VISION IAS 

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION 
GENERAL STUIDES (P) TEST – 2104 (2017) 
Q 1.A 
•  Constitutionalism  is  all  about limited government. It means that powers given to the government are not 
unlimited  but  they  are  limited.  Fundamental  rights  act  as  limitations  on the government powers like state 
must  respect  citizens'  right  to  express,  speech,  liberty.  If  the  government did not respect these rights then 
the  aggrieved  citizen  can  approach  judiciary  for  their  enforcement.  In  this  context  they  can  act  as 
constraints. 
• But Directive Principles of state policy cannot act as constraints/limitations on the government because 
they are not enforceable and they are fundamental to the governance of a country. 
• Fundamental duties are in fact constraints/limitations on the part of citizens not on the government. 
Hence fundamental duties do not limit the working of the government. 
Q 2.C 
• Statement 1: incorrect: In the parliamentary form of the government there will not be watertight 
separation of the powers. Here the executive will be part of the legislature. 
•  Statement  2:  correct:  It  is  the  most defining feature of the parliamentary form of the government, where 
executive  is  answerable  to  the  legislature,  unlike  presidential  form  of  the  government,  where  excutive  is 
not answerable to the legislature. 
•  Statement  3:  incorrect:  Parliamentary  form  of  government  defines  the  governing  mechanism  a  state. 
Division  of  powers  is  nothing  to  do  with  the  parliamentary  form  of  government  because  division  of 
powers  is  more  to  do  with  the  decentralization and autonomy to the states rather than way of defining the 
governing mechanism itself. 
Q 3.A 
• Writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against private individuals as well as public authority. While other 
writs like Mandamus, Prohibition and Certiorari can be issued only against public authorities. 
Q 4.C 
• The preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976 by the 42nd Amendment Act, which has 
added three new words - Socialist, Secular and integrity - to the preamble. 
Q 5.D 
• The basic structure doctrine is an evolving concept. It hasn't been defined in the Constitution. Thus, 
option (a) is incorrect. 
• The Apex Court has held that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be abrogated by a 
constitutional amendment. Thus option (b) is incorrect. 
•  In  the  Keshavananda Bharti judgement in 1973, the Apex Court judges listed some of the basic features. 
It  includes  powers  of  the  Supreme  Court  under  Articles  32,  136,  141  and  142.  Thus,  option  (c)  is 
incorrect. 
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Q 6.B 
•  Statement  1  is correct- Indian constitution identifies only the persons who became citizens of India at its 
commencement.  It  does  not  deal  with  the  problem  of  acquisition  or  loss  of  citizenship  subsequent  to  its 
commencement.  It  empowers  the  Parliament  to  enact  a  law  to  provide  for  such  matters  and  any  other 
matter relating to citizenship. 
• Statement 2 is correct- No person shall be a citizen of India or be deemed to be a citizen of India, if he 
has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect- Only parliament shall have the power to make any provision with respect to the 
acquisition and termination of citizenship and all matter related to citizenship. 
Q 7.C 
•  The  word  fundamental  suggests  that  Fundamental  rights  are  so  important  that  the  Constitution  has 
separately  listed  them  and  made  special  provision  for  their  protection.  They  are  guaranteed  by  the 
fundamental law of the land. 
Q 8.B 
•  Statement  1  is  correct  -  The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities, 
Muslims,  Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations. Members of each community in 
the  Provincial  Legislative  Assembly  elected  their  own  representatives  by  the  method  of  proportional 
representation with single transferable vote. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect - The method of selection in the case of representatives of Princely States was to 
be determined by consultation. Total 93 seats allotted to the princely states. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect - Mahatma Gandhi and M A Jinnah, these two personalities were not the part of 
the constituent assembly. 
Q 9.A 
•  Article  25  accords  the  Right  to  propagate  one's  own  religious  belief.  But  it  does  not  include  a  right  to 
convert  another  person  to  one's  own  religion.  Forcible conversions amounts to violation of one's freedom 
of conscience'. 
Q 10.A 
•  Unlike  the  constitutional symmetry of American federalism, Indian federalism has been asymmetric. By 
introducing  the  articles  concerning  Jammu  and  Kashmir  (  Art.  370)  and  the  North-East  (Art.  371),  the 
Indian Constitution anticipates the very important concept of asymmetric federalism. 
Q 11.B 
• Statement 1 is correct as it was added to the Article 39 of DPSP's through the 42nd Amendment Act, 
1976. 
• Statement 2 is not correct as it was a part of Article 39 of the original Constitution. 
• Statement 3 is correct as it was added to the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act,1976 , thus 
putting a new Article 39A. 
Q 12.D 
•  Statement  1  is  incorrect.The  Constitution  originally  provided  for  internal  disturbance  as  a  ground  for 
declaration  of  National  Emergency.  Later,  the  44th  Amendment  Act  replaced  the  words  "internal 
disturbance" by armed rebellion. 
• During National Emergency, Article 19 is automatically suspended. 
•  However,  the  other  rights  are  not  suspended.  Only  the  enforcement  of  all  other  rights mentioned in the 
Presidential  Order  for  suspension (except 20 and 21 are suspended) Enforcement of Article 20 and 21 can 
never be suspended. So, statement 2 is incorrect. 
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Q 13.A 
•  Statement  1  is  correct:  He  has  the  right  to  audience  in  all  courts  in the territory of India. He appears on 
behalf  of  government  of  India  in  all  cases  in  the  Supreme  Court  in  which  the  Government  of  India  is 
concerned. 
• Statement 2 is correct: He can be nominated as a member of a committee of the Parliament. He enjoys 
all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: He has right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the houses of 
Parliament or their joint sitting -+but without a right to vote. 
Q 14.B 
•  Statement  1  is  correct.  One  of  the  functions of the commission is to inquire into any violation of human 
rights  or  negligence  in  the  prevention  of  such  violation  by  a  public  servant,  either  suo-motu  or  on  a 
petition presented to it or on an order of court. 
• Statement 2 is Incorrect. The recommendations of the commission are mainly advisory in nature. It has 
no power to punish the violators of human rights. 
• Statement 3 is correct. It has no power to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. 
Q 15.D 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitution has not prescribed the qualification of the members of Election 
Commission. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: State Election Commission controls election to panchayats and municipalties. 
Election Commission deals with the elections of state legislature and council. 
•  Statement  3  is  incorrect:  The  chief  election  commissioner  and  the  two  other  election  commissioners 
have  equal  powers  and  receive  equal  salary,  allowances  and  other  perquisites,  which  are  similar to those 
of  a  judge  of  the  Supreme  Court.  In  case  of  difference  of  opinion  amongst  the  Chief  Election 
Commissioner  and/or  two  other  election  commissioners,  the  matter  is  decided  by  the  Commission  by 
majority. 
Q 16.D 
•  CVC  and  2 other vigilance commissioners are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and 
seal  on  the  recommendation  of  a  three  member  committee  consisting  of  the  Prime  Minister  as  its  head, 
Union Minister of Home Affairs and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha). 
Q 17.C 
• Statement 1 is correct: Salary, allowance and pension of UPSC members are charged on consolidated 
fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament. 
•  Statement  2  is  incorrect  The  UPSC  chairman  can  be  removed  on  the  grounds  and  in  the  manner 
prescribed  in the article 317 of the constitution of India. He/she shall be removed after the President refers 
the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. 
• Statement 3 is correct: The chairman or a member of UPSC (after having completed his first term) is not 
eligible for reappointment to that office (i.e., not eligible for second term). 
Q 18.D 
• The government has made many policies and laws to implement the DPSP's. 
• 1 is correct as article 41 talks about securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in 
cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement. 
•  2  is  correct  as  it  is  aimed  to  implement  Article  50  which  explicitly  calls  for  the  separation  of judiciary 
and  the  executive.  The  Criminal  Procedure  Code  (1973)  separated the judiciary from the executive in the 
public  services  of  the  state.  Thus,  the  judicial  powers  vested  with  the  district  authorities  like 
Collectors,Tehsildars etc was taken away. 
• 3 is correct as it is aimed to implement Article 48 under the DPSPâ€TMs which calls for the 
modernization of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry. 
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• 4 is correct as it is aimed to provide living wages and work opportunities. Article 41 calls for providing 
Right to work while Article 43 calls for provision of living wages to all workers. 
Q 19.D 
•  Option  (a)  is  correct.  This  act  divided  the  Provincial  subjects  into  two  parts-  transferred  and  reserved. 
Transferred  subjects  were  to  be  administered  by  governor  with  the  help  of  ministers  while  reserved  list 
was  to  administered  by  governor  and  his  executive  council.  This  was  termed  dual  system  of  governance 
or Diarchy. 
• Option (b) is correct. It replaced Indian Legislative Council with Bicameral legislature consisting of two 
houses. The elections to both the houses were largely by direct elections. 
• Option (c) is correct. It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and 
authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets. 
• Option (d) is incorrect. The separate electorate for Muslims was introduced in the act of 1909 itself. This 
provision was extended to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians and Europeans. 
Q 20.A 
• Statement 1 is correct. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee 
on Prevention of Corruption (1962 -1964). 
• Statement 2 is incorrect. CBI derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946. 
• Statement 3 is correct. CBI can investigate cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws, 
that is, breach of laws concerning export and import control, customs and central excise, income tax etc. 
Q 21.C 
• Option (a) is incorrect as autonomous district created under sixth schedule fall under the executive 
authority of state. 
• Option (b) is incorrect as governor is empowered to increase or decrease area of autonomous district. 
• Option (c) is correct. The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land 
revenue and to impose certain specified taxes. 
Q 22.C 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental rights can be amended by constitution amendment till they do not 
violate basic structure of the constitution and thus they are not sacrosanct. 
• Statement 2 is correct: are available against the actions of both State and private individuals. Few Rights 
like Abolition of Untouchablity etc are available against private citizen also. 
• Statement 3 is correct: These rights limit the power of Executive and legislature and thus prevents 
tyranny of executive and legislature. 
Q 23.D 
• State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies 
that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights. 
• According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State 
falls within the meaning of the 'State' under Article 12. 
• DMRC has equal equity participation from GOI and GNCTD. 
• RBI, UID Authority are statutory bodies. 
• NITI aayog performs important public functions like recommending poverty line. 
Q 24.D 
•  Statement  1  is  correct.  The  most  important  function  of  the  constitution  is  to  restrict  the  exercise  of 
power  by  the  state.  Modern  states  are  excessively  powerful.  They  have  a  monopoly  over  force  and 
coercion. If the power falls in the wrong hands, state can work against few sections of the society. 
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•  Statement  2  is  also  correct.  Constitutions  work  not  only  to  limit  people  in  power but to empower those 
who  traditionally  have  been  deprived  of  it.  Reasonable  restrictions  under  Article  19.(2)  to  19(6) restricts 
the freedom of the people. 
• Statement 3 is correct. Nehru during the debates in constituent assembly emphasized on the role of 
constitution to represent a collective demand for full self -determination. 
Q 25.A 
• 1 is part of fundamental duties mentioned in Part IV-A of the Indian constitution. 
• 2 is a part of Directive Principles of State Policy. 
• Swaran Singh committee recommended duty to pay taxes should be included in the fundamental duties 
but it was not accepted. Hence, 3 is not a fundamental duty. 
• Casting vote is also not included in the fundamental duties so 4 is also incorrect. 
Q 26.D 
•  Statement  1  is  incorrect  :  Article  15  provides  that  the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on 
grounds  only  of  religion,  race,  caste,  sex  or  place  of  birth.  The  two  crucial  words  in  this  provision  are 
'discrimination'  and  'only'. The word 'discrimination' means 'to make an adverse distinction with regard to' 
or  'to  distinguish  unfavourably  from  others'.  The  use  of  the  word  'only'  connotes  that  discrimination  on 
other grounds is not prohibited. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Such a law can only be passed by parliament and not by any state (Article 
16(3)) 
Q 27.C 
•  Statement  1  is  correct.  Indian  constitution  is a sacred document but not a static one. It allows changes if 
the  demand  is  made  by  the  society.  After  independence  several  amendments/provisions  and  laws  were 
made as the needs of the society. 
•  Statement  2  is  also  correct.  Ever  since  the  constitution  came  into  being,  the  political  class  and  the 
judiciary  subjected  it  to  multiple  interpretations.  Judicial  pronouncements/  judgements  have  led  to 
establishment  of  several  doctrine  which  was  not  mentioned  in  the  original  constitution.  Eg  -  Basic 
Structure Doctrine. 
Q 28.C 
• 1 is incorrect: It covers Right against pre-censorship on newspapers but not movies as movies has to 
pass through pre-screening and get certificate from CBFC. 
• 2 is correct: Freedom of Press is covered under Freedom of Speech and Expression. 
• 3 is correct: Freedom of speech also means Freedom to remain silent 
• 4 is incorrect: While Right to demonstration and picketing is covered but Right to strike does not come 
under this right 
Q 29.D 
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The original constitution did not have fundamental duties. These duties are 
incorporated in 1976 after the 42nd amendment. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Any changes in the Fundamental duties require amendment of the constitution. 
The 86th amendment act, 2002 added the 11th fundamental duty. 
Q 30.A 
•  Statement  1  is  correct:  An  amendment  of  the  Constitution  can  be  initiated only by the introduction of a 
bill  for  the  purpose  in  either  House  of  Parliament.  The  bill  can  be  introduced either by a minister or by a 
private member and does not require prior permission of the president. 
• Statement 2 is correct: In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for 
holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The President must give his assent to a constitution amendment bill. He can 
neither reject nor return the bill for the reconsideration of the parliament. 
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Q 31.D 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: This limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax 
laws. In other words, a civil liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively. 
•  Statement  2  is  incorrect:  Protection  against  self-incrimination  does  not  extend  to  (i)  compulsory 
production  of  material  objects,  (ii)  compulsion  to  give  thumb  impression,  specimen  signature,  blood 
specimens, and (iii) compulsory exhibition of the body. 
•  Statement  3  is  incorrect:  Protection  against  double  jeopardy  is  available  only  in  proceedings  before  a 
court  of  law or a judicial tribunal. In other words, it is not available in proceedings before departmental or 
administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature. 
Q 32.C 
• Statement 1 is correct as expressed in the Article 43 B of the Constitution added after 97th Amendment. 
• Statement 2 is correct as expressed in Article 48 A of the Constitution added after the 42nd Amendment. 
• Statement 3 is not correct as the DPSP's talks of providing health and care for workers and children 
under Article 39 of the Constitution but do not mention of free medical facilities. 
• Statement 4 is correct as expressed in Article 48 of the Constitution. 
Q 33.A 
• Statement 1 is correct. All the 3 kinds of emergency require the approval of Parliament once it is 
proclaimed. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect.The period of approval for Parliament is 1 month for National Emergency and 2 
months for both President's Rule and Financial Emergency. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect.National emergency remains in operation for 6 months at a time. 
• President's rule is in operation for one year at a time.Financial emergency is in operation indefnitely till 
the President revokes it. 
Q 34.B 
• Statement 1 is correct. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and 
vested in him all civil and military powers. Willim Bentick was the first Governor-General of India. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Macaulay committee on Indian Civil services was based on the Charter Act of 
1853. 
• Statement 3 is correct. This act reduced East India Company to just a administrative body. 
Q 35.B 
• Statement 1 is correct: He submits his audit report to the President and the Governor of the concerned 
state. (Art. 151) 
•  Statement  2  is  incorrect:  Earlier  the  CAG  compiled  and  maintained  the  accounts  of  both  centre  and 
states.  In  1976,  he  was  relieved  of  his  responsibilities  with  regard  to  the  Central  Government  due  to  the 
separation  of  accounts  from  audit,  i.e.  departmentalisation  of  accounts.  Presently  he  compiles  and 
maintains the accounts of states alone. For the centre it is done by accounts department. 
• Statement 3 is correct: He conduct audit of expenditure on behalf of the Parliament. 
Q 36.B 
•  Statement  1  is  incorrect  as  fifth  schedule  provision  extends  to  scheduled  areas  of  any  state  except 
Assam,  Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Thus 6th schedule deals with the administration of Tribal areas 
in these 4 states. 
• Statement 2 is correct as it is constitutional provision under fifth schedule that after president declares an 
area  schdule  area,  such  state  having scheduled areas has to establish a tribal advisory council to advise on 
welfare and advancement of scheduled tribes. 
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Q 37.B 
• Statement 1 is correct. Hung assembly is a sound reason for the imposition of President's rule.This was a 
reccomendation of Supreme Court in the S R Bommai guidelines 
• Statement 2 is incorrect.This is not a valid ground for imposing Article 356,according to Bommai 
guidelines of SC. 
• Statement 3 is correct. Supreme Court ruled that Secularism is a basic feature of the constitution. 
Hence,it validated the imposition of Article 356 in case a State government pursues anti-secular policies. 
Q 38.C 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: President determines the conditions for service and tenure of office of the Chief 
Election Commissioner. 
• Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed on the grounds and in the 
manner similar to the judge of High Court or Supreme court as both are same. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Election commission determines the model code of conduct to be observed by 
the political parties and the candidate at the time of election. 
Q 39.D 
The Directive Principles, although confer no legal rights and creates no legal remedies, are significant and 
useful in the following ways: 
•  They  are  like  an  'Instrument  of  Instructions'  or  general  recommendations  addressed  to  all authorities in 
the  Indian  Union.  They  remind  them  of  the  basic  principles of the new social and economic order, which 
the Constitution aims at building. 
• They have served as useful beacon-lights to the courts. They have helped the courts in exercising 
their power of judicial review, that is, the power to determine the constitutional validity of a law. 
• They form the dominating background to all State action, legislative or executive and also a guide to the 
courts in some respects. 
• They amplify the Preamble, which solemnly resolves to secure to all citizens of India justice, liberty, 
equality and fraternity. 
• They facilitate stability and continuity in domestic and foreign policies in political, economic and social 
spheres in spite of the changes of the party in power. 
• They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are intended to fill in the 
vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. 
•  Their  implementation  creates  a  favourable  atmosphere  for  the  full  and  proper  enjoyment  of  the 
fundamental rights by the citizens. Political democracy, without economic democracy, has no meaning. 
•  They  enable  the  opposition  to  exercise  influence  and  control  over  the  operations  of  the 
government.  The  Opposition  can  blame  the  ruling  party  on  the  ground  that  its  activities  are 
opposed to the Directives. 
• They serve as a crucial test for the performance of the government. The people can examine the policies 
and programmes of the government in the light of these constitutional declarations. 
Q 40.D 
• Statement 1 is incorrect.The President may issue directions for reduction of the salaries of all class of 
persons serving the Union including the judges of Supreme court and High Court. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliamentary approval with a simple majority is required only for the 
proclamation of Financial emergency.Parliamentary approval is not required for the revocation. 
Q 41.D 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: UPSC and SPSC are constitutional bodies where as JPSC is statutory body and 
is created by parliament on the request of the state legislature concerned. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: UPSC and JPSC members tender resignation to President, whereas SPSC 
members tender resignation to governor. 
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• Statement 3 is incorrect: UPSC present its annual performance report to President, whereas SPSC and 
JPSC present its annual performance report to the Governor of concerned state. 
Q 42.C 
• Statement 1 is correct as the DPSP's are guiding principles for the state to follow. They cannot be 
implemented without legislation unlike the Fundamental Rights. 
• Statement 2 is correct because the courts can only uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was 
enacted to give effect to a directive principle. They cannot declare a law invalid for violation of DPSPs. 
Q 43.B 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliament determines the qualification and selection procedure for the 
members of Finance Commission whereas tenure of its members is decided by President. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It provides guidelines for distribution of share of taxes among centre and states 
only, not for Public Sector Undertakings. 
• Statement 3 is correct: Each state has to constitute State Finance Commission to allocate revenue to 
Panchayati Raj institutions. 
Q 44.D 
Law Commission of India is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body. National Commission for 
minority and National Commission for Backward Classes are statutory bodies. Constitutional Bodies in 
India are: 
• Election Commission, 
• Comptroller and Auditor General, 
• Union Public Service Commission 
• State Publice Service Commission 
• Finance Commission 
• Atorney General 
• Advocate General, 
• National Commission for SCs 
• National Commission for STs, 
• National Commission for Linguistic Minority 
Q 45.C 
• Statement 1 is correct: It is a five member body whose appointment is done by President. It constitutes 
one chairman, one vice chairman and three other members. 
•  Statement  2  is  incorrect:  It  submits  annual  report  to  President  who place it in parliament along with the 
memorandum  explaining  the  action  taken  on  the  recommendation  made  by  the  Commission.  The 
memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non acceptance of any of such recommendation. 
• The President also forwards any report of the Commission pertaining to a state government to the state 
governor. 
•  Statement  3  is  correct:  It has the powers of civil court. It can summon and enforce the attendance of any 
person from any part of India and examine him on oath. It can request any public record from any court or 
office. 
Q 46.D 
The National Commission for the STs can take the following measures: 
• To prevent alienation of tribal people from land and to effectively rehabilitate such people in whose case 
alienation has already taken place. 
• To take measure to reduce and ultimately eliminate the practice of shifting cultivation by tribals that 
lead to their continuous disempowerment and degradation of land and the environment. 
• To take measure to ensure full implementation of the provisions of Panchayats (Extension to the 
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. 
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Q 47.C 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Linguistic minority is defined on a state wise basis. It is a group of people 
whose mother tongue is different from that of the majority in the state or part of a state. 
• Statement 2 is correct: It is a constitutional body. It was inserted as Art. 350-B in the constitution on the 
recommendation of State Reorganization Commission (1953-55). 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities work under the aegis of Ministry of 
Minority Affairs. 
Q 48.C 
• Statement 1 is correct. An administrator of a UT is considered as an agent of president not the 
constitutional head of the state like a Governor. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect as governor who is also administrator of adjoining UT has to act independently 
of his council of minister in that capacity. 
•  Statement  3  is  correct  as  constitution  does  not  contain  any  specific  provision  for  administration  of 
acquired  territories.  But  the  constitution  provision  for  the  administration  of  UT  also  applies  to  any 
acquired territory. 
Q 49.A 
•  Statement  (a)  is  correct  because  the  Constitution  makers  believed  that  a  State  which  was  elected  by 
people  can  hardly  ever  ignore  these  ideals.  Since  there  were  difficulties  owing  to  the  lack  of  resources, 
vastness  and  diversity  of  the  country,  they  left  it on the wisdom of the people to get these ideals enforced 
as laws in due course of time. 
• Statement (b) is not correct as the DPSP's tried to ensure a welfare state in addition to the Rights already 
guaranteed in the FR's. 
• Statement (c) is not correct because they were aware that it was difficult to implement them at the time 
of independence. However, they believed that it will be possible in future. 
• Statement (d) is not correct as lack of resources was a problem at the time of independence but was 
never considered as a problem to be perpetual. 
Q 50.D 
• Statement 1 is incorrect.The State legislative assembly is not suspended although the Parliament 
assumes the power to make laws on any subject on the State List. 
• Laws made by the Parliament become inoperative after 6 months of revocation of National emergency. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. 
•  Statement  3  is  correct.  While  a  proclamation  of  national  emergency  is  in  operation,  the  President  can 
modify  the  constitutional  distribution  of  revenues  between  the  centre  and  the  states.  This  means  that  the 
president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states. 
Q 51.D 
•  The  role  of  CAG  in  the  auditing  of  public  corporations  is  limited.  Some  corporations  are  totally 
subjected  to  private  audit.  Their  audit  is  done  exclusively  by  private  professional  auditors  and  the  CAG 
does  not  come  into  the  picture  at  all.  They  submit  their  annual  reports  and  accounts  directly  to  the 
Parliament.  Examples  of  such  corporations  are  Life  Insurance  Corporation  of  India,  Reserve  Bank  of 
India, State Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, and others. 
•  The  secret  service  expenditure  is  a  limitation  on  the  auditing  role  of  the  CAG.  In  this regard, the CAG 
cannot call for particulars of expenditure incurred by the executive agencies, but has to accept a certificate 
from the competent administrative authority that the expenditure has been so incurred under his authority. 
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Q 52.B 
• Statement 1 is correct. Indian Councils Act of 1861 empowered Viceroys to issue ordinances without 
concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was 6 months. 
•  Statement  2  is  correct.  It  made  a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the 
law-making  process.  It  thus  provided  that  the  viceroy  should  nominate  some  Indians  as  non-official 
members  of  his  expanded  council.  In  1862,  Lord  Canning,  the  then  viceroy,  nominated  three  Indians  to 
his legislative council-the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect. 
Q 53.C 
•  Apart  from the DPSP's mentioned in Part IV of the Constitution, there are certain other provisions of the 
Constitution  which  are  in  the  form  of  Directive Principles for the state. These directives are the related to 
the  claims  of  SC's,  ST's  to  services,  instruction  in  mother  tongue  and  development  of  Hindi  language. 
They are also not justiciable as Part IV. 
• 1 is correct as this is under Article 350A, in Part XVII of the Constitution. 
• 2 is correct as this is under Article 335, in Part XVI of the Constitution. 
• 3 is not correct as it is under Article 43A, in Part IV of the Constitution. 
Q 54.C 
• Statement 1 is correct. Article 355 imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the Govt of every state is 
carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Under Article 356, the President can impose President's rule with or without 
receiving a report from the governor of the concerned state. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The President can impose the National emergency only after receiving the 
written consent of the Cabinet ,not the Loksabha. This was added by 44th amendment Act. 
Q 55.C 
• Statement 1 is Incorrect. NHRC is a statutory body and not a constitutional body. It was established in 
1993 under a legislation enacted by the parliament, namely, the Prevention of Human Rights Act, 1993. 
• Statement 2 is Correct. NHRC has its own nucleus of investigation staff for investigation into 
complaints of human rights violations. 
•  Statement  3  is  Correct.  The  commission  is  not  empowered  to inquire into any matter after the expiry of 
one  year  from  the  date  on  which  the  act  constituting  violation  of  human  rights  is  alleged  to  have  been 
committed. 
Q 56.A 
The Supreme Court has held that a religious denomination must satisfy three conditions: 
• It should be a collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs (doctrines), which they regard as 
conducive to their spiritual well being. 
• It should have a common organization 
• It should be designated by a distinctive name. 
Q 57.C 
•  Statement  1  is  correct.  The  constitution  prohibits  levying  tax  for  promotion  or  maintenance  of  any 
particular  religion.  But  it  does  not  prohibit  putting  a  fee  on  any  religious  services.  This  is  because  the 
purpose of fee is to control secular administration of religious institutions. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
Q 58.C 
• The members from the princely stats were nominated and members from that of British Provinces were 
elected indirectly from the Provincial Legislative Assemblies, but not directly by the people. 
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Q 59.D 
• Statement 1: Correct: It had provision that said, "……shall be guaranteed and secured to all people of 
India freedom of thought, expression, belief…." 
• Statement 2: Correct: It had provision that said, "wherein adequate safeguards shall be provided for 
minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward class….." 
•  Statement  3:  Correct:  It  had provision that said, "this ancient land attains its rightful and honoured place 
in  the  world  and  makes  its  full  and  willing  contribution  to  the  promotion  of  world peace and the welfare 
of mankind". 
Q 60.D 
• 1 is correct: In addition to making of the constitution, it had performed the function of Legislative 
Assembly. It enacted the ordinary laws. 
• 2 is correct: It also adopted the national Anthem on January 24, 1950 and national flag on July 22, 1947. 
• 3 is correct: it elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. 
Q 61.B 
•  Statement  1:  incorrect:  Some  provisions  of  the  constitution  pertaining  to  Citizenship,  elections, 
provisional  parliament  etc.,  came  to  force  on  November  26, 1949 itself. January 26, 1950 was referred to 
as  "Date  of  commencement  of  the  constitution"  as  the  remaining  major  provisions  of  the  constitution 
came to force on this date. 
•  Statement  2:  correct: With the commence of the constitution, India Independence Act of 1947 and Govt. 
of  India  Act  of  1935  were  repealed  because  India  Independence  Act  of 1947 itself provided for repeal of 
any act of British Parliament including India Independence Act of 1947 itself. 
Q 62.D 
• Statement 1 is incorrect as chief minister of Delhi is appointed by president not by lieutenant governor. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect as Assembly can make laws on all matters of state and concurrent list except 
three matters of state list public order, police and land. 
• Statement 3 is also incorrect as 69th constitutional amendment act has fixed the strength of council of 
minister at 10% of total strength of legislative assembly 
Q 63.C 
• Statement 1: incorrect: The fundamental rights promote the political democracy only. It is the DPSPs 
which promote social and economic democracy in the country. 
• Statement 2: incorrect:These rights are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions like public 
safety, morality, decency etc. For e.g. article 19(2) provides for limitations on article 19(1)(a). 
Q 64.C 
•  Both  the  statements  are  correct.  Using  the  Constitution  amending  power,  provided  under  article  368, 
parliament  can  amend  any part of the constitution. But, this power is not unlimited as, according to article 
13(2),  parliament  can  not  enact  any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights. This power 
is basis of judicial review. This power limits the sovereignty of the Parliament. Article 21 provided for the 
phrase"  procedure  established  by  law",  instead  of  "due  process  of  law".  However  the  SC  in  the  Maneka 
Gandhi  case  declared  that  Indian  judiciary  follows  'due  process  of  law'  as  well,  where  court  can  go 
beyond the letters of the law. 
Q 65.A 
•  Dr  Ambedkar  called  Article  32  as  the  most  important  article  of  the  constitution  -  an  article  without 
which  this  constitution  would  be  nullity.  It  is  the  very  soul  of  the  Constitution  and  the  very  heart  of  it. 
Supreme Court also held that Article 32 is a basic feature of the constitution. 
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Q 66.C 
•  The  Chairman  and  Members  hold  office  for  a  term  of  5  years  or  until  they  attain  the  age  of  70  years, 
whichever  is  earlier.  After  their  tenure,  the  Chairman  and  Members  are  not  eligible  for  further 
employment under the central or state government. 
•  The  Chairman  and  members  can  be  removed  by  the  President  if  he  is  adjudged  insolvent,  if  he  is  of 
unsound  mind,  takes  up  paid  employment  outside the duties of the office. In these cases the President has 
to  refer  the  matter  to  the  Supreme  Court  for  an  inquiry.  If  the  Supreme  Court,  after  the  inquiry  upholds 
the cause of removal and advices so, then the President can remove the Chairman or a Member. 
Q 67.D 
•  Statement  1:  correct:  Unlike  USA,  where  it  has  two  sets of constitutions for center and states, India has 
single  constitution  for  both  states  and  center.  The  Indian  constitution  is  also  flexible  unlike  the  case of a 
true  federation  where  it  will  be  rigid.  This  is  a  centralizing tendency as states boundary can be altered by 
the center. 
• Statement 2: correct: The candidates selected for All India services were recruited and trained by the 
centre but are to be served in the states, which do not have the capacity to 'remove' them. 
• Statement 3: correct: The governor having many discretionary powers at the state is appointed by the 
center. This is one of the major centralising tendency. 
Q 68.D 
• Statement 1 is incorrect. In institutions administered by the State but established under any endowment 
or trust, religious instruction is permitted. (Article 28) 
•  Statement  2  is  incorrect.  No  person  attending  any  educational  institution  recognized  by  that  state  or 
receiving  aid  out  of  the  State  funds  shall  be  required to attend any religious instruction or worship in that 
institution without his consent. (Article 28) 
Q 69.C 
•  Both  Dhar  commission  and  JVP  committee  rejected  language  as  the  basis  for  reorganisation  of  states. 
Fazl  Ali  commission  broadly  accepted  language  as  the  criteria  for  reorganisation  of  states,  however  it 
rejected one- language one - state policy. 
Q 70.C 
•  Statement  1  is  correct.  Constitution  provides  that  the  right  to  move  Supreme  Court  for  enforcing 
Fundamental  Rights  can  be  curtailed  in  some  circumstances.  Therefore  President  can  suspend  right  to 
move any court for the enforcement of the fundamental rights during national emergency. 
• Statement 2 is also correct. Other rights like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, 
customary rights, can't be enforced under Article 32. 
•  Statement  3  is also correct. Parliament can empower any other court to issue directions, orders and writs 
of  all  kinds.  However  this  can  be  done  without  prejudice  to  the  above  powers  conferred  on the Supreme 
Court. Here any other court does not include High courts. 
Q 71.B 
• Statement 1 is incorrect - constitution derives its authority from the people of India not from the 
constituent assembly, this is mentioned in the preamble part of the constitution. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect - the American constitution was the first to begin with a Preamble. Many 
countries, including India, followed the practice. 
•  Statement  3  is  correct  -  In  Keshavananda  Bharti  case,  SC  has  held  that  preamble  is  a  part  of 
Constitution.  And  if  there  is  any  lack  of  clarity  in  the  constitution,  the  judiciary  turns  to the Preamble in 
its interpretation of the relevant provisions. 
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Q 72.D 
•  Prohibition  means  to  forbid.  It  is  issued  by  a  higher  court  to  a  lower  court  or  tribunal  to  prevent  latter 
from  exceeding  its  jurisdiction.  Unlike  Mandamus  which  directs  activity,  the  prohibition  directs 
inactivity. It can be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. 
•  Certiorari  means  to  be  certified  or  to  be  informed.  It  is  issued  by  higher  court  to  lower  court  either  to 
transfer  a  case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of latter in a case. Unlike prohibition, 
which is only preventive, certiorari is both preventive as well as curative. 
• Quo-Warranto enquires into the legality of claim to the office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be 
sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved. 
Q 73.B 
•  Statement  1  is  incorrect.  Martial  law  has  not  been  defined  anywhere  in  the  Constitution.  It  is  implicit. 
Also  there  is  no  specific  or  express  provision  in  the  Constitution  that  authorizes  the  executive  to declare 
Martial  Law.  However  the  article  34  provides  for  the  restrictions  on  fundamental  rights  while  Martial 
Law is in force in any area. 
•  Statement  2  is  correct.  Both  Martial  Law  and  National  Emergency can be imposed in the some specific 
area.  However  the  scope  of  National  emergency is much more. It can be imposed in the whole country as 
well. 
Q 74.A 
•  Statement  1  is  correct.  The  44th  amendment  act  of  1978  inserted  a  new  Article  300A  in  part  XII.  It 
provides  that  no  person  shall  be  deprived  of  his  property  except  by  authority  of  law.  Thus  the  right  to 
property remains a constitutional right. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect. It was 44th Amendment Act not 42nd Amendment Act that abolished Right to 
Property as a fundamental right. 
• Statement 3 is correct. According to 44th Amendment Act, 1978 no person shall be deprived of his 
property except by authority of law. 
Q 75.C 
•  Statement  1  is  correct.  Article  1  describes  India,  that  is,  Bharat  as  a  † ̃Union  of  Statesâ€TM  which 
includes  only  states  not  Union  Territories.  However the territory of India includes not only states but also 
Union territories and also any territory that India may acquire in future. 
• Statement 2 is also correct as states are member of federal system and share a distribution of power with 
centre. On the other hand Union territories are directly administered by centre. 
Q 76.C 
• Statement 1 is correct - Sovereign means India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other 
state. There is no authority above it and it is free to conduct its own affairs. 
• Statement 2 is correct - Being a sovereign state, India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part 
of its territory in favor of a foreign state. 
Q 77.D 
The Union Territories in India have been created for a variety of reasons. These are mentioned below: 
• Political and administrative consideration-Delhi and Chandigarh. 
• Cultural distinctiveness-Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu. 
• Strategic importance-Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. 
• Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people-Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura and Arunachal 
Pradesh which later became states. 
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Q 78.A 
• Statement 1 is correct - In Indian federation, states have no right to secede from the federation. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect - Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the 
American federation 
Q 79.B 
• During the operation of National Emergency, the Centre assumes complete control over the state 
government although the state government is not suspended. Statement 1 is incorrect. 
• A National Emergency once proclaimed,has to be approved by both the houses of the Parliament by a 
Special majority. Statement 2 is correct. 
•  The  President  can  revoke  a  National  Emergency  without  the  Parliament's  approval.However,the 
President  must  revoke,  if  the  Loksabha  passes  a  resolution  by  a  simple  majority.Hence,Statement  3  is 
correct. 
Q 80.D 
Some basic structures listed by judges in various judgements: 
• Supremacy of the Constitution 
• Sovereign, democratic and republican naive of the Indian polity 
• Secular character of the Constitution 
• Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary 
• Federal character of the Constitution 
• Unity and integrity orate nation 
• Welfare state (socio-economic justice) 
• Judicial review 
• Freedom and dignity of the individual 
• Parliamentary system 
• Rule of law 
• Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles 
• Principle of equality 
• Free and fair elections 
• Independence of Judiciary 
• Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution 
• Effective access to justice 
• Principle of reasonableness 
• Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142 
Q 81.A 
• Statement 1 is correct. Any bill contemplating the changes with regard to reorganisation of states can be 
introduced in the parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. 
•  Statements  2  is  incorrect.  Under  article  3  of  the  Constitution,  the  parliament's  power  to  diminish  the 
areas  of  a  state  does  not  include  the  power  to  cede  Indian  territory  to  a  foriegn state. Indian territory can 
be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Any bill aiming to reorganise the states shall be passed in the parliament by a 
simple majority. 
Q 82.A 
• 1 is Incorrect. CIC submits an annual report to the Central Government which places the report before 
each houses of the parliament. 
•  2  is  Incorrect.  NHRC  submits  its  annual  or  special  report  to  the  Central  Government  and  to  the  State 
Government  concerned.  These  reports  are  laid  before  respective  legislatures,  along  with  a  memorandum 
of  action  taken  on  the  recommendations  of  the  commission  and  the  reasons  for  non-  acceptance  of  any 
such recommendations. 
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• 3 is Correct. Among the given bodies, it is only the CVC which presents its annual report to the 
President. 
Q 83.C 
•  Statement  1  is  correct.  in  India  both  citizens  by  birth  as  well  as  naturalized  citizens  are  eligible  for the 
office  of the President while in USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the 
office of President. 
• Statement 2 is correct. Fundamental Duties under the part of IVA to the Indian Constitution are 
applicable only to Citizens of India not for aliens. 
Q 84.D 
•  Statement  1  is  incorrect  -  democracy is of two types - direct and indirect, Referendum, Initiative, Recall 
and  Plebiscite  are  the  four  main  devices  of  direct  democracy.  Representative  democracy  is  also  called 
indirect democracy. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect - the term 'democratic' is used in the preamble in the broader sense embracing 
not only the political democracy but also social and economic democracy. 
Q 85.C 
•  Statement  1  is  correct  -  When  a  person  renounces  his  Indian  citizenship,  every  minor  child  of  that 
person  also  loses  Indian  citizenship.  However,  when  such  a  child  attains  the  age  of  eighteen,  he  may 
resume Indian citizenship. 
• Statement 2 is correct - Both in the case of 'Renunciation' and 'termination', if such a declaration is made 
during a war in which India is engaged, its registration can be withheld by the Central Government. 
Q 86.D 
•  Statement  1  is  incorrect  -  The  Constitution  (under  Article  15)  prohibits  discrimination  against  any 
citizen  on  grounds  of  religion,  race,  caste,  sex  or  place  of  birth  and  not  on  the  ground  of residence. This 
means  that  the  state  can  provide  special  benefits  or  give  preference  to  its  residents  in  matters that do not 
come  within  the  purview  of  the  rights  given  by  the  Constitution  to  the  Indian  citizens.  For  example,  a 
state may offer concession in fees for education to its residents. 
•  Statement  2  is  incorrect  -  tribal people can reside anywhere in the country but outsiders cannot reside in 
tribal  areas.  Also  in  the  case  of  Jammu  and  Kashmir,  the  state  legislature  is  empowered  to  define  the 
persons who are permanent residents of the state. 
Q 87.B 
•  In  the  present  case,  the SC can issue writ of Mandamus. The writ of Mandamus is a command issued by 
the  court  to  a  public  official  asking  him  to  perform  his  official  duties  that  he  has  failed  or  refused  to 
perform. 
Q 88.B 
•  Statement  1  is  incorrect.  Indian  liberalism  is  different  from  classical  or  western  liberalism.  Classical 
liberalism  is  more  concerned  towards  the  individual  freedom.  While  in  India,  an  individual  identifies 
himself  with  the  community  to  which  he/she  belongs.  So  Indian  liberalism  gives primacy to the rights of 
the individuals over the demands of social justice and community values. 
• Statement 2 is correct. The reservation to deprived class to meet their demands for social justice 
signifies the idea of Indian liberalism. 
Q 89.C 
• Except the Fundamental Rights under the articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 all the Fundamental Rights are 
available to both citizens and foreign nationals. 
• Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the 
laws within the territory of India 
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• This is so because any modern progressive state cannot violate rule of Law for foreigners 
• Article 15: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, 
sex, place of birth or any of them. 
• Foreigners are deemed to be discriminated in matters of voting rights, property, employment etc. on 
factors like place of birth and thus this right cannot be given to foreigners. 
• Article 21(A): The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to 
fourteen years. 
• Article 29: Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a 
distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same. Q 90.A 
The  42nd  Constitutional  Amendment  Act  (1976)  brought  a  number  of  changes  in  the  Constitution.  It 
established  the  supremacy  of  Parliament  and  curtailed  the  powers  of  Judiciary.  The  Act  was  first  of  its 
kind.  It  was  the  most  comprehensive  Act  and  touched  almost  all  the  sensitive  areas  of  the  Constitution. 
The Amendment was meant to enhance enormously the strength of the Government. 
• Statement 1 is correct. This amendment act made changes in the Preamble, Seventh Schedule and 53 
articles of the constitution. 
•  Statement  2  is  incorrect.  This  act  was  an  attack  on the powers of the judiciary. It tried to restrict review 
power of judiciary. However it tried to override the Supreme Court ruling in the Kesavananda case not the 
Minerva Mills Case. 
• Statement 3 is correct. The Act inter-alia gave preponderance to the Directive Principles of State Policy 
over the Fundamental Rights. Q 91.B 
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 17 states that "Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any form is 
forbidden. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Untouchability has not been defined by the constitution but various court 
judgements has expanded its meaning. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It is available against both the state and private individuals. Protection of Civil 
Rights Act,1955 contains many provisions for this. 
•  Statement  4  is  correct:  Article  17  only  states  that  the  enforcement  of  any  disability  arising  out  of 
"Untouchability"  shall  be  an  offence  punishable  in  accordance  with  law.  Protection  of  Civil  Rights  Act, 
1955 contains the detailed provisions for this. 
Q 92.D 
• 1 is correct: It provides for the dual system of government, one at the centre and one at the state level. 
• 2 is correct: It requires written constitution, to clearly demarcate the power of centre and state. 
• 3 is correct: It establishes independent judiciary, so as to resolve the disputes between the centre and 
state government. Q 93.A 
•  Statement  1  is  correct:  The  Attorney  General  (AG)  is  appointed  by  the  president.  He  must  be  a person 
who  is  qualified  to  be  appointed  a  judge  of  the  Supreme  Court.  In  other  words,  he  must  be  a  citizen  of 
India  and  he  must  have  been  a  judge  of  some  high  court for five years or an advocate of some high court 
for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president. 
•  Statement  2  is  incorrect:  The  Constitution  does  not  contain  the  procedure  and  grounds for his removal. 
He  holds  office  during  the  pleasure  of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president 
at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns 
or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice. However, it is not mandatory for him. 
Q 94.B 
• Statement 1 is not correct as it is a part of the Socialist principles but not Gandhian principles. 
• Statement 2 is not correct as it is also a part of Socialist principles. 
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photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision IAS 
• Statement 3 is correct as Gandhiji had always advocated the self governance model through village 
Panchayats. 
Q 95.C 
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Formation of new state requires amendment in constitution under article 3 by 
simple majority and it is not considered as amendment under the article 368. 
•  Both  Statement  2  and  3  are  correct.  Special  majority  under  article  368  required  for  amendment  by 
parliament  is  the  majority  of  the  total  membership  of  each  House  and  a  majority  of  two-thirds  of  the 
members present and voting. 
• Amendment of the provisions related to federal features of the constitution requires consent of the half 
of the states along with the special majority. 
Q 96.C 
• The power of Judicial review was borrowed from the United States. All the other pairs are correctly 
matched. 
Q 97.D 
Option (a) is incorrect: After Menaka case, SC ruled that Right to Life and Liberty can be deprived by a 
law provided the procedure prescribed by law is reasonable, fair and just. It is similar to "due process of 
law" as enshrined under American Constitution. Option (b) is incorrect: Article 20 and 21 can not be 
suspended even during National emergency. Option (c) is incorrect: Right to Life under article 21 does 
not provide for euthanasia. It is the Supreme Court which has permitted passive euthanasia in India that 
too after the matter is referred to High Court. 
Q 98.A 
• Options 1 and 2 are required to be amended by special majority of parliament only. 
• Options 3 and 5 are required to be amended by simple majority of parliament and these amendments are 
outside the scope of Article 368. 
• Option 4 is required to be amended by a special majority of parliament and also with the consent of half 
of the state legislatures by simple majority. 
Q 99.C 
• Statement 1 is correct. Supreme Court in 1992 stated that Fundamental duties can be used in 
determining the constitutionality of any law. 
•  Statement  2  is  correct.  Parliament  is  free  to  enforce  Fundamental  duties  through  a  suitable  legislation. 
Many  legislations  like  the  Prevention  of  Insults  to  National  Honour  Act,  1971  make  insult  to  national 
symbols a punishable act. 
Q 100.A 
• Statement 1: correct: by this act, constituent assembly made fully sovereign body. This act also 
empowered the assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British in relation to India 
• Statement 2: incorrect: The act abolished the office of viceroy and provided for each dominion, a 
governor - General. 
•  statement  3:  Incorrect:  This  act  ended  British  Rule  in  India  and  declared  India  as  an  independent  and 
sovereign  state  from  August  15,  1947.  It  proclaimed  the  lapse  of  British  paramountcy  over  Indian 
Princely  states  and  granted  freedom  to  princely  states  to  either  to  join two independent state (Pakistan or 
India)s or remain independent. 
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