Quiz

1. Which schistosome species has a large terminal spine.?

a. S. haematobium
b. S. mekongi
c. S. japonicum
d. S. mansoni
e. Two of the above
2. Streptococci are unable to synthesize the enzyme:
a. Catalase
b. Kinase
c. Hyaluronidase
d. Lipase
e. Oxidase
3. The beta hemolysin produced by group A Strep.seen on the surface of
a sheep blood agar plate is primarily the result of streptolysin.?
a. H
b. M
c. O
d. S
e. A
4. The production of H2S is one of the characteristic use to differentiate
which the aerobic gram positive bacilli:
a. Corynebacterium
b. Erysipelothrix
c. Lactobacillus
d. Nocardia
e. AOTA
5. Which of the ff. is a mercury containing fixatives used to preserve
parasites in stool specimens:
a. Formalin
b. PEA
c. Sodium acetate
d. Buffered glycerol
 e. Polyvinyl acohol
6. A 20 year old traveler presents to her doctor complaining for a fever
“comes and goes” and fatigue. A CBC reveals decreased RBC and
hemoglobin count. History reveals the patient traveled through
Europe and Africa. You shoukd now suspect:
a. CLM
b. Filariasis
c. Malaria
d. Trichinella
e. Babesia
7. A wright stained blood showed many ring forms with no older stages,
and a number of the rings had a double chromatin dots. These
findings are characteristics of:
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
d. P. ovale
8. The causative agent of “malignant pustule”.?
a. B. anthracis
b. C. ulcerans
c. E. rhusiopathiae
d. L. monocytogenes
e. NOTA
9. Zygomycetes are rapidly growing, airborne saprobes. In clinical
specimens they,
a. Are common as normal, human microflora
b. Are found only as contaminants
c. May be seen as a dimorphic tissue phase
d. May be found as a cause of rapidly fatal infection
e. AOTA
10. Broad coenocytic hyphae found in tissue would be most typical
infection with:
a. Aspergillus
b. Blastomyces
c. Microsporum
 d. Rhizopus
11. Formation of arthroconidia is not an important characteristic in the
identification of:
a. Coccidiodes
b. Geothricum
c. Trichosporon
d. Sporothrix
12. Influenza A virus undergoes recombination events that prosuce new
strains this referred to as:
a. Antigenic drift
b. Antigenic shift
c. Reactivation
d. Viral latency
13. RNA dependent polymerase is also called:
a. Gyrase
b. Neuraminidase
c. Reverse transcriptase
d. Transaminase
14. Arboviruses
a. Only infect humans
b. Often cause hepatitis
c. Typically infect lymphocyte
d. Are transmitted by arthropods
e. Two of the above
15. A clinical specimen is received in a viral transport medium for a viral
isolation. The specimen cannot be processed for 72hrs. At what
degrees centigrade should it be stored:
a. 4
b. -20
c. -80
d. -120
16. Haemophilus infleunzae vaccine protect against which serotype:
a. A
b. B
c. C
 d. D
e. E
17. A positive indole reaction is a characteristic of:
a. E. coli
b. P. mirabilis
c. S. cholerasuis
d. S. marcescens
18. Which of the ff. Legionella spp. Is positive for Hippurate hydrolysis:
a. L. micdadei
b. L. longbeachae
c. L. gormanii
d. L. pneumophila
e. Two of the above
19. The selective nature of HEA is due to inclusion of which of the ff.?
a. Bile salts
b. Bis-sodium metasulfate
c. Bromthymol blue
d. NACL
e. A and C
20. Which of the following is not true about the laboratory diagnosis of
pertussis?
a. Regan-Lowe medium is the recommended medium
b. DFA test results are definitive and do not need to be confirmed
by culture.
c. Calcium alginate or Dacron swabs are recommended over
cotton-tipped swabs for specimen collection.
d. Material collected from the nasopharynx is optimal for detection
of the causative agent.
21. The finding of six acid fast bacilli per field (x800 to x 1000) in a
fuchsin smear of expectorated sputum should be reported as:
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
22. Which of the ff. Mycobacteria appears as buff colored colored
colonies after exposure to light and is niacin positive:
a. M. bovis
b. M. scrofulaceum
c. M. TB
d. M. ulcerans
23. Skin cultures for the recovery of Mycobacterium spp. Should be
incubated at:
a. 22 degrees Celsius
b. 30 degrees Celsius
c. 35 degrees Celsius
d. 42 degrees Celsius
e. 60 degrees Celsius
24. What is the predominant indigenous flora of the colon?
a. Anaerobic, gram-negative, non-sporeforming bacteria
b. Anaerobic, gram-positive, non-sporeforming bacteria
c. Aerobic, gram-negative, non-sporeforming bacteria
d. Aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria
25. A tube of semisolid medium that contains resazurin appears pink.
What does this indicate?
a. Acid environment
b. Alkaline environment
c. Motility
d. Presence of oxygen
26. Which of the following tests is most appropriate for the identification
of Clostridium difficile?
a. SPS sensitivity test
b. Nagler test
c. Cytotoxin assay
d. Fluorescence test
27. Pumlent material from a cerebral abscess was submitted to the
laboratory for smear and culture. On direct Gram stain, gram positive
cocci in chains and gram-negative bacilli with pointed ends were seen.
Plates incubated aerobically exhibited no growth at 24 hours. On the
 basis of the organisms seen on the smear, what is the most likely
presumptive identification of the etiologic anaerobic agents?
A. Veillonella sp. and Clostridium sp.
B. Eubacterium sp. and Veillonella sp
C. Peptostreptococcus sp. and Nocardia sp
D. Fusobacterium sp. and Peptostreptococcus sp
28. Which one of the following microorganisms cannot be cultivated on
artificial cell free media?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Mycoplasma hominis
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Ureaplasma urealyticum
29. The causative agent of murine typhus:
a. Rickettsia akari
b. Rickettsia conorii
c. Rickettsia prowazekii
d. Rickettsia typhi
30. Which of the following is not true of the VDRL test?
a. False-positive tests are more frequent than with the FTA-ABS
test.
b. The antibody titer will decline if the patient is adequately
treated.
c. Inactivated Treponema pallidum serves as the antigen.
d. The test is usually positive in secondary syphilis.

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