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Article 2 of the RPC. Except as provided in the treaties and laws of preferential application, the provisions of this Code shall be enforced not only
within the Philippine Archipelago, including its atmosphere, its interior waters and maritime zone, but also outside of its jurisdiction, against those
who:
1. Should commit an offense while on a Philippine ship or airship;
2. Should forge or counterfeit any coin or currency note of the Philippine Islands or obligations and securities issued by the Government of
the Philippine Islands;
3. Should be liable for acts connected with the introduction into these islands of the obligations and securities mentioned in the preceding
number;
4. While being public officers or employees, should commit and offense in the exercise of their functions; or
5. Should commit any of the crimes against national security and the law of the nations, defined in Title One of Book Two of this Code.
DIFFERENTITATE GRAVE, LESS GRAVE AND LIGHT FELONIES IN TERMS OF IMPOSABLE PENALTY.
Article 9 of the RPC. Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the capital punishment or penalties which in any of their periods are
afflictive. Less grave felonies are those which the law punishes with penalties which in their maximum period are correctional. Light felonies are
those infractions of law for the commission of which the penalty of arresto menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos, or both, is provided.
DISTINGUISH BETWEEN JUSTIFYING, EXEMPTING, MITIGATING, AGGRAVATING AND ALTERNATIVE CIRCUMSTANCES. GIVE ONE EXAMPLE FOR
EACH.
Justifying circumstances => those acts of a person said to be in accordance with law, such that a person is deemed not to have committed a crime
and is therefore free from both criminal and civil liability (self-defense, defense of relatives, defense of stranger, fulfillment of a duty or exercise of
right or office; and obedience to an order of a superior)
Exempting circumstances => when present, the act is unjustified and criminal but the actor is exempt from criminal liability which does not extend,
however, to the civil liability arising from the crime (minority, insanity, imbecility, accident, irresistible force, uncontrollable fear, and lawful and
insuperable cause)
Mitigating circumstances => those which if present in the commission of the crime, do not entirely free the actor from criminal liability but serve
only to reduce the penalty (incomplete justifying or exempting circumstance; offender is under 18 years old or over 70 years old; no intention to
commit so grave a wrong; sufficient threat or provocation; vindication of a grave offense; passion or obfuscation; voluntary surrender; physical
defect; illness of the offender; similar and analogous circumstances; and humanitarian reasons)
Aggravating circumstances => those which, if attendant in the commission of the crime, serve to have the penalty imposed in its maximum period
provided by law for the offense or changes the nature of the crime (advantage taken of public position; contempt or insult to public authorities;
disregard of age, sex, or dwelling of the offended party; abuse of confidence and obvious ungratefulness; Palace and place of commission of
offense; nighttime, uninhabited place or band; on occasion of calamity or misfortune; aid of armed men, or persons who insure or afford impunity;
recidivist; reiteracion; price, reward or promise; by means of inundation, fire, poison, explosion, stranding of a vessel or intentional damage
thereto, derailment of a locomotive, or by the use of any other artifice involving great waste or ruin; evident premeditation; craft, fraud or disguise;
superior strength or means to weaken the defense; treachery; ignominy; unlawful entry; breaking a wall; aid of minor or by means of motor vehicle
or other similar means; and cruelty)
Alternative circumstances => those which must be taken into consideration as aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and effects of the
crime (relationship, intoxication and degree of instruction and education of the offender)
(A) DURING THE TRIAL, THE COURT ORDERED THE CONFINEMENT OF X IN A MENTAL HOSPITAL DUE TO DIAGNOSIS OF PSYCHOSIS. X WAS
IN THE HOSPITAL FOR 6 MONTHS. AFTER DISCHARGE, X FILED A MOTION FOR RELEASE FROM DETENTION CONTENTDING THAT HE
HAD ALREADY SERVED THE MAXIMUM PENALTY IMPOSABLE. IS X CORRECT?
No. X’s confinement is not a penalty because it was not imposed as a result of a judicial proceeding but a mere preventive measure.
(B) WHAT ARE THE FIVE MEASURES OF PREVENTION OR SAFETY THAT MAY BE IMPOSED WHICH ARE NOT CONSIDERED PENALTIES UNDER
THE RPC?
1. The arrest and temporary detention of accused persons, as well as their detention by reason of insanity or imbecility, or illness requiring
their confinement in a hospital;
2. The commitment of a minor to any of the institutions mentioned in Art. 80 and for the purposes specified therein;
3. Suspension from the employment or public office during the trial or in order to institute proceedings;
4. Fines and other corrective measures which, in the exercise of their administrative or disciplinary powers, superior officials may impose
upon their subordinates; and
5. Deprivation of rights and the reparations which the civil law may establish in penal form.
(A) DIFFERENTIATE THE COMPUTATION OF PENALTIES WHEN THE OFFENDER IS IN PRISON AND WHEN NOT IN PRISON.
When the offender is in prison, the duration of temporary penalties is from the day on which the judgment of conviction becomes final. When the
offender is not in prison, the duration of the penalty consisting in deprivation of liberty is from the day that the offender is placed at the disposal of
the judicial authorities for the enforcement of the penalty.
(B) MAY THE PERIOD OF PREVENTIVE IMPRISONMENT BE DEDUCTED FROM THE TERM OF IMPRISONMENT?
Under Article 29 of the RPC, as amended by RA 10592, an accused who has undergone preventive imprisonment shall be credited, either full of 4/5
of the term, in the service of their sentence consisting of deprivation of liberty, provided he is not disqualified. Credit is full if the detention
prisoner executed detainee’s manifestation, which is defines as a written declaration of a detained prisoner, with the assistance of a counsel,
stating his willingness to abide by the same disciplinary rules imposed upon a convicted prisoner for the purpose of availing the full credit of the
period of his preventive imprisonment. Credit is 4/5 if the detention prisoner executed detainee’s waiver, which is defined as a written declaration
of a detained prisoner, with the assistance of a counsel, stating his refusal to abide by the same disciplinary rules imposed upon a prisoner
convicted by a final judgment.
HOW IS DESTIERRO CLASSIFIED AS A PENALTY AND WHAT ARE ITS EFFECT/S WHEN IMPOSED BY THE COURT?
Destierro is a principal penalty. It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a certain place and is prohibited from entering or coming near
the place designated in the sentence, not less than 25 kms but not to extend beyond 250 kms.
MAY THE DEFENDANT SERVE THE PENALTY OF ARRESTO MENOR IN HIS HOUSE?
Under Article 88 of the RPC, service of arresto menor may be in the municipal jail or in the house of the offender but under the surveillance of an
officer of the law whenever the court provides in the decision due to the health of the offender or other reasons satisfactory to the court.
(A) ACCUSSED X DIED AFTER FINAL JUDGMENT AND WHILE HE IS SERVING HIS SENTENCE. WILL THE DEATH OF X EXTINGUISH BOTH
PECUNIARY AND PERSONAL PENALTIES?
When the death of the offender occurs after final judgment, only his criminal liability is extinguished. However, his civil liability is not affected by
his death and can be effected against the estate of the deceased.
MAY THE COURT GRANT TIME ALLOWANCES? MAY IT BE REVOKED BY THE DIRECTOR OF THE BUREAU OF CORRECTIONS?
No. under Article 99 of the RPC as amended by RA 10592, whenever lawfully justified, the Director of the Bureau of Corrections, the Chief of the
Bureau of Jail Management and Penology and/or the Warden of a provincial, district, municipal or city jail shall grant allowances for good conduct.
Such allowances once granted shall not be revoked.
A REPEATEDLY STABBED X BELIEVING HIM TO BE Y KILLING THE FORMER INSTANTLY. A’S DEFENSE IS ERROR IN PERSONAE, INSISTING THAT HE
DID NOT INTEND TO KILL X. IS A CRIMINALLY LIABLE FOR THE KILLING OF X?
Yes. In error in personae, a person is criminally responsible for committing an intentional felony although the actual victim is different from the
intended victim due to mistake of identity. The accused acted with dolo, hence, he shall incur criminal liability.
HOW IS TREASON COMMITTED? MAY THE PHILIPPINES CHARGE X, AN AUSTRIAN NATIONAL, WITH TREASON FOR ACTS COMMITTED AGAINST
THE PHILIPPINES DURING A WAR WITH CHINA, BY X WHILE IN FRANCE?
Treason is committed by any Filipino citizen or an alien residing in the Philippines, who shall levy war against the Philippines or adheres to her
enemies giving them aid or comfort within the Philippines or elsewhere. If an alien, while residing in a foreign country, does an act, which would
amount to treason if committed by a citizen of that country, he will be held liable for treason. Furthermore, Article 114 of the RPC punishes a
resident alien for committing treason
Y, A RESIDENT ALIEN, FAILED TO REPORT TREASON COMMITTED BY A AND B. MAY Y BE CHARGED FOR MISPRISION OF TREASON?
No. A resident alien cannot commit misprision of treason as it can only be committed by a Filipino citizen. Article 116 of the RPC expressly excludes
a foreigner.
DISTINGUISH QUALIFIED PIRACY UNDER THE RPC AND UNDER ANTI-PIRACY LAW (PD 532).
Under the RPC, qualified piracy is committed whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by boarding or firing upon the same; the pirates have
abandoned their victims without means of saving themselves; or it is accompanied by murder, homicide, rape or physical injuries. Under the Anti-
Piracy Law, qualified piracy is committed if as a result or on the occasion of piracy, rape, murder or homicide, physical injuries or other crimes are
committed, or when the offenders abandoned the victims without means of saving themselves, or when the seizure is accomplished by firing or
boarding a vessel.
DEFINE TERRORISM UNDER HUMAN SECURITY ACT OF 2007. GIVE 5 EXAMPLES OF PREDICATE CRIMES FOR TERRORISM.
Under Section 3 of RA No. 9372, terrorism is perpetrated by a person who commits a predicate crime which creates a condition of widespread and
extraordinary fear and panic among populace in order to coerce the government to give in to an unlawful demand. The predicate crimes of
terrorism are:
1. Piracy
2. Highway robbery
3. Hijacking
4. Rebellion
5. Coup d’ etat
6. Murder
7. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention
8. Crimes involving destruction
9. Arson
10. Crimes involving unlicensed (loose) firearms and explosives
MAY PROHIBITED DRUG DEPENDENTS BE COMPELLED TO LEAVE QUEZON CITY AND LIVE IN CALAMBA CITY?
No. Such act constitutes the crime of expulsion wherein a pubic officer expels any person from the Philippines or compels him to change his
residence without being authorized by law.
WHAT IS THE TRUE TEST OF LACK OF JUST CAUSE IN SEARCH WARRANT MALICIOUSLY OBTAINED?
The true test of lack of just cause is whether the affidavit filed in support of the application for search warrant has been drawn in such a manner
that perjury could be charged thereon.
DISTINGUISH BETWEEN (A) INSURRECTION AND REBELLION; AND (B) COUP D’ ETAT AND SEDITION.
Rebellion or insurrection is committed by multitude of persons who rise publicly and take arms against the Government for the purpose of: (1)
removing the territory of the Philippines or part thereof, or its armed forces from the allegiance to said Government or its laws; or (2) depriving the
Chief Executive of the Legislature of any of their powers or prerogatives or part thereof. The object of rebellion is to completely overthrow and
supersede the existing government. In insurrection, it merely seeks to effect some change of minor importance, or to prevent the exercise of
governmental authority with respect to particular matters or subjects.
Coup d’ etat is committed by military, police or pubic officer with or without support or participation of civilians, who swiftly and singly or
simultaneously attacks by means of violence, intimidation, threat, strategy or stealth, the duly constituted authorities of the Philippines, or facilities
needed for the exercise and continued possession of power such as military camp or installation, communications networks, or public utilities
anywhere in the Philippines for the purpose of seizing or diminishing state power. Sedition is committed by persons who rise publicly and
tumultuously, and by means of force, intimidation, or by other means outside of legal methods, in order: (1) to prevent the promulgation or
execution of any law, administrative order, or the holding of any popular election, or the free exercise of functions of any public officer or the
government; (2) to inflict any act of hate or revenge against private persons or any social class for any political or social end or upon the person or
property of any public officer; or (3) to despoil any person, or government of its property for any political or social end.
A FIRED HIS LICENSED FIREARM IN AN UNINHABITED MOUNTAIN IN BATANES PROVINCE. MAY A BE CHARGED WITH ALARM AND SCANDAL
UNDER THE RPC?
No. As a rule, the crime of alarm by discharging firearms must be committed in a public place. Thus, the discharge of firearm in an uninhabited
forest is not a crime.
X USED A FICTITIOUS NAME TO EVADE A JUDGMENT OF PAYMENT OF P10M AS DAMAGES TO A RENDERED BY THE PASIG RTC. MAY X BE
PROSECUTED FOR OBSTRUCTION OF JUSTICE?
Under Section 1 (d) of PD No. 1829, publicly using a fictitious name for the purpose of concealing a crime, evading prosecution or the execution of
judgment, or concealing his true name and other personal circumstances for the same purpose or purposes is obstruction of justice. Hence, X may
be prosecuted for such.
X, Y AND Z, ALL TELECOMMUNICATION COMPANIES AGREED IN WRITING TO SELL THEIR SERVICES AT PREDETERMINED PRICES. NO ONE CAN
RAISE THEIR PRICE WITHOUT PRIOR CONSENT OF THE OTHER PARTIES. MAY THEY BE PROSECUTED UNDER ARTICLE 186 OF THE RPC?
Yes. Under the RPC, any person who shall enter into any contract or agreement or shall take part in a conspiracy or combination in the form of a
trust or otherwise restraint of trade or commerce or prevent by artificial means free competition in the market is liable for monopolies and
combination in restraint to trade.
A WAS ARRESTED WHILE SNIFFING SHABU AND WHILE IN POSSESSION OF MARIJUANA. HE TESTED POSITIVE OF SHABU BY CONFIRMATORY
TESTING. IS HE LIABLE FOR POSSESSION OF SHABU? IS HE LIABLE FOR POSSESSION OF MARIJUANA?
Under Section 15 of RA 9165, where a person tested positive for dangerous drug is also found to have in his possession of any dangerous drug, he
shall be held liable for possession of dangerous drug under Section 11 thereof. The fact that the kind of dangerous drugs is different from that for
which A was found positive is of no moment. What is important is that he is in possession of any dangerous drugs to exempt him from being
prosecuted for use of dangerous drugs.
Z OFFERED THE SEXUAL SERVICES OF B, A MINOR, TO Y. THIS IS THE THIRD TIME Z HAD OFFERED THE SEXUAL SERVICES OF B TO CUSTOMERS. (A)
IS Z LIABLE FOR RAPE AS PRINCIPAL BY INDISPENSABLE COOPERATION? (B) IS Z LIABLE FOR QUALIFIED TRAFFICKING IN PERSON UNDER RA
9208?
Accompanying a child and offering her sexual services in exchange for money constitutes child prostitution under RA 7610. The accused who
offered the victim to the one who raped her is not liable for rape as principal by indispensable cooperation since bringing the victim to the rapist is
not indispensable to the commission of the crime of rape. If the accused is regularly offering the sexual service of the child in exchange for money,
the crime committed is not anymore child prostitution. Maintaining or hiring the child for the purpose of prostitution constitutes qualified
trafficking in person under RA 9208 because the former took advantage of vulnerability of the latter as a child and as one who need money.
Minority is a qualifying circumstance.
A, A WELL-KNOWN FEMALE RAMP MODEL, SWAM NAKED IN HER SWIMMING POOL INSIDE HER RESIDENCE IN A MAKATI SUBDIVISION. SHE
WAS PHOTOGRAPHED BY HER NEIGHBORS WHO CAN SEE HER SWIMMING NAKED FROM THEIR HOMES. MAY A BE LIABLE FOR GRAVE
SCANDAL?
A may be liable for grave scandal if it obvious to her that she could be seen by her neighbors as such scandalous conduct offends against decency or
good customs. Otherwise, she is not.
B, A PUBLIC OFFICIAL, WAS CONVICTED FOR CORRUPT PRACTICES UNDER RA 3019. LATER, B WAS PROSECUTED FOR THE SAME ACT UNDER THE
RPC. WILL THIS CONSTITUTE DOUBLE JEOPARDY?
Section 3 of RA 3019 provides: In addition to acts or omissions of public officers already penalized by existing law, the following shall constitute
corrupt practices of any public officer. It is clear then that one may be charged with violation of RA 3019 in addition to a felony under the RPC for
the same act.
K, CHAIRMAN OF THE SEC, RECEIVED WITHOUT CONSIDERATION, A CERTAIN NUMBER OF SHARES OF STOCK FROM ALL COMPANIES REGISTERED
WITH THE SEC. MAY K BE PROSECUTED UNDER THE RPC AND RA 3019? WHAT SPECIFIC VIOLATIONS WERE COMMITTED?
(C) IF A NON-ACCOUNTABLE OFFICER MISAPPROPRIATES PUBLIC FUNDS, WHAT IS THE CRIME OR CRIMES COMMITTED, IF ANY? EXPLAIN.
If the public officer is not an accountable officer, as a rule, the crime committed is not malversation but qualified theft. But if the public officer
acquired the public fund through false pretense, the crime committed is estafa.
(F) MAY A PUBLIC OFFICER BE ALLOWED TO RESIGN OR RETIRE PENDING INVESTIGATION FOR ANY OFFENSE UNDER RA 3019?
Under Section 2 of RA 3019, no public officer shall be allowed to resign or retire pending investigation, criminal or administrative, or pending a
prosecution against him, or for any offense under RA 3019 or under the provisions of the RPC on Bribery. However, a public officer facing criminal
investigation or prosecution has the right to resign. Nevertheless, if at the time he retire or resigns, a public official is facing administrative or
criminal investigation or prosecution, such resignation or retirement will not cause the dismissal of the criminal or administrative proceedings
against him.
(B) WHAT ARE THE DIFFERENT TYPES OF CONSPIRACY IN PLUNDER? EXPLAIN EACH.
1. Single conspiracy => the public officer conspired with a single individual or group in committing plunder. The principal plunder in this
case must be a public officer but the participants can be public officers or private individuals.
2. Wheel conspiracy => there is a single person or group (the hub) dealing individually with two or more other persons or groups (the
spokes). In plunder, the principal plunder is the hub while the participants or persons with whom the principal plunder connived in
acquiring ill-gotten wealth are the spokes.
3. Chain conspiracy => usually involves the distribution of narcotics or other contraband in which there is successive communication and
cooperation in such the same way as with legitimate business operations between manufacturer and wholesaler, then wholesaler and
retailer, then retailer and consumer.
(B) MAY UNINTENTIONAL ABORTION BE COMMITTED USING ABORTIVE SUBSTANCES UPON A PREGNANT WOMAN?
No. Unintentional abortion or reckless imprudence resulting in unintentional abortion can only be committed by intentionally or recklessly using
violence upon the woman without intent to cause abortion. Thus, it cannot be committed by using an abortive substance upon the pregnant
woman.
X TOGETHER WITH TWO OF HIS FRIENDS STOLE A’S BULLDOZER AND FORKLIFT. CAN THEY BE PROSECUTED FOR CARNAPPING UNDER R A 10883?
No. Bulldozers and forklifts are expressly among those excluded from the coverage of motor vehicles under Section 2 of RA 10883.
A ACCOMPANIED BY B, C AND D ENTERED THE PROPERTY OF Y, AND USING FORCE AND INTIMIDATION AGAIST A, BUILT A SMALL HOUSE IN Y’S
LAND. ATTORNEY X, REPRESENTING Y, FILED AN EJECTMENT CASE AGAINST A, B, C AND D. IS ATTORNEY X CORRECT?
No. A, B, C and D committed the crime of occupation of real property or usurpation of real rights as they took possession of Y’ property or usurps
real rights in Y’s property by means of violence or intimidation to Y.
DISCUSS THE 3 REQUISITES TO AVAIL THE PRESUMPTION OF KNOWLEDGE OF INSUFFICIENT FUNDS IN BP BLG. 22.
1. The check was presented within 90 days from the issuance of the check;
2. The accused received a written notice of dishonor;
3. The accused fails to pay the holder thereof, or to make arrangements for payment in full by the drawee of such check within five banking
days after receiving notice of dishonor.
DISTINGUISH BETWEEN DESTRUCTIVE ARSON UNDER ARTICLE 320 OF THE RPC AND SIMPLE ARSON UNDER PD NO. 1613.
Destructive arson is characterized as a heinous crime while simple arson under PD 1613 is a crime manifesting a lesser degree of perversity. Simple
arson contemplates the malicious burning of property not included in Article 320 of the RPC. It is an important element of simple arson that the
burning does not constitute destructive arson under the RPC. Burning personal property not listed in Article 320 is simple arson.