there is dispute regarding payment of bonus.
a. 15 days
b. On the day of settlement
c. 1 month
9. Match the following particulars with their respective sections in the Act.
1. Cognizance of offences ---- a. Section 28

2. Inspectors ---------------- b. Section 2
3. Penalty ------------------- c. section 30
4. Definitions -------------- d. section 27
a. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

b. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
c. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
d. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
10. The payment of bonus should be made within a period of _____ months
from the close of the accounting year.
a. 2 months
b. 6 months
c. 8 months

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Payment of Wages Act, 1936 - MCQs with answers
1. In which year was the first suggestion for the legislation in the act made?
a. 1934
b. 1925
c. 1936
d. 1937
2. The first suggestion for legislation in the act was made by a private
member's bill called __________.
a. Legislative Bill
b. Wages Bill
c. Weekly Payment Bill
3. Choose the correct date and year on which payment of wages act was
passed?
a. 23rd April, 1936

b. 28th March, 1937
c. 25th April, 1937
d. 27th April, 1936
4. In which year did the payment of wages act come into force?
a. 23rd April, 1925

b. 28th March, 1940
c. 23rd April, 1936
d. 28th March, 1937
5. The power is vested in the ____________ to make the act applicable to

payment of wages to any class of persons employed in any establishment or
class of establishments specified in section 2(h) by giving 3 month's notice to
that effect.
a. Central Government
b. Acting Government
c. State Government
d. Judicial Court

i. In a factory if a person has been named as manager of the factory under the
clause (f) of sub section 1 of section 7 of the factories act, he is responsible to make
the payments of the employees.
a. True
b. False
7. What is the maximum wage period for the payment of wages?
a. 1 month
b. 40 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
8. In any factory or industrial establishment where less than 1000 employees

are employed the wages shall be paid before the expiry of the ____ day.
a. 10th day
b. 2nd day
c. 7th day
9. Which of these deductions under section 7 of payment of wages act is not

authorised?
a. Deduction for Fines

b. Deduction for payment of Income tax
c. Deduction for Payment of insurance
d. Deduction for payment of uniform and property

10. What is the maximum limit of fine to be imposed on an employee?
a. Should not exceed an amount equal to 5% of the wages payable

b. Should not exceed an amount equal to 1% of the wages payable
c. Should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable
d. Should not exceed an amount equal to 10% of the wages payable
11. Which section of the act covers deduction for damage or loss?
a. Section 10
b. Section 9
c. Section 12
d. Section 7
12. Match the following deductions with their respective sections
1. Deduction for recovery of loans --------- A. Section 12 A

2. Deduction from wages ----------------- B. Section 9
3. Deduction for services rendered --------- C. Section 7
4. Deductions from absence of duty --------- D. Section 11
a. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

b. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
c. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a
d. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
13. A single application may be presented under section ___ on behalf or in

respect of any number of employed persons.
a. Sub section 3 of section 15

b. Section 15
c. Section 14
d. Section 10
14. What is the penalty for those who contravene the provision of section 4
sub section (4) of section 5 or 10 or 25?
a. 500 Rupees
b. 5000 Rupees
c. Upto 500 Rupees
15. Which section takes care of payment of undisbursed wages in case of

death of employed person?
a. Section 25A
b. Section 25
c. Section 26
d. Section 22A

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The Trade Unions Act, 1926 - MCQs with answers
1. The Trade Unions Act came into operation from ____.
a. 1st June, 1927

b. 1st May, 1926
c. 1st June, 1926
ANSWER: a. 1st June, 1927
2. In which year's amendment of the act was the word â€˜Indianâ€• removed?
a. 1947
b. 1960
c. 1964
d. 1962
3. The act came into force from ______.
a. 1st June, 1927

b. 1st April, 1965
c. 1st May, 1960
d. 1st April, 1962
i. The act was enacted with the objective of providing for the registration of trade
unions and verification of the membership of trade unions registered so that they
may acquire a legal and corporate status.
a. True
b. False
5. What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in

registering themselves as a union?
a. 7
b. 10
c. 5
d. 15
6. Which act in Industrial Relations defines the term trade union?
a. Industrial Trade Resolution, 1962

b. Industrial Policy, 1991
c. The trade union and labour relations (consolidation) Act, 1992
d. The industrial Employment Act, 1946
7. Which section of the act deals with the registration of the trade unions?
a. Section 8
b. Section 7
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
i. The registrar has the right to cancel the registration of the union if he is satisfied
that the certificate has been obtained by fraud or mistake.
a. True
b. False

9. Which of the following acts do not apply to the registered trade unions?
a. The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912

b. The Societies Registration Act, 1860
c. The Companies Act, 1956
d. All of the above
10. Which of the following is an object on which general funds could be spent
as per section 15 of the act?
a. Payment to buy goods required for the enterprise
b. Payment of employees in the factory establishment
c. The payment of expenses for the administration of trade union or any

member thereof
d. All of the above
i. A person who has attained the age of 10 years can be a member of a registered
trade union subject to any rules of the trade union.
a. True
b. False
12. On which of the following grounds an office bearer or executive of the

trade union be disqualified?
A. Has been convicted by the court of any offence involving moral turpitude
B. Has not attained the age of 18 years
C. Is not working with any establishment
a. A & B
b. A & C
c. B & C
d. A, B and C
13. How many member's consent is required to change the name of the
registered trade union?
a. 1/4th of the total members

b. 3/4th of the total members
c. Half of the total members
d. 2/3rd of the total member
14. How many percentage of votes should be recorded when amalgamating 2

or more registered trade unions?
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 75%
15. How many members should sign the notice of dissolution?
a. 5 members and the secretary of the trade union

b. 10 members and the secretary of the trade union
c. 20 members and the secretary of the trade union
d. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union
16. On what grounds can a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member?
a. Because of goodwill
b. Because of misconduct
c. Because of change in job
Reason: Section 174 of the Trade union 7 Labour Relation Act 1992 lists the
situations.
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Trade Union Movement in India - MCQs with answers - Part 1
1. Trade unions are the principal schools in which the workers learn the lesson of
_______ and ______.
a. Spirit of combination and class - consciousness

b. Social evils and exploitation
c. Self - reliance and solidarity
ANSWER: c. Self - reliance and solidarity
2. In which year did the labour movement start in India?
a. 1875
b. 1918
c. 1939
d. 1945
ANSWER: a. 1875
i. Labour movement is "by the worker" whereas the trade union movement is "for the worker"
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: It is vice - versa, labour movement is "for the people" whereas trade
union movement is "by the people".
4. In which year did the trade union movement start in India?
a. 1975
b. 1939
c. 1935
d. 1918
ANSWER: d. 1918
5. The trade union movement were at a disadvantage in an age when the __________
held the field.
a. Rege committee
b. First world war
c. Doctrine of Laissez faire
ANSWER: c. Doctrine of Laissez faire

6. In how many periods can you divide the growth and development of trade union
movement in India?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 3
d. 8
ANSWER: b. 6
7. Which 2 Indian Humanitarians who themselves were factory workers drew the
governmentâ€™s attention towards unhappy working conditions of labourers in 1875
and 1884?
a. Sorabjee Shapurji Bengali & N.M. Lokhandey

b. S.N. Banerjee & Punekar
c. Lokamanya Tilak & Mill owners associations
ANSWER: a. Sorabjee Shapurji Bengali & N.M. Lokhandey
8. Match the following periods of trade unions with respective years
1. Second world war -------------- A. 1939 - 1945

2. Post - independence period ---- B. 1947 - to date
3. Social welfare period -------- C. 1918 - 1924
4. Early trade union period ------ D. 1875 - 1918
5. Left wing trade unionism period --- E. 1924 - 1934
6. Trade unions' unity period ------- F. 1935 - 1938
a. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c, 5-e, 6-f

b. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-e, 5-d, 6-f
c. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d, 5-e, 6-f
d. 1-b, 2-c, 3-f, 4-e, 5-a, 6-d

ANSWER: a. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c, 5-e, 6-f
9. Which year saw the history of modern industrialism in India?
a. 1918
b. 1875
c. 1850
d. 1904
ANSWER: c. 1850
10. Who formed Bombay Millhands Association and in which year?
a. Sorabjee shapurjee Bengali in 1980

b. N.M Lokhandey in 1890
c. Social Service League in 1910
ANSWER: b. N.M Lokhandey in 1890
Trade union Movement in India - MCQs with answers - Part 2
1. What was the name of the newspaper published for the working class?
a. Svadesh Vatsal
b. Dinbhandhu
c. Indian spectator
d. Sind Times
ANSWER: b. Dinbhandhu
2. From the below mentioned options which of the organisation was formed during
the period 1879 â€“ 1881?
a. British Indian Association

b. Satyashodhak Samaj
c. Theosophical society in Madras
d. Union of Calcutta
ANSWER: a. British Indian Association
3. Which were the two main factors responsible for the slow and steady growth of the
movement?
A. Slow and gradual proletarisation

B. Weakness and disability of the Indian working class
C. Illiteracy amongst the Indian working class
a. A & C
b. B & C
c. A, B & C
d. A & B
ANSWER: d. A & B
4. Why were most of the organisations unstable and loose in nature?
a. They lacked unity

b. They lacked definite aims and constitution
c. They lacked support from the acting government
ANSWER: b. They lacked definite aims and constitution

i. The early leadership was provided by 3 types of people namely, the intellectuals,
careerists and politicians and nationalists.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
6. Which year marked the regulation period under the social welfare period?
a. 1875 - 1891
b. 1891 - 1917
c. 1917 - 1919
ANSWER: a. 1875 - 1891
7. I. L. O was established in the year ____.
a. 1917
b. 1918
c. 1924
d. 1919
ANSWER: d. 1919
8. Who initiated the textile labour association and in which year?
a. Lokmanya Tilak in 1921

b. Mahatma Gandhi in 1920
c. B.P. Wadia in 1920
d. Annie Besant in 1920
ANSWER: b. Mahatma Gandhi in 1920
9. What is the full form of AITUF?
a. All International Trade Union Federation

b. All India Trade Union Forum
c. All India Trade Union Federation
ANSWER: c. All India Trade Union Federation
10. In which year did the Second World War break out?
a. 1939
b. 1945
c. 1947
d. 1937
ANSWER: a. 1939
11. In which year was the Indian National Trade Union Congress formed?
a. 1947
b. 1950
c. 1948
d. 1935

ANSWER: c. 1948
i. All India Trade Union Congress was established in December 1948.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: All India Trade Union Congress was established in the year 1920.
13. Which of these politicians attended the All India Trade Union Congress Meet?
a. Annie Besant
b. Motilal Nehru
c. Vallabh Bhai Patel
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above
14. In which city did the United Trade Union Committee meet again to form a new
union under the name of United Trade Union Congress?
a. Calcutta
b. Bombay
c. Delhi
d. Coimbatore

ANSWER: a. Calcutta
15. Match the following Trade unions with their correct objectives
1. To establish just industrial relations --------- A. Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh
2. To establish a socialist state in India----------- B. United Trade Union Congress
3. To bring about unity in the trade union movement--- C. All - India Trade Union Congress
4. The right to strike------------------------------- D. The Indian National Trade Union Congress
a. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

b. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
c. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
d. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
ANSWER: a. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
Factories Act, 1948 - MCQs with answers - Part I
Choose the correct option for the questions below.
1. In which year did factories act come into force?
a. 23rd September, 1948

b. 1st April, 1949
c. 4th April, 1949
d. 12th September, 1948
ANSWER: b. 1st April, 1949
2. How many days in advance does the occupier of a factory premises gives notice of
occupancy to the chief inspector?
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 10 days
d. 25 days
ANSWER: a. 15 days
3. What are the general duties of an Occupier?
A. Maintenance of a plant and system of work in factory are safe, without risks to health.
B. Ensure safety and absence of risks to health in, use, handling, storage and transport of
articles and substances.
C. Specifying the area
D. Defining the local mean time ordinarily deserved therein.
a. D
b. C
c. Only A & B
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Only A & B
4. Which provisions regarding health are mentioned in the sections 11 to 20 in

factories act?
A. Cleanliness
B. Dust and fumes
C. Ventilation and temperature
D. Disposal of wastes
a. Only B & C
b. Only A & D
d. All of the above

5. As per the factories act, after how many years should the factory premises be
painted and refurbished?
a. 5 years
b. 2 years
c. 10 years
d. Annually
ANSWER: a. 5 years
6. As per section 2 in factories act, who will be called as an adult?
a. A person who has completed 21 years of age

b. A person who is less than 19 years of age
c. A person who has completed 24 years of age
d. A person who has completed 18 years of age
ANSWER: d. A person who has completed 18 years of age
7. Section 2(g) under the act defines _______
a. Factory
b. Manufacturing process
c. Worker
d. Occupants
ANSWER: b. Manufacturing process

8. Match the following
1. Approval, licensing and registration of factories ----a.) Section 18

2. Arrangements for drinking water ------------ b.) Section 35
3. Maintenance of buildings ------------------- c.) Section 6
4. Protection of eyes ------------------------- d.) Section 40A
a.) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b
b.) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c
c.) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b
d.) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b
ANSWER: a.) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b
9. If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a
canteen.
a. 250
b. 510
c. 320
d. 100
ANSWER: a. 250
10. Which of the following diseases is not mentioned in the section 89 of factories
act?
a. Anthrax
b. Asbestosis
c. Phosphorus
d. Pneumonia
ANSWER: d. Pneumonia
Factories Act, 1948 - MCCQs with answers - Part II
Choose the correct option for the questions below
1. As per section 94, a person who repeats an offence, he shall be punishable with an
imprisonment for a term which may extend upto ______ years and fine which shall not
be less than 10,000 Rs but which may extend upto _______ or both.
a. 3 years/ 2,00,000 Rs
b. 5 years/ 1,20,000 Rs
c. 2 years/ 2,50,000 Rs
d. 4 years/ 3,00,000 Rs
ANSWER: a. 3 years/ 2,00,000 Rs
2. If a company has _____ number of employees, then the appointment of a safety

officer is mandatory under the factories act.
a. 500
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10000
ANSWER: c. 1000
3. Which of the following is an obligation of the employer is as mentioned in the

factories act?
A. Provide all benefits and facilities to the workers regarding annual leave, weekly holidays,
and extra wages for overtime, washing, first aid, canteens, crÃ¨ches, rest and lunch rooms.
B. Applicable to all workers
C. To prevent haphazard growth of factories through the provisions related to the approval of
plans before the creation of a factory.
D. To ensure adequate safety measures and to promote the health and welfare of the
workers employed in factories.
a. Only C
b. Only A
c. B, C and D
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b. Only A
Reason: All except option "A" are the objectives of the act.
4. Fitness certificate granted under "sub section 2" of the act is valid for how many
months?
a. 10 months
b. 24 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
ANSWER: d. 12 months
5. From the below mentioned options, which of the following is not mentioned under
the welfare provision in the factories act?
a. Canteen
b. Creches
c. Drinking water
d. First aid
ANSWER: c. Drinking water
6. Which section of the act covers the topic annual leave with wages?
a. Section 27
b. Section 5
c. Section 86
d. Section 79
ANSWER: d. Section 79
7. How many hours in a week can an adult work as per factories act?
a. 9 hours
b. 56 hours
c. 34 hours
d. 48 hours
ANSWER: d. 48 hours
8. State true or false for the below given statement.
i. Under sub section 2A, the state government by notification in the gazette can appoint only
one of each, i.e. chief inspector, joint chief inspectors, inspectors and deputy chief
inspectors.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: The state government can appoint any number of chief inspectors, joint
â€“ chief inspectors, inspectors and deputy chief inspectors.
9. If there are 100 workers in a factory, then one seat is allotted to how many workers
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 75
ANSWER: a. 25
10. Section 99 of factories act deals with which of the following options?
a. Appeal
b. Penalty for permitting double employment of a child
c. Display of notice
d. Penalty for obstructing inspectors
ANSWER: b. Penalty for permitting double employment of a child
Factories Act, 1948 - MCQs with answers - Part III
Choose the correct option for the questions below
1. Choose the correct option that states the type of leave facilities for a worker
mentioned in the factories act?
a. Maternity leave
b. Casual leave
c. Annual leave with wages as per factories act
d. National & Festival Holidays
ANSWER: c. Annual leave with wages as per factories act

2. State true or false for the below mentioned statement.
i. A young person between 15 to 18 years of age is not allowed to work on any dangerous
machine.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
A young person between 15 to 18 years of age is not allowed to work on any

dangerous machine without training or supervision. If supervision or adequate
training is given then they will be allowed to work.
3. What is the maximum amount of fees to be paid for licensing process?
a. 5 years
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. 7 years
ANSWER: a. 5 years
4. Which section of the factories act covers the list of diseases given in the schedule?
a. Section 3
b. Section 25
c. Section 87
d. Section 89
ANSWER: d. Section 89
5. Under section 106, a complaint must be filed within ____ months of the date when
the commission of the offence came to the knowledge of an inspector.
a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 1 months
d. 12 months
ANSWER: b. 3 months
6. Section 76 empowers the state government to make rules for _____
a. The period of work for all children employed

b. Fitness certificate to work in a factory
c. Canteen facilities
d. Prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in
factories
ANSWER: d. Prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons

for working in factories
7. Which of the below mentioned provisions come under safety provisions?
a. Lighting
b. CrÃ¨che
c. Self â€“ acting machinery
d. Ventilation and Temperature
ANSWER: c. Self â€“ acting machinery
8. Choose the correct option that states the duties of a certifying surgeon as per
section 10(4) of the factories act.
A. Examination and certification of young persons
B. Examination of persons working in factories engaged in dangerous occupations as may

be specified in the act.
C. Exercising of medical supervision as may be prescribed for any factory or class where
young persons are or are about to be employed in any work which is likely to cause injury to
their health.
a. Only A
b. Only B & C
d. All of the above
9. Fill in the blanks to complete the following statement.
i. Where work of the same kind is carried out by two or more sets of workers working during
different periods of the day, each of such set is called ______.
a. Relay
b. Shift
c. Group
d. Co- worker
ANSWER: a. Relay
10. In cubic meters how much space is allotted to each worker after the
commencement of factories act?
a. 9.5
b. 10
c. 14.2
d. 12.4
ANSWER: c. 14.2
Maternity Act, 1961 - MCQs with answers - Part I
1. _____________ means in relation to an establishment being a mine (or an

establishment wherein persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrian,
acrobatic and other performances) the Central government and in relation to any
other establishment.
a. Employer
b. Appropriate government
c. Establishment
d. Factory
ANSWER: b. Appropriate government
2. In the maternity act, an inspector is appointed under which section?
a. Section 14
b. Section 2
c. Section 10
d. Section 15
ANSWER: a. Section 14
3. What is the minimum number of days that a woman should have worked in an
establishment before claiming the maternity benefit?
a. 365 days
b. 120 days
c. 80 days
d. 240 days
ANSWER: c. 80 days
4. What is the maximum period for which any woman is entitled to maternity benefit?
a. 6 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 18 weeks
d. 24 weeks
ANSWER: b. 12 weeks
5. What is the amount of medical bonus entitled to a woman who is also entitled to
receive maternity benefit?
a. 250 rupees
b. 500 rupees
c. 1000 rupees
d. 100 rupees
ANSWER: a. 250 rupees
6. The maternity benefit act's objectives were achieved by the enactment of

_______________
a. Factories Act, 1948

b. Payment of wages act, 1936
c. Employees State Insurance Act of 1948
d. Standing orders act, 1946
ANSWER: c. Employeesâ€™ State Insurance Act of 1948
7. In which year did the amendment act come into force?
a. 1996
b. 1961
c. 1998
d. 1976
ANSWER: a. 1996
8. Which section of the act states the conditions for eligibility of benefits?
a. Section 18
b. Section 5
c. Section 10
d. Section 8
ANSWER: b. Section 5
9. Till what age of the child will a mother get 2 nursing breaks in the course of her
daily work?
a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 18 months
d. 15 months

ANSWER: d. 15 months
10. How many weeks in advance a written notice for maternity leave has to be given to
the employer by the expecting women?
a. 4 weeks
b. 7 weeks
c. 1 week
d. 8 weeks
ANSWER: b. 7 weeks
Maternity Act, 1961 - MCQs with answers - Part II
1. State true or false:
i. Section 10 discusses about the leave for illness arising out of pregnancy.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
2. State the objectives of the act?
a. To regulate the employment of women workers in such establishments for certain period
before and after child birth.
b. Application of act in every establishment being a factory, mine or plantation
c. To provide satisfactory conditions to expectant women
d. All of the above

ANSWER: a. To regulate the employment of women workers in such
establishments for certain period before and after child birth.
3. As per section 18, if an employer discharges or dismisses a woman during or on

account of her absence from work during the maternity leave, then what is the
punishment faced by an employer?
a. 3 months or more and will extend to 1 year

b. 6 months or more and will extend to 2 years
c. 3 months or more and will extend to 2 years
ANSWER: a. 3 months or more and will extend to 1 year
4. As per section 9, for how many weeks a woman is entitled for leave in case of a
miscarriage?
a. 3 weeks
b. 9 weeks
c. 1 week
d. 6 weeks
ANSWER: d. 6 weeks
5. State true or false:

i. Section 17 describes the obligations of the employer under the maternity benefit act.
a. True
b. False

ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Section 19 states the obligations of the employer under the maternity
benefit act.
The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 -

MCQs with answers - Part I
1. Industrial employment standing orders act is applicable in every industrial

establishment where ____ workmen are employed.
a. 200
b. 150
c. 100
d. 50
ANSWER: c. 100
2. An authority who is appointed by the appropriate government by notification

in the official Gazette to exercise in such area as may be specified?
a. Appellate Authority
b. Certifying officer
c. Acting officer
ANSWER: a. Appellate Authority

3. Section 2 of payment of wages act, 1936 defines ______
a. Industrial establishment
b. Wages
c. Workman
d. Amendments
ANSWER: a. Industrial establishment
4. What is the time frame in which the employer shall submit 5 copies of the
draft standing orders proposed by him for adoption in his industrial
establishment?
a. 1 month from the date on which standing orders act becomes applicable
b. 12 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes applicable
c. 18 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes applicable
d. 6 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes applicable
ANSWER: d. 6 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes
applicable
5. Which of the following is an additional matter to be provided as per the act

relating to all industrial establishments in coal mines?
A. Transfers
B. Service certificate
C. Exhibition and supply of standing orders
D. Railway travel facilities
a. Only A
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
6. Section 10B in the act deals with ______
a. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to all industrial

establishments
b. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to all industrial

establishments in coal mines
c. Prescribed particulars of workmen
ANSWER: a. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to

all industrial establishments
7. As per sub - section 3 of section 5 the standing orders shall come into
operation on the expiry of ______ days from the date on which authenticated
copies are sent.
a. 30 days
b. 7 days
c. 15 days
d. 5 days
ANSWER: a. 30 days
8. In which language is the text of the standing orders posted on the notice
boards?
a. English or that is understood by majority of the workmen

b. Only English
c. Language as understood by the workmen
ANSWER: a. English or that is understood by majority of the workmen
9. How many copies have to be submitted to the certifying officer while making
any modifications in the standing orders?
a. 10
b. 4
c. 5
d. 2
ANSWER: c. 5
10. Which section takes care of payment of subsistence allowance in standing

orders act?
a. Section 10
b. Section 1
c. Sub section 1
d. Section 10A
ANSWER: d. Section 10A
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The Industrial Employment (standing orders) Act, 1946 -

MCQs with answers - Part II
1. What is the rate of wage (in percentage) that an employee gets during the
subsistence period in case of delay in the completion of disciplinary proceedings?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 80%
ANSWER: b. 75%
Reason: 50% wages are given immediately after the date of suspension for the
first 90 days of suspension
2. In case of a dispute regarding the suspense allowances, to whom does the

employer or the workman refer?
a. Adjudicator
b. Court of enquiry
c. Conciliation
d. Labour Court
ANSWER: d. Labour Court
3. What is the amount of fine paid by the employer wherein he fails to submit the draft
standing orders as per section 3?
a. 5000 Rupees
b. 200 Rupees
c. 1000 Rupees
d. 10000 Rupees
ANSWER: a. 5000 Rupees
4. As per section 13, if the employer continues with the offences of non - submission
of the draft model standing orders, he pays a fine of ____________ Rupees per day.
a. 5000 + 200 Rupees daily

b. 200 Rupees
c. 5000 Rupees
d. 100 Rupees
ANSWER: b. 200 Rupees
5. Which section deals with sections in which standing orders act is not applicable in
certain industrial establishments?
A. 13
B. 13B
C. 13C
D. 13A

ANSWER: B. 13B
6. Which amongst the following is/ are the matter to be provided in the standing
orders?
A. Attendance and late coming

B. Shift working
C. Adequate working conditions
D. Water facility
a. Only A
b. Only D
c. Both A & B
d. Both A & D
ANSWER: c. Both A & B
7. Which sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure takes care of the powers of
certifying officers and appellate authorities?
a. 345 & 346

b. 321 & 322
c. 350 & 351
ANSWER: a. 345 & 346

100 + Important Questions on Indian
Evidence Act for Competitive Exams
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100 + Important Questions on Indian Evidence Act for

Competitive Exams!
1. When does the doctrine of implied admission can be
invoked under Section 58, Indian Evidence Act?
A. it can be invoked, when a party on whom the burden lies, fails to
state facts in support of his plea
B. it can be invoked, when the facts specifically alleged by a party in
support of his plea are not denied by the other party
C. it can be invoked only against a party who is under an obligation
to allege certain facts
D. all of them
Ans. D
2. Which are some of the instances where conduct was
admitted as relevant?
I. fabricating false evidence
II. antedating a document to support a plea of alibi
III. having possession of stolen properties
IV. expressions of fear or disturbed state of mind
V. when the accused was confronted in a bribe case and was called
upon to produce the money, hesitation, perspiring, trembling, and
things like that are relevant
VI. making attempts to conceals one identity
VII. where a clerk was charged for embezzlement
A. I, III and IV
B. II, V and VII
C. IV and VI
D. all of them
Ans. D
3. Under which of the following occasion on which refusal
to permit a candidate to appear in an examination do not
attract estoppel?
I. where a person who practices fraud or makes a misstatement or
suppresses material facts
II. where there is some technical defect in the filling of the form or
where there was a deficiency in attendance, which deficiency or
defect could not be condoned by the authorities in exercise of
discretion mentioned under the statute
III. where the candidate was patently ineligible on the particulars
supplied by him as there can be no estoppel against the statute
IV. where the question of eligibility depends upon the interpretation
of a provision of law
A. I, II, IV
B. III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
4. Which of the following must be borne in mind by the
Court, with respect to identifying witnesses, to determine
whether they are worthy of being relied on?
A. the number of wrong persons picked out by the identifying
witnesses
B. the consistency of the identification made at different times
C. sufficiency of men on parade
D. all of them
Ans. D
5. Which of the following is a type of principal fact in
issue?
A. those which are in issue as an matter of substantive law
B. those which are in issue as a matter of law of evidence itself
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
6. Which of the following is not applicable to taxation
matters?
A. estoppel by record
B. estoppel by deed
C. estoppel in pais
D. all of them
Ans. A
7. Which of the following is true of Section 42, Indian
Evidence Act?
A. judgments relating to matters of public nature are declared
relevant, whether between the same parties or not
B. it forms an exception to the general rule that no one shall be
affected or prejudiced by judgment to which he is not party or privy
C. it admits as evidence all judgment inter partes would operate as
res judicata in a second
D. all of them
Ans. D
8. Which of the following section of C.P.C is used to deter-
mine a foreign judgment rendered in a civil proceeding in
India?
A. Section 13
B. Section 14
C. Section 15
D. Section 16
Ans. A
9. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence
Act deals with relevancy of statements as to any law con-
tained in law books?
A. Section 38
B. Section 40
C. Section 45
D. Section 31
Ans. A
Act deals in civil cases, character to prove and conduct
imputed upon him is irrelevant?
A. Section 55
B. Section 49
C. Section 56
D. Section 52
Ans. D
Act deals with admissions in civil cases, when relevant?
A. Section 12
B. Section 23
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
Ans. B
12. The expression “facts in issue” is used in which of the
following sections:
A. Section 5 and Section 6
B. Section 7 and Section 8
C. Section 9 and Section 11
D. All of them
Ans: D
13. The principle of approbate and probate is based on the
maxim:
A. allegans contraia non est audiendus
B. allegans falsum non est audiendus
C. allegans factum uno non est audiendus
D. None of them
Ans: A
14. The proviso of Section 50, Indian Evidence Act, does
not include with which of the following?
A. Section 304-B, IPC
B. Section 303-B, IPC
C. Section 302-B, IPC
D. Section 301-B, IPC
Ans: A
15. The question is, whether A has a right to a fishery.
Applying Section 13, Indian Evidence Act which of the
following facts can be relevant?
A. A deed conferring the fishery A’s ancestors, a mortgage of the
fishery by A’s father
B. A subsequent grant of the fishery by A’s father, irreconcilable
with the mortgage, particular instances in which A’s father
exercised the right, or in which A’s father exercised the right, or in
which the exercise of the right was stopped by A’s neighbours
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
16. Under the head subsequent conduct, which of the
following types of conduct would be material?
A. Change of life
B. Evasion of justice
C. Fear, trembling
D. All of them
Ans: D
17. The question is, whether a certain document is the will
of A. Applying Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the
following facts can be relevant?
A. The facts that, not long before the date of the alleged will, A made
inquiry into matters to which the provisions of the alleged will
relate
B. A consulted vakils in reference to making the will
C. A caused drafts of other wills to be prepared of which he did not
approve
D. All of them
Ans: D
18. When can it be said that a person commits or attempts
to commit a crime?
A. When he intends to commit that particular offence
B. When he, having made preparations and with the intention to
commit the offence does an act towards the commission
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
19. Section 32 (1), Indian Evidence Act, has been enacted
by the legislature advisedly:
A. As a matter of necessity
B. As an exception to the general rule that, “hearsay evidence” is no
evidence and the evidence
C. Which cannot be tested by cross – examination of a witness is not
admissible in the Court of law
D. All of them
Ans: D
20. Which of the following guidelines have been laid down
by the Supreme Court for the recording of confession
under TADAA?
I. The confession should be recorded in a free atmosphere in the
same language in which the person is examined and as narrated by
him
II. The person from whom confession has been recorded under
Section 15 (1) of the TADA Act should be produced before the Chief
Metropolitan Magistrate or the Chief Judicial Magistrate to whom
the confession is required to be sent under Rule 15 (5) along with
the original statement of confession
III. The Chief Metropolitan Magistrate of the Chief Judicial
Magistrate should scrupulously record the statement, if any, made
by the accused so produced and get his signature or in case of any
complaint of torture, the person should be directed to be produced
for medical examination before a Medical Officer not lower in the
rank than that of an Assistant Civil surgeon
IV. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Cr. PC, no Police
Officer below the rank of an Assistant Commissioner of police or a
police officer or equivalent rank, should investigate any offence
punishable under TADA Act
V. The Police Officer, if he is seeking the custody of any person for
pre- indictment or pre – trial interrogation from the judicial
custody, must file an affidavit sworn by him explaining the reason
not only such custody but also for the delay
VI. In case the person taken for interrogation, on receipt of the
statutory warning that he is not bound to make a confession and
that, if he does so, the said statement may be used against him as
evidence, asserts his right to silence, the Police Officer must respect
his right of assertion
A. I, II and III
B. III and IV
C. II, V and VI
D. All of them
Ans: D
21. Which of the following is true of judgment under
Section 41, Indian Evidence Act?
A. It speaks about a judgment which will become applicable only
when a final judgment is rendered
B. Rendition of a final judgment which would be binding on the
whole world being conclusive in nature, shall take a long time
C. As and when a judgment is rendered in one proceeding, subject
to the admissibility thereof keeping in view Section 43 of the Indian
Evidence Act, it may be produced in another proceeding
D. All of them
Ans: D
Act applies only to public documents falling under Section
74, Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 56
B. Section 66
C. Section 76
D. Section 86
Ans: C
Act deals with cases in which secondary evidence relating
to documents may be given?
A. Section 60
B. Section 55
C. Section 42
D. Section 65
Ans: D
Act deals with presumption as to certified copies of
foreign judicial records?
A. Section 86
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
Ans: A
Act deals with presumption as to dowry death?
A. Section 113-B
B. Section 101-A
C. Section 102-B
D. Section 112-B
Ans: A
Act deals with relevancy of statements in maps, charts and
plans?
A. Section 32
B. Section 16
C. Section 36
D. Section 37
Ans: C
Act deals with things said or done by conspirator in
reference to common design?
A. Section 6
B. Section 10
C. Section 12
D. Section 8
Ans: B
Act deals with “who may give evidence of agreement
varying terms of document”?
A. Section 94
B. Section 80
C. Section 86
D. Section 99
Ans: D
Act must be read along with Sections 61, 62, 65 and 67,
Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 54
B. Section 64
C. Section 74
D. Section 84
Ans: B
31. A has been in possession of landed property for a long
time. He produces from his custody deeds relating to the
land, showing his title to it. Applying Section 92, Indian
Evidence Act, which of the following is possible?
A. The custody is proper
B. The custody is improper
C. It is not sufficient to prove his title without other evidence
D. None of them
Ans: A
32. A is accused of a crime. Applying Section 8, Indian
Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. The facts that, either before or at the time of, or after the alleged
crime, A provided evidence which would tend to give to the facts of
the case an appearance favorable to himself
B. That he destroyed or concealed evidence, or prevented the
presence or procured the absence of persons who might have been
witnesses
C. That he suborned persons to give false evidence respecting it
D. All of them
Ans: D
33. According to the following when is a confession
relevant under Section 24, Indian Evidence Act?
A. If it is made after the impression caused by any such inducement,
threat or promise has been fully removed (Section 28, Indian
Evidence Act)
B. If it is not made to a Police Office (Section 25, Indian Evidence
Act)
C. If it is made in the presence of a Magistrate when the accused is
in the custody of a police-officer (Section 26, Indian Evidence Act)
D. All of them
Ans: D
34. Generally speaking oral testimony can be classified as:
A. Wholly reliable
B. Wholly unreliable
C. Neither wholly reliable nor wholly unreliable
D. All of them
Ans: D
35. In England evidence of facts or transmissions similar
to the fact of transaction directly in issue is admissible if it
is logically probative subject to which of the following
exception?
A. Of similar acts done by himself, if they do no more than show a
general disposition, habit or propensity to commit such acts and a
subsequent probability of his having committing the act, or
processed the state of mind in question
B. Of similar acts done by others, similarly circumstanced to
himself, to show that he would be likely to act as they did
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
36. A is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to
be stolen. It is proved that he was in possession of a
particular stolen article. Applying Section 14, Indian
Evidence Act, why, the fact that, at the same time, he was
in possession of many other stolen articles is, relevant/
irrelevant?
A. It is relevant as, it tends to show that he knew each and all of the
articles of which he was in possession to be stolen
B. It is not relevant as, it does not tend to show that he knew each
and all of the articles of which he was in possession to be stolen
C. It is relevant as, it tends to show that he knew who stole the
goods
D. None of them
Ans: A
37. Section 41, Indian Evidence Act mainly deals with:
A. Property related cases of Indian Nationals and executed in India
B. Homicide cases of Indian Nationals and executed in India
C. Wills of Indian Nationals and executed in India
D. None of them
Ans: C
38. Section 44, Indian Evidence Act, states that any
judgment, order or decree which is relevant:
A. Under Sections 35, 37 and 40, Indian Evidence Act can still be
shown by a party to it who was adversely affected by such judgment,
decree or order, to have been delivered by the Court not competent
to deliver it, or it was obtained by fraud or collusion
B. Under Sections 38, 39 and 40, Indian Evidence Act can still be
C. Under Sections 40, 41 and 42, Indian Evidence Act can still be
D. None of them
Ans: C
39. What is prima facie evidence?
I. Evidence that will establish a fact or sustain a judgment unless
contradictory evidence is produced
II. Is such an evidence as in the judgment of the law, is sufficient to
establish the fact, and, if not rebutted, remains sufficient for that
purpose
III. Only means that there is ground for proceeding
IV. Is that which suffices for the proof of a particular fact until
contradicted and overcome by other evidence
V. It means “evidence sufficient to establish title, unless some
person shows a perfect title”
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. all of them
Ans: D
40. The grant of probate under the Indian Succession Act
(XXXIX of 1925):
A. It is not a complete proof of the title of executors and of the
genuineness of the will admitted to probate
B. It is corroborative proof of the title of executors and of the
C. It is conclusive proof of the title of executors and of the
D. None of them
Ans: A
41. The provision of which of the following section of the
Indian Evidence Act is based on the cardinal rule that the
best available evidence should be brought before the
Court?
A. Section 60
B. Section 64
C. Section 91
D. All of them
Ans: D
42. Under Section 65, Clause (C), Indian Evidence Act, in
which of the following way a secondary evidence of a
document which is lost or difficult to trace can be
adduced?
A. By oral evidence of a persons who were present when the
document was executed
B. By a certified copy of the original documents
C. By considering the documents as immaterial
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
43. Under which of the following section of the Indian
Evidence Act the Court may presume existence of certain
facts?
A. Section 140
B. Section 114
C. Section 156
D. Section 116
Ans: B
44. What is judicial evidence?
A. It is that portion of evidence in general which under the rules of
legal procedure is received in Courts as tending to establish the
existence of a fact, involved in an issue, submitted to judicial
determination
B. It is that portion of evidence in general which under the rules of
legal procedure is received in Courts as tending to establish non-
existence of a fact, involved in an issue, submitted to judicial
determination
D. None of them
Ans: C
45. When oral admissions as to contents of electronic
records are relevant which of the following section of the
Indian Evidence Act comes into operation?
A. Section 22A
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
Ans: A
46. Under Section 41, Indian Evidence Act, a judgment,
order or decree, given by a competent Court will be
conclusive proof as to the legal character conferred on, or
taken away from, any person or to which any person is
declared to be entitled, in the exercise of:
I. Probate
II. Matrimonial
III. Admiralty
IV. Insolvency jurisdiction
A. I, III and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. All of them
Ans: D
47. Which of the following is a necessary ingredient for
proving the attestation?
A. Animus attestandi
B. Certiorari
C. Falsus in uno,falsusi omnibus
D. None of them
Ans: A
48. Which of the following is false of Section 90, Indian
Evidence Act?
A. Not to make too difficult for persons relying upon ancient
documents to utilise those documents in proving their case
B. It is intended to do away with the insuperable difficulty of
proving the handwriting, execution and attestation of documents in
the ordinary way after the lapse of many years
C. Presumption under this section can be claimed and drawn at any
stage including the appellate stage
D. Makes provision for any presumption in regard to seals
Ans: D
49. Which of the following is the general principle on
which the evidence of written or verbal statements of
relevant facts are made by the person is admitted is that?
A. They are declarations made in extremity, when the party is at the
point of death and when every hope of this world is gone
B. They are made when every motive to falsehood is silenced
C. They are made when the mind is induced by the most powerful
considerations to speak the truth
D. All of them
Ans: D
Act deals with certified copies of public documents?
A. Section 80
B. Section 82
C. Section 76
D. Section 80
Ans: C
Act deals with grounds of opinion, when relevant?
A. Section 52
B. Section 56
C. Section 51
D. Section 58
Ans: C
Act deals with privilege not waived by volunteering
evidence?
A. Section 100
B. Section 128
C. Section 123
D. Section 121
Ans: B
Act deals with saving of provisions of Indian Succession
Act relating to wills?
A. Section 100
B. Section 110
C. Section 102
D. Section 101
Ans: A
Act deals with the production of documents and
translation of documents?
A. Section 156
B. Section 159
C. Section 157
D. Section 162
Ans: D
55. Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence
Act was not in the Evidence Act of 1855, nor in the
Criminal Procedure Code of 1861?
A. Section 30
B. Section 18
C. Section 12
D. Section 7
Ans: A
56. A hires lodgings of B for a year, and a regularly
stamped agreement, drawn up by an attorney, is made
between them. It is silent on the subject of board.
Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act:
A. A cannot not prove that board was included in the terms verbally
B. A does not prove that board was included in the terms verbally
C. A may not prove that board was included in the terms verbally
D. none of them
Ans: C
57. A produces deeds relating to landed property of which
he is the mortgagee. The mortgagor is in possession.
Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act, which of the
following is possible?
A. The custody is proper
B. The custody is partial
C. The custody needs to justified by other evidence
D. None of them
Ans: A
58. A wishes to prove a dying declaration by B. Applying
Section 104, Indian Evidence Act:
A. A does need to prove B’s death
B. A must prove B’s death
C. Either (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: B
59. According to the practice in England, all facts are
admissible; subject to which of the following condition?
A. The best evidence connecting the fact in issue is admissible
B. No hearsay evidence is admissible
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
60. Chirographum apud debitorem repertum praesumitur
solutum means:
A. An evidence of credit found in the possession of the debtor is
assured to be paid
B. An evidence of debt found in the possession of the creditor is
assured to be paid
C. An evidence of debt found in the possession of the debtor is
presumed to be paid
D. None of them
Ans: C
61. In Section 26, Indian Evidence Act, Magistrate does
not include:
A. Head of a village discharging magisterial functions in the
Presidency of Fort St. George or elsewhere
B. Headman exercising the powers of a magistrate under the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1882
D. None of them
Ans: A
62. Section 15, Indian Evidence Act deals with:
A. Facts bearing on the question whether a particular act was
accidental or intentional
B. Facts whether a particular act was done with a particular
knowledge or intention
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
63. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence
Act are complementary to one another?
A. Section 145, 146 and 153 (3)
B. Section 140, 142 and 150 (2)
C. Section 139, 140 and 149 (2)
D. None of them
Ans: A
64. False evidence is:
A. Whoever, being legally bound by an oath or by any express
provision of law to state the truth
B. Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject,
makes any statement which is false, and which he either knows or
believes to be false
C. Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject,
makes any statement which is false, and which he does not believe
to be true is said to give false evidence
D. All of them
Ans: D
65. In which of the following case a person is competent
witness?
A. In proceedings against the person under Section 107 under
Chapter X to XII of Cr. P.C
B. In proceedings against the person under Section 98 under
Chapter XXVI of Cr. P.C
C. Both (A) and (C)
D. None of them
Ans: C
66. It is proposed to prove a fact (A) which is said to have
been the cause or effect of a fact in issue. There are several
intermediate facts (B, C, and D) which must be shown to
exist before the fact (A) can be regarded as the cause or
effect of the fact in issue. Applying Section 136, Indian
Evidence Act:
A. The Court may permit A to be proved before B, C and D is proved
B. The Court may require proof of B, C and D before permitting
proof of A
D. None of them
Ans: C
67. Upon which of the following maxim Section 79, Indian
Evidence Act proceeds?
A. omina proesumuntur rite esse acta
B. corpus deliciti
C. falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus
D. factum probans
Ans: A
68. Presumption under which of the following section of
the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to petitions for
declarations of nullity of the marriage by reason of
Section 7 and 10 (4) of the Divorce Act?
A. Section 107
B. Section 109
C. Section 110
D. Section 111
Ans: A
69. Section 78 Clause (2) of the Indian Evidence Act deals
with:
A. The proceedings of Legislatures
B. The procedure of police investigations
C. The proceeding of judicial enquiry
D. All of them
Ans: A
70. The provision of which of the following section of the
Indian Evidence Act permits cross-examiner to put
questions which will not only shake the credit of a witness,
but also expose his ethical and moral behaviour, which
may ultimately weigh with the Court, while evaluating that
testimonial evidence?
A. Section 133 (3)
B. Section 139(3)
C. Section 142 (3)
D. Section 146 (3)
Ans: D
71. The question is, whether A has been guilty of cruelty
towards B, his wife. Applying Section 14, Indian Evidence
Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. Expressions of their feeling towards each other shortly before the
alleged cruelty are relevant facts
B. Expressions of their feeling towards each other shortly after the
alleged cruelty are relevant facts
D. None of them
Ans: C
72. The question is, whether A was robbed. Applying
Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following
facts can be relevant?
A. The fact that, soon after the alleged robbery he made a complaint
relating to the offence, the circumstances under which the
complaint was made
B. The terms in which, the complaint was made
C. Though she did not make a complaint however she said that she
had been robbed as a dying declaration
D. All of them
Ans: D
73. What is most important ingredient of Section 27,
Indian Evidence Act, regarding the information given to a
Police Officer by accused person?
A. The person must be trial
B. The person must be in the custody of the a Police Officer
C. The police officer must be the investigating officer
D. None of them
Ans: B
74. Which of the following factors must be kept in mind
by the Court while considering extra-judicial confession?
A. To whom it is made
B. The time and place of making it
C. The circumstances, in which it is made
D. All of them
Ans: D
75. Which of the following is true of Section 10, Indian
Evidence Act?
A. It applied to acts and declarations of one of body of conspirators
in respect of the common design of all
B. Everything said or done by any of the conspirators in furtherance
of the common object is evidence against each all of the parties
concerned, whether they are present or absent
C. It is intended to make evidence communication between different
conspirators, while the conspiracy is going on, with reference to the
carrying out of the conspiracy
D. All of them
Ans: D
76. Which of the following of the Indian Evidence Act
relate more or less to matters of procedure?
A. Section 66 – 73
B. Section 130 and 135
C. Section 136 and 150
D. All of them
Ans: D
Act deals with character of a person as affecting damages?
A. Section 65
B. Section 16
C. Section 55
D. Section 42
Ans: C
Act deals with estoppel of acceptor of bill of exchange,
bailee or licensee?
A. Section 119
B. Section 200
C. Section 117
D. Section 105
Ans: C
Act deals with presumption as to documents thirty years
old?
A. Section 94
B. Section 90
C. Section 86
D. Section 82
Ans: B
Act deals with question not to be asked without reasonable
grounds?
A. Section 139
B. Section 142
C. Section 149
D. Section 163
Ans: C
Act deals with the burden of proving fact to be proved to
make evidence admissible?
A. Section 104
B. Section 101
C. Section 102
D. Section 105
Ans: A
82. If the object of conspiracy has not been achieved and
there is still agreement to do the illegal act?
A. The offence of criminal conspiracy discontinues and Section 9,
Indian Evidence Act applies
B. The offence of criminal conspiracy discontinues and Section 10,
C. The offence of criminal conspiracy continues and Section 11,
D. the offence of criminal conspiracy continues and Section 10,
Ans: C
83. In criminal cases an accused is not a competent
witness however he can be examined under which of the
following section of Cr. P.C?
A. Section 313
B. Section 303
C. Section 302
D. Section 300
Ans: A
84. The procedure of the production of documents in
criminal cases is laid down in:
A. Section 93-96, Cr. PC
B. Section 93-96, Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 93-96, IPC
D. None of them
Ans: A
85. The contents of a lost document can be proved by oral
evidence. It is the effect of which of the following section
of the Indian Evidence Act read together?
I. Section 59
II. Section 61
III. Section 63 (5)
IV. Section 65
A. I, III and IV
B. II and IV
C. I and III
D. All of them
Ans: D
86. Offence consists of:
I. Intention
II. Preparation
III. Attempt
IV. A completed act
A. I, III and IV
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. All of them
Ans: D
87. Which of the following are the indicators in which the
credit of a witness may be impeached?
I. Evidence of persons that the witness is unworthy of credit
II. Proof that the witness has been bribed or has accepted bribe
accepted the offer of a bribe or has received any other corrupt
inducement
III. Former statements inconsistent with the present evidence
IV. General immoral character of the prosecutrix in cases of rape or
attempt to ravish
A. I, II, IV
B. Ill, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. all of them
Ans: D
88. Which of the following is correctly matched?
List—1 (Views on Evidence)
List—2 (Views by)
I. By direct evidence is meant that the existence of a given thing or
fact is proved either by its actual production, or by the testimony or
admissible declaration of someone who has himself perceived it.
a. Wharton
II. Direct evidence is evidence which requires no mental process On
the part of the tribunal of fact in order to draw the conclusion
sought by the proponent of the evidence, other than acceptance of
the evidence itself.
b. Phipson
III. The main function of the rules of evidence is to narrow down the
matter which comes before the Court to the facts relating to those
matters which have a logical probative value in determining the
innocence or guilt of the accused and to prevent giving judgements
based on illogical conclusions and prejudice, and as an aid to the
administration of justice
c. Steve Uglow
IV. Direct evidence is evidence which, if believed, establishes a fact
as an issue.
d. Peter Murphy
A. I—a, II—d, III—c, IV—b
B. I—b, II—d, III—a; IV—c
C. I—b, II—a, III—d, IV—c
D. I—c, II—a, III—d, IV—b
Ans: B
89. Which of the following are the grounds of exclusion of
extrinsic evidence?
A. To admit inferior evidence when law requires superior would
amount to nullifying the law
B. When parties have deliberately put their agreement into writing
D. None of them
Ans: C
90. Which of the following part of Clause (c) of Section 65,
Indian Evidence Act is independent?
A. The first part is independent
B. Second part is independent
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: A
Act deals in criminal proceedings where previous bad
character is not relevant, except in reply?
A. Section 59
B. Section 54
C. Section 49
D. Section 40
Ans: B
Act deals with estoppel of tenant and of licensee of person
in communications?
A. Section 100
B. Section 116
C. Section 112
D. Section 105
Ans: B
Act deals with the power of jury or assessors to put
questions?
A. Section 156
B. Section 178
C. Section 157
D. Section 166
Ans: D
Act deals with presumption as to genuineness of certified
copies?
A. Section 75
B. Section 79
C. Section 69
D. Section 72
Ans: B
Act deals with rules as to notice to produce?
A. Section 68
B. Section 61
C. Section 66
D. Section 69
Ans: C
Act deals with the production of documents which another
person, having possession, could refuse to produce?
A. Section 131
B. Section 120
C. Section 144
D. Section 105
Ans: A
97. A agrees, in writing, to sell a horse to B for 1,000 or
RS. 1,500.” Applying Section 93, Indian Evidence Act:
A. Evidence can be given to show which price was to be given
B. Evidence need not be given to show which price was to be given
C. Evidence cannot be given to show which price was to be given
D. None of them
Ans: C
98. A custom to be recognised by a Court should be:
I. Ancient
II. Continuous and uniform
III. Reasonable
IV. Certain
V. Compulsory and not optional
VI. Peace
VII. Immoral
A. I and III
B. II and V
C. IV and VII
D. all of them
Ans: D
99. A judgment not inter parts, though not coming within
Sections 40 and 42,
A. Would be relevant for certain purposes under Section 11, where it
is relied on to established a right or custom which was previously
created, claimed, modified, recognised, asserted or denied
B. Would be relevant for certain purposes under Section 12, where it
C. Would be relevant for certain purposes under Section 13, where it
D. None of them
Ans: C
100. Abandonment means:
A. The act of intentionally and voluntarily relinquishing a known
right absolutely and unconditionally without vesting it in any other
person
B. The act of intentionally and voluntarily relinquishing a known
person
C. The act of intentionally and voluntarily relinquishing a known
person
D. The act of intentionally and voluntarily relinquishing a known
person
Ans: C
101. Explanation to Section 55, Indian Evidence Act states
in which of the following section of the Indian Evidence
Act that the word ‘character’ includes both reputation and
disposition?
I. Section 52
II. Section 53
III. Section 54
IV. Section 55
A. I, II and IV
B. II and IV
C. I and III
D. All of them
Ans: D
102. Which of the following section of Cr.P.C. does not
rule out the requirements of Section 64 and 65 of the
A. Section 87 (3)
B. Section 88 (3)
C. Section 89 (3)
D. Section 90 (3)
Ans: A
103. A is accused of a crime. Applying Section 8, Indian
Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. The facts that, after commission of the alleged crime, he
absconded or was in possession of property or the proceeds of
property acquired by the crime
B. The facts that, after commission of the alleged crime, he
attempted to conceal things which were of might have been used in
committing it, are relevant
D. None of them
Ans: C
104. A connection of B, Produces deeds relating to lands in
B’s possession which were deposited with him by B for
safe custody Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act,
which of the following is possible?
A. The custody needs requires further evidence
B. The custody is illegal
C. The custody is proper
D. None of them
Ans: C
105. A wishes to prove, by secondary evidence, the
contents of a lost document. Applying Section 104, Indian
Evidence Act:
A. A need not prove that the document has been lost
B. A must prove that the document has been lost
C. Either (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: B
106. Allegatio contra factum non est admittenda means:
A. Where a man has entered into a solemn engagement under his
hand and seal as to certain facts he shall not be permitted to deny
any matter which he has so asserted
B. Where a man has entered into a ceremonial engagement under
his hand and seal as to certain facts he may be permitted to deny
any matter which he has so asserted
C. Where a man has entered into an arrangement under his hand
and seal as to certain facts he may be permitted to modify any
matter which he has so asserted
D. None of them
Ans: A
107. Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise
when irrelevant in criminal proceeding is covered under
which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 12
B. Section 16
C. Section 24
D. Section 18
Ans: C
108. Factum probandum means:
A. facts that are in issue, that are to be proved
B. facts that are in issue does not require proof
D. None of them
Ans: A
109. In which of the following act the word “probate” is
defined?
A. Section 2 (f) of the Indian Succession Act
B. Section 3 (g) of the Indian Succession Act
C. Section 4 (h) of the Indian Succession Act
D. Section 5 (i) of the Indian Succession Act
Ans: A
110. On what strict condition the operation of Section 10,
Indian Evidence Act is based?
A. There should be reasonable ground to believe that two or more
persons have conspired together to commit an offence
B. There must be reason to believe that there was a conspiracy and
the accused persons were members of that conspiracy
C. There should be prima facie evidence in support of the
conspiracy between two accused
D. All of them
Ans: D
111. Section 32, Indian Evidence Act refers to which of the
following kind of statements?
A. When the statement is made by a person as to the cause of his
death
B. When the statement is made by a person as to any of the
circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death
D. None of them
Ans: C
112. Section 65 A, Indian Evidence Act states:
A. A notice must be given before secondary evidence can be received
under Section 65 A, Indian Evidence Act
B. Notice to produce a document must be in writing
C. Order XI, Rule 15, of the Code of Criminal Procedure Code,
prescribes the kind of notice to produce a document
D. All of them
Ans: D
113. The rule that a judgment in personam is inadmissible
against strangers is subject to the following exceptions in
addition to those already mentioned:
I. When the judgement determines a question of public right and is
admissible as evidence or reputation
II. In bankruptcy proceedings
III. In administration proceedings
IV. To an extent in patent action
A. I, III and IV
B. II and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. All of them
Ans: D
114. Under Section 26, Indian Evidence Act, a confession
made by a person in the custody of the police is admissible
if:
A. It is made to the police officer in the immediate presence of a
Magistrate
B. It is made in the custody of the police officer to a magistrate
C. It is made in the custody of the police officer in the immediate
presence of a Magistrate
D. None of them
Ans: C
115. Under the Indian Evidence Act, matters other than
which of the following statements of witnesses and
documents produced for the inspection of the Court, are
not evidence according to the definition of the Act?
A. A confession or a statement of an accused in a trial; statements
made by the parties when examined otherwise than as witnesses;
demeanour of any witness under examination
B. The result of local investigation or local inspection
C. Material objects other than documents such as weapons, tools
stolen properties etc
D. All of them
Ans: D
116. What are the constituent elements of criminal
conspiracy?
I. An agreement between two or more persons
II. To do an illegal act
III. To do a legal act by illegal means
IV. An overt act done in pursuance of the conspiracy
A. I and IV
B. II and IV
C. IV
D. All of them
Ans: D
117. Which of the following is an exception to the
provisions under Section 91, Indian Evidence Act?
A. When a public officer is required by law to be appointed in
writing, and any officer has acted as such, the writing need not be
proved
B. Wills admitted to probate in India may be proved by the probate
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
118. Which of the following is important under Section 76,
A. The person giving a certified copy must be public officer having
the custody of the document
B. The document is a public document
C. The person who applies for the copy with certificate giving the
date, name etc
D. All of them
Ans: D
119. Which of the following section comes into play when a
witness in under cross-examination?
A. Section 115
B. Section 125
C. Section 135
D. Section 145
Ans: D
Act deals with on whom burden of proof lies?
A. Section 100
B. Section 101
C. Section 102
D. Section 105
Ans: C
Act deals with admissibility of electronic records?
A. Section 70
B. Section 65-B
C. Section 78-B
D. Section 84-A
Ans: B
Act deals with facts relevant when right or custom is in
question?
A. Section 13
B. Section 15
C. Section 19
D. Section 20
Ans: A
Act deals with proof of other official documents?
A. Section 78
B. Section 82
C. Section 71
D. Section 74
Ans: A
Act deals with the production of title-deeds of witness not
party?
A. Section 132
B. Section 121
C. Section 128
D. Section 130
Ans: D
Act deals with what evidence to be given when statement
forms part of a conversation, document, book, or series of
letters or papers?
A. Section 35
B. Section 39
C. Section 38
D. Section 42
Ans: B
Act introduces an exception to the general rule that
confession can be used against the maker of it?
A. Section 42
B. Section 38
C. Section 35
D. Section 30
Ans: D
127. A and B make a contract in writing to take effect upon
the happening of a certain contingency. The writing is left
with B, who sues A upon it. Applying Section 92, Indian
Evidence Act:
A. A cannot show the circumstances under which it was delivered
B. A does not need to show the circumstances under which it was
delivered
C. A may show the circumstances under which it was delivered
D. None of them
Ans: C
128. A is accused of receiving stolen property knowing it to
have been stolen. It is proposed to prove that he denied
the possession of the property. Applying Section 136,
Indian Evidence Act:
A. The relevancy of the denial depends on the identity of the
property
B. The Court may, in its discretion, require the property to be
identified before the denial of the possession is proved
C. The Court may permit the denial of the possession, to be proved
before the property is identified
D. All of them
Ans: D
129. Facts showing existence of state of mind, or of body
or bodily feeling is dealt under which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 12
B. Section 14
C. Section 16
D. Section 10
Ans: B
130. According to Wigmore, the facts which would
normally fall under Section 11, Indian Evidence Act are of
which of the following type of cases:
I. The absence of the person charged at the place of the occurrence
II. The absence of a husband (non-access) – variety of the
proceedings
III. The survival of the alleged deceased person after the supposed
time of death
IV. The doing of a crime by a third person
V. The self – infliction of the harm alleged
A. I and III
B. II and V
C. IV
D. All of them
Ans: D
Multiple Choice Questions on the

Code of Criminal Procedure
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Multiple choice questions on the code of criminal procedure

especially compiled for UPSC, Civil Services, IAS and Indian
Judicial Examinations!
1. For granting pardon under section 306 of the Code of

Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. The witness must not be directly involved in the offence
B. The accused should have been given an opportunity to cross
examine the person getting pardon
C. The person getting pardon need not be in police custody
D. The offence should not be punishable with imprisonment
exceeding 10 years
Ans. C
2. Section 311 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. Is confined to Court witnesses
B. Does not apply to defence witnesses
C. Cannot be exercised after the accused had closed his defence
D. Does not include “accused” as witness
Ans. D
3. An order under section 319 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973-
A. Can only be made on the request of the first informant or one of
the witness
B. Cannot be passed unless at least one prosecution witness has
been examined
C. Cannot be made suo motu
D. Is an administrative order
Ans. B
4. Compounding an offence under section 320 of the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. Can only be done after obtaining the permission from the Court
B. Can only be done by the complainant
C. Cannot result in acquittal of the accused
D. None of these
Ans. D
5. _______ can proceed under section 340 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 and hold a preliminary enquiry.
I. Civil Court
II. Revenue Court
III. Criminal Court
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and I
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
6. Under section 340 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 the Court can-
I. Move suo motu
II. Not move suo motu
III.Move on the application made by a stranger
IV. Move on the application made by one of the parties
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV
Ans. D
7. If a judge dies after writing his judgement but before
delivering it-
A. The judgement will be final as long as the judge has signed it
B. The judgement will be final if his successor comes and delivers it
C. The judgement will be considered merely as an opinion
D. The judgement will be final in criminal proceedings
Ans. C
8. A judgement-
A. Should not contain the name of the victim in case of sexual
offences
B. Includes an order of discharge
C. Must be written in the language understood by the accused
D. In case of acquittal need not direct the accused to be set free
Ans. A
9. The maximum possible compensation awardable under
section 357 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. Depends on the Court in which the case is being tried
B. Cannot exceed the maximum fine possible fine for the offence
C. Cannot exceed Rs 1,00,00,000
D. Depends on the discretion of the judge
Ans. D
10. If the accused is convicted in a criminal case for an
offence under the stature which does not provide for
payment of compensation-
A. The Court cannot award compensation under section 357 of the
CrPC and no civil proceedings are possible
B. The Court cannot award compensation under section 357 of the
CrPC, but other civil remedies are possible
C. The Court can award compensation under section 357 of the
CrPC, but the award will be taken into account in subsequent civil
suits
D. The Court can award compensation under section 357 of the
CrPC, but the award will not be taken into account in subsequent
civil suits
Ans. C
11 .______________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 states that compensation payable to the victim under
section 357-A will be in addition to the compensation
payable under section 326-A or 376-D of the IPC.
A. Section 357
B. Section 357-A
C. Section 357-B
D. Section 357-C
Ans. C
12. Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 deals with provisions regarding treat-
ment of victims of sexual crimes?
A. Section 357
B. Section 357-A
C. Section 357-B
D. Section 357-C
Ans. D
13. An appeal against the judgement of acquittal under
section 378 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. Is not possible
B. Possible as long as made by the accused
C. Can only be filed by the public prosecutor
D. Can only be made to the Supreme Court
Ans. C
14. Section 401 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
I. Allows the Court to convert finding of acquittal into conviction
II. Allows the Court to pardon the convict
III. Does not allow the Court to act suo motu
IV. Is only applicable to High Court
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and III
Ans. B
1973-
A. The Court cannot set aside order of discharge
B. The Court can interfere even after the expiry of the sentence
C. The Court cannot interfere if the accused is dead
D. The Court can review its judgement pronounced on revision in a
criminal case
Ans. B
1973-
A. A total stranger cannot move an application for revision
B. The revision can be done without giving notice to the parties
C. A party who is in contempt of Court cannot be heard
D. The Court cannot interfere if the case is pending
Ans. C
17. The High Court cannot exercise the power under
section 407 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 if-
A. A fair and impartial inquiry or trial is not possible
B. A stranger to the case makes an application
C. It is expedient for the ends of justice
D. It will tend to the general convenience of the witnesses
Ans. B
18. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court
lay down the guidelines for premature release of life
convict?
A. Lanman Naskar v. Union of India
B. Boucher Pierre Andre v. Superintendent, Central Jail
C. Kasmer Singh v. Union of India
D. Raghbir Singh v State of Haryana
Ans. A
19. _________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
deals with the power of the Magistrate to arrest?
A. Section 40
B. Section 44
C. Section 48
D. Section 52
Ans. B
20. _________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
allows a person making arrest to seize offensive weapons.
A. Section 41
B. Section 49
C. Section 52
D. Section 55
Ans. C
21. Akanksha is accused of disobeying a direction of the
law with an intent to save Sonam from punishment. As per
Section 213 Cr. P.C.
A. the charge must set out the disobedience charged
B. the charge must set out the law infringed
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
22. Which of the following section gives power to issue a
warrant in lieu of, or in addition to, a summons and under
which condition it applies?
a. Section 87 Cr. P.C.; (i) the Court believes that the person
summoned has absconded or will fail to turn up, (ii) where he has
without reasonable caused failed to appear
b. Section 88 Cr. P.C.; (i) the Court believes that the person
c. Section 89 Cr. PC.; (i) the Court believes that the person
d. Section 89 Cr. P.C.; (i) the Court believes that the person
Ans. a
23. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for fraudulent removal
or concealment of property, etc., to prevent distribution
among creditors, which section of IPC is applicable?
A. 420
B. 421
C. 424
D. 425
Ans. B
24. Which of the following deals with the order to pay
compensation, when a Court imposes a sentence of fine or
a sentence including death sentence?
A. Section 286 Cr. P.C.
B. Section 357 Cr. P.C.
C. Section 359 Cr. P.C.
D. Section 365 Cr. P.C.
Ans. B
25. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for fraudulent execution
of deed of transfer containing false statement of consid-
eration, which section of IPC is applicable?
A. 414
B. 415
C. 420
D. 423
Ans. D
26. Abhijeet is charged u/s. 242 of the Indian Penal Code
(45 of 1860), with “having been in possession of
counterfeit coin, having known at the time when he
became possessed thereof that such coin was counterfeit”,
the word “fraudulently” being omitted in the charge.
Applying Section 215 Cr. P.C.:
A. If it appears that Abhijeet was in fact misled by this omission, the
error shall be regarded as material
B. If it appears that Abhijeet was deliberately misled by this
omission, the error shall be regarded as material
C. Unless it appears that Abhijeet was in fact misled by this
omission, the error shall not be regarded as material
D. none of them
Ans. C
27. The recording of reasons in writing is a condition
under Section 87 Cr. P.C. is:
A. subsequent to the exercise of the power and is not curable under
B. precedent to the exercise of the power and is curable under
C. precedent to the exercise of the power and is not curable under
D. precedent to the exercise of the power and is curable under
Ans. C
28. Which of the following deals with cases in which bail is
to be taken?
B. Section 287 Cr. PC.
Ans. C
29. Which of the following section deals with victim com-
pensation scheme?
A. Section 280B Cr. P.C.
B. Section 287D Cr. P.C.
C. Section 357A Cr. P.C.
D. Section 289B Cr. P.C.
Ans. C
30. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for fraudulent removal
or concealment of property, which section of IPC is
applicable?
A. 424
B. 420
C. 422
D. 425
Ans. A
31. Which Section of Cr. P.C. overrides Section 72 Cr. PC.?
A. Section 78
B. Section 68
C. Section 58
D. Section 48
Ans: A
32. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for fraudulent execution
of deed of transfer containing false statement of consider-
ation, which section of IPC is applicable?
A.414
B. 415
C. 420
D.423
Ans: D
33. The recording of reasons in writing is a condition
under Section 87 Cr. P.C. is:
A. subsequent to the exercise of the power and is not curable under
B. precedent to the exercise of the power and is curable under
C. precedent to the exercise of the power and is not curable under
D. precedent to the exercise of the power and is curable under
Ans: C
34. Which of the following section deals with victim
compensation scheme?
A. Section 280B Cr. P.C.
B. Section 287D Cr. P.C.
C. Section 357ACr. P.C.
D. Section 289B Cr. P.C.
Ans: C
35. Armaan is charged with cheating Benny, and the
manner in which he cheated Benny is not set out in the
charge, or is set out incorrectly. Armaan defends himself,
calls witnesses and gives his own account of the
transaction. What will the Court infer from this while
applying Section 215 Cr. PC.?
A. the Court may infer from this that the omission to set out the
manner of the cheating is valid
B. the Court may infer from this that the omission to set out the
manner of the cheating is a cognisable offence
C. the Court may infer from this that the omission to set out the
manner of the cheating is not material
D. none of them
Ans: C
36. What do you mean by pursuit?
A. authorising the destruction of corporations for the purpose of
engaging in any lawful enterprise, business, pursuit, or occupation,
is not restricted in meaning to a scheme for making money, but
includes any object consistent with the interest of society
B. authorising the dissolution of corporations for the purpose of
C. authorising the formation of corporations for the purpose of
D. authorising the reconstruction of corporations for the purpose of
Ans: C
37. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for mischief, when the
only loss or damage caused is loss or damage to a private
person, which section of IPC is applicable?
A. 425, 424
B. 426,427
C. 423, 425
D. 426,428
Ans: B
38. When any person who is bound by any bond taken
under this Code to appear before a Court, does not appear,
A. the officer presiding in such Court may issue a warrant directing
that such a person be arrested and produced before him
B. the officer presiding in such Court may cancel the warrant
directing that such a person be simply apprehended by the police
C. the officer presiding in such Court may issue a proclamation
directing that such a person be is absconding and be produced
before him
D. none of them
Ans: A
39. Order to pay costs in non-cognizable cases is covered
under:
Ans: A
40. Atif is charged with the murder of Khuda Baksh on the
21st January, 1882. In fact, the murdered person’s name
was Haidar Baksh, and the date of the murder was the
20th January, 1882. Atif was never charged with any
murder but one, and had heard the inquiry before the
Magistrate, which referred exclusively to the case of
Haidar Baksh. What will the Court infer from this while
applying Section 215 Cr. PC.?
A. the Court may infer from these facts that Atif was not misled and
that the error in the charge was immaterial
B. the Court may infer from these facts that Atif was misled and that
the error in the charge was immaterial
C. the Court may infer from these facts that Atif was misled and that
the error in the charge was material
D. none of them
Ans: A
41. Appearance by public prosecutors comes under:
Ans: A
42. Under Section 320 (1) Cr. P.C. for mischief by killing
or maiming cattle etc. which section of IPC is applicable?
1. 428
2. 422
3. 429
4. 426
Ans: C
43. All but one is false of Section 91 Cr. P.C.?
1. this section is not deemed to affect Sections 123 and 124 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 Of 1872)
2. this section is not deemed to apply to a letter, post card, telegram
or other document or any parcel or thing in the custody of the postal
or telegraph authority
3. this section is not deemed to affect Sections 123 and 124 of the
Bankers’ Book Evidence Act, 1891 (13 of 1891)
4. none of them
Ans: D
44. The provision for special reasons to be recorded in
certain cases is covered under:
Ans: C
45. “A” is accused of a theft on one occasion and of causing
grievous hurt on another occasion. Applying Section 218
Cr. PC.:
A. “A” must be charged and tried for the theft and causing grievous
hurt
B. “A” must be separately charged and separately tried for the theft
and causing grievous hurt
C. “A” can be charged and tried only for the theft
D. none of them
Ans: B
46. Section 41 Cr. P.C. is not controlled by Section 55 Cr.
P.C. as:
A. the arrest is made with a warrant
B. the arrest is without a warrant
C. the arrest affects the investigation
D. all of them
Ans: B
47. Which of the following deals with the Copy of
judgment to be given to the accused and other persons?
Ans: A
48. A commits house-breaking by day with intent to
commit adultery, and commits, in the house so entered,
adultery with B’s wife. Applying Section 220 Cr. P.C.:
A. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of offences u/ss.
451 and 494 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)
B. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of offences u/ss.
C. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of offences u/ss.
D. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of offences
u/ss. 454 and 497 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)
Ans: D
49. Power to summon material witness, or examine
person present is provisioned under:
Ans: C
50. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for house-trespass,
which section of IPC is applicable?
A. 455
B. 446
C. 448
D. 442
Ans: C
51. In which of the following case, a search warrant can be
issued?
A. where the Court has the reason to believe that the person
summoned to produce a document or thing will not produce it
B. where the document or thing is not known to be in the possession
of any person
C. where a general inspection or search is necessary
D. all of them
Ans: D
52. Which of the following deals with the Court of Session
to send copy of finding and sentence to District
Magistrate?
Ans: C
53. A entices B, the wife of C, away from C with intent to
commit adultery, with B and then commits adultery with
her. Applying Section 220 Cr. PC.:
A. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of offences u/ss.
B. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of offences u/ss.
C. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of offences u/ss.
D. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of offences
u/ss. 497 and 498 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)
Ans: D
54. Procedure in case of insolvency or death of surety or
when a bond is forfeited is covered in:
Ans: D
55. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for using a false trade or
property mark, which section of IPC is applicable?
A.483
B. 455
C. 488
D.482
Ans: D
56. Under which Section 107 Cr. P.C. the Magistrate has
power to drop proceedings initiated
A. even after a formal order has been under u/s 111 Cr. P.C. has been
drawn up and before an inquiry under Section 116 Cr. PC.
B. even after a formal order has been under u/s 111 Cr. P.C. has been
drawn up and before an inquiry under Section 118 Cr. P.C.
C. even after a formal order has been under u/s 111 Cr. P.C. has been
drawn up and before an inquiry under Section 120 Cr. P.C.
D. even after a formal order has been under u/s 111 Cr. P.C. has
been drawn up and before an inquiry under Section 122 Cr. P.C.
Ans: A
57. Which of the following deals with the procedure of
presenting the petition of appeal when appellant is in jail?
A. Section 380 Cr. PC.
Ans: C
58. Which of the following is a requisite of a complaint?
I. an oral or a written allegation
II. that some persons known or unknown has committed an offence
III. it must be made to a Magistrate
IV.it must be made with the object that he should take action
A. I and IV
B. II
C. Ill
D. I, II, III, IV
Ans: D
59. Service of summons on witness by post is covered
under:
Ans: C
60. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. theft, by clerk or servant
of property in possession of master for which section of
IPC is applicable?
A.386
B.384
C. 380
D. 381
Ans: D
61. The statements or facts stated by an accused in an
application for plea bargaining:
(a) can be used by the court in any other case against the accused.
(b) can be used in any other case against the accused only with the
permission of the court before which the application for plea
bargaining was made.
(c) cannot be used for any other purpose except for the purpose of
this chapter.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
62. The powers of Magistrate to order person to give
specimen signatures or handwriting has been inserted by
Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005)
under:
(a) section 310A
(b) section 311A
(c) section 312A
(d) section 313A.
Ans. (b)
63. A witness or any other person may file a complaint in
relation to an offence under section 195A of IPC is
provided under_________ of Cr.P.C. as inserted by the
Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 (5 of
2009) with effect from 31-12-2009:
(a) section 195A
(b) section 196A
(c) section 197A
(d) section 198A.
Ans. (a)
64. Every State Government in co-ordination with the
Central Government shall formulate Victim Compensation
Scheme (VCS) for providing fund for compensation to
victims falls under section 357A of Cr.P.C. with effect from
31-12- 2009. This section was inserted by:
(a) Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 (5 of 2009)
(b) Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of
2005)
(c) Criminal Procedure Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 (2 of 2006)
(d) Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2001 (50 of
2001).
Ans. (a)
65. What is true about Criminal Procedure Code in respect
of the offences by criminals other than the offences under
Indian Penal Code:
(a) Criminal Procedure Code cannot be followed
(b) Criminal Procedure Code can be followed only against offences
under Indian Penal Code
(c) Criminal Procedure Code can be followed as it is uniform
procedural law in criminal proceedings
(d) Criminal Laws other than Indian Penal Code have their own
procedural application.
Ans. (c)
66. The term “victim” is defined under:
(a) section 2(w)
(b) section 2(wa)
(c) section 2(u)
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
67. As per section 26 any offence under section 276 and
section 376A to 376D of IPC shall be tried as far as
practicable by a court presided over by:
(a) a woman
(b) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) a High Court Judge.
Ans. (a)
68. Under the provisions of section 198(6) where an
offence under section 676 of IPC consists of sexual
intercourse by a man with his own wife, the wife being
under……….. years of age, no court shall take cognizance
of the offence if more than one year has elapsed from the
date of the commission of the offence:
(a) 13
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 18.
Ans. (d)
69. Payment of compensation to a victim is provided
under:
(a) section 356
(b) section 357
(c) section 357A
Ans. (c)
70. What is about position of Cr. P.C., when former Chief
Justices of India are alleged as corrupted after their
Retirement from Supreme Court:
(a) Cr. P.C. can be applied with the offence to be charged under IPC.
(b) Cr. P.C. can be applied with offence to be charged under
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
(c) Cr. P.C. is silent about to be applied
(d) Cr. P.C. is meant for non-officials only.
Ans. (c)
71. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held
that FIR was not substantive evidence and could only be
used to corroborate its maker:
(a) Union of India v. A. Kumar, AIR 2010 SC 2735.
(b) C. Magesh v. State of Karnataka, AIR 2010 SC 2768.
(c) Anil Kumar v. B. S. Neelakanta, AIR 2010 SC 2715.
(d) Vijeta Gazra v. State, AIR 2010 SC 2712.
Ans. (b)
72. Read the following:
(1) F.I.R. is only a report about the commission of a crime.
(2) F.I.R. in itself is a substantial evidence.
Of the above:
(a) (1) is true, but (2) is false
(b) (1) is false, but (2) is true
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.
Ans. (a)
73. ‘A’ is accused of theft on the occasion and of causing
grievous hurt on another occasion. A must be:
(a) charged separately for theft and for causing grievous hurt
(b) charged jointly for theft and causing grievous hurt
(c) tried jointly for theft and for causing grievous hurt
(d) charged jointly for theft and for causing grievous hurt but tried
separately for those two offences.
Ans. (a)
74. What is the nature of a statement given in NARCO
Test:
(a) It is not an evidence
(b) It is a scientific evidence
(c) It is an oral evidence
(d) It is a circumstantial evidence.
Ans. (c)
75. Consider the following statement(s):
A police officer has the power to arrest any person without an order
from a Magistrate or warrant of arrest, if he has reason to suspect
his complicity in a cognizable offence punishable with
imprisonment which may extend to seven years, provided that he is
satisfied for reasons in writing that such arrest is necessary
(1) to prevent such person from committing any further offence.
(2) for proper investigation of the offence.
(3) to prevent such person from tampering with or causing the
evidence of the offence to disappear.
(4) to compel the absconding co-accused to surrender.
Which of the statements given above are correct:
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1), (2) and (3)
(d) (1), (2), (3) and (4).
Ans. (c)
76. Who among the following is not entitled to claim
maintenance under Section 125, Cr P. Code:
(a) Divorced wife so long as she does not marry
(b) Unmarried sister
(c) Adoptive mother
(d) Illegitimate minor child.
Ans. (b)
77. Which of the following is correct answer:
(i) Provisions of Cr. P.C. do not apply to the State of Jammu and
Kashmir.
(ii) All provisions of Cr. P.C. do not apply to the State of Nagaland.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only (i) is correct.
(b) Only (ii) is correct.
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
Ans. (d)
78. ‘G’, a 17 years old girl, was married to ‘H’. ‘H’ during
the subsistence of the said marriage entered into another
marriage with ‘P’. The court may take cognizance for the
offence of bigamy, if the complaint is brought by:
(a) her father, mother, brother, sister, son or daughter or by her
father’s or mother’s brother or sister
(b) any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption,
with the leave of the court
(c) some other person on her behalf, with leave of Court, but where
there is a guardian appointed in her respect, then only after such
guardian has been heard
(d) all these.
Ans. (d)
79. Under Cr. P.C. where two or more courts have taken
cognizance of the same offence and question arises as to
which of them ought to try that offence, the question shall
be decided
(i) by the Supreme Court
(ii) if the Courts are subordinate to the same High Court by that
High Court
(iii) if the Courts are not subordinate to the same High Court, by the
High Court within the local limits of whose appellate criminal
jurisdiction the proceedings were first commenced
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) all are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Ans. (b)
80. A High Court under its inherent powers conferred
under Section 482 of Cr. P.C. passes the following orders:
(i) It quashes the F.I.R.
(ii) It quashes proceeding of case pending before a criminal court
(iii) It expunges the derogatory remarks against a member of
subordinate court
Having in view the validity of above order choose the
correct answer given below:
(a) Only (i) as valid
(b) (i) and (ii) are both valid
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) all are valid
(d) (i) and (iii) are valid.
Ans. (c)
81. Consider the following statement and choose the
correct answer with the help of code given below:
(i) Investigation is conducted by police officer
(ii) Magistrate cannot interfere in investigation
(iii) Investigation is a judicial proceeding
(iv) Investigation is not a judicial proceeding
Codes:
(a) (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans. (b)
82. In which case Supreme Court of India directed the
High Courts to exercise jurisdiction under section 482 of
Code of Criminal Procedure:
(a) State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lai
(b) Adalat Prasad v. Navin Jindal
(c) Dinesh Dalmiya v. C.B.I.
(d) Dhananjay Chatterjee v. State of West Bengal.
Ans. (a)
83. In which of the following cases it was held that a
person has a right to protection under Section 161(2) of
Cr, P.C. against questions, the answers of which would
have a tendency to a criminal charge:
(a) Nandini Satpathy v. PL Dani
(b) Gian Singh v. State
(c) Rupan Deol Bajaj v. K.P.S. Gill
(d) R.K. Dalmia v. Delhi Administration.
Ans. (a)
84. Which of the following statements is/are true:
(a) Inquiry means every inquiry including a trial conducted under
the Code of Criminal Procedure by a Magistrate or court
(b) Inquiry means every inquiry other than a trial conducted under
the Code of Criminal Procedure by a Magistrate or court
(c) Investigation includes all the proceedings under the Code of
Criminal Procedure for the collection of evidence conducted by a
Magistrate
(d) All these.
Ans. (b)
85. ‘A’ faced trial for cheating ‘Z’ by dishonestly inducing
him to lend money by knowingly pledging fake diamonds.
‘Z’ died during trial and was survived by a son ‘X’. ‘X’
moved an application in the Trial Court to compound the
offence. Which of the following is the correct legal
preposition:
(a) ‘X’ is not competent to compound the offence
(b) On the death of complainant ‘Z’, the trial proceedings shall abate
(c) Court cannot entertain such an application after death of the
complainant
(d) ‘X’ can compound the offence with the consent of the Court.
Ans. (d)
86. Indicate the correct statement regarding the rights of
an arrestee.
A person arrested without warrant has the right to:
(i) be informed of the particulars of the offence for which he is
arrested
(ii) have a relative or friend named by him to be informed about his
arrest
(iii) have an advocate of his choice remain present throughout
interrogation
(iv) be medically examined by a medical officer
Which of the statements given above are correct:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Ans. (d)
87. A criminal Court, at conclusion of trial, may order:
(a) restoration of possession of immovable property to the person
who had been dispossessed therefrom by use of criminal force or by
criminal intimidation by the person convicted
(b) the destruction of pornographic material in respect of which
conviction was recorded
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) neither (1) nor (2).
Ans. (c)
88. Period of limitation shall commence:
(a) from the date of the offence generally
(b) from the date of knowledge of the commission of the offence if
not known earlier
(c) from the date of establishment of the identity of the accused if
not known at the time of commission of the offence
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
89. Court can condone the delay:
(a) under section 470 of Cr PC
(b) under section 471 of Cr PC
(c) under section 473 of Cr PC
(d) under section 472 of Cr PC.
Ans. (c)
90. In computing the period of limitation the time during
which:
(a) the accused avoided arrest by absconding has to be excluded
(b) the accused remained absent from India has to be excluded
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (a) is correct & (b) is incorrect.
Ans. (c)
91. The FIR can be quashed in the exercise of inherent
powers by:
(a) the Magistrate’s Court
(b) the Court of Session
(c) the High Court
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. (c)
92. Under the scheme of Cr. P.C. the inherent powers vest
in:
(a) the High Court
(b) the Court of Session
(c) the Court of District & Sessions Judge
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (a)
93. The inherent powers of the High Court are contained
in:
(a) section 462 of Cr PC
(b) section 472 of Cr PC
(c) section 482 of Cr PC
(d) section 492 of Cr PC
Ans. (c)
94. Once police records information report (FIR), a copy
of same should be given to complainant under:
(d) section 156 of Cr PC
Ans. (b)
95. In which among the following cases the Supreme Court
held that High Court cannot directly entertain bail
application of POTA accused without its refusal by special
court:
(a) State of Gujarat v. Shalimbhai Abdul Gaffar Shaikh
(b) State of Maharashtra v. S.K. Dhinde
(c) State of Gujarat v. Santosh Kumar
(d) State of Uttar Pradesh v. S.N. Srivastava.
Ans. (a)
96. The special court is:
(a) not subordinate to High Court
(b) is subordinate to High Court
(c) superior to High Court
(d) supplement to High Court.
Ans. (a)
97. In which of the following cases the prosecution witness
was prosecuted for perjury:
(a) Jessica Lal case (2007)
(b) Nitish Katara case (2007)
(c) Priyadarshni Mattoo case (2006)
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
98. The person seeking suspension of conviction should
specifically draw the attention of the Appellate Court to
the consequences that may arise if the conviction is not
stayed as held by the Supreme Court in:
(a) Sheo Prasad Bhor v. State of Assam, AIR 2007 SC 918
(b) P.V. George v. State of Kerala, AIR 2007 SC 1034
(c) Navjot Singh Sidhu v. State of Punjab, AIR 2007 SC 1003
(d) Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India, (2006) 7 SCC 1
Ans. (c)
99. When the approver wilfully suppresses material facts
or gives false evidence:
(a) the court itself has inherent power to proceed against Approver
(b) the court does not have inherent power to proceed against
Approver
(c) police can take action against him
(d) on the request of police, court take action against Approver.
Ans. (a)
100. Any effort to settle disputes and claims by applying
pressure through criminal prosecution:
(a) should depend upon the present criminal system
(b) should depend upon the discretion of the court
(c) should be deprecated and discouraged
(d) should not be deprecated and discouraged.
Ans. (c)
101. If the police do not take action on complaint in
respect of cognizable offences, the complainant:
(a) has right under section 190 of Cr PC to complaint before local
Magistrate
(b) has no right under section 190 of Cr PC to complaint before local
Magistrate
(c) has right under section 290 of the Cr PC to complaint before
Magistrate
(d) has right under section 390 of the Cr PC to complaint before
Magistrate.
Ans. (a)
102. Whether suspicion is:
(a) a substitute for proof of offence
(b) not a substitute for proof of offence
(c) a relevant factor for proof of offence
(d) not a dependent factor.
Ans. (b)
103. Inherent power of the court to order a joint trial of
cases is exercised when it appears to the court:
(a) that some common question of law or fact arises in both
proceedings
(b) the right to relief claimed thereof is in respect of the same
transaction
(c) the right to relief claimed thereof arises out of the same series of
transactions
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
104. In which of the following cases it was held that
section 164 of Cr PC is required to be strictly complied
with:
(a) Babu Bhai Udesinh Parmar v. State of Gujarat, AIR 2007 SC 420
(b) Rajesh Ranjan Yadav v. CBI, AIR 2007 SC 451
(c) Naveen Chandra v. State of Uttaranchal, AIR 2007 SC 363
(d) Amrit Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 2007 SC 132.
Ans. (a)
105. In 2007 which High Court ordered ‘No arrest of a
woman before sunrise and after sunset’:
(a) Delhi High Court
(b) Rajasthan High Court
(c) Allahabad High Court
(d) Bombay High Court.
Ans. (b)
106. Which section of the Cr PC provides that, in no case
the aggregate of consecutive sentences passed against an
accused shall exceed 14 years:
(a) Section 31 of Cr PC
(b) Section 51 of Cr PC
(c) Section 34 of Cr PC
(d) Section 41 of Cr PC.
Ans. (a)
107. The procedure for trial before a Court of Sessions is
provided under sections:
(a) 260 to 265 Cr PC
(b) 238 to 250 Cr PC
(c) 251 to 259 Cr PC
(d) 225 to 237 Cr PC.
Ans. (d)
108. The offence committed under which section of IPC is
not compoundable under section 320 of Cr PC:
(a) Section 352
(b) Section 353
(c) Section 354
(d) Section 355
Ans. (b)
109. When there is a dispute between two courts relating
to exercise of jurisdiction in a criminal matter and said
courts are under subordination of different High Courts,
the matter shall be decided under section 186 of Cr PC by
the:
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court of the larger State
(c) High Court having more judges
(d) High Court within whose local limits of appellate jurisdiction the
proceeding first commenced.
Ans. (d)
110. In which case it was held that: Identity of victim is not
to be disclosed even in judgment of court:
(a) Shashikant v. CBI, AIR 2007 SC 351
(b) Dinesh v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC 1267
(c) Naveen Chandra v. State of Uttaranchal, AIR 2007 SC 363
Ans. (b)
111. Within the meaning of section 311A of Cr PC who
among the following authorities has power to order
person to give specimen signature or handwriting:
(a) Magistrate of First Class
(b) Magistrate of Second class
(c) Sessions Judge
(d) any Magistrate.
Ans. (a)
112. In-camera trial refers to:
(a) open trial
(b) trial broadcast on television with the help of camera
(c) trial to which public and press are not allowed
(d) summary trial.
Ans. (c)
113. The “Directorate of Prosecution” the provision added
in the Cr PC by the Code of Criminal Procedure
(Amendment) Act, 2005, shall be established by:
(a) Central Government
(b) Each State Government
(c) CBI
(d) RAW
Ans. (b)
114. Within the meaning of section 144A of Cr PC, who
among the following authorities has power to prohibit
carrying arms in procession or mass drill or mass training
with arms:
(a) SDJM
(b) Munsiff
(c) District Magistrate
(d) Any Judicial Magistrate
Ans. (c)
115. “Plea Bargaining” a new chapter was added in
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 by the Criminal Law
Amendment Act, 2005 (2 of 2006) is contained in:
(a) Sections 265A to 265E
(b) Sections 265A to 265L
(c) Sections 265A to 265M
(d) Sections 265A to 265N
Ans. (b)
116. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act,
2005 (25 of 2005) came into force on:
(a) 22nd June, 2006
(b) 21st June, 2005
(c) 23rd June, 2006
(d) 23rd July, 2006
Ans. (c)
117. Chapter XXIA “Plea Bargaining” (containing sections
265A to 265L) of Cr PC came into force on:
(a) 5th July, 2006
(b) 16th April, 2006
(c) 23rd June, 2005
(d) 23rd June, 2006
Ans. (a)
118. Provision relating to plea bargaining comes under
which Chapter in Criminal Procedure Code:
(a) XXI
(b) XXA
(c) VIIA
(d) XXIA
Ans. (d)
119. Irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings have
been stated in:
(d) section 486 of Cr PC.
Ans. (a)
120. The amount of fine which can be imposed by a
Magistrate of the First Class has been enhanced by
from Rs.5000 to:
(a) Rs.5000
(b) Rs.7000
(c) Rs.10000
Ans. (c)
121. The amount of fine which can be imposed by a
Magistrate of the Second Class has been enhanced by
from Rs.1000 to:
(a) Rs.3000
(b) Rs.5000
(c) Rs.7000
Ans. (b)
122. Which of the following statements is true:
(a) a woman can never be arrested after sunset and before sunrise
under the provisions of Cr. P.C.
(b) a woman can be arrested after sunset and before sunrise only
under exceptional circumstances
(c) a woman can be arrested after sunset and before sunrise only
under exceptional circumstances with the prior permission of
Judicial Magistrate of first class within whose jurisdiction the
offence is committed or the arrest is to be made
Ans. (c)
123. Examination of person accused of rape by medical
practitioner as inserted by Criminal Procedure
(Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) has been provided
under:
(a) section 50A
(b) section 53A
(c) section 54A
(d) section 54.
Ans. (b)
124. The section making it mandatory for the police officer
making arrest to inform about the arrest and place where
the arrested person is being held to a nominated person as
inserted by Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005
(25 of 2005) is:
(a) section 50A
(b) section 53A
(c) section 54A
(d) section 53B.
Ans. (a)
125. The section dealing with the medical examination of
the victim of rape as inserted by Criminal Procedure
(Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) is:
(a) section 164A
(b) section 166A
(c) section 166B
(d) section 53A.
Ans. (a)
126. In case of special summons in cases of petty offence
under section 206, the amount of fine specified is such
summons has, in view of Criminal Procedure
(Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) has been enhanced
from Rs.100 to:
(a) Rs.200
(b) Rs.500
(c) Rs.1000
(d) Rs.2000.
Ans. (c)
127. Plea Bargaining inserted by Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2005 (2 of 2006) does riot apply in case
of:
(a) offences affecting socio-economic conditions of the country
(b) offences committed against woman
(c) offences against children below the age of fourteen years
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d)
128. The judgement delivered by a court in cases of plea
bargaining is:
(a) final
(b) appealable and appeal lies to the High Court
(c) final and no appeal except SLP under Article 136 and writ
petition under Articles 226 & 227 lies
(d) appeal lies directly to the Supreme Court.
Ans. (c)
ndian Constitution Questions

Q.21 Who appoints the members of Council of Ministers?
Answer: President on the advice of the Prime Minister
Q.22 Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General(CAG)?

Answer: President appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Q.23 Who appoints the Chairman and other members of the UPSC (Union
Public Service Commission)?
Answer: President
Q.24 Who can proclaim a Financial Emergency?

Answer: President can proclaim a financial emergency
Q.25 How long the National Emergency can be imposed?

Answer: Six months. May be extended by six months on Parliamentary approval.
Q.26 When the Preamble of Constitution of India adopted by the constituent

assembly?
Ans: - 26th Nov 1949
Q.27 How long it took to drafting the Constitution of India?

Ans: - 2 years 11 months 18 days
Q.28 When the last session of the constituent assembly was held?
Answer: 24 January 1950
Q.29 Who was the legal advisor to the constitution’s Drafting Committee?
Answer: B. N. Rau
Q.30 Under which commission the first constituent assembly election was
held?
Answer: Cabinet Mission Plan 1946
Indian Constitution
Q.11 Who appoints Vice President of India?
Answer: The Electoral College of India
Q.12 Who is the inaugural Prime Minister of India?

Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru (1947-1964)
Q.13 Who is the first Deputy Prime Minister of India?

Answer: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (1947-1950)
Q.14 Who is the first President of India?

Answer: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.15 Who is the famous writer of ‘Introduction to the Constitution of India’?

Answer: Durga Das Basu
Q.16 Who said this famous quote that “Constitution is not a mere lawyers
document, it is a vehicle of Life, and its spirit is always the spirit of Age.”?
Answer: Dr. Bhima Rao Ambedkar
Q.17 Who was the British Prime Minister during India’s Independence?
Answer: Clement Atlee
Q.18 What was the Mountbatten Plan?

Answer: The Mountbatten Plan was an agreement between Lord Mountbatten and
Indian National Congress, Muslim League and Sikh community
Q.19 Who was the Governor-General during India’s Independence?

Answer: Lord Mountbatten
Q.20 Who is empowered to appoint the Judges of Supreme Court?
Answer: President on the advice of the Chief Justice
Q.21 Who appoints the members of Council of Ministers?

Answer: President on the advice of the Prime Minister
Q.22 Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General(CAG)?

Answer: President appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Q.23 Who appoints the Chairman and other members of the UPSC (Union
Public Service Commission)?
Answer: President
Q.24 Who can proclaim a Financial Emergency?

Answer: President can proclaim a financial emergency
Q.25 How long the National Emergency can be imposed?

Answer: Six months. May be extended by six months on Parliamentary approval.
Q.26 When the Preamble of Constitution of India adopted by the constituent

assembly?
Ans: - 26th Nov 1949
Q.27 How long it took to drafting the Constitution of India?

Ans: - 2 years 11 months 18 days
Q.28 When the last session of the constituent assembly was held?
Answer: 24 January 1950
Q.29 Who was the legal advisor to the constitution’s Drafting Committee?
Answer: B. N. Rau
Q.30 Under which commission the first constituent assembly election was
held?
Answer: Cabinet Mission Plan 1946
Q.31 How many members were there in Constituent Assembly?

Answer: 389
Q.32 Constituent Assembly is based on which structure?

Answer: Unicameral
Q.33 Who is regarded as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution?

Ans: B.R.Ambedkar
Q.33 When the Constitution of India came into effect on?
Ans: 26th Jan 1950
Q,34 26th January was chosen as Republic day to commemorate –

Ans: The Purna Swaraj Declaration in 1930
Q.35 Which day is observed as Republic Day every year?

Ans: 26th January
Q.36 How long earlier World War II had ended before the Indian Constitution
came into effect in 1950?
Answer: World War II had ended 5 years earlier in 1945
Q.37 Who was the chairman of the Minorities Committee?

Ans: Harendra Kumar Mukherjee
Q.38 Who was elected the president of Constituent Assembly after

Sachchidanand Sinha?
Ans: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.39 What are the two major languages, the original constitution written in?
Ans: The original constitution written in Hindi and English
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ndian Constitution of GK
Q.41 Which most important feature made the Indian Constitution unique to any
constitution of the world?
Answer: Indian constitution is the only longest written constitution in the world ever
Q.42 When Hindi became the Official Language of India?

Answer: The Indian Constitution declared Hindi as the official language in 1950
Q.43 When English became the official language of India across Hindi?
Answer: According to the Official Language Act 1963, English became the official
language of India in 1965 along with Hindi
Q.44 What was the basic structure of the Indian constitution during the time of
commencement?
Ans: During the time of commencement there were 395 articles, 22 parts, and 8
schedules. The present structure is 448 articles, 12 schedules, 5 appendices, and
100 amendments till 2015
Q.45 Who is the constitutional head of the Indian union?

Answer: President of India
Q.46 Constitutionally who is the second powerful person in India?

Answer: Vice-President
Q.47 One of the basic character of the Indian Constitution is –

Answer: Judicial Review
Q.48 What is the major basic feature of the Indian Constitution?

Answer: Fundamental rights
Q.49 When the Sarkaria Commission was set up?

Answer: 1983
Q.50 How the Sarkaria Commission is related to Indian Constitution?
Answer: Sarkaria Commission can supervise the required changes of the
constitution and the balance of power between state and central governments. Ranjit
Singh Sarkaria is the head of this commission
Q.51 Directive principles of state policy in the Indian Constitution has been
adopted from which country?
Ans: Ireland
Q.52 What is the objective of Directive Principles of State Policy of the

constitution?
Answer: Directive Principles are the guideline to making laws by the government. In
part IV of the Indian Constitution, these provisions can be enforced by the courts.
Q.53 What is the constitutional name of India?

Answer: Republic of India
Q.54 Which famous Bengali artists have a great contribution in designing of

Indian constitution?
Ans: Nandalal Bose including Biochar Rammanohar Sinha
Constitutional facts: It is notable that the Indian Constitution is influenced by the

constitution of different nations. As India is a large and densely populated country so
it took too much time to finish the original constitution. An expenditure of Rs 1 Crore
spent and almost 5 Years took on this project.
Q.55 The fundamental rights feature borrowed from which nation?

Ans: United States of America
Q.56 Who said this famous constitutional quote that “Law and order are the
medicine of the body politic and when the body politic gets sick, medicine
must be administered.”
Answer: Dr. Bhima Rao Ambedkar
Q.57 Liberty, Equality and Fraternity are borrowed features of which

nationality?
Ans: French Constitution

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Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part I

1. In which year did the act come into operation?

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2. To which settlement machinery can the central government refer the

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a. Trade Disputes Act, 1929

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a. Restraints imposed on the rights of strike

c. Solution to industrial unrest

d. All of the above

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6. The industrial peace is secured through voluntary _______ and compulsory

a. Compromise and Arbitration

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7. Choose the correct objective of the Industrial Disputes Act.

a. To prevent illegal strikes

c. To provide relief to workmen in matters of lay - offs,

d. All of the above

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8. State true or false

i. Industrial disputes act can be described as the milestone in the historical

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9. The act was first amended in the year ______

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10. Power has been given to _______________ to require Works Committee to

Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part II

1. Which permanent settlement machinery has been mentioned in the act

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2. State true of false.

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a. 1st April, 1947

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5. ________ means an interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute

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6. State True or False

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7. Clause (d) of section 2 of ______________ act defines Khadi.

a. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

8. How many members does a conciliation board consist of as per the

a. Chairman and 2 or 4 other members

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9. A person shall not be appointed as the presiding officer of a labour court

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10. How many persons shall a national tribunal consist of which is to be

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Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part III

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a. Central Government for both

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4. State true or false

i. No settlement arrived at in the course of a conciliation proceeding shall be invalid by

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6. State true or false

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7. Which of the below mentioned is the duty of a conciliation officer?

d. All of the above

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9. State true or false

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