Final - Chemistry - KVPY 22sept

CHEMISTRY / KVPY SHEET
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Who named the negatively charged particles present in cathode rays as electrons ?
(A) J.J. Thomson (B) Stoney
(C) Goldstein (D) None of these
2. Electrons were discovered by :
(A) Neils Bohr (B) J.J. Thomson (C) R.A. Millikan (D) Rutherford
3. The charge on an atom is –

(A) positive (B) negative
(C) neutral (D) None of these
4. The name atom belongs to which language?

(A) Latin (B) English (C) French (D) Greek
5. The magnitude of charge on an electron in coulombs is –
(A) 1.76 1011 (B) 1.6 1019
(C) 9.11031 (D) None of these
6. The idea of parmanu was given by –

(A) Maharishi Kanad (B) Democritus
(C) Dalton (D) William Crookes
7. Dalton‟s atomic theory is based on –

(A) Law of conservation of mass (B) Law of definite proportion
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
8. Faraday‟s Dark space refers to –

(A) dark space in the nucleus (B) dark space in the atom
(C) dark space in between the cathode and positive column
(D) dark space between the cathode & cathode glow.
9. Which one of the following is not a property of cathode rays ?

(A) They travel in straight line
(B) They consist of negatively charged particles
(C) They can affect photographic plate
(D) They are not deflected in magnetic field
10. Dalton‟s Atomic theory was proposed in –
(A) 1808 (B) 1807 (C) 1805 (D) 1708
11. The existence of canal rays was determined by –

(A) Dalton (B) Goldstein (C) Thomson (D) Chadwick
CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 1

12. Canal rays were named positive rays by –

(A) Dalton (B) Goldstein (C) Thomson (D) Chadwick
13. The e/m ratio of anode ray particles is maximum for –
(A) Uranium (B) Lead (C) Helium (D) Hydrogen
14. Where are protons located in an atom ?
(A) Around the nucleus (B) Inside the nucleus
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
15. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) A proton is 1837 times heavier than an electron
(B) A proton is 1/1837 times heavier than an electron
(C) An electron is 1837 times heavier than an proton
(D) Proton has the same mass as an electron
16. When alpha particles are bombarded on a thin metal foil, most of them go straight
through the foil because
(A) alpha particles are much heavier than electrons
(B) alpha particles are positively charged
(C) most part of the atom is empty
(D) alpha particles move with high velocity
17. Rutherford‟s scattering experiment is related to the size of –
(A) nucleus (B) atom (C) electron (D) neutron
18. The mass of a proton is –
(A) 1.0073u (B) 1.673 1024 g (C) 1.673 1027 kg (D) All of these
19. Rutherford performed his alpha scattering experiment using –

(A) silver (B) gold (C) mercury (D) diamond
20. A proton is usually represented as –

(A) 1
1 p (B) H
4
(C) 2 He (D) both (A) & (B)
21. Nucleons refer to –
(A) electrons (B) electrons & protons
(C) neutrons (D) neutrons & protons
22. The radius of an atomic nucleus is of the order of –
(A) 1010 cm (B) 1013 cm (C) 1015 cm (D) 108 cm
23. A p-orbital can accommodate upto –

(A) 4 electrons (B) 2 electrons with parallel spins
(C) 6 electrons (D) 2 electrons with opposite spins

24. Energy levels are designated as

(A) K, L, M, N etc (B) k , , m, n etc
(C) I , II , III , IV etc (D) All of these
25. A neutron is represented as –

0 1 1 1
(A) 0 n (B) 1 n (C) 0 n (D) 1 n
26. The different subshells in an atom are represented as –

(A) s, p, d, f (B) S, P, D, F (C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) All of these
27. The maximum number of electrons in N shell is –

(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32
28. The p-orbitals have –

(A) dumb-bell shape (B) spherical shape
(C) double dumb bell shape (D) complex structure
29. The maximum number of electrons in f – sub-shell is –
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 14 (D) 10
30. The maximum number of electron that can be accommodated in the valence shell of
an atom is –
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
31. The electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 29 is –

(A) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p6 ,3d 9 , 4s 2
(B) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p6 ,3d 10 , 4s1
(C) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p6 ,3d 8 , 4s 2 , 4 p1
(D) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p6 ,3d 7 , 4s 2 , 4 p 2
32. The electronic configuration of an element (Z = 24) is –
(A) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p6 ,3d 4 , 4s 2 (B) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p6 ,3d 5 , 4s1
(C) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p5 ,3d 6 , 4s1 (D) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p5 ,3d 5 , 4s 2
33. In a set of degenerate orbitals, the electrons distribute themselves to retain like spins
as far as possible. This statement is attributed to –
(A) Pauli‟s exclusion principle
(B) Aufbau principle
(C) Hund‟s rule of maximum multiplicity
(D) None of these
34. The electronic configuration of Mn2 is –
(A)  Ar  3d 4 4s1 (B)  Ar  3d 5 4s0 (C)  Kr  4d 5 5s0 (D)  Ar  3d 3 4s 2

35. The number of valence electrons in Na is –

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
36. The valency of Ne is –
(A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 0
37. Electronic configuration of Si in ground state is –

(A) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p 4 (B) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p3
(C) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 ,3 p 2 (D) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p6 ,3s 2 , 4s 2
38. The number of d-electrons in Fe2 (atomic number of Fe = 26) is not equal to that of
the –
(A) p- electrons in Ne (Z = 10) (B) s- electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
(C) d- electrons in Fe (Z = 26) (D) p- electrons in Cl  (Z = 17)
39. The rule of maximum multipliticty was given by :

(A) de Broglie (B) Heisenberg (C) Pauli (D) Hund
40. Which of the following has the same number of protons, electrons & neutrons ?
(A) 54
27 X (B) 55
27 X 1 (C) 54
26 X (D) 55
28 X
41. Isotone of an element has –

(A) same number of electrons
(B) same number of protons
(C) same number of neutrons
(D) same number of neutrons & protons
42. An isotone of 76
32 Ge is –
77 77 77 79
(A) 32 Ge (B) 33 As (C) 34 Se (D) 34 Se
43. Many elements have non- integral masses because –

(A) they have isobars
(B) their isotopes have non integral masses
(C) their isotopes have different masses
(D) the constituents neutrons, protons & electrons combine to give fractional masses
44. A deuteron contains –

(A) a neutron a positron (B) a neutron a proton
(C) a neutron & 2 protons (D) 2 neutrons & a proton
45. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is –

14
(A) 6 C,157 N ,179 F (B) 12
6 C,147 N ,199 F (C) 14
6 C,147 N ,179 F (D) 14
6 C,147 N ,199 F

46. Pick out the isoelectronic species from the following –

(I) CH 3 (II) H 3O  (III) NH 3 (IV) CH 3
(A) I and II (B) III and IV only (C) I and III (D) II, III, IV
47. Two atoms of the same element are found to have different number of neutrons in
their nuclei. These two atoms are –
(A) Isomers (B) isotopes (C) Isobars (D) Allotropes
48. When 3d subshell is fully filled, then electrons will enter the –
(A) 3p – orbital (B) 4f – orbital (C) 4s – orbital (D) 4p – orbital
49. Members of which of the following have similar chemical properties ?
(A) Isotopes (B) Isobars (C) Allotropes
(D) Both isotopes & allotropes
50. An atom which has a mass number of 14 & 8 neutrons is –

(A) isotope of oxygen (B) isobar of oxygen
(C) isotope of carbon (D) isobar of carbon
o o
51. The radius of H-atom in ground state is 0.53 A . Radius of first orbit of Li 2 in A is –
(A) 0.106 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.18 (D) 0.53
52. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/s is –
(A) 6.63 1035 m (B) 6.63 1034 m (C) 6.63 1033 m (D) 6.63 1036 m
53. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is 328 kJ mol 1 ; hence the
energy of fourth Bohr orbit would be –
(A) 82 kJ mol 1 (B) 41 kJ mol 1 (C) 1312 kJ mol 1 (D) 164 kJ mol 1
54. The de Broglie equation treat an electron to be a –

(A) particle (B) wave (C) ray (D) Both (A) and (B)
55. The de Broglie wavelength associated with particle is –
(A) inversely proportional to its momentum
(B) inversely proportional to its position
(C) directly proportional to its velocity (D) None of these
56. The angular momentum of 3d orbit is –
3h h h 2h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3 3
57. The ratio of the difference in energy of electron between the first and second Bohr‟s
orbits to that between second and third Bohr‟s orbits is –
(A) 1/3 (B) 27/5 (C) 9/4 (D) 4/9

58. The velocity of electron in the fourth Bohr‟s orbit of hydrogen is u. The velocity of
the electron in the first orbit would be –
(A) 4u (B) 16u (C) u/4 (D) u/16
59. The radii of two of the first four Bohr‟s orbits of the hydrogen atom are in the ratio 1 :
4. The energy difference between them may be –
(A) Either 12.09 eV or 3.4 eV (B) Either 2.55 eV or 10.2 eV
(C) Either 13.6 eV or 3.4 eV (D) Either 3.4 eV or 0.85 eV
60. Assuming the velocity to be same, which subatomic particle possesses smallest de
Broglie wavelength ?
(A) An electron (B) A proton
(C) An   particle (D) All have same wavelength
(SUBJECTIVE TYPE)
PARAGRAPH (61 to 63) :
When a photon of sufficient energy strikes an electron in the atom of the metal, it transfers its
energy instantaneously to the electron during the collision and the electron is ejected without
any time lag or delay. Greater the energy possessed by the photon, greater will be transfer of
energy to the electron and greater the kinetic energy of the ejected electron. In other words,
kinetic energy of the ejected electron is proportional to the frequency of the electromagnetic
radiation. Since the striking photon has energy equal to hv and the minimum energy required
to eject the electron is hv0 (is also called work function, W0 ) then the difference in energy
 hv  hv0  is transferred as the kinetic energy of the photoelectron. Following the
conservation of energy principle, the kinetic energy of the ejected electron is given by the
1
equation. hv  hv0  mev 2
2
61. If a certain metal was irradiated by using two different light radiations of frequencies
„X‟ and „2X‟ the kinetic energies of the ejected electrons are „Y‟ are „3Y‟
respectively. Calculate the threshold frequency of the metal ?
62. Photons emitted from a discharge tube containing H-atoms in some excited state, falls
on the metallic surface of metal Na. The kinetic energy of the fastest photo-electron
was found to be 10.93 eV. In second case photons emitted from a discharge tube
containing He ions in same excited state falls on the surface of Na metal and the
kinetic energy of the fastest photo-electron would have been 49.18 eV. What is the
principal quantum number of excited state ?
63. From the data given in above question, find the work function of Na atom ?


NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Radioactivity is due to –
(A) stable electronic configuration (B) unstable electronic configuration
(C) stable nucleus (D) unstable nucleus
2. The activity of radioisotope changes with –

(A) temperature (B) pressure
(C) chemical environment (D) none of the above
3. The rays are given off by a radioactive element from –

(A) nucleus (B) valence electrons
(C) all the orbits (D) outer orbit
4. Radium is a radioactive substance. It dissolves in dilute H 2 SO4 and forms compound

radium sulphate. The compound is –
(A) no longer radioactive (B) half as radioactive as radium content
(C) as radioactive as the radium content
(D) twice as radioactive as the radium content
5. A radioactive disintegration differs from a chemical change in being –

(A) an exothermic change (B) a spontaneous process
(C) a nuclear process (D) none of these
6. The half – life period of radioactive element depends upon –

(A) the amount of the element (B) the temperature
(C) the pressure (D) none of these
7. If 2 g of an isotope has a half-life period of 7 days, the half-life period of 1 g sample
is –
(A) 3.5 days (B) 7 days (C) 14 days (D) 28 days
8. A radioactive sample has a half-life period 1500 years. A sealed tube containing 1 g
of the sample will contain after 3000 year –
(A) 1 g of the sample (B) 0.5 g of the sample
(C) 0.25 g of the sample (D) 0.025 g of the sample
9. The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The time taken for 1 g of
the substance to reduce to 0.25 g will be :
(A) 30 minutes (B) 40 minutes (C) 60 minutes (D) 10 minutes
10. Half – life of a Radioactive element is 100 years its average life will be –
(A) 13.4 years (B) 1.44 years
(C) 144 years (D) None of these

11. Which does not take place by  - disintegration ?

(A) 92 U 238 
90 Th234 (B) 90 Th232 
88 Ra 228
(C) 88 Ra 226 
86 Rn222 (D) 83 Bi 213 
84 Po213
12. When one  and one  particle are emitted by an element, the new element formed
will have:
(A) atomic number greater by 1 and mass number greater by 4
(B) atomic number less by 1 and mass number less by 4
(C) atomic number greater by 1 and mass number less by 4
(D) atomic number less by 1 and mass number greater by 4
13. In the nuclear reaction 92 U 238 82 Pb206 the number of  and  particles emitted is :
(A) 7 ,5 (B) 6 , 4 (C) 4 ,3 (D) 8 ,6
 92 U the number of  and  -particles emitted

234
14. In radioactive decay 234
90 Th 
respectively are –
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 0 (C) 0, 2 (D) 2, 1
 233 
233 229
15. Consider the nuclear change. 237
93 Np   91 A   92 B   90 C
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Mass number of B is 233 (B) Atomic number of A is 91
(C) C is an isotope of A (D) B is an isobar of A
16. When 13 Al 27 is bombarded with  -particles a radioactive isotope of 15 P30 with the
emission of ………..is formed
(A) protons (B) neutrons (C) positrons (D) electrons
17. Energy in the sun is mainly generated by –
(A) fusion of radioactive materials (B) fission of helium nuclei
(C) fusion of hydrogen nuclei (D) chemical reaction
18. In a nuclear reactor chain reaction is controlled by introducing –
(A) iron rods (B) graphite rods
(C) cadmium rods (D) platinum rods
19. Boron rods in a nuclear reactor are used to –
(A) absorb excess neutrons (B) absorb alpha particles
(C) slow down the speed of neutrons (D) speed up the reaction
17
20. In the nuclear reaction 14
7 N  42 He 
 8 O  ................ The missing particle is –
(A) 4
2 He (B) 1
1 H (C) 1
0 n (D) 

21. Nuclear fusion takes place in –

(A) atom bomb (B) hydrogen bomb
(C) neutron bomb (D) nuclear reactor
22. An example of nuclear fusion reaction is –

 48 Cd    rays
234 114
(A) 233
90 Th 10 n 
 90 Th (B) 113
48 Cd 10 n 
4 239
(C) 3
2 He 32 He 
2 He  211 H (D) 239
92 U 
 93 Np  01 e
3
23. The reaction 21 H 12 H 
2 He 10 n is called –
(A) fusion (B) fission
(C) endothermic reaction (D) spontaneous reaction
24. The first nuclear explosion by India was carried out at –
(A) Puskar (B) Narora (C) Pokhran (D) Mumbai
25. In treatment of cancer, which of the following is used ?
131 32 60 2
(A) 53 l (B) 15 P (C) 27 Co (D) 1 H
11
26. 11
6 C 
 5 B decay produces –
(A) positron (B)  -particle (C)  -particle (D) None of these
206
27. 210
84 Po 
 82 Pb 42 He . In this reaction predict the position of group of Po when lead
is in the IV A group.
(A) II A (B) IV B (C) VI B (D) VI A
28. 90 Th a member of III group on losing  -particles forms a new element belonging to–
(A) I group (B) III group (C) II group (D) IV group
29. Isodiaphers are atoms having –
(A) p/n constant (B)  p  n  constant
(C)  n  p  constant (D)  n  p  different
30. 60
27 Co is radioactive because –
(A) its atomic no. is high (B) it has high p/n ratio
(C) it has high n/p ratio (D) None of these
23 24
31. Na is the more stable isotope of Na. By which process 11 Na can undergo
radioactive decay ?
(A)   emission (B)  - emission
(C)   - emission (D) None of these

32. Which of the following isotopes is likely to be most stable ?

71 66
(A) 30 Zn (B) 30 Zn
64
(C) 30 Zn (D) None of these
33. Number of neutrons in a parent nucleus X, which gives 14

7 N after two successive  -
emission, would be –
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
34. Two radioactive elements X and Y have half lives of 50 and 100 minutes respectively.
Initial sample of both the elements have same no. of atoms. The ratio of the remaining
number of atoms of X and Y after 200 minute is –
(A) 2 (B) ½ (C) 4 (D) 1/4
35. If 12 g of sample is taken, then 6 g of a sample decays in 1 hour. The amount of
sample showing decay in next hour is –
(A) 6 g (B) 3 g (C) 2 g (D) 1 g
36. The number of neutrons in the element L in the following nuclear changes is –
B L  2 
X A
238
92 M 
Y N 42 He X
Y N 
(A) 146 (B) 144 (C) 140 (D) 142
37. As compared to 12
C atom, 14
C atom has –
(A) two extra protons and two extra electrons
(B) two extra protons and no extra electron
(C) two extra neutrons and no extra electron
(D) two extra neutrons and two extra electrons
38. Proportionality constant  is also known as –

(A) decay constant (B) disintegration constant
(C) radioactive constant (D) All of these
39. Rate of decay –

(A) increases with time (B) decreases with time
(C) remains constant
(D) first increases, then decreases with time
40. Unit of decay constant is –

(A) time2 (B) time2 (C) time1 (D) time3
60 60
41. The half-life of 27 Co is 5.3 years. How much of 20 g of 27 Co will remain radioactive
after 21.2 years ?
(A) 10 g (B) 1.25 g (C) 2.5 g (D) 3.0 g

42. The half-life period of radioactive element is 14 hours. The fraction of the radioactive
element that disintegrates in 56 hours is –
(A) 0.125 (B) 0.625 (C) 0.9025 (D) 0.9375
(SUBJECTIVE TYPE)
43. Radioactive element remains 12.5% of its initial amount in 30 days. Find out its half-
life.
44. Calculate the number of  and  particles emitted in the nuclear reaction.
228
90 Th 
83 Bi 212
45. 2.0 microgram of phosphorus – 32 was injected into a living system for biological
tracer studies. How long will it take the radioactivity to fall to 12.5% of the initial
value? The half – life period of phosphorus – 32 is 14 days.
46. Radioactive carbon in wood decays with half – life of 5770 years. What fraction of
the radioactive carbon would remain after 11540 years ?
























MOLE CONCEPT
(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. The weight of iron which can be converted into its oxide  Fe3O4  by reaction with
18g of steam will be –
(A) 168 g (B) 84 g (C) 42 g (D) 21 g
2. Molarity of H 2 SO4 (density 1.8g/mL) is 18M. The molality of this solution is –

(A) 36 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 18
3. 8g of sulphur are burnt to form SO2 , which is oxidised by Cl2 water. The solution is
treated with BaCl2 solution. The amount of BaSO4 precipitated is –
(A) 1.0 mole (B) 0.5 mole (C) 0.75 mole (D) 0.25 mole
4. In a compound Ax By -
(A) Mole of A = Mole of B = mole of Ax By
(B) Eq. of A = Eq. of B = Eq. of Ax By
(C) X  mole of A = y  mole of B =  x  y   mole of Ax By

(D) X  mole of A = y  mole of B
5. The percentage of sodium in a breakfast cereal labeled as 110 mg of sodium per 100 g
of cereal is –
(A) 11% (B) 1.10% (C) 0.110% (D) 110%
6. Two elements A (at. wt.75) and B (at. wt. 16) combine to yield a compound. The %
by weight of A in the compound was found to be 75.08 . The empirical formula of the
compound is –
(A) A2 B (B) A2 B3 (C) AB (D) AB2
7. No. of oxalic acid molecules in 100 mL of 0.02 N oxalic acid are –

(A) 6.023 1020 (B) 6.023 1021 (C) 6.023 1022 (D) 6.023 1023
8. Which of the following sample contains the maximum number of atoms –

(A) 1mg of C4 H10 (B) 1mg of N2
(C) 1mg of Na (D) 1 mL of water
9. The total number of protons, electrons and neutrons in 12 g of 126C is –

(A) 1.084 1025 (B) 6.022 1023
(C) 6.022 1022 (D) 18

10. 4.4 g of CO2 and 2.24 litre of H 2 at STP are mixed in a container. The total number
of molecules present in the container will be –
(A) 6.022 1023 (B) 1.204 1023 (C) 2 mole (D) 6.023 1024
11. Which is not a molecular formula ?

(A) C6 H12O6 (B) Ca  NO3 2 (C) C2 H 4O2 (D) N 2O
12. The hydrated salt, Na2 SO4 , nH 2O undergoes 55.9% loss in weight on heating and
becomes anhydrous. The value of n will be –
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 10
13. Which of the following mode of expressing concentration is independent of

temperature –
(A) Molarity (B) Molality
(C) Formality (D) Normality
14. The molar mass of CaCO3 is 100 g. The maximum amount of carbon dioxide that can
be liberated on heating 25 g of CaCO3 is :
(A) 22 g (B) 5.5 g (C) 11 g (D) 2.2 g
15. An oxide of metal have 20% oxygen, the eq. wt. of metal oxide is –
(A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 48 (D) 52
16. How much water is to be added to dilute 10 mL of 10 N HCl to make it decinormal ?
(A) 900 mL (B) 1010 mL (C) 100 mL (D) 1000 mL
17. The pair of compounds which cannot exist in solution is –

(A) NaHCO3 and NaOH (B) Na2 SO3 and NaHCO3
(C) Na2CO3 and NaOH (D) NaHCO3 and NaCl
18. If 250 mL of a solution contains 24.5 G H 2 SO4 the molarity and normality
respectively are –
(A) 1 M, 2 N (B) 1 M, 0.5 N (C) 0.5 M, 1 N (D) 2 M, 1 N
19. The mole fraction of NaCl, in a solution containing 1 mole of NaCl in 1000 g of water
is –
(A) 0.0177 (B) 0.001
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.244
20. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/mL. The molarity of the solution
is–
(A) 2.9732 (B) 3.07
(C) 3.64 (D) 3.0504

21. How many atoms are contained in a mole of Ca  OH 2 -
(A) 30  6.02 1023 atoms/mol (B) 5  6.02 1023 atoms/mol

(C) 6  6.02 1023 atoms/mol (D) None of these
22. Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur. The minimum molecular weight of insulin is –
(A) 941.176 u (B) 944 u
(C) 945.27 u (D) None of these
23. Number of moles present in 1m3 of a gas at NTP are –

(A) 44.6 (B) 40.6 (C) 42.6 (D) 48.6
24. Weight of oxygen in Fe2O3 and FeO is in the simple ratio of –

(A) 3 : 2 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
25. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yield a residue weighing –
(A) 2.16 g (B) 2.48 g (C) 2.32 g (D) 2.64 g
26. How many gram of KCl would have to be dissolved in 60 g of H 2O to give 20% by
weight of solution –
(A) 15 g (B) 1.5 g (C) 11.5 g (D) 31.5 g
27. When the same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of H 2 SO4 and excess
of NaOH, the ratio of volumes of H 2 evolved is –
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 9 : 4
28. Amount of oxygen required for combustion of 1 kg of a mixture of butane and
isobutene is –
(A) 1.8 kg (B) 2.7 kg (C) 4.5 kg (D) 3.58 kg
29. Rakesh needs 1.71 g of sugar  C12 H 22O11  to sweeten his tea. What would be the
number of carbon atoms present in his tea ?
(A) 3.6 1022 (B) 7.2 1021 (C) 0.05 1023 (D) 6.6 1022
30. The total number of AIF3 molecules in a sample of AIF3 containing 3.011023 ions of
F  is –
(A) 9.0 1024 (B) 3.0 1024
(C) 7.5 1023 (D) 1023
31. The volume occupied by one molecule of water (density 1g / cm3 ) is –

(A) 18cm3 (B) 22400cm3
(C) 6.023 1023 (D) 3.0 1023 cm3

32. 224 mL of a triatomic gas weigh 1 g at 273 K and 1 atm. The mass of one atom of this
gas is –
(A) 8.30 1023 g (B) 2.08 1023 g (C) 5.53 1023 g (D) 6.24 1023 g
33. The percentage of P2O5 in diammonium hydrogen phosphate is –

(A) 77.58 (B) 46.96 (C) 53.78 (D) 23.48
34. The mole fraction of water in 20% (wt./wt.) aqueous solution of H 2O2 is –
77 68 20 80
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68 77 80 20
35. Which of the following has the maximum mass?
(A) 25 g of Hg (B) 2 moles of H 2O
(C) 2 moles of CO2 (D) 4 g atom of oxygen
36. Total mass of neutrons in 7mg of 14

C is –
(A) 3 1020 kg (B) 4 106 kg (C) 5 107 kg (D) 4 107 kg
37. Vapour density of a metal chloride is 66. Its oxide contains 53% metal. The atomic
weight of metal is –
(A) 21 (B) 54 (C) 26.72 (D) 2.086
38. The number of atoms in 4.25 g NH 3 is approximately –

(A) 11023 (B) 1.5 1023 (C) 2 1023 (D) 6 1023
39. The modern atomic weight scale is based on –

(A) C12 (B) O16 (C) H1 (D) C13
40. Amount of oxygen in 32.2g of Na2 SO4 10H 2O is –

(A) 20.8 g (B) 22.4 g (C) 2.24 g (D) 2.08 g
41. Which of the followings does not change on dilution ?

(A) Molarity of solution (B) Molalilty of solution
(C) Millimoles and milli equivalent of solute
(D) Mole fraction of solute
42. Equal masses of O2 , H 2 and CH 4 are taken in a container. The respective mole ratio of
these gases in container is –
(A) 1 : 16 : 2 (B) 16 : 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 2 : 16 (D) 16 : 2 : 1
43. The number of molecules present in 11.2 litre CO2 at STP is –

(A) 6.023 1032 (B) 6.023 1023
(C) 3.0111023 (D) None of these

44. 250 ml of 0.1 N solution of AgNO3 are added to 250 ml of a 0.1 N solution of NaCl.
The concentration of nitrate ion in the resulting solution will be –
(A) 0.1 N (B) 1.2 N (C) 0.01 N (D) 0.05 N
45. Amount of BaSO4 formed on mixing the aqueous solution of 2.08 g BaCl2 and excess
of dilute H 2 SO4 is –
(A) 2.33 g (B) 2.08 g (C) 1.04 g (D) 1.165 g
46. 2g of NaOH and 4.9 g of H 2 SO4 were mixed and volume is made 1 litre. The
normality of the resulting solution will be –
(A) 1 N (B) 0.05 N (C) 0.5 N (D) 0.1 N
47. 1g of a metal carbonate neutralises completely 200 mL of 0.1N HCl. The equivalent
weight of metal carbonate is –
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 75
48. 100 mL of 0.5 N NaOH were added to 20 ml of 1 N HCl and 10 mL of 3 N H 2 SO4 .

The solution is –
(A) acidic (B) basic (C) neutral (D) none of these
49. 1 M solution of H 2 SO4 is diluted from 1 litre to 5 litres the normality of the resulting
solution will be-
(A) 0.2 N (B) 0.1 N (C) 0.4 N (D) 0.5 N
50. The volume of 7g of N 2 at S.T.P. is –

(A) 11.2 L (B) 22.4 L (C) 5.6 L (D) 6.5 L
51. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water gives –
(A) three moles of phosphine (B) one mole phosphoric acid
(C) two moles of phosphine (D) one mole of P2O5
52. Mg  OH 2 in the form of milk of magnesia is used to neutralize excess stomach acid.
How many moles of stomach acid can be neutralized by 1 g of Mg  OH 2 ? (Molar
mass of Mg  OH 2 = 58.33)
(A) 0.0171 (B) 0.0343 (C) 0.686 (D) 1.25
53. Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating according to the following equation –

CaCO3  s   
 CaO  s   CO2  g 
How many moles of CO2 will be obtained by decomposition of 50 g CaCO3 ?
3 5 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
2 2 2

54. Sulphur trioxide is prepared by the following two reactions –

S8  s   8O2  g  
 8SO2  g 
2SO2  g   O2  g  
 2SO3  g 
How many grams of SO3 are produced from 1 mole of S8 ?
(A) 1280 (B) 640 (C) 960 (D) 320
55. PH 3  g  decomposes on heating to produce phosphorous and hydrogen. The change

in volume when 100 mL of such gas decomposed is –
(A) + 50 mL (B) + 500 mL (C) – 50 mL (D) – 500 mL
56. What amount of BaSO4 can be obtained on mixing 0.5 mole BaCl2 with 1 mole of
H 2 SO4 ?
(A) 0.5 mol (B) 0.15 mol (C) 0.1 mol (D) 0.2 mol
57.  Cr2  SO4 3  H 2O  O2 one mole of CrO5 will

In the reaction, CrO5  H 2 SO4 
liberate how many moles of O2 ?
(A) 5/2 (B) 5/4 (C) 9/2 (D) None
58. Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating according to the equation –
CaCO3  s  
 CaO  s   CO2  g 
At STP the volume of CO2 obtained by thermal decomposition of 50 g of CaCO3 will
be –
(A) 22.4 litre (B) 44 litre (C) 11.2 litre (D) 1 litre
59. When FeCl3 is ignited in an atmosphere of pure oxygen, the following reaction take
place –
4FeCl3  s   3O2  g  
 2Fe2O3  s   6Cl2  g 
If 3 moles of FeCl3 are ignited in the presence of 2 moles of O2 gas, how much of
which reagent is present in excess and therefore, remains unreacted ?
(A) 0.33 mole FeCl3 remains unreacted
(B) 0.67 mole FeCl3 remains unreacted
(C) 0.25 mole O2 remains unreacted
(D) 0.50 mole O2 remains unreacted
60. The volume of CO2 (in litres) liberated at STP when 10 g of 90% pure limestone is
heated completely, is –
(A) 22.4 L (B) 2.24 L (C) 20.16 L (D) 2.016 L

61. A metal oxide has the formula Z 2O3 . It can be reduced by hydrogen to give free metal
and water. 0.1596 g of the metal requires 6 mg of hydrogen for complete reduction.
The atomic mass of the metal is –
(A) 27.9 (B) 159.6 (C) 79.8 (D) 55.8
Question number 62, 63, 64 and 65 are based on the following information :
Dissolved oxygen in water is determined by using a redox reaction. Following
equations describe the procedure –
1. 2Mn2  aq   4OH   aq   O2  g  
 2MnO2  s   2H 2O   
2. MnO2  s   2l   aq   4H   aq  
 Mn2  aq   l2  aq   2H 2O   
3. 2S2O32  aq   l2  aq  
 S4O62  aq   2l   aq 
62. How many moles of S2O32 are equivalent to each mole of O2 ?

(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
63. What amount of l2 will be liberated from 8g dissolved oxygen ?

(A) 127 g (B) 254 g (C) 504 g (D) 1008 g
64. 3 103 moles O2 is dissolved per litre of water, then what will be molarity of
l  produced in the given reaction ?
(A) 3 103 M (B) 4  3 103 M
1
(C) 2  3 103 M (D)  3 103 M
2
65. 8 mg dissolved oxygen will consume –
(A) 5 104 mol Mn2 (B) 2.5 104 mol Mn2
(C) 10 mol Mn2 (D) 2 mol Mn2
66. 2g of a base whose eq. wt. is 40 reacts with 3g of an acid. The eq. wt. of the acid is –
(A) 40 (B) 60 (C) 10 (D) 80
67. Normality of 1% H 2 SO4 solution is nearly –

(A) 2.5 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.2 (D) 1
68. What volume of 0.1 N HNO3 solution can be prepared from 6.3g of HNO3 ?
(A) 1 litre (B) 2 litres (C) 0.5 litre (D) 4 litres
69. The volume of water to be added to 200 mL of seminormal HCl solution to make it
decinormal is –
(A) 200 mL (B) 400 mL (C) 600 mL (D) 800 mL

70. 0.2g of a sample of H 2O2 required 10 mL of 1 N KMnO4 in a titration in the presence

of H 2 SO4 . Purity of H 2O2 is –
(A) 25% (B) 85% (C) 65% (D) 95%
71. Weight of 30% hydrochloric acid required for complete decomposition of 0.5g mole
of calcium carbonate is :
(A) 121.66 g (B) 125.60 g (C) 60.83 g (D) 243.37 g
72. Which of the following has the highest normality ?
(A) 1M H 2 SO4 (B) 1M H 3 PO3 (C) 1M H 3 PO4 (D) 1M HNO3
73. The molarity of 98% H 2 SO4 (d = 1.8g/mL) by wt. is –

(A) 6 M (B) 18.74 M (C) 10 M (D) 4 M
74. 0.7g of Na2CO3 .xH 2 O is dissolved in 100 mL. 20 mL of which required to

neutralize 19.8 mL of 0.1 N HCl. The value of x is –
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
75. 0.45 g of an acid of molecular weight 90 was neutralized by 20 mL. of 0.5 N caustic
potash. The basicity of the acid is –
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
76. 1 litre of 18 molar H 2 SO4 has been diluted to 100 litres. The normality of the
resulting solution is –
(A) 0.09 N (B) 0.18 N (C) 1800 N (D) 0.36 N
N
77. 150 ml of HCl is required to react completely with 1.0 g of a sample of limestone.
10
The percentage purity of calcium carbonate is –
(A) 75% (B) 50% (C) 80% (D) 90%
N N
78. 50 ml of HCl is treated with 70 ml NaOH. Resultant solution is neutralized by
10 10
100 ml of sulphuric acid. The normality of H 2 SO4 -
(A) N/50 (B) N/25 (C) N/30 (D) N/10
N
79. 200 mL of HCl were added to 1 g calcium carbonate, what would remain after the
10
reaction?
(A) CaCO3 (B) HCl
(C) Neither of the two (D) Part of both
80. Equivalent mass of KMnO4 , when it is converted to MnSO4 is –
(A) M/5 (B) M/3 (C) M/6 (D) M/2

81. The weight of 90% pure sulphuric acid required to neutralize 5g caustic soda is –
(A) 6.8 g (B) 9.0 g (C) 10 g (D) 5.2 g
82. Three moles of Na2CO3 are reacted with 6 moles of HCl solution. Volume of CO2 gas
produced at STP is –
(A) 22.4 L (B) 67.2 L (C) 74.6 L (D) 68 L
83. A 3 N solution of H 2 SO4 in water is prepared from Conc. H 2 SO4 (36 N) by diluting.
(A) 20 ml of the conc. H 2 SO4 to 240 ml
(B) 10 ml of the conc. H 2 SO4 to 240 ml
(C) 1 ml of the conc. H 2 SO4 to 36 ml (D) 20 ml of the conc. H 2 SO4 to 36 ml
84. The volume of 0.5 M aqueous NaOH solution required to neutralize 10 ml of 2 M

aqueous HCl solution is :
(A) 20ml (B) 40ml (C) 80ml (D) 120ml
85. 3.011023 molecules of elemental Sulphur will react with 0.5 mole of oxygen gas
completely to produce
(A) 6.02 1023 molecules of SO3 (B) 6.02 1023 molecules of SO2
(C) 3.011023 molecules of SO3 (D) 3.011023 molecules of SO2
86. The density of a salt solution is 1.13 g cm3 and it contains 18% of NaCl by weight.
The volume of the solution containing 36.0 g of the salt will be :
(A) 200cm3 (B) 217 cm3 (C) 177 cm3 (D) 157 cm3
87. One mole of nitrogen gas on reaction with 3.011023 molecules of hydrogen gas
produces
(A) one mole of ammonia (B) 2.0 1023 molecules of ammonia
(C) 2 moles of ammonia (D) 3.011023 molecules of ammonia
88. 10ml of an aqueous solution containing 222 mg of calcium chloride (mol. wt. = 111)
is diluted to 100 ml. The concentration of chloride ion in the resulting solution is –
(A) 0.02 mol/lit. (B) 0.01 mol/lit. (C) 0.04 mol/lit (D) 2.0 mol/lit.
89. Aluminium reduces manganese dioxide to manganese at high temperature. The

amount of aluminium required to reduce one gram mole of manganese dioxide is –
(A) 1/2 gram mole (B) 1 gram mole
(C) 3/4 gram mole (D) 4/3 gram mole
90. One mole of oxalic acid is equivalent to

(A) 0.5 mole of NaOH (B) 1 mole of NaOH
(C) 1.5 mole of NaOH (D) 2 mole of NaOH

(SUBJECTIVE TYPE)
91. The haemoglobin from the red blood corpuscles of most mammals contain
approximately 0.33% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is
67,200. Calculate the number of iron atoms in each molecule of haemoglobin.
(Atomic weight of iron = 56)-
92. A copper ore was treated with HNO3 to form Cu  NO3 2 . Which on further reaction
with KI , forms CuI 2 , which decomposes to form Cu2 I 2 and I 2 , I 2 was titrated with
Na2 S2O3 .
(I) Balance the reactions involved (find out values of a to  )
(a) a Cu  bHNO3  cCu  NO3 2  d NO  e H 2O
(b) f CuI 2  g Cu2 I 2  h I 2
(c) i Na2 S2O3  j I 2  k Na2 S4O6   NaI
(II) 2.54 g of


STUDY OF GAS LAWS

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Volume occupied by 4.045 × 1023 molecules of oxygen at 27°C and 700 torr pressure
is
(A) 17.95 L (B) 8.97 L (C) 27.50 L (D) 6.72 L
2. The temperature of 20 litres of nitrogen was increased from 100 K to 300 K at a

constant pressure. Change in volume will be –
(A) 80 litres (B) 60 litres (C) 40 litres (D) 20 litres
3. If the volume of a given mass of a gas at constant temperature becomes three times,
the pressure will be-
(A) 3p (B) p/3 (C) 9p (D) p
4. If the pressure of a given mass of a gas is reduced to half and temperature is doubled
simultaneously, the volume be -
(A) Same as before (B) Twice as before
(C) Four times as before (D) one fourth as before
5. 10 g of a gas at STP occupies a volume of 2 litres. At what temperature will the

volume be double, pressure and amount of the gas remaining same?
(A) 273 K (B) 546 K (C) 273C (D) 546C
6. Remaining the pressure constant at which of the following temperature must a gas at
127°C be cooled, so that its volume is reduced to 1/5 of the initial volume?
(A) 193C (B) 93C
(C) 293C (D) None of these
7. At constant pressure, a gas at 33C is heated to 127C. The percentage increase in

the volume of gas will be-
(A) 6.67 (B) 16.67 (C) 66.67 (D) 43.67
8. 5 dm3 of dry hydrogen is collected at a temperature of 37°C and 720 mm pressure.

Find the volume of gas at S.T.P.?
(A) 8.34 dm3 (B) 1.32 dm3 (C) 2.65 dm3 (D) 4.17 dm3
9. The pressure of one mole of a gas at S.T.P. is doubled and the temperature is raised to
546 K. What is the final volume of gas, when one mole of gas occupies 22.4 dm3 at
S.T.P.?
(A) 11.2 dm3 (B) 22.4 dm3 (C) 5.6 dm3 (D) 44.8 dm3

10. A fixed mass of gas has volume 750 cm3 at 23C and 800 mm pressure. What will
be the pressure for which its volume will be 720 cm3 , the temperature being 3C.
(A) 700 mm (B) 800 mm (C) 900 mm (D) 600 mm
11. 180 mL. of a hydrocarbon diffuses in 15 minutes. Under same conditions 120 mL of
SO2 diffuses in 20 minutes. If molecular weight of SO2 is 64 then, molecular weight
of hydrocarbon would be-
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 64
12. If ratio of rates of diffusion of two gases is 4 : 3, then ratio of their molecular weights
would be-
(A) 3 : 4 (B) 9 : 16 (C) 4 : 3 (D) 9 : 8
13. In a mixture of N2 and O2, total pressure of mixture is 90 atm. If partial pressure of O 2
is 63 cm, then mole fraction of N2 will be -
(A) 0.7 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.2
14. Total pressure of a mixture of two gases „A‟ and „B‟ is 762 mm. If mixture contains
0.015 g molecule of gas „A‟ and 0.008 g molecule of gas „B‟, the partial pressures of
gases „A‟ and „B‟ would be -
(A) 260 mm, 470 mm (B) 375 mm, 870 mm
(C) 974 mm, 562 mm (D) 497 mm, 265 mm
15. For an ideal gas. Boyle‟s law is best described by
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16. Consider two sealed jars of equal volume. One contains 2 g of hydrogen at 200 K and
the other contains 28 g of nitrogen at 400 K. The gases in the two jars will have:
(A) The same pressure. (B) The same average kinetic energy.
(C) The same number of molecules. (D) The same average molecular speed.

(SUBJECTIVE TYPE)
17. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of X 2. Calculate
the molar mass of X2.
18. Containers A and B have same gases. Pressure, volume and temperature of A are all,
twice that of B, then calculate the ratio of number of molecules of A and B.
19. What will be the minimum pressure required to compress 500 dm3 of air at 1 bar to
200 dm3 at 30°C?


PERIODIC TABLE AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. In Lother Meyer‟s curve most electronegative elements or halogens occupied -

(A) Peaks (B) Ascending positions
(C) Descending positions (D) Halogens were not shown
2. In Lother Meyer‟s plot, the peaks were occupied by -

(A) Alkali metals (B) Alkaline earth metals
(C) Halogens (D) Noble gases
3. The plot given by Lother Meyer, for the then known elements, was between their
atomic volume and -
(A) Atomic number (B) Atomic mass
(C) Density (D) Ionisation energy
4. Metals are included in the long form of periodic table in -

(A) s-block only (B) p-block only
(C) s & p blocks both (D) s, p, d and f blocks
5. One important merit of modern periodic table is -

(A) It explains why element in the same group have the same chemical properties.
(B) Hydrogen has been placed accurately.
(C) Isobars have not been placed separately.
(D) It is based on classifying elements according to their atomic masses.
6. In the long form of period table, all the non-metals are placed in-
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
7. Which of the following is not a representative element?

(A) Fe (B) K (C) Ba (D) N
8. Which of the following statements is not true for noble gases?

(A) They have stable configuration.
(B) All of them contain eight electrons in their outermost shell.
(C) They are the zero group elements.
(D) They are colourless.

9. The element with atomic number 35 belongs to -

(A) s - block (B) p - block (C) d - block (D) f - block
10. Elements in the same vertical column of the periodic table have same -
(A) Number of electrons (B) Atomic number
(C) Number of valence electrons (D) Electronic configuration
11. Which pair of atomic numbers represents s-block elements?

(A) 7, 15 (B) 6, 12 (C) 9, 17 (D) 3, 12
12. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of d-block elements?
(A)  n  1 s 2nd 110 (B)  n  1 d 110ns02
(C)  n  1 d 110ns 2 p4 (D)  n  1 p4ns 2
13. Elements of which group form anions most readily?

(A) Oxygen family (B) Nitrogen family (C) Halogens (D) Alkali metals
14. Which of the following atoms has a valency equal to zero?

(A) Hydrogen (B) Lithium (C) Neon (D) Oxygen
15. Which of the following electronic configurations represents most electropositive

element?
(A) He 2s1 (B) He 2s 2 (C)  Xe 6s1 (D)  Xe 6s 2
16. The electronic configuration of the element which is just above the element with
atomic number 43 in the same group is -
(A) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3s2 3 p6 3d 5 , 4s 2
(B) 1s 2, 2s 2 2p6 , 3s2 3 p6 3d 10, 4s 2 4 p5
(C) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3s2 3 p6 3d 6 , 4s1
(D) 1s 2, 2s 2 2p6 , 3s2 3 p6 3d 10, 4s 2 4p6
17. The ionization energy of isotopes of an element will be -

(A) Same
(B) Different
(C) Dependent on atomic masses
(D) Dependent on the number of neutrons present in the nucleus

18. The number of periods in the long form of the periodic table is -
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 10 (D) 18
19. Which of the following pairs of elements does not belong to same group?
(A) Cl, Br (B) N, P (C) Mg, Ca (D) Al, Si
20. The correct order of second I.E. of C, N, O and F is -

(A) F > O > N > C (B) C > N > O > F
(C) O > N > F > C (D) O > F > N > C
21. In the third period of the periodic table, the element having smallest size is -
(A) Na (B) Ar (C) Cl (D) Si
22. I. E. increases with -

(A) Decrease in atomic size
(B) Increase in nuclear charge.
(C) Increase in penetration effect of electrons.
(D) All of the above
23. Which of the following is the most non-metallic element?

(A) Br (B) Cl (C) P (D) S
24. Which of the following has zero electron affinity?

(A) Radon (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Radium
25. With the increase in atomic number in a period.

(A) Metallic character decreases (B) Non-metallic character decreases
(C) Ionisation energy decreases (D) None of these
26. Which of the following has highest electron affinity?

(A) Br (B) Cl (C) I (D) F
27. The amount of energy released on the addition of an electron in outermost shell of an
isolated gaseous atom is called -
(A) Ionisation energy (B) Hydration energy
(C) Electron affinity (D) Electronegativity

28. The formation of the oxide ion O 2  g  requires first an exothermic and then an
endothermic step as shown below –
O  g   e 
O  g  ; H   15.2 KJ/mol
O  g   e 
O2  g  ; H   844 KJ/mol
What does it show?
(A) O  ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron.
(B) Oxygen is more electronegative.
(C) Oxygen has high electron affinity.
(D) O  ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom.
29. Largest in size out of Na , O2 and k  IS -

(A) Na  (B) O 2 (C) K (D) All are equal
30. Which of the following is the increasing order of electron affinity of halogens?
(A) Cl < Br < I < F (B) I < Br < F < Cl
(C) F < Cl < Br < I (D) Br < F < I < Cl
31. Electron affinity of X would be equal to -

(A) Electron affinity of X  (B) Ionisation energy of X 
(C) Ionisation energy of X (D) None of these
32. Which of the following properties does not depend on periodicity?

(A) Atomic weight (B) Electron affinity
(C) Ionisation energy (D) Electronegativity
33. Which of the following have isoelectronic structures?

(i) CH3 (ii) H3O  (iii) CH3 (iv) NH3
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
34. Among elements A, B, C and D having atomic numbers 7, 8, 9 and 12 respectively,

the element with smallest size and highest I.E. is -
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
35. Which of the following ions has smallest radius?

(A) Cl  (B) S 2 (C) k (D) Ca2

36. Which of the following transitions involves maximum amount of energy?

(A) M   g  
M g  (B) M  g  
M  g 
(C) M   g  
 M 2  g  (D) M 2  g  
 M 3  g 
37. The radii of F, F  , O and O 2 are in the order -

(A) O2  F   O  F (B) O2  F   F  O
(C) F   O2  F  O (D) O2  O  F   F
38. Ionisation energy of F  is 320 KJ mol 1. The electron affinity of fluorine would be-
(A) 320 KJ mol 1 (B) 160 KJ mol 1
(C) 320 KJ mol 1 (D) 160 KJ mol 1
39. A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionization energies of an
element would be associated with the electronic configuration -
(A) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3s1 (B) 1s 2, 2s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3 p1
(C) 1s 2, 2s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3 p2 (D) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3s 2
40. The group number of element in periodic table indicates -

(A) Valency with respect to hydrogen.
(B) The atomicity.
(C) The number of electrons in the outermost shell.
(D) None of these
41. Diagonal relationship is not shown by -

(A) Li and Mg (B) C and N (C) B and Si (D) Be and Al
42. In which of the following arrangements, the order is not according to the property
indicated against it?
(A) Al 3  Mg 2  Na  F  - Increasing ionic size
(B) B < C < N < O - Increasing first ionization energy
(C) I < Br < F < Cl – Increasing electron affinity
(D) Li < Na < K < Rb – Increasing metallic radius
43. Which of the following species has the highest electron affinity?
(A) F (B) O (C) O  (D) Na 

44. Correct increasing order of density is -

(A) Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs (B) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
(C) Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li (D) K < Li < Na < Rb < Cs
45. Covalency is favoured in the following cases -

(A) A smaller cation (B) A larger anion
(C) Large charges on cation and anion (D) All of these
46. Ionic radius of -

(i) Ti 4  Mn7 (ii) 35
Cl   37Cl  (iii) K   Cl  (iv) P 3  P 5
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (iv) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
47. (X), (Y) and (Z) are elements in the third period. Oxide of (X) is ionic, that of (Y) is
amphoteric and of (Z) a giant molecule. (X), (Y) and (Z) have atomic number in the
order:
(A) (X) < (Y) < (Z) (B) (Z) < (Y) < (X)
(C) (X) < (Z) < (Y) (D) (Y) < (X) < (Z)
48.  
The first  IE1  and second  IE2  ionization energies KJ mol 1 of a new elements
are shown below:
IE1 IE2
(i) 2372 5251
(ii) 520 7300
(iii) 900 1760
(iv) 1680 3380
Which of the above elements is likely to be a noble gas?
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
49. The electron affinities of halogens are –

F  332 KJ mol 1, Cl  349 KJ mol 1, Br  324 KJ mol 1,
I  295 KJ mol 1
(A) Higher atomic radius of F (B) Smaller electronegativity of F
(C) Weaker electron repulsion in Cl (D) More vacant p-subshell in Cl
50. Which block of the periodic table contains maximum number of metals?
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block

51. Among Li, Be, N and F, the element having the largest atomic radius, is:
(A) Li (B) Be (C) N (D) F
52. The atomic radii of the alkali metals follow the order
(A) Li > Na > K > Cs (B) K > Cs > Li > Na
(C) Na > K > Cs > Li (D) Cs > K > Na > Li
(SUBJECTIVE TYPE)
53. (i) A, B, C are elements of Dobereiner‟s traids. If atomic mass of A is 7, and that of
B is 23. What will be the atomic mass of C?
(ii) How many elements are there in the fourth period?
(iii) State Mendeleev‟s periodic law.



CHEMICAL BONDING
(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Which of the following contains both ionic and covalent bond?
(A) CCl 4 (B) NH4Cl (C) CaCl 2 (D) H2O
2. Which of the following compounds is covalent?

(A) H2O (B) CaO (C) KCl (D) Na2S
3. In which case the octet rule is not obeyed?

(A) In the formation of K  (B) In the formation of Na 
(C) In the formation Ca 2 (D) In the formation Mg 
4. How many electrons are shared between two atoms showing a triple bond?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
5. Expansion of octet rule is observed is -

(A) BF3 (B) PCl5 (C) AlCl3 (D) H2O
6. Bond in magnesium oxide is -

(A) Covalent (B) Ionic (C) Co-ordinate (D) None of these
7. Co-ordinate bond is formed by -

(A) Transfer of electrons (B) Equal sharing of electrons
(C) Unequal sharing of electrons (D) Coupling of electrons
8. Which of the following molecules contain a double bond?

(A) N2 (B) C2H4 (C) PH3 (D) CCl 4
9. Which of the following can lose two electrons to attain the configuration of Argon?
(A) Mg (B) Br (C) Ca (D) S
10. Which of the following does not follow octet rule -

(A) Na  (B) Ne (C) He (D) Al 3
11. Multiple covalent bonds exist in a molecule of:

(A) F2 (B) N2 (C) CH4 (D) H 2

12. Dative bond is also called:

(A) Ionic bond (B) Coordinate bond
(C) Covalent bond (D) None of these
13. Both ionic and covalent bonds are present in:

(A) NaOH (B) SO2 (C) CH4 (D) KCl
14. When two atoms combine to form a molecule:

(A) Energy is released.
(B) Energy is absorbed.
(C) Energy is neither released nor absorbed.
(D) Energy may either be released or absorbed.
15. The total number of electrons in one molecule of CO2 is:

(A) 22 (B) 44 (C) 66 (D) 88
16. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in O2 molecule is:

(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 2
17. Which one of the following has a coordinate bond?

(A) NaCl (B) Cl 2 (C) NH4Cl (D) AlCl3
18. The bonds present in N2O5 are:

(A) Only ionic (B) Covalent and coordinate
(C) Only covalent (D) Covalent and ionic
19. Which one is an electron deficient compound?

(A) ICl (B) BeCl2 (C) NH3 (D) PCl3
20. The bond the exists between NH3 and BF3 is called -
(A) Electrovalent (B) Covalent (C) Coordinate (D) Hydrogen
21. As compared to covalent compounds, electrovalent bond?

(A) Low melting and boiling points.
(B) Low melting and high boiling points.
(C) High melting and low boiling points.
(D) High melting and boiling points.

22. Which of the following does not contain coordinate bond?

(A) BH 4 (B) NH 4 (C) CO32 (D) H 3O 
23. Covalent bond exists in:

(A) Na2 S (B) AlCl3 (C) NaH (D) MgCl2
24. In which of the following the central atom has maximum number of lone pairs of
electrons?
(A) IF7 (B) PCl3 (C) AlCl3 (D) H 2O
25. Electronic theory of valency was presented by -

(A) Pauling (B) Werner
(C) Kossel and Lewis (D) Heitler and London
26. The crystal lattice of ionic compounds is composed of -

(A) Atoms (B) Molecules
(C) Oppositely charged ions (D) Both molecules and ions
27. The formula of a compound is A2 B5 . The number of electrons in the outermost orbit
of A and B respectively are -
(A) 6 and 3 (B) 5 and 6 (C) 5 and 2 (D) 2 and 3
28. A covalent bond is possible between -

(A) Similar atoms only (B) Dissimilar atoms only
(C) Similar and dissimilar atoms (D) Similar molecules
29. The combination of atoms occur because they want -

(A) To decrease number of electrons in their outermost shell.
(B) To attain an inert gas configuration.
(C) To increase number of electrons in their outermost shell.
(D) To attain 18 electrons in their outermost shell.
30. Empirical formula of oxalic acid is -

(A) C2 H 4O2 (B) C2 H 4O (C) CH 2O (D) CHO2

31. What is the empirical formula of vanadium oxide if 2.74 g of metal oxide contains
1.53 g of metal? (atomic mass of V = 52, O = 16)
(A) V2O3 (B) VO (C) V2O5 (D) V2O7
32. The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% X (atomic mass 10 u) and 50%
Y (atomic mass 20 u) is:
(A) XY2 (B) X 2Y (C) X 2Y3 (D) XY
33. A sulphide of iron contains 46.5% of iron by weight. The empirical formula of the
sulphide is:
(A) FeS (B) Fe2 S (C) FeS2 (D) Fe2 S3
34. An iron compound yielded C = 64.4%, H = 5.5% and Fe = 29.9%. The simple
formula of the compound is -
(A) C10 H10 Fe (B) C9 H10 Fe (C) C10 H 9 Fe (D) C9 H 9 Fe
35. Butyric acid contains only C, H and O. 4.24 mg sample of butyric acid on burning
completely gives 8.45 mg of CO2 and 3.46 mg of H2O. If the molecular mass of
butyric acid is 88 u, then its molecular formula is -
(A) C2 H8O2 (B) C2 H 4O (C) C4 H8O2 (D) C4 H8O4
36. Two oxides of a metal contain 30.0% and 27.6% of oxygen respectively. If the
formula of the first oxide is M 2O3 , the formula of the second oxide is :
(A) M 3O4 (B) M 4O3 (C) M 2O3 (D) M 3O2
37. A compound has an empirical formula C2 H 4O. An analysis gave a value of 132.16
for its molecular mass. The correct molecular formula of the compound is -
(A) C4 H 4O5 (B) C4 H8O5 (C) C6 H10O3 (D) C6 H12O3
38. An organic compound contains 49.3% carbon, 6.84% hydrogen and its vapour density
is 73. The molecular formula of the compound is -
(A) C3 H8O2 (B) C6 H10O4 (C) C6 H19O (D) C4 H10O2
39. On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the ratio
of 254 : 80. The formula of the compound is -
(A) IO (B) I2O (C) I5O2 (D) I2O5

40. A compound of aluminium and chlorine is composed of 9.0 g Al of every 35.5 g of

chlorine. The empirical formula of the compound is -
(A) AlCl (B) AlCl3 (C) AlCl2 (D) AlCl4
41. In which of the following pairs bond angle is 109°28?

(A) NH 4 , BF4 (B) NH 4 , BF3 (C) NH 3 , BF4 (D) NH 3 , BF3
42. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) HF is less polar than HBr.
(B) Chemical bond formation takes place when forces of attraction overcome the
forces of repulsion.
(C) In a covalent bond, transfer of electron takes place.
(D) All of the above.
43. An ether is more volatile than alcohol having same molecular formula. This is due to -
(A) Intermolecular H-bonding in ether.
(B) Intermolecular H-bonding in alcohol.
(C) Polar character of ether.
(D) None of these
44. Which among the following has smallest bond angle?

(A) H2S (B) NH3 (C) SO2 (D) H2O
45. The pair of species having identical shape of both species -

(A) BF3 , PCl3 (B) PF5 , IF5 (C) CF4 , SF4 (D) XeF2 , CO2
46. The correct order of bond angle is -

(A) H 2 S  NH3  BF3  SiH 4 (B) NH3  H 2 S  SiH 4  BF3
(C) H 2 S  NH3  SiH 4  BF (D) H 2 S  SiH 4  NH3  BF3
47. The states of hybridisation of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid  H 3 BO3  are
respectively -
(A) sp 3 and sp 3 (B) sp 2 and sp 3 (C) sp 3 and sp 2 (D) sp 2 and sp 2

48. Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs –

NF3 , NO3 . BF3 . H3O , HN3 .
(A)  NF3 , NO3  and  BF3 , H 3O   (B)  NF3 , HN3  and  NO3 , BF3 
(C)  NF3 , H 3O   and  NO3 , BF3  (D)  NF3 , H 3O   and  HN3 , BF3 
49. Which of the following has sp2 hybridization?

(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) N2O (D) CO
50. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbitals present about the central atom in BF3 is -
(A) Linear, sp (B) Trigonal planar, sp2
(C) Tetrahedral, sp3 (D) Pyramidal, sp3
51. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are -

(A) Angular and non zero (B) Angular and zero
(C) Linear and non zero (D) Linear and zero
52. Molecular shape of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are -

(A) The same with 2,0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively.
(B) The same with 1,1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively.
(C) Different with 0,1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively.
(D) Different with 1,0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively.
53. The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2 , NO3 and NH 4 are -
(A) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively (B) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(C) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (D) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
54. Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is -
(A) H2O because of H-bonding (B) H2Te because of higher mol. wt.
(C) H2S because of H-bonding (D) H2Se because of lower mol. wt.
55. Which of the following overlapping between p-orbitals would give the strongest
bond?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

56. An element which has 2 electrons less than Ne is

(A) Mg (B) Na (C) O (D) F
57. The pair in which the first compound is ionic and the second compound is covalent, is
(A) Fe  OH 2 , CH3OH (B) CH3OH , CH3CH 2OH
(C) Fe  OH 2 , Cu  OH 2 (D) Ca  OH 2 , Cu  OH 2
58. Among NH3 , BCl3 , Cl2 and N 2 , the compound that does not satisfy the octet rule is :
(A) NH 3 (B) BCl3 (C) Cl2 (D) N2
59. The gas produce on heating MnO2 with conc. HCl is

(A) Cl2 (B) H2 (C) O2 (D) O3


RATES OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Rate of a reaction is -
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Both positive and negative (D) None of these
2. Which of the following reactions will produce hydrogen gas at the fastest rate?
(A) 6 g granular zinc with 10 ml of 1M HCl
(B) 6 g granular zinc with 10 ml of 2 M HCl
(C) 3 g granular zinc with 5 ml of 1 M HCl
(D) 3 g granular zinc with 5 ml of 2 M HCl
3. The unit of rate of reaction is -

(A) mol L1 (B) mol L1 time1
(C) mol L time1 (D) L mol 1time1
d  A d  B d C 
4. xA  yB  zC. If r     1.5 , then x, y & z are -
dt dt dt
(A) 1, 1, 1 (B) 3, 2, 3 (C) 3, 3, 2 (D) 2, 2, 3
5. The rate of a chemical reaction depends upon -

(A) Temperature (B) Period of the reaction
(C) Unit of the reaction (D) None of these
6. The role of catalyst in a chemical reaction is to change

(A) Activation energy (B) Heat of reaction
(C) Product of reaction (D) None of these
7. Which of the following will have the fastest rate of reaction?

(A) Curding of milk (B) Formation of fossil fuels
(C) Rusting of iron (D) Action of limestone with HCl
8. Which of the following reactions is not a photochemical reaction?

(A) Exposure of photographic film to light.
(B) Conversion of CO2 & water into glucose & oxygen by plants.
(C) Fading of natural colour.
(D) Synthesis of water from hydrogen & oxygen.

9. In the reaction below

Cu  s   2H 2 SO4  aq  
 CuSO4  aq   2H 2O     SO2  g 
the rate of disappearance of Cu (s) is -
(A) Twice the rate of disappearance of H2SO4.
(B) Twice the rate of formation of H2O.
(C) One half of the rate of disappearance of H2SO4.
(D) All are correct.
10. Which curve corresponds to the temperature dependence of the rate R of a simple
one-step reaction?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
11. In a chemical system at equilibrium, the addition of catalyst would result in -

(A) Increase in rate of forward reaction only.
(B) Increase in rate of backward reaction only.
(C) No effect on rate of reaction.
(D) Provide a new path having low activation energy of the reaction.
12. Which of the following reactions is an endothermic reaction?

(A) CaCO3  s  
 CaO  s   CO2  g   Heat
(B) 2H 2O     Heat 
 2H 2  g   O2  g 
(C) N2  g   O2  g  
 2 NO  g   Heat
(D) All are endothermic reactions
13. Which of the following does not disturb the equilibrium point?
(A) Concentration (B) Temperature (C) Catalyst (D) Pressure
14. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Combustion reactions are exothermic.
(B) Most of the reactions are endothermic.
(C) Decomposition reaction are generally endothermic.
(D) In exothermic reactions potential energy of product is less than that of reactants.
15. In a reversible reaction:

(A) The reactants are completely converted into products.
(B) Half of the reactants are used up.
(C) The rates of both the forward & the reverse reactions are unequal.
(D) The concentrations of reactants & products become fixed at equilibrium.

16. The reaction CaCO2  s  

 CaO  s   CO2  g  is irreversible only when -
(A) The reaction is carried out in a closed vessel.
(B) The reaction is carried out in an open vessel.
(C) The reaction takes place at a definite temperature & pressure.
(D) None of these
17. Which of the following reactions is an endothermic one?

(A) N2  g   3H 2  g   
 2 NH 3  g   q kj
(B) C  s   O2  g   
 CO2  g   q kj
(C) N2  g   O2  g   
 2 NO  g   q kj
(D) 2SO2  g   O2  g   
 2SO2  g   q kj
18. Rate of which of the following reactions increase with the increase of temperature?
(A) Endothermic reactions (B) Exothermic reactions
(C) Any reaction (D) None
19. Consider the chemical reaction:

N2  g   3H 2  g  
 2 NH3  g 
The rate of this reaction can be expressed in terms of time derivative of concentration
of N2  g  , H 2  g  or NH 3  g  . Identify the correct relationship amongst the rate
expressions:
d  N2  1 d  H 2  1 d  NH 3 
(A) Rate =   
dt 3 dt 2 dt
d  N2  d H2  d  NH 3 
(B) Rate =  3 2
dt dt dt
d  N2  1 d  H 2  1 d  NH 3 
(C) Rate =  
dt 3 dt 2 dt
d  N2  d H2  d  NH 3 
(D) Rate =   
dt dt dt
1
20. For a chemical reaction of the type 2 A 
 B . The correct relationship amongst
2
the rate expression is-
d  A 1 d  B d  A 1 d  B
(A) 2  (B) 2 
dt 2 dt dt 2 dt
1 d  A d  B 1 d  A d  B
(C)   2 (D)   2
2 dt dt 2 dt dt

21. The equilibrium constant of the reaction mA  nB  

 pC  qD may be written as -
 A  B   AB 
m n mn
(A) Kc  (B) Kc 
C   D  CD 
p q p q
C   D  C   D 
p q 1/ m 1/ n
(C) Kc  (D) Kc 
 A  B   A  B 
m n 1/ p 1/ q
22. In the reaction, Cl2  g   

 2HCl  g  :
(A) K P  Kc (B) K P  Kc (C) K P  Kc (D) K P  Kc
23. For the system NH 4Cl  s   

 NH3  g   HCl  g  if the concentration of NH3 is
doubled, the equilibrium constant will -
(A) Be doubled
(B) Increased, but by less than a factor of 2
(C) Be halved
(D) Remains the same
24. For the equilibrium N2  g   3H 2  g   

 2 NH3  g   92 kJ
The ammonia formation is favoured by
(A) Increasing the pressure (B) Adding more nitrogen
(C) Decreasing the temperature (D) All
25. for which of the following reactions, the numerical values of K P & K c are the same?
(A) 2 NOCl  g   
 2 NO  g   Cl2  g  (B) N2  g   3H 2  g   
 2 NH3  g 
(C) H 2  g   Cl2  g   
 2HCl  g  (D) PCl3  g   Cl2  g   
 PCl5  g 
26. In which of the following reactions, the product formation is most favoured?
 2 NO2  g  ; Kc  4.66 10
3
(A) N2O4  
(B) 2 NH3  g   
 N2  g   2H 2  g  ; Kc  3 10
9
(C) N2  g   O2  g   
 2 NO  g  ; Kc  4.8 10
3
(D) PCl3  g   Cl2  g   

 PCl5  g  ; Kc  1.9 10
1

27. The correct expression for the equilibrium constant for the reaction -
1 3
NH 3  g   
 N 2  g   H 2  g  is
2 2
 N2   H 2   N 2  H 2 
1/2 3/2
(A) (B)
 NH 3   NH 3 
 N2   H 2 
1/2 3/2
(C)  N2  H 2    NH3  (D)

 NH 3 
2
28. The value of ionic product of water at 25°C is -

(A) 1101 mol2 L2 (B) 11014 mol2 L2
(C) 11014 mol2 L2 (D) 1107 mol2 L2
29. In the give reaction:

2SO2  g   O2  
 2SO3  g   heat
The formation of sulphur trioxide is favoured by -
(A) Increasing the pressure (B) Decreasing the temperature
(C) Adding more of oxygen (D) All of the above
30. The value of equilibrium constant for an unfavourable forward reaction is -

(A) Less than one (B) Equal to one (C) More than one (D) None of these
31. Consider the following reaction in a closed container

N2O4  g   
 2 NO2  g  .
At a fixed temperature, the volume of the reaction container is halved. For this
change, which of the following statements holds true regarding the equilibrium
constant  K P  and degree of dissociation  
(A) Neither K P and  nor changes (B) Both K P and  change
(C) K P changes, but  does not change (D) K P doe not change, but  changes
32. At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant  KP  for the decomposition

reaction
 2 NO2 is expressed by K P  4 x P / 1  x  , where P is pressure, x is
N2O4   2 2
extent of decomposition. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) K P increases with increase of P
(B) K P increases with increase of x
(C) K P is increases with decrease of x
(D) K P remains constant with change in P or x

33. For the reversible reaction N2  g   3H 2  g   

 2 NH3  g  at 500°C, the value of
KP is 1.44 105 , when partial pressure is measured in atmospheres. The
corresponding value of K c with concentration in mol L-1 is
(A) 1.44 105 /  0.082  500  (B) 1.44 105 / 8.314  773
2 2
(C) 1.44 105 /  0.082  500  (D) 1.44 105 /  0.082  773
2 2
34. For the chemical reaction 3X  g   Y  g   

 X 3Y  g  the amount of X 3Y at
equilibrium is affected by
(A) Temperature and pressure (B) Temperature only
(C) Pressure only (D) Temperature, pressure and catalyst.
35. The oxidation of SO2 by O2 to SO3 is an exothermic reaction. The yield of SO3 will
be maximum if
(A) Temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant
(B) Temperature is reduced and pressure is increased
(C) Both temperature and pressure are increased
(D) Both temperature and pressure are decreased
36. In the reaction,

A  s   B  g   heat  
 2C  s   2D  g  at equilibrium, pressure of B is doubled.
To re-establish the equilibrium, the factor by which conc. of D is changed is -
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 3
37. The equilibrium constant for the following reaction will be

3 A  2B  
 C
(A)
3 A 2 B  (B)
C  (C)
C  (D)
C 
C  3 A 2 B   A  B 
2 2
 A  B 
3 2
38. The rate of forward reaction is two times that of the reverse reaction at a given
temperature and identical concentration, the value of equilibrium constant is -
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.5 (D) 2.0
39. When H2 and I2 are mixed and equilibrium is attained, then -

(A) Amount of HI formed is equal to the amount of H2 dissociated.
(B) HI dissociation stops.
(C) The reaction stops completely.
(D) None of these

40. In which of the following equilibrium, change in the volume of the system does not
alter the number of moles.
(A) N2  g   O2  g   
 2 NO  g  (B) PCl5  g   
 PCl3  g   Cl2  g 
(C) N2  g   3H 2  g   
 2 NH3  g  (D) SO2Cl2  g   
 SO2  g   Cl2  g 
41. If K1 and K 2 are the equilibrium constants of the equilibria (a) and (b) respectively,
what is the relationship between the two constants?
1
(a) SO2  g   O2  g   
 SO3  g  ; K1
2
(b) 2SO3  g   
 2SO2  g   O2  g  ; K2
1 1
 K1   K 2   K1  K1  K 2
2
K1 
2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
K2 K2
42.  Cu  s   H 2O  g   R-X  expression

For a reversible reaction - CuO  s   H 2  g   
for K c will be
(A)
Cu  H 2O  (B)
 H 2O  (C)
CuO  H 2  (D) None of these
CuO  H 2  H2  Cu  H 2O 
43. At a given temperature, if there is a shift in equilibrium. The value of equilibrium

constant will :
(A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) May increase or decrease (D) Remains constant
44. Consider the reaction

CaCO3  s   
 CaO  s   CO2  g 
In closed container at equilibrium. What would be the effect of addition of CaCO3 on
the equilibrium concentration of CO2 ?
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Data is not sufficient to predict it (D) Remains unaffected
45. When pressure is applied to the equilibrium system, ice  

 water,
Which of the following phenomenon will occur?
(A) More ice will be formed (B) Water will be evaporated
(C) More water will be formed (D) Equilibrium will not be disturbed

46. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by -

(A) Evaluating rate constants at two different temperatures.
(B) Evaluating velocities of reaction at two different temperatures.
(C) Evaluating rate constant at standard temperature.
(D) Changing concentration of reactants.
47. If initial concentration is reduced to 1/4th in a zero order reaction, the time taken for
half of the reaction to complete -
(A) Becomes one-fourth (B) Becomes 4 times
(C) Remains same (D) Doubles
48. Rate constant depends on -

(A) Temperature (B) Time
(C) Initial concentration (D) None of these
 2HBr  g  , the reaction rate = k  H 2  Br2  .

For the reaction ; H2  g   Br2  g  
1/2
49.
Which of the following statement is true about this reaction?
(A) The reaction is of second order (B) Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2
-1
(C) The unit of k is sec (D) Molecularity of the reaction is 2
50. The inversion of cane sugar using excess water in the presence of acid catalyst is a
reaction of -
(A) Third order with respect to cane sugar
(B) Second order with respect to cane sugar
(C) First order with respect to cane sugar
(D) Zero order with respect to cane sugar
51. The reaction, 2A 

 B  C follows zero order kinetics. Its rate equation is
represented by -
dx / dt  k  A dx / dt  k  A
1
(A) (B)
(C) dx / dt  k  A  (D) dx / dt  k  2 A
52. 2A 
 B  C ; it would be a zero order reaction when -
(A) The rate of reaction is proportional to square of conc. of A
(B) The rate of reaction remains same at an conc. of A
(C) The rate constant remains unchanged for the reactant
(D) The rate of reaction doubles if concentration of B is made to double.

53. Unit of rate constant for first order reaction is -

(A) time1 (B) mol1 litre time1
(C) mol2 litre2 time1 (D) None of these
54. H 2  I 2 
 2Hl , molecularity of given reaction is -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
1
55. H 2O2 
 H 2O  O2 , order of given reaction is -
2
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth
56. Consider the reaction

A  g   B  g   
 C  g   D  g 
Which occurs in one step, the specific rate constants for the forward and the reverse
reactions are 2.5 102 and 5 103 respectively. The equilibrium constant is:
(A) 1.25 102 (B) 5.0 106 (C) 2 105 (D) None of these
57. Solubility product of AgBr is 4.9 1013. Its solubility in mole / litre will be -
(A) 7 107 (B) 7 104 (C) 8 105 (D) None of these
58. Solubility product of Agl at 25°C is 8.13 1017. Calculate solubility of Agl in g/L.
(A) 2.12 104 g/L (B) 3.12 104 g/L (C) 2.14 103 g/L (D) 3.13 104
59. When NH 4Cl is added to NH 4OH solution, the dissociation of ammonium

hydroxide is reduced. It is due to -
(A) Common ion effect (B) Hydrolysis
(C) Oxidation (D) Reduction
60. The addition HCl will not suppress the ionization of -

(A) Acetic acid (B) Sulphuric acid (C) H2S (D) benzoic acid
61. Which pair will show common ion effect?

(A) BaCl2  Ba  NO3 2 (B) NaCl  HCl
(C) NH 4OH  NH 4Cl (D) AgCN  KCN

62. The solubility of AgCl in a solution of common salt is lower than in water. This is due
to -
(A) Salt effect (B) Lowering of solubility product
(C) Common ion effect (D) Complex formation
63. On passing a current of HCl gas is saturated solution on NaCl, the solubility of NaCl-
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains unchanged (D) NaCl decomposes
64. On addition of ammonium chloride to a solution of NH 4OH -

(A) Dissociation of NH 4OH increases
(B) Concentration of OH  decreases
(C) Concentration of OH  increases
(D) concentration of both NH 4 and OH  increases
65. The following equilibrium exists in aqueous solution -

 
 H  CH3COO
CH3COOH  
If dilute HCl is added -
(A) The equilibrium constant will increase
(B) Acetate ion concentration will decrease
(C) Acetate ion concentration will increase
(D) Acetate ion concentration will not change
66. A solution which is resistant to changes in its pH on dilution, or addition of small

amounts of an acid or a base is known as -
(A) Buffer solution (B) True solution
(C) Isohydric solution (D) Ideal solution
67. Mixture of NH 4OH and NH 4Cl is an example of -

(A) Basic buffer (B) Acidic buffer (C) Both (D) None of these
68. An acidic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing the solution of -

(A) Sodium acetate and acetic acid
(B) Ammonium chloride and ammonium hydroxide
(C) Sulphuric acid and sodium hydroxide
(D) Sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide

(SUBJECTIVE TYPE)
69. At a given temperature, the equilibrium constant for the reactions

NO  g   1/ 2O2  g   
 NO2  g  and 2 NO2  g   
 2 NO  g   O2  g  are K1 and
K 2 respectively. If K1 is 4 103 then calculate K 2 .
70. If K P for a reaction

A  g   2B  g   
 3C  g   D  g  is 0.05 atm at 1000 K. Calculate its K c in terms
of R.
71. Solubility of AgCl in water is 0.976 1010 g / L. Calculate its solubility product.

ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. According to Arrhenius concept, base is a substance that -
(A) Gives H  ions in aqueous solution.
(B) Gives OH  ions in aqueous solution.
(C) Accepts electrons.
(D) Donates electrons.
2. According to Bronsted – Lowry concept an acid is a substance which -

(A) Accepts proton (B) Gives an electron pair.
(C) Gives proton. (D) Combines with H 3O  ions.
3. According to Lewis concept, a base is a substance which -

(A) Donates an electron pair. (B) Accepts an electron pair.
(C) Produces hydronium ions. (D) Combines with OH  ions.
4. The strength of the acid depends on the -

(A) Number of hydrogen atoms present in the molecule.
(B) Oxygen content.
(C) Density.
(D) Concentration of hydrogen ions furnished by ionization.
5. Which among the following qualifies as a Lewis acid?

(A) NaF (B) NaCl (C) BF3 (D) H 3O 
6. Which of the following will qualify as a Lewis base?

(A) BCl3 (B) CH 4 (C) Cl2 (D) NH 3
7. NH 4 ions in aqueous solution will behave as -

(A) A base (B) An acid
(C) Both acid and base (D) Neutral
8. Which one of the following does not act as a Bronsted acid?

(A) NH 4 (B) HCO3 (C) HSO3 (D) CH 3COO
9. Of the given anions, the strongest Bronsted base is -

(A) ClO  (B) ClO2 (C) ClO3 (D) ClO4

10. The compound that is not a Lewis acid is -

(A) BaCl2 (B) AlCl3 (C) BCl3 (D) SnCl4
11. The numerical value of negative power to which 10 must be raised in order to express
hydrogen ion concentration is equal to -
(A) Strength of the solution (B) pH of the solution
(C) Degree of hydrolysis (D) Solubility product of the electrolyte
12. Which one of the following relationship is correct?

1
(A) PH  (B) pH  log  H  
 H  
1
(C) log pH   H   (D) pH  log
 H  
13. When 106 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solutions, the
pH of the solution is-
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) Less than 7 (D) More than 7
14. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in mol litre -1 is -

(A) 11012 (B) 1102 (C) 1107 (D) 1104
15. The pH of 108 molar solution of HCl in water is -

(A) 8 (B) 8
(C) Between 7 and 8 (D) Between 6 and 7
16. The pH of 0.001 M solution of HCl is -

(A) 1.0 (B) 3 (C) 4.0 (D) 5.0
17. The pH of a solution containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is -

(A) 1 (B) 101 (C) 13 (D) 1013
18. When 0.4 g of NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution, the pH of solution is
(A) 12 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 10
19. The hydrogen ion concentration and pH of the solution made by mixing 100 mL of
1.0 M HNO3 with 100 mL of 0.8 M KOH are -
(A)  H    0.1, pH  1 (B)  H    0.01, pH  2
(C)  H    1  1012 , pH  12 (D)  H    1  107 , pH  7

20. The pH and pOH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of HNO3 are -

(A) 0, 14 (B) 14, 0 (C) 13, 1 (D) 1, 13
21. 2o mL of 0.1 N HCl is mixed with 20 mL of 0.1 N KOH solution; the pH of the
solution will be -
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 7 (D) 9
22. When the pH changes from 4 to 2, the hydrogen ion concentration will increase by a
factor -
(A) 2 (B) 1/2 (C) 102 (D) 100.5
23. 100 mL of 0.2 N HCl is added to 100 mL of 0.18 N NaOH and the whole volume is
made two litre. The pH of resulting solution is -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
24. 10 mL of 0.1 N HCl is added to 990 mL solution of NaCl. The pH of the resulting
solution is -
(A) Zero (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 10
25. A solution which is resistant to changes of pH on dilution or addition of small

amounts of an acid or a base is known as -
(A) Buffer solution (B) True solution
(C) Isohydric solution (D) Ideal solution
26. Ionic dissociation of acetic acid is represented as -

 
CH3COOH  H 2O  
 CH 3COO  H 3O
According to Lowry and Bronsted, the reaction possesses -
(A) An acid and three bases (B) Two acids and two bases
(C) An acid and a base (D) Three acid and a base
27. The concept of an acid as an acceptor of a pair of electron was introduced by -

(A) Lowry (B) Bronsted (C) Arrhenius (D) Lewis
28. Ammonia dissolves in water to give NH 4OH . In this reaction water acts as -
(A) An acid (B) A base
(C) A salt (D) Conjugate base

29. The pH of a solution is 6.0. To this solution, sufficient acid is added to decrease the
pH to 3.0. The increase in hydrogen ion concentration is -
(A) 100 times (B) 10 times (C) 10000 times (D) 2.5 times
30. The conjugate base of HPO42 is -

(A) PO43 (B) H 2 PO4 (C) H 3 PO4 (D) H 4 PO3
31. Fear and excitement generally cause one to breathe rapidly and it results in the
decrease of carbon dioxide in the blood. In what way will it change the pH of the
blood?
(A) pH will decrease (B) pH will increase
(C) No change (D) pH will adjust to 7
32. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following increase in the order of:
(A) NaCl  NH 4Cl  NaCN  HCl (B) HCl  NH 4Cl  NaCl  NaCN
(C) NaCN  NH 4Cl  NaCl  HCl (D) HCl  NaCl  NaCN  NH 4Cl
33. In the reaction, I 2  I  

 I3 , the Lewis base is -
(A) I2 (B) I (C) I 3 (D) None
34. Which of the following is the strongest base?

(A) CH 3 (B) NH 2 (C) OH  (D) F
35. Aluminium chloride is -

(A) Bronsted Lowry acid (B) Arrhenius base
(C) Lewis acid (D) Lewis base
36. A salt derived from strong acid and weak base will dissolve in water to give a solution
which is -
(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) None of these
37. Materials used in the manufacture of bleaching powder are-

(A) Lime stone and chlorine (B) Quick lime and chlorine
(C) Slaked lime and HCl (D) Slaked lime and chlorine

38. Bleaching powder gives smell of chlorine because it -

(A) Is unstable
(B) Gives chlorine on exposure to atmosphere
(C) Is a mixture of chlorine and slaked lime
(D) Contains excess of chlorine
39. Washing soda has the formula -

(A) Na2CO3 . 7 H 2O (B) Na2CO3 . 10H 2O
(C) Na2CO3 . H 2O (D) NaCO3
40. The raw materials required for the manufacture of Na2CO3 by Solvay process are -
(A) CaCl2 ,  NH 4 2 CO3 , NH 3 (B) NH 4Cl , NaCl , Ca  OH 2
(C) NaCl ,  NH 4 2 CO3 , NH 3 (D) NaCl , NH3 , CaCO3 , H 2O
41. The element which reacts both with acids and bases to produce a salt and hydrogen is
(A) Zn (B) Mg (C) Li (D) S
42. Chlorine gas is produced from HCl by addition of

(A) K 2 SO4 (B) KCl (C) KNO3 (D) KMnO4
43. Among HCl, HBr, HF and Hl, the weakest acid in water is
(A) HCl (B) HF (C) HBr (D) Hl
44. Products of the reaction Ca  OH 2  2 NH 4Cl , are

(A) CaCl2  2 NH3  2H 2O (B) CaCl2  NH 4OH  H 2
(C) CaO  2 NH3  2H 2O (D) CaO  NH 4OH  H 2
45. When a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid are added to a few drops of a clear
sugar (sucrose) solution in a test tube, the solution
(A) Remains colorless (B) Turns black
(C) Turns blue (D) Turns white

46. A sample of water was checked for suitability for drinking and was subjected to a
chemical test. Pure Zinc granules and sulphuric acid was added to the water sample.
The effervescence that resulted from the reaction was bubbled through a tube
containing lead acetate solution. A black precipitate appeared. The outgoing gas was
subsequently passed through a heated copper tube, a black mirror appeared on the
wall of the tube. The first and second black substances, respectively, are
(A) HgS and CuS (B) PbS and CuS (C) As and Hg (D) PbS and As
47. The correct order of pH is:

(A) Lemon juice < Water < Milk of Magnesia
(B) Lemon juice > Water > Milk of Magnesia
(C) Water > Lemon juice > Milk of Magnesia
(D) Milk of Magnesia > Lemon juice > Water
48. An aqueous solution of a metal salt (X) reacts with carbon dioxide to give a water
soluble compound (Y) which on heating gives the starting metal salt back. Y when
present in water does not produce lather with soap. The compounds X and Y,
respectively are
(A) CaCO3 and Ca  HCO3 2 (B) Mg  HCO3 2 and MgCO3
(C) Ca  HCO3 2 and CaCO3 (D) MgCO3 and Mg  HCO3 2
49. Sodium oxide dissolves in water to give sodium hydroxide which indicates its
(A) Acidic character (B) Basic character
(C) Amphoteric character (D) Ionic character
50. The pH values of

(i) 0.1 M HCl aq (ii) 0.1 M KOH
(iii) Tomato juice and (iv) Pure water
Follow the order
(A) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii) (B) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
(C) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (D) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
51. Reaction of NaCl with conc. H2SO4 liberates a gas X that turns moist blue litmus
paper red. When gas X is passed into a test tube containing egg shell powder
suspended in water another gas, Y is generated which when passed through lime
water makes it milky. The gases X and Y respectively, are:
(A) HCl and CO2 (B) Cl2 and CO2 (C) SO2 and CO2 (D) SO2 and HCl

52. The pH of a 10 ml aqueous solution of HCl is 4. The amount of water to be added to

this solution in order to change its pH from 4 to 5 is:
(A) 30 ml (B) 60 ml (C) 90 ml (D) 120 ml
53. Out of the following salts that has/have pH value higher than 7.5 is/are:
(A) Sodium hydrogen carbonate (B) Sodium sulphate
(C) Sodium chloride (D) Sodium carbonate
54. An aqueous solution of HCl has a pH of 2.0. When water is added to increase the pH
to 5.0, the hydrogen ion concentration:
(A) Remains the same (B) Decreases three-fold
(C) Increases three-fold (D) Decreases thousand-fold
(SUBJECTIVE TYPE)
55. When 0.4 g of NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution, calculate the pH of solution.
56. 100 mL of 0.2 N HCl is added to 100 mL of 0.18 N NaOH and the whole volume is
made two litre. Find the pH of resulting solution.

METALS & THEIR COMPOUNDS

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Which hydride among the following is called hydrolith?
(A) NaH (B) KH (C) CaH2 (D) MgH2
2. The metal with which hydrogen reacts to form metal hydride is -

(A) Hg (B) Ca (C) Ag (D) Fe
3. Which oil is used as frother in froth floatation process?

(A) Mustard oil (B) Coconut oil (C) Olive oil (D) Pine oil
4. Chemical method used in concentration of ore is also known as -

(A) Bleaching (B) Leaching (C) Roasing (D) Calcination
5. Van Arkel method purification of metals involves converting the metal into a -
(A) Volatile stable compound. (B) Volatile unstable compound.
(C) Non volatile stable compound (D) Non volatile unstable compound.
6. Which of the following metals is purified by zone refining method?

(A) Titanium (B) Zirconium (C) Germanium (D) Tungsten
7. Zone refining is a method to obtain -

(A) Very high temperature (B) Ultra pure Al
(C) Ultra pure metals (D) Ultra pure oxides
8. Which of the following methods is not involved in metallurgy of iron?

(A) Calcination (B) Smelting
(C) Concentration of ore (D) None of these
9. Which of the following chemical reaction does not take place in blast furnace?
(A) C  s   O2  g  
 CO2  g   Heat
(B) CaCO3  s  

 CaO  s   CO2  g 
(C) Fe2O3  s   3CO  g  

 2Fe     3CO2  g 
(D) None of these
10. What is the percentage of carbon in wrought iron?

(A) 5% (B) 0.15 – 0.25% (C) 0.28% - 0.5% (D) 0.1 – 0.15

11. The smelting of iron in a blast furnace involves at the following processes except -
(A) Combustion (B) Reduction (C) Slag formation (D) Sublimation
12. Which of the following is not an ore of iron?

(A) Magnelite (B) Haematite (C) Dolomite (D) Limonite
13. Which of the following process is done in blast furnace?

(A) Calcination (B) Roasting
(C) Smelting (D) Bessemerisation
14. The flux used in the blast furnace to remove the unwanted impurities during
metallurgy of iron is -
(A) Basic (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) Amphoteric
15. Which of the following is purest form of iron?

(A) Wrought iron (B) Pig iron (C) Steel (D) None of these
16. In the manufacture of iron from haematite ore, limestone is added to act as -
(A) Flux (B) Slag
(C) A reducing agent (D) An oxidizing agent
17. Cu2 S  2Cu2O 

 6Cu  SO2 T
In which process of metallurgy of copper, above equation is involved?
(A) Roasting (B) Reduction (C) Bessemerisation (D) Purification
18. Which gas is responsible for production of blisters on the surface of the blister
copper?
(A) SO2 (B) NO2 (C) CO2 (D) P2O5
19. Which electrolyte is used in electrolysis during purification of copper metal?

(A) Cu  OH 2 (B) CuSO4 (C) CuCO3 (D) CuO
20. 2CuFeS2  O2 
 Cu2 S  2FeS  SO2
Which process of metallurgy of copper is represented by above equation?
(A) Concentration (B) Roasting (C) Reduction (D) Purification
21. Copper is refined by -

(A) Liquation (B) Distillation
(C) Zone – refining method (D) Liquation

22. The slag obtained during the extraction of copper from copper pyrites is compound
mainly of -
(A) Au2 S (B) FeSiO2 (C) CuSiO3 (D) SiO2
23. Which of the following is the sulphide ore of copper?

(A) Azurite (B) Copper glance (C) Cuprite (D) Malachite
24. Poling process is used for the conversion of -

(A) Cu2O to Cu (B) Al2O3 to Al (C) Fe2O3 to Fe (D) All of these
25. Which of the following is also known as ruby copper?

(A) Copper glance (B) Cuprite (C) Cryolite (D) Haematite
26. When copper is placed in the atmosphere for sufficient time, a green crust is formed
on its surface. The composition of green crust is -
(A) Cu  OH 2 (B) CuO
(C) CuCO3 (D) Cu  OH 2 . CuCO3
27. Which substance is used as a leaching agent in concentration of bauxite?

(A) H 2O (B) KOH (C) NaOH (D) CaO
28. For purification of which metal baeyer‟s process is used?

(A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Aluminium (D) Silver
29. Which reagent is used in baeyer‟s process?

(A) Na2CO3 (B) Carbon (C) NaOH (D) Silica
30. The function of addition of cryolite in the extraction of aluminium from pure alumina
is -
(A) To increase the fusion temperature.
(B) To decrease the conductivity of alumina.
(C) To decrease the fusion temperature and increase the conductivity of alumina.
(D) None of these
31. In the thermite process the role of aluminium is as -

(A) An oxidant (B) A reductant (C) A flux (D) A gangue

32. Which of the following metals is a component of stainless steel?

(A) Mn (B) Cr (C) Hg (D) Sn
33. Which of the following alloys is used in preparation of powerful magnets?

(A) Duralumin (B) Magnalium (C) Alnico (D) Bronze
34. The alloy used for making meter scales and pendulum is -
(A) Magnalium (B) Invar (C) German silver (D) Brass
35. The alloy used for the construction of bells and gongs is -
(A) Tungsten steel (B) Nickel steel (C) Belt metal (D) Duralumin
36. Which of the following alloys is light and strong?

(A) Brass (B) Stainless steel (C) Duralium (D) Bronze
37. The alloy used in making aircraft bodies is -

(A) Steel (B) Duralumin (C) Alnico (D) Invar
38. To keep correct time, modern watches are fitted with balance wheel made up of -
(A) Steel (B) Alnico (C) Invar (D) Copper
39. Percentage of silver in german silver is -

(A) 12 (B) 8 (C) 3 (D) 0
40. Quick lime is -

(A) CaO (B) CaOCl2
1
(C) Ca  OH 2 (D) CaSO4 . H 2O
2
41. Which of the following salts is not an alum?

(A) K2 SO4 . Al2  SO4 3 .24H 2O (B) Na2 SO4 . Al2  SO4 3 .24H 2O
(C)  NH 4 2 SO4 . Al2  SO4 3 . 24H 2O (D) None of these
42. Which of the following substances is used in softening of hard water?

(A) Blue vitriol (B) Baking soda (C) Soda ash (D) Lime
43. Which of the following is known as quick lime?

(A) KNO3 (B) CaO (C) SO2 (D) HgO

44. Which of the following substances is used in preparation of silver mirror?

(A) AgBr (B) AgNO3 (C) CuSO4 .5H2 O (D) AgCl
45. Which of the following substances is used in refining of petroleum?

(A) NaOH (B) AgNO3
(C) AgBr (D) CuSO4 .5H 2O
46. Which of the following is used as fungicide in agriculture?

(A) Caustic soda (B) Bordeaux mixture
(C) Alum (D) Blue vitriol
47. Alum is -
(A) A common salt (B) A rock salt (C) A double salt (D) None of these
48. Which of the following products is formed on heating copper sulphate pentahydrate at
423 K?
(A) CuSO4 .5H 2O (B) CuSO4 .2H 2O (C) CuSO4 .H 2O (D) CuSO4
49. Bordeaux mixture is a mixture of -

(A) Lime and alum. (B) Alum and caustic soda.
(C) Lime and copper sulphate. (D) Alum and blue vitriol.
50. Copper sulphate is extensively used -

(A) In electroplating (B) In electric battery
(C) As mordant dye (D) In all of these
51. The gas responsible for under water corrosion of iron and the product of corrosion,
respectively, are
(A) Dissolved oxygen and Fe2O3 (B) Dissolved hydrogen and Fe2O3
(C) Dissolved oxygen and Fe(OH)3 (D) Dissolved nitrogen and Fe(OH)3
52. The pair of metals which will produce hydrogen gas in reaction with acid is:
(A) Mg, Cu (B) Mg, Ag (C) Zn, Pb (D) Cu, Zn

NON-METALS & THEIR COMPOUNDS

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Which of the following elements are non-metals?
24 19 23 13
(i) 12 X (ii) 9 Y (iii) 11 M (iv) 6 Z
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
2. Sulphur can be extracted by which of the following processes?

(A) Contact process (B) Lead chamber process
(C) Frasch process (D) Haber process
3. Which of the following is the crystalline form of sulphur?

(A) Plastic sulphur (B) Collodial sulphur
(C) Monoclinic sulphur (D) All of these
4. Bleaching action of sulphur dioxide is by _______ and it _______ .

(A) Oxidation, temporary (B) Oxidation, permanent
(C) Reduction, temporary (D) Reduction, permanent
5. Which of the following conditions help in better yield of SO3 by oxidation of SO2 in
contact process?
(A) High T and low P (B) Low T and Low P
(C) Low T and High P (D) High T and High P
6. Which of the following is / are ores of sulphur?

(A) Galena (B) Barytes (C) Gypsum (D) All of these
7. Which of the following is an allotrope of sulphur?

(A) α - sulphur (B) β - sulphur (C) γ - sulphur (D) ϕ - sulphur
8. Which of the following non metals is good conductor of heat?

(A) Sulphur (B) Graphite (C) Phosphorus (D) Nitrogen
9. Which of the following acids is used in lead storage batteries?

(A) Nitric acid (B) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid (D) None of these
10. Which element is used in process of vulcanization of rubber?

(A) Phosphorus (B) Carbon (C) Nitroge (D) Sulphur

11. Which of the following is known as king of chemical?

(A) HCl (B) CH3COOH (C) H2SO4 (D) NaOH
12. Which of the following is used for making smoke clouds, fire balls, fire game
exhibition and coloured match sticks?
(A) White phosphorus (B) Red phosphorus
(C) Black phosphorus (D) None of these
13. Which of the following compounds is used to kill rats?

(A) Magnesium phosphide (B) Zinc phosphide
(C) Aluminium phosphide (D) None of these
14. What is n ature of aqueous ammonia?

(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) Amphoteric
15. Silicon is used in

(A) Solar energy devices (B) Semiconductors
(C) Transistors (D) All of these
16. Which of the following acids react with silicon?

(A) HI (B) HBr (C) HF (D) HCl
17. Pure silicon can be obtained by which process?

(A) Smelting (B) Zone refining process
(C) Bessemerization (D) Roasting
18. Si  Na2CO3 
 X  CO2
In the above reaction product X is -
(A) SiO2 (B) NaOH (C) Na2 SiO3 (D) Si  CO3 4
19. 2P  X 
 P2 S5 .
In the above reaction X is -
(A) 5S (B) 3S (C) 2S (D) S
20. Which of the following are allotropes of phosphorus?

(A) White phosphorus (B) Black phosphorus
(C) Red phosphorus (D) All of these

21. Phosphorus is kept in -

(A) Kerosene oil (B) Alcohol (C) Water (D) Ammonia
22. Red phosphorus is less reactive than yellow phosphorus because -

(A) Its colour is red (B) It is highly polymerized
(C) It is tetratomic (D) It is hard
23. P-P-P bond angle in white phosphorus is -

(A) 45° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 120°
24. Which of the following elements does not has catenation property?
(A) Carbon (B) Phosphorus
(C) Sulphur (D) All have catenation property
25. Which of the following oxide is neutral towards litmus?

(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Sulphur trioxide
26. The non-metal which is a liquid at room temperature is -

(A) Chlorine (B) Bromine (C) Iodine (D) Carbon
27. Which of the following oxides will urn moist blue litmus red?
(A) CO (B) NO (C) N2O (D) P2O5
28. Which of the following statements about graphite is incorrect?

(A) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
(B) Graphite has a high melting point.
(C) Graphite is the hardest substance.
(D) Graphite is lustrous.
29. Non metals generally form -

(A) Cations (B) Anions
(C) (A) & (B) both (D) Do not form ions
30. Due to its semiconductor properties, the non metal used in computer, T.V. etc. is -
(A) Carbon (B) Silicon (C) Bromine (D) Fluorine

31. 2 NH3  g   3CuO  g  

 3Cu  s   3H 2O     N2  g 
In the above reaction NH3 reacts as -
(A) Reducing agent (B) Oxidising agent (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
32. Hydrogen peroxide is a -

(A) Oxidising agent (B) Reducing agent (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
33. Which of the following substance is used in oxidation of rocket fuel?

(A) Nitric acid (B) Hydrogen peroxide
(C) Ammonium chloride (D) Both (A) and (B)
34. Which of the following compounds of nitric acid is used in explosive and fire
crackers?
(A) Potassium nitrate (B) Nitroglycerine
(C) Trinitro toluene (D) All of these
35. Which compound is used in manufacture of ammonium nitrate?

(A) H2SO4 (B) HCl (C) HNO3 (D) H2CO3
36. Hydrochloric acid is used in

(A) Iron and steel industry (B) Textiles, gum and dye manufacture
(C) Manufacture of chlorine (D) All of these
Read the following paragraph and then answer Q.37 to Q.42. Two compounds (A) and (B),
when heated together, led to the production of a gas (C), a solid (D) and a neutral oxide (F).
When a glass rod dipped in conc. HCl is brought close to a jar of gas (C), then white fumes of
(B) are formed. When another gas (E) is passed through a solution of (A), the solution turns
milky but the milkiness disappears on passing excess of gas (E) forming substance (G). Gas
(E) also turns acidified K2Cr2O7 solution green. When dil. HCl is added to (A), the compound
(D) is formed along with (F).
37. The neutral oxide (F) is -

(A) CO (B) NO (C) N2O (D) H2O
38. Compound (A) is -

(A) Washing soda (B) Baking soda (C) Slaked lime (D) Quick lime

39. Gas (C) is -

(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) NO (D) NH3
40. Compound (B) is -

(A) NH4Cl (B) HCl (C) (NH4)2SO4 (D) None of these
41. Compound (G) is -

(A) Ca(HSO4)2 (B) Calcium bisulphate
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
42. Gas (E) is -

(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) NO (D) NH3
43. The non-metal having shining surface is -

(A) Sulphur (B) Phosphorus (C) Iodine (D) Carbon
44. Which oxide is neutral among the following?

(A) CO & NO (B) H2O (C) N2O (D) All
45. Which of the following is known as Nausadar?

(A) CaOCl2 (B) NH4Cl (C) HCl (D) HNO3
46. Which of the following substances is a form of silica?

(A) Coloured quartz (B) Jesper (C) Kieselguhr (D) All of these
47. Which of the following protects us from harmful ultraviolet rays coming from sun?
(A) O2 (B) H2O (C) O3 (D) H2O2
48. Main uses of Nausadar are -

(A) In electric battery (B) As a medicine
(C) As a reagent in laboratory (D) All of these
49. Which of the following is used in re-brighening of old paintings?

(A) HCl (B) H2O2 (C) NH4Cl (D) HNO3
50. Which is not a constituent of cement?

(A) CaO (B) Na2O (C) SiO2 (D) Al2O3

51. The initial setting of cement is mainly due to -

(A) Hydration and gel formation (B) Dehydration and gel formation
(C) Dehydration and dehydrolysis (D) Hydration and oxidation
52. The heat resistant glass is -

(A) Pyrex glass (B) Soda glass (C) Lead Glass (D) Potash glass
53. If glass is heated to a temperature well below red hot and is then cooled slowly, the
process is called -
(A) Annealing (B) Quenching (C) tempering (D) Nitriding
54. Which of the following substance is present in the photochromatic glass?

(A) PbO (B) Cr2O3 (C) Borax (D) Silver
bromide
55. In which of the following pair, both the substances are chemically same?
(A) Milk of lime and lime water (B) Dead burnt plaster and gypsum
(C) Alumina and gypsum (D) Gypsum and plaster of Paris
56. The wind screen of cars, aeroplanes etc. is made up of -

(A) Hard glass (B) Safety glass (C) Lead glass (D) Soda glass
57. Which of the following compound help in setting of cement?

(A) Bleaching powder (B) Lime
(C) Gypsum (D) Clay
58. The average composition of soda glass is -

(A) Na2SiO3. CaSiO3. 6SiO2 (B) Na2O. CaO. 6SiO2. Cr2O3
(C) Na2O. 2CaO. 3SiO2 (D) Na2O. CaO. 6SiO2
59. Crooke‟s glass contains -

(A) PbO (B) CoO
(C) Na2B4O7. 10H2O (D) CeO
60. Chromium oxide is added in glass to impart -

(A) Red colour (B) Blue colour (C) Ruby colour (D) Green colour

61. The proof of oxidizing action of hydrogen peroxide in acid solution is formation of :
(A) O2 (B) H2O
(C) Both H2O and O2 (D) Both H3O+ and O2
62. Bleaching action of sulphur dioxide is by _________ and is ________

(A) Oxidation, temporary (B) Oxidation, permanent
(C) Reduction, temporary (D) Reduction, permanent
63. Which of the following conditions help in better yield of SO3 by oxidation of SO2 in
contact process?
(A) High T and low P (B) Low T and Low P
(C) Low T and High P (D) High T and High P

CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Marsh gas mainly contains -
(A) C2H6 (B) CH4 (C) C2H2 (D) CCl4
2. in C2H6 the C  C  H is -
(A) 90° (B) 10928' (C) 120° (D) 180°
3. When sodium propionate is heated with sodalime, which of the following will be
formed?
(A) CH4 (B) C2H6 (C) C3H8 (D) C4H10
4. Both methane and ethane may be obtained in one step reaction from -
(A) C2H6 (B) CH3 l (C) CH3OH (D) C2H5OH
5. Final products of the oxidation of hydrocarbon is -

(A) Acid (B) Aldehyde
(C) Dihydric alcohol (D) H2O + CO2
6. The gas which is used for the artificial ripening of fruits is -

(A) Ethane (B) Acetylene (C) Ethylene (D) Marsh gas
7. Which of the following molecules is not linear?

(A) CH 2  CH 2 (B) CO2 (C) BeCl2 (D) CH  CH
8. Ethylene can be easily distinguished from acetylene with the help of -

(A) Conc. sulphuric acid (B) Bromine solution
(C) Alkaline potassium permanganate (D) Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution
9. Bayer‟s reagent is -
(A) Alkaline KMnO4 solution (B) Acidified KMnO4 solution
(C) Neutral KMnO4 solution (D) aqueous bromine solution
10. Ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H2SO4 at 160 to 170°C. The product formed is -
(A) CH3COOC2H5 (B) C2H6 (C) C2H4 (D) C2H2
11. Molecule in which the distance between two adjacent carbon atoms is largest is -
(A) Ethane (B) Ethene (C) Ethyne (D) Benzene

12. Ethylene readily undergoes -

(A) Addition (B) Substitution
(C) Elimination (D) Rearrangement
13. Reaction of HF, HCl, HBr and HI towards ethane is in the order -
(A) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (B) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
(C) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (D) HI > HF > HCl > HBr
14. When ethylene is passed in alkaline potassium permanganate solution we get -

(A) Ethanol (B) Oxalic acid (C) Acetaldehyde (D) Glycol
15. Ethylidene dibromide gives ethyne on heating with -

(A) Conc. H2SO4 (B) Aqueous KOH
(C) Alcoholic KOH + NaNH2 (D) Alkaline KMnO4
16. In the following sequence the product (C) is –

CH
HBr (A) HBr (B)
KOH (aq)
(C)
CH
(A) Ethanol (B) Ethene (C) Ethyne (D) Ethanal
17. The incorrect IUPAC name of an alkyne is -

(A) Propyne (B) But-2-yne (C) Pent-3-yne (D) But-1-yne
18. Compound formed on reaction of CaC2 with water is -

(A) Acetylene (B) Ethylene (C) Ethene (D) Propene
19. Bond angle in ethyne is -

(A) 90° (B) 120° (C) 10928' (D) 180°
20. Which of the following formula represents pentyne?

(A) C5H5 (B) C5H6 (C) C5H8 (D) CCl4
21. Lewisite is a war gas. It is a -

(A) Organosulphur compound (B) Organoarsenic compound
(C) Organoantimony compound (D) Organophosphorus compound
22. Formalin is 40% solution of -

(A) Methanol (B) Methanal (C) Methanoic acid (D) None of these

23. Which of the following compound will give a silver mirror with tollen‟s reagent?
(A) Ethanoic acid (B) Propanone (C) Acetaldehyde (D) Methanol
24. Propanone can be prepared by -

(A) Oxidation of 2-propanol (B) Dehydrogenation of 2-propanol
(C) Both of the above (D) None of these
25. Commercially acetone is produced from -

(A) 2-propanol (B) 1-methyl ethyl benzene
(C) Calcium acetate (D) None of these
26. Propanone on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 and conc. H2SO4 gives -
(A) Propanoic acid (B) Ethanoic acid
(C) Hydroxyl propanoic acid (D) Methanoic acid
27. An essential ingredient of nail polish is -

(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Acetic acid (C) Acetone (D) All of these
28. Mesitylene is formed when propanone reacts with -

(A) dil HNO3 (B) conc. H2SO4 (C) dil. H2SO4 (D) conc. HNO3
29. Aldehyde is formed when following is hydrolysed -

(A) Ethane (B) Ether (C) Ethyne (D) None of these
30. Fehling solution consists of two alkaline solutions. If one of these is CuSO 4, then the
other is -
(A) NaHCO3 (B) Na2SO4 (C) NaKC2O4 (D) NaKC4H4O6
31. Which of alkane would have only primary and tertiary carbon?
(A) Pentane (B) 2-methyl butane
(C) 2,2-dimethyl propane (D) 2, 3-dimethyl butane
32. The number of 4° carbon atoms in 2,2,4-trimethyl pentane is -

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
33. Isopropyl alcohol on controlled oxidation gives-

(A) Acetone (B) Acetic acid (C) Acetaldehyde (D) Propanol

34. Identify Z in the series

CH3  CH 2  CH 2  OH 
Conc.
H 2 SO4
 X 
Br2
Y 
aq.
KOH
Z
OH2 OH
(A) (B) OH
OH
(C) (D)
35. Which of the following compound is oxidsed to prepare methyl ethyl ketone?
(A) 2-Propanol (B) 1-Butanol
(C) 2-Butanol (D) 1-Butyl alcohol
36. The enzyme that converts glucose into ethanol is -

(A) Invertase (B) Lactase (C) Diastase (D) Zymase
37. Acetic acid in the vapour state has a molecular weight of 120 because -
(A) Its molecule gets solidified.
(B) It undrergoes intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(C) It forms anhydride in this conditions.
(D) All of the above
38. The organic compounds having same molecular formula but different structural
formula are known as -
(A) Isomers (B) Isotones (C) Isotopes (D) Isobars
39. The acid in which  COOH is not present is -

(A) Ethanoic acid (B) Picric acid (C) Lactic acid (D) Palmitic acid
40. Ethyne can be prepared in one step from -

(A) Ethanol (B) Chloroform
(C) Ethanal (D) Ethyl bromide
41. Which of the following will show geometrical isomerisms?

(A) CH4 (B) CH 2  CH 2
(C) CH 3  CH 3 (D) CH3  CH  CH  CH3

42. Geometrical isomerism is shown by -

(A) Alkane (B) Alkene (C) Alkyne (D) None of these
43. Boiling point of cis isomer is ……. in comparison of trans isomer -

(A) High (B) Low (C) Equal (D) None of these
44. Tautomerism will be shown by the compound -

(A) CH3  CH 2OH (B) CH 3  OH
(C) CH3  CO  CH3 (D) None of these
45. Tautomerism is also called -

(A) Keto-enol isomerism (B) Chain isomerism
(C) Position isomerism (D) Metamerism
46. Which of the following pair will show metamerism?

(A) CH3  CH 2  O  CH 2  CH3 and CH3  O  C3 H 7
(B) CH3  NH  C3 H 7 and C2 H5  NH  C2 H5
(C) CH3  CH 2  CH 2  OH and CH3  O  C2 H5
(D) A & B
47. The number of electrons present in the valence shell of carbon of carbocation bearing
positive charge.
(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 4
48. The most stable carbocation amongst the following is -

 
(A) CH 3  CH 2  C H 2 (B) CH 3  C H  CH 2  CH 3
 
(C)  CH 3 3 C (D)  CH3 3 C  C H 2
 
(A) CH 3  C H 2 (B) C H 2  CHCl2
 
(C) C H 2  CH 2  Cl (D) C H 2  CH 2  NO2


 CH3CH 2 2 CH
+
(A) CH2 (B)

 CH 3CH 2 3 C
+
(C) (D) CH2

51. The most unstable carbocation is -

   
(A) CH 3 (B) CH 3 C H 2 (C) H C2 (D) C2 H 3
52. Arrange the radicals in their decreasing order of stability.

CH 3
   |
(I) C H3 (II) CH 3  C H 2 (III) CH 3  C H (IV) CH 3  C 
| |
CH 3 CH 3
(A) IV > I > III > II (B) IV > III > II > I
(C) I > II > III > IV (D) IV > III > I > II
53. Free radicals are -

(A) Short lived (B) Highly reactive
(C) Electrically neutral (D) All
54. Hydrogen atom gets transferred from one atom to another atom in -
(A) Keto-enol isomerism (B) Metamerism
(C) Chain isomerism (D) Position isomerism
55. The species having maximum electron deficiency -

   
(A)  CH 3 3 C (B) CH 3 C H 2 (C)  CH 3 2 C H (D) C H 3
56. The compound having a triple bond is

(A) Benzene (B) Cyclohexane (C) Acetylene (D) Glucose
57. In the reaction.

Glucose 
yeast
 x 
KMnO4
y
The products x and y, respectively, are
(A) EtOH, CH3COOH (B) MeOH, HCOOH
(C) EtOH, CH3CHO (D) EtOH, OHCH2CH2OH
58. Among butane, 1-butene, 1-butanol and butanal, the compound which is most polar is
(A) Butane (B) 1-Butene (C) 1-Butanol (D) Butanal
59. Among ethanol, dimethyl ether, methanol and propanal, the isomers are:
(A) Ethanol, dimethyl ether, methanol and propanal
(B) Ethanol and methanol
(C) Ethanol, dimethyl ether and methanol
(D) Ethanol and dimethyl ether

60. Esterification of a compound “X” with molecular formula C 3H6O2 with an alcohol
“Y” produces a compound with molecular formula C5H10O2. X and Y, respectively,
are:
(A) Propanoic acid and methanol (B) Propanoic acid and ethanol
(C) Acetic acid and ethanol (D) Butyric acid and methanol
61. When calcium carbide is added to water, the gas that is evolved is
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Hydrogen (C) Acetylene (D) Methane
62. Among the four compounds (i) acetone, (ii) propanol, (iii) methyl acetate and
(iv) propionic acid, the two that are isomeric are
(A) Methyl acetate and acetone (B) Methyl acetate and propanol
(C) Propionic acid and methyl acetate (D) Propionic acid and acetone
63. Saponification is -
(A) Hydrolysis of an ester (B) Hydrolysis of an amide
(C) Hydrolysis of an ether (D) Hydrolysis of an acid chloride
64. Ethanol on reaction with alkaline KMnO4 gives X which when reacted with methanol
in the presence of an acid gives a sweet smelling compound. Y. X and Y respectively,
are:
(A) Acetaldehyde and acetone (B) Acetic acid and methyl acetate
(C) Formic acid and methyl formate (D) Ethylene and ethyl methyl ether
65. The number covalent bonds in C4H7Br, is:

(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 13 (D) 11
66. Identify the stereoisomeric pair from the following choices:

(A) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH2OCH3
(B) CH3CH2CH2Cl and CH3CHClCH3
H
(C) H3C C C CH3 and H3C C C CH3
H H H
CH 3
(D) and

(SUBJECTIVE TYPE)
67. When two isomeric compounds I and II are heated with HBr.
OH OH
(I) (II)
CH2OH OCH3
Give the products obtained.
68. Write the most stable conformation for n-butane.
69. There are four bottles 1,2, 3, 4 containing following compounds.
Bottle-1: NH2
Bottle-2: COOH
Bottle-3: CH3
COOH
Bottle-4:
NH2
Identify the bottle:
(I) (a) Whose content does not react with 1N HCl or 1N NaOH.
(b) Whose content reacts with 1N NaOH only.
(c) Whose content reacts with 1N NaOH and 1N HCl both.
(d) Whose content reacts with 1N HCl only.
(II) The bottle whose content is highly soluble in distilled water.

COAL AND PETROLEUM

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Kerosene oil is a mixture of hydrocarbons containing number of carbon atoms -
(A) C6 to C10 (B) C8 to C12 (C) C11 to C16 (D) C18 to C22
2. The distillation of crude petroleum to obtain various commercially useful fractions is

called :-
(A) Cracking (B) Hydroforming (C) Refining (D) Mining
3. Which of the following is used for refining of petroleum?

(A) Steam distillation (B) Distillation under reduced pressure
(C) Solvent extraction (D) Fractional distillation
4. Which of the following is properly matched?

(A) Kerosene - C5 - C10 (B) Diesel oil - C5 - C6
(C) Petrol - C7 - C9 (D) All are correct
5. Which of the following names represents the foul smelling, black, thick, viscous
liquid obtained from destructive distillation of coal?
(A) Coke (B) Coal tar (C) Coal gas (D) None of these
6. Main constituents of coal gas are-

(A) H2O, C2H6, O2 (B) CH4, CO2, O2 (C) CH4, H2, CO (D) C2H6, N2, O2
7. Which one of the following is not petroleum product?

(A) Kerosene (B) Gasoline (C) Pitch black (D) Bees wax
8. Percentage of carbon present in an air dried sample of Anthracite is:

(A) 94 – 98% (B) 27 – 30% (C) 78 – 86% (D) 27%
9. Ammoniacal liquor is -
(A) Ammonia absorbed in water. (B) Ammonium hydroxide.
(C) Aqueous solution of ammonia. (D) All of the above.
10. Which of the following products obtained by destructive distillation of coal, is not
properly matched?
(A) Coal tar – Dyes, explosives, paints (B) Coal gas – Fuel
(C) Coke – Drinking purposes (D) Ammoniacal liquor – Fertilizers

11. Which of the following is known as regenerated fibre?

(A) Nylon - 66 (B) Terylene (C) Nylon - 6 (D) Rayon
12. Which of the following is a thermosetting plastic?

(A) PVC (B) Polyethylene (C) Bakelite (D) Terylene
13. The monomer units of neoprene are known as -

(A) Isoprene (B) Chloroprene
(C) Vinyl chloride (D) Ethylene glycol
14. The following are synthetic polymers except -

(A) Teflon (B) Terylene (C) Nylon (D) Proteins
15. The structure of isoprene is -

(A) CH 2  C  C2 H5   CH  CH 2 (B) CH 2  C  OCOCH3   CH  CH 2
(C) CH 2  C  CH 3   CH  CH 2 (D) CH 2  CH  C  CH
16. All are natural fibres except -

(A) Silk (B) Cotton (C) Nylon (D) Wool
17. The first man – made polymer is -

(A) PVC (B) Teflon (C) Bakelite (D) Nylon
18. Pick out the incorrect statement amongst the following-

(A) Nylon clothings can with stand high temperature & are, therefore, good to wear
in summers.
(B) Thermosetting plastics do not become soft on heating.
(C) Addition polymers are formed without the elimination of by- product molecules.
(D) Natural rubber is obtained as latex from rubber trees.
19. Which one of the following is a condensation polymer?

(A) Polyethene (B) Polyester
(C) Polystyrene (D) Polypropylene
20. Which one of the following polymers is not properly matched to its monomer?
(A) Orlon – Acrylonirtile
(B) Synthetic rubber –2-Chlorobuta-1,3-diene
(C) Nylon – Adipic acid & Hexamethylene diamine
(D) Teflon – Vinyl chloride

21. Which of the following is an example of freon?

(A) CCl2F2 (B) CCl4 (C) CHCl3 (D) CH3Cl
22. Pesticides & insecticides are available in the form of -

(A) Powders (B) Sprays (C) Emulsions (D) All of these
23. Which of the following statements about „selphos‟ is incorrect?

(A) It is a stomach poison. (B) It is used for storage of wheat.
(C) It emits chlorine gas. (D) It acts as a pesticide.
24. Which of the following is a contact poison?

(A) Mercury tablets (B) DDT
(C) Cryolite (D) Lead arsenate
25. LPG mainly contains -

(A) Methane & isobutene (B) Propane & butane
(C) Ethane & hydrogen (D) Hydrogen & methane
26. The monomer of Teflon is:

(A) (B)
Me Cl
F F
(C) (D)
CN F F

ANSWERKEY
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B B C D B A C C D A B C D B A
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C A D B D D B D A C A D A C D
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B B C B A D C D D A C B C B A
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D B D D C C C A D A A B A B C
NUCLEAR CHEMIISTRY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D D A C C D B C B C D B D C C
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C C A B B C A C C A D C C C
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. A C D D B A C D B C B D
MOLE CONCEPT
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C C D B C B A D A B B D B C B
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A A A A B A A D A A A D A D
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D C C B C B C D A B C A C D A
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B B C C C C B C B A A D C A D
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. C D A B A B C A D B A C B C B
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. D A A C A A B A B D C B C D D
STUDY OF GAS LAWS

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. A C B C B A C D B C B B C D C C
PEORIC TABLE AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B A B D A B A B B C D B C C C
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A B D D C D B A A B C A C B
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B A D C D D A A D C B B B A D
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. C A A C C A D

CHEMICAL BONDING
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B A D D B B C B C C B B A A A
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C C B B C D C B D C C B C B D
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. C B C A C A D B D B A B B A D
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59
Ans. C B C B B A D B A C C A B A
RATES OF CHEMICAL REACTION AND CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B B C A A D D C C D D C B D
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C A A C C A D D C D A B D A
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D D D A B A D D D A A C D D C
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. A A A D C C B A B A B A A A B
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans. C C B B B A A A
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C A D C D B D A A B D A B D
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C A A D C C C B A B D A C A
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B B B A C A D B B D A D B A B
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Ans. B A A B A A C AD D
METALS AND THEIR COMPOUNDS

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C B D B B C C D D B D C C A A
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A C A B B D B B A B D C C C C
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B B C B C C B C D A D C B B A
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. B C D C D A C

NON-METALS AND THEIR COMPOUNDS

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D C C C C D D B C D C A B B D
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B C A D C B B D C B D C B B
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. A C D D C D D C D A B B C D B
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D C D B B A A A D A B C D D D
Ques. 61 62 63
Ans. C C C

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B B B B D C A D A C A A C D C
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D C A D C B B C C B B C B C D
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D A A B C D B A B B D B B C A
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D C C A C C B D A D C A C D B
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66
Ans. C C A B A C

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C C D C B C D A D C D C B D C
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. C D A B D A D C B B D

Final - Chemistry - KVPY 22sept

Încărcat de

Informații document

Descriere originală:

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Final - Chemistry - KVPY 22sept

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

CHEMISTRY / KVPY SHEET

3. The charge on an atom is –

4. The name atom belongs to which language?

6. The idea of parmanu was given by –

7. Dalton‟s atomic theory is based on –

8. Faraday‟s Dark space refers to –

9. Which one of the following is not a property of cathode rays ?

11. The existence of canal rays was determined by –

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 1

12. Canal rays were named positive rays by –

19. Rutherford performed his alpha scattering experiment using –

20. A proton is usually represented as –

23. A p-orbital can accommodate upto –

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 2

24. Energy levels are designated as

25. A neutron is represented as –

26. The different subshells in an atom are represented as –

27. The maximum number of electrons in N shell is –

28. The p-orbitals have –

31. The electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 29 is –

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 3

35. The number of valence electrons in Na is –

37. Electronic configuration of Si in ground state is –

39. The rule of maximum multipliticty was given by :

41. Isotone of an element has –

43. Many elements have non- integral masses because –

44. A deuteron contains –

45. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is –

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 4

46. Pick out the isoelectronic species from the following –

50. An atom which has a mass number of 14 & 8 neutrons is –

54. The de Broglie equation treat an electron to be a –

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 5

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 6

2. The activity of radioisotope changes with –

3. The rays are given off by a radioactive element from –

4. Radium is a radioactive substance. It dissolves in dilute H 2 SO4 and forms compound

5. A radioactive disintegration differs from a chemical change in being –

6. The half – life period of radioactive element depends upon –

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 7

11. Which does not take place by  - disintegration ?

 92 U the number of  and  -particles emitted

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 8

21. Nuclear fusion takes place in –

22. An example of nuclear fusion reaction is –

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 9

32. Which of the following isotopes is likely to be most stable ?

33. Number of neutrons in a parent nucleus X, which gives 14

38. Proportionality constant  is also known as –

39. Rate of decay –

40. Unit of decay constant is –

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 10

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 11

2. Molarity of H 2 SO4 (density 1.8g/mL) is 18M. The molality of this solution is –

(C) X  mole of A = y  mole of B =  x  y   mole of Ax By

7. No. of oxalic acid molecules in 100 mL of 0.02 N oxalic acid are –

8. Which of the following sample contains the maximum number of atoms –

9. The total number of protons, electrons and neutrons in 12 g of 126C is –

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 12

11. Which is not a molecular formula ?

13. Which of the following mode of expressing concentration is independent of

17. The pair of compounds which cannot exist in solution is –