GAS g11. Allin

21st Century Literature from the Philippines and
the World (ENGL-121) - 2S Grade 11

CREATED BY KUYA PIOLO
Week 1-10
Wag sana maraming reaklamo dyan bibinigyan
kayo ng sagot
2nd attempt perfect kana
Tang ina nyo gago bobo
Wag kang mag reklamo kung hindi lumabas ang
tanong sa oed sa source.
Nakalagay naman po yong correct yong po ang
sagot
LEARNING ACTIVITY 1
"A big blue house, with a well-kept rose garden," is an example of a:
Select one:
a. Setting as Place CORRECT
b. Effects of Setting
c. Setting as Cultural Context (Condition)
d. Setting as Time
This Manobo/Ilianon tale tells the adventures of a hero and his people, and their journey to Nalandangan.
Select one:
a. Biag ni Lam-ang
b. The Agyu CORRECT
c. Aliguyon
d. Labaw-Donggon
The "Treaty of Paris" between Spain and the United States ceded the Philippines to US for how much?
Select one:
a. $2,000,000
b. $200,000,000
c. $20,000,000 CORRECT
d. $30,000,000
Dubbed as the Great Propagandist, he was known for being a master in the use of his native language, Tagalog.
Select one:
a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar CORRECT
b. Graciano Lopez-Jaena
c. Mariano Ponce
d. Jose P. Rizal
The writers in Spanish were accustomed to write literary works that have themes of nationalism because they want to honor
Jose Rizal.
Select one:
True CORRECT
False
Jose Corazon de Jesus began a famous column in Taliba called _____
Select one:
a. Buhay Filipino
b. Buhay Maynila CORRECT
c. Buhay Pilipinas
d. Buhay Manileno
In Marcelo h. Del Pilar's Dasalan at Tocsohan, which of the following is said to be the Fifth Commandment of the Spanish Friars?
Select one:
a. "Manalangin ka sa Prayle Linggo man at piyesta."
b. "Huwag kang makinakaw."
c. "Huwag kang mamamatay kung wala pang salaping panlibing." CORRECT
d. "Sambahin mo ang Payle lalo na sa lahat."
It is easy to interpret poems.
Select one:
True
False CORRECT
A traditional depiction of the events before and after Jesus Christ was crucified.
Select one:
a. Sarsuela
b. Duplo
c. Moro-moro
d. Senakulo CORRECT
The following are known as Poets of the Heart (Makata ng Puso) except one:
The correct answer is: Aurelio Tolentino
He was a corresponding member of the Royal Academy of the Spanish Literature.
The correct answer is: Cecilio Apostol
He was recognized in the Hispanic world as the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish."
It is a narrative poem written in four-line stanzas.
Jose Corazon de Jesus was most notable for writing which poem?
a: BAYAN KO
The correct answer is: Ballad
In a drama, the plot encompasses all the incidents and provides aesthetic pleasure.
The correct answer is: 'True'
The following are Bathala's daughters to a mortal woman except:
The correct answer is: Mayari
It is the emotional high point of the story. It is also the most exciting part.
The correct answer is: Climax
Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the Igorots?
The correct answer is: The Quest for the Father
It is an example of an epic poem which tells the story of Jesus Christ's life, trials, and sufferings, and is sung during Holy Week.
The correct answer is: Pasyon
The Tagalog god of the sea, originally the god of the hunters.
The correct answer is: Amanikable
A short piece of fiction that is a "bite size" version of a novel.
The correct answer is: Short Story
A mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed.
The correct answer is: Riddle
It is an artistic piece of philosophical, personal, imaginative or inspirational nature that is laid out in lines.
The correct answer is: Poetry
The following are means for an alipin to become a freeman EXCEPT:
The correct answer is: Getting captured in war
Doctrina Cristiana was the first religious book published in the Philippines on July 15, 1593.
It is an allegory with moral or religious bent.
Select one:
a. fable
b. fantasy
c. allusion
d. parable
SHORT QUIZ 1
The name of Lam-ang's love interest.
The correct answer is: Ines Cannoyan
It was the first novel written in Spanish by a Filipino, which revolves around the misery of a woman who died of cholera.
The correct answer is: Ninay
Most English newspapers were ordered to stop its operations during the Japanese regime.
It is simply defined as a product of one's imaginative mind. It can be a drama, short story, novel, myth, folktale, and poetry.
The correct answer is: Fictional Literature
The author who was known as the "comma poet," introducing a unique style of poetry.
The correct answer is: Jose Garcia Villa
The correct answer is: Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the Igorots?
In the story of Malakas and Maganda, the children who ran away from their father and ran outside became the Alipin.
The correct answer is: 'False'
___ is a long narrative poem, telling heroic deeds or events.
The correct answer is: Epic
Not every poem has a speaker.
The Japanese encouraged nationalism, or the love for one's motherland.

These are short poems which express the personal thoughts or emotions of the poet.
The correct answer is: Lyric poems
Jose Garcia Villa's Bayan Ko was set to music by Constancio de Guzman and became a popular song during the Marcos
dictatorship.
He wrote "Banaag at Sikat" which was renowned for its depiction of certain issues of socialism and capitalism.
The correct answer is: Lope K. Santos
It is a story about animals that possess human traits.
The correct answer is: 'Fable'
____ is a famous comedy play written by Francisco "Soc" Rodrigo that portrays people's weaknesses.
The correct answer is: Sa Pula, Sa Puti
"The future looks fantastic, what with the flying cars and modern technology." This is an example of a:
The correct answer is: 'Setting as Time'
Claro M. Recto wrote for La Vanguardia under what penname?
The correct answer is: 'Aristeo Hilario'
Jose Garcia Villa won P1,000 from the Philippines Free Press, which he used to migrate to the United States and enroll at
University of Mexico.
This was deemed as the first novel ever written in the Philippines.
The correct answer is: Barlaan at Josaphat
A novel that dwells on the arrogance of the friars, revealing the dire consequences tied to the marriage between the Spanish
and Filipinos.
The correct answer is: La Hija Del Fraile
In a story, it is the verbal representation of a human being.
The correct answer is: Character
The American regime enforced free public education.
"Aso
Mataas sa pag-upo,
Mababa 'pag tumayo.

Kaibigan kong ginto,
Karamay at kalaro."
The poem above is an example of:
The correct answer is: Tanaga
A poem in which the first letter of each line, when read vertically, spell out a word, which is usually the subject of the poem.
The correct answer is: Acrostic poem
A series of fairy tale stories told by an old woman who kept a loadful of stories in her ancient baul.
The correct answer is: Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang
A rhetorical device, a witty, ingenious, or pointed saying that is tersely expressed.
The correct answer is: epigram
The American Period had influenced the Philippine Literature.
The writing system used by the Filipinos before the Spanish colonization.
The correct answer is: Baybayin
The term ___ refers to the social class consisting of freemen.
The correct answer is: timawa
Carlos P. Romulo has four bestselling works that led him to bagging the Pulitzer Prize.
Which of the following is not one of the bestselling works of Carlos P. Romulo?
The correct answer is: The Lost Ones
He is the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish," in the Hispanic world.
One of the writers in the Spanish era under the name Dimas-Ilaw and Pingkian who wrote "Ang Liwanag at Dilim" that became
the code of revolution.
The correct answer is: Emilio Jacinto
The goddess of love, conception and childbirth for the Tagalogs.
The correct answer is: Diyan Masalanta
The following are works by Jesus Balmori EXCEPT:
The correct answer is: Mi Patria

Filipinos already have literature before the Spaniards came to the land.
It is the repetition of the same stressed vowel sound and any succeeding sounds in two or more words.
The correct answer is: Rhyme
He came up with a poetry compilation called Crisalidas in 1914.
Select one:
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Fernando Ma. Guerrero CORRECT
c. Cecilio Apostol
d. Jose Garcia Villa
The Tagalogs believe in the supreme deity called __.
Select one:
a. Christ
b. Amanikable
c. Bathala CORRECT
d. Apolaki
The American colonization over the Philippines began in 1898 and 1941.
Select one:
True
False
"Batikuling" was a penname used by which Filipino poet?
Select one:
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Jesus Balmori
c. Jose Rizal
d. Claro M. Recto
____ is the play written by Jose Ma. Hernandez about a blacksmith from Pampanga who was the first Filipino who
made a cannon.
Select one:
a. Sino ba kayo?
b. The World is an Apple
c. Sa Pula, Sa Puti
d. Panday Pira
Severino Reyes's Ang Kalupi was first performed at the Teatro Zorilla in 1902.
Select one:
True
False
It is the repetition of vowel sounds.
Select one:
a. Assonance
b. Onomatopoeia
c. Consonance
d. Rhyme
The following are pen names of Mariano Ponce, except:
Select one:
a. Nanding
b. Taga-Ilog
c. Tikbalang
d. Kalipulako
Some of this hero's notable literary works are "El Verdadero Decalogo" (The True Decalogue or Ten
Commandments, and "Sa Bayang Pilipino" (To the Filipino nation).
Select one:
a. Antonio Luna
b. Mariano Ponce
c. Apolinario Mabini
d. Jose Maria Panganiban
The goddess of the moon and one of the three daughters of Bathala by a mortal woman.
Select one:
a. Hanan
b. Anagolay
c. Tala
d. Mayari
There are a few Spanish words integrated to our own language.
Select one:
True
False
Biag ni Lam-ang is one of the great epics that are able to survive with the help of oral transmission.
Select one:
True
False
The founder of La Vanguardia and La Opinion.
Select one:
a. Claro M. Recto
b. Cecilio Apostol
c. Jesus Balmori
d. Lope K. Santos
e. Fernando Ma. Guerrero
The writing system of Filipinos in the Pre-Spanish period.
Select one:
a. Alphabet
b. Baybayin
c. Alibata
d. none of the choices
Select one:
True
False
It is a narrative poem written in four-line stanzas.
Select one:
a. Free verse
b. Ballad
c. Sonnet
d. Ode
Essays that uses details related to the senses to create mental images for the reader.
Select one:
a. Descriptive essays
b. Persuasive essays
c. No correct answer
d. Expository essays
The goddess of lost things, she is also the wife of Dumakulem.
Select one:
a. Mayari
b. Anagolay
c. Dumakulem
d. Anitun Tabu
The Father of the Tagalog Zarzuela.
Select one:
a. Severino Reyes
b. Lope K. Santos
c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
d. Paz Marquez Benitez
He was one of the first Filipino writers to break free from the strict rules imposed on literature during the Propaganda
movement.
Select one:
a. Jose Maria Panganiban
b. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
c. Dr. Pedro Paterno
d. Dr. Jose Rizal
The repetition of consonant sounds in words.
Select one:
a. Alliteration
b. Onomatopoeia
c. Assonance
d. Consonance
There are more novels written during this era than poetry.
Select one:
True
False
The name of Lam-ang's love interest.

The correct answer is: Ines Cannoyan
It was the first novel written in Spanish by a Filipino, which revolves around the misery of a woman who died of
cholera.
The correct answer is: Ninay
Most English newspapers were ordered to stop its operations during the Japanese regime.
It is simply defined as a product of one's imaginative mind. It can be a drama, short story, novel, myth, folktale, and
poetry.
The correct answer is: Fictional Literature
The author who was known as the "comma poet," introducing a unique style of poetry.
The correct answer is: Jose Garcia Villa
The correct answer is: Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the
Igorots?
In the story of Malakas and Maganda, the children who ran away from their father and ran outside became the Alipin.
___ is a long narrative poem, telling heroic deeds or events.
The correct answer is: Epic
Not every poem has a speaker.
The Japanese encouraged nationalism, or the love for one's motherland.
These are short poems which express the personal thoughts or emotions of the poet.
The correct answer is: Lyric poems
Jose Garcia Villa's Bayan Ko was set to music by Constancio de Guzman and became a popular song during the
Marcos dictatorship.
He wrote "Banaag at Sikat" which was renowned for its depiction of certain issues of socialism and capitalism.
The correct answer is: Lope K. Santos
It is a story about animals that possess human traits.
The correct answer is: 'Fable'
____ is a famous comedy play written by Francisco "Soc" Rodrigo that portrays people's weaknesses.
The correct answer is: Sa Pula, Sa Puti
The following are Bathala's daughters to a mortal woman except:
The correct answer is: Mayari
"The future looks fantastic, what with the flying cars and modern technology." This is an example of a:
The correct answer is: 'Setting as Time'
Claro M. Recto wrote for La Vanguardia under what penname?
The correct answer is: 'Aristeo Hilario'
Jose Garcia Villa won P1,000 from the Philippines Free Press, which he used to migrate to the United States and
enroll at University of Mexico.
This was deemed as the first novel ever written in the Philippines.
The correct answer is: Barlaan at Josaphat
A novel that dwells on the arrogance of the friars, revealing the dire consequences tied to the marriage between the
Spanish and Filipinos.
The correct answer is: La Hija Del Fraile
In a story, it is the verbal representation of a human being.
The correct answer is: Character
The American regime enforced free public education.
"Aso
Mataas sa pag-upo,
Mababa 'pag tumayo.
Kaibigan kong ginto,
Karamay at kalaro."
The poem above is an example of:
The correct answer is: Tanaga
A poem in which the first letter of each line, when read vertically, spell out a word, which is usually the subject of the
poem.
The correct answer is: Acrostic poem
A series of fairy tale stories told by an old woman who kept a loadful of stories in her ancient baul.
The correct answer is: Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang
A rhetorical device, a witty, ingenious, or pointed saying that is tersely expressed.
The correct answer is: epigram
The American Period had influenced the Philippine Literature.
The writing system used by the Filipinos before the Spanish colonization.
The correct answer is: Baybayin
The term ___ refers to the social class consisting of freemen.
The correct answer is: timawa
Carlos P. Romulo has four bestselling works that led him to bagging the Pulitzer Prize.
Which of the following is not one of the bestselling works of Carlos P. Romulo?
The correct answer is: The Lost Ones
He is the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish," in the Hispanic world.
One of the writers in the Spanish era under the name Dimas-Ilaw and Pingkian who wrote "Ang Liwanag at Dilim" that
became the code of revolution.
The correct answer is: Emilio Jacinto
The goddess of love, conception and childbirth for the Tagalogs.
The correct answer is: Diyan Masalanta
A short piece of fiction that is a "bite size" version of a novel.
The correct answer is: Short Story
The following are works by Jesus Balmori EXCEPT:
The correct answer is: Mi Patria
It is the repetition of the same stressed vowel sound and any succeeding sounds in two or more words.
The correct answer is: Rhyme
ENGL-121-20172S / ► Week 9: Short Quiz / ► Short Quiz

Hinilawod is commonly sung for a period of three days, non-stop.
=False
Biag ni Lam-ang was first transcribed around 1640 by Pedro Bucaneg.
=True
The ___ magazine was stationed in Manila and contributed to the development of Hiligaynon literature.
=hiligaynon
A social and political critique that uses comedia and ineffectual character.
=Sabas Armenta
An author from Bicol whose works are known for perceptivity and fatalism.
=Angelo de Castro
Pampa Bucaneg was also known as a Chris a total of ___ syllables in octaves with rhymes at the end.
=16
The goddess of the Eastern sea in Hinilawod.
=Alunsina
Poetry from ___ possess "clarity and grace of expression."
=bicol
___ is the lingua franca of West Visayas.
=Hiligaynon
It was known as the "Bible of Northern Philippines".
=Bannawag
A song of allusion to mythical heroes.
=Siday
Biag ni Lam-ang was created before the Spaniards came.
=true
A folk theatrical that is a strictly private type of drama performed by friends and neighbors to divert a bereaved family
from their sorrow.
=Kolilisi
People of Western Visayas are more well-versed in writing myths and folktales than poetry and prose.
=True
Which of the following is not a reason why Pampango Literature did not flourish?
=geography
The Leopoldo Yabes version of the epic poem Biag ni Lam-ang consists of 206 stanzas.
=False
Leon C. Pichay is acknowledged as the Father of Ilocano Literature.
=False
Isabelo de los Reyes has ventured into journalism before he was 25.
= True
How long is Hinilawod usually sung?
=3 weeks, 2 hours a night
Mythological stories of Hiligaynons were passed through each generation by ____.
=oral transmission
ENGL-121 Week 7: Philippine Regional Literature - Ilokano (... / ► Learning Activity 2

=Sabas Armenta
Aside from being a writer, Pedro Bucaneg was also known as a Christian missionary.
=True
=. Bannawag
It tells the quest of Lam-ang to find the Igorots who murdered his father.
=The Quest for the Father
Biag ni Lam-ang is an epic poem that consists of 1744 lines.
=False
The common name of Awit and Corridos.
=kuriru
The playwright from Bicol who writes puns and mimes as double-edge statements for Spaniards.
=Mariano Shyna Perfecto
Leon C. Pichay was considered the most creative Ilocano writer in his generation.
=True
The title of Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron's famous zarzuela that depicts a Filipino family.
=Ing Managne
=no literary outlet
Cardinal Bellarmine's catechism was the first book that was printed in Iloko.
Select one:
True
False
The author of the Pampango murder mystery novel, "Ing Buac ning Ester" (A Strand of Ester's Hair).
Select one:
a. Crisot
b. Jose M. Gallardo
c. Amado Yuzon
d. Aurelio Tolentino
It is the story of Lam-ang and his love interest Ines Cannoyan.
Select one:
a. The Quest for the Father
b. The Birth of Lam-ang
c. The Quest for a Wife
d. The Death and Resurrection of the Hero
The Father of Pampango Literature.
Select one:
a. Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron
b. Juan Crisostomo Soto
c. Padre Anselmo Jorge de Fajardo
The Mother of Philippine Women's Literature.
Select one:
a. Leon C. Pichay
b. Isabelo de los Reyes
c. Leona Florentino
d. Genoveva Matute
One of the famous publishing houses from Bicol.
Select one:
a. Bicolanan
b. Bicoland
c. Bicolanon
d. Bicolandio
Ilocano literature is second to Tagalog in having the greatest number of printed works.
Select one:
True
False
The writer of Anti Cristo.
Select one:
a. Valerio Zinuga
b. Asisclo Jimenez
c. Manuel Fuentebella
d. Justiniano Nuyda
Leona Florentino was congenitally blind.
Select one:
True
False
Biag ni Lam-ang was first transcribed around 1640 by Pedro Bucaneg.

Answer:True
The Bukanegan is the Ilocano version of the Balagtasan
Answer:True
Ilocano literature is second to Tagalog in having the greatest number of printed works.
Answer:True
Leon C. Pichay is acknowledged as the Father of Ilocano Literature.
Answer:False
The writer of Anti Cristo.
Answer:Justiniano Nuyda
Poetry from ___ possess "clarity and grace of expression."
Answer:Bicol
Answer:no literary outlet
It is the story of Lam-ang and his love interest Ines Cannoyan.
Answer:The quest for a wife
Bicol Literature did not flourish because of the attitude of people towards it.
Answer:True
One of the famous publishing houses from Bicol.
Answer: Bicolanon
Leona Florentino was congenitally blind.

Answer:False
This writer detested the Spanish maladministration in the Philippines.
Answer:Isabelo de los Reyes
The title of Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron's famous zarzuela that depicts a Filipino family.
Answer:Ing Managne
Who is known as the King of Crisotan?
Answer:Amado Yuzon
Answer:Bannawag
The author of the Pampango murder mystery novel, "Ing Buac ning Ester" (A Strand of Ester's Hair).
Answer:Aurelio Tolentino
The playwright from Bicol who writes puns and mimes as double-edge statements for Spaniards.
Answer:Mariano Perfecto
The Mother of Philippine Women's Literature.
Answer:Leona Florentino
Answer:Sabas Armenta
The Leopoldo Yabes version of the epic poem Biag ni Lam-ang consists of 206 stanzas.
Answer:False
A humorous and satiric song in Hiligaynon literature.
Select one:
a. Ballad
b. Haya
c. Siday
d. Bical
e. Awit
Vicente Y. Sotto began his journalistic career at the age of 22.
Select one:
True
False
The first short story in Sugbuanon.
Select one:
a. Maming
b. Ang Suga
c. La Justicia
d. Hinilawod
What was Pedro Bukaneg's origin, according to his name?
Select one:
a. Mangyan
b. Ibanag
c. Itneg
d. Ivatan
Bukaneg was a co-author of the Ilocano-English grammar book and dictionary.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Hiligaynon is the lingua franca of Northern Mindanao.
Select one:
True
False
Sugbuanon is a dialect spoken in central Visayas, as well as in the greater part of northern and central Mindanao.
Select one:
True
False
Hinilawod tells the story of how the islands of Iloilo, ____ and Aklan were formed.
Select one:
a. Iloilo
b. Guimaras
c. Capiz
d. Antique
Hinilawod is the oldest and longest epic poem in Panay.
Select one:
True
False
___ refers to the Ilocano balagtasan.
Select one:
a. Bukanegan
b. None of the choices
c. Balitaw
d. Balagtas sa Balitaw
A humorous and satirical song.
Select one:
a. Ambahan
b. Haya
c. Bical
d. Siday
Pampango poetry commonly has a total of ___ syllables in octaves with rhymes at the end.
Select one:
a. 14
b. 16
c. 12
d. 8
____, also known as the Bible of Northern Philippines, was a popular weekly magazine featuring literary works from
Ilocano writers.
Select one:
a. Balitaw
b. Hinilawod
c. Bannawag
d. Bukanegan
An old ritual of formalizing an engagement to marry.
Select one:
a. Bagamundo
b. Balagtasan sa Balitaw
c. Pamalaye
d. Kolilisi
___ tells a story of the bravery of ten datus who went on a journey to escape from a tyrannical ruler.
Select one:
a. Balitaw
b. Maragtas
c. Ambahan
d. Hinilawod
Haya is a dirge that is composed of three parts.
Select one:
True
False
Leona Florentino was fluent in Spanish, Tagalog, Ilokano and English.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Ilocano literature is heavily influenced by religion.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
___ thrive in the region because they depict history, important people and social condition.
Select one:
a. plays
b. novels
c. poems
d. dramas
e. short stories
The Yuhum magazine in Iloilo was established by:
Select one:
a. UP Press
b. Liwayway Publications
c. PDI
d. La Defensa Press
Sugbuanon literature is characterized as:
Select one:
a. Abundant and varied
b. No correct answer
c. Old and extinct
d. Unique and scarce
An incorporation of duplo and balitaw where the courtship plot becomes a mere framework for an argument on a non-
romantic subject.
Select one:
a. Bagamundo
b. Balagtasan sa Balitaw
c. Pamalaye
d. Drama-Balitaw
The name of the main character in Bucaneg's famous epic.
Select one:
a. Lam-ang
b. Bukaneg
c. Bannawag
d. Pedro
The father of Ilocano Literature.
Select one:
a. Fray Francisco Lopez
b. Leon C. Pichay
c. Pedro Bucaneg
d. Isabelo de los Reyes
It introduces the story's characters, setting, and conflict.
Select one:
a. Climax
b. Rising Action
c. Exposition
d. Falling Action
e. Resolution
A story about the tradition of Christmas in the Philippines, written to entertain and amuse the people
from Madrid.
Select one:
a. La Maestra de mi Pueblo
b. Noche Buena
c. La Hija del Fraile
d. A Mi Madre
He published his poetry book "Rimas Malayas" (Malayan Rhymes) at the age of 17 and even wrote a
satirical column for La Vanguardia called "Vida Manilenas"
Select one:
a. Cecilio Apostol
b. Jesus Balmori
c. Fernando Ma. Guerrero
d. Claro M. Recto
The name of the corrupt governor in A Child of Sorrow.
Select one:
a. Gerado Luna
b. Lucio Soliman
c. Pancho Ismael
d. Rosa
The following are known as Poets of Stage EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Patricio Mariano
b. Aurelio Tolentino
c. Pedro Deogracias
d. Severino Reyes
It was the very first book on Ilokano grammar written by Francisco Lopez.
Select one:
a. Arte de la Lengua Ilocana
b. Arte de la Iloka
c. Arte y Regalas de la Lengua Ilokana
d. Compendio de la Lengua Iloka
Alunsina and Datu Paubari in Hinilawod had twins.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
A Hiligaynon literary form that is a ballad of unrhymed couplets.
Select one:
a. Haya
b. Awit
c. Bical
d. Ambahan
e. Siday
The story of Maragtas is about a group of datus and their escape from Borneo.
Select one:
True
False
Dubbed as the most creative Ilocano writer in his generation whose works often revolve around the theme of love for
the country, spirituality and love for their local language.
Select one:
a. Isabelo de los Reyes
b. Pedro Bucaneg
c. Leon Pichay
d. Leona Florentino
A comic representation of the love chase in aa verse dialogue of courtship that develops into a wit combat performed
in song and dance.
Select one:
a. Bagamundo
b. Duplo
c. Balitaw
d. Drama-balitaw
e. Balagtasan sa Balitaw
he ___ magazine in Iloilo helped keep literature alive.
Select one:
a. Yuhum
b. La Defensa
c. Hiligaynon
d. None of the choices
Long before the Spaniards came to the Philippines, Ilokanos have already established their own culture, along with
their own mythology and folklore.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Which of the following is not a contribution to literature of Vicente Y. Sotto?
Select one:
a. published La Justicia in Cebu
b. the first published story in Sugbuanon, Maming
c. wrote folk theatricals in his native language
d. the first poetry in vernacular, Ang Suga
This refers to an old ritual of formalizing an engagement to marry.

answer: pamalaye
A comic representation of the love chase in a verse dialogue of courtship that develops into a wit combat performed
in song and dance.
Select one:
a. Pamalaye
b. Balitaw
c. Kolilisi
d. Duplo
One of Haya's parts that is a song regretting the loss of a loved one and extolling him.
Select one:
a. parahaya
b. siday
c. anogon
d. bical
It is a character that remains essentially the same throughout the story.

Select one:
a. developing character
b. static character
c. flat character
d. round character
It is the pattern of sound created by the arrangement of stressed and unstressed syllables in a line.
Select one:
a. Rhythm
b. Alliteration
c. Assonance
d. Consonance
In a story, this character is complex, multi-faceted and has the qualities of real people.
Select one:
a. Round character
b. Flat character
c. Developing character
d. Static character
Banaag at Sikat was notable for its depiction of issues such as socialism, capitalism, and the works
of the united association of laborers.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is:
Match the writer to his/her famous literary work.
Claro M. Recto - [Bajo los Cocoteros]
Jose Corazon de Jesus - [Bayan Ko]
Dr. Pedro Paterno - [Ninay]
Mariano Ponce - [Mga Alamat ng Bulacan]
Jose Esperanza Cruz - [Tatlong Maria]
Fr. Modesto de Castro - [Urbana and Feliza]
Clodualdo del Mundo - [Bulaga]
Jose Ma. Hernandez - [Panday Pira]
Stevan Javellana - [The Lost Ones]
Narciso G. Reyes - [Lupang Tinubuan]
Paz Marquez Benitez - [Dead Stars]

Liwayway Arceo - [Uhaw ang Tigang ng Lupa]
Graciano Lopez-Jaena - [Fray Botod]
Marcelo H. Del Pilar - [Dasalan at Tocsohan]
Jose Maria Panganiban - [A Nuestro Obispo]
Andres Bonifacio - [Pag-ibig sa Tinubuang Lupa]
Apolinario Mabini - [El Verdadero Decalogo]
Emilio Jacinto - [Ang Liwanag at Dilim]
Antonio Luna - [Noche Buena]
Severino Reyes - [Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang]
Fernando Ma. Guerrero - [Crisalidas]
Jose Rizal - [Noli Me Tangere]
Justiniano Nuyda - [Anti Cristo]
Marcelino Foronda Jr. - [Ta Dida Ammo it Aramidda]
Fray Francisco Lopez - [Cardinal Bellarmine’s catechism]
Pedro Bukaneg - [Biag ni Lam-ang]
Vicente Sotto - [Maming]
Jose Garcia Villa - [Man Songs]
Zoilo Galang - [A Child of Sorrow]
Lope K. Santos - [Banaag at Sikat]
Cecilio Apostol's poem that opened the world of Spanish poetry for him.
The correct answer is: El Terror de Los Mares Indicos
The goddess of the Eastern sea in Hinilawod.
The correct answer is: Alunsina
The ___ magazine in Iloilo helped keep literature alive.
The correct answer is: Yuhum
Hinilawod tells the story of how the islands of Iloilo, ____ and Aklan were formed.
The correct answer is: Antique

The son of Idiyanale: he’s the strong and agile, the guardian of the mountains.
The correct answer is: Dumakulem
The Tagalog god of the sea, he was originally the god of hunters.
The correct answer is: Amanikable
___ refers to the Ilocano balagtasan.
The correct answer is: Bukanegan
The father of Ilocano Literature.
The correct answer is: Pedro Bucaneg
Both Tagalog and English were used as the medium of instruction in all levels of education in public schools.
The correct answer is: False
____, also known as the Bible of Northern Philippines, was a popular weekly magazine featuring literary works from Ilocano
writers.
The correct answer is: Bannawag
The name of the main character in Bucaneg's famous epic.
The correct answer is: Lam-ang
Which of the following is Juan Crisostomo "Crisot" Soto's works?
The correct answer is: Ing Managne
The ___ magazine was stationed in Manila and contributed to the development of Hiligaynon literature.
The correct answer is: Hiligaynon
A literary form that is a simple folk song, love song and work song.
The correct answer is: Awit
___ tells a story of the bravery of ten datus who went on a journey to escape from a tyrannical ruler.
The correct answer is: Maragtas
Sugbuanon literature forms delivered orally are the following except:
The correct answer is: plays
What was Pedro Bukaneg's origin, according to his name?
The correct answer is: Itneg
___ is the lingua franca of West Visayas.
The correct answer is: Hiligaynon

The oldest and longest epic poem in Panay.
The correct answer is: Hinilawod
Mythological stories of Hiligaynons were passed through each generation by ____.
The correct answer is: oral transmission
According to the Nicaraguan poet Daisy Zamora, poetry is:
Select one:
a. "a way of feeling life"
b. "criticism of life"
c. "blood, imagination and intellect running together"
d. "the spontaneous overflow of powerful feelings"
It is the method by which writers and speakers reveal attitudes or feelings.
Select one:
a. Syntax
b. Style
c. Theme
d. Tone
The full name of the author of "Lupang Tinubuan" that won first prize in the outstanding Filipino short stories in 1943.
Select one:
a. Francisco Soc Rodrigo
b. Gonzalo Flores
c. Narciso Reyes
d. Macario Pineda
The conflict in a short story is a major element of plot because it arouses curiosity, causes doubt, creates tension and
produces interest.
Select one:
True
False
Zoilo Galang's A Child of Sorrow was famous for being:
Select one:
a. The first Philippine novel written in the English language
b. The first Philippine poem written in the English language
c. The first Philippine short story written in the English language
d. The first Philippine essay written in the English language
A Manobo/Ilianon tale about the hero whose people had been driven out of their land.
Select one:
a. Agyu
b. Aliguyon
c. Biag ni Lam-ang
d. Labaw-Donggon
This author wrote "A Night in the Hills" which tells the story of Gerado Luna, a salesman in a jewelry store in
Intramuros, Manila.
Select one:
a. Severino Reyes
b. Paz Marquez-Benitez
c. Lope K. Santos
d. Jose Garcia Villa
e. Jose Corazon de Jesus
f. Zoilo Galang
He was a corresponding member of the Royal Academy of the Spanish Literature.
Select one:
a. Cecilio Apostol
b. Teodoro Agoncillo
c. Jesus Balmori
d. Lope K. Santos
The second prize for the outstanding Filipino short stories in 1943 is _______.
Select one:
a. Lupang Tinubuan by Narciso Reyes
b. Uhaw ang Tigang na Lupa by Liwayway A. Arceo
c. Suyuan sa Tubigan by Macario Pineda
d. Lungsod Ngayon at Dagat-dagatan by N.V.M. Gonzales
The name of the magazine that recognized the brilliant minds behind literary works during this era.
Select one:
a. Pambata
b. Filipinas
c. Liwayway
d. Ilustración Filipina
The Father of Tagalog plays.
Select one:
a. Paz Marquez-Benitez
b. Jose Garcia Villa
c. Severino Reyes
d. Lope K. Santos
The term Alibata was coined by _______.
Select one:
a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
b. Father Antonio de Borja
c. Paul Rodriguez Verzosa
d. Jose P. Rizal
The author of the speech, Sa Mga Pilipino, a speech aimed to improve the condition of the Filipinos to become free
and progressive.
Select one:
a. Graciano Lopez Jaena
b. Andres Bonifacio
c. Mariano Ponce
d. Antonio Luna
He was the Father of the Tagalog Zarzuela and the one who wrote, "Walang Sugat" (No Wounds) about the
Katipuneros in the later years of the Spanish occupation.
Select one:
a. Jose Garcia Villa
b. Lope K. Santos
c. Zoilo Galang
d. Paz Marquez-Benitez
e. Severino Reyes
f. Jose Corazon de Jesus
he name of the corrupt governor in A Child of Sorrow.
Select one:
a. Gerado Luna
b. Rosa
c. Pancho Ismael
d. Lucio Soliman
A poem consisting of four lines with seven syllables each, with each line ending in rhyme.
Select one:
a. Tanaga
b. Haikai
c. Tanka
d. Haiku
The type of government in the Philippines during the Pre-Spanish period.
Select one:
a. Autocracy
b. Dictatorship
c. Thalassocracy
d. Democracy
Jesus Balmori died on June 12, on Philippine Independence Day.
Select one:
True
False
Articles that explain the steps in a process, report the news, or analyze a work of literature are all
examples of:
Select one:
a. Expository essays
b. Descriptive essays
c. Persuasive essays
d. No correct answer
Considered as the first modern English language short story writer from the Philippines.
Select one:
a. Jose Garcia Villa
b. Severino Reyes
c. Paz Marquez Benitez
d. Zoilo Galang
The term ____ refers to slaves that do not have the right to own property.
Select one:
a. saguiguilid
b. timawa
c. namamahay
d. alipin
Literature, in a literal sense, means:
Select one:
a. "placing, arrangement"
b. "an acquaintance with letters"
c. "love of wisdom"
d. "a thousand"
tory about the tradition of Christmas in the Philippines, written to entertain and amuse the people
from Madrid.
Select one:
a. La Maestra de mi Pueblo
b. La Hija del Fraile
c. Noche Buena
d. A Mi Madre
Use of Tagalog became widespread under the Japanese rule.
Select one:
True
False
The Father of Filipino Democracy.
Select one:
a. Andres Bonifacio
b. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
c. Emilio Aguinaldo
d. Jose Rizal
The ____ is an example of an epic poem that tells the story of Jesus Christ's life, trials and
sufferings.
Select one:
a. Pasyon
b. Credo
c. Awit
d. Pater Noster
Drama is told mainly through the words and actions of characters and intended to be performed by
actors.
Select one:
True
False
A ____ is a mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed.
Select one:
a. parable
b. riddle
c. epic
d. fable
The Bikolanos call their supreme being Asuang.
Select one:
True
False
Which of the following is not one of Mariano Ponce's pennames?
Select one:
a. Kalipulako
b. Tikbalang
c. Tagailog
d. Naning
A seven-lined diamond-shaped poem that specifies the part of speech in each line, sometimes with
contrasting ideas.
Select one:
a. Acrostic poem
b. Diamond poem
c. Haiku
d. Shape poem
Philippine literature managed to thrive during this era.
Select one:
True
False
Aliguyon was the hero son of the goddess Alunsina, and the mortal Datu Paubari.
Select one:
True
False
Baybayin, the Filipino writing system in the Pre-Spanish period, is derived from the Tagalog word
baybay which means:
Select one:
a. "to spell"
b. "to speak"
c. "to draw"
d. "to read"
Free public education made knowledge and information accessible to a greater number of Filipinos,
which gave them the opportunity to join the educated masses.
Select one:
True
False
What are the most common works of literature during the Japanese regime?
Select one:
a. short story
b. poems
c. novels
On May 1, 1898, the Americans led by U.S. Navy Admiral George Dewey, along with Gen. Emilio
Aguinaldo, attacked the Spanish Navy in Manila Bay.
Select one:
True
False
One of the classics of Confucianism that is a collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou
Dynasty.
Select one:
a. Ch'un Ching
b. Li Ching
c. I Ching
d. Shih Ching
e. Shu Ching
Some prominent rocks are worshipped as Kami.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
The goal of Hindu Life which refers to physical pleasure.
Select one:
a. Dharma
b. Artha
c. Kama
d. Moksha
ChinesA book of Confucianism that talks about "Great Learning."
Select one:
a. Lun Yu
b. Meng Tzu
c. Ta Hsueh
d. Chung Yung
Select one:
a. separation
b. individualization
c. expression
d. optimism
勇気 (Romaji: yuuki) means love.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
These are charms, wards or scriptures that are said to bring the bearer good luck or protection.
Select one:
a. magatama
b. ofuda
c. taima
d. omamori
A way to achieve God through direct action.
Select one:
a. Karma
b. Bakhti
c. Jnana
d. Sudra
The Indian goddess of dance.
Select one:
a. Rakshasa
b. Panchatantra
c. Kisa Gotami
d. Shivast
The name of the tree on which Gautama vowed never to arise until he found the truth.
Select one:
a. Lumbini
b. Piali
c. Pipal
d. Panna
Time refers to ____ while moment means "for the time being."
Select one:
a. clear-cut situation
b. relative situation
c. all of the choices
d. indistinct situation
Shinto believes that the reason for human's attachment to nature is because they become kami after
they die.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
A way to achieve God by what you know.
Select one:
a. Jnana
b. Bakhti
c. None of the choices
d. Karma
The Japanese believe in balance in perspective and beauty.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Which of the following is not one of the three levels in which the Japanese are shaped?
Select one:
a. Milleu
b. Race
c. Standard of living
d. Power of the moment
This term refers to Japanese festivals to celebrate and honor shrines.
Select one:
a. tanjou
b. jinjitsu
c. matsuri
d. kouhaku
Which of the following is incorrect?
Select one:
a. One of the four noble truths is that suffering arises from attachment to desires
b. Sorrow is one of the unwholesome mental states impeding progress towards enlightenment.
c. One of the factors of enlightment is equanimity
d. Selflessness is one of the characteristics of existence
A characteristic of existence in Buddhism which refers to selflessness.
Select one:
a. anicca
b. anatta
c. dukkha
d. sila
A way to achieve God by how you act.
Select one:
a. Sudra
b. Jnana
c. Karma
d. Bakhti
The goal of Hindu Life which refers to physical pleasure.
Select one:
a. Kama
b. Dharma
c. Moksha
d. Artha
Omamori comes from the word mamori, which means, ___.
Select one:
a. protection
b. guidance
c. overpower
d. strength
Being a Hindu is said to be a sign of being ____.
Select one:
a. patient
b. gracious
c. glorious
d. gallant
Which of the following is not one of the Confucian Thoughts from the Analects?
Select one:
a. “To be wealthy and honored in an unjust society is a disgrace.”
b. "The journey of a thousand miles begins with one step."
c. “The superior man has a dignified ease without pride. The mean man has pride without a dignified
ease.”
d. “What you do not want done to yourself, do not do to others.”
Those who do not agree that life is impermanent, is said to be in the state of "___" or illusion.
Select one:
a. Sudra
b. Purusha
c. Brahmin
d. Maya
What marked the end of World War I?
Select one:
a. Hitler and his wife committed suicide
b. Germany signed the Treaty of Versailles
c. Friendship was secured between neighboring European countries
d. Germany surrendered
During the World War II, when was London destroyed causing the death of approximately 60,000
civilians?
Select one:
a. 1940
b. 1941
c. 1943
d. 1945
This type of newspaper was developed in 1962 as a supplement to the Sunday newspaper.
Select one:
a. newsletter
b. tabloid
c. berliner
d. compact
Identify what the following statement describes:

The art/literature has a realistic setting.
Select one:
a. Magic Realism and Realism
b. Fantasy
c. Magic Realism
d. Surrealism
e. Realism
f. Magic Realism and Fantasy
The common ground in the themes of postmodernism and modernism.
Select one:
a. criticism of something broken
b. tragedy of something broken
c. celebration
d. result of war and invasions
e. lamentation and apathy
Christopher Columbus discovered America in 1492.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
A fantasy plot that is accepted by the characters.
Select one:
a. Realism
b. Surrealism
c. Magic Realism and Fantasy
d. Magic Realism and Realism
e. Fantasy
f. Magic Realism
Which of the following terms related to postmodernism means "construction or creation from a
diverse range of available things"?
Select one:
a. playfulness
b. parody
c. irony
d. pastiche
e. bricolage
Identify the aspect of modernism described:
The rise of spontaneity and discovery in creation.
Select one:
a. a rejection of the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
b. an emphasis on fragmented forms
c. a blurring of distinctions between genres
d. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
Postmodernism emphasizes pastiche. Which of the following is the closest meaning of the word
"pastiche"?
Select one:
a. an imitation of the style of a writer, artist or genre with deliberate exaggeration for a humorous effect.
b. the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite for a
humorous effect.
c. an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period
d. construction or creation from a diverse range of available things.
A movement where Brazilians explored their myths and folklore.
Select one:
a. Vanguardia
b. Surrealism
c. Modernismo
d. Colonial ideology
A popularly acclaimed artist whose artworks result in powerful paradoxes, often provoking unsettling
thoughts.
Select one:
a. Rene Magritte
b. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
c. Oswaldo Guayasamin
Explores aspects that are associated with imagination, attempting to express the inner life of
humans.
Select one:
a. Fantasy
b. Surrealism
c. Magic Realism and Realism
d. Magic Realism
e. Realism
f. Magic Realism and Fantasy
This artist's artworks feature racism and discrimination. One such example is the image below:
Select one:
a. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
b. Rene Magritte
The English title of Gabriel Garcia Marquez' novel which became the epicenter of novels in this
period.
Select one:
a. One Hundred Years of Solitude
b. Chronicle of a Death Foretold
c. The General in His Labyrinth
d. Love in the Time of Cholera
Discontinuous narratives and random-seeming collages of different materials.
Select one:
a. an emphasis on impressionism and subjectivity in writing
b. a tendency toward reflexivity or self-consciousness
c. omniscient third-person narrators and fixed narrative points of view
d. an emphasis on fragmented forms
Choosing materials used to produce art and in methods of displaying, distributing and consuming
art.
Select one:
a. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
b. omniscient third-person narrators and fixed narrative points of view
c. a rejection fo the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
d. a blurring of distinctions between genres
Choose what type of control exists in the following dystopian novel, based on its synopsis:
Ready Player One by Ernest Cline: "In the year 2044, reality is an ugly place. The only time teenage
Wade Watts really feels alive is when he's jacked into the virtual utopia known as the OASIS.
Wade's devoted his life to studying the puzzles hidden within this world's digital confines, puzzles
that are based on their creator's obsession with the pop culture of decades past and that promise
massive power and fortune to whoever can unlock them. When Wade stumbles upon the first clue,
he finds himself beset by players willing to kill to take this ultimate prize. The race is on, and if
Wade's going to survive, he'll have to win—and confront the real world he's always been so
desperate to escape."
Select one:
a. Technological Control
b. Corporate Control
c. Philosophical/Religious Control
d. Bureaucratic Control
A popularly acclaimed artist whose artworks result in powerful paradoxes, often provoking unsettling
thoughts.
Select one:
a. Rene Magritte
b. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
Small portions of West Africa are composed of people who believe in ______.
Select one:
a. Yourubu religion
b. Islam
c. Animism
d. Christianity
This began in the middle of the 18th century and is associated with modern era.
Select one:
a. Modern America
b. none of the choices
c. European Enlightenment
d. Scientific Revolution
French-speaking African writers, politicians and intellectuals developed the ideological philosophy,
Negritude.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The climax of dystopian literature is unresolved.
b. Dystopian literature ends on a hopeful note.
c. Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society
d. Dystopia asks big questions such as "What is love?"
Explores the social and political ills in the 20th Century.
Select one:
a. Fantasy
b. Surrealism
c. Magic Realism and Fantasy
d. Magic Realism and Realism
e. Magic Realism
f. Realism
In Modern America, this country is the first to become an independent nation in West Indies.
Select one:
a. Central America
b. Peru
c. Haiti
d. Mexico
The following are countries that proclaimed independence from Spain except for:
Select one:
a. Central America
b. Texas
c. Peru
d. Mexico
This massacre occurred in Rwanda causing millions to flee.
Select one:
a. none of the choices
b. Ethiopian
c. Hutus
d. Zaire
Postmodernism emphasizes pastiche. Which of the following is the closest meaning of the word
"pastiche"?
Select one:
a. an imitation of the style of a writer, artist or genre with deliberate exaggeration for a humorous effect.
b. construction or creation from a diverse range of available things.
c. the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite for a
humorous effect.
d. an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period
n a dystopian world, ____ takes control of human minds.
Select one:
a. religion
b. ruling power
c. propaganda
d. beliefs
This refers to a set of philosophical, political, and ethical ideas which provide the basis for the
aesthetic aspect of modernism.
Select one:
a. Modernity
b. Late Modernity
c. Modernization
d. Postmodernity
The rise of spontaneity and discovery in creation.
Select one:
a. a rejection of the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
b. a blurring of distinctions between genres
c. an emphasis on fragmented forms
d. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
One of the themes reflected in postmodernism which means the construction or creation from a
diverse range of available things.
Select one:
a. irony
b. bricolage
c. parody
d. pastiche

Explores aspects that are associated with imagination, attempting to express the inner life of
humans.
Select one:
a. Magic Realism and Realism
b. Surrealism
c. Fantasy
d. Magic Realism
e. Magic Realism and Fantasy
f. Realism
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The climax of dystopian literature is unresolved.
b. Dystopian literature ends on a hopeful note.
c. Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society
d. Dystopia asks big questions such as "What is love?"
Known as one of the authors of the 1935 Philippine Constitution.
Select one:
a. Severino Reyes
b. Paz Marquez Benitez
c. Lope K. Santos
d. Claro M. Recto
CREATED BY KUYA PIOLO
PHYSICAL SCIENCE week 10 only
Identification: Radiation emitted by a body that absorbed it first
Answer: Blackbody Radiation
Identification: Compactness of the arrangement of the molecules of a material
Answer: Density
Identification: Bond characterized by the sharing of electrons between atoms
Answer: Covalent Bond
Identification: Particles smaller than a proton with strong nuclear force holding the quarks together
Answer: Gluons
Covalent bond with unequal sharing of electrons
Answer: Polar
Identification: Repelled the directed alpha particles in the gold foil experiment
Answer: Protons
Identification: Reaction in giant stars for the fusion of hydrogen to form helium
Answer: CNO Cycle
Identification: It refers to tyhe speed of a chemical process
Answer: Reaction Rate
Substance that can turn lead to gold
Select one:
a. Jack-o-Lantern
b. Philosopher's Stone(ANSWER)
c. Witchlight
d. Will-o-Wisp
Identification: Atoms of the same element but with various atomic weights
Answer: Isotope
Identification: Component of chemical reaction present at its start
Answer: Reactants
Solid substance that settles when a liquid solution is left still for a long amount of time?
Answer: Precipitate
Identification: Compound formed by positive and negative atoms
Answer: Ionic compound

Factor in reaction rate related to the amount of reactants
Select one:
a. Concentration(ANSWER)
c. Temperature
d. Both Concentration and Temperature
Identification: Star with strong gravity allowing the formation of more oxygen and magnesium
Answer: Supergiant
Identification: Compound formed by electron sharing
Answer: Covalent
Covalent bond between identical atoms
Answer: Nonpolar
Property of a substance that is observable without changing it
Answer: Physical property
Identification: Nuclear particles that do not contribute to its charge
Answer: Neutron
Identification: Term used by scientists referring to the very small but detectable amount of heat residue
of the Big Bang
Answer: Background Radiation

Covalent bonding resulting from unequal sharing of electrons between the atoms
Select one:
a. Nonpolar covalent bonding
c. Both polar and nonpolar covalent bonding
d. Polar covalent bonding(ANSWER)
Identification: Properties observable using your eyes
Answer: Physical Property
Identification: Catalysts in digestion of food
Answer: enzyme
Force between the molecules of a compound
Answer: Intermolecular Force
Bond where electrons are shared congruently throughout the molecule
Select one:
a. Polar covalent bonding
c. Both polar and nonpolar covalent bonding
d. Nonpolar covalent bonding(ANSWER)
Age of the universe (in billions of years) according to the most widely accepted cosmological theory of
its existence
Answer: 13.7
Identification: It refers to the cloud where stars are born
Answer: Nebula
Identification: Property of material to emit charged particles
Answer: Radioactivity
Identification: Reaction rate factor related to the kinetic energy of the reactant molecules
Answer: Temperature
The Gold foil experiment led to the discovery of this atomic part
Select one:
a. Electron
b. Nucleus(ANSWER)
c. Proton
d. No correct answer
Molecular compound where there is a slight difference in the charge between its opposite sides
Select one:
a. Polar(ANSWER)
b. Both Polar and Nonpolar molecular compound
c. Nonpolar
Identification: Energy responsible different reaction rates
Answer: Activation Energy

Identification: Compounds that are dissolves easily in water
Answer: Ionic compounds
Fill in the blank: In a molecule of water, the atom more visited by the shared electrons would be
Answer: Oxygen
Identification: The more positive atom in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide
Answer: Hydrogen
Identification: Covalent bonding where electrons are shared equally between the atoms
Answer: Nonpolar
Identification: Reaction that fuses hydrogen to form helium in dwarf stars
Answer: PP Chain
Identification: Substance that cannot be simplified anymore
Answer: Element
Identification: This also means covalent compounds
Answer: Molecular compounds
Identification: Change resulting to new material that is entirely different from the reactants
Select one:
a. No correct answer
b. Physical change
c. Chemical change(ANSWER)
d. Both Physical and Chemical change
Behavior of the universe explaining the Big Bang Theory
Select one:
a. no correct answer
b. shrinking
c. expanding(ANSWER)
d. stays constant in size
Identification: Proton component that binds the other components together
Answer: Gluon
Change in which the product is the same as the reactants
Select one:
b. Both physical and chemical change
c. Physical change(ANSWER)
d. Chemical change
Identification: Substance that hastens chemical reactions
Answer: Catalyst
Identification: It is the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds
Answer: Reactivity
Identification: Material property making it capable of being hammered into thin sheets
Answer: Malleability
Identification: Smallest possible particle of an element containing all of the properties of the element
Answer: Atom
Identification: Lightest particles in an atom
Answer: Electrons
Covalent bond that may or may not exist between two different atoms
Answer: Polar
Negatively charged particles in atoms
Select one:
a. Protons
b. Both Protons and Electrons
d. Electrons(ANSWER)
LONGQUIZ 2 ;PHYSICAL SCIENCE

29/30
c- Josefa Marie Taguiam
1.What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount
of time.
ans. Precipitate
2.What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes?
ans.Enzymes
3.What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction rates of chemical
processes?
answer:activation energy
4.What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of its molecules?
ans.Density
5.Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants.
ANWER:physical change
6.In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the
molecule? answer:nonpolar
7.What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds?
answer:Reactivity
8.Fill in the blank: The ______
property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. answer:physical
9.What type of covalent compound is there a slight difference in the electric charge between the
opposite sides of the molecule? answer:polar covalent compound
10.Identification: This factor in a reaction rate is a consequence of the kinetic energy of the reactant
molecules? wrong answer ako dito.
11.What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two atoms?
answer:covalent bond
12.What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? answer:reactant
13.Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding.
answer:polar covalent bonding
14._____ covalent bond does not have an equal sharing of electrons. answer.Polar
15.What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the
reactants? answer:chemical change
16.Identification: This is another term used to refer to covalent compounds. answer:molecular
compound
17.Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. answer:reaction rate
18.Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? answer: hydrogen
atom
19.Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. answer:ionic compounds
20.Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses. answer:Physical properties
21.What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? answer:Covalent compound
22.covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. answer: nonpolar
23.Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound. answer:
Intermolecular force
24.What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets?
answer:malleability
25.In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? answer:oxygen
26.Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? answer:catalyst
27. In a ______
type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. answer: nonpolar
28.What type of covalent bonding is characterized by the incongruent sharing of electrons between
the atoms? answer:polar
29.Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances? answer: concentration
30.Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. answer:ionic compound
Short Quiz 8:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Also known as the revolution of the Earth around the sun
Answer: ANNUAL MOTION
2. Ancient constellations related to Earth’s annual motion
Answer: ZODIAC
3. Center in Ptolemaic system of the universe
Answer: EARTH
4. Center of the universe in the Copernican system
Answer: SUN
5. Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion
Answer: ROTATION
6. Event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator
Answer: EQUINOX
7. Line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths
Answer: CELESTIAL EQUATOR
8. Main factor in the precession of equinoxes
Answer: GRAVITY
9. More common term for the annual motion of the Earth
Answer: REVOLUTION
10. Type of observable motion associated with heavenly bodies
Answer: DIURNAL MOTION
Learning Activity 8 (Physics)
Slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical body’s rotational axis
Answer:
Axial precession
Periodic observable motion that results from the Earth’s motion on its axis
Answer:
diurnal motion
Center of the universe in Ptolemy’s model
Answer:
Earth
Motion of the Earth around the sun
Answer:
revolution
Motion of the Earth responsible for diurnal motion
Answer:
rotation
Long Quiz 3:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Identify the center in the universe model Copernicus.
Answer: SUN
2. Identify the date of the year when the Earth is at its closest from the Sun.
Answer: PERIHELION
3. Identify the main factor in the precession of equinoxes.
Answer: GRAVITY
4. Identify the shape of the planetary orbit based on Kepler’s third law.
Answer: ELLIPSE
5. Identify the universe’s center in Ptolemy’s model.
Answer: EARTH
6. Name the line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths.
Answer: CELESTIAL EQUATOR
7. Name the star blamed by the Greeks for the intensity of their summer
Answer: SIRIUS
8. This ancient device aligns with the North Star and is used to determine the precise time of its
user’s location.
Answer: ASTROLABE
9. This model is the combination of two ancient models of the universe.
Answer: TYCHONIC
10. This model of the universe considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe
models.
Anwer: TYCHONIC
11. This motion is also called the revolution of the Earth around the sun.
Answer: ANNUAL MOTION
12. This structure was developed by the Mayans as they observed Venus.
Answer: CARACOL
13. What do you call Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
14. What do you call the ancient constellations that are related to Earth’s annual motion?
Answer: ZODIAC
15. What do you call the event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator?
Answer: EQUINOX
16. What do you call the motion of the Earth that is responsible for diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
17. What is the center in Ptolemaic system of the universe?
Answer: EARTH
18. What is the center of the universe based on the model by Ptolemy?
Answer: EARTH
19. What is the center of the universe in the Copernican system?
Answer: SUN
20. What is the constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler?
Answer: AREA SPEED
21. What is the more common term for the annual motion of the Earth with respect to the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
22. What is the oldest heavenly body that has been observed and has preceded great events in
history?
Answer: HALLEY’S COMET
23. What is the periodic observable motion that is the result of the Earth’s movement on its axis?
24. What is the term that refers to the motion of the Earth around the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
25. What is the term that refers to the slow and continuous change in the orientation of an
astronomical body’s rotational axis?
Answer: AXIAL PRECESSION
26. What is the universe model that is said to be Sun-centered?
Answer: COPERNICAN
27. What is this type of observable motion that is associated with heavenly bodies?
28. What property of a planet has this property directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major
axis of its orbit?
Answer: ORBITAL PERIOD
29. Where is the Sun located with respect to a planet’s elliptical orbit
Answer: FOCAL POINT
30. Which model of the universe is said to be Earth-centered?
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
Learning Activity 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Aligns with the North Star to determine precise time for user’s location
Answer: ASTROLABE
2. Combination of two ancient models of the universe
Answer: TYCHONIC
3. Developed by the Mayans for the observation of Venus
Answer: CARACOL
4. Earth-centered system of the universe
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
5. Sun-centered system of the universe
Answer: COPERNICAN
Short Quiz 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Center in the model of the universe proposed by Copernicus
Answer: SUN
2. Center of the universe based on the model proposed by Ptolemy
Answer: EARTH
3. Considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe model
Answer: TYCHONIC
4. Constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler
Answer: AREA SPEED
5. Date of the year when the Earth is closest to the Sun
Answer: PERIHELION
6. Location of the Sun with respect to the elliptical orbit based on Kepler’s laws
Answer: FOCAL POINT
7. Oldest heavenly body observed that has preceded great events in history
Answer: HALLEY’S COMET
8. Planet property whose square is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit
Answer: ORBITAL PERIOD
9. Shape of the orbit based on Kepler’s third law
Answer: ELLIPSE
10. Star blamed by Greeks for the intensity of summer
Answer: SIRIUS
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in the motion of a falling body in vacuum
Answer: ACCELERATION
2. Description of the change in the rate of movement of a body
Answer: ACCELERATION
3. Indirect force resulting from the application of a force
Answer: REACTION
4. Necessary component of motion according to Aristotle
Answer: FORCE
5. Property of a body that affects its state of motion
Answer: INERTIA
Short Quiz 10:PHYSC
Aside from changing the state of motion of a body, this is also an effect of applying an unbalanced
force to the body.
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which can be easily affected by an unbalanced force: one cube of ice or one sack of rice?
Answer:
ONE SACK OF RICE
This law implies the importance of balanced forces and what unbalanced forces are.
Answer:
LAW OF INTERACTION
Which will accelerate more when the same unbalanced force is applied: pencil or cabinet?
Answer:
CABINET
This law of motion relates the rate of change in the movement of a body and the unbalanced force
that it experiences.
Answer:
LAW OF ACCELERATION
Which law of motion states that a body will not change its current state of motion unless an
unbalanced force acts upon it?
Answer:
LAW OF INERTIA
If you push the wall with an amount of force, you supply the action force. What is the source of the
reaction force?
Answer:
WALL
What factor of a body that is at rest prevents it from moving?
Answer:
INERTIA
What is the only factor that is constant for bodies falling in a vacuum?
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which of these has a greater inertia: fly or cat?
Answer:
cats
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in a body as long as no net force acts upon it
Answer: VELOCITY
2. Decreases as acceleration increases in Newton’s law of acceleration
Answer: MASS
3. Force involved in Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation
Answer: GRAVITATIONAL FORCE
4. Statement based on repeated experimental observations
Answer: LAW
5. Statement taken to be true since what it proposes is already evident
Answer: AXIOM
Short Quiz 11:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. According to Galileo, this quantity is not needed to keep a body in motion under ideal conditions.
Answer: FORCE
2. Describe the total amount of energy of a body before it falls from a height and as it hits the
ground.
Answer: EQUAL
3. In the law of acceleration, which quantity decreases as the acceleration decreases?
Answer: FORCE
4. This is also known as the “inertia in motion” of a body.
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. This kind of statement is considered true since it has been based on a series of observations.
Answer: LAW
6. What do you call a statement that is taken as true without scientific evidence?
Answer: AXIOM
7. What happens to energy as it is used up by different systems?
Answer: TRANSFORMED
8. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the bodies become more massive?
Answer: INCREASES
9. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the distance between two bodies
increase?
Answer: DECREASES
10. What term do you use to refer to the amount of material contained by a body?
Answer: MASS
Short Quiz 12:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the formula for momentum. What quantity increases with the velocity of a body?:
Momentum; Velocity; Inelastic; Force; Mass; Elastic; Energy
Answer: Momentum
2. If a body has no momentum, what else does it not have?: Elastic; Inelastic; Force; Momentum;
Mass; Velocity; Energy
Answer: Velocity
3. In the formula for momentum, this quantity decreases as the body moves slower.: Elastic; Mass;
Energy; Momentum; Force; Velocity; Inelastic
Answer: Mass
4. In this type of collision, this factor is not necessarily conserved.: Energy; Elastic; Velocity; Force;
Inelastic; Mass; Momentum
Answer: Energy
5. This quantity describes how difficult it is to stop a moving body.: Inelastic; Velocity; Momentum;
Force; Energy; Mass; Elastic
Answer: Momentum
6. This quantity enables bodies to move so that they would collide.: Mass; Energy; Elastic; Force;
Velocity; Inelastic; Momentum
Answer: Energy
7. What SI quantity is directly related and directly proportional to the mass of a body?: Inelastic;
Momentum; Velocity; Elastic; Energy; Force; Mass
Answer: Momentum
8. What type of collision is involved between two bodies that show a spark of light after colliding:
Momentum; Force; Inelastic; Mass; Elastic; Energy; Velocity
Answer: Inelastic
9. Which type of collision involves the constant sum of total kinetic energy before and after the
collision?: Momentum; Velocity; Mass; Elastic; Force; Energy; Inelastic
Answer: Elastic
10. Which will stop first when these two bodies collide: truck or bicycle?
Answer: BICYCLE
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Collision that involves the conversion of energy into other forms outside the colliding bodies
Answer: INELASTIC
2. Factor responsible for the movement of the bodies that are about to collide
Answer: ENERGY
3. Not necessarily conserved between colliding bodies
Answer: ENERGY
4. Quantity conserved in any collision
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. Type of collision wherein the total kinetic energy is constant before and after the collision
Answer: ELASTIC
Short Quiz 13:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the wave equation. Which quantity increases with the frequency of the wave?:
Absorption; Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Longitudinal; Wavelength; Refraction; Electron; Photon;
Transverse; Energy; Mirror; Speed; Dispersion
Answer: Speed
2. In light, this is what the photons carry enabling them to move.: Wavelength; Energy; Mirror;
Photon; Longitudinal; Dispersion; Electron; Speed; Transverse; Index of Refraction; Absorption;
Refraction; Latitudinal
Answer: Energy
3. In the wave equation, this quantity is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave.:
Absorption; Mirror; Electron; Latitudinal; Longitudinal; Energy; Speed; Photon; Refraction; Index of
Refraction; Dispersion; Wavelength; Transverse
Answer: Wavelength
4. Name the component of light that travels in straight lines.: Index of Refraction; Longitudinal;
Transverse; Absorption; Latitudinal; Energy; Electron; Refraction; Mirror; Photon; Dispersion;
Wavelength; Speed
Answer: Photon
5. This constant determines how much light will bend as it enters a different medium.: Electron;
Refraction; Photon; Latitudinal; Mirror; Speed; Index of Refraction; Transverse; Absorption;
Longitudinal; Dispersion; Wavelength; Energy
Answer: Index of Refraction
6. This phenomenon of light is the evidence of the energy possessed by light.: Absorption; Photon;
Energy; Dispersion; Electron; Mirror; Speed; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal;
Index of Refraction; Refraction
Answer: Absorption
7. This wave is produced by the disturbance of the molecules nearby its source.: Latitudinal;
Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Wavelength; Index of Refraction; Electron; Speed; Dispersion;
Longitudinal; Transverse; Refraction; Energy
Answer: Longitudinal
8. What is the optical device that is used to show the bouncing of light?: Latitudinal; Speed; Index of
Refraction; Wavelength; Electron; Dispersion; Transverse; Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Refraction;
Energy; Longitudinal
Answer: Mirror
9. What kind of wave is light?: Index of Refraction; Speed; Photon; Mirror; Absorption; Refraction;
Energy; Speed; Transverse; Electron; Dispersion; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal
Answer: Transverse
10. What kind of wave is represented by a sine wave?: Dispersion; Transverse; Index of Refraction;
Refraction; Mirror; Energy; Longitudinal; Electron; Absorption; Photon; Latitudinal; Speed;
Wavelength
Answer: Transverse
--ccto
Learning Activity 13: PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Optical device that demonstrates bending of light
Answer: LENS
2. Particle of light that carries its energy
Answer: PHOTON
3. Path of light that makes it understood to be a particle
Answer: STRAIGHT LINE
4. Wave that can propagate even without molecules
Answer: TRANSVERSE
5. Wave that cannot exist in vacuum
Answer: LONGITUDINAL
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Bending of light around an edge causing umbra and penumbra in the shadow
Answer: DIFFRACTION
2. Deflection of light along its path
Answer: SCATTERING
3. Phenomenon of light wherein light waves add up
Answer: INTERFERENCE
4. Phenomenon of separation of light into different colors
Answer: DISPERSION
5. Type of mirror that shows an inverted image of you
Answer: CONCAVE
Short Quiz 14:PHYSC
What exists between two charges in space?
Select one:
- Electrostatic force
This phenomenon of light explains how light shows different colors after passing through a prism.
Select one:
-Dispersion
This type of mirror shows a virtual image of the object.
Select one:
-Convex
What do you call a displaced image of an object as the result of the bending of light rays?
Select one:
-Mirage
According to Faraday, what is produced by a changing magnetic field?
Select one:
- Induced voltage
What principle explains why it is impossible to determine experimentally both the position and the
speed of an electron at the same time?
Select one:
-Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
How do electron orbits look like as a consequence of the uncertainty principle?
Select one:
- Electron clouds
What type of mirror shows your image in an inverted manner?
Select one:
-Concave
What can electric current produce along a wire?
Select one:
- Magnetic field
What phenomenon of light is utilized to identify the wavelength of a given light ray?
Select one:
- Dispersion
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Hertz applied high voltage AC electricity across the central spark gap of the transmitter creating
sparks.: True; False
Answer: False
2. What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency
signals?: charged-couple device; analog to digital converter
Answer: charged-couple device
3. What test equipment combines the operation of many test instruments into a single compact unit.:
Impedance meter; Communication service monitor
Answer: Communication service monitor
4. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction
take place?: in the oscillator; receiving end
Answer: receiving end
5. What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a
discrete time signal?
Answer: Sampling
Short Quiz 15:PHYSC
Hertz found that when sparks flew across the main gap, sparks also usually glow across the
secondary gap that is between points A and B in the image.
Select one:
- True
According to Hertz, he pictured waves of electric charge moving back and forth, creating a standing
wave within the wire.
Select one:
- True
When reading the forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right-facing arrow heads mean?
Select one:
- Power exceeds 120 percent of the range
What are the two main types of photodetectors? (separate your answers with the word "and")
Answer:
-Positive intrinsic photodiode AND negative intrinsic photodiode
In November 1886, Heinrich Hertz became the first person to transmit and receive controlled radio
waves.
Select one:
-True
If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the
disturbance is most likely
Select one:
- External to the radio
What initial nuclear radiation components generate electromagnetic pulses? (separate your answers
with the word "and")
Answer:
-Gamma rays AND neutrons
Who discovered radio waves?
Answer:
-Heinrich Hertz
What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and
generates a serial pattern?
Select one:
-48-bit transmitter only
Hertz started generating radio waves using a piece of electrical equipment called an induction coil.
Select one:
-True
Short Quiz 16:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. As measured in any inertial frame of reference, light is always propagated in empty space with a
definite velocity that is independent of the state of motion of the emitting body.: False; True
Answer: True
2. Maxwell’s equations are not consistent with Galilean relativity unless one postulates the existence
of a physical aether.: True; False
Answer: True
3. The laws of physics are the same in all inertia frames of reference.: True; False
Answer: True
4. The postulates of special relativity can be expressed very succinctly using the mathematical
language of pseudo-Riemmannian manifolds: True; False
Answer: True
5. What is the correct expression for the amplitude of a vibrating mass? Amplitude is the: Maximum
velocity of the mass during vibration; Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
Answer: Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
6. Which of the following is not a term associated with periodic waves?: Frequency; How much
space is occupied
Answer: How much space is occupied
7. Which of the following sound wave can be heard by the human ear?: Ultrasonic sound waves;
Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
Answer: Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
8. It combines special relativity with the equivalence principle.
Answer: General relativity
9. It is the succession of methods by which astronomers determine the distances to celestial objects.
Answer: Cosmic distance ladder
10. Known as the “dwarf planet”
Answer: Pluto
L.A 16:PHYSC
Vibrations
Select one:
- Can sometimes be sensed
Special relativity is a theory.
Select one:
- True
States that the net force acting on a body is equal to that body’s (inertia ) mass multiplied by its
acceleration.
Select one:
-Newton's Second Law of Motion
According to this law there is a universality of free fall. The trajectory of a test body in free fall
depends only on its position and initial speed.
Answer:
-Newton's Law of Gravity
Which of the following must be satisfied for a vibration to be simple harmonic motion? The restoring
force of the vibrating object is
Select one:
-
-Opposite to and proportional to a displacement
It is the passage of electromagnetic radiation through a medium.
Select one:
Answer: Transmission
This Kepler's law states that the line joining the planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times as it
moves along its orbit.
Select one:
Answer: Second law
Which of Newton's laws states that an object either remains at rest or continuous to move at a constant
velocity, unless acted upon by a force?
Select one:
Answer: First law
Galileo looked at the Sun and found out that it had spots.
Answer: True
Mercury and Venus are never more than 200 and 450, respectively, from the Sun.
Answer: False
The Aristotelian view of the world made the certain basic assumption that the Earth is a sphere, fixed, and
unmoving at the center of the universe.
Answer: False
Identification: Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions?
Catalyst
Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process.
reaction rate
True or False: In determining the limiting reactant, mass quantities must be converted to moles.
True
What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start?
reactant
True or False: Chromium is one of the soft elements.
false
Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding.
polar covalent bonding
True or False: Density decreases as temperature increases.
True
type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms.
nonpolar
What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons?
Covalent compound
Identification: Reaction rate factor that is due to the movement of the molecules of the reactants.
Concentration
True or False: Platinum has very high density.
true
helps determine how an element might be used.
HARDNESS
True or False: Aluminum is a good conductor of heat.
TRUE
covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms.
nonpolar
Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide?
hydrogen atom
Identification: Substance that aides any chemical reaction.
Reactants
What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds?
Reactivity
In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the molecule?
nonpolar
What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds?
Identification: Solid formed from the settling of solid particles in a liquid solution.
PRECIPITATE
refers to the concentration of a substance.
Concentration
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When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a _______________.
Select one:
a. white dwarf
b. black hole
c. red giant
d. dwarf star
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Which of these is not a basic idea of Dalton’s atomic theory?
Select one:
a. There are atoms gained/lost/changed in identity during a chemical reaction.
b. All substances are made of atoms
c. Atoms join together to form compounds, and a given compound always consists of the same kinds of atoms in
the same proportions
d. Chemical combination is simply the bonding of a definite number of atoms to make one molecule of the
compound
e. All atoms of the same element are alike and have the same mass.
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What is the temperature in kelvins of the visible surface of the Sun?
Select one:
a. 6 million K
b. 600 K
c. 6000 K
d. 6 billion K
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The planetary model of the atom is associated with
Select one:
a. Thomson.
b. Rutherford.
c. Bohr.
d. Dalton.
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Who discovered the electron in 1897?
Select one:
a. Rutherford
b. Thomson
c. Bohr
d. Dalton
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True or False: The alchemists have been successful in changing lead to gold.
Answer:
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Nearly 100% of mass of Earth's core is composed of the two elements
Select one:
a. oxygen and aluminum
b. iron and nickel
c. silicon and oxygen.
d. aluminum and silicon
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The second most abundant element in the Earth's atmosphere is
Select one:
a. carbon dioxide.
b. argon.
c. nitrogen.
d. oxygen.
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The apparent brightness of stars is ranked according to magnitude. The brightest stars were originally ranked
as what magnitude?
Select one:
a. Zero
c. First
d. Sixth
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The various isotopes of an element all have
Select one:
a. the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
b. the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons.
c. the same total number of neutrons and protons.
d. the same number of neutrons and the same number of protons.
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True or False: The rate of reaction is faster if the temperature of reactants is higher.
Answer:
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True or False: Carbon in graphite can be described as hard as the carbon in diamond.
Answer:
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True or False: The catalyst brings the reactants together by permanently bonding with them.
Answer:
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Answer is an enzyme found in the mouth and small intestine that hlps in the breakdown of starch to sugar.
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True or False: Chemical reactions occur inside living things.
Answer:
Question 6
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Answer refers to the concentration of a substance.
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True or False: Sodium reacts violently with water.
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True or False: Tools made from iron easily rust.
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True or False: Sodium can exist by itself.
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Answer refers to the ability of matter to burn.
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Where are stars born?
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The most modern definition of element is
Select one:
a. a substance that cannot be further separated by chemical methods.
b. a substance in which all the atoms have the same number of protons.
c. the simplest form of matter.
d. a substance that contains no neutrons.

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The Bohr theory was developed to explain which of these phenomena?
Select one:
a. Line spectra
b. The photoelectric effect
c. Quantum numbers
d. X-rays
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True or False: Formaldehyde is a nonpolar compound.
Answer:
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Thomson referred to negatively charged particles as Answer before it became known as electrons.
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The water solubility of molecular compounds is Answer.
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In 1661, who developed a definition of element that made the concept subject to laboratory investigation?
Select one:
a. Davy
b. Lavoisier
c. Boyle
d. Berzelius
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This fusion process details how helium is made in our sun.
Select one:
a. CNO cycle
b. triple alpha process
c. proton-proton chain
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Answer force refers to forces between molecules.
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The region where an electron is most likely to be is called an Answer.
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Answer compounds' physical state at room temperature can be gas, liquid or solid.
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True or False: Neutrons are found in all atoms except for most atoms of nitrogen.
Answer:
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Aluminum is an example of
Select one:
a. an element.
b. an alloy.
c. a compound.
d. a solution.
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Select one:
a. the same number of neutrons and the same number of protons.
b. the same total number of neutrons and protons.
c. the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons.
d. the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
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The Sun's energy is generated from the fusion of
Select one:
a. hydrogen nuclei to form helium nuclei.
b. carbon nuclei to form magnesium nuclei.
c. uranium to form lead, Pb.
d. helium nuclei to form carbon nuclei.
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Select one:
a. Bohr
b. Rutherford
c. Dalton
d. Thomson
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The "billiard ball model" of the atom is associated with
Select one:
a. Bohr.
b. Rutherford.
c. Thomson.
d. Dalton.
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Thomson's revision of the model of the atom into what became known as Answer model.
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Who discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911?
Select one:
a. Niels Bohr
b. Henri Becquerel
c. Marie and Pierre Curie
d. Ernest Rutherford
Matter is Answer if it can be rolled and stretched to long and thin shapes.
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Answer is occurring when gas bubbles are released during the reaction.
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A Answer is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction.
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Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water.
Answer:
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Identification: What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the
reactants?
Answer:
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Fill in the blank: In a Answer type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms.
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Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide?
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Answer refers to how fast a chemical reaction occurs.
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True or False: Carbon in graphite can be described as hard as the carbon in diamond.
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What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets?
Select one:
a. Density
b. malleability
c. no correct answer
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Catalysts in living things are called
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Fill in the blank: The Answer property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance.
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True or False: In determining the limiting reactant, mass quantities must be converted to moles.
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Answer:
_____energy is the energy needed to start a reaction.
ACTIVATION
The solid that settles out of a liquid solution is called

PRECIPITATE
Identification: What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes?
ENZYMES
Electrons at the outermost energy level of an atom are called
valence electrons
Sodium is an example of
Element
What is element 61 called?
Promethium
The "plum pudding model" of the atom is associated with
THOMSOM
True or False: The Earth's core is is composed of 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and about 1% argon.
FALSE
What was the nationality of the first persons who we know speculated about “elements”?
GREEK
The remaining core of a planetary nebula is called a _______________.
WHITE DWARF
True or False: If the covalent bonds are polar, then the covalent compound as a whole can be nonpolar.
TRUE
This was one of Rutherford's famous experiements where he used a radioactive source to direct alpha
particles toward a very thin sheet of gold foil.
Gold foil experiment
When the absolute magnitudes, or brightnesses, of stars are plotted against their surface temperatures or
colors, we obtain a(n)
Hertzsprung-Russell (or H-R) diagram.
True or False: Molecular compounds' melting and boiling temperatures are generally low.
TRUE
What is the visible surface of the Sun called?
Photosphere
True or False: Salt can conduct electricity in any form.
True
The greater the mass of a star, the _______________ it moves through its life cycle.
Faster
About 75% of the mass of the visible universe is composed of which element?
Hydrogen
Who coined the term, "radioactivity"?
Marie curie
The horizontal rows of elements in the periodic table are called
Families
True or False: When a gas is compressed, its temperature decreases.
False
% of the universe is hydrogen.
75
The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 25%
Helium
The temperature of the Sun's interior is estimated to be about how many kelvins?
15million
When electrons are not shared equally between two atoms, it is called
Polar covalent
He invented the neutron.
James chadwick
When fast electrons strike a metal target, what are produced?
x-rays
What is the name given to all matter, energy, and space?
Universe
Niels Bohr focused his attention on the element hydrogen because it
Had the simplest form
True or False: Noble gases almost never react to other substances.
false
True or False: Silver conducts electricity at minimal circumstances only.
false
By 1985, a total of
103
are fixed distances from the nucleus.
Energy levels
The Sun is a(n)
Star
The number of _______________ on the Sun varies over an 11-year cycle.
Sunspots
74% of the mass of the Earth's crus is composed of only two elements. What are these?
oxygen and silicon
True or False: The matter in the early universe was not smoothly distributed across space.
True
According to the Big Bang theory, when did the universe begin?
13.7
The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of atom was named ______________.
Democritus
is a form of carbon that is extremely hard and is one of the few materials that can scratch glass.
Diamond
This consists of fundamental particles called leptons.
Electrons
True or False: Lower activation energy = more reactant particles with enough energy to react causing the
reaction to occur faster.
True
True or False: Substances made of wood are not prone to flammability.
false
Identification: Factor in the rate of reaction that is caused by the amount of reactants.
Concentration
Identification: What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start?
Reactants
True or False: The catalyst is a reactant in the chemical reaction it speeds up.
FALSE
The heaviest elements are created in _______, the fantastic death of supergiant stars.
SUPERNOVA
True or False: Dalton was the first to introduce the idea of the atom.
False
True or False: Ionic compounds are for both metals and nonmetals.
True
True or False: The human body is composed of 65% oxygen & 18% carbon.
True
Who discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911?
Ernest Rutherford
What is the formula unit of molecular compounds?
Molecule
is the small, dense region at the center of an atom where protons are also found.
Nucleus
of an element is the average mass of all its naturally occurring isotopes.
Atomic mass
Identification: How fast or slow a chemical process takes place.
Rate of reaction
Identification: Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants.
Reactants
Identification: What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long
amount of time?
Precipitate
PHYSICAL SCIENCE FOR GRADE 11
KINOMPILE KO LAHAT NG MGA SAGOT SA MGA NAKARAANG OED NILA
TANGINA NIYO MAGSIBIGAY KAYO NG SOURCE MGA BOBO
DI PURO SAKIM YUNG IBA.
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LEARNING ACT 1

Select one:
a. francium
b. astatine
c. technetium
d. promethium CORRECT
The two types of bright nebulae are emission nebulae and _____________
nebulae.
Select one:
a. reflection CORRECT
b. photonic
c. absorption
d. refraction
Select one:
a. hydrogen.
b. carbon.
c. helium. CORRECT
d. oxygen.
The temperature of the Sun's interior is estimated to be about how many kelvins?
Select one:
a. 15 million CORRECT
b. 5 billion
c. 60,000
d. 1500
Select one:
a. carbon.
b. helium.
c. hydrogen. CORRECT
d. oxygen.
The vertical columns of elements in the periodic table are called
Select one:
a. series.
b. groups. CORRECT
c. periods.
d. families.
Select one:
a. Henri Becquerel
b. Marie and Pierre Curie
c. Ernest Rutherford CORRECT
d. Niels Bohr
Select one:
a. Thomson
b. Rutherford CORRECT
c. Dalton
d. Bohr
Select one:
a. Photosphere CORRECT
b. Stratosphere
c. Atmosphere
d. Glowing sphere
The Sun is a(n)
Select one:
a. star. CORRECT
b. galaxy.
c. planet.
d. cluster.
The Sun is a(n)
Select one:
a. cluster.
b. galaxy.
c. planet.
d. star. CORRECT
According to the Big Bang theory, when did the universe begin?
Select one:
a. 15.2 billion years ago
b. 13 billion years ago
c. 13.7 billion years ago CORRECT
d. 12.8 billion years ago
When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a
_____________.
Select one:
a. red giant CORRECT
b. black hole
c. white dwarf
d. dwarf star
The "billiard ball model" of the atom is associated with
Select one:
a. Thomson.
b. Rutherford.
c. Bohr.
d. Dalton. CORRECT
Answer: true
Select one:
a. Atmosphere
b. Glowing sphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Photosphere CORRECT
Select one:
a. Marie and Pierre Curie
b. Henri Becquerel
c. Ernest Rutherford CORRECT
d. Niels Bohr
The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the ____________
configurations of the elements.
Select one:
a. neutron
b. proton
c. periodic
d. electron CORRECT
The "plum pudding model" of the atom is associated with
Select one:
a. Dalton.
b. Bohr.
c. Thomson. CORRECT
d. Rutherford.
In 1661, who developed a definition of element that made the concept subject to
laboratory investigation?
Select one:
a. Lavoisier
b. Boyle CORRECT
c. Berzelius
d. Davy
LONG QUIZ 1
This consists of fundamental particles called leptons.
Select one:
a. electrons CORRECT
b. protons
c. neutrons
The Sun is a(n)
Select one:
a. star. CORRECT
b. planet.
c. cluster.
d. galaxy.
The heaviest elements are created in _____, the fantastic death of supergiant
stars.
Select one:
a. nebulae
b. red giant
c. supernovae CORRECT
What is the name given to all matter, energy, and space?
Select one:
a. Local group
b. Galaxy
c. Universe CORRECT
d. Solar system
Select one:
a. technetium
b. promethium CORRECT
c. francium
d. astatine
This was one of Rutherford's famous experiements where he used a radioactive
source to direct alpha particles toward a very thin sheet of gold foil.
Answer: gold foil experiment
In 1869, a major event in the history of chemistry occurred; it was the
Select one:
a. discovery of the law of conservation of mass.
b. development of the periodic table. CORRECT
c. discovery of the octet rule.
d. discovery of the law of definite proportions.
The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of atom was
named ____________.
Select one:
a. Plato
b. Democritus CORRECT
c. Zeus
d. Socrates
Select one:
a. Dalton
b. Thomson CORRECT
c. Bohr
d. Rutherford
True or False: High-mass stars eventually evolve into white-dwarves.
Answer: False
The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the ____________
Select one:
a. proton
b. electron CORRECT
c. neutron
d. periodic
laboratory investigation?
Select one:
a. Berzelius
b. Boyle CORRECT
c. Lavoisier
d. Davy
He defined the word element as a form of matter that could not be split into
simpler forms.
Select one:
a. Niels Bohr
b. Ernest Rutherford
c. Robert Boyle CORRECT
d. Mendeleev
The region where an electron is most likely to be is called an
Answer: orbital .
Niels Bohr focused his attention on the element hydrogen because it
Select one:
a. had the simplest atom. CORRECT
b. was inexpensive.
c. was so abundant.
d. could be obtained in extremely high purity.
Select one:
a. carbon.
b. oxygen.
c. helium. CORRECT
d. hydrogen.
When electrons are not shared equally between two atoms, it is called Answer
bonds
Answer: polar covalent
Sodium is an example of
Select one:
a. A compound
b. An alloy
c. An element CORRECT
d. A solution
Electrons at the outermost energy level of an atom are called .
Answer: valence electron
True or False: Melting a covalent network solid is accomplished by overcoming
the relatively weak intermolecular forces.
Answer: False
Answer: Rutherford
The vertical columns of elements in the periodic table are called
Answer: Groups
If all samples of a material have identical properties and composition, it is
Answer: element
laboratory investigation
Answer: Boyle
Answer: Thomson
Answer: The same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
Answer: Rutherford
The second most abundant element in the Earth’s atmosphere is
Answer: Oxygen
This was one of Rutherford’s famous experiments where he used a radioactive
source to direct alpha particles toward a very thin sheet of gold foil.
Answer: Gold foil experiment
By 1985, a total of elements were known.
Answer: 108
The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the configurations of the
elements
Answer: electron
About 75% of the mass of the visible universe is composed of which element?
Answer: Hydrogen
He invented the neutron.
Answer: James Chadwick
Answer: Rutherford
Answer: Bohr
True or False: Oxygen has two polar bonds.
Answer: True
Answer: False
When the absolute magnitudes, or brightness of stars are plotted against their
surface temperatures or colors, we obtain a(n)
Answer: Hertzsprung-Russell (or H-R) diagram
True or False: Ionic compounds are for both metals and nonmentals.
Answer: True
The “billiard ball model” of the atom is associated with
Answer: Dalton
Answer: J.J Thomson
The Answer is the small,dense region at the center of an atom where protons are
also found
Answer: Nucleus
Thomson”s revision of the model of the atom into what became known as
Answer: Plum pudding
True or False: Dalton was the first to introduce the idea of the atom.
Answer: False
True or False: Carbon dioxide is nonpolar
Answer: True
What was the nationality of the first persons who we know speculated about
“elements”?
Answer: Greek
True or False: Ionic compounds are for both metals and nonmetals.
Answer: True
True or False: Dalton thought individual atoms were solid, hard spheres so he
modeled them with wooden balls.
Answer: True
What is the formula unit of molecular compounds?
Answer: molecule
The Answer puts the elements in order of increasing atomic number, into seven
horizontal rows.
Answer: Periodic Table
The most modern definition of element is
Answer: a substance that cannot be further separated by chemical methods.
About Answer % of the universe is hydrogen.
Answer: 75
The heaviest elements are created in _______, the fantastic death of supergiant
stars.
Answer: Supernovae
True or False: The Earth's core is composed of 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and
about 1% argon.
Answer: False
are fixed distances from the nucleus.
Answer: Energy levels
Who coined the term, "radioactivity"?
Answer: Marie Curie
LEARNING ACT 2
ACTIVATION energy is the energy needed to start a reaction

A CATALYST is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction.
Answer: True
REACTIVITY is the ability of matter to combine chemically with other substances.
Answer: False
True or False: Noble gases almost never react to other substances.
Answer: False
Answer: False
True or False: Sodium can exist by itself.
Answer: False
True or False: Sodium reacts violently with water.
Answer: True
True or False: Lower activation energy = more reactant particles with enough
energy to react causing the reaction to occur faster.
Answer: True
is an enzyme found in the mouth and small intestine that hlps in the breakdown
of starch to sugar.
Answer: Amylase
True or False: Silver conducts electricity at minimal circumstances only.

Answer: False
True or False: In determining the limiting reactant, mass quantities must be
converted to moles.
Answer: True
helps determine how an element might be used.
Answer: Hardness
Catalysts in living things are called
Answer: Enzymes
True or False: Substances made of wood are not prone to flammability.
Answer: False
is occurring when gas bubbles are released during the reaction.
Answer: Chemical Reaction
Answer: True
Identification: What kind of change results to the production of a material that is
entirely different from the reactants?
Answer: Chemical change
Identification: This factor in a reaction rate results from the kinetic energy of the
reactant molecules?
Answer: Temperature
The nuclear model of the atom is associated with
Answer: Rutherford
The majority of stars are small, cool, type-M stars called
Answer: Red dwarfs
When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a
_______________.
Answer: Red giant
LONG QUIZ 2
1.What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still
for a long amount of time.
ans. Precipitate
2.What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes?
ans.Enzymes
3.What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction
rates of chemical processes?
answer:activation energy
4.What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of
its molecules?
ans.Density
5.Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants.
ANWER:physical change
6.In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently
throughout the molecule? answer:nonpolar
7.What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other
compounds?
answer:Reactivity
8.Fill in the blank: The ____
property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance.
answer:physical
9.What type of covalent compound is there a slight difference in the electric
charge between the opposite sides of the molecule? answer:polar covalent
compound
10.Identification: This factor in a reaction rate is a consequence of the kinetic
energy of the reactant molecules? wrong answer ako dito.
11.What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two
atoms? answer:covalent bond
12.What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start?
answer:reactant
13.Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent
bonding. answer:polar covalent bonding
14._____ covalent bond does not have an equal sharing of electrons.
answer.Polar
15.What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely
different from the reactants? answer:chemical change
16.Identification: This is another term used to refer to covalent compounds.
answer:molecular compound
17.Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. answer:reaction
rate
18.Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen
oxide? answer: hydrogen atom
19.Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. answer:ionic
compounds
20.Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses.
answer:Physical properties
21.What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons?
answer:Covalent compound
22.covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. answer: nonpolar
23.Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a
compound. answer: Intermolecular force
24.What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered
into thin sheets?
answer:malleability
25.In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons?
answer:oxygen
26.Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? answer:catalyst
27. In a ____
type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms.
answer: nonpolar
28.What type of covalent bonding is characterized by the incongruent sharing of
electrons between the atoms? answer:polar
29.Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances?
answer: concentration
30.Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. answer:ionic
compound
Identification: What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological
processes?
Answer: enzyme
In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons?
Answer: Oxygen
Fill in the blank: The Answer property of a substance can be observed without
changing the substance.
Answer: Physical
Refers to how fast a chemical reaction occurs.
True or False: Salt can conduct electricity in any form.
Answer: False
Identification: What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its
start?
Answer: Reactant
What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into
thin sheets?
Select one:
a. Density
b. malleability CORRECT
c. no correct answer
Answer energy is the energy needed to start a reaction.
Answer: Activation
Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions?
Answer: Catalyst
Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent
bonding.
Answer: Polar
Answer: True
Answer: Density
The solid that settles out of a liquid solution is called
Answer: precipitate .
Fill in the blank: Answer covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms.
Answer: Non-polar
Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances?
Answer: concentration
Answer: True
Answer: Covalent
True or False: The catalyst brings the reactants together by permanently bonding
with them.
Answer: False
Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion.
Answer: Ionic compound
Answer: True
True or False: Lower activation energy = more reactant particles with enough
energy to react causing the reaction to occur faster
Answer: True
True or False: Platinum has very high density
Answer: True
Refers to how fast a chemical reaction occurs
Identification: Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions?
Answer: Catalyst
Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants.
Answer: Physical Change
Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process
True or False: Carbon in graphite can be described as hard as the carbon in
diamond.
Answer: False
Refers to the ability of matter to burn.
Answer: Flammability
True or False: The catalyst brings the reactants together by permanently bonding
with them.
Answer: False
Answer: True
Identification: How fast or slow a chemical process takes place.
Answer: Rate of Reaction
Identification: Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the
reactants.
Answer: Chemical reaction
Identification: What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in
the reaction rates of chemical processes?
Answer: Chemical kinetics
Answer: False
Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound.
Answer: Intermolecular force
Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses.
Answer: Physical properties
Refers to the concentration of a substance.
Answer: Density
Answer: False
True or False: In determing the liming reactant, mass quantities must be
converted to moles.
Answer: True
True or False: The rate of reaction is faster if the temperature of reactants is
higher.
Answer: True
refers to an electrically neutral particle composed of two or more atoms

chemically combined.
Answer: molecule
True or False: Neutrons are found in all atoms except for most atoms of nitrogen.
Answer: False
The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the ______________
Answer: Electron
True or False: Diamond does not melt at all.
Answer: True
What is the temperature in kelvins of the visible surface of the Sun?
Answer: 6000 K
True or False: Diamond vaporizes to gas at temperatures above 3500 degrees
Celsius.
Answer: True
The number of _______________ on the Sun varies over an 11-year cycle.
Answer: sunspots
74% of the mass of the Earth's crus is composed of only two elements. What are
these?
Answer: Oxygen and Silicon
True or False: If the covalent bonds are polar, then the covalent compound as a
whole can be nonpolar.
Answer: True
The apparent brightness of stars is ranked according to magnitude. The brightest
stars were originally ranked as what magnitude?
Answer: First
Matter is Answer if it can be rolled and stretched to long and thin shapes.
Answer: ductile
Identification: Factor in the rate of reaction that is caused by the amount of
reactants.
Answer: Concentration
Identification: Reaction rate factor that is due to the movement of the molecules
of the reactants.
Answer: Catalyst
Which of the following did not occur after the Big Bang?
Answer: THE UNIVERSE IS COMPACTED INTO A VERY SMALL VOLUME
Aluminum is an example of
Answer: an element
Which of these is not a basic idea of Dalton’s atomic theory?
Answer: All atoms of the same element are alike and have the same mass.
The Sun's energy is generated from the fusion of
Answer: Hydrogen nuclei to Helium nuclei
Wilhelm Roentgen discovered
Answer: X-Rays
When fast electrons strike a metal target, what are produced?
Answer: X-Rays
The greater the mass of a star, the _______________ it moves through its life
cycle.
Answer: Faster
Reading and Writing Skills answers

Disclaimer XD: ang mga sumusunod nasagot ay hindi ko pagaari, ito’y compilation lamang ng
mg sagot mula sa FB group na Oral communication and EAPP posted by Elisha Joy Marquez
Julian, ako’y walang kahit ano mang conneksyon sa taong yan, pero nais kong magpasalamat
LEARNING ACTIVITY 1. READING AND WRITING.

This is the stage where you polish the order of your ideas and filter the information needed to get
your point across and correct any mechanical errors.
The correct answer is: Revising
This refers to the set of basic questions that can start the exploration of your topic.
The correct answer is: journalists' questions
This stage in the writing process narrows your topic into the most important and relevant.
The correct answer is: Pre-writing
Which of the following statements is not true?
The correct answer is: You must start thinking about writing a completely unfamiliar topic and
explore it along the way.
True or False: Output is important, but an effective written work is still valued.
The correct answer is: True
Learning activity 2. reading and writing.

Arrange the following sentences to form a comprehensive paragraph.
1.Guerrilla movements can exist only when they have some support from the people in their area
of operations
2.The greater the support the more effective the guerrillas become
3.This is because in all lands where a strong, ideologically motivated guerrilla force looks in
struggle with the government, ultimate victory goes to the side which succeeds in rallying people
4.Conversely, when the people deny or withdraw their support, the guerrilla lose their ability to
disengage, disappear and exist and shortly are down and wipe out
5.The decisive factor in the twilight war in South Vietnam is the support of the rural masses
Read the following jumbled paragraph and answer the succeeding question:
(A) For the first time however, the waters of Laguna de Bay are serving a new and different
purpose. (B) Today, these lands can be planted to palay during off-season. (C) They are being
harnessed to water rice field along the shores which are idle during the dry season. (D) Fish
abound in its waters and its shores have been favorable breeding ground for ducks. (E) Laguna
de Bay has, for centuries, been a major source of livelihood for people living along its shores.
Which is the most fitting 4th sentence for the given paragraph?
The correct answer is: B
(A) Gone with the Wind is not just Scarlett O’Hara’s story; it is also the story of another
remarkable woman, Melanie Wilkes. (B) The author describes Melanie as having “the face” of a
sheltered child who had never known anything but simplicity and kindness, truth and love, a
child who had never looked upon harshness or evil, and would not have recognized them if she
saw them.” (C) Strangely enough, the qualities that weakened Melanie in Scarlett’s eyes—
loyalty, naivete, and simplicity—actually proved to make Melanie a strong person.
The correct answer is: C
Read the following jumbled paragraph and answer the succeeding question.
(A) Guerrilla movements can exist only when they have some support from the people in their
area of operations. (B) This is because in all lands where a strong, ideologically motivated
guerrilla force looks in struggle with the government, ultimate victory goes to the side which
succeeds in rallying people. (C) Conversely, when the people deny or withdraw their support, the
guerrilla lose their ability to disengage, disappear and exist and shortly are down and wipe out.
(D) The decisive factor in the twilight war in South Vietnam is the support of the rural masses.
(E) The greater the support the more effective the guerrillas become.
Which is the fitting 3rd sentence in the paragraph?
Improvements in health, education and trade are essential for the development of poorer nations.
__________, the governments of richer nations should take more responsibility for helping the
poorer nations in such areas.
The correct answer is: However
Learning Activity 3. Reading and Writing..

Read the following narrative essay:
Jerry was the kind of guy you love to hate. He was always in a good mood and always had
something positive to say. When someone would ask him how he was doing, he would reply, "If
I were any better, I would be twins!" He was a unique manager because he had several waiters
who had followed him around from restaurant to restaurant. The reason the waiters followed
Jerry was because of his attitude. He was a natural motivator. If an employee was having a bad
day, Jerry was there telling the employee how to look on the positive side of the situation.”
The writer presented what point of view?
The correct answer is: Second person
Read the following narrative essay:
I can remember my first ascension to a mountain top well. It happened about three years ago,
when it was autumn, and the weather in the mountains was gloomy. My friends offered me to
travel to the western Carpathian Mountains, and after a short period of hesitation, I accepted their
invitation. There was nothing much to do for me at the time, so I thought a change of
surrounding would only be of use to me.
What narrative device was used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Flashback
A strategy in writing a definition paragraph that shows the evolution of the word and how it was
formed.
The correct answer is: Etymology
True or False: The main aim of descriptive paragraphs is to describe a particular thing as
accurately as possible.
This is one of the terms used in writing narratives that refers to the outcome of the characters’
actions.
The correct answer is: Resolution

----There are five transition words used in the following cause and effect paragraph. Write them
in order in the given spaces below:
In recent decades, cities have grown so large that now about 50% of the Earth's population lives
in urban areas. There are several reasons for this occurrence. First, the increasing
industrialization of the nineteenth century resulted in the creation of many factory jobs, which
tended to be located in cities. These jobs, with their promise of a better material life, attracted
many people from rural areas. Second, there were many schools established to educate the
children of the new factory laborers. The promise of a better education persuaded many families
to leave farming communities and move to the cities. Finally, as the cities grew, people
established places of leisure, entertainment, and culture, such as sports stadiums, theaters, and
museums. For many people, these facilities made city life appear more interesting than life on
the farm, and therefore drew them away from rural communities.
1. for
2. first
3.second
4.finally
5.therefore

---Which of the following statements is not true?�
The correct answer is: Internet has become so widespread that it is hard to track the cause of
serious problems encountered by its users.
----Which of the following is not a proposed solution of the author?�
The correct answer is: Install anti-virus programs that could prevent potential malware.
----- According to the essay sample, which of these is not a problem specified by the author?
(Write the letter of the correct answer)
�a. children can access potentially dangerous sites�
b. news and company websites are hacked
�c. online fraud�
d. websites with unverified authenticity.
The correct answer is: d
----An example of a dangerous site that children can easily access:
The correct answer is: pornography sites
----Is the conclusion positive or negative?�
The correct answer is: Neutral�
SHORT QUIZ 1. READING AND WRITING.

True or False: It's best to think of different topics and discover various points of focus so you can
keep your options open before writing.
True or False: In brainstorming, you must find the related ideas to the topic you have in mind
and link it to subtopics.
Learning to write is a
The correct answer is: sequential
A pre-writing strategy which is the process of pouring out all your thoughts nonstop in an exact
order, language and form as you think them.
The correct answer is: Freewriting
Complete the following sentence: "Writing without _________
form and content
Correct is like a human body without skeleton; writing without ___________ is like a skeleton
with no flesh."
The correct answer is: form and content
In writing a text, these two elements must be present: content and
The correct answer is: form
Which of the following statements is true?
The correct answer is: You must come up with all the possible ideas from the pre-writing stage.
A stage in writing where you look for any mechanical errors.
True or False: The final draft does not require editing or revising.
Pre-writing requires an
The correct answer is: open
SHORT QUIZ 2. READING AND WRITING..

1. Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
[There have been immense advances in technology in most aspects of people’s lives, especially
in the field of education.]. [Nowadays, an increasing number of students rely on computers for
research and to produce a perfect paper for school purposes. ]. [Others have decided to leave the
original way of learning and to get knowledge through online schools.]. [These changes in the
learning process have brought a special concern regarding the possible decrease of importance of
teachers in the classroom.].
2. Choose the correct transition words for the paragraph from the given choices below. You may
use the same word multiple times.
Every four years, the whole world stops to watch international sporting events [such as] the
Olympics and the Football World Cup in which athletes show their best performance to make
their country proud. These sporting occasions have proved to be helpful in easing international
tension in difficult times when powerful leaders were trying to control the world’s economy and
other governments were fighting over the land.
The Olympic Games are one of the best examples which prove how sporting events can bring
nations together, at least temporarily. [from] the ancient History, [when] Greeks and Romans
would interrupt battles to participate in the games, to the more recent international disputes,
when athletes from Palestine and Israel would forget their differences, compete peacefully and
even embrace each other after an event. [moreover], these popular events have called the world’s
attention to the terrible consequences of wars; [thus] some leaders have tried to reach agreements
to end their disputes and live peacefully.
Similarly, international sporting events show benefits in some developing countries which live in
a daily internal civil war. [for example], Brazil has a high rate of unemployment, lack of
education, hunger, crime, poverty and corruption which leads to an immense embarrassment of
being Brazilian and a low self-esteem. [however], when the Football World Cup starts, the
Brazilian squad, which is considered the best team in the world, provokes an amazing feeling of
pride in their country. Most people seem to forget all their problems and even the criminal
activity decreases. They paint roads with the national colors, wear the Brazilian team shirts and
buy national flags. [moreover], the competition brings families and neighbors together and even
rival gangs watch the games and celebrate peacefully.
[in conclusion], popular sporting events play an important role in decreasing international
tensions and liberating patriotic feelings as history has shown.
3. Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
[For some people the little green tassels dropping from the trees and the fluffy pink, white, and
yellow blossoms announce the arrival of allergy season.]. [For others a big, furry dog or a soft
feather pillow brings on the sneezes or itchy eyes.]. [Still others are in trouble if they accidentally
eat honey, chocolate, or water chestnuts.]. [Although millions of Americans have allergies, no
one knows definitely how allergies develop or why some people have them and others do not.]. [
Doctors have made some progress in diagnosis.]. [Yet allergies remain a mystery that is only
partially understood and only partially treatable.].
4.Which of the following contains the topic sentence?
(A) Today’s world has been divided into developing and industrialized countries which the main
difference between them is the amount of money that governments apply in important sectors
such as education, health and commerce. (B) Most of the poorer nations are buried in debts as a
result of their unbalanced finances which are reflect in a failed health care, an unstructured
education system and a weak international trade. (C) This vicious cycle will continue indefinitely
unless wealthier nations show interest in minimizing the worldwide economic differences, as
well as taking more responsibility for assisting less fortunate countries.
The correct answer is: A
5.Choose the proper pattern of arrangement of the following jumbled paragraph.
(A) For the first time however, the waters of Laguna de Bay are serving a new and different
purpose. (B) Today, these lands can be planted to palay during off-season. (C) They are being
harnessed to water rice field along the shores which are idle during the dry season. (D) Fish
abound in its waters and its shores have been favorable breeding ground for ducks. (E) Laguna
de Bay has, for centuries, been a major source of livelihood for people living along its shores.
The correct answer is: E, C, A, B, D
6. Which among the set of sentences is most appropriate to be the 4th sentence?
(A) Yet allergies remain a mystery that is only partially understood and only partially treatable.
(B) Still others are in trouble if they accidentally eat honey, chocolate, or water chestnuts.
(C) Doctors have made some progress in diagnosis.
(D) For others a big, furry dog or a soft feather pillow brings on the sneezes or itchy eyes.
(E) Although millions of Americans have allergies, no one knows definitely how allergies
develop or why some people have them and others do not.
(F) For some people the little green tassels dropping from the trees and the fluffy pink, white,
and yellow blossoms announce the arrival of allergy season.
The correct answer is: E
7.Which of the following contains the topic sentence?
(A) As an English writer has written, “Providence in her wise disposition has placed these people
in a garden of Eden, where the means of subsistence are found without much labor, and does not
require them to toil and slave to satisfy their personal wants.” (B) By the yard stick of human
action in temperature countries, the Filipinos do not work hard. (C) Foreign writers have rashly
accused the Filipinos of “indolence.” (D) The Filipinos take life easy because of the tropical
climate and the liberality of nature. (E) Such may seem the case, but foreign critics are
interpreting it as a manifestation of racial laziness.
LONG QUIZ 1. READING AND WRITING..
A. The correct answer is:
Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
Shakespeare never grows old. Why is that? It’s because he expresses timeless truths with
unparalleled literary excellence. The study of Shakespeare is essential for a good education.
[The first reason to study Shakespeare is to develop one’s appreciation for great literature].
[Shakespeare’s genius is evident, not only in his sonnets and other poems, but in some three
dozen plays]. [His characters are vivid and his plots compelling]. [Once you’ve met them, who
can ever forget Hamlet or Lady Macbeth - his grief, or her guilt - or Beatrice and Benedick, and
their humorous banter?] It’s not an accident that Shakespeare is the most-quoted author in the
English language. [He also confers a rich vocabulary]. [The prestigious Oxford English
Dictionary estimates that Shakespeare “coined” about 1700 words]. [What better way to develop
an appreciation for great literature than by studying the best?]
[Clearly, there is an enduring value in Shakespeare]. [In addition to his literary gifts,
Shakespeare reveals deep spiritual insights]. [ The plays of Shakespeare rest upon and express a
Biblical worldview]. Although he tapped many sources for inspiration, his primary source was
Scripture. One researcher has documented over 1,300 Biblical references in Shakespeare, an
average of about forty per play. Shakespeare wrote from a God-centered, redemptive
perspective. The great Biblical themes are all there.
Given the magnitude of his contribution, it is no wonder that scholars like E. D. Hirsch have
insisted on the importance of reading Shakespeare to develop a basic, “cultural literacy.”
Shakespeare provides a wonderful ‘bridge’ for discussing the great questions of life, and for
rediscovering the richness in Western civilization.
The works of Shakespeare constitute a rich literary, spiritual and cultural treasure, just waiting
for discovery. Students of Shakespeare are rewarded for their efforts. But that’s a bonus. It’s like
getting paid to play.
B. The correct answer is:
Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
Every four years, the whole world stops to watch international sporting events such as the
Olympics and the Football World Cup in which athletes show their best performance to make
their country proud. These sporting occasions have proved to be helpful in easing international
tension in difficult times when powerful leaders were trying to control the world’s economy and
other governments were fighting over the land.
[The Olympic Games are one of the best examples which prove how sporting events can bring
nations together, at least temporarily]. [From the ancient History, when Greeks and Romans
would interrupt battles to participate in the games, to the more recent international disputes,
when athletes from Palestine and Israel would forget their differences, compete peacefully and
even embrace each other after an event]. [Moreover, these popular events have called the world’s
attention to the terrible consequences of wars; thus some leaders have tried to reach agreements
to end their disputes and live peacefully].
Similarly, international sporting events show benefits in some developing countries which live in
a daily internal civil war. [For example, Brazil has a high rate of unemployment, lack of
education, hunger, crime, poverty and corruption which leads to an immense embarrassment of
being Brazilian and a low self-esteem]. [However, when the Football World Cup starts, the
Brazilian squad, which is considered the best team in the world, provokes an amazing feeling of
pride in their country]. [Most people seem to forget all their problems and even the criminal
activity decreases]. They paint roads with the national colors, wear the Brazilian team shirts and
buy national flags. [Moreover, the competition brings families and neighbors together and even
rival gangs watch the games and celebrate peacefully].
[In conclusion, popular sporting events play an important role in decreasing international
tensions and liberating patriotic feelings as history has shown].
C. The correct answer is:
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate transition word. Choose one from the given choices below.
Turkish governments have been trying to join the European union for years. Despite all the
difficult tasks that have to be achieved in order to join the EU, Turkish governments are
persistent. Turkish citizens seem to agree with their governments, too. Why do we insist on
becoming a member of the union then? It is probably because of the differences between the
happiness levels of Turkish and EU citizens.
A study has been conducted on contentment and optimism of people in Turkey and the EU,
which revealed that as a nation we have low levels of satisfaction and happiness. Nearly two
thirds of Turkish people are discontent with their lives, [while] four fifths of the EU citizens are
satisfied with their lives. Approximately the same results can be observed on people’s thoughts
about their countries’ present and future conditions. It is obvious that people in the EU are
happier than the people in Turkey, [but] why are we unhappy and pessimistic in contrast to EU
citizens?
There are plenty of reasons for the discontentment of people in Turkey compared to those in EU,
[but] there are some reasons of greater significance, [such as] differences in income, welfare, and
stability.
[first of all], it is known that there is a great gap between the incomes of Turkish and EU
citizens. This means that a person in EU who does the same job as a person in Turkey will
receive a higher salary in Europe than in Turkey. Similarly, an unemployed person in EU is paid
more or has more pension and social rights than an unemployed person in our country.
[moreover], there is another fact which is a result of earlier ones: there are many people below
poverty line and starvation limit in Turkey. These conditions lead to dissatisfaction in the
country, we cannot be happy when we are starving, can we?
[furthermore], Turkish economic and government systems lack stability. Considering successive
crises and growths following these, it can be said that Turkish economy is fluctuating. Just as the
economy, government has no sign of continuity. Each new government blames the previous
governments and changes what they have done. These acts are justified as being necessary [but]
generally lead to nothing but corruption. Lack of continuity causes confusion, [as] people need
time to get used to new conditions. If you do not give them enough time and change the
conditions again, just like in Turkey, the result will be confusion followed by depression.
[however], in Europe there is a system that goes on without great disruptions, which means that
there is a stable life and a predictable, better to say a hopeful, future.
As I mentioned before, our persistence in joining the EU may be because of their happiness
against our discontentment. We hope to find satisfaction, which we could not find alone, in
Europe. Considering the fact that neither EU nor any other unions can grant happiness without
any effort, is it not better that we work for our own benefit, not only to join the EU?
D. Identify the topic sentence.
(A) Most people want to get married and have children. (B) Perhaps they want to leave a trace or
offspring after them, so that they become somehow “immortal”. (C) And it is commonly said
that children are the ultimate bliss in our lives. (D) Although many people agree with this
statement, to my mind, it is not true
The correct answer is: D
E.Identify the topic sentence.
(A) Everyday in one way or another we are trying to find happiness in a complete chaos, that is
what all we are struggling for. (B) Actually, temporary happiness is everywhere if we want to
find it and search for it. (C) Sometimes it is just as close as a cute kitten to us, sometimes giving
a hand to someone who is in need of us is enough. (D) Even taking a breath may give somebody
the absolute happiness at times. (E) But what if we leave temporary happiness alone and decide
to construct our lives on basic principles of permanent happiness? (F) Certainly these principles
depend on one’s characteristics and point of view. (G) In my opinion, social relations,
acceptance and independence are the most important elements of permanent happiness in life.
The correct answer is: G
F. Identify the topic sentence.
(A) The expansion of the world population is the most important problem that should be solved
in order not to confront in the near future big social problems such as bad economic
circumstances and lack of resources, food and housing. (B) Birth control, although may lead to
religious, cultural and moral objections, is the fastest way to reduce the population growth rate.
(C) Therefore, governments should begin programs of birth control even in a compulsory manner
due to the fact that group survival is more important than individual freedom.
long quiz 2. reading and writing..
----What type of definition is used in the given paragraph?
Newton’s First Law: If the total force acting on an object is zero, its center of mass continues in
the same state of motion.
In other words, an object initially at rest is predicted to remain at rest if the total force acting on
it is zero, and an object in motion remains in motion with the same velocity in the same
direction. The converse of Newton’s first law is also true: if we observe an object moving with
constant velocity along a straight line, then the total force on it must be zero. You may encounter
the term “net force,” which is simply a synonym for total force
The correct answer is: Denotation
----True or False: The rising action refers to events caused by the climax.
.----Read the following paragraph and identify what type of description is used:
Back in 1999 this fearless athlete posed in this football picture. In the far distance below the
cloudless sky stands an off-white stadium. Embedded in the center is large, cracked, blue,
painted, letters that spell out BISON. Beneath the old stadium are rows of worn-out bleachers
which are completely empty. Up in front stands the competitor down on one knee. As you
observe more, the sport player is wearing a blue Bison jersey sporting the number 60. To the left
above the freshly trimmed green grass that engulfs this player’s figure lays a football. In the
center of the picture, you see her pale white face and dark brown eyes. Around these features you
can not help but notice the bronzed hair; which appears to be pulled back around this slender
face. Her stern look shows how proud she is; nonetheless, all the confidence she carries on her
padded up shoulders. This unique woman is not only elegant and brave; she is my sister,
Margaret Eva Hoyt.
The correct answer is: Subjective description
-----Read the given paragraph below:
Differences Between Tokyo and Kyoto
In recent decades, the title of one of the most popular cultures worldwide should be definitely
given to Japan. Millions of people all over the world study the Japanese language, watch dorama
(dramatic TV series on all kinds of topics) or animation, read and write haiku, and make pen pals
with Japanese people. Countless people buy tickets and fly to the country of the rising sun to see
its wonders with their own eyes.
Among the most popular destinations—mostly because these city names are most known to the
western public—are Tokyo and Kyoto. And perhaps for an inexperienced traveler, there is a
dilemma: where to go? Mostly, people know that Tokyo is a mega city of the future, and Kyoto
has more to do with ancient culture, traditions, and so on. Basically it is true, but at the same
time, there also exist more subtle differences one should consider when choosing their
destination point in Japan.
The first of them is prices. Tokyo is expensive—as you might expect from the capital of the most
urbanized country in the world (the prices below are listed in Japanese yen: 1 USD
approximately equals 100 yen). So, to grab some inexpensive snack in Tokyo would cost around
850 yen. Having a three-course meal for two people in a mid-range restaurant, in case you travel
with your spouse, will cost you 5,230 yen. A one-way ticket on Tokyo transport costs you 190
yen, and renting one room apartment outside of the city center costs 77,853 yen (and this is
probably a weekly price). Just do not expect this apartment to be big and cozy; most likely it will
be tiny, with basic utilities, and with no central heating (actually, there is no such thing in Japan
at all—everyone warms their house up on their own). If you think of buying an apartment in
Tokyo, forget it—one square meter of a room outside of the city center is around 1 million yen
(double the price if you want to live closer to the city center).
Kyoto is not much cheaper. Although dining in a restaurant is cheaper—only 4,000 yen for two
persons in a mid-range restaurant—transportation costs are surprisingly higher: 235 yen for a
ride (however, if you want to purchase a monthly pass, it is cheaper to do in Kyoto rather than in
Tokyo: 8,410 yen compared to 10,000 yen). If you think you can save some money buying food
in a market, you are correct only in particulars: some products in Japan cost a lot of money no
matter where you buy them. For example, white rice costs 850 yen for 1 kg in Kyoto (453 yen in
Tokyo). White bread, tomatoes, chicken breasts, and especially cheese—these are the most
expensive products both in Kyoto and in Tokyo. Speaking of accommodation, renting or buying
an apartment in Kyoto is much cheaper: for a one room apartment outside of Kyoto’s center, you
must pay 48,000 yen to rent, or 300,000 yen per square meter if you want to buy it
(Numbeo.com).
Tokyo is great to visit if you enjoy hustle and bustle, if you want to feel the heartbeat of a mega-
city, dive into its life, and experience all those crazy things people in the West usually tell about
Japan. Be prepared for the overcrowded subway— and “overcrowded” is a gentle way to put it;
in fact, you can take a 60-minute ride in the subway, and your feet will not even touch the floor,
because you will be squeezed between other people so tight that you can even take a nap in this
position. Kyoto, on the other hand, is good to visit for all those who feel inspired by traditional
Japanese culture: haiku, hanami, court customs, the No theater, and so on. In Kyoto, you will not
see amazing skyscrapers, over 280 subway stations, and the craziness of the famous Shibuya
crossing; instead, get prepared for temples, tea houses, museums: all things antique and
authentic. But, if you want modernity, go to Tokyo, and you will not feel disappointed—this city
already lives in the future (Go Overseas).
It is difficult to say which city is better for an inexperienced tourist to visit, Tokyo or Kyoto.
Kyoto is cheaper, especially in terms of renting an apartment, and is more suitable for those
looking for the old Japanese culture weaved into sophisticated palaces made during Heian-jidai.
Tokyo, on the contrary, is an enormous metropolis, with crazy prices, crazy transportation, crazy
everything. The atmospheres are different, but both of the cities will make you awed, so if you
have a chance, you should definitely visit them.
Based on the given example of compare and contrast essay, which of the two cities is cheaper in
terms of dining?
The correct answer is: Kyoto
------True or False: Descriptive paragraphs may or may not appeal to the five senses of the
readers.
----Cause and effect requires a
The correct answer is: coherent
-------The correct answer is:
Based on the sample paragraph, complete the outline:
I. [Personal Computer]
A. [Desktop]
- [permanent location required]
- [more power]
- [more storage]
- [more versatile]
B. [Laptop/notebook]
- [portable]
- [battery-operated]
- [slightly larger than a hardcover book]
II. [Workstation]
A. [enhanced capabilities]
B. [suitable for game development]
III. [Server]
A. [needs optimization]
B. [lots of memory]
IV. [Main frame]
A. [network of terminals]
V. [Supercomputer]
B. [for massive jobs of calculation]
-----Read the given paragraph below:
Differences Between Tokyo and Kyoto
In recent decades, the title of one of the most popular cultures worldwide should be definitely
given to Japan. Millions of people all over the world study the Japanese language, watch dorama
(dramatic TV series on all kinds of topics) or animation, read and write haiku, and make pen pals
with Japanese people. Countless people buy tickets and fly to the country of the rising sun to see
its wonders with their own eyes.
Among the most popular destinations—mostly because these city names are most known to the
western public—are Tokyo and Kyoto. And perhaps for an inexperienced traveler, there is a
dilemma: where to go? Mostly, people know that Tokyo is a mega city of the future, and Kyoto
has more to do with ancient culture, traditions, and so on. Basically it is true, but at the same
time, there also exist more subtle differences one should consider when choosing their
destination point in Japan.
The first of them is prices. Tokyo is expensive—as you might expect from the capital of the most
urbanized country in the world (the prices below are listed in Japanese yen: 1 USD
approximately equals 100 yen). So, to grab some inexpensive snack in Tokyo would cost around
850 yen. Having a three-course meal for two people in a mid-range restaurant, in case you travel
with your spouse, will cost you 5,230 yen. A one-way ticket on Tokyo transport costs you 190
yen, and renting one room apartment outside of the city center costs 77,853 yen (and this is
probably a weekly price). Just do not expect this apartment to be big and cozy; most likely it will
be tiny, with basic utilities, and with no central heating (actually, there is no such thing in Japan
at all—everyone warms their house up on their own). If you think of buying an apartment in
Tokyo, forget it—one square meter of a room outside of the city center is around 1 million yen
(double the price if you want to live closer to the city center).
Kyoto is not much cheaper. Although dining in a restaurant is cheaper—only 4,000 yen for two
persons in a mid-range restaurant—transportation costs are surprisingly higher: 235 yen for a
ride (however, if you want to purchase a monthly pass, it is cheaper to do in Kyoto rather than in
Tokyo: 8,410 yen compared to 10,000 yen). If you think you can save some money buying food
in a market, you are correct only in particulars: some products in Japan cost a lot of money no
matter where you buy them. For example, white rice costs 850 yen for 1 kg in Kyoto (453 yen in
Tokyo). White bread, tomatoes, chicken breasts, and especially cheese—these are the most
expensive products both in Kyoto and in Tokyo. Speaking of accommodation, renting or buying
an apartment in Kyoto is much cheaper: for a one room apartment outside of Kyoto’s center, you
must pay 48,000 yen to rent, or 300,000 yen per square meter if you want to buy it
(Numbeo.com).
Tokyo is great to visit if you enjoy hustle and bustle, if you want to feel the heartbeat of a mega-
city, dive into its life, and experience all those crazy things people in the West usually tell about
Japan. Be prepared for the overcrowded subway— and “overcrowded” is a gentle way to put it;
in fact, you can take a 60-minute ride in the subway, and your feet will not even touch the floor,
because you will be squeezed between other people so tight that you can even take a nap in this
position. Kyoto, on the other hand, is good to visit for all those who feel inspired by traditional
Japanese culture: haiku, hanami, court customs, the No theater, and so on. In Kyoto, you will not
see amazing skyscrapers, over 280 subway stations, and the craziness of the famous Shibuya
crossing; instead, get prepared for temples, tea houses, museums: all things antique and
authentic. But, if you want modernity, go to Tokyo, and you will not feel disappointed—this city
already lives in the future (Go Overseas).
It is difficult to say which city is better for an inexperienced tourist to visit, Tokyo or Kyoto.
Kyoto is cheaper, especially in terms of renting an apartment, and is more suitable for those
looking for the old Japanese culture weaved into sophisticated palaces made during Heian-jidai.
Tokyo, on the contrary, is an enormous metropolis, with crazy prices, crazy transportation, crazy
everything. The atmospheres are different, but both of the cities will make you awed, so if you
have a chance, you should definitely visit them.
Which of the two cities has the higher cost for transportation?
The correct answer is: Kyoto
=----This refers to the logical transition of one sentence or paragraph to another
The correct answer is: consistency
----
_____ refers to the technique that suggest hints on future events in a story.
The correct answer is: Foreshadowing
----True or False: The subject in a descriptive paragraph may be conveyed in detail through an
explanation of its significance.
LONG QUIZ 3. READING AND WRITING..
Read the following essay and answer the following questions.
The times when parents were responsible for their children’s academic accomplishments—and
students themselves—seem to have gone. Nowadays, many people believe it is the high school
administration, teachers, and the government that are responsible for students getting good
grades. Before, when you got an F, your parents would blame you; today, they would rather go
to your school and demand your teacher to give you a better grade. Such an approach leads to
irresponsible behavior: students care less about their grades and start skipping classes,
considering them to be boring. And although there is seemingly nothing wrong with skipping a
boring class you think you would not need in future, in fact doing so has a number of negative
impacts on your future.
To start with, parents of a student who skips school lose huge amounts of money (given that it is
not the student who pays for studying). In the United States, free education is a rare privilege;
every single class skipped is worth a certain amount of money. Whether a student studies at high
school, college, or university, it does not matter—the average cost of a skipped class is in the
range between $50 to $100 (IFR). If a student chooses to skip classes regularly, it will cost him
or her or his or her parents a lot of money annually, without getting the result: education and
knowledge.
The likeliness to get lower grades when skipped classes is another consequence. Whereas those
who stay in class obtain at least some knowledge, even if they are not bright, a person who skips
classes is at higher risks of obtaining no knowledge at all. Besides, teachers may have a bias
toward such a student, and will treat him or her unfairly even though this person might be bright
and studied the subject on his or her own. Needless to say, this situation can lead to a failure
during exams or getting expelled from an educational institution (FRI).
According to research, only five absences is usually enough for a student’s academic
performance to drop. Five more absences would most likely lead to a decreased chance to
graduate a particular educational institution: on average, skippers are about 20% less likely to
successfully graduate. If a student studies at high school, he or she has a 25% less chance to enter
any type of higher education institution. They are also 2.5 times more likely to have to live on
welfare compared to their more disciplined peers (Middle Earth).
Skipping classes has yet another not-so-obvious consequence: a student is more likely to become
engaged in activities that neither the American society nor the legislative system would approve.
Skipping classes does not always imply staying at home; more likely, a student would spend
their time outdoors, and chances to get involved in antisocial behavior (substance abuse,
shoplifting, gambling, and so on) increase. No need to say it can cause a person to enter prison
eventually.
Skipping classes is not so harmless as it might seem. It is a direct waste of money for all those
who have to pay for the education—and such people are the majority. Students who skip classes
are more likely to get lower grades and face a biased attitude from their teachers; moreover, they
have lower chances to successfully graduate, and enroll in a college—of any type. Such students
are also more likely to live on welfare, and get engaged in antisocial behavior. Therefore, this
problem should be treated with all possible attention from teachers, parents, and authorities.
QUESTIONS:
Paragraph order: Logical order =logical
Signal words used (arranged according to its order in the essay):
1. before
2.today
3. although
4. in fact
5.to start with
6.Whether.. or
7.if
8.whereas
9.even if
10. besides
11.According to
12. yet
13.such
14. therefore
Type of paragraph development: Answer:
cause and effect
THIRD PERIODICAL EXAM. READING WRITING.
The most common method of discovering a topic.
The correct answer is: Brainstorming
Which step in writing process includes coming up with ideas for you to write?
The correct answer is: Pre-writing
Tell which figure of speech is used in the following sentences.
The leaves of the trees waved in the wind
.The correct answer is: Personification
The sequential flow of ideas in a sentence.
The correct answer is: Coherence
Each level of an outline must have same grammatical structures.
The correct answer is: Parallel structure
_________ is the part of the story where the characters and setting are introduced. It also tells
backstories and other important plot events.
The correct answer is: Exposition
The logical transition of one sentence or paragraph to another.
The correct answer is: Consistency
_________ is the formal definition of a term.
Laughter is music for the soul.
The correct answer is: Metaphor
Her eyes were like fireflies
.The correct answer is: Simile
Which of these statements are supporting details?
I. But they face certain problems which cannot be discussed with his relatives – in whatever
relation they may stand and here is the need of a friend, of course a true friend. There is no
matter which cannot be discussed with a friend.
II. Friendship is seen even among animals.
III. Men of similar moral idea irrespective of social, cultural, educational and financial idea may
grow true friendship.
The correct answer is: Both II and III are supporting details
The correct answer is: Both II and III are supporting details
_________ shows the formation of the word and how it has evolved through time.
The correct answer is: Etymology
There are terms that are defined by the author’s perspective and experiences. What are these
terms called?
The correct answer is: Connotation
Nordquist suggested the structure of paragraphs in a problem-solution essay to serve as a guide
on what to include in that type of essay. Which of the following is the elaboration of the
problems and the search for the solution?
The correct answer is: Problem Paragraph
The most unrestrained method in finding a suitable topic.
The correct answer is: Freewriting
Which of the following is the best test of friendship?
The correct answer is: Adversity
Which step in the writing process includes expressing ideas in sentences and paragraphs?
The correct answer is: Writing
Why are human beings the best creation of God?
The correct answer is: Because human beings have moral feelings.
I’m so hungry I could eat a horse!
The correct answer is: Hyperbole
The time and the place where the story takes place.
The correct answer is: Setting
Which of the following sentences is not coherent?
The correct answer is: Summer is the smell of mowed grass, the sound of outdoor concerts, and
the way grilled hamburgers taste.
The highest point in a story.
The correct answer is: Climax
Which of the following statements is true about the three main principles in developing
classification paragraphs?
I. The specific items identified in paragraphs must belong to one class only to avoid confusion.
II. Classification paragraphs must contain consistency wherein one sentence or paragraph is
parallel to another.
III. Classification paragraphs require the writer to include connected classes/groups to the
paragraph to complete the image of the main idea.
The correct answer is: All of the statements are correct.
Which step in the writing process includes correcting mechanical errors and filtering the
information needed to get your point across?
The technique in finding a writing topic by finding the relationships between ideas.
The correct answer is: Clustering
The element of a paragraph that gives life to the characters and gives sense to the setting.
The correct answer is: Plot
A story cannot be without a foundation. The writer gives the readers a view of what has
happened to the characters in the past and how they came to be. Which narrative device is used
to show these parts of the story?
The correct answer is: Backstory
The intent of dividing items into groups.
The correct answer is: Exclusiveness
Which of the following sentences is the topic sentence of the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Friendship means closeness, association, relationship, and mutual trust –
without any selfish motive.
Which of the following is not true about the topic sentence of a paragraph?
The correct answer is: The topic sentence gives life to the paragraph.
Which step in the writing process includes checking for errors of your work?
The correct answer is: Editing
_________ is the outcome of the events and the character’s actions.
Read the paragraph and answer the following questions.
There are a few places that can boast an act of creation everyday. A newspaper is one of them.
Out of the daily newsroom whirl emerges a remarkable product. In a matter of hours, thousands
of words and pictures are put together in a cohesive pattern designed to inform, enlighten, and
entertain the reader. To a casual observer, the men and women working in the newsroom may
appear to be running about aimlessly amid the clatter of typewriters and the continually ringing
telephones. Actually, the scurrying around, the occasional shouting, the general air of excitement
are all part of a controlled procedure. Each editor, reporter, and copyboy has a designated job,
the end result of which is the newspaper that rolls off the press on time.
1. The topic sentence in the paragraph is sentence number
ANSWER: three =3
2. The type of paragraph development: Answer
descriptive =description
3. Give one signal word from the paragraph, indicating space, location and place. Answer: amid
Which narrative device is used by the writer to present hints to future events?
The correct answer is: Foreshadowing
Based on the paragraph, why are true friendships rarely seen?
The correct answer is: Because true friendships depend upon selection of a friend.
There are terms that are associated with indirectly related words through analogy. What are these
terms called?
The correct answer is: Comparison
He’s as gentle as a bunny.
The correct answer is: Simile
Learning Activity 7 (Reading and Writing Skills)

Which among the following choices is the most suitable/strongest inference for the given
sentence?
"He admitted to plagiarizing this piece of text."
---The correct answer is: There are several passages that are exactly the same in structure, albeit
the use of synonyms
In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall?
What is the author trying to emphasize in the text?
---The correct answer is: Drawing Conclusions
How does this statement relate to the other parts of the text?
---The correct answer is: Organization
Statements of ______ may be proven through personal observations, researches, and
experimentation.
---The correct answer is: fact
To whom did the author intend to write the text for?
---The correct answer is: Audience
So, although on the surface volunteering may look like “working for free,” in fact it is a great
investment in one’s future career.
---The correct answer is: Claim of value
Defense mechanisms are numerous, and each person has a set of their own.
---The correct answer is: Claim of fact
Stories about being abducted by aliens are frightening, because knowing the size of the Universe,
one can never be sure that aliens do not exist, or that their intentions are non-hostile.
During your first two days in a hostel, you can meet more new people than you did throughout
your whole last year of office work.
Too much alcohol may cause a lot of heart-related diseases.

This is portrayed by the use paraphrasing another author's statement. What is being described?
---The correct answer is: Intertext
This is achieved through an accumulation of a variety of texts connecting to a single text to form
a meaning. What is being described?
This goes beyond what is included in the text, with references a reader can easily access. What is
being described?
---The correct answer is: Hypertext
The commonly used strategy in digital media/text. What is being described?
This analyzes the media in which the text is used. What is being described?
---The correct answer is: Context

Rowling created truly vivid characters; however, not all of them revealed their potential from the
very beginning. Surprisingly, the one who truly took his time before finally showing his
personality was Harry. Whereas Ron, Hermione, Draco, Snape, and other characters possessed
vivid and readable personalities from the very beginning, for a long time, Harry remains some
kind of an “event-trigger,” whose main goal is to move the story forward.
---The correct answer is: Counterclaim
Many high school graduates simply do not have an opportunity to continue their education right
away (Saiz, Report on Education to Career Conversion).
---The correct answer is: Assertion - fact
They conducted a study in which a group of healthy young men slept 8 hours one night, and then
abstained from sleep another night.
Abortion causes severe psychological and emotional damage to a woman who has undergone
this surgery.
---The correct answer is: Claim
R. Dworkin does something rather novel and considers that, rather than being immoral,
something could be from a different moral code (1977, p. 995). This, of course, makes perfect
sense, and is what I have said already. I would even go so far as to suggest that it is impossible to
act immorally. This is another reason morality and legality must remain separate, because,
whereas illegal acts exist, immoral ones do not.

What did the main idea of the story make you feel as the reader? Identify what is described.
---The correct answer is: theme
A review of Harry Potter contains the following passage:
It all starts in a rather trivial way though—with a boy being branded as the “unique one,” a
survivor of a terrible assault with a destiny to defeat an evil overlord. However, this is the basic
layer of the story, so to say.
What guide question did it answer?
---The correct answer is: What is the conflict of the story?
You must have an interest in the book you're analyzing.
---The correct answer is: True
After reading the book, that's when to take notes of what you have read.
---The correct answer is: False
This is where you identify the climax of the story.
---The correct answer is: plot

A part of the research report that gives the synthesis of the supporting details.
---The correct answer is: Review of Literature
The part of a research report that describes the procedure to arrive at the result.
---The correct answer is: Methods
This part of a research report describes the instrument used to arrive at a result.
This identifies what type of research it is going to be.
---The correct answer is: Research questions/hypothesis
The step in writing a research report wherein you formulate questions related to the topic.
---The correct answer is: planning the research

It is in bad taste to stress your interest in applying for the job in the company.
Identify which part of the resume the following information belongs to:
Certificate of N5 level Japanese Language Proficiency.
---The correct answer is: Educational qualifications
Experienced with Moodle.
---The correct answer is: Technical/software skills
You may choose not to include your address in the email copy of your application letter.
The application letter must be in strict business letter format.
Short Quiz 7 (Reading and Writing Skills)

How does this contribute to the variety of texts done discussing the same topic?
---The correct answer is: Research/Sources
The text does not have a meaning by itself.
Is the stand of the author clear?
---The correct answer is: Topic and position
sentence?
"Drug use is detrimental to society."
---The correct answer is: There has been multiple instances and cases displaying the dire
consequences of drugs on people.
Where was the text published or found?
---The correct answer is: Audience
Which of the following words does not signal a statement of opinion?
---The correct answer is: according to
This is a strategy that is purposefully writing a passage leaning towards a single perspective.
---The correct answer is: slanting
In what tone did the author write the text?
---The correct answer is: Style
sentence?
"This group has garnered the most music awards for this year."
---The correct answer is: They have received multiple awards from different award-giving
bodies.
What do you call the terms used in a text that need further definition as they are exclusively used
in a field of study?
---The correct answer is: jargon

If you move to China, you will discover another reason why this country is worth moving to: its
prices.
The police should be responsible of the people’s safety and not a source of fear.
---The correct answer is: Claim of policy
Global warming, despite others’ doubts, exists.
The four circles, or stages of mourning are denial, anger, bargaining, and depression; the exit is
acceptance.
Let us choose to believe the opposite, and not doubt the possibility of us being the masters of our
lives, so that no ‘cunning demon’ can distract us with false perceptions and throw us off the right
path.
At least 25 percent of the federal budget should be spent on helping upgrade business to clean
technologies, researching renewable energy sources, and planting more trees in order to control
or eliminate pollution.
Volunteering is a great alternative to a number of other activities, since it can help you acquire
work experience and get a job.
Time is gold.
Anger can be effectively used to establish and defend your personal boundaries, personal space,
sense of justice, beliefs, and so on.
Western classical music has not just artistic and cultural value, but also causes a number of
unexpected and (fortunately) positive effects on the human mind.

Through this, the text related to the topic you are reading may be easily found through search
engines. What is being described?
At its whole, this will heavily affect the way the text is written. What is being described?
These are the circumstances surrounding a topic. What is being described?
This is also known as "interactive multimedia."
This can be divided into static (or something prepared or stored in advance) or dynamic
(something that continually changes). What is being described?
In the analysis of this, even the way pictures are selected is scrutinized. What is being described?
This is described as "a structural analysis of texts in relation to the larger system of signifying
practices or uses of signs in culture." What is being described?
A nonlinear way of presenting information. What is being described?
This refers to the occasion or situation in which the reader can consider while analyzing. What is
being described?
This builds relationships and connections among social meanings. What is being described?

St. Thomas Aquinas gave five proofs for God’s existence. The first two are cosmological: there
can be no uncaused cause, so the universe could not have created itself, so there must be a first
cause/prime mover, (Appiah, 2003, p. 322), which he calls “God.” This, in my view, does not
prove anything. He is saying the universe cannot have come from nothing, but its creator can. If
God is an exception to the “no uncaused cause” rule, why cannot the universe be? (Russell,
1927).
Lord Templeman suggested that the issue of consent was irrelevant to the question of the
illegality of an action, since the latter constitutes a breach of the peace. This traces back to high-
minded English snobbery about a king needing able-bodied soldiers. The idea seems to be that a
society is more important than its individuals. But this is, of course, erroneous, for it seems
obvious, upon reflection, that there can be nothing more sacred than individual liberty.
On the other hand, the exploitation of the system of standardized testing is linked to a number of
issues. Thus, many feel that tests do not provide accurate evaluations of a student’s knowledge
and learning capabilities, particularly due to the fact that in order to pass a test, a simple
memorization is preferred to critical thinking and higher learning (Strong 254).
Of course, any book can be described like this; for example, the plot of “The Lord of the Rings”
can be described even in a shorter way: “Four guys go to a dangerous land to defeat ancient evil
by destroying an important artifact, and their friends help them.” However, unlike Tolkien’s
novel, Twilight has nothing to offer to a reader except the events described in the previous
paragraph. This is ridiculous, considering four published books, some sort of online
encyclopedia, and movies.
It is equally possible many gods could exist. Furthermore, St. Thomas uses “God” as a label for
the first cause. The first cause is not necessarily the Christian God (Dawkins, 2007, p. 101)—all-
knowing, all-powerful, and all-good (all-k.p.g.), or anything God is usually considered to be.
Insomnia affects not only the mind, but also the body in ways no less devastating; specifically,
according to a study conducted by the University of Chicago, sleep deprivation is closely
connected to the reduced control of blood-sugar levels.
Insomnia, or sleep deprivation, is a dangerous condition leading to a wide range of health
problems.
Studying is a necessity rather than a privilege.
A woman who has undergone the abortion procedure may develop such persistent symptoms as
shame, a sense of isolation, a loss of self-confidence and/or trust in other people, nightmares,
insomnia, anxiety, loneliness, and suicidal thoughts. As an unpleasant bonus, these symptoms
can be accompanied with various eating disorders (American Pregnancy Association).
What epicness is there in a lovey-dovey story about a relationship between a schoolgirl and a
vampire? Obviously none, neither in the novel, nor in the movies—it is simply a marketing turn
aimed at making the source look like something more worthwhile than it is.
---The correct answer is: Assertion - opinion

A review of the Twilight Saga contains the following passage:
The first and foremost question: why would a 104 year-old person fall in love with a teenager?
Theoretically, people get wiser when they get older, although reality proves it is not necessarily
so. I would understand if Edward treated Bella as an adopted daughter, at least. But love? There
is a special word for adult men having romantic and sexual relationships with teen girls. Also,
according to folklore, vampires are sadistic, vile, and sexually-insatiable creatures, so in a proper
vampire story, exploitation and being devoured would be Bella’s only options. But a true, clean,
and romantic love? This is stupid. The only reason why it became possible is probably because
aging has negatively affected Edward’s (and his family’s) mental capabilities. Also, why would
Bella not feel scared of knowing people who suck blood, or who can turn into savage beasts?
What kind of weird taste or fetish is that? And it is not only Bella and Edward acting weird—
Jacob, Victoria, the vampire clans, and other folks appearing in Twilight seem to have little to no
common sense, reason, or logic.
What guide question did it answer?
---The correct answer is: What is the weakness of the plot?
Where did the story take place and how does it relate to the story?
---The correct answer is: setting
In evaluating an article, it is important for it to be generally unknown so you can grab the
reader's attention.
A critique must contain the following parts except for:
---The correct answer is: comparison with other relevant works
This part of the literary analysis gives the subtopics.
---The correct answer is: body
It is important to dwell on the author's life and his works in a literature analysis.
There are different interpretations of a single literature. There may be similarities in some but
there will always be differences.
This part of a literature review contains the general indications of the work.
---The correct answer is: introduction
What happens in the story that changed the course of the character/s?
---The correct answer is: conflict
In writing a critique, focus on the flaws of the text.

The part of a project proposal that gives the funding details.
---The correct answer is: budget
The cover sheet must be in ______ format.
---The correct answer is: APA
A part of the project detail that emphasizes what the project can contribute to a group of people
in the society.
---The correct answer is: Deliverables
An element of a good project proposal that details where to get the funds to bring the project to
fruition.
---The correct answer is: Resources
A part of the project proposal that identifies similar solutions.
---The correct answer is: motivation
This informs the recipient of what the project aims to achieve.
---The correct answer is: goals and objectives
The references of the research report is recommended to be in MLA format.
A part of the project detail that uses diagrams to illustrate what tools to use in the
implementation of the project.
---The correct answer is: Architecture and environment
This gives what the end product of the project is.
---The correct answer is: Deliverables
This part of the project details identifies the implementation challenges.
---The correct answer is: project details

Use any font you want in creating your resume as long as it is somewhat readable.
Skilled in written and oral communication.
---The correct answer is: Key skills
Finished a Bachelor's Degree in Accountancy (2011-2015)
I have volunteered for various non-government organizations, handling public relations and
advertising of events. (She is applying for PR specialist in a company)
---The correct answer is: Opening statement
The opening paragraph of your application letter must contain:
---The correct answer is: how you learned about the position or the company
Your resume must include your birthday and gender.
Prior research about the company you're applying for helps in composing your application letter.
Factual errors in your resume are worse than typographical errors.
Which is the usual format followed in sending an application letter via email?
---The correct answer is: name, position
Can handle pressure.
---The correct answer is: Personal attributes
Long Quiz 4 (Reading and Writing Skills)

Critical reading is a way to identify new ways of thinking.
Often mistaken as a plagiarized passage.
A strategy in critical reading that requires the reader to put himself/herself on the author's shoes.
---The correct answer is: Contextualizing
This involves the analysis of the author's use of signs in obtaining the meaning of the text.
This element of text is identified for the reader to know how this was developed and asserted
throughout the text.
---The correct answer is: purpose
Therefore, I think it is important to learn to distinguish between light constructive feelings of
care, and intense romantic addiction, which can lead to unforeseen consequences.
The death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective means of punishment.
Feminism should be seen as a movement that has a role and value for the real world that is
extremely difficult to underestimate.
You will identify this through comparing and contrasting the text to other works.
---The correct answer is: What a text does
This uses various techniques such as allusion, quotation and referencing.
Reading like a writer can help you understand how the process of writing is a series of making
choices, and in doing so, can help you recognize important decisions you might face and
techniques you might want to use when working on your own writing.
This helps the reader control the level of detail of the document he/she is examining.
Video games are perhaps the most popular and widespread form of entertainment at present.
One of the most important functions of the judicial system is to punish the criminals and to
protect the innocent.
Instead of killing time playing Angry Birds, one might want to use their gadget as a learning
tool—modern mobile devices are perfectly suited for this purpose.
In ____, the critical reader does not accept anything at face value, thus recognizing the fact that
everything must be thoroughly understood.
---The correct answer is: evaluating an argument
The following are the types of reading and discussion in critical reading except:
---The correct answer is: What a text will do
You will identify this through taking notes and paraphrasing the key points.
---The correct answer is: What a text says
Standardized tests are meant to set a high standard and promote objectivity.
For political correctness to achieve its goals, too many words have to be banned.
Critical reading may only consist of negative observations and analysis.
One of the main purposes of testing is to set a standard: a performance baseline of progress for
all parties involved in the educational process—students, teachers, and school districts, and to
hold them accountable for achieving it.
People in democratic countries vote for their candidates on presidential elections, freely express
themselves, practice any religion they want, and enjoy many other rights and freedoms, all of
which are guarded by numerous laws, bills, non-governmental organizations, and so on.
This is used to establish connections between language, images, characters, topics, themes and
the like.
It is recommended to read looking only for facts and more information.
This type of reading aims to find a particular piece of information in a text.
---The correct answer is: scanning
Execution is actually a judicial murder.
Critical reading aims to find the faults and flaws in the text.
It is important to slowly read and savor the text you're reading in order to critically analyze it.
It's deemed irrelevant to consider other points of view other than what the text presents.
Long Quiz 5 (Reading and Writing Skills)
Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls:
The study, "A Content Analysis of The Catalyst’s News Stories From 1986 to 2010", seeks to
find out how The Catalyst, the official student publication of Polytechnic University of the
Philippines selected and treated the news articles they have published from 1986 to 2010.
The researchers wanted to classify the news issues which The Catalyst gave emphasis on into
categories: Political, Financial/Economic, Peace and Order, Social, Rebellion, Religious,
Sports/Entertainment, Miscellaneous and Politics within University. The researchers also sorted
The Catalyst’s news articles in terms of the following: Scope/Origin, Chronology/Sequence,
Structure and Content. Lastly, the researchers intended to determine the treatment and the tone of
the news articles.
The researchers used convenience sampling method. The researchers have content analyzed 84
existing issues from the year 1986 up to 2010. The researchers categorized 586 news articles
from the said issues into categories based on the criteria following the three major variables in
content analysis by Elena Pernia (2004).
Based on the observations and results of the content analysis, it was determined that The
Catalyst’s style changed from the orthodox style in 1986 to different forms of layout in the later
years. Moreover, The Catalyst transitioned from using blue ink to mainly using black ink and
later on red ink.
Moreover, the scope of The Catalyst’s news was mostly local. The student publication usually
covered events within the university. Most of the student publication’s news stories were straight
news. The news articles were mostly treated as neutral, meaning the news were written merely as
statement of events in the simplest and most objective way. The researchers concluded that The
Catalyst has performed its duty as the official student publication of PUP through disseminating
information that would be of concern to the students and the university.
---The correct answer is:
Abstract
The researchers used the three major variables by Pernia (2004) as basic instrument in analyzing
the news stories of The Catalyst. With each category is a set of keywords to make the coding
easier for the coders. The coders would determine the category an article belongs to through the
keywords provided.
The researchers analyzed all the news stories of each issue of The Catalyst starting from 1986 up
to 2010, with the exception of the special issues released and the issues without dates available in
the university archives. There were no recorded issues of The Catalyst in the year 1989 and 1990
due to problems within the publication while there were no issues for the year 1999 at the
archives during the time of the coding. News roundups and news bits in every issue are also not
included in this particular study but would focus on the stories in the news section and sports
section.
---The correct answer is: Limitations
Due to lack of job opportunities here in the Philippines, there are Filipinos who were willing to
work abroad to earn higher salary compared to the Philippines’. These people are called OFWs
or Overseas Filipino Workers. They are ready to sacrifice their lives here in the Philippines for
the sake of earning more money. Because of this, they were referred to as “New Heroes”.
Our government is not that vocal about the progress of the country’s economy through the help
of OFWs yet they encourage more Filipinos to accept different jobs abroad.
The OFWs’ children are the ones highly by their parent’s departure. They have to suffer the
loneliness of not having their parent/s with them.
Although they have guardians to look after them and to care for them, nothing can compare to a
parent’s love and affection.
There are laws and agencies that protect and support OFWs but the child would not be ensured
of their parent’s safety. They would be surely anxious of the condition of their parents because of
the distance that makes the young ones worry about them.
---The correct answer is: Results
In line with this, the scope of the publication’s news articles is within the immediate proximity
which is the university and its branches. Therefore, these findings reflect that The Catalyst does
its duty as the student publication to serve the student body, first and foremost.
The ruling quantity of news classified into spot news depicted that the abundance of news within
the local proximity were given the utmost priority by the editorial board. Events which occurred
in PUP demanded immediate publication to easily spread the information to the rest of the
university.
---The correct answer is: Conclusion
Departure of Filipinos was beneficial to the country and to the families of OFWs, since the dollar
reserve that we can get from them saved us from economic turmoil. But let us think about the
children as well, they may experience great loneliness due to their parent’s absence.
Communication is important, considering the distance between the parent and the child. The
OFWs should communicate with their children regularly so as not to create a distance between
them. It could also help the child if the parent is easily approachable. Imagine if communicating
devices did not exist. It would be a great suffering for both the parents and the children since
snail mail, the alternative communication, would take a long time of process just to reach the
receiver, unlike e-mail, in which the message would be sent in just a matter of seconds.
If the parents truly care for the child, they would always make a way to extend their love
overseas to reach them through communication.
The children also need their guardians to plan “outings” and other activities that they would all
enjoy for them not to feel alone.
---The correct answer is: Recommendations
The History of Philippine Journalism
Journalism in the Philippines has gone through a number of both setbacks and boosts. The
history of Philippine journalism presented in this study is cited from “Journalism for Filipinos”
by Malinao (2003).
In the year 1637, the first Philippine Newsletter was published - the “Successos Felices”
(Fortunate Events) of Tomas Pinpin, the father of Filipino printing. Aside from Pinpin’s one-shot
fling at journalism, the “Hojas Volantes” (Flying sheets) or Spaniards’ notice to the public, were
widely distributed in the country for mass readership.
---The correct answer is: Review of Literature
Questions:
1. In the resume, where does the information number 6 fall under?
---The correct answer is: List of key skills
---The correct answer is: Opening Statement
4. In the resume, where does information number 4 fall under?
---The correct answer is: Personal attributes/career overview
5. In the resume, where does information number 2 fall under?
---The correct answer is: Contact details
Questions:
1. What question does the following passage in the sample book review answer:
"The language Tolkien uses (and he was a British professor of linguistics and philology), the
aforementioned epic scales of storyline, the incredibly diverse cultural background behind the
novel—its characters, plot, described events—this and many other factors make reading the
trilogy rather an intellectual than entertaining occupation."
---The correct answer is: Does the way a character speaks help you to understand how that
character thinks and feels? If so, how?
2. What question does the following passage in the sample book review answer:
"And the books are indeed full of awe-inspiring moments; here are just a few of them: the first
fight with the Nazguls; the battle with the ancient demon in desolated Moria and Gandalf’s
disappearance; the death of Boromir (in my opinion, one of the most tragic moments in world
literature of the 20th century); the resurrection of Gandalf the White; the transformation of King
Theoden; the siege of Helm’s Deep; the uprising of the ents and Saruman’s exile; recruiting of
the undead army by Aragorn; the battle for Minas Tirith and the sortie to the Black Gate of
Mordor; the defeat of the Witch-King of Angmar; the annihilation of the Ring; Aragorn’s
marriage with Arwen and honors to the hobbits; finally, Frodo’s departure to the West.
---The correct answer is: What is the high point of the story? Why is this incident more important
than the others?
3. What element does the following passage discuss in the passage from the sample book review:
"While working on the book, Tolkien invented at least two fully functional languages: Elven and
Dwarven; he interpreted the Scandinavian myths (“The Saga of the Nibelungs“, in particular)
and used them to create his own unique plot, world, and characters. The number of cultural and
literary references used in “The Lord of the Rings” is enormous."
---The correct answer is: Dialogue
"The saga tells a story unfolding around The One Ring, created and lost by Sauron—an ancient
demigod of the world of Middle Earth, and the main antagonist of the saga."
---The correct answer is: Plot
"It is almost impossible to say more about the plot, because at the end of the first book, it
branches into multiple storylines."
---The correct answer is: Plot
The research is a quantitative research dealing with the computed numerical figures from
analyzing each news story. Through this, the researchers analyzed each criterion that will
determine the changes made in The Catalyst’s news stories over the years in terms of physical
changes, as well as in content.
---The correct answer is: Limitations
The researchers have coded a total of 586 news stories from The Catalyst’s issues from the year
1986 to 2010. The table above shows that focus-wise, The Catalyst presented a substantial
amount of news articles with miscellaneous issues taking up 26.97% of the total number of
articles. As provided in the definition of news by Bangkok Post, there are miscellaneous stories
which continually appear in the news section. In this study, these news articles are common
stories within PUP which did not fall to any of the other categories.
---The correct answer is: Results
OFW parents could influence their children in either good or bad way. Children who have
parents as overseas workers would be considered well-off in life because of the money, not to
mention, dollars sent to them. But OFWs are willing to endure all the pains and sufferings of
having their families away from them because in the end, they are recognized by the government
and by every Filipino.
Because of this, former President Corazon Aquino acknowledged their sacrifices, efforts and
contributions by referring to them as the modern heroes in the speech she gave last 1988 to a
group of domestic helpers in Hong Kong.
In honor of the OFWs who kept our country’s economy afloat as well as their families’ lives, the
Philippines celebrates December as the “Month of Overseas Filipino Workers”, to pay tribute to
them.
---The correct answer is: Introduction
Questions:
1. What type of job application letter is given?
---The correct answer is: hardcopy
2. What position is the person applying for?
---The correct answer is: programmer
3. In what paragraph number did the applicant summarize his experiences?
---The correct answer is: 3
4. In what paragraph number did the applicant describe his/her skills?
---The correct answer is: 2
5. What is the name of the applicant?
---The correct answer is: John Donaldson
Questions:
1. What is the main goal/objective of the project proposal?
---The correct answer is: To identify and describe the monitoring of three common precursors
and evaluate how accurate each monitoring is in predicting earthquakes.
2. What part of the project proposal does the following sentence fall under:
"Given that I can obtain all my sources for the literature review from the library, there is no
appreciable cost associated with performing this literature review. The only costs, which will be
minor, are for copying articles, printing the review, and spiral binding the review. I estimate that
I can do these tasks for under $10."
---The correct answer is: Budget
"I am a senior in the Geological Engineering Department at the University of Wisconsin at
Madison. In my undergraduate courses I have taken rock mechanics, soil mechanics, geophysics,
and stratigraphy, all of which have included the principles of seismology and stress-strain
relationships."
---The correct answer is: Preparation
"Because I already possess several books and articles on earthquake prediction, most of my time
will be spent sifting through the information, finding the key results, and presenting those results
to the audience."
---The correct answer is: Resources
"A secondary audience for the review would be non-technical readers who either live in
earthquake-prone areas or are affected financially when earthquakes occur."
---The correct answer is: Significance
Fourth Quarter Exam (Reading and Writing Skills)

Match the term to its description.
Identifying the main ideas and supporting details to support the claim. - [Outlining and
Summarizing]
Acknowledging the differences between personal existing values and attitude and the author's
perspective. [Contextualizing]
Done to get an initial understanding of the text. [Previewing]
Consult related readings in order to learn how to approach the same topic in different ways.
[Compare and Contrast]
An idea, an opinion, a judgment or a point of view that the writer wants you to accept. [Claim]
This consists of reasons and evidence that will prove to the readers that the conclusion presented
is worth accepting. [Support]
Newer knowledge is obtained through this way of learning as this is the key to understanding the
author's point of view. [Asking questions]
Weighing in on the consistency of claims and support. [Evaluation]
The reader must be able to track the pattern in the author's thoughts and presentation of his/her
own beliefs. [Reflecting on challenges to beliefs and values]
_______ the material enables the reader to grasp the organization and the content of the text in
the shortest possible time. [Skimming]
Assertions that are based on facts and has to be proven by reliable proofs. [Opinion]
An assertion that relies on personal choice. [Preference]
Claims made to rebut a previous claim. [Counterclaim]
The part of a literary review that emphasizes the main point of the review. [Conclusion]
The part of a research report that states the significance of the research. [Introduction]
This includes the instrument used in the research. [Methods]
A part of the project proposal that states what the project will produce. [Deliverables]
The part of the project proposal that states what makes the project unique. [Implementation
Issues and Challenges]
This part of the project proposal explains what the project wants to achieve. [Project Summary]
This part of the project proposal explains the problem and what makes it interesting.
[Motivation]
In which element does the following questions fall?
Is the author's claim objective? [Topic and Position]
From what perspective did the author write the text? [Style]
Is the information arranged according to the content, by the author's argument or by the needs of
the audience? [Organization]
Which of the references elicits further discussion? [Research/Sources]
Where is the text found? [Audience]
Does the text mean to persuade? [Purpose/Context]
Are the sources credible? [Proof/Evidence]
Which of the evidence carries the more weight? [Proof/Evidence]
How is the information arranged in the text? [Organization]
What can you infer from the writer's choice of words? [Style]
Questions:
1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay?
---The correct answer is: Despite all the joy that video games can bring to children and teenagers,
...
2. Which of the following information does not support the claim?
---The correct answer is: Video games use their characters in the games ...
3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay?
---The correct answer is: Video games is not suitable for children and teenagers
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay?
---The correct answer is: Video games help players improve social skills and reflexes
5. Which of the following is correct according to the essay?
---The correct answer is: Video games offer simplified and conditional models of environments
and people.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective ...
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can be overturned.
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can hardly be called ...
---The correct answer is: These has been numerous evidence ...
5. What is the stand of the author in the imposing of death penalty?
---The correct answer is: He/she is against it.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love story is dysfunctional.
---The correct answer is: Romeo has immediately set his eyes on Juliet...
---The correct answer is: It is important to learn to distinguish love from ...
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love progressed swiftly and carefully ...
---The correct answer is: William Shakespeare did not mean for his characters to be idyllic.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Many arguments in favor of the usage ...
---The correct answer is: Tests help see the bias of teachers ...
---The correct answer is: Improvements must be made in the distribution ...
---The correct answer is: Most of the time, standardized tests encourage ...
5. What is the stand of the author in this argument?
---The correct answer is: He/she weighs in on both advantages and disadvantages ...
Match the term to its description.
Identifying the main ideas and supporting details to support the claim. - [Outlining and
Summarizing]
Acknowledging the differences between personal existing values and attitude and the author's
perspective. [Contextualizing]
Done to get an initial understanding of the text. [Previewing]
Consult related readings in order to learn how to approach the same topic in different ways.
[Compare and Contrast]
An idea, an opinion, a judgment or a point of view that the writer wants you to accept. [Claim]
This consists of reasons and evidence that will prove to the readers that the conclusion presented
is worth accepting. [Support]
Newer knowledge is obtained through this way of learning as this is the key to understanding the
author's point of view. [Asking questions]
Weighing in on the consistency of claims and support. [Evaluation]
The reader must be able to track the pattern in the author's thoughts and presentation of his/her
own beliefs. [Reflecting on challenges to beliefs and values]
_______ the material enables the reader to grasp the organization and the content of the text in
the shortest possible time. [Skimming]
Assertions that are based on facts and has to be proven by reliable proofs. [Opinion]
An assertion that relies on personal choice. [Preference]
Claims made to rebut a previous claim. [Counterclaim]
The part of a literary review that emphasizes the main point of the review. [Conclusion]
The part of a research report that states the significance of the research. [Introduction]
This includes the instrument used in the research. [Methods]
A part of the project proposal that states what the project will produce. [Deliverables]
The part of the project proposal that states what makes the project unique. [Implementation
Issues and Challenges]
This part of the project proposal explains what the project wants to achieve. [Project Summary]
This part of the project proposal explains the problem and what makes it interesting.
[Motivation]
In which element does the following questions fall?
Is the author's claim objective? [Topic and Position]
From what perspective did the author write the text? [Style]
Is the information arranged according to the content, by the author's argument or by the needs of
the audience? [Organization]
Which of the references elicits further discussion? [Research/Sources]
Where is the text found? [Audience]
Does the text mean to persuade? [Purpose/Context]
Are the sources credible? [Proof/Evidence]
Which of the evidence carries the more weight? [Proof/Evidence]
How is the information arranged in the text? [Organization]
What can you infer from the writer's choice of words? [Style]
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Despite all the joy that video games can bring to children and teenagers,
...
---The correct answer is: Video games use their characters in the games ...
---The correct answer is: Video games is not suitable for children and teenagers
---The correct answer is: Video games help players improve social skills and reflexes
---The correct answer is: Video games offer simplified and conditional models of environments
and people.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective ...
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can be overturned.
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can hardly be called ...
---The correct answer is: These has been numerous evidence ...
5. What is the stand of the author in the imposing of death penalty?
---The correct answer is: He/she is against it.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love story is dysfunctional.
---The correct answer is: Romeo has immediately set his eyes on Juliet...
---The correct answer is: It is important to learn to distinguish love from ...
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love progressed swiftly and carefully ...
---The correct answer is: William Shakespeare did not mean for his characters to be idyllic.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Many arguments in favor of the usage ...
---The correct answer is: Tests help see the bias of teachers ...
---The correct answer is: Improvements must be made in the distribution ...
---The correct answer is: Most of the time, standardized tests encourage ...
5. What is the stand of the author in this argument?
---The correct answer is: He/she weighs in on both advantages and disadvantages ..
SHORT QUIZ 3. READING AND WRITING.....

---- Refer to the given paragraph below, entitled “Picturing Don Quixote”:
Seventeenth-century images emphasized the title character’s pompous folly as well as the often
rough-and-tumble action of many episodes. The windmill scene, in which Don Quixote mistakes
the technology that grinds the grain produced in the semi-arid Manchegan landscape for giants,
became immediately iconic. The first representation of the scene appears in a Frankfurt edition
of 1648, in which the windmill sail stabs Don Quixote.
What type of description is used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Subjective description
---The term that refers to the consequences or events caused by the climax.
The correct answer is: Falling action
---What type of figure of speech is used in the following sentence?
The lady in the water screamed like a banshee
----Read the following narrative essay:
In blistering Nebraska, it was America’s Independence Day. As usual on every Independence
Day since I was five years old, George and Terry, my two best friends, and I, went on a manly
picnic. I diligently carried out my household chores, packed my picnic bag and off I went to
collect my friends by way of bicycle. It is going to be an awesome day, I thought to myself as I
sped down my neighborhood street on my beat-up blue Schwinn.
THE writer presented what point of view?
The correct answer is: First person
---Read the following excerpt from the short story, Dead Stars by Paz Marquez Benitez:
Alfredo remembered that period with a wonder not unmixed with shame. That was less than four
years ago. He could not understand those months of a great hunger that was not of the body nor
yet of the mind, a craving that had seized on him one quiet night when the moon was abroad and
under the dappled shadow of the trees in the plaza, man wooed maid. Was he being cheated by
life? Love--he seemed to have missed it. Or was the love that others told about a mere fabrication
of perfervid imagination, an exaggeration of the commonplace, a glorification of insipid
monotonies such as made up his love life? Was love a combination of circumstances, or sheer
native capacity of soul? In those days love was, for him, still the eternal puzzle; for love, as he
knew it, was a stranger to love as he divined it might be.
What narrative device was used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Flashback
--- Read the following example of a definition paragraph:
The term protein quality refers to the ratio of essential amino acids (eaa) in a protein in
comparison with the ratio required by the body. A high quality protein contains eaa in a ratio that
matches human requirements. A protein which is lacking or low in one or more eaa is termed a
low quality protein. The eaa which is in the shortest supply is called the ‘limiting’ amino acid. In
general, animal proteins tend to be high quality while vegetable proteins tend to be low quality.
The exception is soy protein which is quite high quality.
What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph?
----Refer to the given paragraph below on The Great Wall of China:
The Great Wall, or Chang Cheng in Chinese, is massive. It begins in the east at the Yellow Sea,
travels near China’s capital, Beijing, and continues west through numerous provinces. For
thousands of miles, it winds like a snake through China’s varied terrain. Smaller walls extend
from the main wall. According to conservative estimates, the Great Wall’s length is
approximately 2,400 miles, its thickness ranges from 15-30 feet wide, and it reaches in height to
about 25 feet.
What type of description is used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Objective description
-----Read the following example of a definition paragraph:
Soren Kierkegaard, another famous existentialist, comprehends absurd as a synonym to paradox.
He defines it as a matter of faith and the only phenomena that allows a person to believe in self.
According to his philosophy, a human being is a synthesis of opposites: eternal and temporary,
finite and infinite, freedom and obligation. Due to the synthesis of these opposites in an
individual’s consciousness, one constantly resides in fear and despair (Liam 194). And the more
self-consciousness one possesses, the deeper these feelings are. The only way for salvation is
faith in God and this is where absurd comes in. Kierkegaard refers to the biblical myth about
Abraham and his son Isaac. According to this legend, God required Abraham to sacrifice his son
to Him. In this case, Abraham’s faith led him to commit a crime; it transformed a murder into an
act of charity and simultaneously, where faith had returned Isaac to his father alive. Faith cannot
be logically argued, but it works and this is absurd. Individuals are free and this freedom lets
them find their own way to God.
(Source: https://academichelp.net/…/a…/essays/definition/absurd.html…)
What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Extensive definition
-----Given the following sentence from the story, Dead Stars:
A round orange moon, "huge as a winnowing basket," rose lazily into a clear sky, whitening the
iron roofs and dimming the lanterns at the windows.
What is the figure of speech used for the round orange moon?
-----The latin word from which the word "narration" comes
The correct answer is: narrare
Which of the following questions is not beneficial in exploring your topic?

Answer: How does the issue relate to other public issues
SHORT QUIZ 5. READING AND WRITING..
--Which of the following statements is not true according to the essay?
The correct answer is: Volunteering is simply "working for free"
--One advantage of volunteering is meeting new people. Which of the following is not one of the
benefits it could yield?
The correct answer is: have companions for future volunteer work
--Which of the following is not said to be a health benefit of volunteering?
The correct answer is: heals the body and mind of any mental and psychological problems
--More and more employers are looking into volunteering experiences than personal skills.
--What is the author's conclusion?
The correct answer is: a summary of all the points that he/she presented in the essay.
--Read the excerpt of a persuasive essay below and answer the following given questions.
So, what makes Southeast Asia a tourism option you should consider?
(1) The first reason is the prices all across the region: they are ridiculously low. (2) One of the
first problems a backpacker needs to solve after arriving to a new country is accommodation. (3)
In Southeast Asia—almost everywhere—accommodation is so cheap that for the money a tourist
would spend on a hostel in Europe for one week, in this region, he or she could live one month!
(4) See for yourself: if you go to Cambodia or Laos, a place in a dorm room would cost you
somewhere between $2-5 per day. (5) A night in a Vietnamese hostel will cost you $8-10.
Thailand is probably the most expensive in the list, with prices between $6-13. (6) If you are not
fond of living with a bunch of unfamiliar people, get ready to pay only $15-20 for a private
room. (7) Of course, these prices depend on cities—larger cities and popular tourist destinations
will naturally be more expensive, but generally, throughout the entire Southeast Asia, you can
find extremely cheap accommodation easily, especially considering there is no need to book a
hostel in advance: basically, you show up and rent a room/bed in the spot (NomadicMatt). (8)
So, if you are a tourist with a limited budget, worrying about a place to stay for a couple of
weeks, Southeast Asia is your choice: living here is more than affordable.
(9) By the way, the same refers to food. (10) Almost everywhere around Southeast Asia you will
be able to find quality street food for low prices. (11) The price for a pack of chewing gum in the
United States equals a huge portion of filling, exotic food in Vietnam.
(12) As well as the “mainland” Asia, the region possesses ancient history and deep culture
closely interconnected with Buddhism. (13) The ruins of Angkor Wat, Javans, Champa, pagodas
of Bagan, millenary temples and shrines—all this and much more awaits a tourist discovering
this part of Asia. (14) Relics of the past are so numerous that even if you spend a year in the
region, you will probably not be able to see all of them. (15) Along with the ancient times,
Southeast Asia has gone through intense political and military turmoils during the recent century.
(16) The war in Vietnam, the terror of the Khmer Rouge, the destruction of Laos, Pacific navy
battles, Japanese invasions—this is just a tiny part of what was going on here not so long ago.
(17) Knowing about the hardships Southeast Asia had gone through, and witnessing its rapid
development now, watching incredible contrasts intertwine and combine, it is difficult to not fall
in love with this place. (18) Besides, if you are seeking for cultural diversity, Southeast Asia has
it all: with such a diversity of languages, customs, ethnicities, religious beliefs, lifestyles, and
fashions concentrated on such a relatively small piece of land, your immersion in the atmosphere
of this place will be instant, deep, and impressive (Bootsnall.com).
(19) Yet another good argument for a budget tourist visiting Southeast Asia is the convenience
and affordability of transportation in the region. (20) Naturally, when you arrive to a new
country, you do not want to spend your whole time in one city—you want to see all of what this
country can offer, and this often implies using public transport, such as trains or buses. (21)
Well, booking transportation in Southeast Asia is easier and cheaper than in many other regions
of the world; every big city is flooded with travel agencies offering their services for almost no
cost, and even getting to some distant islands is not a problem (Goatsontheroad.com). (22) A bus
is usually the cheapest way to travel around the region: a 5-6 hours ride by a bus will cost you
only $5-8. (23) Overnight buses are somewhat more costly —$10-15 dollars, depending on
distance. (24) As for the transportation within big cities, there is only good news for a poor
tourist. (25) For example, a bust around Bangkok costs only 10 cents, and the subway, $1. (26)
The local train system of Singapore starts its pricing from $1 as well. (27) Taxis and minibuses
are usually more expensive, but it is possible to bargain with the drivers, so you can get a price
up to two times lower than the one initially suggested by a cab owner. (Nomadicmatt.com). (28)
All of which means, in a nutshell, that you will be able to see everything you want, get
everywhere, and spend a reasonable amount of money.
(29) Southeast Asia is a unique region with ancient history, rich culture, incredible food, and
unique experiences a traveler can get from visiting it. (30) With incredibly low accommodation
prices, affordable food, and convenient transportation, this part of Asia is a number one choice
for a budget tourist. (31) Therefore, when planning your next trip, you should definitely consider
going there.
QUESTIONS:
Give the number of the sentence that conveys what is asked. Only one answer is required per
question.
Second reason presented by author on why Southeast Asia is a viable tourism option: Answer
9 =10
Correct
An evidence of the second reason presented by the author. Answer
11
Correct
A sentence which gives an evidence of the affordability of transportation in Southeast Asia.
Answer
21 =22 =24 =25 =26
Correct
The sentence concluding the first reason presented by the author. Answer
8
Correct
The sentence concluding the paragraph on the diverse culture of Southeast Asia. Answer
17 =18
Correct
The leaves of the trees waved in the wind

.The correct answer is: Personification
F. Identify the topic sentence.

(A) The expansion of the world population is the most important problem that should be solved
in order not to confront in the near future big social problems such as bad economic
circumstances and lack of resources, food and housing. (B) Birth control, although may lead to
religious, cultural and moral objections, is the fastest way to reduce the population growth rate.
(C) Therefore, governments should begin programs of birth control even in a compulsory manner
due to the fact that group survival is more important than individual freedom.
"Brazilians are good at football." is an example of _____
Select one:
a. Halo Effect
b. Fad
c. Stereotype
d. Prejudice
Question 2
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_____ is a network that has a structure and behavior that is neither totally predictable nor completely
random
Select one:
a. Complex network
b. Small world network
c. Scale-free network
d. Random Network
Question 3
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The Information age is also known as
Select one:
a. Digital Age
b. All of the answers are correct
c. Computer Age
d. New Media Age
Question 4
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A _____ is a way of behaving, proceeding, etc. that is developing and becoming more common
Select one:
a. Fad
b. Node
c. Trend
d. Synthesis
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Resistance to change is the tendency to react negatively to new ideas without giving fair consideration.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
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In SWOT Analysis, _____ are elements or events that can cause problems
Select one:
a. Threats
b. Strengths
c. Opportunities
d. Weaknesses
Question 7
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Altered processes of validation means understanding implications, comprehending meaning and impact.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
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_____ is the mathematical term for a link.
Select one:
a. Edge
b. Vertex
c. Graph
d. Node
Question 9
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Universal Scepticism is not equal to critical thinking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
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In SWOT Analysis, _____ are the positive qualities and useful resources that you have.
Select one:
a. Threats
b. Weaknesses
c. Opportunities
d. Strengths
Question 11
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_____ is doing something while claiming to believe in the opposite.
Select one:
a. Hypocricy
b. Cognitive dissonance
c. Self-righteousness
d. Saving face
Question 12
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The ability to stay focused on important tasks while undergoing a deluge of distractions is also known as
_____.
Select one:
a. Evaluation and authentication
b. Anchoring
c. Critical and creative thinking
d. Contextualizing
Question 13
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In SWOT Analysis, _____ are things that are out of your control.
Select one:
a. External Factors
b. Weaknesses
c. Strengths
d. Internal Factors
Question 14
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Person 1: First person shooter games like Call of Duty help children develop hand-eye coordination.
Person 2: You're just saying that because you like violence.
This is an example of _____
Select one:
a. Circular Argument
b. Post Hoc
c. Ad Hoc
d. Ad hominem
Question 15
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_____ is the absence of knowledge coupled with the illusion of having knowledge.
Select one:
a. Double Ignorance
b. Socratic Ignorance
c. Simple Ignorance
d. single ignorance
Question 16
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It is a scientific fact that sea levels are rising and the earth's surface is getting hotter.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
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Coming up with a hypothesis is the first step of the Socratic Method.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
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A _____ is a network in which most nodes are not directly linked but any two nodes are connected by
short paths.
Select one:
a. Complex network
c. Random Network
d. Scale-free network
Question 19
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_____ is a technology that allows sending, receiving, and processing of information wherever the users
may be.
Select one:
a. Social Media
b. Cloud computing
c. Global warming
d. Mobile computing
Question 20
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Cloud computing uses clouds that are converted to transmit digital information.
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
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_____ is a mindset in which one considers himself or herself to be the center of everything.
Select one:
a. Social conformity
b. Ethnocentrism
c. Egocentrism
d. Sociocentrism
Question 22
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The call center industry is estimated to account for _____ of the Philippine economy?
Select one:
a. 30%
b. 4%
c. 10%
d. 50%
Question 23
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_____ is an unjust opinion that is not based on critical thinking.
Select one:
a. Stereotype
b. Ignorance
c. Bias
d. Prejudice
Question 24
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A scale-free network is a complex network.
Select one:
True
False
Question 25
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Which of the following can be used as a guide for setting goals?
Select one:
a. SMART Criteria
b. Critical thinking
c. Strategic thinking
d. SWOT Analysis
Question 26
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_____ is a method that aims to discover a universal truth.
Select one:
a. Critical Thinking
b. Socratic method
c. Scientific method
d. Strategic Thinking
Question 27
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A _____ is anything that is extremely popular for a short period of time.
Select one:
a. Trend
b. Pattern
c. Fad
d. Network
Question 28
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_____ is a set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and credible investigation.

Select one:
b. Scientific method
c. Socratic method
d. Strategic thinking
Question 29
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_____ is a type of bias in which our general impression of a person, irrationally affects our opinion of
that person's specific qualities.
Select one:
a. Prejudice
b. Conformity
c. Halo Effect
d. Stereotype
Question 30
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What is the 1st criteria in SMART?
Select one:
a. Spontaneous
b. Specific
c. Systematic
d. Simple
Question 31
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_____ is an informed guess that is based on gathered information
Select one:
a. Hypothesis
b. Observation
c. Analysis
d. Strategy
Question 32
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Tamagotchi is a Japanese delicacy that became an extremely popular in the Philippines during the late
1980's up to the early 90's.
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
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The Information Age started on which decade?
Select one:
a. 1970's
b. 1990's
c. 1960's
d. 2000's
Question 34
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Acceptance of uncertainty means balancing what is known with the unknown...to see how existing
knowledge relates to what we do not know.
Select one:
True
False
Question 35
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_____ are additional skills that learners need to have besides knowing how to use modern technologies
Select one:
a. 3Rs x 7Cs
b. Technological fluency
c. New literacies
d. Computing and ICT literacy
Question 36
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In this lesson, the fable about the monkeys was used as an example of _____
Select one:
a. Social Conformity
b. Social Conditioning
c. Sociocentrism
d. Halo Effect
Question 37
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_____ is the belief of having higher or better moral standards than other people.
Select one:
a. Hypocricy
b. Self-righteousness
c. Resistance to change
d. Saving face
Question 38
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A node with a lot of links can be called a _____
Select one:
a. Complex node
b. Hub
c. edge
d. Power law
Question 39
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There is a limit to how many or how few links a node in a _____can have
Select one:
a. Scale-free network
c. Random Network
d. Complex network
Question 40
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_____ is the examination of trends and speculation on the likely impact they will have in the future.
Select one:
a. Social Media
b. Network Science
c. Statistics
d. Trend Analysis
Question 41
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What does R stand for in SMART?
Select one:
a. Realistic
b. Reasonable
c. Relevant
d. Reliable
Question 42
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_____ is commonly known as "going with the flow" or "following the crowd."
Select one:
a. Social Conditioning
b. Stereotype
c. Social Conformity
d. Halo Effect
Question 43
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The Internet became widely used by the public in the 1970's.
Select one:
True
False
Question 44
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What does O stand for in SWOT?
Select one:
a. Offers
b. Options
c. Opportunities
d. Output
Question 45
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Network Science is the study of simple networks.
Select one:
True
False
Question 46
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What does M stand for in SMART?
Select one:
a. Methodical
b. Measurable
c. Minimal
d. Motivation
Question 47
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Because of overpopulation and unequal economic development, people tend to settle in big cities,
which results in the growth of shantytowns.
Select one:
True
False
Question 48
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_____ includes skills like operating computers and mobile devices and navigating the internet
Select one:
a. 5W1H
b. Critical Thinking
c. Strategic Thinking
d. Technological Fluency
Question 49
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A _____ is a statistical relationship between two quantities in which change in one quantity affects the
other.
Select one:
a. Complex network
b. preferential attachment
c. Random Network
d. Power Law
Question 50
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In what year did the Internet start in the Philippines?
Select one:
a. 2000
b. 1994
c. 1991
d. 1999
TRENDS LA8
QUESTION 1
Training is done by inputing large amounts of data called _____.
Select one:
c. Training examples
QUESTION 2
_____ is the process of processing raw data and turning it into useful information.
Select one:
h. Data mining
QUESTION 3
Each _____ in an artificial neural network performs a specific task
Select one:
h. Hidden layer
QUESTION 4
One the desired result has been achieved, the information is passed on to the _____
Select one:
f. Output layer
QUESTION 5
What is the function of the given part of the neuron?
Axons
Select one:
a. connected to the dendrites of other neurons
b. acts like a factory that produces proteins
c. branch out to different directions and connect to other neurons
d. contains most of our DNA
e. sends out the neuron’s output
TRENDS SQ8
QUESTION 1
The cell body is also known as _____.
Select one:
a. Dendrite
b. Synapse
c. Soma
d. Axon
QUESTION 2
Information enters the artificial neural network through the _____
Select one:
a. Input layer
QUESTION 3
What is the function of the given part of the neuron?
Axon Terminal
Select one:
a. branch out to different directions and connect to other neurons
b. connected to the dendrites of other neurons
c. acts like a factory that produces proteins
e. sends out the neuron’s output
QUESTION 4
_____ are thin fibers that branch out of the cell body and connects to other neurons
Select one:
a. Synapse
b. Dendrite
c. Soma
d. Axon
QUESTION 5
After the data has been received by an neural network, it is passed on to several _____ which perform
specific tasks.
Select one:
a. Hidden layers
b. Input layers
c. Output layers
d. Neural layers
QUESTION 6
_____ is also known as a nerve cell.
Select one:
a. Axon
b. Synapse
c. Dendrite
d. Neuron
QUESTION 7
_____ is a cell that is capable of receiving, processing, and sending information in the form of very small
electrical impulses.
Select one:
a. Synapse
b. Axon
c. Dendrite
d. Neuron
QUESTION 8
The human brain has approximately _____ neurons.
Select one:
a. 100 billion
b. 1 million
c. 100 million
d. 100 thousand
QUESTION 9
Information that enters an artificial neural network through the _____
Select one:
a. Input layer
b. Output layer
c. Hidden layer
d. Neural network
QUESTION 10
_____ is a computing system that is modeled after the neural structure of the brain.
Select one:
a. Procedural neural network
b. Software neural network
c. Artificial neural network
d. Structural neural network
TRENDS LQ3
QUESTION 1
An average human brain has approximately 100 thousand neurons.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 2
_____ are thin fibers that branch out of the cell body and connects to other neurons
Select one:
a. Axon
b. Synapse
c. Soma
d. Dendrite
QUESTION 3
Social role is something that you have to do.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 4
_____ is measured by how many indirect connections passes through a node.
Select one:
a. Degree centrality
b. Betweenness centrality
c. Closeness centrality
d. Social centrality
QUESTION 5
Social status is something that you have to do.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 6
The social roles that come with a social status can change through time
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 7
The human brain is composed of 100 billion _____.

Select one:
a. Synapses
b. Dendrites
c. Neurons
d. DNA’s
QUESTION 8
Axon is also called soma
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 9
_____ is the way a society is organized.
Select one:
a. Social norm
b. Social stratification
c. Social structure
d. Social status
QUESTION 10
What is the first layer in an artificial neural network?
Select one:
a. Hidden layer
b. Output layer
c. Welcome layer
d. Input layer
QUESTION 11
What are informal rules and practices observed in a society
Select one:
a. Social rules
b. Social norms
c. Social structure
d. Social stratification
QUESTION 12
Social media sites create maps of the social connections of its users.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 13
Shaking hands, high five, peace sign, and other hand gestures are examples of social norms.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 14
_____ is something that you have.
Select one:
a. Social stratification
b. Social norm
c. Social role
d. Social status
QUESTION 15
_____is the process of studying social structures through network science.

Select one:
a. Social Network Science
b. Social Networking
c. Social Network Analysis
d. Social Network Series
QUESTION 16
What is the name of the sociologist who created the AGIL paradigm?
Select one:
a. Talcott Parsons
b. Talcott Person
c. Ascott Larson
d. Talcott Pearson
QUESTION 17
In real life, _____is measured by how many connections or social relationships you have.
Select one:
d. Importance centrality
QUESTION 18
What are considered as links in a social network?
Select one:
a. roles
b. relationships
c. norms
d. people
QUESTION 19
What is the name given to a group of people that are in constant interaction with each other?
Select one:
a. Society
b. AGIL
c. Stratification
d. Network
QUESTION 20
There can be several _____ in a neural network which perform specific tasks
Select one:
a. Hidden layers
b. Input layers
c. Output layers
d. Neural layers
QUESTION 21
The members of a society do not have to be in the same location
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 22
_____ is measured based on the number of links that a node has.
Select one:
a. Closeness centrality
b. Social centrality
c. Degree centrality
d. Betweenness centrality
QUESTION 23
_____ is something that you have to do.
Select one:
b. Social role
c. Social status
d. Social norm
QUESTION 24
In a society, people are categorized through _____.
Select one:
a. Social status
b. Social norm
c. Social structure
QUESTION 25
_____ is composed of software algorithms and/or hardware components and imitates the way the brain
works.
Select one:
a. Artificial neural network
b. Hardware neural network
c. Biological neural network
d. Software neural network
QUESTION 26
A Nerve cell is also known as a _____.

Select one:
a. Neuron
b. Dendrite
c. Synapse
d. Axon
QUESTION 27
_____ is the measure of importance of a node in a network.
Select one:
a. Status
b. Importance
c. Centrality
d. Neutrality
QUESTION 28
_____ is the sum of the norms, responsibilities and expectations that applies to a person.
Select one:
a. Social role
b. Social norm
c. Social network
d. Social status
QUESTION 29
Betweenness centrality determines which node has the shortest average path to the other nodes in the
network.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 30
_____ is a branch of Machine Learning that uses algorithms based on artificial neural networks.
Select one:
a. Artificial Learning
b. Machine learning
c. Artificial Intelligence
d. Deep Learning
TRENDS LA9
QUESTION 1
Choose push if item is a push factor and pull if item is pull factor
Unemployment
Select one:
a. Pull
b. Push
QUESTION 2
Devastated by famine in the 1840’s because of potato blight
Select one:
h. Ireland
QUESTION 3
Negative condition that drives people to leave a particular area
Select one:
c. Push factor
QUESTION 4
Permanent or semi-permanent movement of people across political boundaries
Select one:
f. Migration
QUESTION 5
Choose push if item is a push factor and pull if item is pull factor
Stable climate
Select one:
a. Push
b. Pull
TRENDS SQ9
QUESTION 1
_____ are conditions that attract people to a particular location.
Select one:
a. Pull factors
b. Migration
c. Refugees
d. Push factors
QUESTION 2
_____ is the permanent or semi-permanent movement of people across political boundaries.
Select one:
a. Migration
b. Citizenship
c. Multiple Citizenship
d. Immigration
QUESTION 3
_____ is the legal status of a person as a member of a sovereign state
Select one:
a. Pull Factor
b. Immigration
c. Push Factor
d. Citizenship
QUESTION 4
In most cases, it is dangerous for a _____ to go back to his or her home country.
Select one:
a. Migrant
b. Refugee
c. Immigrant
d. Dual Citizen
QUESTION 5
A _____ is a person who has been forced to leave his or her country because of human conflict, natural
disasters, or political persecution.
Select one:
a. Immigrant
b. Dual Citizen
c. Migrant
d. Refugee
QUESTION 6
Which event happened in the 1840’s and many people from Ireland to immigrate?
Select one:
a. Irish Potato Famine
b. Irish Civil War
c. Cold War
d. Irish Gold Rush
QUESTION 7
_____ are conditions that drive people to leave a particular area.
Select one:
a. Forced migration
b. Pull factors
c. Push factors
d. Refugees
QUESTION 8
What event started in 2011 and forced about 11 million people to leave their homes?
Select one:
a. Syrian Civil War
b. California Gold Rush
c. Cold War
d. Migration of Filipinos
QUESTION 9
_____ means moving to another country with the goal of becoming permanent residents.
Select one:
a. Dual Citizenship
b. Citizenship
c. Immigration
d. Migration
QUESTION 10
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_____ is when a person is a citizen of more than one country
Select one:
a. Migration
b. Nationality
c. Immigration
d. Multiple citizenship
TRENDS LA10
QUESTION 1
International trade leads to better product quality
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 2
The ASEAN Declaration was signed in Tokyo, Japan
Select one:
a. True
b. False (BANGKOK)
QUESTION 3
Expression of human creativity
Select one:
j. Art
QUESTION 4
Specialized agency “responsible for coordinating international cooperation in education, science, culture
and communication”
Select one:
j. UNESCO
QUESTION 5
The UN had 21 founding members

Select one:
a. True
b. False
TRENDS SQ10
QUESTION 1
Composed of 28 members
Select one:
d. European Union
QUESTION 2
International financial institution that provides loans to developing countries
Select one:
g. World Bank
QUESTION 3
The WTO’s headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 4
Specialized economies are economies that rely on a particular kind of industry
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 5
International trade leads to lower prices
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 6
“One Vision, One Identity, One Community”
Select one:
i. ASEAN
QUESTION 7
The Philippines is a Founding Member of ASEAN
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 8
Signed in Maastricht, Netherlands
Select one:
b. European Union
QUESTION 9
Governmental actions that take place beyond the national level
Select one:
h. Political globalization
QUESTION 10
Communication via written or spoken words
Select one:
d. Language
TRENDS LQ4
QUESTION 1
The _____ is an international agency concerned with global public health
Select one:
a. UNESCO
b. EU
c. ASEAN
d. WHO
QUESTION 2
The WTO’s headquarters is in Paris, France
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 3
Which country experienced a famine in 1840’s caused by potato blight?
Select one:
a. East Germany
b. Ireland
c. Syria
d. Rwanda
QUESTION 4
Which organization has 28 member countries and was founded in November 1, 1993?
Select one:
a. World Health Organization
b. United Nations
c. European Union
d. ASEAN
QUESTION 5
The _____ was formed immediately after World War 2 and has 51 founding members.
Select one:
a. World Bank
b. European Union
c. World Trade Organization
d. United Nations
QUESTION 6
The conditions that attract people to a particular location are called _____.
Select one:
a. Pull factors
b. Migration
c. Push factors
d. Immigration
QUESTION 7
The ASEAN Declaration was signed in Bangkok, Thailand
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 8
Cambodia is a Founding Member of ASEAN
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 9
The S in UNESCO stands for Scientific
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 10
It is possible for a person to be a citizen of more than two countries.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 11
What is the official currency used by 19 member countries of the EU?
Select one:
a. Dollars
b. Pound
c. Euro
d. European Dollar (EUD)
QUESTION 12
ASEAN was founded on August 8, _____.
Select one:
a. 1967
b. 1957
c. 1975
d. 1965
QUESTION 13
_____ is the legal status of a person as a member of a country.

Select one:
a. Migration
b. Immigration
c. Refugee
d. Citizenship
QUESTION 14
Not all countries allow multiple citizenship.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 15
Which intergovernmental organization has the motto “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”?
Select one:
a. European Union
b. United Nations
c. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
d. UNESCO
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is NOT a founding member of ASEAN?
Select one:
a. Thailand
b. Brunei
c. Singapore
d. Philippines
QUESTION 17
Saudi Arabia is the top destination for Filipino OFW’s.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 18
The conditions that drive people to leave a particular area are called _____.
Select one:
a. Refugees
b. Citizenships
c. Pull factors
d. Push factors
QUESTION 19
The WTO was established in January 1, 1996.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 20
Moving to another country with the goal of becoming a permanent resident is called _____
Select one:
a. Citizenship
b. Dual Citizenship
c. Immigration
d. Migration
QUESTION 21
Question text
_____ is the exchange of capital, goods, and services between entities from different countries.
Select one:
a. Specialization
b. Globalization
c. Social Organization
d. International Trade
QUESTION 22
Natural disasters such as earthquakes and typhoons are pull factors
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 23
_____ is another term for citizenship
Select one:
a. Refugee
b. Nationality
c. Famine
d. Citizenship
QUESTION 24
_____ is “the increasing interdependence of world economies as a result of the growing scale of cross-
border trade of commodities and services, flow of international capital and wide and rapid spread of
technologies.”
Select one:
a. Political Globalization
b. Economic Globalization
c. International trade
d. Cultural Globalization
QUESTION 25
_____is the international exchange of products, knowledge, and culture.
Select one:
a. Social Organization
b. Specialization
c. Globalization
QUESTION 26
The E in UNESCO stands for _____.
Select one:
a. Economic
b. Educational
c. Environmental
d. Entertainment
QUESTION 27
In most cases, it is dangerous for a _____ to return home.
Select one:
a. Migrant
b. Immigrant
c. Refugee
d. Citizen
QUESTION 28
The _____ is an intergovernmental organization that regulates international trade.
Select one:
a. World Bank
b. World Trade Organization
c. United Nations
d. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
QUESTION 29
The UN had 51 founding members.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 30
Economies that rely on a particular kind of industry are called _____.
Select one:
a. Specialized Economies
b. Developing Economies
c. Developing Countries
d. Special Economies
TRENDS LA11
QUESTION 1
Magna Carta means “the Great Chapter”.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 2
Gettysburg Address
Select one:
f. Abraham Lincoln
QUESTION 3
Freedom of expression is the right of every citizen to express his opinions without being censored or
suppressed by others.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 4
Switzerland
Select one:
e. Direct democracy
QUESTION 5
Freedom of assembly
Select one:
f. freedom of association
TRENDS SQ11
QUESTION 1
The Ancient Greek word “demos” means _____.
Select one:
a. The Republic
b. Power
c. The people
d. Strength
QUESTION 2
_____ is the right of every citizen to voice out his or her opinions without being censored or suppressed
by others.
Select one:
a. Freedom of speech
b. Freedom of assembly
c. Right to equal protection of the law
d. Freedom of association
QUESTION 3
Who gave the Gettysburg Address?
Select one:
a. Abraham Lincoln
b. Aung San Suu Kyi
c. Athens
d. King John of England
QUESTION 4
_____ is a government ruled by king, emperor, sultan, etc.
Select one:
a. Monarchy
b. Roman Republic
c. Oligarchy
d. Democracy
QUESTION 5
_____ is a form of government where power is held by a small group of people.
Select one:
a. Athenian Democracy
b. Monarchy
c. Democracy
d. Oligarchy
QUESTION 6
_____ is a type of democracy where members can personally participate in dialogue and decision
making.
Select one:
a. Presidential Democracy
b. Representative democracy
c. Parliamentary Democracy
d. Direct Democracy
QUESTION 7
The Magna Carta is composed of how many clauses?
Select one:
a. 62
b. 64
c. 65
d. 63
QUESTION 8
_____ is also known as freedom of association
Select one:
a. Freedom of expression
c. Freedom of speech
d. Right to due process and fair trial
QUESTION 9
_____ is “a government in which the supreme power is vested in the people and exercised by them
directly or indirectly through a system of representation usually involving periodically held free
elections”.
Select one:
a. Oligarchy
b. Republic
c. Democracy
d. Monarchy
QUESTION 10
The Ancient Greek word “kratos” means _____.
Select one:
a. The Republic
b. Power
c. Democracy
d. The people
TRENDS LA12
QUESTION 1
National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Select one:
g. NASA
QUESTION 2
Heat from the sun is retained inside the Earth’s atmosphere instead of escaping to space
Select one:
d. Greenhouse effect
QUESTION 3
Movement of land masses

Select one:
h. Plate Tectonics
QUESTION 4
A change in the typical or average weather of a region or city
Select one:
e. Climate change
QUESTION 5
At least 97% of climate scientists agree that global warming is real and caused by humans.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
TRENDS SQ12
QUESTION 1
Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are examples of _____.
Select one:
a. deforestation
b. fossil fuel
c. greenhouse effect
d. Greenhouse gasses
QUESTION 2
_____ is a gas that is a byproduct of fertilizer use.
Select one:
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Carbon
d. Nitrous oxide
QUESTION 3
What does ppm mean?
Select one:
a. Pieces per million
b. Parts per million
c. Particles per million
d. People per millennium
QUESTION 4
_____ is defined as a change in the typical or average weather of a region or city.
Select one:
a. Global warming
b. Earth’s orbit
c. Climate change
d. Earth’s Axis
QUESTION 5
_____ is what happens when more heat from the sun is retained inside the Earth’s athmosphere instead
of being reflected back to space.
Select one:
a. Deforestation
b. Greenhouse effect
c. Plate tectonics
d. Fossil Fuel
QUESTION 6
_____ is the increase in the Earth’s overall atmospheric temperature.
Select one:
a. Climate change
b. Global warming
c. Deforestation
d. Greenhouse Effect
QUESTION 7
What is CO2?
Select one:
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Carbon
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Fossil fuel
QUESTION 8
_____ states that the land masses in our planet are moving in different directions
Select one:
a. Global warming
b. Climate change
c. Earth’s orbit
d. Plate Tectonics Theory
QUESTION 9
Within ideal levels _____ allow most of the sun’s radiation to escape the athmosphere so the Earth’s
surface doesn’t get too hot but they also trap just enough heat to keep us from freezing.
Select one:
a. Ozone layer
b. Climate change
c. Greenhouse gases
d. Fossil fuels
QUESTION 10
The last _____ ended about 12 thousand years ago.
Select one:
a. Major Ice age
b. Overpopulation
c. Major Greenhouse effect
d. Worldwide Global warming
TRENDS LA1
Question 1
Which of the following terms correspond with: 1st century of the 3rd millennium
Select one:
j. 21st Century
Question 2
Billions of people without access to resources and opportunities such as education, livelihood and health
care.
Select one:
g. Extreme poverty
Question 3
Which of the following terms correspond with: 10% of the Philippine economy
Select one:
a. call center industry
Question 4
Which of the following terms correspond with: Internet in the Philippines
Select one:
h. 1994
Question 5
Which of the following terms correspond with: Portable computers & wireless Internet
Select one:
g. Mobile computing
TRENDS SQ1
Question 1
Rising sea levels and increase on the Earth’s surface temperature are evidences of which 21st century
challenge?
Select one:
a. Global warming
b. Global migration
c. Destruction of life in the oceans
d. Spread of deserts
Question 2
Select one:
a. Computer Age
b. New Media Age
c. All of them
d. Digital Age
Question 3
_____ are internet-based technologies that are used to communicate and interact and relies on user
participation
Select one:
a. Cloud Computing
b. New Media
c. Mobile Computing
d. Social Media
Question 4
Which of the following is NOT true?
Select one:
a. The call center industry is estimated to account for 10% of the Philippine economy.
b. The world job market reduces opportunities for professionals in developing countries
c. The call center industry is estimated to account for 3% of the Philippine economy.
d. The world job market creates better opportunities for professionals in developing countries
Question 5
Hand tools and manual labour were widely replaced by steam power and mass production during the
_____.
Select one:
a. Stone Age
b. Information Age
c. Bronze Age
d. Industrial Age
Question 6
The Information age is said to have been started by the _____

Select one:
a. Industrial Age
b. Digital Revolution
c. New Media Revolution
d. Digital Age
Question 7
Which of the following is true about the Information Age?
Select one:
a. The demand for technically skilled professionals declines
b. The demand for manual labor increases
c. The demand for manual labor declines
d. The demand for technically skilled professionals and manual labor increases
Question 8
Which of the following are requirements for mobile computing?
Select one:
a. fixed internet connection
b. GPS-aided navigation
c. search engine websites
d. wireless Internet connection
Question 9
The 21st century is the _____
Select one:
a. first century of the second millennium
b. 21st century of the third millennium
c. First century of the 20th millennium

d. first century of the third millennium
Question 10
How many megaproblems were discussed in this lesson?
Select one:
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 14
TRENDS LA2
Question 1
Write True if the Net Literacy is matched with its correct definition and False if not.
Evaluation and authentication - Determining the value of knowledge and ensuring authenticity.
Answer: TRUE
Question 2
Being human together - Understanding implications, comprehending meaning and impact.
Answer: FALSE
Question 3
Match the definition with the correct term.
Reading, Writing, and Arithmetic.
Select one:
b. 3R Skills
Question 4
Navigate knowledge landscape - Balancing what is known with the unknown…to see how existing
Answer: FALSE
Question 5
Match the definition with the correct term.
Understanding, accepting, and knowing how to act properly when dealing with people from different
backgrounds.
Select one:
a. Communications, information, and media literacy
b. 21st Century Learning
c. New Literacies
d. Creativity and innovation
e. Navigate knowledge landscape
f. Collaboration, teamwork, and leadership
g. 3R Skills
h. Technological fluency
i. Career and learning self-reliance
j. Cross-cultural understanding
TRENDS SQ2
Question 1
Seeing how existing knowledge relates to what we do not know is part of _____
Select one:
a. Acceptance of uncertainty
b. Altered processes of validation
c. Evaluation and authentication
d. Critical and creative thinking
Question 2
_____ involves determining the value of knowledge

Select one:
a. Connecting with each other
b. Altered processes of validation
c. Pattern recognition
d. Evaluation and authentication
Question 3
Knowing how to act properly when dealing with people from different backgrounds is a part of which
competency?
Select one:
a. Creativity and innovation
b. Cross-cultural understanding
c. Computing and ICT literacy
d. Collaboration, teamwork, and leadership
Question 4
Managing knowledge flow and extracting important elements is also known as
Select one:
a. Contextualizing
b. Critical and creative thinking
c. Filtering
d. Anchoring
Question 5
Select one:
a. Technological fluency
b. Computing and ICT literacy
c. Questioning and dreaming

d. New literacies
Question 6
_____ includes knowing how to effectively manage time, resources, and effort.
Select one:
a. Career and learning self-reliance
b. Creativity and innovation
c. Collaboration, teamwork, and leadership
d. Critical thinking and problem solving
Question 7
What is the formula for 21st?
Select one:
a. 3Rs + 7Cs
b. 7Cs - 3Rs
c. 3Rs × 7Cs
d. 3Cs × 7Rs
Question 8
_____ is defined as the ability to stay focused on important tasks while undergoing a deluge of
distractions.
Select one:
a. Filtering
b. Contextualizing
d. Anchoring
Question 9
_____ involves knowing the context or the circumstances behind each person and idea
Select one:
a. Pattern recognition
b. Connecting with each other
d. Altered processes of validation
Question 10
_____ requires building networks in order to continue to stay current and informed.
Select one:
a. Evaluation and authentication
b. Pattern recognition
c. Altered processes of validation
d. Connecting with each other
TRENDS LA3
Question 1
Fill in the blank: Trends are a complete _____ of information from a wide variety of fields.
Select one:
d. synthesis
Question 2
True or False: A fad is a pattern of change
Answer: FALSE
Question 3
Fill in the blank: A _____ can mean a new way of thinking, a new direction in technology or a major shift
in culture.
Select one:
b. trend
Question 4
True or False: Several fads can be a part of an ongoing trend.

Answer: TRUE
Question 5
True or False: In social media, the term “trending” can be used to describe anything that is getting a lot
of attention.
Answer: TRUE
TRENDS SQ3
Question 1
In social media what term is used to describe anything that is getting a lot of attention?
Select one:
a. trending
b. trendy
c. fad
d. trendsetter
Question 2
True or False: Tamagotchi is one of the biggest fads of 2016.
Answer: FALSE
Question 3
_____ is defined as the examination of these trends and speculation on the likely impact they will have
in the future.
Select one:
a. Trending
b. Trend Statistics
c. Trend Science
d. Trend Analysis
Question 4
Anything that is extremely popular for a short period of time is called a _____
Select one:
a. Synthesis
b. Trend
c. Pattern
d. Fad
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT true about trends?
Select one:
a. Trends use time frames to evaluate their evolution.
b. Anything that is extremely popular for a short period of time then disappears almost entirely.
c. Trends are a complete synthesis of information from a wide variety of fields.
d. All trends use pattern identification and recognition to make predictions when talking about the
future.
Question 6
Which of the following is not a step in spotting trends?
Select one:
a. Predict the future
b. Observe the present
c. Study the past
d. Connect the dots
Question 7
True or False: The number of smartphone users has been steadily rising from 2014 up to the present.
Answer: TRUE
Question 8
True or False: The Pokemon Go is one of the most popular apps in the mid-90’s
Answer: FALSE
Question 9
Fill in the blank: Study the _____.
Select one:
a. past
Question 10
Fill in the blank: Trends help predict the _____.
Select one:
a. Future
TRENDS LQ1 (W4)
Question 1
True or False: The 3R’s are Reading, ‘Riting, and Reasoning.
Answer: false
Question 2
True or False: During the Industrial Revolution further development of the diesel engine allowed for
greater industrial applications which led to massive improvement in the manufacturing capabilities of
various nation-states and private entities all over the world.
Answer: false
Question 3
How many megaproblems were discussed in Module 1?
Select one:
a. 15
b. 10
c. 16
d. 12
Question 4
The Industrial Age is an era that started around the year _____
Select one:
a. 1760
b. 1770
c. 1670
d. 1869
Question 5
True or False: Trends are always obvious, especially in a large scale.
Answer: false
Question 6
The main difference between social media and other websites is that social media relies heavily on user
_____.
Select one:
a. Payment
b. Participation
c. Transaction
d. Reports
Question 7
_____ is network of servers that work together to provide Internet-based services?
Select one:
a. Social Media
b. Cloud computing
c. Trend
d. Cloud
Question 8
True or False: Mobile computing requires portable computers or mobile and wired Internet connection.
Answer: false
Question 9
_____ is “a general direction of change: a way of behaving, proceeding, etc. that is developing and
becoming more common.”
Select one:
a. Trend
b. Fad
c. Critical Thinking
d. Network
Question 10
True or False: A trend is anything that is popular for a short period of time then suddenly disappears.
Answer: false
Question 11
Basically, _____ is a pattern of change
Select one:
b. Fad
c. Network
d. Trend
Question 12
The abundance and convenience of information in the 21st century is made possible by the continuing
development of _____.
Select one:
b. Trends
c. The Internet
d. The Industrial Revolution

Question 13
The Information age is said to have been started by the _____.
Select one:
a. Industrial Revolution
b. Social Media Revolution
c. Industrial Age
d. Digital Revolution
Question 14
_____ involves skills such as operating computers and mobile devices and navigating the Internet.
Select one:
a. Technological fluency
b. Creativity and innovation
c. Critical thinking
d. New literacies
Question 15
True or False: The 7C’s include Contextualizing.
Answer: false
Question 16
True or False: Cloud computing uses clouds that were converted to provide Internet-based services to
users.
Answer: false
Question 17
What is the formula for 21st century learning?
Select one:
a. 3Rs × 7Cs
b. 7Cs - 3Rs
c. 3Cs × 7Rs
d. 3Rs + 7Cs
Question 18
The Industrial age is said to have been started by the _____
Select one:
a. French Revolution
b. Industrial Age
c. Digital Age
d. Industrial Revolution
Question 19
The first Internet connection in the Philippines was established in what year?
Select one:
a. 1995
b. 1996
c. 1999
d. 1994
Question 20
Today, in the 21st century, advancements in telecommunications allow employers to _____ people from
different parts of the world.
Select one:
a. Outsmart
b. Outnumber
c. Outsource
d. Outsell
Question 21
_____ of validation means “Validating people and ideas within an appropriate context.”
Select one:
a. Creative processes
b. Connected processes
c. Altered processes
d. Increased processes
Feedback
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1.00/1.00.
Question 22
True or False: To spot a trend, first, you need to take a close look at what is currently happening.
Answer: true
Question 23
Select one:
a. Fad
b. Network
c. Trend
d. Pattern
Question 24
In social media, what term is used to describe anything that is getting a lot of attention?
Select one:
a. hashtag
b. trending
c. Tweeting
d. trendy
Question 25
Select one:
a. Trend Analysis
b. Trend Science
c. Social media science
d. Network Science
Question 26
In the Industrial age, hand tools and manual labor was replaced by _____ powered machinery and mass
production
Select one:
a. Electricity
b. Steam
c. Horse
d. Nuclear
Question 27
Facebook, Twitter, and Instagram are examples of _____.
Select one:
a. New Media
b. Social Media
c. Internet
d. Mobile Computing
Question 28
Select one:
a. Computer Age
b. Digital Age
c. New Media Age
d. All of them
Question 29
True or False: In the 21st century, the shift from digital to analog systems improved existing processes
that were developed during the Industrial Age.
Answer: false
Question 30
True or False: A fad can be an indicator of the rise, fall, or continuation of a trend and several fads can
be a part of an ongoing trend.
Answer: TRUE
TRENDS LA4
Question 1
Write A if the item falls under Scientific Method, B for Socratic Method and C for What Critical Thinking
is NOT:
Being open-minded
Answer: C
Question 2
Fill in the blanks: (Separate the answers with a comma) "Children must be taught HOW, WHAT
to think, not ____ to think." - Margaret Mead.
Marks for this submission: 1.00/1.00.
Question 3
Fill in the blank: double ignorance
is the lack of knowledge plus the belief of having knowledge.
Question 4
Fill in the blank: The SCIENTIFIC METHOD is a set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and
credible investigation.
Question 5
Write A if the item falls under Scientific Method, B for Socratic Method and C for What Critical Thinking
is NOT:
Come up with a new hypothesis
Answer: B
TRENDS SQ4
Question 1
The following are parts of the scientific method except _____
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Analysis
c. Hypothesis
d. Presentation
Question 2
_____ is an evidence-based guess which is used a guide in finding the real answer
Select one:
a. Argument
b. Hypothesis
c. Ignorance
d. Problem Solving
Question 3
Which of the following is the final step in the Scientific Method?
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Hypothesis
c. Analysis
d. Experimentation
Question 4
_____ is a tool that can be used to determine which are the right questions to ask
Select one:
a. Socratic method
c. 5W1H
d. Universal scepticism
Question 5
_____ is considered valid if the result can be replicated by others.
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Experimentation
c. Conclusion
d. Analysis
Question 6
_____ aims to discover a universal truth.
Select one:
a. Thinking a lot
b. Socratic method
c. Critical Thinking
d. Scientific method
Question 7
Which of the following is the first step in the Scientific Method?
Select one:
a. Question
b. Observation
c. Hypothesis
d. Analysis
Question 8
A set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and credible investigation is called the _____
Select one:
a. Scientific method
c. Socratic method
d. Thinking a lot
Question 9
_____ is disciplined thinking that is clear, rational, open-minded, and informed by evidence
Select one:
a. Creative Thinking
c. Intuitive Thinking
Question 10
Critical thinking promotes _____ by making us admit if our personal beliefs are wrong.
Select one:
a. Self awareness
b. Problem solving
c. Humility
d. Intellectual independence
TRENDS LA5
QUESTION 1
Match each example with the proper fallacy:
When right, I’m right.
Select one:
h. Circular Argument
QUESTION 2
If you eat a slice of cake tonight, tomorrow, you will have two slices, then three, and after one month,
you will be eating a whole cake per night.
Select one:
j. Slippery slope
QUESTION 3
The enemy of my enemy is my friend.
h. False Dichotomy
QUESTION 4
I used this pen when I aced my exam. This pen is the reason why I aced my exam.
Select one:
g. Post Hoc
QUESTION 5
My dog has given birth twice and both times, there were three puppies. Her next litter will be three
puppies for sure.
Select one:
i. Gambler’s Fallacy
TRENDS SQ5
QUESTION 1
“All my previous boyfriends cheated on me. Men are all cheaters.” This is an example of _____.
Select one:
a. Circular Argument
b. Gambler’s Fallacy
c. False Analogy
d. Hasty Generalization
QUESTION 2
_____ is when individuals are trained to act in a manner that is deemed proper by society that they
belong in.
Select one:
b. Social Conformity
c. Sociocentrism
d. Ethnocentrism
QUESTION 3
Our tendency to favour one thing over another is called _____
Select one:
a. Bias
b. Stereotype
c. Prejudice
d. Ego
QUESTION 4
Select one:
a. Sociocentrism
c. Social Conditioning
d. Halo Effect
QUESTION 5
“You support gay marriage because you’re gay.” This is an example of _____
Select one:
a. Gambler’s Fallacy
b. Circular Argument
c. Post Hoc
d. Ad hominem
QUESTION 6
“A Filipino taxi driver returned a bag that was full of cash. Filipinos are honest.” This is an example of
_____
Select one:
a. Straw Man
b. Hasty Generalization
c. Ethnocentrism
d. Gambler’s Fallacy
QUESTION 7
Following a fad without considering its possible negative effects is an example of _____
Select one:
a. Ethnocentrism
c. Sociocentrism
d. Social Conditioning
QUESTION 8
_____ is when our general impression of a person, irrationally affects our opinion of that person’s
specific qualities.
Select one:
a. Superstition
b. Straw man
c. Halo effect
d. Non Sequitur
QUESTION 9
“It always rains when Dave is around. Don’t invite Dave.” This is an example of _____
Select one:
a. Post Hoc
c. Ad hominem
d. Gambler’s Fallacy
QUESTION 10
An opinion that is not based on critical thinking is called _____
Select one:
a. Ego
b. Stereotype
c. Bias
d. Prejudice
TRENDS LA6
QUESTION 1
Correct
Marked out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
Match the given term to its description:
Weaknesses
Select one:
f. negative qualities
QUESTION 2
Barry is a programmer and he is a candidate for promotion. Help him in his SWOT analysis by labelling
the following factors. Write S for Strength, W for Weakness, O for Opportunity, and T for Threat:
Some of the candidates have Masters Degrees while I only have a bachelor’s degree
Answer: THREAT
QUESTION 3
Working overtime can boost my performance rating
Answer: OPPORTUNITY
QUESTION 4
Match the given term to its description:
Intelligent Opportunism
Select one:
j. adapt to new developments
QUESTION 5
I’m not good at giving presentations
Answer: WEAKNESS
TRENDS SQ6
QUESTION 1
_____ means being mindful of the interconnection between the past, present, and the future.
Select one:
a. Thinking in Time
b. Intelligent Opportunism
c. Intent-focused
d. Systems Perspective
QUESTION 2
An informed guess that is based on gathered information
Select one:
a. Intent-focused
b. Thinking in Time
c. Hypothesis
d. Hypothesis-driven
QUESTION 3
_____ are things that are out of your control.
Select one:
a. Strengths
b. Weaknesses
c. External Factors
d. Internal Factors
QUESTION 4
Positive qualities and useful resources that you have are considered as _____
Select one:
a. Threats
b. Weaknesses
c. Opportunities
d. Strengths
QUESTION 5
_____ can be defined as the ability to exploit new developments.
Select one:
a. SWOT Analysis
b. Intent-focused
c. Systems Perspective
d. Intelligent Opportunism
QUESTION 6
The following are parts of the SMART criteria except _____.
Select one:
a. Specific
b. Attainable
c. Measurable
d. Realistic
QUESTION 7
_____ is a method that is widely used by businesses to help create effective strategies
Select one:
a. Thinking in Time
b. SMART CRITERIA
d. SWOT Analysis
QUESTION 8
If you have limited capabilities and resources, you may have to set a more _____ goal
Select one:
a. Attainable
b. Specific
c. Relevant
d. Measurable
QUESTION 9
Adding a deadline to a goal makes it _____
Select one:
a. Relevant
b. Measurable
c. Time-bound
d. Specific
QUESTION 10
_____ are elements or events that can cause problems
Select one:
a. Opportunities
b. Weaknesses
c. Strengths
d. Threats
TRENDS LQ2
QUESTION 1
A logical fallacy that is used to counter an argument by questioning the person who made the argument
instead of the argument itself.
Answer: AD HOMINEM
QUESTION 2
A fallacy in which the conclusion does not follow the premise.
Answer: NON SEQUITUR
QUESTION 3
Following a fad without considering its possible negative effects is an example of _____
Select one:
a. Sociocentrism
b. Ethnocentrism
d. Social Conformity
QUESTION 4
_____ is an opinion that is not based on critical thinking
Select one:
a. Ego
b. Bias
c. Stereotype
d. Prejudice
QUESTION 5
A fallacy in which one distorts or exaggerates an opposing argument.
Answer: STRAW MAN
QUESTION 6
A fallacy in which only a limited number of choices are presented without considering others that may
exist.
Answer: FALSE DICHOTOMY
QUESTION 7
A fallacy that falsely assumes that something that happened before an event is the cause of that event.
Answer: POST HOC
QUESTION 8
In mathematical terms, a network is called a _____.
Select one:
a. Graph
b. Complex Network
c. Node
d. Vertex
QUESTION 9
_____ can be summed up as “I know that I do not know”
Select one:
a. Single Ignorance
b. Double Ignorance
c. Platonic Ignorance
d. Socratic Ignorance
QUESTION 10
The tendency to favour one thing over another is called _____
Select one:
a. Bias
b. Prejudice
c. Ego
d. Stereotype
QUESTION 11
A set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and credible investigation is called the _____
Select one:
b. Thinking a lot
c. Socratic method
QUESTION 12
An individual entity in a network is called a/an _____
Select one:
a. Node
b. Graph
c. Edge
d. Link
QUESTION 13
random
Select one:
a. Random Network
b. Complex network
d. Small world network
QUESTION 14
ms, a link is called a/an _____.
Select one:
a. Vertex
b. Graph
c. Node
d. Edge
QUESTION 15
_____ aims to discover a universal truth.
Select one:
a. Socratic method
c. Thinking a lot
d. Critical Thinking
QUESTION 16
Absence of knowledge plus the illusion of having knowledge is known as _____
Select one:
a. Socratic Ignorance
b. Scientific Ignorance
c. Double Ignorance
d. Simple Ignorance
QUESTION 17
_____ is an overly generalized description of members of a group
Select one:
a. Prejudice
b. Sociocentrism
c. Bias
d. Stereotype
QUESTION 18
A fallacy that happens when a conclusion or generalization is made without considering all the variables.
Answer: HASTY GENERALIZATION
QUESTION 19
Positive qualities and useful resources that you have are considered as _____
Select one:
a. Threats
b. Strengths
c. Weaknesses
d. Opportunities
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is an internal factor in SWOT analysis?
Select one:
a. Specific
b. Threats
c. Weaknesses
d. Opportunities
QUESTION 21
A fallacy in which the conclusion of the argument is also used as the premise.
Answer: CIRCULAR ARGUMENT
QUESTION 22
A fallacy in which one tries to prove a point by comparing it to something that may look similar but is
not really logically connected.
Answer: FALSE ANALOGY
QUESTION 23
The incorrect assumption that because something is happening frequently in the past, it will happen
again in the future.
Answer: GAMBLER’S FALLACY
QUESTION 24
A _____ is a group of entities that are connected to each other.

Select one:
a. Network
b. Link
c. Node
d. Vertex
QUESTION 25
A _____ has few nodes with a lot of links and lot of nodes with few links.
Select one:
a. Complex network
d. Random Network
QUESTION 26
_____ is when our general impression of a person, irrationally affects our opinion of that person’s
specific qualities.
Select one:
a. Non Sequitur
b. Straw man
c. Superstition
d. Halo effect
QUESTION 27
short paths.
Select one:
a. Small world network
b. Complex network
d. Random Network
QUESTION 28
other.
Select one:
a. Random Network
b. Power Law
c. Complex network
d. preferential attachment
QUESTION 29
_____ is an evidence-based guess which is used as a guide in finding the real answer
Select one:
a. Problem Solving
b. Argument
c. Hypothesis
d. Ignorance
QUESTION 30
Select one:
a. edge
b. Hub
c. Power law
d. Complex node
TRENDS LA7
QUESTION 1
True or False: A small world network is a network where most nodes are directly linked.
Answer: FALSE (NOT DIRECTLY)
QUESTION 2
In mathematical terms, a link is called a/an EDGE.
QUESTION 3
In mathematical terms, a node is called a/an VERTEX.
QUESTION 4
A NETWORK is a group of entities that are connected to each other.
QUESTION 5
True or False: Network science emerged as a field of study at the beginning of the 20st century.
Answer: FALSE (20TH)
TRENDS SQ7
QUESTION 1
The average size of a person’s social circle is 150-200. Willie’s social circle has 120, George’s has 170,
Jessie’s has 350, and Lisa’s has 70. Which of them is a hub?
Select one:
a. Jessie
b. George
c. Willie
d. Lisa
QUESTION 2
Mary is going to France. From Manila, she takes a flight that goes to Singapore. From there, she boards
another plane which goes to France. Considering that International air travel is a network, what kind of
network is it?
Select one:
a. Random Network

c. Social network
QUESTION 3
Select one:
a. Complex network
d. Random Network
QUESTION 4
A _____ is a group of entities that are connected to each other.
Select one:
a. Vertex
b. Node
c. Link
d. Network
QUESTION 5
short paths.
Select one:
b. Scale-free network
c. Random Network
d. Complex network
QUESTION 6

Select one:
a. Node
b. Vertex
c. Complex Network
d. Graph
QUESTION 7
There is a limit to how many or how few links a node in a _____can have.
Select one:
a. Complex network
c. Random Network
QUESTION 8
In mathematical terms, a link is called a/an _____.
Select one:
a. Edge
b. Graph
c. Node
d. Vertex
QUESTION 9
random
Select one:
a. Complex network
b. Random Network
d. Small world network
QUESTION 10
other.
Select one:
a. Random Network
b. Complex network
c. Power Law
TRENDS 3RD QE
QUESTION 1
Select one:
a. Ignorance
b. Bias
c. Stereotype
d. Prejudice
QUESTION 2
Select one:
a. Ad Hoc
b. Ad hominem
c. Post Hoc
d. Circular Argument
QUESTION 3
Select one:
a. Synthesis
b. Fad
c. Trend
d. Node
QUESTION 4
_____ can be summed up as "I know that I do not know"
Select one:
b. Double Ignorance
c. Single Ignorance
d. Simple Ignorance
QUESTION 5
Acceptance of uncertainty means balancing what is known with the unknown...to see how existing
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 6
other.
Select one:
a. Power Law
b. Complex network
c. Random Network
QUESTION 7
Select one:
a. Halo Effect
b. Social Conditioning
c. Stereotype
QUESTION 8
_____is a network of servers that work together to provide Internet-based services to users.
Select one:
a. The Internet
b. Cloud Computing
c. Digital Revolution
d. The Cloud
QUESTION 9
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 10
What is the formula for 21st
Select one:
a. 3Rs + 7Cs
b. X + Y
c. 7Cs - 3Rs
d. 3Rs x 7Cs
e. learning
QUESTION 11
An individual entity in a network is called a_____
Select one:
a. Node
b. Link
c. Graph
d. Hub
QUESTION 12
A group of entities that are connected to each other is called a _____.
Select one:
a. Link
b. Node
c. Vertex
d. Network
QUESTION 13
Hypothesis is the final phase of the Scientific Method.
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 14
_____ is the mathematical term for a link.
Select one:
a. Vertex
b. Edge
c. Graph
d. Node
QUESTION 15
A fad is a pattern of change.
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 16
Select one:
a. Measurable
b. Methodical
c. Motivation
d. Minimal
QUESTION 17
short paths.
Select one:
a. Random Network
d. Complex network
QUESTION 18
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 19
Select one:
a. Computer Age
b. New Media Age
c. Digital Age
d. All of the answers are correct
QUESTION 20
Select one:
a. Social Media
b. Statistics
c. Network Science
d. Trend Analysis
QUESTION 21
_____ is the discomfort that we feel when our personal beliefs are being challenged.
Select one:
a. Self-righteousness
b. Cognitive dissonance
c. comfort zone
QUESTION 22
Select one:
b. Complex network
c. Random Network
QUESTION 23
Select one:
a. Critical and creative thinking
b. Anchoring
c. Contextualizing
QUESTION 24
Select one:
a. SWOT Analysis
b. Strategic thinking
c. SMART Criteria
d. Critical thinking
QUESTION 25
Select one:
a. Self-righteousness
b. Saving face
c. Resistance to change
d. Hypocricy
QUESTION 26
Select one:
a. Node
b. Graph
c. Vertex
d. Complex Network
QUESTION 27
The Industrial Age is an era that started around the year 1960 when hand tools and manual labor was
replaced by steam-powered machinery and mass production.
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 28
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 29
_____ is a technology that allows sending, receiving, and processing of information wherever the users
may be.
Select one:
a. Global warming
b. Cloud computing
c. Mobile computing
d. Social Media
QUESTION 30
The ability to stay focused on important tasks while undergoing a deluge of distractions is also known as
_____.
Select one:
b. Contextualizing
c. Anchoring
QUESTION 31
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 32
Building networks in order to continue to stay current and informed is necessary in _____
Select one:
a. Altered processes of validation
b. Pattern recognition
QUESTION 33
random
Select one:
c. Random Network
d. Complex network
QUESTION 34
_____ includes skills like operating computers and mobile devices and navigating the internet
Select one:
b. 5W1H
c. Technological Fluency
QUESTION 35
An example of saving face is denying to have said something after being proven wrong.
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 36
_____ is an informed guess that is based on gathered information
Select one:
a. Hypothesis
b. Strategy
c. Observation
d. Analysis
QUESTION 37
A random network is a complex network
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 38
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 39
Select one:
a. Simple
b. Specific
c. Spontaneous
d. Systematic
QUESTION 40
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 41
_____ is a mindset in which one considers himself or herself to be the center of everything.
Select one:
a. Sociocentrism
b. Ethnocentrism
c. Egocentrism
d. Social conformity
QUESTION 42
Select one:
a. Prejudice
b. Halo Effect
c. Fad
d. Stereotype
QUESTION 43
Select one:
b. Socratic method
c. Scientific method
d. Strategic thinking
QUESTION 44
The Information Age started on which decade?
Select one:
a. 1960's
b. 1970's
c. 2000's
d. 1990's
QUESTION 45
A scale-free network is a complex network.
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 46
In SWOT Analysis, _____ are elements or events that can cause problems
Select one:
a. Weaknesses
b. Threats
c. Strengths
d. Opportunities
QUESTION 47
Select one:
a. Halo Effect
b. Sociocentrism
QUESTION 48
Select one:
a. Weaknesses
b. Opportunities
c. Threats
d. Strengths
QUESTION 49
"Creativity and innovation" is one of the 7C's.
Select one:
True
False
QUESTION 50
Select one:
a. Hub
b. Power law
c. edge
d. Complex node
TRENDS LA9
QUESTION 1
The way a society is organized
Select one:
j. Social structure
QUESTION 2
It is also possible for a society to be composed of people from different places.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 3
The social roles that come with a social status can change through time
Select one:
a. False
b. True
QUESTION 4
Closeness centrality determines which node has the shortest average path to the other nodes in the
network.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
QUESTION 5
Measure of importance of a node in a network
Select one:
i. Centrality
TRENDS SQ9
QUESTION 1
_____ is the things that we do in order to survive.
Select one:
a. Latency
b. Goal attainment
c. Adaptation
d. Integration
QUESTION 2
_____ is measured based on the number of links that a node has.
Select one:
a. Betweenness centrality
b. Closeness centrality
c. Social centrality
d. Degree centrality
QUESTION 3
People are the _____ in a social network
Select one:
a. Nodes
b. Answer
c. Networks
d. Links
QUESTION 4
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_____ is an informal rule or practice that governs the behaviour of the members of a society.
Select one:
a. Social status
b. Social structure
c. Social norm
QUESTION 5
_____ is measured by how many indirect connections passes through a node.
Select one:
d. Social centrality
QUESTION 6
_____ is society’s way of ranking people based on factors such as wealth, intellect, power, etc.
Select one:
a. Social structure
b. Social status
c. Social norm
QUESTION 7
_____ is a group of people that constantly interact with each other.
Select one:
a. Society
b. Social status
c. Social norm
QUESTION 8
_____ is the measure of importance of a node in a network.
Select one:
a. Neutrality
b. Centrality
c. Importance
d. Intensity
QUESTION 9
____ is the position of a person in a society.
Select one:
b. Social structure
c. Social status
d. Social norm
QUESTION 10
_____ is a part that a person is expected to play in a society.
Select one:
a. Social role
b. Social status
c. Stratification
d. Social norm
___ is a network that has a structure and behavior that is neither totally predictable nor completely
random
Select one:
a. Complex network
c. Random Network
Question 2
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An individual entity in a network is called a_____
Select one:
a. Node
b. Link
c. Graph
d. Hub
Question 3
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Select one:
True
False
Question 4
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Select one:
a. Trend
b. Fad
c. Pattern
d. Network
Question 5
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Select one:
a. Digital Age
b. Computer Age
c. All of the answers are correct
d. New Media Age
Question 6
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Select one:
a. Anchoring
b. Contextualizing
Question 7
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Select one:
a. Prejudice
b. Halo Effect
c. Stereotype
d. Fad
Question 8
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The Industrial Age is an era that started around the year 1960 when hand tools and manual labor was
replaced by steam-powered machinery and mass production.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
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Select one:
b. Socratic method
Question 10
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True
False
Question 11
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Select one:
a. Node
b. Synthesis
c. Trend
d. Fad
Question 12
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In what year did the Internet start in the Philippines?
Select one:
a. 1994
b. 1999
c. 1991
d. 2000
Question 13
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Building networks in order to continue to stay current and informed is necessary in _____
Select one:
a. Altered processes of validation
b. Connecting with each other
d. Pattern recognition
Question 14
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other.
Select one:
a. Complex network
b. Power Law
c. Random Network
Question 15
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_____ is doing something while claiming to believe in the opposite.
Select one:
a. Saving face
b. Self-righteousness
c. Cognitive dissonance
d. Hypocricy
Question 16
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Altered processes of validation means understanding implications, comprehending meaning and impact.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
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True
False
Question 18
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Select one:
a. Measurable
b. Methodical
c. Motivation
d. Minimal
Question 19
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Critical thinking means thinking a lot and being open minded.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
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_____ is a type of bias in which our general impression of a person, irrationally affects our opinion of
that person's specific qualities.
Select one:
a. Prejudice
b. Conformity
c. Stereotype
d. Halo Effect
Question 21
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Select one:
a. Threats
b. Strengths
c. Weaknesses
d. Opportunities
Question 22
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Select one:
a. Bias
b. Ignorance
c. Stereotype
d. Prejudice
Question 23
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What is the formula for 21st
Select one:
a. 7Cs - 3Rs
b. learning
c. 3Rs + 7Cs
d. X + Y
e. 3Rs x 7Cs
Question 24
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Select one:
a. Complex network
c. Random Network
Question 25
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Cloud computing uses clouds that are converted to transmit digital information.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
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Select one:
c. Sociocentrism
d. Halo Effect
Question 27
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Select one:
a. Vertex
b. Complex Network
c. Node
d. Graph
Question 28
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Select one:
a. Statistics
b. Network Science
c. Social Media
d. Trend Analysis
Question 29
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_____is a network of servers that work together to provide Internet-based services to users.
Select one:
a. The Internet
b. Digital Revolution
c. The Cloud
d. Cloud Computing
Question 30
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Select one:
True
False
Question 31
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_____ is the absence of knowledge coupled with the illusion of having knowledge.
Select one:
b. Double Ignorance
c. Simple Ignorance
d. single ignorance
Question 32
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_____ is a method that aims to discover a universal truth.
Select one:
a. Strategic Thinking
c. Socratic method
Question 33
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True
False
Question 34
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_____ is the tendency to favour one thing over another.
Select one:
a. Bias
b. Prejudice
c. Trend
d. Ego
Question 35
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Select one:
a. Strategic thinking
b. SWOT Analysis
c. Critical thinking
d. SMART Criteria
Question 36
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Select one:
True
False
Question 37
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_____ can be summed up as "I know that I do not know"
Select one:
a. Single Ignorance
b. Double Ignorance
c. Socratic Ignorance
d. Simple Ignorance
Question 38
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A fad is a pattern of change.
Select one:
True
False
Question 39
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Select one:
a. Computing and ICT literacy
c. New literacies
d. 3Rs x 7Cs
Question 40
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Select one:
b. Stereotype
c. Social Conformity
d. Halo Effect
Question 41
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What does R stand for in SMART?
Select one:
a. Relevant
b. Reasonable
c. Realistic
d. Reliable
Question 42
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Select one:
a. edge
b. Hub
c. Power law
d. Complex node
Question 43
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The call center industry is estimated to account for _____ of the Philippine economy?
Select one:
a. 50%
b. 4%
c. 10%
d. 30%
Question 44
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Select one:
a. Post Hoc
c. Ad hominem
d. Ad Hoc
Question 45
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What does O stand for in SWOT?
Select one:
a. Opportunities
b. Offers
c. Options
d. Output
Question 46
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Select one:
a. Hypocricy
b. Resistance to change
c. Saving face
d. Self-righteousness
Question 47
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A group of entities that are connected to each other is called a _____.

Select one:
a. Vertex
b. Node
c. Link
d. Network
Question 48
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In SWOT Analysis, _____ are things that are out of your control.
Select one:
a. Internal Factors
b. Weaknesses
c. External Factors
d. Strengths
Question 49
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Select one:
c. Random Network
d. Complex network
Question 50
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Select one:
a. Spontaneous
b. Simple
c. Specific
d. Systematic
1. The social roles that come with a social status can change through time
Select one:
a. True
b. False
2. _____ is the things that we do in order to survive.
Select one:
a. Adaptation
b. Integration
c. Goal attainment
d. Latency
3. The term “neural network” can only apply to biological neural networks
Select one:
a. False
b. True
4. _____ is the way a society is organized.
Select one:
a. Social structure
b. Social status
c. Social norm
5. The relationships between people are the _____ in a network.
Select one:
a. Links
b. Nodes
c. AGIL
d. Networks
6. People are the _____ in a social network
Select one:
a. Answer
b. Links
c. Networks
d. Nodes
7. What is the rank or position of a person in a society.
Select one:
a. Social structure
b. Social norm
c. Social stratification
d. Social status
8. What is the function of the given part of the neuron?
Axons
Select one:
b. acts like a factory that produces proteins
c. sends out the neuron’s output
d. connected to the dendrites of other neurons
e. contains most of our DNA
9. What is the name of the sociologist who created the AGIL paradigm?
Select one:
a. Talcott Parsons
b. Talcott Person
c. Talcott Pearson
d. Ascott Larson
10. Society’s way of categorizing people
Select one:
a. Integration
b. Social norms
c. Social Stratification
d. Centrality
e. Social Status
f. Social structure
g. Society
h. Social Roles
i. Goal
j. Adaptation
11. Involves the inherent need to connect with other human beings
Select one:
a. Centrality
b. Integration
c. Society
d. Social Stratification
e. Adaptation
f. Social Roles
g. Social Status
h. Social structure
i. Goal
j. Social norms
12. _____ is the network inside the brain composed of interconnected neurons.
Select one:
a. Biological Neural Network
b. Artificial Neural Network
c. Social Neural Network
d. Brain Neural Network
13. _____ is measured based on the number of links that a node has.
Select one:
a. Social centrality
d. Closeness centrality
14. _____ is society’s way of ranking people based on factors such as wealth, intellect, power, etc.
Select one:
a. Social norm
b. Social structure
c. Social status
15. Shaking hands, high five, peace sign, and other hand gestures are examples of social norms.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
16. Training is done by inputing large amounts of data called _____.
Select one:
a. Neurons
b. Training examples
c. Training
d. Machine learning
e. Input layer
f. Deep learning
g. Artificial neural networks
h. Data mining
i. Hidden layer
j. Output layer
17. _____ is a branch of Machine Learning that uses algorithms based on artificial neural networks.
Select one:
a. Neurons
b. Data mining
c. Training examples
d. Training
e. Machine learning
f. Hidden layer
g. Output layer
h. Input layer
i. Deep learning
j. Artificial neural networks
18. _____ is something that you have.
Select one:
a. Social status
c. Social norm
d. Social role
19. _____ is measured by how many indirect connections passes through a node.
Select one:
a. Social centrality
20. What are informal rules and practices observed in a society
Select one:
a. Social norms
b. Social rules
c. Social structure
21. _____ is a computing system that is modeled after the neural structure of the brain.
Select one:
b. Software neural network
c. Structural neural network
d. Procedural neural network
22. An average human brain has approximately 100 thousand neurons.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
23. Positive condition that attracts people to a particular location
Select one:
a. Saudi Arabia
b. Immigration
c. Refugee
d. Nationality
e. California
f. Push factor
g. Ireland
h. Migration
i. Pull factor
j. Citizen
24. The Filipino tradition of pagmamano is an example of _____.
Select one:
a. Social status
c. Social norm
d. Stratification
25. _____ is measured by how many indirect connections passes through a node.
Select one:
26. International trade leads to better product quality
Select one:
a. True
b. False
27. _____ is a subfield of Computer Science that is concerned with creating computers that can “learn”
without having to be programmed by humans.
Select one:
a. Machine learning
b. Deep Learning
c. Artificial Learning
d. Artificial Intelligence
28. Involves the inherent need to connect with other human beings
Select one:
a. Social Stratification
b. Social Roles
c. Goal
d. Integration
e. Centrality
f. Social Status
g. Adaptation
h. Social norms
i. Social structure
j. Society
29. Rank or position of a person in a society
Select one:
a. Goal
b. Society
c. Social Status
d. Adaptation
e. Social structure
f. Integration
g. Social Roles
h. Centrality
i. Social Stratification
j. Social norms
30. There can be several _____ in a neural network which perform specific tasks
Select one:
a. Input layers
b. Hidden layers
c. Output layers
d. Neural layers
31. International financial institution that provides loans to developing countries
Select one:
a. United Nations
b. ASEAN
c. European Union
d. Art
e. UNESCO
f. Language
g. World Bank
h. World Trade Organization
i. Political globalization
j. Treaty on European Union
32. What is the function of the given part of the neuron?
Axon Terminal
Select one:
b. sends out the neuron’s output
c. connected to the dendrites of other neurons
e. acts like a factory that produces proteins
33. Information enters the artificial neural network through the _____
Select one:
a. Input layer
b. Neurons
c. Output layer
d. Machine learning
e. Artificial neural networks
f. Hidden layer
g. Training
h. Training examples
i. Data mining
j. Deep learning
34. Social role is something that you have to do.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
35. Choose push if item is a push factor and pull if item is pull factor
Free health care
Select one:
a. Push
b. Pull
36. Another term for citizenship
Select one:
a. Saudi Arabia
b. Migration
c. Refugee
d. Pull factor
e. Citizen
f. Ireland
g. Immigration
h. California
i. Nationality
j. Push factor
37. Switzerland
Select one:
a. Direct democracy
b. freedom of association
c. ekklesia
d. Magna Carta
e. consul
f. Abraham Lincoln
g. power
h. freedom of speech
i. the people
j. jury
38. Not all countries allow multiple citizenship.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
39. _____ is the movement of organisms from one place to another.
Select one:
a. Nationality
b. Migration
c. Immigration
d. Citizenship
40. The _____ was formed immediately after World War 2 and has 51 founding members.
Select one:
a. World Trade Organization
b. United Nations
c. World Bank
d. European Union
41. Group that decides the outcome of a court trial
Select one:
a. consul
b. Direct democracy
c. freedom of speech
d. Abraham Lincoln
e. freedom of association
f. Magna Carta
g. ekklesia
h. the people
i. jury
j. power
42. Representative democracy is a type of democracy where officials are elected by the citizens to act in
their behalf.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
43. Which country experienced a famine in 1840’s caused by potato blight?
Select one:
a. Ireland
b. Syria
c. East Germany
d. Rwanda
44. The Magna Carta is composed of how many clauses?
Select one:
a. 65
b. 62
c. 64
d. 63
45. The UN had 51 founding members.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
46. _____ is “the increasing interdependence of world economies as a result of the growing scale of
cross-border trade of commodities and services, flow of international capital and wide and rapid spread
of technologies.”
Select one:
a. Cultural Globalization
b. Political Globalization
c. Economic Globalization
d. International trade
47. Kratos
Select one:
a. jury
b. ekklesia
c. consul
d. freedom of speech
f. the people
g. Abraham Lincoln
h. Direct democracy
i. power
j. Magna Carta
48. Representative democracy is a type of democracy where members can personally participate in
dialogue and decision making.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
49. _____ is also known as freedom of association
Select one:
a. Right to due process and fair trial
c. Freedom of speech
d. Freedom of expression
50. The E in UNESCO stands for _____.
Select one:
a. Entertainment
b. Environmental
c. Economic
d. Educational
51. ASEAN was founded on August 8, _____.
Select one:
a. 1975
b. 1965
c. 1967
d. 1957
52. The Ancient Greek word “kratos” means _____.
Select one:
a. The Republic
b. Democracy
c. Power
d. The people
53. It is possible for a person to be a citizen of more than two countries.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
54. Natural disasters such as earthquakes and typhoons are pull factors
Select one:
a. False
b. True
55. Freedom of assembly
Select one:
a. consul
b. freedom of speech
c. the people
d. Direct democracy
e. power
f. jury
g. freedom of association
h. Abraham Lincoln
i. Magna Carta
j. ekklesia
56. What is the official currency used by 19 member countries of the EU?
Select one:
a. Euro
b. Pound
c. European Dollar (EUD)
d. Dollars
57. The conditions that drive people to leave a particular area are called _____.
Select one:
a. Refugees
b. Citizenships
c. Pull factors
d. Push factors
58. The S in UNESCO stands for Scientific
Select one:
a. True
b. False
59. The democratic system practiced in Ancient Athens is an example of _____.

Select one:
a. Parliamentary Democracy
b. Direct Democracy
c. Representative democracy
d. Presidential Democracy
60. The conditions that attract people to a particular location are called _____.
Select one:
a. Push factors
b. Immigration
c. Migration
d. Pull factors
61. Moving to another country with the goal of becoming a permanent resident is called _____
Select one:
a. Citizenship
b. Migration
c. Dual Citizenship
d. Immigration
62. Demos
Select one:
a. the people
b. ekklesia
c. Abraham Lincoln
d. freedom of speech
f. power
g. Direct democracy
h. consul
i. Magna Carta
j. jury
63. _____ is caused by an increase of greenhouse gases in the Earth’s atmosphere.
Select one:
a. Greenhouse effect
b. Fossil Fuel
c. Deforestation
d. Plate tectonics
64. Cambodia is a Founding Member of ASEAN
Select one:
a. False
b. True
65. Democracy is a “government of the people, by the people, for the people”
Select one:
a. True
b. False
66. _____ is a form of government where power is held by a small group of people.
Select one:
a. Athenian Democracy
b. Monarchy
c. Democracy
d. Oligarchy
67. Gettysburg Address

Select one:
a. freedom of association
b. Abraham Lincoln
c. freedom of speech
d. power
e. the people
f. Magna Carta
g. jury
h. Direct democracy
i. consul
j. ekklesia
68. Movement of land masses
Select one:
a. Climate change
b. Deforestation
c. Fossil fuel
d. NASA
e. Greenhouse effect
f. Plate Tectonics
g. Global warming
h. Greenhouse gases
i. Methane
j. Ellipse
69. Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are examples of _____.
Select one:
a. Greenhouse gasses
b. fossil fuel
c. greenhouse effect
d. deforestation
70. Which intergovernmental organization has the motto “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”?
Select one:
a. European Union
b. United Nations
c. UNESCO
d. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
71. Ancient Rome is believed to be the first sovereign state to officially have a democratic government.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
72. _____ is defined as a change in the typical or average weather of a region or city.
Select one:
a. Global warming
b. Climate change
c. Earth’s orbit
d. Earth’s Axis
73. _____ is a type of democracy where members can personally participate in dialogue and decision
making.
Select one:
a. Representative democracy
b. Parliamentary Democracy
c. Direct Democracy
d. Presidential Democracy
74. _____ are economies that rely on a particular kind of industry.
Select one:
a. Specialized Economies
b. Developing Countries
c. Special Economies
d. Developing Economies
75. The amount of energy that is released by the sun changes from time to time.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
76. _____ are conditions that drive people to leave a particular area.
Select one:
a. Push factors
b. Pull factors
c. Forced migration
d. Refugees
77. UNESCO stands for United Nations Economic, Scientific and Cultural Organization
Select one:
a. True
b. False
78. Social role is something that you have.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
79. Who said “Democracy is when the people keep a government in check.”
Select one:
a. Abraham Lincoln
b. King John of England
c. Aung San Suu Kyi
d. Scipio Africanus
80. The _____ was founded immediately after World War 2. The Philippine Commonwealth was a
founding member.
Select one:
a. European Union
b. World Bank
c. United Nations
d. ASEAN
81. The human brain has approximately _____ neurons.
Select one:
a. 100 million
b. 100 billion
c. 100 thousand
d. 1 million
82. The Increase in _____ in the Earth’s atmosphere contributes to global warming
Select one:
a. Fossil fuels
b. Greenhouse gases
c. Ozone layer
d. Climate change
83. The _____ in a social network are people.

Select one:
a. Links
b. Nodes
c. Networks
d. Answer
84. What event started in 2011 and forced about 11 million people to leave their homes?
Select one:
a. Migration of Filipinos
b. California Gold Rush
c. Cold War
d. Syrian Civil War
85. Which of the Following is a proof of global warming?
Select one:
a. All of these
b. Rising global temperature
c. Decreasing Land Ice
d. Rising sea level
86. The tilt of the Earth’s axis is permanent.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
87. Which organization has the motto “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”
Select one:
a. European Union
b. United Nations
c. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
d. World Bank
88. Global Warming is mainly due to an intensified
Select one:
a. Plate tectonic
b. Greenhouse effect
c. Sunlight
d. Intensity
89. _____ is also known as a nerve cell.
Select one:
a. Axon
b. Dendrite
c. Synapse
d. Neuron
90. _____ is the measure of importance of a node in a network.
Select one:
a. Centrality
b. Importance
c. Neutrality
d. Intensity
91. _____ is the way a society is organized.
Select one:
a. Social norm
b. Social structure
c. Social status
92. The hottest year on record is 2015.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
93. The _____ is an Intergovernmental economic system that guarantees free movement of the 4
freedoms.
Select one:
a. European Single Market
b. International Single Market
c. International World Trade
d. European Central Market
94. Which organization has the motto "United in diversity"
Select one:
a. ASEAN
b. European Union
c. World Health Organization
d. United Nations
95. What is the official of most of the members of the European Union?
Select one:
a. Pound
b. Dollars
c. Euro
d. German Franc
96. _____ are thin fibers that branch out of the cell body and connects to other neurons
Select one:
a. Axon
b. Soma
c. Dendrite
d. Synapse
97. The WTO’s headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
98. _____ is a computing system that is modeled after the structure of the brain.
Select one:
b. Procedural neural network
c. Structural neural network
d. Software neural network
99. The World Trade Organization has 154 member countries.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
100. _____ is when a person is a citizen of more than one country
Select one:
a. Multiple citizenship
b. Immigration
c. Nationality
d. Migration
101. "United in diversity" is ASEAN’s motto.

Select one:
a. True
b. False
102. _____ is determined by measuring the average length of a node’s path to other nodes.
Select one:
d. Degree centrality
103. The _____ provides loans to developing countries.
Select one:
a. United Nations
b. World Trade Organization
c. European Union
d. World Bank
104. _____ is a subfield of Computer Science that is concerned with creating computers that can “learn”
without having to be programmed by humans.
Select one:
a. Deep Learning
b. Artificial Intelligence
c. Artificial Learning
d. Machine learning
105. A majority of Japanese people celebrate Christmas as a religious tradition
Select one:
a. False
b. True
106. What does ppm mean?
Select one:
a. Pieces per million
b. People per millennium
c. Parts per million
d. Particles per million
107. There are 5 known major Ice ages in our planet’s history.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
108. ASEAN has 10 member states.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
109. _____is the international exchange of products, knowledge, and culture.
Select one:
a. Specialization
b. Social Organization
c. Globalization
110. Social status is something that you have to do.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
111. _____ is the rank or position of a person in a society.

Select one:
a. Social structure
b. Social status
c. Social stratification
d. Social norm
112. WHO stands for World Health Organization.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
113. _____ is the permanent or semi-permanent movement of people across political boundaries.
Select one:
a. Citizenship
b. Migration
c. Immigration
d. Multiple Citizenship
114. _____ is the sum of the norms, responsibilities and expectations that applies to a person.
Select one:
a. Social norm
b. Social status
c. Stratification
d. Social role
115. _____ is what happens when more heat from the sun is retained inside the Earth’s athmosphere
instead of being reflected back to space.
Select one:
a. Deforestation
b. Plate tectonics
c. Fossil Fuel
d. Greenhouse effect
116. Kingdom, empire, sultanate, are examples of a _____.
Select one:
a. Monarchy
b. Roman Republic
c. Oligarchy
d. Democracy
117. Hand tools and manual labour were widely replaced by steam power and mass production during
the _____.
Select one:
a. Stone Age
b. Bronze Age
c. Information Age
d. Industrial Age
118. True or False: In social media, the term “trending” can be used to describe anything that is getting a
lot of attention.
Answer: TRUE
119. True or False: According to NASA, the levels of CO2 in the athmoshere is steadily dropping
Answer: FALSE
120. Which of the following terms correspond with: Internet in the Philippines
Select one:
a. 1760
b. 16
c. 1970’s
d. The Cloud
e. 1990’s
f. 1994
g. 1993
h. 21st Century
i. call center industry
j. Mobile computing
121. Which of the following is NOT true?
Select one:
a. The world job market creates better opportunities for professionals in developing countries
b. The world job market reduces opportunities for professionals in developing countries
c. The call center industry is estimated to account for 10% of the Philippine economy.
d. The call center industry is estimated to account for 3% of the Philippine economy.
122. Match the definition with the correct term.
Use unconventional methods and unstructured ways of thinking especially when tasked to come up with
new ideas.
Select one:
a. New Literacies
c. Communications, information, and media literacy
d. Navigate knowledge landscape
e. 21st Century Learning
f. 3R Skills
g. Creativity and innovation
h. Collaboration, teamwork, and leadership
i. Cross-cultural understanding
j. Career and learning self-reliance

123. True or False: The Pokemon Go is one of the most popular apps in the mid-90’s
Answer: FALSE
124. Write True if the Net Literacy is matched with its correct definition and False if not.
Filtering - Interacting at a human, not only utilitarian, level…to form social spaces.
Answer: FALSE
Critical and creative thinking - Questioning and dreaming
Answer: TRUE
126. Fill in the blank: Connect the _____.
Select one:
a. present
b. future
c. synthesis
d. dots
e. short-lived
f. social interactions
g. predictions
h. past
i. time frames
j. trend
127. True or False: A fad is a pattern of change
Answer: FALSE
128. True or False: The 7C’s include Contextualizing.
Answer: FALSE
129. Fill in the blank: The Socratic Method is a method that aims to discover a Answer or at least get as
close to the truth as possible. UNIVERSAL TRUTH
130. _____ requires building networks in order to continue to stay current and informed.
Select one:
a. Pattern recognition
b. Evaluation and authentication
131. The main difference between social media and other websites is that social media relies heavily on
user _____.
Select one:
a. Participation
b. Transaction
c. Payment
d. Reports
132. Which of the following is true about the Information Age?
Select one:
a. The demand for manual labor increases
b. The demand for technically skilled professionals and manual labor increases
c. The demand for manual labor declines
d. The demand for technically skilled professionals declines
133. Write A if the item falls under Scientific Method, B for Socratic Method and C for What Critical
Thinking is NOT:
Analysis
Answer: A
134. Write A if the item falls under Scientific Method, B for Socratic Method and C for What Critical
Thinking is NOT:
Come up with a new hypothesis
Answer: B
135. he Industrial Age is an era that started around the year _____
Select one:
a. 1670
b. 1869
c. 1760
d. 1770
Altered processes of validation - Validating people and ideas within an appropriate context.
Answer: TRUE
135. Fill in the blank: A _____ can mean a new way of thinking, a new direction in technology or a major
shift in culture.
Select one:
a. short-lived
b. trend
c. predictions
d. present
e. past
f. time frames
g. synthesis
h. dots
i. social interactions
j. future
136. In the Industrial age, hand tools and manual labor was replaced by _____ powered machinery and
mass production
Select one:
a. Steam
b. Horse
c. Electricity
d. Nuclear
137. Which of the following terms correspond with: Megaproblems
Select one:
a. 1760
b. 1994
c. 16
d. 1990’s
e. 1970’s
f. The Cloud
g. Mobile computing
h. 1993
i. call center industry
j. 21st Century
138. True or False: The Pokemon Go is one of the most popular apps in the mid-90’s
Answer: FALSE
139. Fill in the blank: Observe the _______.
Select one:
a. time frames
b. dots
c. predictions
d. past
e. trend
f. future
g. social interactions
h. short-lived
i. present
j. synthesis
140. Seeing how existing knowledge relates to what we do not know is part of _____
Select one:
b. Acceptance of uncertainty
141. Today, in the 21st century, advancements in telecommunications allow employers to _____ people
from different parts of the world.
Select one:
a. Outsell
b. Outsource
c. Outnumber
d. Outsmart
142. The planet’s surface is getting hotter.
Select one:
a. Water shortages
b. Growth of shanty cities
c. Mass famine in ill organized countries
d. Global warming
e. Unstoppable global migration
f. Extreme poverty
g. The spread of deserts

h. Runaway computer integration
i. War that could end civilization
j. Pandemics
143. The Information age is said to have been started by the _____
Select one:
a. New Media Revolution
b. Industrial Age
c. Digital Revolution
d. Digital Age
144. Which of the following are requirements for mobile computing?
Select one:
a. fixed internet connection
b. search engine websites
c. GPS-aided navigation
d. wireless Internet connection
145. An artificial
Select one:
a. Neural layers
b. Middle layers
c. Output layers
d. Hidden layers
146. The _____ in a social network are the relationships between people.
Select one:
a. Networks
b. Links
c. AGIL
d. Nodes
147. _____ are conditions that drive people to leave a particular area.
Select one:
a. Refugees
b. Forced migration
c. Push factors
d. Pull factors
148. _____ is “a government in which the supreme power is vested in the people and exercised by them
directly or indirectly through a system of representation usually involving periodically held free
elections”.
Select one:
a. Democracy
b. Monarchy
c. Republic
d. Oligarchy
149. Who gave the Gettysburg Address?
Select one:
a. King John of England
b. Aung San Suu Kyi
c. Abraham Lincoln
d. Constantine the Great
150. The Increase in _____ in the Earth’s atmosphere contributes to global warming
Select one:
a. Ozone layer
b. Climate change
c. Fossil fuels
d. Greenhouse gases
151. _____ is the increase in the Earth’s overall atmospheric temperature.
Select one:
a. Climate change
b. Greenhouse Effect
c. Deforestation
d. Global warming
152. Which of the following is a founding member of ASEAN?
Select one:
a. Cambodia
b. Vietnam
c. Laos
d. Indonesia
153. Who said “Democracy is when the people keep a government in check.”
Select one:
a. Abraham Lincoln
b. King John of England
c. Aung San Suu Kyi
d. Scipio Africanus
154. The number of indirect connections that pass through a node is the measure of its _____.
Select one:
b. Degree centrality
155. Which event happened in the 1840’s and many people from Ireland to immigrate?
Select one:
a. Cold War
b. Irish Potato Famine
c. Irish Gold Rush
d. Irish Civil War
156. “_____ is the “government of the people, by the people, for the people”
Select one:
a. Parliamentary System
b. Democracy
c. Oligarchy
d. Monarchy
157. _____ is the permanent or semi-permanent movement of people across political boundaries.
Select one:
a. Migration
b. Citizenship
c. Immigration
d. Multiple Citizenship
158. What does ppm mean?
Select one:
a. Parts per million
b. People per millennium
c. Particles per million
d. Pieces per million

159. Which organization has the motto "United in diversity"
Select one:
a. ASEAN
b. United Nations
c. World Health Organization
d. European Union
160. UNESCO stands for United Nations Economic, Scientific and Cultural Organization
Select one:
a. False
b. True
161. ASEAN stands for Association of Southern Asian Nations.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
162. At least 97% of climate scientists disagree that global warming is real and it is most probably caused
by humans.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
163. The World Trade Organization was established in January 1, 1995.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
164. _____ is an informal rule or practice that is followed by the members of a society.
Select one:
b. Social structure
c. Social status
d. Social norm
165. The last Ice Age ended about 12 thousand years ago.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
166. _____ is defined as a change in the typical or average weather of a region or city.
Select one:
a. Earth’s orbit
b. Global warming
c. Climate change
d. Earth’s Axis
167. The Ancient Greek word “kratos” means _____.
Select one:
a. The Republic
b. The people
c. Power
d. Democracy
168. _____ is the exchange of capital, goods, and services between countries.
Select one:
a. International Trade
b. Globalization
c. Social Organization
d. Specialization
169. The Ancient Greek word “demos” means _____.
Select one:
a. The people
b. Power
c. The Republic
d. Strength
170. _____ is a cell that is capable of receiving, processing, and sending information in the form of very
small electrical impulses.
Select one:
a. Neuron
b. Dendrite
c. Synapse
d. Axon
171. Information that enters an artificial neural network through the _____
Select one:
a. Output layer
b. Input layer
c. Neural network
d. Hidden layer
172. _____ is the legal status of a person as a member of a sovereign state
Select one:
a. Push Factor
b. Pull Factor
c. Immigration
d. Citizenship
173. _____ states that the land masses in our planet are moving in different directions
Select one:
a. Global warming
b. Earth’s orbit
c. Plate Tectonics Theory
d. Climate change
174. Which of the following is a UN specialized agency?
Select one:
a. ASEAN
b. UNESCO
c. EU
d. WTO
175. The European Union has how many member countries?
Select one:
a. 28
b. 32
c. 24
d. 22
176. A _____ is a person who has been forced to leave his or her country because of human conflict,
natural disasters, or political persecution.
Select one:
a. Dual Citizen
b. Immigrant
c. Migrant
d. Refugee
177. The _____ is “the only international organization dealing with the global rules of trade between
nations.”
Select one:
b. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
c. United Nations
d. World Bank
178. The number of the links that a node has is used to measure its _____.
Select one:
d. Closeness centrality
179. _____ means moving to another country with the goal of becoming permanent residents.
Select one:
a. Dual Citizenship
b. Citizenship
c. Immigration
d. Migration
180. The _____ was founded with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration?
Select one:
a. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
b. European Union
c. World Bank
d. United Nations
181. _____is a body of ice that are connected to land.
Select one:
a. Iceberg
b. Iceland
c. Land ice
d. Sea ice
182. Which of the following is NOT a specialized agency of the United Nations?
Select one:
b. World Health Organization
c. World Bank
d. UNESCO
183. _____ is the network inside the brain composed of neurons.
Select one:
a. Brain Neural Network
b. Social Neural Network
c. Artificial Neural Network
d. Biological Neural Network
184. The European Union has 22 member countries.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
185. _____ are conditions that attract people to a particular location.
Select one:
a. Pull factors
b. Refugees
c. Push factors
d. Migration
186. The United Nations has 61 founding members.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
187. The soma is also known as _____.
Select one:
a. Synapse
b. Cell body
c. Dendrite
d. Axon
188. _____ is society’s way of categorizing people.
Select one:
a. Social norm
c. Social structure
d. Social status
189. The European Union was founded on January 1, 1993.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
190. _____ is a branch of Machine Learning that uses algorithms based on artificial neural networks.
Select one:
a. Deep Learning
b. Artificial Learning
c. Machine learning
d. Artificial Intelligence
191. Which of the Following is a proof of global warming?
Select one:
a. Decreasing Land Ice
b. Rising global temperature
c. Rising sea level
d. All of these
192. _____ is a group of people that constantly interact with each other.
Select one:
a. Social status
b. Social norm
c. Society
193. The last _____ ended about 12 thousand years ago.
Select one:
a. Worldwide Global warming
b. Major Greenhouse effect
c. Major Ice age
d. Overpopulation
194. The Magna Carta is composed of how many clauses?
Select one:
a. 64
b. 61
c. 63
d. 62
OAM ANSWER KEY

 Learning Activity 1
Distinguishes a managerial position from a non-managerial one.
The correct answer is: Coordinating and integrating others' work
Mintzberg identifies twelve managerial roles grouped into three classes: Interpersonal, inter-
organizational, and decisional.
The correct answer is: The statement contains two errors.
Supervisory management spends most of his/her time:

The correct answer is: Directing and controlling
Strategic planning is done by:

The correct answer is: Top managers
Which of the following is not included in our definition of management?

The correct answer is: Balancing efficiency against effectiveness
 Short Quiz 1
When call center managers spend much of their time monitoring customer calls and giving
employees feedback about how to improve their dialogue with customers in the future, these
managers are using __________ skills.
The correct answer is: Technical
Modern managers are:

The correct answer is: All of the given options.
A successful person in which of the following positions may be promoted to a management

position?
The correct answer is: All of the options may lead to successful management positions
Which statement is wrong?

The correct answer is: Disseminator role is under Interpersonal managerial roles
They manage the activities of other managers.

The correct answer is: Middle managers
In the twenty-first century the four functions of management are:
The correct answer is: planning, organizing, controlling, and leading employees
Which is Characteristic for Organization?

The correct answer is: All of the given options
Individuals in organizations who direct the activities of others.

The correct answer is: Managers
_____ in businesses and organizations is the function that coordinates the efforts of people to
accomplish goals and objectives using available resources efficiently and effectively:
The correct answer is: Management
Which of the following best describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

The correct answer is: It is a highly flawed model, although it does recognize that people are
motivated differently.
It combines tech with business to get people the information they need to do their jobs
better/faster/smarter.
The correct answer is: Management Information System
The application of scientific principles to management is called:

The correct answer is: Scientific management
It is concerned with managing the process that converts inputs into outputs.
The correct answer is: Operations management
The offering of employee health insurance addresses which of Maslow's needs?

The correct answer is: Safety
 Short Quiz 2
What characteristics is not a key feature of the 'Open System' model of management?
The correct answer is: Morale
Systems theory holds that:

The correct answer is: The whole is greater than the sum of the parts.
Which of the following is not an example of bureaucratic functioning in organizations?

The correct answer is: Advertising and marketing brochures
Fayol's functions of management include:

The correct answer is: Planning, commanding, organizing, coordinating, controlling.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a bureaucratic organization?

The correct answer is: Change
Which of the following is not a feature of a bureaucracy?
The correct answer is: Generalism
The main schools of management thought are:

The correct answer is: Classical, human relations, systems, contingency.
The study of management theory is important for which of the following reasons:
The correct answer is: Management theories are interpretive and evolve with organizational
changes.
Humanistic realities were originally advocated by:

The correct answer is: Maslow
Which of the following is most closely associated with Henry Fayol?

The correct answer is: Classical Management School
A small business owned by one person can only be set up as a sole proprietorship.
The correct answer is 'False'.
Used to describe a framework for the analysis of macro environmental factors:

The correct answer is: PEST Analysis
Which of the following is not considered as an internal strength of firms that succeed in cost
leadership
The correct answer is: Access to leading scientific research
These factors include demographic and cultural aspects of the external macro environment and
affect customer needs and the size of potential markets.
The correct answer is: Social factors
PEST stands for: The correct answer is: Political, Economic, Social, Technological
 Short Quiz 3
Which of the following is an opportunity for an organization? The correct answer is: Rapid
market growth
The simplest form of business ownership is a: The correct answer is: Proprietorship
A sole proprietorship is the simplest form of business organization. The correct answer is 'True'.
The form of business organization that has the largest sales volume is the: The correct answer
is: Corporation
Which of the following is a Threat for an organization? The correct answer is: Economic
downturn
Which of the following does not form part of a firm's macro-environment? The correct answer is:
internal environment
The agreement to form a partnership may be oral, written, or implied from the conduct of the
parties.
The correct answer is 'True'.
Which of the following is an advantage of a sole proprietorship? The correct answer is: All of the
given options
The main disadvantage of a general partnership is The correct answer is: the unlimited liability
of the partners
A _______ is a business with two or more owners: The correct answer is: Partnership
 Long Quiz 1
Mintzberg classified the activities of monitoring, disseminating and being a spokesperson as

part of a manager’s ____ role. The correct answer is: Informational
accomplish goals and objectives using available resources efficiently and effectively.
The application of scientific principles to management is called: The correct answer is: Scientific
management
This is something that at some time in the future may destabilize and/or reduce the potential
performance of the organization. The correct answer is: Threat
A company picnic addresses which of Maslow's hierarchy of needs: The correct answer is:
Social
PEST stands for: The correct answer is: Political, Economic, Social, Technological
Individuals in organizations who direct the activities of others. The correct answer is: Managers

The first step in management by objectives is: The correct answer is: managers set goals for
their departments
The offering of employee health insurance addresses which of Maslow's needs? The correct
answer is: safety
Humanistic realities were originally advocated by: The correct answer is: Maslow
Manage the activities of other managers. The correct answer is: Middle managers
In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which is the highest level of need? The correct answer is: None
of the given options
The simplest form of business ownership is a: The correct answer is: Proprietorship
Which of the following does not form part of a firm’s macro-environment? The correct answer is:
internal environment
Technical skills are most important for which of the following: The correct answer is: First line
managers
Which of the following does not form part of an organization’s micro-environment?

The correct answer is: Statute legislation
A successful person in which of the following positions may be promoted to a management

position?
The correct answer is: All of the given choices may lead to successful management positions.

A _____ is a business with two or more owners The correct answer is: Partnership
Which of the following is an opportunity for an organization? The correct answer is: Rapid
market growth
Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne experiments? The correct answer is: All
of the given options
Which of the following hygiene factors are in Herzberg's theories? The correct answer is:
company policy and administration
The three main types of managers include: The correct answer is: general, functional, and front-
line managers
Which is a characteristic for organization? The correct answer is: All of the given options
Which of the following is not an assumption of Theory Y? The correct answer is: primary
motivators are fear and money
Which of the following is an advantage of a sole proprietorship? The correct answer is: All of the
given options
The most effective form of business organization for raising capital is the: The correct answer is:
Corporation
SWOT is an acronym for: The correct answer is: strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
Contingency plans anticipate changing conditions. The correct answer is 'True'.
Programmed decisions are decisions that are made for situations that have occurred often in
the past and allow decision rules to be developed to guide future decisions. The correct answer
is 'True'.
A major advantage of the Delphi technique over other group decision-making techniques is that
bias effects of group interactions are eliminated. The correct answer is 'True'.
The main difference between risk and uncertainty is that with risk you know the probabilities of
the outcomes. The correct answer is 'True'.
Programmed and structured are the two classifications of management decisions. The correct
answer is 'False'.
 Short Quiz 4
Assumptions about the environment in which the plan is to be carried out. The correct
answer is: Premises
They are a complex set of goals, policies, procedures, rules, task assignments, steps to be
taken, resources to be employed, and other elements necessary to carry out a given course
of action. The correct answer is: Programs
They are general statements or understandings that guide or channel thinking in decision
making. The correct answer is: Policies
These permit managers to delegate authority and maintain control over what their
subordinates do. The correct answer is: Policies
It means at the end of the period it should be possible to determine whether or not objective
has been achieved. The correct answer is: Verifiable objectives
It is a statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms. The correct answer is:
Budget
They are the ends toward which activity is aimed The correct answer is: Objectives
It is the determination of the basic long-term objectives of an enterprise and the adoption of
courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve these goals.
The correct answer is: Strategies
_____develop and carry out tactical plans The correct answer is: Management by
objectives
In Setting goals the "S.M.A.R.T" stands for: The correct answer is: Specific, Measurable,
Attainable, Realistic, Timely
Planning helps management pull the individual to achieve common goals by

The correct answer is: Provision of well-defined objectives
To be effective, an organization must have clearly defined sets of goals and objectives.
First-line supervisors are responsible for directing the day-to-day activities of operative
employees. The correct answer is: True
Short term goals are a means to achieve long term goals. The correct answer is: True
Planning is choosing a goal and developing a method of strategy to achieve that goal.
 Short Quiz 5
The first step in decision making is to: The correct answer is: Recognize need for a decision
Decisions fall into two categories: The correct answer is: Programmed and non-
programmed
What are factors managers should consider in evaluating alternatives? The correct answer
is: All of the given options
A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is
dealing with what type of decision? The correct answer is: Programmed decision
Problems are usually of the following type(s): The correct answer is: All of the given options.
It is the ability of the decision maker to discover novel ideas leading to a feasible course of
action. The correct answer is: Creativity
SWOT is an acronym for: The correct answer is: Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities,
threats.
A solution to a problem that is arrived at through an unstructured process of decision

making is called a: The correct answer is: Non-programmed decision
A decision for repetitive or routine problems for which the responses have been already
been decided and been known to the person who will make the decision is called:
The correct answer is: Programmed
 Long Quiz 2
Planning guarantees organizational success. The correct answer is: False
They are general statements or understandings that guide or channel thinking in decision
making. The correct answer is: Policies
Strategic planning is usually carried out by top management. The correct answer is: True
It means at the end of the period it should be possible to determine whether or not objective
has been achieved The correct answer is: Verifiable objectives
Decision making is (simplistically) typically described as which of the following?

The correct answer is: choosing among alternatives
They spell out specific required actions or non-actions, allowing no discretion.

The correct answer is: Rules
They are a complex of goals, policies, procedures, rules, task assignments, steps to be
taken, resources to be employed, and other elements necessary to carry out a given course
of action. The correct answer is: Programs
The function of management that determines the objectives of business and how best to
achieve them is called: The correct answer is: Planning
Which of the following is incorrect? The correct answer is: Planning is a one-time event.
The last two steps in the planning process are implementation and control.
where we are to where we want to go. The correct answer is: Planning
Strategic objectives are set by: The correct answer is: Top management.
The basic purpose or function or tasks of an enterprise or agency or any part of it.
The correct answer is: Mission
Comprehensive, long range planning, focusing on broad enduring issues is called:

The correct answer is: Strategic planning.
In Setting goals the “S.M.A.R.T” standing for:
The correct answer is: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
It is the determination of the basic long-term objectives of an enterprise and the adoption of
courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve these goals.
The correct answer is: Strategies
Goals must be specific. The correct answer is: True
They permit managers to delegate authority and maintain control over what their
subordinates do. The correct answer is: Policies
It means that the whole is greater than its parts. The correct answer is: Synergy
They are the ends toward which activity is aimed. The correct answer is: Objectives
Planning is a primary function of: The correct answer is: management
Assumptions about the environment in which the plan is to be carried out. The correct
answer is: Premises
Programmed decisions are more likely to occur at the top management level.
The first step in the decision-making process is which of the following?

The correct answer is: recognize need for a decision
A company decision to diversify into new products and markets is an example of non-
programmed decisions. The correct answer is: False
Which one is benefit of planning? The correct answer is: All of the given options
It is a statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms. The correct answer is:
Budget
They are usually the simplest type of plan. The correct answer is: Rules
The strategic planning process begins with:

The correct answer is: defining the mission, vision, and values of the organization
_____develop and carry out tactical plans. The correct answer is: Management by
objectives
 Short Quiz 6
_____ is the process of using the resources and personnel of an organization in an orderly
way to achieve the objectives and long-term goals of the organization.
The correct answer is: Organizing
Which of the following applies to the matrix structure?

The correct answer is: It attempts to merge the benefits of decentralization with co-
ordination across all areas of the business
The framework of interrelationships among individuals and departments that describe

relationships of reporting and accountability is called: The correct answer is: Organizational
structure
What is the term used to define the number of subordinates directly controlled by a
manager? The correct answer is: Span of management
The divisional structure may contain which type of division(s)?

The correct answer is: Both product and geographic divisions
Which of the following can affect the span of management? The correct answer is: All of the
given options.
____is a diagrammatic representation of organization structure show names designation

functions of personnel in the organization. The correct answer is: Organizational chart
______ is the formal arrangement of jobs within an organization.

The correct answer is: Organizational structure
The span of control refers to:

The correct answer is: the number of subordinates reporting directly to a given manager or
supervisor
_______ is the form of departmentalization that groups similar jobs and activities into
departments. The correct answer is: A functional structure
Organizing in management refers to the relationship between _____used to achieve the

common objectives. The correct answer is: All of the given options
The term organizational hierarchy implies The correct answer is: All of the given options.
Specialization of labor refers to focusing an individual's efforts on a particular product or a
single task. The correct answer is: True
It is a design of organization movement or blueprint The correct answer is: Organization

structure
Functional structure is created based on the various ____ of an organization.

The correct answer is: Functions
Formal organizations are designed to make work more efficient.

What is the duty to act according to the authority that has been given?
The correct answer is: Responsibility
Authority moves _______, while accountability move________ within the organization.

The correct answer is: downward, upward
Formal organization is objective oriented. The correct answer is: True
Organizing, as a management function, is accomplished by doing all of the following except:

The correct answer is: monitoring performance to measure what is taking place
 Short Quiz 7
The systems approach ______.

The correct answer is: Encourages managers to view the organization both as a whole and
as part of a larger environment
Which statement is wrong about Formal organization? The correct answer is: It is temporary
and unstable
The study of management theory is important for which of the following reason.
The correct answer is: Management theories are interpretive and evolve with organizational
changes
Scientific management is based on the assumption that:

The correct answer is: The scientific observation of people at work would reveal the one
best way to do the task.
Which of the following are sub-groupings of the classical approach?

The correct answer is: Scientific management and bureaucracy
Which approach to the study of organizational behavior emphasizes the formal structure,
hierarchy of management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational
behavior? The correct answer is: The classical approach
Systems theory holds that: The correct answer is: The whole is greater than the sum of the
parts.
It is a network of interpersonal relationships that arise when people associate with each
other. The correct answer is: Informal organization
In order to accomplish the process of organizing, management must:

It is the intentional structure of roles, in a formally organized enterprise.

The correct answer is: Formal organization.
OAM Third Quarter Exam
Which of the following does not form part of an organization’s micro-environment?

The correct answer is: Statute legislation
Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged in a series of levels, a hierarchy of importance. Which
of the following statements are relevant to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory?
The correct answer is: All of the given options.
The most effective leader is one who:

The correct answer is: has the leadership style most appropriate to the situation and the employee
involved.
When call center managers spend much of their time monitoring customer calls and giving employees
feedback about how to improve their dialogue with customers in the future, these managers are using
__________ skills.
The correct answer is: Technical
Coordinating people and human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the process of:
The correct answer is: Leadership
Which is a characteristic for organization?

The correct answer is: all of the given options

The correct answer is: The scientific observation of people at work would reveal the one best way to do
the task.
Which of the following best describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
The correct answer is: It is a highly flawed model, although it does recognize that people are motivated
differently.
This is something that at some time in the future may destabilize and/or reduce the potential
performance of the organization. The correct answer is: Threat
The correct answer is: Operations management
Who is father of scientific management?

The correct answer is: Frederick Winslow Taylor
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a bureaucratic organization?

The correct answer is: Change
Which approach to the study of organizational behavior emphasizes the formal structure, hierarchy of
management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational behavior?
The correct answer is: The classical approach
Which of the following is not a commonly used term to describe an element of the business
environment? The correct answer is: Extrinsic environment
A successful person in which of the following positions may be promoted to a management position?
The correct answer is: All of the choices may lead to successful management positions
Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne experiments?

Checking progress against plans.

The correct answer is: Controlling
Which of the following is a strength for an organization?

The correct answer is: Low labor turnover
accomplish goals and objectives using available resources efficiently and effectively.

The correct answer is: Classical Management School
Supervisory management spends most of his/her time:

The correct answer is: Directing and controlling

Which of the following would be included in the "controlling function”?
The correct answer is: Measuring results against corporate objectives.
One of the earliest and most enduring descriptions of managerial roles comes from:
The correct answer is: Henry Mintzberg

The correct answer is: Scientific management
Which of the following is not a measure of a manager’s effectiveness?

The correct answer is: Speed of promotion through the organization
In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which is the highest level of need?

The correct answer is: None of the given options
Individuals in organizations who direct the activities of others.

The correct answer is: Managers
Humanistic realities were originally advocated by:

The correct answer is: Maslow
Which of the following does not form part of a firm’s macro-environment?

The correct answer is: internal environment
Mintzberg classified the activities of monitoring, disseminating and being a spokesperson as part of a
manager’s ____ role. The correct answer is: Informational
Select one:
The correct answer is: Classical, human relations, systems, contingency.
Effectiveness is synonymous with ____.

The correct answer is: Goal attainment
Which one is not interpersonal managerial role?

The correct answer is: Spokesperson

What are the major functions Henry Fayol delineated for managers?
The correct answer is: Planning, Organizing, Commanding, Coordinating & Controlling
Which of the following is an opportunity for an organization?

The correct answer is: Establishing Internet sales
The correct answer is: Planning, commanding, organizing, coordinating, controlling.
The systems approach _____?

The correct answer is: Encourages managers to view the organization both as a whole and as part of a
larger environment
.
Distinguishes a managerial position from a non-managerial one.
The correct answer is: Coordinating and integrating others’ work
It is directing the work activities of others.

The correct answer is: Leading
Modern managers are: The correct answer is: All of the given options.

The correct answer is: The whole is greater than the sum of the parts.
Manage the activities of other managers.

The correct answer is: Middle managers
The three main types of managers include:

The correct answer is: general, functional, and front-line managers
Which of the following is not an example of bureaucratic functioning in organizations?

The correct answer is: Advertising and marketing brochures
Which of the following is not an assumption of Theory Y?

The correct answer is: Primary motivators are fear and money
Internal Consists of the trends and events within an organization that affect_____.
better/faster/smarter. The correct answer is: Management Information System
Which of the following is a Threat for an organization? The correct answer is: Economic downturn
OAM
external recruiting means ...
- false
selection is the process of discovering ....
- false
training attempts to improve the ability ....
- true
it is the process of acquiring deploying ...
- staffing
it is the positive process of searching ....
- recruitment
compensation can be ...
- both answers are correct
any compensation plan must be ...
- understandable , workable , acceptable
transfer is the reassignment ..
- true
promotions involve the ...
- true
the remuneration system needs ...
- all of the given options
a prerequisite for a successful ...
- HR policy
the staffing system components model ...
- recruitment , selection , employment
the process of developing an applicants' ....
- recruitment
staffing systems exist , ...
- contribute to the attainment ...
advertisements through newspapers ....
- indirect
the process of acquiring, deploying ....
- staffing
are the resources that provide utility ...
- men
recruitment policy usually highlights ...
- job specification
teaching of current or employees ...
- training
which of the following is the most serious problem ...
- internal resistance
wages represent
- hourly
actions that employees does not do ....
- performance
basic compensations given to employees ...
- base pay
an aim of performance appraisal is to ...
- motivate employee
payments made to employees without taking ...
- salaries
factors affecting compensation levels are :
performance appraisal feedback always include : ...
company's HR team is responsible for ...
which of the following is not advantage of promotion from within? ...
- creates political infighting
compensation given with base pay linked ...
- wages
effective managers "do the right things" to achieve ...
- true
with personal power a leader can exercise power ...
- false
transformational leadership works ...
- false
core competencies are the skills and abilities ...
- true
leadership is both an individual ....
- true
any condition to be taken into account ...
- contingency factor
McGregor assumed that people who are lazy ...
- Theory X
the willingness to exert high levels of effort ...
- motivation
the drive to find food, drink, and sexual ...
- physiological
Theory Y assumes that people inherently ...
- want to work and exercise self-direction
according to Herzberg, which of the following may be regarded....
needs and expectations at work are sometimes ...
- extrinsic/intrinsic
influencing people towards the achievement ...
- leadership
Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged ...
transactional leadership has which of the following ...
- takes the view that rewards ...
communication that takes place within prescribed ...
- formal communication
participation will be easier when individual ...
- true
effective communication is responsibility ...
- false
emergent change refers to initiatives ....
- false
first step in change management process is to prepare for change ...
- true
when the accounting manager communicates to the ...
- horizontal communication
which of the following is not a form of non-verbal communication ? ...
- posters
downward communication is used for all ...
- progress reports
to convert a message into groups of words ....
- encoding
is the individual or group that develops the message ...
- source
is the process by which the receiver interprets ...
- decoding
it is the transfer of information from a sender to a receiver ...
- communication
the communication process involves all of the following except:...
- performing
manuals and policy statements ...
- upward communication
suggestions for improvements from an employee ...
planning sets the goals for the organization ...
- true
management benchmarking compares various ...
- false
the outcome of controlling function is the accurate ...
- true
ROI Control measures both the absolute ...
- true
tests of operating leverage present ...
- false
control ensures that the ....
- plan
Don MacKinnon, the person in charge of ...
- controlling
it is an example of an effective standard ...
- planning to increase sales of product ...
control function of management cannot ...
- planning
it is information about what is happening ...
- real-time information and control
the last function in the sequence, which culminates ...
- controlling
it is the first step in management control ...
- determine desired performance
buying and assembling ...
- false
promotional activities and advertising are best ways to...
- true
orientation is the process of captivating ...
- false
capital budgeting is primarily a bottom-level ...
- false
HRM is all about acquiring services of people ...
- true
the planning function in managerial function ...
the functions of HRM is pertained to ...
- whole organization
states the way about what are the activities ...
- planning
allowance and bonus of the employees ...
- compensation
managing people is not the primary responsibility ...
- true
which is discussed in compensation policy? ...
- %of bonus
human resource management policies ...
- HR Department
human resource planning is a part of ...
- operational
the internet is not important to the foundation ...
- false
functions are the HR functions that are required ...
- operational
payments made to employees without ...
- salaries
any condition to be taken into account ...
- contingency factor
Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged ..
when an employee has a need for ...
- self-actualization needs
assumes that employees have little ambition ...
- Theory X
the process of developing an applicants' pool for ...
- recruitment
wages represents ...
- hourly
needs and expectations at work ...
- extrinsic/intrinsic
- job specification
McGregor assumed that people ...
- Theory X
according to Herzberg, which of the following ...
performance appraisal feedback ...
advertisements through newspapers, ...
- indirect
an individual who wants to buy a home ...
- safety
which of the following is the most serious ...
negative feelings resulting from ...
- frustration
according to herzberg, which is not ...
- work conditions
the willingness to exert high levels ...
- motivation
the process of acquiring, deploying ...
- staffing
suggestions for improvements ...
influencing people towards ...
- leadership
it is personal power that ...
- charisma
basic compensations given to employees ...
- base pay
downward communication is used ...
- progress reports
the drive to find food, ...
- physiological
compensation given with base ...
- wages
it is the transfer of information ...
- communication
factors affecting compensation levels ..
when the accounting manager communicates ...
- horizontal communication
within maslow's hierarchy of needs, ...
- social needs
a person who recognize, manages ...
- entrepreneur
is a document that thoroughly explains ...
- business plan
writing a business plan can ensure ...
- figures out how to make ...
which of the following qualities will increase ...
- all of the above
the business plan should be ...
- crisp and concise
is best described by stating it is any business ...
- small business
is defined as the blueprint describing the business strategy ...
- business plan
which one is not considered a key ...
- method for dissolution of the organization
common reasons for entrepreneurial failure ...
- adequate financial support
which statement is not true about entrepreneurs? ..
- they generally stick ...
the entrepreneur who is committed to the ...
- opportunist
all but which of the following is considered to be a myth ...
- first ventures ...
all of the following are characteristics of small ...
- small business emphasize new ...
which of the following is not recognized as a misconception ...
- entrepreneurial ventures ..
four small business owners, one ...
- profitability
the last function in the sequence ...
- controlling
an example of an effective standard ...
- planning to increase sales ...
functions are the HR functions ...
- operational
orientation is the process of captivating ...
- false
states the way about what ...
- planning
the functions of HRM is pertained to ...
- whole organization
which of the following management functions are closely related? ...
- planning and control
promotional activities and advertising ...
- true
investment decisions determine ...
- true
is based on norms
- clan control
human resource management policies ...
- HR department
tests of liquidity
- true
planning sets the goals
- true
strategic benchmarking compares ...
- false
designing marketing strategies ...
- false
it is the first step in management control
- determine desired performance
it compares various strategies and identifies ...
- strategic benchmarking
control ensures that the ...
- plan
Participative leadership involves staff and others in the decision making process.
- true
A laissez faire leadership style occurs when all power is passed onto the staff.
- true
It refers to the effective communication between people/ workers/ clients of different cultural background.
- b. Intercultural communication
Which one is not leadership styles based on use of authority?

d. Transformational leaders
The following is not a concept of wage

b. daily wages
Promotion involves the reassignment of an employee to a higher level job.

b. true
Transformational leadership recognises that success results from their belief in both themselves and their
staff.
b. True
Participative leadership has which of the following characteristics?

d. Seeks to involve staff in the decision making process
An autocratic leadership style occurs when power is split between the leader and his or her staff.
a. False
Management is the ability to direct staff towards achieving goals.

b. False
Layoff is when employees voluntarily decide to end their employment with an organization.
a. false
Planned change refers to a situation in which change can originate from any level in the organization.
b. False
Filling and keeping filled, positions in the organization structure.

c. Staffing
Termination is the practice of putting an end to the employer-employee relations initiated by the employer
with prejudice to the worker.
b. true
Benefits is pay provided by an employer to an employee for services rendered.

b. false
The output of job analysis is the job description and the job specifications.
a. True
External recruiting is the process of attracting individuals outside the organization to apply for positions
with the firm.
b. True
Which of the following factor influence(s) employee compensation?

a. All of the given options
Theory Y assumes people regard work as a normal activity and are self-motivated.
a. True
The process, tools and techniques to manage the people-side of change to achieve the required business
outcome(s)
b. Change management
Budget is a quantitative expression of a plan for a defined period of time.
True
The ____ analysis addresses the roles of the community, region, nation, and world in a business.
b. Environmental
All of the following are popular demographic factors about entrepreneurs, except:
c. Self confidence
Selling includes transfer of ownership of products to the buyer.
True
OAM4th Q
problems are usually ...
- all of the given opyions
is the form of departmentalization that groups ...
- a functional structure
which of the following is a strength for an organization ? ...
- low labor turnover
it is directing the work activities ...
- leading
they are a complex of goals, policies ...
- programs
- job specification
humanistic realities ...
- maslow
which of the following are sub-groupings ...
- scientific management and bureaucracy
which of the following does not form part ...
- internal environment
it means that the whole is greater ...
- synergy
which of the following is the most serious problem ...
which of the following would be included ...
- measuring results ....
the framework of interrelationships ....
- organizational structure
the systems approach ....
- encourages managers to ....
the process of acquiring ....
- staffing
the main disadvantage of general partnership is ...
- the unlimited liability of the partners
it means at the end of the period ...
- verifiable objectives
it is concerned with managing the process ....
- operations management
SWOT is an acronym for: ...
- strengths , ....
which statement is wrong?
- disseminator role ...
which of the following are sub-groupings ....
- scientific management and bureaucracy
advertisements through newspapers ...
- indirect
the most effective form of business
- corporation
basic compensation
- base pay
supervisory management spends
- directing and controlling
which of the following is not an example of bureaucratic
- advertising and marketing ...
provides for the greatest degree of continuity
- corporation
it combines ...
- management information system
which one is benefit of planning
a manger who is helping a customer return ...
- programmed decision
the application of scientific principles to management is called ...
- scientific management
strategic planning is done by:
- top managers
planning, organizing, directing ....
- functions of management
the staffing system components model says that the phases ...
- recruitment, selection, employment
which one is not interpersonal managerial role?
- spokesperson
which of the following is not an advantage of group decision-making?
- group think
in maslow's hierarchy of needs, which is the highest level of need?
- none of the given options
who is the father of scientific management ?
- frederick winslow
what are factors managers should consider ...
checking progress againts plans.
- controlling
non programmed decisions are most likely to be made by
- top management
which of the following is not included in our definition of management?
- balancing efficiency against effectiveness
modern managers are:
it is a statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms.
- budget
scientific management is based on the assumptions that:
- the scientific observation of people ...
the process of developing an applicants' pool for job openings ...
- recruitment
the study of management theory is important ...
- management theories are interpretive ...
the simplest form of business ownership is a
- proprietorship
is the process of using the resources and personnel ....
- organizing
The five needs expressed in Maslow's hierarchy are:

b. Physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization
Decisions fall into two categories:

d. Programmed and non-programmed
What are the major functions Henry Fayol delineated for managers?
b. Planning, Organizing, Commanding, Coordinating & Controlling

a. planning, organizing, controlling, and leading employees
In Setting goals the “S.M.A.R.T” standing for:

a. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
What is the term used to define the number of subordinates directly controlled by a manager?
b. Span of management
In order to carry out a SWOT analysis, a company must _________.

b. All of the given options.
Internal consists of the trends and events within an organization that affect_____.
b. None of the given options
A decision for repetitive or routine problems for which the responses have been already been
decided and been known to the person who will make the decision is called:
Select one:
b. Programmed.
Behavioral Science Approach is an extension of the ______.
Select one:
b. Human Relations Approach
They permitting managers to delegate authority and maintain control over what their subordinates
do.
Select one:
b. Policies
The systems approach _____?
Select one:
d. All of the choices
Which approach to the study of organizational behavior emphasizes the formal structure, hierarchy
of management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational behavior?
Select one:
b. The classical approach
A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is dealing with
what type of decision?
Select one:
a. Programmed decision
Recruitment policy usually highlights the need for establishing:
Select one:
a. Job specification
Factors affecting compensation levels are:
Select one:
b. All of the given options
The span of control refers to:
Select one:
a. the number of subordinates reporting directly to a given manager or supervisor
Which statement is wrong?
Select one:
b. Disseminator role is under Interpersonal managerial roles
One of the earliest and most enduring descriptions of managerial roles comes from:
Select one:
a. Henry Mintzberg
better/faster/smarter.
Select one:
a. Management Information System
Payments made to employees without taking hours for which they worked into consideration are
called
Select one:
a. Salaries
Teaching of current or employees with skills needed to perform effectively on job is
Select one:
b. Training
A solution to a problem that is arrived at through an unstructured process of decision making is

called a:
Select one:
b. Non-programmed decision
Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne experiments?
Select one:
c. All of the given options
It is a network of interpersonal relationships that arise when people associate with each other.
Select one:
c. Informal organization
The offering of employee health insurance addresses which of Maslow's needs?
Select one:
a. Safety
Which of the following is a Threat for an organization?
Select one:
d. Economic downturn
Select one:
b. Rapid market growth
The form of business organization that has the largest sales volume is the:
Select one:
c. Corporation
Problems are usually of the following type(s):
Select one:
b. All of the given options.
Checking progress against plans.
Select one:
c. Controlling
Coordinating people and human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the process of:
Select one:
a. Leadership
Select one:
a. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts.
Select one:
d. Establishing Internet sales
Select one:
a. Scientific management
Which one is known as early systematize of management?
Select one:
b. Henry R. Towne
Select one:
a. Planning, commanding, organizing, coordinating, controlling.
Which of the following is not an assumption of Theory Y?
Select one:
a. Primary motivators are fear and money
Actions that employees does not do or must do in a job is classified as
Select one:
a. Productivity
______ is the formal arrangement of jobs within an organization.
Select one:
b. Organizational structure
The most effective form of business organization for raising capital is the:
Select one:
c. Corporation
The selection of a course of action from among alternatives.
Select one:
b. Decision making
Which of the following would be included in the "controlling function”?
Select one:
c. Measuring results against corporate objectives.
_____develop and carry out tactical plans.
Select one:
a. Management by objectives
Which of the following is not an assumption of Theory X?
Select one:
a. Employees are creative
Select one:
b. Classical, human relations, systems, contingency.
The simplest form of business ownership is a:
Select one:
c. Proprietorship
Which of the following is not an advantage of group decision-making?
Select one:
a. group think
Select one:
a. The scientific observation of people at work would reveal the one best way to do the task.
Select one:
b. Operations management
Which of the following is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on
internal recruitment?
Select one:
c. internal resistance
Which of the following are sub-groupings of the classical approach?
Select one:
a. Scientific management and bureaucracy
Which of the following is a strength for an organization?
Select one:
a. Small competitors in the home market
Compensation given with base pay linked to individual team or organizational performance is
classified as
Select one:
c. Salaries
Which of the following is not advantage of promotion from within?
Select one:
c. Creates political infighting
The most effective leader is one who:
Select one:
d. all of the given options
Select one:
a. Classical Management School
Statistics and Probability (STAT-112) Grade11
WEEK 1
Learning Act. 1 Stats
Which of the following statement is TRUE.
Select one:
a. All of the statements are TRUE.

b. Countable number of values are called discrete variables
c. Non-countable values are called discrete variables
d. Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables.
Answer: Countable number of values are called discrete variables
Question 2
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of
Select one:
a. Discrete Continuous Random Variable
b. Continuous Discrete Random Variable
c. Continuous Random Variable
d. Discrete Random Variables
e. None of the choices
Answer: Continuous Random Variable
Question 3
True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a discrete
random variable.
Answer:
false
Question 4
Which of the following is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Probability distribution equals to one.
b. Probability distribution equals to zero.
c. Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random variables
e. Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables
Answer: Probability distribution equals to zero.
Question 5
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?
Select one:
a. 0.1255
b. 0.25
c. 1
e. 0
Answer: 0.1255
Short Quiz 1
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space
Select one:
a. Sample space is also known as probability mass function.
b. Sample space is a subset of events.
c. Sample space should be always be a number from zero to one.
d. Sample space are possible outcomes
Answer: Sample space are possible outcomes
The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal
to _____
Answer: 1
How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins.
Answer: 8
Salary, scores and age are examples of answer: continuous.. random variables
Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?
Select one:
a. The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference.
b. The tuition fee enrolled in different universities
c. The number of volunteers in a community
d. The number of senators elected in the Philippines

Answer: The number of senators elected in the Philippines
Countless number of values are also known as Answer continuous.. variables.
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?
Select one:
a. Distance travelled of a tourist bus.
b. Depth of building excavation.
c. None of the choices.
d. Height of students enrolled in an online course.
e. Wind speed during typhoon.
Answer: None of the choices.
1.
Select one:
a. The statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE
b. The statement is TRUE.
c. The statement is FALSE.
d. The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE
Answer: The statement is TRUE.
A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.
Select one:
a. None of the choices
b. The statement has insufficient information.
c. True
d. False
Answer: True
This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these values.
Answer: Probability Distribution

Week3 Stats
WEEK 3
Learning Activity 3 AND SHORT QUIZ 3
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.
Select one:
a. Median
b. Z-score
c. Normal Distribution Measurement
d. Empirical Rule
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z-score
In an IT Certification Examination, the mean was 75 and the standard deviation was 5. If Pam z-scored is
1.5, what was her score in the examination?
Select one:
a. 117.50
b. 487.50
d. 82.50
Feedback
The correct answer is: 82.50
Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?
Select one:
a. Carl Friedrich Gauss
b. William Gosset
c. Ronald Fisher
d. John Tukey
Feedback
Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Carl Friedrich Gauss
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.
Select one:
a. Mount-shaped distribution
b. Bell-shaped
d. Perfectly asymmetric
Feedback
The correct answer is: Perfectly asymmetric
How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?
Select one:
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: 3
Short Quiz 3
In a normal distribution curve,
Select one:
a. Mean is equal to Median and Mode
c. Mean is equal to Mode
d. Mean is equal to Median
Feedback
The correct answer is: Mean is equal to Median and Mode
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.
Select one:
a. Empirical Rule
b. Median
c. Z-score
d. Normal Distribution Measurement
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z-score
Given the set of data:
1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
Find the lower quartile
Select one:
a. 8
b. 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,
c. 3
d. 0
Feedback
1, what was her score in the examination?
Select one:
a. 53.00
c. 80.50
d. 82.50
Feedback
Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.
Select one:
a. All values are greater than the mean.

b. All values are less than the mean.
c. All values are equal to the mean.
d. All values are equal to the z-score
Feedback
The correct answer is: All values are less than the mean.
1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
Find the upper quartile
Select one:
a. 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22
b. 18
c. 22
d. 0
Feedback
Find the median of the following data set.
11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
Select one:
a. 36.45
b. 24
c. 30
d. 31
Feedback
1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
How many numbers are in the lower quartile?
Select one:
a. 0
b. 10
c. 6
d. 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10
Feedback
Normal Distribution Curve is also called
Select one:
a. Arc-Shaped Curve
b. Bell Curve
c. Basic Curve
Feedback
The correct answer is: Bell Curve
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE.
c. The statement is FALSE.
d. The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set.
Feedback
The correct answer is: None of the choices

Week 5 Stats
Learning Activity 4
True or False: Variance Error is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population
parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter
The correct answer is: FALSE
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design
The correct answer is: TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No.
The correct answer is: No
Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places.
1112345558888
Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer must have two decimal places.
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4
Week 5 Stats short quiz 4
Short Quiz 4
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No
Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the
process for 30 times.
True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.
Select one:
a. Mode
b. Deviation Error
c. Parameter
d. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
e. Random Sample
f. Mean
g. Sampling Error
h. Population Mean
i. Median
j. Statistics
k. Distribution Error
l. Sample Distribution of sample means
m. Standard Curve
n. Sample
o. Standard Deviation
p. Sample
q. Population
The correct answer is: Sample
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No
Women who volunteer to take a survey on human rights.
The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population
Select one:
a. Deviation Error
b. Parameter
c. Sample
d. Standard Deviation
e. Distribution Error
f. Population
g. Random Sample
h. Mode
i. Sampling Error
j. Population Mean
k. Mean
l. Statistics
m. Median
n. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
o. Sample Distribution of sample means
p. Sample
q. Standard Curve
The correct answer is: Sample Distribution of sample means
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No.
Each audience in a game show is assigned a number from 111 to 666 and roll three standard dice to
choose random contestants.
The correct answer is: Yes
If the standard deviation of a population is 300, and samples of 25 units each are taken, what is the
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means?
Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer should be rounded off to one
decimal place.
3 5 5 5 6 6 8 8 13 15 17 30
True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample
True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases.

Learning Activity 6 Stats
To calculate the mean from a sample,
Select one:
a. Get the half of the sum of the all the values
b. Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples
c. Divide each value with the sum of all values

The correct answer is: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples
Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter. Round off your answer to the nearest
hundredths or has two decimal places. Write the measurement at the end of the answer.
Average Speed of a car Car 1 Car 2 Car 3 Car 4
80 kph 75 kph 60 kph 66 kph
The correct answer is: 7 0 . 2 5 k p h
This is defined by two values, between which a population parameter is said to lie.
Select one:
a. Interval Estimate
b. Points Estimate
c. Coefficient Estimate
d. Point to point Estimate
The correct answer is: Interval Estimate
Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter. Round off your answer to the nearest
hundredths or has two decimal places, if necessary.
Scores of students in quizzes
Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter of the grades of students. (Round off your
answer to the nearest hundredths.)
Point estimate is
Select one:
b. always equal to the mean
c. used to estimate population parameter Correct
d. the number of samples
e. a range of possible values of population mean
Feedback
The correct answer is: used to estimate population parameter

A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
Select one:
a. Sample distribution Incorrect
b. Confidence Limit
c. Confidence coefficient
d. Sample Mean
Feedback
The correct answer is: Sample Mean
Short Quiz 6 Stats
Confidence interval is associated by confidence level
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
The effectiveness of the sample android application can be measured by the proportion of mobile users
who install the application. To determine this proportion for a specific android app, the distributed to
500 users and 450 user install the app. The point estimate is ____________.
Select one:
a. .85
b. .80
c. .90
d. .95
The correct answer is: .90
Which measure of tendency is the best estimator?

Select one:
a. Mode
b. Mean
c. Standard Deviation
d. Median
The correct answer is: Mean
Confidence level indicates the level of assurance that confidence interval encloses the:
Select one:
a. unknown population mean
b. biased sample
c. known population mean
d. unbiased sample
The correct answer is: unknown population mean
Which of the following applies to confidence interval
Select one:
a. Confidence interval is used to the true mean of population
b. As the confidence interval for a given statistic increases in length, the confidence level increases
c. Confidence interval is associated by confidence level
e. All of the choices
The correct answer is: All of the choices
A 95% confidence interval means 95% of all samples of size n would fall ______ our confidence interval
Select one:
a. Below
b. Outside
d. Within
e. Above
Feedback
The correct answer is: Within
You need to calculate for the confidence interval for the population mean. The population standard
deviation is known. There are 50 sample observations. You will use 95 percent level of confidence. The
appropriate value of z is:
Select one:
a. Cannot be determined
b. 1.64
c. 2.58
d. 1.96
e. 1
Point estimate is always equal to the sampling coefficient.
Select one:
a. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is equal to the number of samples”
b. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is used to estimate population parameter”
c. TRUE
d. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is a range of possible values of population mean”
The correct answer is: FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is a range of possible values of
population mean”
Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to confidence limit
c. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean
d. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to Confidence Limit
The correct answer is: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean
The confidence level is expressed as a fraction
Select one:
a. FALSE

Short Quiz 8
The “p hat” is calculated as
Select one:
a. Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes
b. Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements Correct
c. 1- (Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes)
d. (Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements) – 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements
Sampling distribution of proportions is ______________ distributed
Select one:
a. Normally Correct
b. Randomly
c. Evenly
d. Unevenly
Feedback
The correct answer is: Normally
A survey was conducted to 300 Grade 10 students who have Internet access to determine who access
social media websites after attending classes. Based on the survey, 250 students responded Yes. What is
the population proportion to students who do not access social media after attending classes?
Select one:
a. 80%
b. 20%
c. 17% Correct
d. 83%
Feedback
The correct answer is: 17%

When the confidence level is 95%, the ____________________ are +- 1.96
Select one:
a. Margin of Errors
b. Confidence coefficients Correct
c. Confidence intervals
d. “p hat” values
Feedback
The correct answer is: Confidence coefficients
Point estimate is
Select one:
a. Always equal to the number or samples
b. A range of possible values for a population parameter.
c. Equal to the population mean
d. A statistical that estimates a population parameter Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: A statistical that estimates a population parameter
The ^p is the ____________ estimate of p.
Select one:
a. balanced
b. unbiased Correct
c. biased
d. inverse
Given n=10, x¯ =28, s=2.0, 95% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution,
find the margin of error.
Select one:
a. 1.24 Correct
b. 26.76
c. 3.16
d. 0.63
Feedback
Given n=10, x¯ =28, s=2.0, 99% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution,
find the interval estimate of the population mean.
Select one:
a. (11.34, 14.89)
b. (1.63, 2.25)
c. (21.36, 24.63)
d. (26.36, 29.63) Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: (26.36, 29.63)
What is in the center of the confidence interval?
Select one:
a. Margin of Error
b. Point Estimate Correct
c. Population Parameter
d. Number of samples
Feedback
The correct answer is: Point Estimate
In a survey of 500 individuals, 300 likes to eat dinner in a restaurant. Estimate the sample proportion ^p
of those who like to eat dinner in a restaurant based on the sample.
Select one:
a. 45%
b. 0.40
c. 55%
d. 0.60 Correct
Feedback
Margin of error is
Select one:
a. the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample
size Correct
b. the quotient of confidence coefficient and standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the
sample size
c. the product of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided by standard deviation
d. the quotient of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided standard deviation
Feedback
The correct answer is: the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the
square root of the sample size
Given n=100, x¯ =45, s=2.0, 90% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal
distribution, find the interval estimate of the population mean.
Select one:
a. (42.103, 43.970)
b. (43.355, 46.645)
c. (44.461, 45.329) Incorrect
d. (46.921, 47.727)
Feedback
Given n=100, x¯ =80, s=2.0, 95% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal
distribution, find the margin of error.
Select one:
a. 0.348 Incorrect
b. 0.20
c. 0.392
d. 0.196
Feedback
A survey was conducted from the 250 individuals. Based on the result of the survey, 170 are satisfied
with the current Local Government administration. Estimate the sample proportion ^p of those who are
not satisfied based on the sample provided.
Select one:
a. 55%
b. 0.32 Correct
c. 0.
d. 0.68
Feedback
A survey was conducted to 110 college students to determine who are using the Library Resource Center
of the university. Based on the survey, only 30% responded Yes. Based on the survey, how many
students are not using the Library Resource Center?
Select one:
a. 33
b. 30
c. 67 Correct
d. 70
Feedback
A survey of 200 people finds that they work on average of 8 hours a day. If the margin of error at 98%
confidence level is 1.2 hours. How do you compute for the lower confidence interval?
Select one:
a. 8 hours less 1.2 hours
b. Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours Correct
d. 8 hours less 1.2 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours
King Lo Electronics claims that the new brand of computer will last for 25,000 hours. A research
company conducted a test on the information. The company randomly select and test 100 cellular
phone. The data from the sample shows that the mean life of the cellular phone is 20,000 hours, with a
standard deviation of 1000 hours. Determine the 95% confidence interval of the mean life of the cellular
phone.
Select one:
a. (17,482, 18,649)
b. (19,804, 20,196) Correct
c. (23,467, 24,639)
d. (26,928, 27,375)
Feedback
The correct answer is: (19,804, 20,196)
Given the sample size (n=400) and sample proportion (p=0.56), find the approximate margin of error for
the 99% confidence interval:
Select one:
a. 0.043 Incorrect
b. 0.052
c. 0.064
d. 0.074
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.053
b. 0.085
c. 0.072 Incorrect
d. 0.039
Feedback
A private organization telephone poll of 750 adults, aged 18 and older, living in the country found that
60% of citizen feel confident in the accuracy of their doctor's advice, and don't feel the need to check for
a second opinion or do additional research. The margin of error for this survey was given as ± 20
percentage points. Find a 95% confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident
in the accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion.
Select one:
a. (0.490, 0.601)
b. (0.452, 0.538)
c. (0.565, 0.640) Correct
d. (0.316, 0.483)
Feedback
Short Quiz 9
Select one:
a. 0.086
b. 0.059
c. 0.039 Incorrect
d. 0.330
Feedback

Suppose a new cancer treatment is given to a sample of 500 patients. The treatment was successful for
300 of the patients. Assume that these patients are representative of the population of individuals who
have this cancer.
Determine a 90% confidence interval for the proportion successful treated.
Select one:
a. 0.564 < p < 0.640
b. 0.640 < p < 0.742 Incorrect
c. 0.742 < p < 0.834
d. 0.834 < p < 0.927
Feedback
The correct answer is: 0.564 < p < 0.640
a second opinion or do additional research. The margin of error for this survey was given as ±10
percentage points.
Find a 90% upper confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the
accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion.
Select one:
a. 0.077
b. 0.329 Incorrect
c. 0.834
d. 0.290
Feedback
Lim Electronics claims that the new brand of cellular phone will last for 80,000 hours. A research
company conducted a test on the information. The company randomly select and test 100 cellular
phone. The data from the sample shows that the mean life of the cellular phone is 60,000 hours, with a
standard deviation of 1500 hours. Determine the 95% confidence interval of the mean life of the cellular
phone.
Select one:
a. (79,301 , 80,890) Incorrect
b. (59,706 , 60,294)
c. (59,301 , 60,890)
d. (79,706 , 80,294)
Feedback
The correct answer is: (59,706 , 60,294)
A survey of 900 female finds that they sleep on average of 8 hours a day. If the margin of error at 95%
confidence level is 1.3 hours. Find the confidence interval?
Select one:
a. 4.50 hours < p < 5.89 hours
b. 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours Correct
c. 8.66 hours < p < 11.26 hours
d. 7.34 hours < p < 8.66 hours
Feedback
The correct answer is: 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours
Select one:
a. 0.055
b. 0.069
c. 0.047 Correct
d. 0.039
Feedback
Given the problem in item 9, what does the answer tells about?
Select one:
a. Lim Electronics can use the survey conducted for their advertisements.
b. The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics.
c. The confidence interval support the claim of Lim Electronics. Incorrect
d. The information is not sufficient to conclude.

Feedback
The correct answer is: The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics.
A survey of 900 people finds that they work on average of 9 hours a day. If the margin of error at 98%
confidence level is 1.5 hours. What is the solution to find the lower confidence interval?
Select one:
a. Z score plus less the square root of 9 hours less 1.5 hours
c. 9 hours less 1.5 hours Correct
e. 9 hours less 1.5 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level
a second opinion or do additional research. The margin of error for this survey was given as ±10
percentage points.
Find a 90% lower confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the
accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion.
Select one:
a. 0.0726
b. 0.8932
c. 0.4508 Incorrect
d. 0.0934
Feedback
Suppose a new cancer treatment is given to a sample of 500 patients. The treatment was successful for
300 of the patients. Assume that these patients are representative of the population of individuals who
have this cancer.
Calculate the sample proportion that was successfully treated.
Select one:
a. 0.85 Incorrect
b. 0.72
c. 0.30
d. 0.60
Feedback

In hypothesis testing, the computed statistics is compared to the critical value for decision making.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE. Correct
b. The statement is FALSE.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE.
This separates the rejection region to the region where we do not reject the null hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Z score
b. Null value Incorrect
c. Critical value
d. chi value
The correct answer is: Critical value
Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted:
–4
Select one:
a. Do not Reject
b. Reject Correct
c. Cannot be determined
Feedback
The correct answer is: Reject
St. Therese senior high school have an average achievement test score of 96. From a random sample of
49 students St. Therese students we find the average achievement test score to be 98 with a standard
deviation of 88. We want to know if these high school students are representative of the overall
population. What can we conclude based?
Select one:
a. Accept null hypothesis
b. Reject null hypothesis
c. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect
d. Reject alternative hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Accept null hypothesis
2.35
Select one:
b. Reject
c. Do not Reject Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Reject
Suppose that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the
following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places. µ = 25, s = 5, n = 80, x¯ = 23.4
Answer:
-5
Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: -2.86
Suppose that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the
following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places. µ = 77, s = 6, n = 109, x¯ = 78.2
Answer:
-12.83
Incorrect
Feedback
Short Quiz 12
Consider the scenario: In a recent survey, 320 persons out of 35 reported that they prefer to ride in a
public utility air-conditioned vehicle rather than a jeepney. What is the value of the test statistics?
Select one:
a. 3.49 Incorrect
b. – 1.85
c. – 1.85
d. – 1.33
Feedback
The correct answer is: – 1.85
Supposed that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of
the following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places.
µ = 8.5, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2
Answer:
34.32
Incorrect
Feedback
3.31
Select one:
b. Reject Correct
c. Do not Reject
Consider the scenario: In a recent survey, 320 persons out of 35 reported that they prefer to ride in a
public utility air-conditioned vehicle rather than a jeepney.
What can we conclude based the value of the test statistics?
Select one:
a. Reject null hypothesis
b. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect
c. Reject alternative hypothesis
d. Accept null hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Accept null hypothesis
Values supporting the ___________________ occurs in the rejection region.
Select one:
a. Critical values
b. Alternative hypothesis and critical values Incorrect
c. Null hypothesis
d. Null hypothesis and critical values
e. Alternative hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis and critical values
A sample is small when n=30.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE. Incorrect
b. The statement is FALSE. Replace the letter n with letter x.
c. The statement is FALSE. Replace the = with =
d. The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large.
In hypothesis testing, the computed statistics is compared to the critical value for decision making.
Select one:
a. The statement is FALSE.
b. The statement is TRUE. Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE.
0.131
Select one:
a. Do not Reject
b. Reject Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Do not Reject
1.11
Select one:
b. Do not Reject Correct
c. Reject
Feedback
µ = 77, s = 6, n = 109, x¯ = 78.2
Answer:
56.23
Incorrect
Feedback
µ = 8, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2
Answer:
-1.99
Correct
Feedback
1.20
Select one:
b. Reject
c. Do not Reject Correct
Feedback
– 0.6
Select one:
b. Do not Reject Correct
c. Reject
Feedback

A Police Sub Station claims that 45% of crimes are related to cell phone snatching. In a random sample
of 150 accidents, it is found that 60 of the accidents are related to cell phone snatching.
What is the standard error of the proportion?
Select one:
a. 0.033
b. 0.028
c. 0.066 Incorrect
d. 0.041
Feedback
What is the observed value of the sample proportion?
Select one:
a. 0.932
b. 0.400
c. 0.783
d. 0.600 Incorrect
Feedback
A businessman is increasing his price for processed food, claiming that the cost of labor and material is
going up and accounts for 75% of his budget. In a random sample of 10 of the processed food, it is found
out that in 6 of the processed food, the cost of the material is higher.
Select one:
a. 0.442 Incorrect
b. 0.391
c. 0.137
d. 0.296
Feedback

At the 5% level of significance, test the contractor/engineer’s claim. Based on the test, what can you
conclude?
Select one:
a. Reject the null hypothesis
b. Accept the null hypothesis Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Accept the null hypothesis
At the 10% level of significance, test the Police Sub Station claims. Based on the test, what can you
conclude?
Select one:
a. Accept the null hypothesis Correct
b. Reject the null hypothesis
Feedback
What is the test statistic for this scenario?
Select one:
a. -0.066
b. 2.112
c. -1.231
d. 1.992 Correct
Feedback

Select one:
a. 0.899
b. 1.203
c. 0.996
d. 1.095 Correct
Feedback
Short Quiz 13 Stats
The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random
sample of 200 accidents, it is found that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles.
At the 10% level of significance, test the traffic management office’s claim. Based on the test, what can
you conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor
and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it
is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher.
Select one:
a. 0.983
b. 2.181
c. 3.004
d. 1.191 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.087 Correct
b. 0.0632
c. 0.032
d. 0.051
Feedback
About 30% of the male population living in an urban area smokes cigarette. A researcher believes that
male aged 16-30 are more likely smokes cigarette than other ages in the urban area population. The
researcher surveys 300 male aged 16-30 and finds that 80 of them smokes cigarette:
Select one:
a. 0.041
b. 0.089
c. 0.026 Correct
d. 0.011
Feedback
Select one:
a. -2.729
b. -0.998
c. -3.661
d. -1.260 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.372
b. 0.419
c. 0.267 Correct
d. 0.189
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.667 Correct
b. 0.429
c. 0.739
d. 0.921
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.0548
b. 0.0808
c. 0.0993
d. 0.0741 Correct
Feedback
conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.963
b. 0.675 Correct
c. 0.367
d. 0.822
Feedback
Short Quiz 13 Stats
At the 10% level of significance, test the traffic management office’s claim. Based on the test, what can
you conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.983
b. 2.181
c. 3.004
d. 1.191 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.087 Correct
b. 0.0632
c. 0.032
d. 0.051
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.041
b. 0.089
c. 0.026 Correct
d. 0.011
Feedback
Select one:
a. -2.729
b. -0.998
c. -3.661
d. -1.260 Correct
Feedback

Select one:
a. 0.372
b. 0.419
c. 0.267 Correct
d. 0.189
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.667 Correct
b. 0.429
c. 0.739
d. 0.921
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.0548
b. 0.0808
c. 0.0993
d. 0.0741 Correct
Feedback
conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.963
b. 0.675 Correct
c. 0.367
d. 0.822
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.062
b. 0.077
c. 0.034 correct
d. 0.045
Short Quiz 15
Describe the relationship based when r value = 0.01
Select one:
a. No apparent correlation Correct
b. Weak positive correction
c. Strong positive correction
d. Minimal positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: No apparent correlation
Linear correlation coefficient is always a value between ____ and ____.
Select one:
a. 0, 100 Incorrect
b. 1, 100
c. +1, -1
d. 0, 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: +1, -1
Year and household monthly water consumption in the Philippines
Select one:
a. Water consumption is the explanatory variable and year is the response variable Incorrect
b. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Describe the relationship based on the r-value r=0,
Select one:
a. No relationship
b. Deterministic relationship Incorrect
c. Weak relationship
d. Strong relationship
Feedback
The correct answer is: No relationship
The value of a perfect positive coefficient is ________.
Select one:
a. A positive number greater than 1
b. Equal to zero.
d. Equal to 1.
e. A positive number greater than 0. Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Equal to 1.
Select one:
a. Minimal positive correction Incorrect
b. Weak positive correction
c. No apparent correlation
d. Strong positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: Strong positive correction
The variable that causes an effect
Select one:
a. Response variable
b. Explanatory variable Correct
c. Trend variable
d. Correlation variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Explanatory variable
This pattern is produced when the score of one observation is high, the score of the other observation
to be high.
Select one:
a. XY Plot
b. Positive Correlation
c. Direct Correlation Incorrect
d. Negative Correlation
Feedback
The correct answer is: Positive Correlation
Year and household monthly water consumption in the Philippines
Select one:
a. Water consumption is the explanatory variable and year is the response variable Incorrect
b. Cannot be determined
c. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
The variable that reflects the effect
Select one:
a. Explanatory variable
b. Response variable Correct
c. Correlation variable
d. Trend variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Response variable

Select one:
a. Minimal positive correction
b. Strong positive correction Correct
c. No apparent correlation
d. Weak positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: Strong positive correction
The symbol used to measure the strength and direction of a linear correlation
Select one:
a. r2
b. r
c. XY
d. None of the choices Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: r
It is also called independent variable
Select one:
a. Explanatory variable
b. Response variable Incorrect
c. Trend variable
d. Correlation variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Explanatory variable
Salary and number of years of experience
Select one:
a. Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable Correct
b. Salary is the explanatory variable and number of years is the response variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable
Select one:
a. No apparent correlation
b. Minimal positive correction Incorrect
c. Weak positive correction
d. Strong positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: Weak positive correction
Expenditure is an example of a
Select one:
a. Trend variable
b. Explanatory variable
c. Correlation variable
d. Response variable Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Response variable

Short Quiz 5 Stats
True or False: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation.
True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal
to 20.
True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the distribution of means is estimated
by dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square of the sample size.
True or False: A random sample of size 49 is selected from a known population with a mean of 29 and a
standard deviation of 3.3. Samples of the same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling
distribution of sample means to be drawn. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be
approximately a normal curve.
Margin of Error is the value that _______________ from the mean to identify the confidence interval.
A: add/subtract
In a normal curve, a _____ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
The correct answer is: Z score
Empirical rule states that _______ % of data falls within 2 standard deviation.
True or False: Standard deviation of a distribution of means is the standard error of the mean.
True or False: If the population is normally distributed, the sampling distribution of sample mean is
equal to 1.
A: false
If there are 2 volunteers that are randomly selected from population of 10 for each sample, how
many will be the possible samples?
A: 45
The average of the population.
PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem.
REMINDERS
If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places.
If your answer is more than 3 digits, DO NOT INCLUDE THE COMMA.
If there are three students that are randomly selected from population of 20 for each sample, how many
possible samples will there be?

True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to
the population mean.
It is located at the middle of the normal curve.
Bell shaped curve.
The correct answer is: Normal Curve
In a normal curve, the mean always has a z score of ____
Week 6 Learning Activity 5 Stats Different questions. Comment below yung questions kapagwala pa
rindito.
If the population is normally distributed,
Select one:
a. All of the choices
b. The sampling distribution of sample mean is normal Correct
c. Standard deviation is equal to Mean
d. Standard deviation is distributed along the normal curve
Feedback
The correct answer is: The sampling distribution of sample mean is normal
Standard deviation of a distribution of means is the standard error of the mean.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE Correct
c. The statement is FALSE

d. The statement do not have sufficient information to conclude
The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE
A random sample of size is 50 is selected from a known population with a mean of 13 and a standard
deviation of 3.3. Samples of the same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of
sample means to be drawn. What is the approximate standard deviation of the sample means?
Select one:
a. 12.692
b. 0.066
c. 0.467 Correct
d. 15.15
Feedback
A random sample of size 50 is selected from a known population with a mean of 25 and a standard
deviation of 5.2. Samples of the same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of
sample means to be drawn. What does the problem tells us?
Select one:
a. All of the above statements does not describe the problem
b. Standard deviation of the sample mean is calculated by 5.2 divided by size of the sample which is 50
c. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be approximately a normal curve
d. Z score can be calculated by dividing 25 by the size of samples which is 50
Answer: c. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be approximately a normal curve
If there are 5 students that are randomly selected from population of 10 for each sample, how many will
be the possible samples?
Select one:
a. 250
b. 126
c. 50
d. 252
Answer: 252
In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the distribution of means is estimated by
Select one:
a. Mean of the population multiplied by the standard deviation of the population
b. Dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square root of the sample size
c. Dividing the mean of the population by the square root of the deviation of the population
d. Mean of the population divided by the mean of the sampling distribution
Answer:Dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square root of the sample size
Which of the following applies to Central Limit Theorem?
Select one:
a. None of the answers is correct.
b. All of the answers are correct.
c. Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is greater than or equal
to 30.
d. When the sample size is large or above 30, the population is not normal Incorrect
e. Population is normally distributed when standard deviation is large
Feedback
The correct answer is: Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is
greater than or equal to 30.
Short Quiz 7 Stats
Margin of Error is the value that ______ from the mean to identify the confidence interval.
Select one:
a. Subtracted
b. Added
d. Added and subtracted
The correct answer is: Added and subtracted
Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data:
Mean = 88
Standard deviation = 6
Sample size = 100

Confidence level = 95%
Select one:
a. 73.89, 79.89
b. 80.08, 84.23
c. 89.05, 92.45
d. 86.82, 89.18
The correct answer is: 80.08, 84.23
The number of degrees of freedom is ________ the sample size.
Select one:
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. Less than
The correct answer is: Less than
Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data: Mean = 66 Standard deviation = 5 Sample
size = 100 Confidence coefficient = 1.645
Select one:
a. 70.04, 71.34
b. 71.90, 72.22
c. 69.33, 70.02
d. 65.18, 66.82
Find the point estimate of the population parameter of the grades of students. The answer must be
rounded off to the nearest hundredths.
The correct answer is: 8 6 . 2 5
The range of possible values expected to capture the population mean is called the Margin of Error.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Which of the following does not describes a T distribution?
Select one:
b. Bell shaped curve
c. Symmetrical
d. Mean of Means is equal to 0
The correct answer is: Mean of Means is equal to 0
Compute for the margin of error given the following data:
Mean = 80
Sample size = 100
Note that the answer must be rounded off to the nearest hundredths.
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Which of the following is used to estimate population parameter?
Select one:
a. Point Estimate
b. Central Limit Theorem Estimate Incorrect
c. Mean Estimate
d. Biased Estimate
Feedback
Mean of means is also called

Select one:
a. Unbiased estimate
b. Interval Estimate Incorrect
c. Point Estimate
d. Population Mean
Feedback
Compute for the margin of error given the following data:
Mean = 77
Sample size = 100
Confidence coefficient = 2.58
Note that the answer must be rounded off to the nearest hundredths.
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Learning activity 7 Stats
Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data:
Mean = 66
Sample size = 100
Select one:
a. 66.03, 69.03
b. 64.04, 67.96
c. 65.41, 66.59
d. 69.03, 70.99
Common choices for the confidence level.
Select one:
a. 68%, 95%, 99.7%
b. 90%, 95%, 99%
c. 95%, 99%, 100%
d. 0%, 50%, 100%
The correct answer is: 90%, 95%, 99%
In T distribution, if we increase the number of observations
Select one:
a. the distribution approaches the shape of a normal distribution
b. the mean approaches zero
c. the curve lies within the horizontal axis
d. the mean increases
e. all of the choices
The correct answer is: the distribution approaches the shape of a normal distribution
A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
Select one:
a. Confidence Limit
b. Sample Mean Correct
c. Sample distribution
d. Confidence coefficient
Feedback
The correct answer is: Sample Mean

For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of observing
a value outside of this area is ____________.
Select one:
a. Less than 10%
b. Higher than the 2 nd standard deviation Incorrect
c. Greater than 10%
d. Lower than the 2 nd standard deviation
Feedback
The correct answer is: Less than 10%
This is the value that is added to and subtracted from the mean to identify the confidence interval.
Select one:
a. Confidence Level
b. Margin of Error
c. Confidence Interval Incorrect
d. Standard Deviation Error
Feedback
The correct answer is: Margin of Error

Find the sample size given 95% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.15 and p ^ =0.25.
Select one:
a. 34 Incorrect
b. 33
c. 31
d. 32
Feedback
Find the sample size given 90% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.15 and ^p =0.25.
Select one:
a. 20 Incorrect
b. 22
c. 23
d. 21
Feedback
Select one:
a. 389
b. 215 Incorrect
c. 139
d. 152
Feedback
Select one:
a. 41
b. 42
c. 44 Incorrect
d. 43
Feedback
The Engineer of the building wants to use the proportion of the population to determine the sample size
needed to interview regarding their idea about the new color design of the building. He wants to be able
to assure with probability 0.90 that his error will be most 0.10. Similar surveys during past year that 85%
approved the new color design. How large a sample does the Engineer need?
Select one:
a. 278 Incorrect
b. 2,145
c. 1,372
d. 196
Feedback

Short Quiz 11 Stats
Determine whether each of the following is a null of an alternative hypothesis:
The proportion of computer in the software laboratory is lower than the total number of BS IT students
in the university.
Answer:
alternative hypothesis
Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Alternative hypothesis
The alternative hypothesis and null hypothesis should be ________________.
Select one:
a. Mutually exclusive
b. All of the choices
d. Mutually inclusive Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Mutually inclusive
The proportion of an employee income is greater than the monthly expenses of the employee.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Alternative hypothesis

William collected a random sample of 88 people, asking how many times they open ABC web site per
day on average, and calculated x¯ = 50.30. ABC suggests that µ = 55, and s = 10. William thinks the actual
mean is less than the website owner claims. What is the null and alternative hypothesis?
Select one:
a. 55
b. Null hypothesis µ = 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55
c. Null hypothesis µ ? 55, Alternative hypothesis µ
d. Null hypothesis µ > 55, Alternative hypothesis µ = 55
e. 55, Alternative hypothesis µ ? 55 Correct
f. Null hypothesis µ
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis µ = 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55
A type of test that is denoted by the symbol Ho.
Select one:
a. Rejection hypothesis Incorrect
b. Statistical hypothesis
c. Alternative hypothesis
d. Null hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis
The probability of making type I error is
Select one:
a. ß
b. 1- a
c. 1- ß
d. a Correct
e. µ - a
Feedback
The correct answer is: a
For the 99% confidence level,
Select one:
a. a
b. a
c. a
d. 0.001
e. a
f. 0.010
g. 0.005
h. 0.025 Correct
Feedback
A police precinct claims that there is ten crimes on the average are reported.
Answer:
alternative hypothesis
Incorrect
Feedback
This refers to the area where the value of the test statistic lies for which we will reject the null
hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Rejection region and Null region
b. Rejection region and Critical region Correct
c. Null region and Critical region
d. Null region
e. Critical region
f. None of the choices
g. Rejection region
h. All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: Rejection region and Critical region
The average income of an employee is 12,000 pesos.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Correct
Feedback
The level of significance is the
Select one:
a. 1 - p value
b. Same as confidence interval
c. Maximum allowable probability of Type II error
d. Minimum allowable probability of Type II error
e. Probability of committing a Type I error Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Probability of committing a Type I error
What is the null hypothesis to the claim that people like android phone than IOS? State the null
hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Less people like IOS than android
b. More people like android than IOS phone Correct
c. Less people like android and IOS phone
d. More people like IOS phone than android phone
Feedback
The correct answer is: More people like android than IOS phone
If the null hypothesis is true and rejected, the decision is incorrect – Type I Error
Select one:
a. Rejection Error
b. Type I Error Correct
c. Correction Error
d. Type II Error
Feedback
The correct answer is: Type I Error
The average internet usage of a College student is 6 hours.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Correct
Feedback

Short quiz 14
In a ____________, high values in one variable correspond to high values in the other variable.
Select one:
a. Perfect Correlation Incorrect
b. Positive Correlation
c. Scattered Correlation
d. Negative Correlation
Feedback
The correct answer is: Positive Correlation
Graphical representation of the relationship between two variables.
Select one:
a. Line Plots Incorrect
b. XY intersection plot
c. scatter plot
d. Cartesian plane
Feedback
The correct answer is: scatter plot
When examining scatterplot and draw an ellipse around the data, long and narrow ellipses means
Select one:
a. Negative linear association
b. Weak linear association
c. Positive linear association Incorrect
d. Strong linear association
e. Cannot determine with the given information
Feedback
The correct answer is: Strong linear association
This measures relationship between bivariate data.
Select one:
b. Correlation Correct
c. All of the choices
d. Linear Regression
e. Scatterplot Analysis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Correlation
A _____________ is simply a scatterplot in which we connect successive chronological observations with

a line segment to give more information about how the data values are changing over a period of time.
Select one:
a. XY Plot
b. Scatter Plot
c. Correlation Plot
d. Line plot Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Line plot
The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also decreases.
Select one:
a. negative linear association Incorrect
b. proportional association
c. elliptical association
d. positive linear association
Feedback
The correct answer is: positive linear association
The goal of examining bivariate data is to show some relativity or association between two or more
variables.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE. Incorrect
b. The statement is FALSE.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE.

Learning Actvity 14 Stats
Given the data below, what is the direction of the association between the two variables.
Select one:
a. Positive linear association Incorrect
b. Weak linear association
c. Strong linear association
e. Negative linear association
Feedback
The correct answer is: Negative linear association
The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also increases.
Select one:
a. positive linear association Correct
b. proportional association
c. elliptical association
d. negative linear association
Feedback
The correct answer is: positive linear association
The line that is closest to the points is called _____________.
Select one:
a. Trend line Correct
b. Correlation line
c. Cross line
d. Scatter line
Feedback
The correct answer is: Trend line
The three important characteristics of a bivariate?

Select one:
a. Elliptical, Rounded, Scattered
b. Proportional, Directional, Elliptical
c. Direction, Shape, Strength
d. Line, Points, Shape Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Direction, Shape, Strength
The series of disconnected points is referred to as _________________________
Select one:
a. XY Plots
b. Trend line plots
c. Bivariate data
d. scatter plot Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: scatter plot
Short Quiz 16 Stats
The equation y=2x2 + 9 will produce a
Select one:
a. Parabola Correct
b. Ellipse
c. Circle
d. Straight line
Feedback
The correct answer is: Parabola
When slope is positive,
Select one:
a. y increases as x increases Correct
b. y decreases as x increases
c. y increases, x values approaches point of origin
d. y decreases, x values approaches 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: y increases as x increases
In the slope-intercept equation of a line, the slope of the line is represented as the coefficient of the
variable x.
Select one:
a. FALSE
b. Cannot be determined
c. TRUE Correct
Feedback
Given the table below, what is the linear equation?
Select one:
a. y=3x + 11 Incorrect
b. y=6x + 5
c. y=8x + 3
d. y=3x + 8
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: y=8x + 3
If the line has no slope,
Select one:
a. The line is a horizontal line
b. The line is at the point of origin
c. The line intercepts the x and y axis
d. The line lies at the x axis Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: The line is a horizontal line
Given the table below, what is the slope?
Select one:
a. 9
b. 11
c. 8
d. 3 Incorrect
Feedback
Given the equation y = 7x+ 30, what is the slope?
Answer:
4.2
Incorrect
Feedback
Given the table and graph, determine the slope intercept equation.
Select one:
a. y=5x + 1
b. y=10x + 2 Incorrect
c. y=5x + 2
d. y=10x + 1
Feedback
Given the equation 9y = 2x + 81, what is the y intercept?
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
The equation y=mx + b is also known as
Select one:
a. slope intercept form
b. y intercept Incorrect
c. correlation intercept form
d. xy intercept form
Feedback
The correct answer is: slope intercept form
Given the equation y = 3x+ 10, what is the slope?
Answer:
Correct
Feedback
Given the table and graph, determine the slope intercept equation.
Select one:
a. y=3x + 1
b. 2y=6x + 3
c. y=-3x + 3 Correct
d. 2y=6x + 1
The correct answer is: y=-3x + 3
Given the table below, what is the slope?

Select one:
a. 2 Correct
b. 1
c. 8
d. 7
Feedback
Given the equation 2y = 3x + 10, what is the y intercept?
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Given the table below, what is the linear equation?
Select one:
a. y=2x + 7 Correct
b. y=5x + 2
c. y=7x + 1
d. y=7x + 5
Feedback
Write the slope-intercept equation of the line that has slope 6 and y-intercept 4.
answer: 6x+4
Q: True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean.
A: False
Q: This determines the degree to which values of a random variable dif
A: Variance
Q: Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35,
37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
A: 31
Q: A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
A: Sample Mean
Q: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation.
A: False
Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X
must equal 1.
A: The statement is TRUE.
True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected
value ANSWER: TRUE
Q: As the sample size increases,
A: sampling distribution becomes closer to a normal distribution.
Q: Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal
places.1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8
A: 4.53
Q: How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins.
A: 8
Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a
university
A: CONTINUOUS
Q: True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur
compared to all possible outcomes.
A: False
Q: True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables.
A: False
Q: Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39
A: 39
Q: Which of the following does not describes a T distribution?
A: Mean of Means is equal to 0
Q: True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order
A: True
Q: True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or
equal to 20.
A: False
Q: To calculate the mean from a sample,
A: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples
Q: Which of the following is used to calculate population parameter?
A: Point Estimate
Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager
chooses 30 employees randomly from a department.
A: Yes
Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a
community
A: DISCRETE
Q: Normal Distribution Curve is also called
A: Bell Curve
Q: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the
A: Population mean
Q: Which measure of tendency is the best estimator?
A: Mean
Q: The number of times out of 100 that the repeated experiment would be expected to capture the
population mean within the given interval.
A: Confidence Level
Q: In a normal curve, a ___ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
A: Z score
Q: True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is
equal to the population mean.
A: True
Q: Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
A: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean
Q: For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of
observing a value outside of this area is ____________.
A: Less than 10%
Q: Use to check the normality of a distribution
A: Normal quantile plot
Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments
of a varsity team
A: DISCRETE
Q: The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.
A: Mean
Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the
number of students who rides on the train.
A: Yes
Q: Consider the given the probability distribution
A:4.100
Q: PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem.
REMINDERS If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places. If your
answer is more than 3 digits, DO NOT INCLUDE THE COMMA.
If there are three students that are randomly selected from population of 20 for each sample, how
many possible samples will there be?
A: 1140
Q: Which of the following describes a Normal Distribution Curve.
A: All of the choices
Q: True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the
population
A: False
Q: How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?
A: 3
A: Bell Curve
Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in
the lower quartile?
A: 4
Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to
_______.
A: 30
Q: Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?
A: Carl Friedrich Gauss
Population Mean is an example of a parameter.

A: true
Q: True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random
sample
A: True
Q: Empirical Rule states that _____ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean.
A: 68
must equal to
A: 1
Q: True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a
discrete random variable.
A: False
Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher
conducts examination to all his students.
A: No
Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile
A: 14
Q: What is the formula to calculate for the z-score?
A: Mean value of the variable subtracted from the observed value divided by the standard deviation
Q: Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean?
x,0,1,2
p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10
A: None of the choices
Q: True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases.
A: False
It is the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes.
Select one:
a. Variance
b. Standard Deviation
c. Mean
d. Probability
What is the common symbol for the mean?
Select one:
a. ∑
b. Α
c. Ω
d. µ
True or False: Mean is computed as the weighted average of the possible numbers of random
variables. ANSWER: TRUE
Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.
Select one:
a. All values are less than the mean.
b. All values are equal to the z-score
c. All values are equal to the mean.
d. All values are greater than the mean.
True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the random
variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.
Answer: true
How do you determine the value of the mean,
Select one:
a. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the
take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.
c. Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take
the product of all possible values of X.
d. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the
take the sum over all possible values of X.
True or False: The probability variance of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that
specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume.
Answer: FALSE
true or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean.
~ true
The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that
Select one:
a. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.
b. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.
c. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the
statement.
d. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.
Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?
Select one:
a. Mean is greater than Median.
b. Data is exactly equal to the mean.
c. Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below.
d. Median is greater than Mean.
What are the percentages of normal distribution within 1, 2 and 3 standard deviation.
Select one:
a. Approximately 50% and 50% respectively
b. Exactly 25%, 25% and 50% respectively
c. Exactly 100% be applied to each standard deviation
d. Approximately 68%, 95% and 99.7% respectively
In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size ________________________.
Select one:
a. Must be greater than zero.
b. Must be greater than sample distribution.
c. Must be equal than the sample mean.
d. Must be greater than 30.
This is a representative subset of a population.
Select one:
a. Standard Deviation
b. Sample
c. Statistics
d. Mean
In the Empirical Rule, _______ % of data will fall in with two standard deviation.
Select one:
a. 99.7
b. 34
c. 50
d. 100
e. 95
This is always in the center of the normal curve
Select one:
a. Mode
b. Median
c. Standard Deviation
d. Mean
value.
A: false
In a normal curve, the mean is located at the
Select one:
a. highest point of the curve
b. lowest point of the curve
c. midpoint of the curve
d. intersection of the lowest and highest point
The range of probability is
Select one:
a. can be any number (positive or negative)
b. from zero to 1
c. negative 1 to positive 1
d. from zero to any positive number
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is
Select one:
a. should always be a positive number
b. always equal to zero
c. always equal to one
d. greater than or equal to zero
This determines the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value.
Select one:
a. Median
b. Standard Deviation
c. Variance
d. Mode
e. Mean
The mean of the normal distribution is
Select one:
a. should always be a positive number
b. always equal to zero
c. always equal to one
d. greater than or equal to zero
This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population
Select one:
a. Standard Deviation
b. Mean
c. Sample Distribution of sample means
d. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
e. Sample
f. Parameter
g. Random Sample
h. Standard Curve
i. Sampling Error
j. Population
k. Population Mean
l. Distribution Error
m. Median
n. Mode
o. Statistics
p. Sample
q. Deviation Error
True or False: The probability of an outcome that all heads face up when fairly tossing three coin is
3/8.
Answer: false
The range of possible values expected to capture the population mean.
Select one:
a. Standard Deviation Error
b. Confidence Interval
c. Margin of Error
d. Confidence Level
The t-distribution shape changes as the _______________ changes.
Select one:
a. Population Mean
c. Sample Mean
d. Sample size
The confidence level is expressed in terms of ____________.
Select one:
a. Percentage
b. Whole Number
c. Fraction
d. Ratio
In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the population is estimated by dividing the
standard deviation of the population by the square of the sample size.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE
b. The statement is FALSE
c. The statement is SOMETIMES FALSE
d. The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE
A: False
A: Variance
37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
A: 31
A: Sample Mean
A: False
must equal 1.
places.1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8
A: 4.53
A: 8
university
A: CONTINUOUS
A: False
A: False
A: 39
A: True
equal to 20.
A: False
A: Point Estimate
A: Yes
community
A: DISCRETE
A: Normal Curve
A: Population mean
A: Mean
A: Confidence Level
Q: In a normal curve, a ___ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
A: Z score
A: True
observing a value outside of this area is ____________.
A: Less than 10%
of a varsity team
A: DISCRETE
A: Mean
A: Yes
A:
A: 1140
population
A: False
A: 3
A: Basic Curve
the lower quartile?
A: 4
_______.
A: 30
sample
A: True
Q: Empirical Rule states that _____ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean.
A: 68
must equal to
A: 1
A: False
A: No
A: 14
x,0,1,2
p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10
A: False
STAT-112-20172S / ► Week 10: Quarterly Exam / ► Quarterly Exam

A: False
A: Variance
37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
A: 31
A: Sample Mean
A: False
must equal 1.
places.1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8
A: 4.53
A: 8
university
A: CONTINUOUS
A: False
A: False
A: 39
A: True
equal to 20.
A: False
A: Point Estimate
A: Yes
community
A: DISCRETE
A: Normal Curve
A: Population mean
A: Mean
A: Confidence Level
Q: In a normal curve, a _ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
A: Z score
A: True
observing a value outside of this area is __________.
A: Less than 10%
of a varsity team
A: DISCRETE
A: Mean
A: Yes
A:
A: 1140
population
A: False
A: 3
A: Basic Curve
the lower quartile?
A: 4
_____.
A: 30
sample
A: True
Q: Empirical Rule states that ___ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean.
A: 68
must equal to
A: 1
A: False
A: No
A: 14
x,0,1,2
p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10
A: False
Which of the following is tells about t distribution,

A: all of the choices
Two dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)?
10
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median; None of the choices; Mean is equal to Mode;
Mean is equal to Median and Mode Mean is equal to Median and Mode
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey company
collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next
election. Yes
1. Given the data set, find the Mean Value or Expected value (round off your answer to the nearest
tenths): 4.2
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. The brightness of an LED bulb
CONTINUOUS
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is FALSE.; None of the
choices; The statement is TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set.
None of the choices
True or False: The probability of an outcome that all heads face up when fairly tossing three coin is 3/8.
False
value. False
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60
variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. True
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number
of students who rides on the train. Yes
False
True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. False
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Women who
volunteer to take a survey on human rights. No
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of:
Continuous Discrete Random Variable; None of the choices; Discrete Random Variables; Discrete
Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random Variable Continuous Random Variable
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Time travelled by an astronaut

CONTINUOUS
This determines the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value.: Mean;
Median; Standard Deviation; Variance; Mode Variance
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Sample; Mode; Random

Sample; Standard Curve; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Statistics;
Sampling Error; Standard Deviation; Population; Distribution Error; Population Mean; Mean; Sample;
Median; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Parameter Sample
True or False: Parameters are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population TRUE
tenths): 4.2
The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies
the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume.: The
statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The
statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is
INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS
CORRECT. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Standard deviation of the

distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Standard Deviation; Sampling Error; Mean;
Parameter; Random Sample; Mode; Statistics; Standard Curve; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Population; Median; Sample; Population Mean; Distribution Error Sample
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; greater than or equal to zero;
always equal to one; should always be a positive number always equal to one
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Z-score;
Normal Distribution Measurement; Median; Empirical Rule Z-score
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median and Mode; Mean is equal to Median; Mean is
equal to Mode; None of the choices Mean is equal to Median and Mode
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is TRUE.; The
statement is FALSE.; None of the choices; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data
set. None of the choices
Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the
lower quartile?: 6; 1; 4; 0 4
Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? : (0.30+0.20+0.10)/3; None of
the choices ; (0.30+0.20+0.10)/(0+1+2) ; (0)(0.30) + (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10); (0+1+2)(0.30+0.20+0.10)
None of the choices
True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his
eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times.
No
True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the
population FALSE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. The speed of
internet in all areas in the Visayas Region. Yes
variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. True
True or False: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means is computed as the population
standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the sample size. FALSE
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0.1255; 0;
None of the choices; 1 0.1255
Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer should be rounded off to the
nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2
False
True or False: Sample Distribution of sample means is the the distribution that describes the spread of
the means of multiple samples from the sample population TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election
results in all areas in the Philippines during election No
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Depth of
building excavation.; Height of students enrolled in an online course.; None of the choices.; Wind speed
during typhoon.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus. None of the choices.
What is the common symbol for the mean?: Α; ∑; µ; Ω µ
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0; None of
the choices; 0.1255; 1 0.1255
Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer should be rounded off
to one decimal place. 3 5 5 5 6 6 8 8 13 15 17 30 10.8
How do you determine the value of the mean,: Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by
its associated probability and the take the product of all possible values of X.; None of the choices;
Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the
sum over all possible values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its
associated probability and the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.
Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the
This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Parameter; Sampling Error; Statistics; Sample
Distribution of sample means; Standard Deviation; Population Mean; Mode; Standard Curve; Sample;
Population; Median; Distribution Error; Deviation Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Random Sample; Mean; Sample Statistics
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.: None of the choices; Perfectly
asymmetric; Mount-shaped distribution; Bell-shaped Perfectly asymmetric
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Median;
Normal Distribution Measurement; Empirical Rule; Z-score Z-score
Salary, scores and age are examples of ____________ random variables. Continuous
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey
company collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on
the next election. Yes
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a

community DISCRETE
In a normal curve, the bigger the values of standard deviation results to a: wider curve; straight live
curve; skewed to the right; narrower curve; skewed to the left wider curve
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space should be always be a number
from zero to one.; Sample space are possible outcomes; Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample
space is also known as probability mass function. Sample space are possible outcomes
Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are less than the mean.; All
values are equal to the z-score; All values are equal to the mean.; All values are greater than the mean.
All values are less than the mean.
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Normal
Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Empirical Rule; Median Z-score
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Infinite
numbers are considered discrete variables.; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; All
of the statements are TRUE. Countable number of values are called discrete variables
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a
varsity team DISCRETE
statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The
INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS
The range of probability is: can be any number (positive or negative); negative 1 to positive 1; from zero
to any positive number; from zero to 1 from zero to 1
Which of the following is incorrect?: Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random
variables; Probability distribution equals to zero.; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous
random variables; Probability distribution equals to one.; None of the choices Probability distribution
equals to zero.
Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are equal to the mean.; All
values are equal to the z-score; All values are less than the mean.; All values are greater than the mean.
All values are less than the mean.
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; Bell Curve; All of the choices
Basic Curve
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts
examination to all his students. No
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office

CONTINUOUS
nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2 1.65
True or False: The larger the sample size the closer the sampling distribution was to a normal
distribution TRUE
Given the set of data: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the lower
quartile : 8; 0; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,; 3 8
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of students in a University

DISCRETE
In a given experiment, the sum of all probabilities is: can be any number (positive or negative); One;
Zero; All positive numbers One
This is states that the percentages of data in a normal distribution within 1,2 and 3 standard deviations.:
Empirical Rule; None of the choices; Normal quantile plot; Z score Empirical Rule
10
A fair six sided dice is tossed. The player loses 5 pesos if the result is “1”, and loses P5 pesos if the result
is a “6”, the rest of the numbers, player wins P10. Which of the following table best describes the
problem? : ; None of the choices; ;
to ______. 1
Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the upper
quartile : 18; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22; 22; 0 18
The data set that approximates a normal distribution is located at the left side of the curve wherein
mean is greater than median.: None of the choices.; The statement is INCORRECT; The statement is
ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE. The statement is INCORRECT
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Selects all areas in
the Philippines who are affected by typhoon and with 5th and 6th income class. Yes
It is computed as the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size:
Random Sample; Standard Deviation; Median; Parameter; Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Deviation Error; Sample; Mean; Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means;
Sampling Error; Sample; Statistics; Mode; Standard Curve; Distribution Error; Population
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population: Mean; Random Sample; Mode;
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Parameter; Standard Curve;
Statistics; Population; Population Mean; Sample; Median; Sampling Error; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Standard Deviation; Distribution Error; Sample Parameter
True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. False
It is measure of the number of standard deviations a particular data value: Z score; Normal quantile plot;
None of the choices; Empirical Rule Z score
True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared
to all possible outcomes. False
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Normal Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve
Normal Curve
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Mobile data consumed by a telephone
subscriber
CONTINUOUS Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No
Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the
process for 30 times. No
The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample
population: Population Mean; Distribution Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample
means; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Statistics; Standard Deviation; Parameter;
Sampling Error; Mode; Sample; Mean; Standard Curve; Population; Sample; Median; Random Sample
Sample Distribution of sample means
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60
Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?: William
Gosset ; Carl Friedrich Gauss ; John Tukey ; Ronald Fisher Carl Friedrich Gauss
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Height of
students enrolled in an online course.; Wind speed during typhoon.; None of the choices.; Distance
travelled of a tourist bus.; Depth of building excavation. None of the choices.
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Countable number of values
are called discrete variables; Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are
considered discrete variables. Countable number of values are called discrete variables
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample
space should be always be a number from zero to one.; Sample space is also known as probability mass
function.; Sample space are possible outcomes Sample space are possible outcomes
quartile : 3; 0; 8; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, 8
CONTINUOUS
nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2 1.65
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Two
dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10
Which of the following is incorrect?: None of the choices; Probability distribution is used to compute
discrete random variables; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables;
Probability distribution equals to one.; Probability distribution equals to zero. Probability distribution
equals to zero. This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these
values. Probability Distribution equals to zero
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; All of the choices; Arc-Shaped Curve; Bell Curve
Basic Curve
Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41,
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 36.45; 30; 31; 24 31
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Speed of a tropical storm in the
Philippines CONTINUOUS
quartile : 18; 0; 22; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22 18
Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/2; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7 39
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Empirical Rule; None of the choices; Z score Rule; Variance Rule
Empirical Rule
Use to check the normality of a distribution: Normal quantile plot; Empirical Rule; Z score; None of the
choices Normal quantile plot
population FALSE
How do you determine the value of the mean,: Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables
X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.; Sum each possible
outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the product of all possible
values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and
the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.; None of the choices Multiply each
possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all
possible values of X.
A curve is said to be symmetric if all data points lies at the right side of the curve.
A: false
As the confidence interval for a given statistic increases in length, the confidence level decreases.
A: false
The mean of the normal distribution is: always equal to one; always equal to zero; should always be a
positive number; greater than or equal to zero always equal to zero
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means? 60
In a normal curve, the bigger the values of standard deviation results to a: wider curve;
narrower curve; skewed to the right; skewed to the left; straight live curve wider curve
distribution TRUE
True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. False
True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. FALSE True or False: Mean is
the sum of all possible values of random variables. False
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Selects all areas in
the Philippines who are affected by typhoon and with 5th and 6th income class. Yes
1.5, what was her score in the examination?: 82.50; 487.50; None of the choices; 117.50 82.50
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Median; Sample; Mean; Mode;
Sample; Standard Deviation; Population Mean; Standard Curve; Deviation Error; Standard deviation of
the distribution of the sample means; Parameter; Statistics; Population; Random Sample; Distribution
Error; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sampling Error Sample
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Bell Curve; Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices
Basic Curve
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE
Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are equal to the mean.; All
values are greater than the mean.; All values are equal to the z-score; All values are less than the mean.
All values are greater than the mean.
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Time travelled by an astronaut

CONTINUOUS
The process of assigning a number to each member of the population: Random Sample; Population
Mean; Median; Sample; Standard Curve; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means;
Sample; Sample Distribution of sample means; Mean; Distribution Error; Sampling Error; Population;
Parameter; Statistics; Standard Deviation; Deviation Error; Mode Random Sample
This is states that the percentages of data in a normal distribution within 1,2 and 3 standard deviations.:
Normal quantile plot; Empirical Rule; Z score; None of the choices Empirical Rule
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?: A discrete variable is a random variable where data can
take infinitely many variables; A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible
outcome of an experiment; A discrete variable are countable number of possible values; Continuous
random variables are finite numbers A discrete variable are countable number of possible values
Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 2.466; 1.233; 1.99 ; 1.44 1.99
It is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual
but unknown value of the parameter: Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sample;
Distribution Error; Population; Mean; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Sample; Random Sample; Parameter; Standard Curve; Median; Deviation Error; Mode;
Standard Deviation; Statistics Sampling Error
TRUE
quartile : 8; 0; 3; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, 8
quartile : 18; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22; 22; 0 18
A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.:
None of the choices; True; False; The statement has insufficient information. True
t is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual
but unknown value of the parameter: Statistics; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Standard Curve; Sample; Standard Deviation;
Sampling Error; Mode; Population; Deviation Error; Random Sample; Median; Parameter; Mean;
Population Mean; Distribution Error; Sample Sampling Error
tenths): 4.2
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his
eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times.
No
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; Normal Curve; All of the choices
Normal Curve
True or False: The bigger the sample size, the more closely the samples will be clustered around the true
value. TRUE
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a

varsity team DISCRETE
This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Distribution Error; Population; Parameter;
Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Population Mean; Statistics; Sampling Error;
Sample; Mode; Standard Curve; Random Sample; Median; Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Sample; Standard Deviation; Mean Statistics

CONTINUOUS
mean is greater than median.: The statement is ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.;
None of the choices.; The statement is INCORRECT The statement is INCORRECT
The range of probability is: can be any number (positive or negative); from zero to any positive number;
negative 1 to positive 1; from zero to 1 from zero to 1

community DISCRETE
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 24; 31; 36.45; 30 31
1, what was her score in the examination?: 80.50; None of the choices; 53.00; 82.50 53.00
Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 44; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/7; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2 39
1112345558888 4.53
True or False: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means is computed as the population
standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the sample size. FALSE
Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?: The number of volunteers in a
community; The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference.; The tuition fee
enrolled in different universities; The number of senators elected in the Philippines The number of
volunteers in a community
Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? : (0.30+0.20+0.10)/(0+1+2) ;
(0+1+2)(0.30+0.20+0.10) ; (0)(0.30) + (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10); (0.30+0.20+0.10)/3; None of the choices
None of the choices
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Normal
Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Median; Empirical Rule Z-score
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Select all 100 poor
households in a community in areas in the Philippines affected by the earthquake. Yes
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university

CONTINUOUS
election. Yes
True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. FALSE Identify if the random
variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Mobile data consumed by a telephone subscriber
CONTINUOUS
TRUE
In a given experiment, the sum of all probabilities is: One; can be any number (positive or negative);
Zero; All positive numbers One
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?: A discrete variable are countable number of possible
values; A discrete variable is a random variable where data can take infinitely many variables;
Continuous random variables are finite numbers; A continuous random variable assigns a whole number
to each possible outcome of an experiment A discrete variable are countable number of
possible values
The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.: Mode; Median; Mean; Standard
Deviation; Variance Mean
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; greater than or equal to zero;
always equal to one; should always be a positive number always equal to one
Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 1.233; 1.99 ; 1.44 ; 2.466 1.99
True or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean.
True
The mean of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; should always be a positive number;
always equal to one; greater than or equal to zero always equal to zero
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 1; None of the
choices; 0.1255; 0.25; 0 0.1255 What is the probability of getting all head when a three coins are
tossed? 1/8
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Arc-Shaped Curve; Normal Curve; Basic Curve; All of the choices
Normal Curve
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve; Bell Curve
Basic Curve
population FALSE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager
chooses 30 employees randomly from a department. Yes
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 24; 30; 31; 36.45 31
Countless number of values are also known as _____________ variables. Continuous It is

computed as the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size: Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Sampling Error; Mean; Standard
Deviation; Mode; Statistics; Sample; Median; Random Sample; Population; Standard Curve; Sample
Distribution of sample means; Population Mean; Sample; Parameter; Distribution Error
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins. 8
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Empirical
Rule; Normal Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Median Z-score
quartile : 0; 18; 22; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22 18
10
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election
results in all areas in the Philippines during election No
How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?: 4; 2; 1; 3 3
False
This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these values.
Probability Distribution
Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?: Mean is greater than Median.; Median is
greater than Mean.; None of the choices; Data is exactly equal to the mean.; Exactly ½ of the data is
above the mean and ½ of data is below.
Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below.
The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.: Mode; Median; Variance; Standard
Deviation; Mean Mean
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.: Bell-shaped; None of the
choices; Perfectly asymmetric; Mount-shaped distribution Perfectly asymmetric
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of proposed thesis in a university
DISCRETE
39)/7; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2 39
INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT.
The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS
What is the common symbol for the mean?: ∑; Α; Ω; µ µ
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Bell Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve
Basic Curve
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0; 0.1255; 1;
None of the choices 0.1255
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Z score Rule; Empirical Rule; Variance Rule; None of the choices
Empirical Rule
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: greater than or equal to zero; always equal
to one; always equal to zero; should always be a positive number always equal to one
but unknown value of the parameter: Mean; Standard Deviation; Random Sample; Sampling Error;
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Sample Distribution of sample means;
Median; Parameter; Population Mean; Mode; Sample; Standard Curve; Population; Distribution Error;
Deviation Error; Sample; Statistics Sampling Error
It is the degree of error expected for a given sample design: Population; Random Sample; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Median; Sampling Error; Sample Distribution of
sample means; Sample; Deviation Error; Population Mean; Standard Deviation; Distribution Error;
Standard Curve; Sample; Parameter; Statistics; Mode; Mean Sampling Error
population: Population; Sample; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error;
Standard Deviation; Sampling Error; Distribution Error; Median; Mode; Standard deviation of the
distribution of the sample means; Standard Curve; Population Mean; Statistics; Random Sample; Mean;
Parameter Sample Distribution of sample means
population. Sample Distribution of sample means
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Shake a bag
of colored balls, reach in and select a marble with eyes closed. Yes
distribution TRUE
A fair six sided dice is tossed. The player loses 5 pesos if the result is “1”, and loses P5 pesos if the result
is a “6”, the rest of the numbers, player wins P10. Which of the following table best describes the
problem? : None of the choices; ; ;
1, what was her score in the examination?: 53.00; 80.50; None of the choices; 82.50 53.00
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Each audience in a
game show is assigned a number from 111 to 666 and roll three standard dice to choose random
contestants. Yes
What is the probability of getting the same numbers on 3 dice when they are thrown simultaneously?
1
Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2;
44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; 39 39
True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared
to all possible outcomes. False
Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are less than the mean.; All
values are equal to the z-score; All values are equal to the mean.; All values are greater than the mean.
All values are greater than the mean.
The range of probability is: from zero to any positive number; negative 1 to positive 1; can be any
number (positive or negative); from zero to 1 from zero to 1
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median; Mean is equal to Median and Mode; Mean is
equal to Mode; None of the choices Mean is equal to Median and Mode
value. False
True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the
random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.
True
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Variance Rule; None of the choices; Z score Rule; Empirical Rule
Empirical Rule
statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement
is ALWAYS CORRECT.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be
included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in
the statement. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.
True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means FALSE
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of proposed thesis in a university
DISCRETE

CONTINUOUS
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means? 60
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Select all registered
voters in a community whose family income is below 10,000 pesos. Yes
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Wind
speed during typhoon.; Depth of building excavation.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus.; None of the
choices.; Height of students enrolled in an online course. None of the choices.
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to one; should always be a
positive number; greater than or equal to zero; always equal to zero always equal to one What is
the probability of getting the same numbers on 3 dice when they are thrown simultaneously? 1
Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 1.99 ; 1.44 ; 1.233; 2.466 1.99
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Shake a bag of
colored balls, reach in and select a marble with eyes closed. Yes
Consider the given the probability distribution The value of the mean is ________. : 4.100 ; 1.233 ;
2.466; 0.082 4.100
A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.:
None of the choices; False; True; The statement has insufficient information. True
A representative subset of a population: Random Sample; Deviation Error; Standard Curve; Population
Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample
means; Distribution Error; Median; Sampling Error; Mean; Population; Sample; Sample; Standard
Deviation; Statistics; Parameter; Mode Sample
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Non-countable values are
called discrete variables; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are
The process of assigning a number to each member of the population: Population Mean;
Parameter; Sampling Error; Standard Deviation; Sample; Distribution Error; Statistics; Random Sample;
Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard Curve; Sample; Mode; Deviation Error; Median;
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Population Random Sample
39)/2; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; 44 39
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the
number of students who rides on the train. Yes
True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means FALSE
mean is greater than median.: The statement is INCORRECT; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; None
of the choices.; The statement is ALWAYS TRUE. The statement is INCORRECT
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Empirical
Rule; Median; Z-score; Normal Distribution Measurement Z-score
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 36.45; 31; 24; 30 31
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample
space are possible outcomes; Sample space is also known as probability mass function.; Sample space
should be always be a number from zero to one. Sample space are possible outcomes
False
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Depth of
building excavation.; Wind speed during typhoon.; None of the choices.; Distance travelled of a tourist
bus.; Height of students enrolled in an online course. None of the choices.
How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?: 3; 2; 4; 1 3

CONTINUOUS
subscriber CONTINUOUS
Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?: Carl Friedrich
Gauss ; John Tukey ; Ronald Fisher ; William Gosset Carl Friedrich Gauss
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of:
Continuous Discrete Random Variable; Discrete Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random
Variable; None of the choices; Discrete Random Variables Continuous Random Variable
Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile:

13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16; 24; 16; 14 14
1.: The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE; The statement is FALSE.; The statement is TRUE.; The
statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE The statement is TRUE.
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university

CONTINUOUS
rue or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. FALSE
In a normal curve, the mean is located at the: midpoint of the curve; intersection of the lowest
and highest point; lowest point of the curve; highest point of the curve highest point of the curve
Which of the following is incorrect?: Probability distribution equals to zero.; Probability distribution is
used to compute discrete random variables; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous
random variables; None of the choices; Probability distribution equals to one. Probability distribution
equals to zero.
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Identify
whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election results
in all areas in the Philippines during election No What is the common symbol for the mean?: ∑;
Ω; Α; µ µ
True or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean.
True
True or False: The formula of mean is relative to compute for the variance. True
quartile : 8; 0; 3; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, 8
True or False: Variance Error is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population
parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter FALSE
False
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: Non-countable values are called discrete variables;
Countable number of values are called discrete variables; All of the statements are TRUE.; Infinite
numbers are considered discrete variables. Countable number of values are called discrete
variables
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of: None
of the choices; Discrete Random Variables; Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Discrete Random
Variable; Discrete Continuous Random Variable Continuous Random Variable
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey
company collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on
the next election. Yes
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts
examination to all his students. No The sum of all the prob
abilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to ______. 1
mean is greater than median.: The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; The statement is ALWAYS TRUE.;
The statement is INCORRECT; None of the choices. The statement is INCORRECT
True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur
compared to all possible outcomes. False
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is FALSE.; The
statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set.; None of the choices; The statement is TRUE.
None of the choices
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Select all registered
voters in a community whose family income is below 10,000 pesos. Yes
10
An example of a parameter.: Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Random Sample; Population; Mode; Sample; Median;
Mean; Deviation Error; Standard Curve; Statistics; Parameter; Distribution Error; Standard Deviation;
Sample; Sampling Error Population Mean
quartile : 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,; 3; 8; 0 8
Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 How many
numbers are in the lower quartile? : 10; 0; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10; 6 6
How do you determine the value of the mean,: Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables
X by its associated probability and the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.;
Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the
sum over all possible values of X.; None of the choices; Sum each possible outcome of the random
variables X by its associated probability and the take the product of all possible values of X.
Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the
1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8 4.53 Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 39;
44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2 39

CONTINUOUS
This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population: Parameter; Standard Deviation;
Distribution Error; Sample; Population Mean; Median; Mode; Sample; Sampling Error; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Random Sample; Standard Curve;
Sample Distribution of sample means; Statistics; Population; Mean Parameter
Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?: None of the choices; Median is greater than
Mean.; Mean is greater than Median.; Data is exactly equal to the mean.; Exactly ½ of the data is above
the mean and ½ of data is below. Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below.

community DISCRETE
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 31; 36.45; 30; 24 31
The mean of the normal distribution is: greater than or equal to zero; always equal to one; should
always be a positive number; always equal to zero always equal to zero
False
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Mode; Mean is equal to Median; None of the
choices; Mean is equal to Median and Mode Mean is equal to Median and Mode
to ______. 1
but unknown value of the parameter: Parameter; Mean; Sample; Mode; Distribution Error; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Median; Sampling Error; Deviation Error; Standard
Deviation; Standard Curve; Population; Population Mean; Statistics; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Sample; Random Sample Sampling Error
It is the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes.: Probability;
Standard Deviation; Variance; Mean Probability
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. The brightness of an LED bulb
CONTINUOUS
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Z score Rule; None of the choices; Empirical Rule; Variance Rule
Empirical Rule
This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Random Sample; Statistics; Population Mean;
Sample; Deviation Error; Population; Standard Deviation; Parameter; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Sample; Standard Curve; Mode; Median; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution
of the sample means; Distribution Error; Mean Statistics

CONTINUOUS
Use to check the normality of a distribution: None of the choices; Normal quantile plot; Z score;
Empirical Rule Normal quantile plot
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Non-countable values are
called discrete variables; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are

community DISCRETE
subscriber CONTINUOUS
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Women who
volunteer to take a survey on human rights. No
Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?: The number of senators elected in
the Philippines; The number of volunteers in a community; The tuition fee enrolled in different
universities; The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference. The number of
senators elected in the Philippines
True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. False
to ______. 1
10
election. Yes
1.: The statement is FALSE.; The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE; The statement is TRUE.; The
statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE The statement is TRUE.
An example of a parameter.: Standard Deviation; Sample; Random Sample; Standard deviation of the
distribution of the sample means; Mode; Median; Sampling Error; Standard Curve; Population Mean;
Statistics; Parameter; Distribution Error; Deviation Error; Mean; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Population Population Mean
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples
of: Discrete Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Discrete Random
Variable; Discrete Random Variables; None of the choices Continuous Random Variable
1. Given the data set below, compute for the variance. (Round off your answer to the nearest
hundredths):
A: 5.98
The degree of error expected for a given sample design
A: sampling error
This is defined by two values, between which a population parameter is said to lie.
A: interval estimate
Which of the following applies to Central Limit Theorem?

A: Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is greater than or
equal to 30.
These are numbers that summarizes data from a sample.

A: statistics
The average of the population.

A: mean
Confidence interval is associated by confidence level

A: true
In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the
A: population mean
Which of the following does describes a T distribution?

In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, which of the statement applies?
A: A sample size greater than or equal to 30
Margin of Error is computed as quotient of the standard deviation and the ____________ of the
sample size multiplied by the confidence coefficient.
A: square root
In a normal distribution curve, the total area of the curve is

A: 1
Number of rooms & employees are examples of _________________.

A: Discrete Random Variables
What is the formula to calculate the standard deviation of the sampling distribution?
A: Standard deviation of the population divided by the square root of the sample size
The formula to computer for the confidence interval is?
A:
The mean of sample should fall ________________ the lower and upper values of the confidence
interval.
A: within
Which of the following describes a T distribution?

As the confidence interval for a given statistics increases in length,

A:confidence level increases
T distribution is use to estimate population mean interval for:

A: Smaller samples
In a normal curve, z-score is ______________.

A: Always equal to zero.
Also known as Bell shaped curve.

A: normal curve
In a normal distribution, the tail of the curve __________ along the horizontal axis.
A: flatten
Formula to compute for the variance
A:
According to the Empirical Rule, ________ % of the sample estimates will fall within one standard
error above the population parameter.
The process of assigning a number to each member of the population

A: Random Sampling
Created ByKuyaPiolo
In badminton, the grip should be neither tight nor loose but firm and pliant, loosening as the swing
progresses.
Select one:
True
False
Badminton can be played in both singles and doubles.
Select one:
True
False
The ball used in table tennis is fragile but quite hard to break.
Select one:
True
False
Another name for a shuttlecock.
Select one:
a. bird
b. ball
c. cock
d. shutter
The net in badminton must be made of fine cord of light color and thickness with a mesh of not less
than 20mm.
Select one:
True
False
The ____ shot is used rarely but effectively. It is a and downward swing. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. drive
b. smash
c. serve
d. drop
The overall dimension of a badminton racket cannot exceed 26 3/4 inches in length, 9 inches in
width and 11 inches in head length.
Select one:
True
False
The official badminton court for a game of singles is:
Select one:
a. 40ft long x 22ft wide
b. 44ft long x 22ft wide
c. 44ft long x 17ft wide
d. 40ft long x 17ft wide
When the bird touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court, it is called ____.
Select one:
a. clear
b. fault
c. let
d. drop
This refers to the single layer of cellular rubber in the paddle of the table tennis racket located
underneath the rubber surface.
Select one:
a. padding
c. sponge
d. rubber
Which of the following is not a part of a badminton racket?
Select one:
a. stringed area
b. face
c. frame
d. head
e. throat
f. handle
In badminton, any stroke made on the side of the body opposite the racket side.
Select one:
a. Forehand
b. Backhand
c. Match
d. Drive
e. Clear
In badminton, this term refers to loss of service.
Select one:
a. let
b. hand-out
c. love
d. fault
Badminton was said to be similar to what game?
Select one:
a. tennis
b. table tennis
c. none of the choices
d. battledore
The grip wherein the forefinger and thumb reach over the shoulders of the blade, with the other
fingers spread over the back. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. western grip
b. handshake grip
c. penhold grip
d. eastern grip
In badminton, ___ is the stroke used to initiate play and used to begin each point in the match.
Select one:
a. smash
b. service
c. play
d. drive
This refers to the line running parallel to the net in the badminton court.
Select one:
a. short base line
b. short service line
c. long service line
d. base line
The variable length of feathers in a shuttlecock.
Select one:
a. 64mm to 70 mm
b. 65mm to 75mm
c. 58mm to 68mm
d. 25mm to 28mm
The shot in which the bird follows the net in a short flight. (badminton)
Select one:
a. Drop
b. Rally
c. Setting the Game
d. Fault
e. Net flight
A defensive stroke where the ball is struck with a downward and forward motion with a short
chopping motion. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. smash shot
b. push shot
c. top spin serve
d. chop stroke
e. drop shot
The ____ governs the promotion and development of badminton in the Philippines.
Select one:
a. Philippine Badminton Federation
b. Badminton Association of the Philippines
c. Association of Badminton in the Philippines
This refers to the flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side to side.
(badminton)
Select one:
a. Net shot
b. Smash
c. Drive
d. Overhand stroke
e. Drop shot
___ are used as defensive stroke in badminton to allow the player time to return to the ready position
and regroup and to move the opponent as far away from the net as possible.
Select one:
a. clears
b. backhands
c. hand-outs
d. faults
The two types of shuttlecocks are the feathered and the ___.
Select one:
a. synthetic
b. plastic
c. recreational
d. authentic
Which of the following is not considered a fault?
Select one:
a. If in play, shuttle lands nearly on boundary lines and fails to go past the net or touches the ceiling or
walls
b. If server misses the shuttlecock
c. If service is not correct
d. If a player misbehaves or repeated misconduct during the game
Table tennis has been included as an event in local athletic sport meets.
Select one:
True
False
Which Olympic host country was badminton presented as a demonstration sport?
Answer:
Singles serve and receive in the service court. (table tennis)
The ball resting on the palm of the free hand and toss it around six or more inches in height, letting it
bounce on the table side of the server before passing by the net and bounce in the receiver's side of
the table. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. push shot
b. drop shot
c. top spin serve
d. smash shot
e. chop stroke
How many points must a player get to win a badminton game?
Answer: 21
The net in badminton should be 720mm in depth and at least 6.1m wide.
Select one:
True
False
This refers to a good service but unable to hit or touch with the racket. (badminton)
Select one:
a. Clear
b. Fault
c. Drive
d. Ace
e. Bird
The ____ is small, celluloid, spherical, white or orange in color, 40mm in diameter and 2.5g in
weight.
Select one:
a. paddle
b. sponge
d. ball
In India, Badminton was known as ____.
Answer: Poona
Matches in table tennis can get up to what number?
Answer: 7
Color of boundary lines in badminton courts.
Answer: White or yellow
Reaching 40 points is also called . (tennis)

The tennis court for a singles game must be feet wide
At the event of a forehand stroke, the racket head must be at to point opposite the right hip. (tennis)
Major Walter Wingfield introduced the game Answer which the racket game originated from. (tennis)
In a doubles game of tennis, all players may have the chance to serve the ball.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
The backswing in the technique starts from the ready position, with the feet facing the net. The
player steps forward using the right foot and meet the ball early for the backhand execution. (tennis)
Tennis was used to be played by using the palm of the hand.

Select one:
True
False
Winning 3 out of 5 sets is considered a . (tennis)
Feet are turned in preparation for a backhand stroke. (tennis)

This refers to chasing how many points to play when the score becomes tied in 13-all or 14-all.
(badminton)
A: setting the game
In doubles, the receiving side may change depending on the serving team's score. (table tennis)
A: true
Badminton was said to be similar to what game?

A: battledore
The shot in which the bird follows the net in a short flight. (badminton)
A: net flight
___ are used as defensive stroke in badminton to allow the player time to return to the ready position
and regroup and to move the opponent as far away from the net as possible.
A: clears
Hungary and Czechoslovakia are some of the countries that dominated the table tennis international
competitions.
A: true
The official badminton court for a game of singles is:

A: 44ft long x 17ft wide
Table tennis originated on December 1890.

A: false
The ____ governs the promotion and development of badminton in the Philippines.
A: Badminton Association of the Philippines
The grip wherein the forefinger and thumb reach over the shoulders of the blade, with the other
fingers spread over the back. (table tennis)
A: penhold grip
than 20mm.
A: false
A defensive stroke where the ball is struck with a downward and forward motion with a short
chopping motion. (table tennis)
A: chop stroke
Scoring used in table tennis is called
A: love
The first player in badminton to reach ___ points wins a game.

A: 21
The ball is in play from the moment it is projected from the hand in service. (table tennis)
Which of the following statements is not true about table tennis?

A: A good stance in serving the ball is that the shoulder of the non-racket hand is parallel to the net
in the backhand position.
Singles serve and receive in the right service court
The Premier International Men's Team Thomas Cup was established in 1948. (badminton)
This refers to the single layer of cellular rubber in the paddle of the table tennis racket located
underneath the rubber surface.
A: sponge
How many, at the most, are the sets in one match? (table tennis)
A: 5
The meaning of IBF.

A: international badminton federation
The number of feathers fixed in the base of a shuttlecock.

A: 16
The ball is not in play anymore if it has been struck by either play at least once. (table tennis)
A: false
The variable length of feathers in a shuttlecock.

A: 64mm to 70 mm
The overall dimension of a badminton racket cannot exceed 26 3/4 inches in length, 9 inches in
width and 11 inches in head length.
A: false
This refers to the line running parallel to the net in the badminton court.
A: short service line
In badminton, the grip should be neither tight nor loose but firm and pliant, loosening as the swing
progresses.
A: false
In badminton, this term refers to loss of service.
A: hand-out
than 20mm.
A: false
The ____ is small, celluloid, spherical, white or orange in color, 40mm in diameter and 2.5g in
weight.
A: ball
stroke refers to the act of striking the ball with the racket. (tennis)
When the points reach 40-40, it is called a deuce
Occasionally move your body forward with a swing as it will direct the flight of the ball. (tennis)
A: false
Major Walter Wingfield introduced the game playing ball
A score that means zero. (tennis)

A: love
backhand stroke is used in baseline rallies. (tennis)
How many games are there in one set? (tennis)

A: 6
What does Paume mean?

A: palm
The game is won if one of the player gets four points. (tennis)
A: true
Winning 3 out of 5 sets is considered a winner
The most popular grip in tennis.

A: eastern grip
The length of the tennis court is 78 feet
backswing must be executed with an extended arm and firm wrist. (tennis)
eastern grip allows extremely wide reach and maximum power with minimum effort. (tennis)
Two points in tennis is equal to 30 points

technique, eastern forehand grip is used for the left hand (for right-handed players) and continental
grip for right hand (if the player is left-handed). (tennis
A: two-handed backhand
For the forehand stroke, the player may choose to reach for the incoming ball. (tennis)
A: false
The server's score is always first. (tennis)

A: true
Tennis was used to be played by using the palm of the hand.

A: true
The least practiced tennis stroke.

A: backhand stroke
One-handed backhand technique starts from the ready position, with the feet facing the net. The
player steps forward using the right foot and meet the ball early for the backhand execution. (tennis)
The most prestigious tennis tournament is the Wimbledon
refers to the move of hitting the ball in a high arc. (tennis

A: LOB
is seldom used because of the limited stroke production and awkward grip. (tennis)
A: western grip
The tennis court for a singles game must be

A: 27
in preparation for a backhand stroke. (tennis)

A: sideways
The base of the shuttlecock must be:

A: 25 to 28mm
in a western grip stroke. (tennis)

A: downward motion
Full extension of the arm and racket will minimize the line of the shot in a backhand stroke. (tennis)
A: false
In a doubles game, the tennis court is 36
In a doubles game, the players must maintain their

A: parallel
Where did badminton originate from an old and similar game?
A: india
This refers to the flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side to side.
(badminton)
A: drive
Correct ____ and footwork is needed in playing table tennis.

A: stance
____ is the basic offensive shot in badminton.

A: smash
than 20mm.
A: false
Table tennis has been included as an event in local athletic sport meets.
A: true
Table tennis can only be played indoors.

A: false
In badminton, any stroke made on the side of the body opposite the racket side.
A: backhand
These are shots struck on the side away from the racket (left side for the right-handed and right side
for the left-handed). (badminton)
A: backhand stroke
The post of the badminton net should be ___ meters in height.

A: 1.55
Table tennis is also known as ___.

A: ping pong
Correct gripping is the most vital factor in badminton and winning matches.
A: true
If the serving team commits a fault,

A: side-out
Double games are played up to

A: 21
Up to how many feathers does a standard shuttlecock have?
A: 16
The ____ grip is done by gripping the short handle of the racket very closely to the blade, wherein
the forefinger is positioned behind the blade for support. (table tennis)
A: handshake
When the bird touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court, it is called ____.
A: let
The ball used in table tennis is fragile but quite hard to break.
A: true
At a game where both players reach 40 points each, one player must win at least one point over the
other to win. (tennis)
A: false
In a doubles game of tennis, all players may have the chance to serve the ball.
A: true
Reaching 40 points is also called

A: match point
At the event of a forehand stroke, the racket head must be at

A: hip level back
requires a strong wrist to be effective. (tennis

A: continental forehand
The hands and racket is highly used in taking the racket back for a backhand stroke. (tennis)
A: true
power is generating from the speed and velocity of the forward and upward movements of arms,
legs and body. (tennis
A: forward swing
The tennis tournament in the USA is called the

A: US open
This refers to a good service but unable to hit or touch with the racket. (badminton)
A: ace
A serve made by a quick flip of wrist and bird travels in a direct line to the desired spot. (badminton)
A: drive serve
service is always from the right service court to the opponent's right service court. (table tennis
A: first
The badminton court is longer for a doubles game.

A: false
The badminton racket should be

A: 9
If the player served when the opponent is not ready, it is considered a

A: let
Which of the following describes the net of a table tennis table?

A: light in texture, stretched across the center of the table and attached to the outside by vertical
standards
In table tennis, both players change ends once one reaches 15 points.
A: false
Another name for a shuttlecock.

A: bird
The net in badminton should be 720mm in depth and at least 6.1m wide.
A: false
The tennis ball is

A: bright yellow
The receiver must return the serve on its

A: first
Players change ends after every even-numbered game. (tennis)

A: false
The ball resting on the palm of the free hand and toss it around six or more inches in height, letting it
bounce on the table side of the server before passing by the net and bounce in the receiver's side of
the table. (table tennis)
A: push shot
is delivered by projecting the ball from the free hand and the projection starts from above the playing
surface. (table tennis
A: service
When was the first Badminton association formed?

A: 1899
The ____ shot is used rarely but effectively. It is a vicious forward and downward swing. (table tennis)
A: smash
If the player's freehand touches the playing surface while in play, the point is awarded to the ____.
(table tennis)
A: opponent
shuttles are used for recreational badminton games

A: synthetic
A student of court tennis who introduced the game "Playing Ball"

A: Major walter wingfield
Players alternate in serving the ball every other game. (tennis)

A: true
Balls with worn-off fuzz become

A: very light
True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the
underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is
considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals In executing forehand
strokes, the left foot and left shoulder should approximately towards the table. (badminton)
A: False - Backhand
A player scores 21 points. (table tennis)

A: set
underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals At score 20-
20 or "deuce," the player changes after every serve. (badminton)
A: True
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A game of
badminton is won by the player who first scores 21 points.
A: True
A player won 2 out of 3 sets. (table tennis)

A: match
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The
International Table Tennis Federation was established in 1936.
A: False - 1926
An entire play from service until ball is dead. (tennis)

A: rally
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The table
tennis ball is made of celluloid and is white in color.
A: True
An illegal action wherein the player hits the ball before it bounces. (table tennis)
A: volley
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The
linesman announces the score of the players. (badminton)
A: False - umpire
The stroke used in returning a high shot and in which arm and shoulder are fully extended.
(badminton)
A: overhand stroke
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Reaching
over the net to hit a bird is a fault. (badminton)
A: true
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The ball
should bounce first on the server's court after service. (table tennis)
A: true
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals All shots are
played with the body at right angle to the net. (tennis)
A: true
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A single
game is played by two players in each court.
A: False - one
The act of striking the ball with a racket. (tennis)

A: stroke
The stroke used in returning the bird from the left side of the body. (badminton)
A: backhand stroke
A hard horizontal stroke that is straight and close to the net. (badminton)
A: drive
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals In the next
game of table tennis, the winning player of the first game may choose to serve first.
A: True
A rally which is not scored and being replayed. (tennis)
A: let
The measurement of the playing table of table tennis.

A: 2.74 m x 1.52 cm
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Badminton
was first organized in India.
A: true
An attacking shot made with all the power and speed one can put into it. (badminton)
A: smash
The stroke used in returning the bird from right side of the body. (badminton)
A: forehand stroke
A good serve that the opponent is unable to hit or touch with his racket. (badminton)
A: ace
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The penhold
grip is executed by grasping the racket as if to shake hands with it. (table tennis)
A: False - eastern/ handshake/ shakehand/ shakehands/ true (wrong)
Any infraction of the rules resulting in loss of the serve or the point. (table tennis)
A: fault
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals An outer
bird is light in weight and is a sphere of cork covered with white hide. (badminton)
A: False - shuttlecock
What move is illustrated in the picture?

A: backhand
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A table
tennis game is started with a toss of a coin.
A: True
9/10
A low shot close to the net made from back court that fails or drops sharply immediately after
crossing net. (badminton)
A: drop
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The British
introduced badminton to our country.
A: False - Badminton Association of the Philippines/ true (wrong)
A: backhand
A bird which touches top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court. (badminton)
A: let
A ball bouncing near the net.

A: short
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A player
gains a point if he fails to make a good return.
A: false - loses
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals At the start
of a new game, the player who serves first in the previous game becomes the receiver. (table tennis)
A: true
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A match
shall consist of the best of five out of five games. (badminton)
A: False - three
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A drive
serve is made by a quick flip of wrist and bird travels in a direct line to the desired spot. (badminton)
A: true
What grip is illustrated in the picture?
A: western grip
9/10

A: two-handed backhand
To put the bird in play. (badminton)

A: serve
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A player is
allowed to touch the table while playing. (table tennis)
A: False - not allowed
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The server
serves the ball with open palm. (table tennis)
A: true
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Half volley is
a main offensive stroke. (table tennis)
A: false - defensive
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Table tennis
is also known as pingpong.
A: true
spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Change of
service takes place after either player reaches 8 points throughout the game. (table tennis)
A: true
Hitting the ball in a high arc.

A: lob
refers to the point won by a server in tennis.

A: Advantage
The height of the net in the playing surface from the floor. (table tennis)
A: 76 cm
RESEARCH 110
(COMPILED BY EZRA)
1 Requires the interviewers have telephone
False
2 It is the most common measure of central tendency
Arithmetic Mean
3 Identify the mode on the following set of numbers 400 708 504 802 400
400
4 What kind of sampling if your sample is Professor I from the Universities in the region IV A?
Stratified Sampling
5 It is neither the subject nor the experimenter knows whether the subject is in the treatment of the
control condition
Double Blind
6 213 and 314
101
7 A researcher will represent and manipulate certain observations that they are studying
True
8. Identify the mode on the following set of numbers 165 765 545 165 415
165
9.This reliability the consistency of results across items, often measures with Cronbach's Alpha
Internal Consistency
10 one of the general guideline in reporting and writing the data analysis and interpretation is the
subtitles of section are based on the questions in the statement of the problem, stated in declarative
form, single space bond
True
11. In order to have a random selection method of sampling that utilizes some form of random selection
True
12. It means that a tool measures what it sets out to measure for example, that a pain assessment tool
measures pain intensity rather than anxiety
Measurement Validity
13. 211 and 219
14. What kind of sampling if your list was the phone book, it would be easiest to start at perhaps the 8th
person, and then select every 150th person from that point on?
Systematic Planning
15. 2 and 12
10
16. Solve the mean of the following set of give numbers. Type your answer in the space provided 16 78
54 82 40
54
17. Identify the mode of the following set of numbers 100 700 500 800 100
100
18. What kind of sampling if your list was the phone book, it would be easiest to start perhaps the 17th
person, and then select every 50th person from that point on
Systematic Planning
19. What is the median of the following set of numbers 12 13 14 15 16

14
20. Solve the mean of the following set of give answers. Type your answer in the space provided 12 79
59 87 43
56
21. You want to know the Number of Students in San Jose NHS
Survey research
22. Saves time involved in processing the data
True
23. The power of a test is the probability of finding significance if the alternative hypothesis is true
True
24. In this scale are the ultimate nirvana when it comes to measurement scales because tell us about the
order, they tell us the exact value between units
Ration Scale
25. This reliability the reliability of two tests constructed the same way, from the same content
Parallel-Forms Reliability
26.A score on a well-constructed test is believed to reflect a psychological construct such as

achievement in a school subject, cognitive ability, aptitude, emotional functioning, personality, etc.
True
27. Recommendations are not based on important results and conclusions

False
28. This is the population in research to which the researchers can apply their conclusions
Accessible population
29. The specific questions should follow the order they are given under the statement of the problem
True
30. IN THIS SCALE it is the order of the values is what is important and significant but the differences
between each one is not really known
Ordinal scale
31. Solve the mean of the following set of give numbers. 15 75 55 85 45
55
32. One of the general guideline in reporting and writing the data analysis and the interpretation is an
introductory paragraph is provided at the start of the chapter
True
33. It is the mid point of a distribution
Median
34. It refers to an ANOVA using two independent variable
TWO-WAY ANOVA
35. You want to know who is better in learning section 1 or section 2

Survey research
36. In this scale it is used numeric scale in which we know noit only the order but also the exact
differences between the values
Interval scale
37. The consistency of results across items often measures wit Cronbach's Alpha
True
38. What kind of sampling if your sample is every 21st of the participants from the 1800 participants in
the training seminar
Systematic sampling
39. Solve the mean 106,708,504,802,400
504
40. 15 and 35
20
41. What kind of sampling if your sample is religious affliction from each of the 50 states
Stratified sampling
42. What king of sampling if your strata where individual school in the division of antipolo you would
randomly select perhaps 20 schools and test all of the students within those schools
Cluster sampling
43. This research may include case studies, ethnographic studies, ethological studies whose primary
characteristics is being observed or recorded
Observational research
44. This is the group that receives the experimental treatment manipulation or is different form the
control group on the variable under study
Experimental or treatment group
45. One of the general guideline in reporting and writing the data analysis and the interpretation is the
tables and figures should be in continuous numbering. It should be presented the first before discussion
enclose tables with double line on top should be used, graphs should be colored
True
46. It is true experiments but use naturally formed or pre existing groups
Quasi-experiment
47. It is a subject that has an equal probability of being selected for either the treatment or control
group
Random assignment
48. Correlational research involves comparative in this research the study of two or more groups is done
without focusing on the relationship
False
49. What kind of sampling if your sample is doctorate degree holder form the 20 divisions in the NCR
Stratified sampling
50. You want to explore who is dominant graduate of BSED or BEED

survey research
51. what kind of sampling you were going to use if your sample is every 20th child in the 1000 children in
a single row
systematic sampling
52. you want to know who is better section Narra or section Santol
survey research
53. casual comparative research is the bed rock of most sciences most specifically natural sciences
true
54. saves the interviewer from carrying around hundreds of questionnaires
true
55. a descriptive study establishes only associations between variables an experimental study
establishes casualty
true
56. tables and figures should not be im continuous numbering it should be presented first before
discussion enclose tables with double line on top should be used graphs should be colored
false
57. this reliability the degree toi which different raters/ observers give consistent answers of estimates
inter-rater/ observer reliability
58. it is more structured method than in qualitative research compare to quantitative research
interview method
RSCH G11
-Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research?
Select one: a. Misconduct in research b. Informed consent c. Falsification of data bank d. Conflicts of
interest
-True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study.
Answer: False
-What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher?
b. Research Adventure
-What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research?
Select one: a. Individuals should be treated as autonomous agents. b. Persons with diminished
autonomy (e.g., prisoners, students, children, etc) should not be coerced to participate in a research. c.
Investigators should mind the reduction of risk that might occur from the research. d. Investigator
should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
-A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to
present such information when
Select one: a. They feel the information is unnecessary to the individual b. They have obtained a
certificate of confidentiality c. It is a case involving required reporting d. The research paper is not
published yet.
-What is scientific method?
Select one: a. Validating the results b. Systematic process c. Good research d. Making research
instruments
-Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process.
-Which of the following is not included in the research experience?
Select one: a. Identity of the researcher b. Biography of the researcher c. Social class of the researcher d.
Emotions of the researcher
-Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher…
Select one: a. His/her name and identifying characteristics b. Confidential material c. Confidential
material and identifying characteristics d. His/her name e. Identifying characteristics f. His/her name and
confidential material
-Research is
Select one: a. Reorganizing, or restating, reviewing common findings b. Analyzing and interpreting new
information c. Collecting existing information d. Modifying established knowledge
-Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it
is an incorrect description. It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.).
Select one: True False
is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of
the research problem.

-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: The Specific Genetic Code
of the Fruit Fly
Answer: PURE
is an incorrect description. It is biased in terminology or position.
Select one: False
-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons,
Neutrons and Electrons
Answer: PURE
is an incorrect description. Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how
the findings will present this information.
is an incorrect description. It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables.
-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Applying the algorithm for
detecting individual trees from Drone Images
Answer: APPLIED
is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research.

-The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the
following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet?
Select one: a. The number of "hits" for the site b. The honesty of the reported information c. The
authenticity of the information d. The lack of bias
-What should a review of the literature enable an investigator to do?
Select one: a. Provide the insights necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits. b.
Ascertain what is already known about a topic. c. None of the choices d. Identify methodological
strategies for designing the study. e. All of the choices
-What is the context of "literature" in a research project?
Select one: a. Any highly regarded novel b. Any paper source c. Any written material d. Published
accounts of researchers
-Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Food blog
Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static
-Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Pollan,
Michael. 2006. The Omnivore's Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin.
Answer: APA
-Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using:
Select one: a. Long sentences b. Key word searches c. Short sentences d. Key letter searches
-Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Braveheart (starred and produced by
Mel Gibson)
Select one: a. Dynamic b. Static c. Syndicated

-Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review?
Select one: a. It shows why research questions are important. b. It explains the method necessary for
the gathering of data. c. It helps researchers to build up an argument. d. It has everything a researcher
needs to read about his/her research
-What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers?
Select one: a. APA and CMS b. APA c. CMS d. MLA e. CMS and MLA f. All of the choices g. APA and MLA
-Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Spolarium by Juan Luna
-In a study of birth planning in China reenhalgh in Ryan and ernard 00 surveyed 1011 evermarried
women gathered social and economic histories from 10 families. he conducted indepth interviews with
present and formal officials known as cadres and collected documentary evidence from local
newspapers ournals and other sources. reenhalgh notes that ecause I was largely constrained from
asking direct uestions aout resistance the informal record of field notes interview transcripts and
uestionnaire data contains few overt challenges to state policy. reenhalgh concludes however that their
conversations with the researchers oth peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest
aspects of the policy they did not like. adres for eample were loathe to comment on irthplanning
campaigns peasant women were reluctant to talk aout steriliation. hese silences form one part of the
unofficial record of irth planning in the villages. More eplicit protests were registered in informal
conversations. rom these interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to
choose etween a resistance that was politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of hinese
culture and of practical reason.
Answer: searching for missing information
-Artwork of the child participants
Select one: a. Pictures . Word Tales and Lists c. Graphics
-Answer 1,2,3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said.
"How does your family view your situation?"
Answer: 4
-Identify the technique used to discover the thees in the data below.
Naomi Quinn (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) has analyzed hundreds of hours of interviews to discover
concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. he egan y
looking at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases paying particular attention
to informants use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about marriage. an one of her
informants says that marriage is a manufactured product. his popular metaphor indicates that an sees
marriages as something that has properties like strength and staying power and as something that
reuires work to produce. ome marriages are put together well while others fall apart like so many cars
or toys or washing machines.
Answer: Metaphors and analogies
Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in supopulations of interest to the study such as
profession social status socioeconomic class religion or ethnicity
Select one: a. Human traffic b. verbal behavior and interactions c. Physical behavior and gestures d.
Appearance e. Personal space f. People who stand out
What do you think about the two presidential candidates?
Answer: OPEN
Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned.
Select one: a. Transitions . Unarked tets c. Indigenous categor d. ord repetitions e. awing f. Metaphors
and analogies g. opare and contrast h. utting and Sorting i. e words in contet I . j. Searching for missing
information k. onnectors l. Social science queries
What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now
Answer: 5
-The idea that themes represent the ways in which tets are either similar or different from each other.
Select one: a. Unarked tets . Searching for issing inforation c. onnectors d. Indigenous categor e. awing f.
Social science queries g. compare and contrast h. Metaphors and analogies i. ord repetitions . e words in
contet I k. utting and Sorting l. Transitions
-Barkin et al. (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) interviewed clinicians community leaders and parents aout
what physicians could and did do to prevent violence among youth. hese were long comple interviews
so arkin et al. roke the coding process into two steps. hey started with three maor themes that they
developed from theory. he principle investigator went through the transcripts and cut out all the uotes
that pertained to each of the maor themes. hen four other coders independently sorted the uotes from
each maor theme into piles. hen the pile sort data were analyed with multidimensional scaling and
cluster analysis to identify suthemes shared across coders.
Answer: cutting and sorting
Answer: His/her name and identifying characteristics
-The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught
how to do it.
Answer: False
-Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
Answer: Identification of problem
Answer: False
-What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research
deadlines?
Answer: Emotions
Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information about a large
number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily?
Answer: Naturalistic observation
-Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less. -False
-Informed consent requires that individuals…
Answer: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research
Answer: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
-What is a research instrument?
Answer: a tool for data collection
-A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal
statement is called
Answer: inductive method
-It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it
explores and analyzes people's values and perspective through observation.
-What is an ethical dilemma?
Answer: conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct

Answer: Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants
-Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis?
Answer: pertinent question
-Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher?
Answer: fabricator of data
-Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge
and experience. "In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or
understand. " -Neil Armstrong
Answer: Research is an investigation of the unknown.
-True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting.
Answer: true
Answer: Falsification of data bank
-Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is
incorrect. The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial,
material, social, meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects.
Answer: true
Answer: False
-Which of the following is a good research question?
Answer: How do teenagers view the word "forever"?
Answer: PURE
-Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write ELIMITATI if it is
a restriction of the research. The study is focused on the possible implementation of online ea in the
university.
Answer: SCOPE
-The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to
Answer: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem.
-What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the
researchers interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contents fro which the data are obtained
Answer: Importance of context
-It clearly states the constructs to be examined.
Answer: True
-Reliability of survey questions was not established.
Answer: DELIMITATION
-In the title "The chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost
College in Bangued, Abra", who could e the possible beneficiaries of the research
Answer: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers
-What should e considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem?
Answer: Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers.
-The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs.
-It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation.
Answer: True
-Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results.
-Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in
Answer: Significance of the study
-How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research?
Answer: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.
-What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research?
Answer: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we
lead.
-It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables
Answer: True
-Which of the following titles is best for applied research?
Answer: The effectiveness of abstinence programs
-What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research?
Answer: The participants and the researcher share the "research space".
-What is the scope of the research?
Answer: Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
respondents, and time.
-The researcher invented the results of the study.
Answer: Fabrication
-Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society
we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something
but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always
there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite
well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have
so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I
think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the
answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something
should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the
government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich
(2013)
The government is the only one who can help the homeless
Answer: False
Answer: The authenticity of the information
Answer: Published accounts of researchers
-The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from
http://www.xroads.com/~tcs/hotdog/hotdog.html
Answer: APA
(2013)
The homeless are stereotyping their social conditions to beg for money.
Answer: False
-Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and
1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of
psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who
practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications.
They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and
inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body
instead of on the patient's mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them
continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a "thankless job."
Answer: 8 nurses
-A director didn't cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest.
Answer: Plagiarism
-What information is required for the APA in-text citation?
Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster,
c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index
Answer: McCullough, 2001
-What organization principle is used to explain historical changes or perspectives?
Answer: Chronology
-Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the
correct answer: She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time.
Answer: Falsification
-Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer:
Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one
hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to
identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in
semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their
opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS.
Answer: staff of one hospice and one nursing home

-Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following
statements. Write TRUE for agree and FALSE for disagree.
Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a
modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to
do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town.
They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in
fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for
help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I
don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say
- it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to
think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything
personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel
uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013)
Many people are still unconditionally helping the homeless.
Answer: True
-Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Google.
"Google Privacy Policy." Last modified March 11, 2009.
http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html
Answer: MLA
-What type of source is the newspaper clipping?
Answer: Syndicated
-What citation style was used in this source? Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition.
New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print.
Answer: MLA
Adler (2003) examined the relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores. Additionally,
the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT
verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in suburban Maryland.
It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of foreign language study
has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a
significant difference in SAT Verbal averages among the students of three different foreign languages.
French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students
Answer: female senior students
-Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature?
Answer: Introduction
-A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point.
How can he pull them all together and use them in his own paper in a list?
Answer: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
-Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing
of the related literature?
Answer: Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters
-Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said.
"What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now?"
Answer: 5
-The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have
indicated that change is necessary.
Answer: True
-Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best
answer.
How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals' behaviors
indicate about their feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession.
Answer: Physical behavior and gestures
answer.
Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers; dynamics of interaction
Answer: Verbal behavior and interactions
-Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even
for impossible.
Answer: False
"This research is conducted to investigate the life experiences of people who survived cancer and now
living cancer free for more than 5 years."
Answer: 2
-Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the
correct answer.
Summary of research findings
Answer: Word Tables and Lists
-Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer.
The club president tendered his resignation and said, "While I may no longer lead this organization, I will
continue to support its endeavors and activities."
Answer: He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
correct answer.
Area plan of a research field
Answer: Graphics
"Thank you for finding time to be in this interview. Your story is very inspiring."
Answer: 6
-Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description:
The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each other.
Answer: Compare and contrast
-Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING.
Do you think he is gay?
Answer: LEADING
-Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings - simple answer the research questions, and
draw the conclusion.
Answer: true

Interviews searching for what people do in managing impersonal social relationships, methods by which
people acquire and maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how people solve
problems.
Answer: Social science queries
The coordinator made an announcement, "Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today. The
others would have to come back tomorrow."
Answer: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
answer.
Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether they
are alone or accompanied; number of people
Answer: Human traffic
Since you wish to pursue your graduate studies, what course will you enroll?
Answer: MAPPING
In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can
read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage,
and a text, we need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006).
Answer: We should use given information in inferring ideas.
correct answer.
The list of research participants
Mateo almost wished that he hadn't listened to the radio. He went to the closet and grabbed his
umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning.
Answer: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
-What is a research design?
Answer: all of the choices
-What is bibliography?
Answer: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly
contained in the report.
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Children of wealthy parents
in the education system
Answer: Grounded Theory
-Which of the following is the correct notion about observation?
Answer: A key data gathering method in social sciences
-Which of the following is not a type of narrative research?
Answer: Case study
-What is the final stage of analyzing data?
Answer: Presenting the data in tabular form

-Which of the following is NOT the function of references?
Answer: To ensure sufficiently long reference list
-A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this?
Answer: Qualitative
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A personal journey with
grounded theory methodology
-Which of the following titles is a narrative research?
Answer: The Life and Works of Rizal
-How does verification of data happen?
Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are
realistic, supportable, and valid.
-When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important?
Answer: The layout of the site
-A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different
times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he
use?
Answer: Observation
-Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability?
Answer: All of the choices

-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Solving word problems of
preschoolers through illustrations
Answer: Action Research
-__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address
topics introduced by a group moderator?
Answer: Focus group discussion
-The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the
research design applied?
Answer: Ethnographic
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A Qualitative Study of
Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children
Answer: Ethnographic Research
-What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis?
Answer: To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study
-Which statement is true in writing research recommendations?
Answer: Recommendations should be logical and valid.
-What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation?
Answer: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC)
-What type of source are documentary films?

Answer: Static
-What influences the choice of the research design?
-Which of the following belongs to related literature?
Answer: textbook
-Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies?
Answer: Reviewed materials must be many.
-Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________.
Answer: The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed.
-What is common in data collection among qualitative researches?
Answer: Language based
-Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations?
Answer: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
-In participant observation, what information can be observed?
-Which of the following is the correct order in writing the research paper?
Answer: Introduction, method, results, discussion and references

-Which of the following method is used in qualitative research?
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Lived experiences of adult
caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers
Answer: Phenomenological Research
-Which of the following citation used the APA format?
Answer: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English Grammar & Composition Part 1. Manila: CKC Publication
-Which of the following do you need to consider in designing a research?
Answer: Focus on your research questions.
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A historical and comparative
note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded theorizing
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: The lived experience of being
a sole mother in the Philippines
-Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships?
Answer: Rather than
-A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative data
collection was used?
Answer: Interview
-The entire research project is an exercise in
-Which citation style is usually used in social science researches?
Answer: APA format
-Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion?
-What are research data?
-Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies?
Answer: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
-What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews?
Answer: Mapping questions
-What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project?
Answer: Lying by fabrication
-What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research?

Answer: Memoing, verification and credibility
-Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action
that was taken?
Answer: Action research
-What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the
production of "objective" accounts of the content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the development
of codes and categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of analysis.
Answer: Enumerative approach
-What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study?
Answer: Conclusion
-Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview?
Answer: Establish an initial rapport
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This is a method in writing the bibliography in the copyright date that it will written only author's name.
Select one:
d. APA System
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Classify the following material: Unpublished Theses
Select one:
d. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
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Classify the following material: Professional journals
Select one:
a. Both of these
b. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
c. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
d. None of these
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Which of the following is not the features in characteristics of a research.?
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c. Using marginalized in the society
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Which of the following is not the function of the related literature?
Select one:
c. It helps you to disregard your research findings into the existing body of knowledge.
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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that after providing your
readers with some background, use essay introduction to outline what you are going to discuss.
Select one:
c. Lay it on 'em
Question 7
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Classify the following material: School document
Select one:
a. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Abarquez, O.L
Select one:
a. APA System
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This is the basic tips in keeping mind in writing the title that the primary function of a title is to provide a
precise summary of the paper's content.
Select one:
a. Keep it simple, brief and attractive

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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Dela Gracia, Jonel T.
Select one:
a. MLA System
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Which of the following is not the a good research title?
Select one:
a. Create a research with lengthy pages
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This is the basic tips in keeping mind in writing the title that the good research title should contain key
words used in the manuscript and should define the nature of the study.
Select one:
c. Keep it simple, brief and attractive
Question 13
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Raymond, B.N
Select one:
d. APA System
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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that a thesis statement or
research paper is the main point of your paper; it is narrow, focused, and specific.
Select one:
c. What's your point?
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This is a process wherein you need to have different skills like planning, organizing and the like in order
to come up good research.
Select one:
a. Research process
Question 16
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: San Joseph, K.L.
Select one:
a. APA System
Question 17
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This is by means of statistics that involve collection and study of numerical data.
Select one:
d. Quantitative Research
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This is the basic tips in keeping mind in writing the title that the other lesser-known or specific
abbreviations and jargon that would not be immediately familiar to the readers should be left out.
Select one:
c. Avoids abbreviations and j argon
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Which of the following that the literature review can help in many ways in relation to the study?
Select one:
d. Contextualized the recommendations
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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that if you really want to draw
readers in, you have to start your introduction with something attention grabbing.
Select one:
c. Start with a bang

Question 21
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This is a method in writing the bibliography in the title of the reading material wherein it will underlined
or italicized title with all content words capitalized
Select one:
a. MLA System
Question 22
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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that you must provide your
readers with a little background or basic information about the topic you are covering.
Select one:
c. Be general before you're specific
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Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that research entails both reading and
writing?
Select one:
d. A Seed to love reading, writing analyzing and sharing valuable information
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Classify the following material: Government Libraries
Select one:
d. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
Question 25
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Classify the following material: Private Offices
Select one:
Question 26
Complete

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This research used a scale, range and verbal interpretation in conducting the research.
Select one:
c. Descriptive Research
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Classify the following material: Reports from seminar
Select one:
Question 28
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Belchez, Romana F.
Select one:
a. MLA System
Question 29
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Classify the following material: Books
Select one:
Question 30
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This is a word that is a well-substantiated explanation of some aspects of the natural word, based on a
body of facts that have been repeatedly confirmed through observation and experiment.
Select one:
c. Theory
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This is the base word of the variable.
Select one:
a. Vary
Question 32
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Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that research is required not just for
students but for all professionals?
Select one:
a. A tool for building knowledge and efficient learning
Question 33
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This is a method in writing the bibliography in the title of the reading material wherein it will italicized
title with only the beginning word capitalized.
Select one:
a. APA System
Question 34
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Classify the following material: Encyclopedias
Select one:
Question 35
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Why experimental research is considered to be true experimental?
Select one:
a. Because uses valid results
Question 36
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This is the tips in writing the significance of the study that by looking into the general contribution of
your study.
Select one:
d. Write from general to specific
Question 37
Complete

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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that there is no rule for exactly
how long an introduction should be you must consider your length of paper.
Select one:
a. What's your point?
Question 38
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Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that research has a vital role in business?
Select one:
a. An aid to business success and job search
Question 39
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Classify the following material: National Library
Select one:
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Which of the following you need to keep in mind in choosing your own topic that make sure you select a
subject that you can develop with sufficient details?
Select one:
c. Choose a topic on which you can find material
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Classify the following material: Newspaper
Select one:
Question 42
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Classify the following material: Periodicals
Select one:
a. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies

Question 43
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Classify the following material: 80. Museum
Select one:
c. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
Question 44
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This is a method in writing the bibliography in the copyright date that it will written after the publisher's
name.
Select one:
d. MLA System
Question 45
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Classify the following material: Private Libraries

Select one:
Question 46
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Classify the following material: Magazines
Select one:
Question 47
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Classify the following material: Almanacs
Select one:
b. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
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This is kind of quantitative research that the best example is true experimental research.
Select one:
b. Experimental Research
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Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that television shows and movies ooze
with research - both on the part of the writers and the actors?
Select one:
b. Means to understand various issues
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Dimaano, Richard B.
Select one:
c. MLA System
Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research?
Select one:
c. Falsification of data bank
True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study.
Answer: False
What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher?
Select one:
What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research?
Select one:
d. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to
Select one:
b. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
What is scientific method?
Select one:
b. Systematic process
Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process.

Which of the following is not included in the research experience?
Select one:
c. Social class of the researcher
Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher…
Select one:
a. His/her name and identifying characteristics
Research is
Select one:
b. Analyzing and interpreting new information
It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.).
Select one:
False
The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem.
Select one:
True
It addresses indirectly some real problem in the world.
Select one:
True
The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly

Answer: PURE
It is biased in terminology or position.
Select one:
False
Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research:
Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons
Answer: PURE
Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present this
information.
Select one:
True
It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables.
Select one:
True
Applying the algorithm for detecting individual trees from Drone Images
Answer: APPLIED
It has the potential to suggest directions for past research.
Select one:
False
The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the
Select one:
c. The authenticity of the information
What should a review of the literature enable an investigator to do?
Select one:
a. Provide the insights necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits.
What is the context of "literature" in a research project?
Select one:
d. Published accounts of researchers
Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter:
Food blog
Select one:
a. Syndicated
Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA:
Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore's Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin.
Answer: APA
Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using:
Select one:
b. Key word searches

Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson)
Select one:
b. Static
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review?
Select one:
b. It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data.
What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers?
Select one:
g. APA and MLA
Spolarium by Juan Luna
Select one:
c. Static
Identify the technique used to discover the themes in the data below.
In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011 ever-
married women, gathered social and economic histories from 150 families. She conducted in-depth
interviews with
present and formal officials (known as cadres), and collected documentary evidence from local
newspapers, journals and other sources. Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was largely constrained from
asking direct
questions about resistance, the informal record of field notes, interview transcripts, and questionnaire
data contains few overt challenges to state policy." Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their
conversations with
the researchers, both peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy
they did not like. Cadres, for example were loathe to comment on birth-planning campaigns; peasant
women
were reluctant to talk about sterilization. These silences form one part of the unofficial record of birth
planning in the villages. More explicit protests were registered in informal conversations. From these
interactions
emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance that was
politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of Chinese culture and of practical reason.
Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the
correct answer.
Artwork of the child participants
Select one:
a. Pictures
Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said.
Answer: 4
concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. She began
by looking
at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases, paying particular attention to
informants' use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about marriage. Nan, one of her
informants,
says that "marriage is a manufactured product." This popular metaphor indicates that Nan sees
marriages as something that has properties, like strength and staying power, and as something that
requires work to
produce. Some marriages are "put together well," while others "fall apart" like so many cars or toys or
washing machines.
Answer: metaphors and analogies
Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best
answer.
Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in sub-populations of interest to the study, such
as profession, social status, socioeconomic class, religion, or ethnicity
Select one:
d. Appearance
Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING.
Answer: OPEN
Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description:
Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned.
Select one:
j. Searching for missing information
Answer: 5

Select one:
g. Compare and contrast
Barkin et al. (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) interviewed clinicians, community leaders, and parents about
what physicians could and did do to prevent violence among youth. These were long, complex
interviews, so
Barkin et al. broke the coding process into two steps. They started with three major themes that they
developed from theory. The principle investigator went through the transcripts and cut out all the
quotes that
pertained to each of the major themes. Then four other coders independently sorted the quotes from
each major theme into piles. Then, the pile sort data were analyzed with multidimensional scaling and
cluster
analysis to identify subthemes shared across coders.
What is a research design?
Select one:
b. all of the choices
What is bibliography?
Select one:
c. A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in
the report.
Choose the best research design approach for the following research title:
Children of wealthy parents in the education system

Select one:
b. Grounded Theory
Which of the following is the correct notion about observation?
Select one:
d. A key data gathering method in social sciences.
Which of the following is not a type of narrative research?
Select one:
c. Case study
What is the final stage of analyzing data?
Select one:
d. Presenting the data in tabular form
Which of the following is NOT the function of references?
Select one:
c. To ensure sufficiently long reference list
A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this?
Select one:
d. Qualitative
A personal journey with grounded theory methodology

Select one:
c. Grounded Theory
Which of the following titles is a narrative research?
Select one:
c. The Life and Works of Rizal
How does verification of data happen?
Select one:
b. Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid.
When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important?
Select one:
b. The layout of the site
A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different
use?
Select one:
a. Observation
Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability?
Select one:
Solving word problems of preschoolers through illustrations
Select one:
a. Action Research
__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address
Select one:
c. Focus group discussion
The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the
Select one:
b. Ethnographic
A Qualitative Study of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children
Select one:
d. Ethnographic Research
What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis?
Select one:
d. To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study
Which statement is true in writing research recommendations?
Select one:
b. Recommendations should be logical and valid.

What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation?
Select one:
d. Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC)
What type of source are documentary films?
Select one:
a. Static
What influences the choice of the research design?
Select one:
Which of the following belongs to related literature?
Select one:
b. textbook
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies?
Select one:
c. Reviewed materials must be many.
Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________.
Select one:
a. The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed.
What is common in data collection among qualitative researches?
Select one:
a. Language based
Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations?
Select one:
b. Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
In participant observation, what information can be observed?
Select one:
Which of the following is the correct order in writing the research paper?
Select one:
d. Introduction, method, results, discussion and references
Which of the following method is used in qualitative research?
Select one:
d. Focus group discussion
Lived experiences of adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers
Select one:
d. Phenomenological Research
Which of the following citation used the APA format?
Select one:
b. Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English Grammar & Composition Part 1. Manila: CKC Publication
Which of the following do you need to consider in designing a research?
Select one:
d. Focus on your research questions.
A historical and comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded
theorizing
Select one:
d. Ethnographic Research
The lived experience of being a sole mother in the Philippines
Select one:
a. Phenomenological Research
Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships?
Select one:
b. Rather than
A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative data
Select one:
a. Interview
The entire research project is an exercise in
Select one:
Which citation style is usually used in social science researches?
Select one:
b. APA format
Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion?
Select one:
What are research data?
Select one:
Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies?
Select one:
d. Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews?
Select one:
c. Mapping questions
What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project?
Select one:
c. Lying by fabrication
What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research?
Select one:
b. Memoing, verification and credibility
Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action
that was taken?
Select one:
d. Action research
What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the
of codes and
categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of analysis.
Select one:
d. Enumerative approach
What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study?
Select one:
b. Conclusion
Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview?
Select one:
c. Establish an initial rapport

Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is
incorrect.
The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught
how to do it.
Select one:
False
Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
Select one:
b. Identification of problem
Answer: False
What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research
deadlines?
Select one:
a. Emotions
Select one:
d. Naturalistic observation
incorrect.
Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less.
Select one:
False
Informed consent requires that individuals…
Select one:
b. Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research
Select one:
a. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
What is a research instrument?
Select one:
d. a tool for data collection
A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement
is called
Select one:
d. inductive method
1.It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
Select one:
c. Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's
values and perspective through observation.
What is an ethical dilemma?
Select one:
a. conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct
Select one:
b. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis?
Select one:
b. pertinent question
Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher?
Select one:
b. fabricator of data
Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge
and experience.
"In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. " -Neil
Armstrong
Select one:
d. Research is an investigation of the unknown.
True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting.
Answer: True
Select one:
d. Falsification of data bank
incorrect.
The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material, social,
meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects.
Select one:
True
Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it
is an incorrect description.
Select one:
False
Which of the following is a good research question?
Select one:
a. How do teenagers view the word "forever"?
Answer: PURE
Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if
it is a restriction of the research.
The study is focused on the possible implementation of online exam in the university.
Answer: SCOPE
The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to
Select one:
a. People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem.
What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the
researcher's interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained.
Select one:
b. Importance of context
It clearly states the constructs to be examined.
Select one:
True
Reliability of survey questions was not established.
In the title "The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost
College in Bangued, Abra", who could be the possible beneficiaries of the research?
Select one:
c. Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers

What should be considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem?
Select one:.
c. Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers.
The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs.
It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation.
Select one:
True
Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results.
Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in
Select one:
c. Significance of the study
How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research?
Select one:
b. The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.

What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research?
Select one:
b. A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead.
Select one:
True
Which of the following titles is best for applied research?
Select one:
c. The effectiveness of abstinence programs
What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research?
Select one:
a. The participants and the researcher share the "research space".
What is the scope of the research?
Select one:
d. Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the
correct answer:
The researcher invented the results of the study.

Select one:
a. Fabrication
b. Plagiarism
c. Falsification
The correct answer is: Fabrication
Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following
Interview Segment
Q: What are your views on homelessness?
A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know
though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly
reminded of the
problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really
need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't
ignore
requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the
streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off
the hook. So
really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel
that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has
come for the
government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do.
Source: Grbich (2013)
The government is the only one who can help the homeless.
Answer: False

Select one:
a. The authenticity of the information
b. The lack of bias
c. The number of "hits" for the site
d. The honesty of the reported information
The correct answer is: The authenticity of the information
Select one:
a. Any paper source
b. Any written material
c. Any highly regarded novel
d. Published accounts of researchers
The correct answer is: Published accounts of researchers
The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from
Answer: APA
The correct answer is: APA
Interview Segment

reminded of the
ignore
the hook. So
come for the
Answer: False
Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer:
Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and
psychiatric
nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in
a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed
resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate
personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body instead of on the
patient's mind. The
camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what
they felt to be a "thankless job."
Select one:
a. experiences of these nurses

b. crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies
c. antipsychotic medications
d. 8 nurses
The correct answer is: 8 nurses
correct answer:
A director didn't cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest.
Select one:
a. Falsification
b. Plagiarism
c. Fabrication
The correct answer is: Plagiarism
What information is required for the APA in-text citation?
Personal author: McCullough, David G.
Title: John Adams
Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001.
Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index.
Select one:
a. McCullough, 2001
b. David Mc Cullough, 2001 (p.703-726)
c. David Mc Cullough, 2001
d. McCullough, 2001 (p.703-726)
The correct answer is: McCullough, 2001
What organization principle is used to explain historical changes or perspectives?

Select one:
a. Theme
b. Chronology
c. Development of ideas
d. Section
The correct answer is: Chronology
correct answer:
She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time.
Select one:
a. Plagiarism
b. Falsification
c. Fabrication
The correct answer is: Falsification
identify
facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semi-
structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of
what they
thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS.
Select one:
a. semi-structured interviews, completed diaries
b. staff of one hospice and one nursing home

c. facilitators and barriers of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS)
d. one hospice and one nursing home
The correct answer is: staff of one hospice and one nursing home
Interview Segment
reminded of the
ignore
the hook. So
come for the
Answer: True
Google. "Google Privacy Policy." Last modified March 11, 2009.

http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html.
Answer: MLA
The correct answer is: MLA
What type of source is the newspaper clipping?
Select one:
a. Static
b. Syndicated
c. Dynamic
The correct answer is: Syndicated
What citation style was used in this source?
Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print.
Select one:
a. CMS
b. APA
c. MLA
verbal
scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in suburban Maryland. It was
hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of foreign language study has on
the verbal
score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant difference in
SAT Verbal averages among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language
students
outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students.
Select one:
a. female senior students
b. Latin foreign language students
c. French foreign language students
d. relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores
The correct answer is: female senior students
Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature?
Select one:
a. Introduction
c. Conclusion
d. Body
The correct answer is: Introduction
A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point.
Select one:
b. Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
c. Examples used to prove a point are managed a little differently than opinions, ideas, or facts. These
are treated the same way one would treat common knowledge, and not referenced.
d. Include them in one parenthetical citation or endnote after you have finished listing them.
The correct answer is: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature?
Select one:
a. Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters
b. Critically evaluating the personal study like how one does to other research work
d. Using the internet to find the key researchers
The correct answer is: Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and
chapters
The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have
Select one:
b. True
answer.
Select one:
f. Physical behavior and gestures
answer.
Select one:
d. Verbal behavior and interactions
Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even for
impossible.
Select one:
a. False
Answer: 2
correct answer.
Select one:
c. Word Tables and Lists
Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer.
Select one:
d. He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
correct answer.

Select one:
c. Graphics
Answer: 6
Select one:
f. Compare and contrast
Answer: LEADING
Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings - simple answer the research questions, and
Select one:
b. True
problems.
Select one:
h. Social science queries

Select one:
c. Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
answer.
Select one:
c. Human traffic
Answer: MAPPING
and a text, we
need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006).
Select one:
a. We should use given information in inferring ideas.
correct answer.
Select one:
a. Word Tables and Lists
Select one:
c. Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
Modern qualitative research can generally involve a detailed study of
c. values and judgement
c. Identification of problem
and experience.
"Research is formalized curiosity. It is poking and prying with a purpose. " -Zora Neale Hurston
h. Research is a formalized curiosity with a purpose.
Among the steps in the research process, which part typically takes the most time of the researcher?
Select one:
a. Collecting data
Select one:
Which of the following is a type of quantitative research design?
b. Television ratings
Question text
Confidentiality is used to protect a participant's privacy by
Select one:
c. Sharing only the information permitted by the participant
Select one:
b. His/her name and identifying characteristics
Answer:
False
Select one:
c. Systematic process
Research hypotheses can be defined as
a. A tentative conclusion or answer to a specific question raised at the beginning of the investigation.
What is the common research experience of a novice researcher?
Select one:
c. Reading various materials in answering assignments.
What scope of research promotes awareness to its audience?
a. Education
and experience.
"All I'm armed with is research." -Mike Wallace
h. Research can equip anyone.
and experience.
"Research is the highest form of adoration" ? Pierre Teilhard de Chardin
d. Research is valuing others' work.
Which of the following is not part of the library research?
b. Decide the research design appropriate for the topic.

Which of the following is not an example of qualitative researchers?
Select one:
a. descriptive research
Researchers can encourage people to volunteer to participate in their project by
Select one:
a. Offering small incentives
Debriefing shoulD
c. Explain all relevant aspects of research procedures
Research involves exploring what _________________ other researchers have come to.
b. conclusion
1.Which part of the research paper do you find the following?
It must give precise answers that will determine the difference or relationship, or implication of the
variables under study.
ANSWER:Statement of the Problem
2.Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if
it is an incorrect description.
ANSWER:TRUE
3.Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research:
ANSWER:PURE
The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem
ANSWER:TRUE
It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one's research study
ANSWER:Research Title
ANSWER:TRUE
ANSWER:FALSE

This section indicates the specific benefits which will be gained from the results of the study.
ANSWER:Significance of the Study
It must also reflect the variables under study.
ANSWER:Research Title
10:Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE
if it is an incorrect description.
It has multiple possible answers.
ANSWER:FALSE
RSCH G11
interest
Answer: False
Select one: a. Involvement b. Research Adventure c. Emotions d. Knowledge
published yet.
instruments
-Research is
of the Fruit Fly
Answer: PURE
Answer: PURE
Answer: APPLIED

Answer: APA
Mel Gibson)
Answer: 4
Answer: OPEN
-Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned.

Answer: 5
how to do it.
Answer: False
Answer: False
deadlines?
Answer: Emotions
statement is called
Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's
Answer: true
Answer: true
Answer: False
Answer: PURE
university.
Answer: SCOPE
Answer: True
Answer: True
lead.
Answer: True

Answer: Fabrication
(2013)
Answer: False
Answer: APA
(2013)
Answer: False
Answer: 8 nurses
Answer: Plagiarism
Answer: Chronology
don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So
come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do.
Answer: True
Answer: MLA
Answer: Syndicated
Answer: MLA
-Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature?
Answer: 5
Answer: True
answer.
answer.
for impossible.
Answer: False
Answer: 2
correct answer.
correct answer.
Answer: Graphics
Answer: 6
Answer: LEADING
Answer: true
problems.
answer.
Answer: MAPPING
correct answer.
Answer: Case study

Answer: Qualitative
Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and
valid.
use?
Answer: Observation
Answer: Static
Answer: textbook

Answer: Rather than
Answer: Interview
Answer: APA format

that was taken?
Answer: Conclusion

Select one:
c. Falsification of data bank
Answer: False
Select one:
Select one:
d. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
Select one:
Select one:
b. Systematic process

Select one:
c. Social class of the researcher
Select one:
a. His/her name and identifying characteristics
Research is
Select one:
b. Analyzing and interpreting new information
Select one:
False
Select one:
True
Select one:
True
Answer: PURE
Select one:
False
Answer: PURE
information.
Select one:
True
Select one:
True
Answer: APPLIED
Select one:
False
Select one:
d. His/her name and identifying characteristics
incorrect.
how to do it.
Select one:
False
Select one:
b. Identification of problem
Answer: False
deadlines?
Select one:
a. Emotions
Select one:
d. Naturalistic observation
incorrect.
Select one:
False
Select one:
b. Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research
Select one:
a. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
Select one:
is called
Select one:
d. inductive method
1.It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
c. Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's
Select one:
a. conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct
Select one:
b. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis?
Select one:
b. pertinent question
Select one:
b. fabricator of data
and experience.
Armstrong
Select one:
d. Research is an investigation of the unknown.
Answer: True
Select one:
d. Falsification of data bank
incorrect.
Select one:
True
Select one:
False
\Which of the following is a good research question?
Select one:
a. How do teenagers view the word "forever"?
Answer: PURE
Answer: SCOPE
Select one:
a. People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem.
What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the
researcher's interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained.
Select one:
b. Importance of context
Select one:
True
Select one:
c. Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers
What should be considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem?
Select one:
c. Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers.
Select one:
True
Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in
Select one:
c. Significance of the study
Select one:
b. The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.
Select one:
b. A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead.
Select one:
True
Select one:
c. The effectiveness of abstinence programs
Select one:
a. The participants and the researcher share the "research space".
What is the scope of the research?
Select one:
study.
d. Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
RESEARCH 111 (COMPILED BY ROI) +95 ANSWERS
It can be defined like mathematical and statistical models which are describing a diverse array of
variables relationship.
False
Choose the most appropriate explanation to the meaning of the following quotation on qualitative
research.
"The worse thing that contemporary qualitative research can imply is that, in this post-modern age,
anything goes. The trick is to produce intelligent, disciplined work on the very edge of the abyss." ?
David Silverman
a. The messy analysis and inductive approach is the qualitative characteristic describe in this quotation.
It involves multilayered process which may include anything but the inductive approach will shape the
result into an intelligent and disciplined work that will really make a difference.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
c. Research must give pride to its investigator.
Qualitative research addresses scientific issues.
False
What should happen if a participant withdraws from your research?
d. Discard the data collected from the withdrawn participant and respect his/her personal decision.
Which sample belongs to quantitative research?
Representative sample
Ethical standards promote the values that are essential to collaborative work, such as trust,
accountability, mutual respect and fairness.
The writing of research reports is best regarded as
a. an academic chore
Qualitative research requires the analytical and organizational abilities that are necessary for all
researchers.
True
It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
True
Confidentiality and anonymity are important to insure limited risk of exposure of information including…
Illegal behaviors
Qualitative research can prove the absolute truth.
False
It is generally used to figure out the changes in a system when a variable in the system changes,
measuring how the end result changes by altering a variable.
False
Which of the following is similar in qualitative and quantitative research?
a. Both can be utilized by researchers depending on the use.
Research done in natural settings is
b. more likely to involve applied research than basic research
Which part of the research paper do you find the following? A brief statement of the general purpose of
the study.
Statement of the Problem
How Do Slime Molds Reproduce
PURE
College Tuition Becoming Prohibitive to Young Adults from Being Successful
APPLIED
It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one's research study.
Research Title
Which of the following guide questions does NOT define your research purpose?
Do you intend to publish your research?
Developing algorithm for performing classification based on pixels
PURE
How can online and mobile communications become advantageous in qualitative research?
b. Participants can enrich their text responses by attaching files, images, links to websites, and voice
response.
Willing (2009) argues that many qualitative researchers tend not to work with "variables" that are
defined by the researcher prior to the research project because
d. All of the above
Which of the following is NOT found in the significance of the study?
c. Possible recommendations to the research findings.

Which of the following statements is true?
c. Everyday life is a research methodology.
The researchers also determined the children's reactions on violent cartoon shows watched on
television.
SCOPE
Qualitative design is a flexible design because
B. All parts will continually be shaped during the research project.
Daily life research is advisable for students because
B. It involves their experience.
How to cure Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
APPLIED
Dependent variable is identified as the _____________ of the research topic.
Effect
Which of the following is a good title for a qualitative research?
d. The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in
Bangued, Abra
Some technical terms on information technology were not explained in this study.
DELIMITATION
Theory of Relativity
PURE
Which part of the research paper do you find the following?
The period of the study which includes the time, either months or years, during which the data were
gathered.
a. Scope and Delimitations
This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the policy
SCOPE
The inputs are only coming from senior high school students of the subject school.
SCOPE
What study is focused on qualitative research?
d. Social Science
SCOPE
No experimental treatments were given, and no control other than gender was attempted.
DELIMITATION
What is "timeliness" applied in the scope and delimitation?
c. The suitability of the study to the beneficiaries
DELIMITATION
This is qualitative research that investigates the daily life of housewives on weekdays.
SCOPE
What is the composition of a research title?
b. The title must reflect the variables under study.

Ways to Improve School Readiness for Children
APPLIED
"The more important reason is that the research itself provides an important long-run perspective on
the issues that we face on a day-to-day basis. " -Ben Bernanke
b. Research provides an important perspective on our daily issues.
Avoid rhetorical questions (answerable by yes/no) for they only elicit either of the two responses and
may result to vagueness
b. Statement of the Problem
What does research implication mean?
Research proposition
Multitasking: Helpful or Hurtful
APPLIED
Education, nursing, sociology, anthropology, information studies, humanities, and health sciences are
the only topics to be used for qualitative research.
True
Fraud in research comprises
d. all of the choices

Looks at relationships between variables and can establish cause and effect in highly controlled
circumstance.
False
Which statement is correct?
a. Research is exciting and challenging if people understand it and its demands.
b. Research is communicating existing knowledge.
c. Research is exclusively done by students.
d. Research is difficult, tedious, and cumbersome.
Which of the following is not part of a systematic investigation?
a. Identifying an area of research and formulating research questions
b. Coming up with detailed explanations of the overall process of research and the results
c. Developing a clear research strategy, research design, and choice of methods
d. Getting funding for the research
How does a researcher gain research knowledge?
a. by publishing the complete and well-written research paper
b. by conducting the data collection properly, ethically and factually.
c. by realizing the usefulness of those research outputs by employing the systematic process of research
d. by studying and synthesizing a complete review of related literature

Who is responsible for ethical behavior?
Select one:
a. the researchers
b. the participants
c. both participant and researchers
d. the authorities in the research locale
Researcher's involvement to the research means
Select one:
a. It is the researcher's quest of something new.
b. The research that the researcher takes in becomes a personal importance.
c. It examines the personal side of research and how the researcher manages the research difficulties.
d. Research enthusiasts start as critical readers of research projects.
What step can one take before starting a research?
Select one:
a. Be familiar with the needed software for the data analysis.
b. Get an approval from the research adviser.
c. Find a research partner or group.
d. Find an interesting social issue to address.

What scope of research is providing effective ways in practical solution?
Select one:
a. Education
b. Profession
c. Business
d. Administration
Critical researchers are primarily concerned with
Select one:
a. ethical violations in methodology
b. misuse of statistics
c. what researchers take for granted
d. how research is funded
What is the role of research in the daily life of people?
Select one:
a. It requires students to pass their subjects.
b. It aims human satisfaction and understanding.
c. It generates income to publishers.
d. It promotes the authors of the theses, books and journals.

Research is
Select one:
a. Analyzing and interpreting new information
b. Reorganizing, or restating, reviewing common findings
c. Collecting existing information
d. Modifying established knowledge
What is the purpose of informed consent?
Select one:
a. To make sure that participants know exactly what to expect from the research and to communicate
their right to withdraw at any stage.
b. To be able for the participant to make an informed choice about his/her participation and not
undertake any action which he/she may otherwise have declined to do.
c. To ensure that participants would not lie to about the time commitment involved in their
participation.
d. To distribute incentives to the participant as a payment for his/her cooperation.
Qualitative design is messy because it involves multi-layered processes.
True
research.
"The major strength of qualitative approach is the depth to which explorations are conducted, and
descriptions are written, usually resulting in sufficient details for the reader to grasp the idiosyncrasies
of the situation." - Myers
e. The importance of context and meaning are the reasons to get the depth of explorations in qualitative
research. The setting of the problem and multiple ways to get data from the locale will surely help the
researcher to explain the unexplainable.
researchers.
True
"Find out what's really out there. I never said to be like me, I say be like you and make a difference." -
Marilyn Manson
f. Research is finding out there what other's has not seen so you make a difference.
The qualitative design cannot be modified or changed.
False - can
How does a researcher avoid fraud?
a. Stress that ethical research practice involves honesty during training of scientists.
It is the arrangement of the individual's arrangements of a particular person.
True
Qualitative research derives meaning from data of multiple sources.
True
Qualitative research proves the absence of the absolute truth because
c. The in-depth comprehensive approach to data gathering limits the scope of the research.
What is NOT an advantage of qualitative research?
d. It measures the validity and reliability of a research instrument.
____________________, availability of subjects, resources and ethical considerations.
a. Measurability
Which of the following topics should ethical consideration be applied?
a. Capital punishment
Which of the following subject areas can be covered by qualitative research?
a. Anthropology
a. All of the above
Which of the following skill does not belong to a qualitative researcher?

e. Technically capable in operating statistical devices.
This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the policy.
SCOPE
Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Flexible design
Why are research questions used in qualitative research?
b. All of the above
The rationale, timeliness, and or relevance of the study.
c. Significance of the Study
What is the basic research?
a. Acquire new knowledge.
In what type of research does a researcher study an individual subject in depth?
a. Case study
Research is
b. Searching for the truth in a scientific way
Normally, in which part of the research report are the hypotheses justified to the reader?
c. in the introduction
Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher including his/her meditation on
daily activities and experiences.
True
What is a research rationale needed in scope and delimitation?
a. It gives reasons for the beneficiaries of the study.
What does "context" mean in qualitative research?
a. The situation where the data is obtained
Qualitative method is focused on the authentic experiences of the participants and their critical voices
because
b. It investigates the real-life human practices and statements.
Which of the following is NOT found in scope and delimitation of research?

a. The benefits and beneficiaries of the study
How does ethical consideration consider in the scope and delimitation?
a. Acknowledge the researcher's co-authors.
Which of the following is a myth about qualitative research?
a. All of the above
Limitations of research refer to the
a. Restrictions identified by the researcher.
How does everyday life research encourage diversity?
b. It is widely used among marginalized groups to privilege their personal perspectives.
The best quality data that a researcher can get is the double blind test.
False
What scope of research increases the productivity of an institution?

b. Administration
RESEARCH 110 - 3RD QUARTER EXAM (PARTIAL COVERAGE) (COMPILED BY ROI T.) (156 QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS)
Change the topic "Overseas Filipino Workers (OFW's)" into an effective research title.
Select one:
a. The Dilemma of OFW's
b. The Plight of OFW's and their families in the Philippines
d. The Effects of Overseas Work
An understanding of qualitative research is important because

Select one:
a. The daily life activities can be studied.
b. The knowledge on numbers can be practiced in statistics.
c. Survey is easily done in a public or crowded place.
d. Topics may come from laboratory experiences in school.
When you write a research paper, your goal is to
Select one:
a. Inform your reader.
b. Persuade your reader.
c. Motivate your reader to learn more about the subject
d. Save your reader time.
What is the criticism on qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Issues and subjects covered can be evaluated in depth and in detail.
b. Interviews are not limited to particular questions and can be redirected
c. Findings can be time consuming and difficult to present in visual ways.
d. The quality of research is heavily dependent on the skills of the researcher.
What statement is incorrect?

Select one:
a. The title reflects the findings of the study.
b. The title embodies substantive words that describe the study.
c. The study must reflect the purpose of the study.
d. The title must reflect the variables under study.
Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma?
Select one:
a. Informed consent
b. Conflict of interest
c. Falsification of documents
d. Misconduct in research
What research experience is present in this statement? A researcher usually chooses a research theme
that is close to his/her heart, belief or well-being.
Select one:
a. Researcher's involvement
c. Emotional aspect of research
d. Researcher's adventure
No generalization should be applied in this method.

Select one:
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
Which of the following statements applies to research knowledge?
Select one:
a. Determined students travel to search for topics.
b. Critical readers become curious analysts.
c. A social media user surveys online.
d. A child is learning how to speak.
Research is
Select one:
a. triggers one to find the true meaning of knowledge
b. the activity anyone who has good reputation and integrity
c. any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems
d. investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources

What ethical dilemma is needed in this situation: A celebrity's recent scandal involving the "hacking" of
her personal photographs on iCloud where her personal information was accessed for a research on the
lifestyle of local celebrities.
Select one:
a. Informed consent
b. Conflicts of interests
c. Misconduct in research
d. Authorship
What is in significance of the study?
Select one:
a. research coverage
b. research beneficiaries
c. research questions
d. research purpose
Which of the following is not a result of research?
Select one:
b. Deep well water
c. Caesarian birth
d. Solar powered objects

What is the last step of the research process?
Select one:
a. Build the reference page.
c. Determine the implications and conclusions.
d. Make recommendations for further research.
What is the use of research hypotheses?
Select one:
a. It prevents blind research.
c. It saves time, money and energy.
d. It separates relevant from irrelevant observation.
What is the classification of this research question? What kind of emotions and attitudes motivate
individuals to take part in mass events?
Select one:
a. Major problem
b. Sub-problem
c. Rhetorical question
d. Sub-question
Select one:
a. What are the basic values or goals of the organization?
b. How many teenagers are using the social media?
c. Is the source current or out of date to answer the problem?
d. Does the information on the issue appear to have evidences?
What is the synonym of dependent variable?
Select one:
a. Stimuli
b. Result
c. Basis
d. Origin
What ethical dilemma is needed in this situation: A celebrity's recent scandal involving the "hacking" of
her personal photographs on iCloud where her personal information was accessed for a research on the
lifestyle of local celebrities.
Select one:
a. Informed consent
b. Misconduct in research
c. Authorship
d. Conflicts of interests
What research experience is present in this statement? A researcher usually chooses a research theme
that is close to his/her heart, belief or well-being.
Select one:
b. Emotional aspect of research
c. Researcher's involvement
d. Researcher's adventure
It lets the meaning emerge from the participants.
Select one:
a. Statement of the Problem
b. Scope and Delimitation
c. Quantitative Research
d. Significance of the Study
e. Qualitative Research
They must be clear and free from double meanings.

Select one:
a. Scope and Delimitation
b. Quantitative Research
c. Statement of the Problem
In formulating research questions, the _____________ governs the entire study.
Select one:
a. Statement of the problem
b. Major problem
c. Title
d. Sub-problem
What is the criticism on qualitative research?
Select one:
a. The quality of research is heavily dependent on the skills of the researcher.
b. Issues and subjects covered can be evaluated in depth and in detail.
c. Interviews are not limited to particular questions and can be redirected
d. Findings can be time consuming and difficult to present in visual ways.

What is the simplest meaning of inductive approach in qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Practical solutions
b. Addressing the need
c. Proving the observations
d. Learning from experience
What skill set is required from a qualitative researcher?
Select one:
a. Investigative, subjective and interpretative abilities
b. Writing, listening, and reading skills
c. Observational, objective and mathematical skills
d. Organization, attention to details and analytical abilities
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? It is designed to match the dynamics of
the evolving research process (Klenke, 2008).
Select one:
a. Flexible design
b. Importance of meaning
c. Participant-researcher relationship
d. Importance of context
What is a conceptual audacity?
Select one:
a. A concrete object in the everyday life of humans.
b. A tool to see new and surprising aspects of the human everyday lives
c. The critical voices of the participants
d. The filtered reality of human's local, historical, contextual, and multiple lenses
Which of the following is a qualitative method?
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Survey
c. Statistics
d. Experiment
What is the third step in the research process?
Select one:
a. Formulate research questions
b. Design the study
c. Do the library search
d. Form a hypothesis
Which of the following is the NOT a strength of qualitative research?
Select one:
a. It answers problems encountered in human's daily life.
c. It becomes a source of empowerment from the filtered reality of their local, historical, contextual, and
multiple lenses.
d. The means of the researcher to be closer to the world of his/her participants.
What is the importance of research in everyday life?
Select one:
a. It has brought the human race farther.
b. It makes the school days more interesting.
c. It makes the human routine complicated.
d. It develops math operational skills.
It is also known as the research plan.
Select one:
a. Research design
b. Research purpose
c. Research hypothesis
What is the classification of this research question? What kind of emotions and attitudes motivate
individuals to take part in mass events?
Select one:
a. Major problem
b. Sub-problem
c. Sub-question
d. Rhetorical question
Having no research questions or poorly formulated research questions will lead to poor research
because
Select one:
a. The research will be unfocused and unsure of the data to collect.
b. The researcher will not know the data analysis method to use.
c. The researcher will not be able to complete the requirements.
d. The researcher will only consider epistemological
queries.
Choose the correct research question.

Select one:
a. Where did the first election happen in the Philippines?
b. When did the election start according to Philippine history?
c. How did election start according to Philippine history?
d. How many voted in the first election in the Philippines?
It is an exploratory research.
Select one:
a. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
Which of the following is NOT an ESSENTIAL element of ethical research?
Select one:
a. Valuable scientific question
b. Balance of risks and benefits
c. Subject selection based on locality
d. Independent review
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? It is designed to match the dynamics of
the evolving research process (Klenke, 2008).
Select one:
a. Importance of context
b. Flexible design
c. Participant-researcher relationship
d. Importance of meaning
What is wrong with double meaning question in research?
Select one:
a. It is a rhetorical question.
b. It may result to inaccuracies in the attitudes being measured for the question.
d. It is grammatically incorrect.
Reliability in research means
Select one:
a. Factual results
b. Discordance of findings
c. Commonality of data
d. Repeatability of findings
What is the classification of research areas?
Select one:
a. Education, business and science
b. Economics, governance and society
c. Engineering, profession and science
d. Education, profession and administration
Having no research questions or poorly formulated research questions will lead to poor research
because
Select one:
a. The researcher will only consider epistemological queries.
b. The researcher will not be able to complete the requirements.
c. The researcher will not know the data analysis method to use.
d. The research will be unfocused and unsure of the data to collect.
Hypothesis refers to the
Select one:
a. A form of research bias
b. Conclusion drawn from the experiment
c. A tentative statement about the relationship

d. Outcome of an experiment
It generates data about human groups in social settings.
Select one:
a. Qualitative Research
c. Scope and Delimitation
d. Statement of the Problem
e. Significance of the Study
What is the best description of "research space" that the researcher and participants share?
Select one:
a. Research partnership
b. Participant-researcher relationship
c. Research location
It lets the meaning emerge from the participants.
Select one:
a. Statement of the Problem
c. Qualitative Research
e. Scope and Delimitation
What is the intervention used in quantitative research?
Select one:
a. Participant involvement
b. Immersion and simulation
c. No participant involvement
d. Case to case basis
It is objective, replicable and reliable.
Select one:
b. Qualitative
c. Quantitative

What question does qualitative research answer?
Select one:
a. When
b. Which
c. Why
d. How
Which of the following is not a synonym for independent variable?
Select one:
a. Manipulated
b. Stimulus
c. Presumed cause
d. Consequence
Select one:
a. Qualitative Research
c. Significance of the Study

e. Quantitative Research
Why does online qualitative research hold an advantage over paper-based systems?
Select one:
a. Because of the ability to review trends and analyze data
b. Because of the ability to insure that all required items are collected for a trial
c. Because of the ability to insure data integrity
d. Because of the ability to maintain confidentiality of research records
Which of the following applies the double meaning questions?
Select one:
a. Citing all the resources correctly and with complete information
b. Fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants
c. Honesty between the researcher and participants
d. Persons with diminished autonomy (e.g., prisoners) should not be coerced to participate in a
research.
Which of the following is a required element of an informed consent based on ethical consideration in
research?
Select one:
a. Participation may start before consent is signed.
b. Participation may start after consent is signed.
c. Participation is required after consent is signed.
d. Participation is required before consent is signed.
Quantitative research shows clarity based on interpreting _____________ data.
Select one:
a. Interviewed
b. Observed
c. Subjective
d. Numerical
A well-formulated title must state ______________ in a clear, concise, and precise way.
Select one:
a. Research purpose
b. Research Questions
c. Variables
d. Words
Which of the following is a research design?
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Qualitative
c. Pure/ basic research
d. Everyday life
What type of issue is addressed by qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Simple
b. Public
c. Indifferent
d. Contextual
Which of the following statements applies to research knowledge?
Select one:
a. Determined students travel to search for topics.
b. Critical readers become curious analysts.
c. A child is learning how to speak.
d. A social media user surveys online.

Select one:
a. Qualitative
b. Quantitative
This part distinguishes the constraints of the study by stating the demarcations of time, measurability,
availability of subjects, resources and ethical considerations.
Select one:
b. Significance of the Study
Which of the following is a good research question for an everyday life research?
Select one:
a. How can one distinguish a generic drug from a branded one?
b. What chemical content makes the soda drink produce bubbles?
c. How does the image of the ideal man influences the male population between the ages 20 and 35?
d. What is the biggest size of a super moon that can be seen by the naked eyes?
What part of the research problem is described here? It must be free from biases and impartiality.
Select one:
a. Form a hypothesis
b. Analyze data
c. Design the study
d. Determine a problem
It is also used to uncover trends in thought and opinions, and dive deeper into the problem.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
d. Qualitative
Paraphrase the statement: Qualitative approaches are typically used to explore new phenomena and to
capture individuals' thoughts, feelings, or interpretations of meanings and process (Given, 2008).
Select one:
b. It is used to study paranormal activities that humans experience.
c. It is used to survey the number of participants affected by the research problem.
d. It is used to gain an understanding of underlying reasons, opinions, and motivations of humans.
When you write a research paper, your goal is to
Select one:
a. Save your reader time.
b. Inform your reader.
c. Persuade your reader.
d. Motivate your reader to learn more about the subject
What is the separation between independent and dependent variable?
Select one:
a. An independent variable is being tested in an experiment.
b. An independent variable is changed in an experiment.
d. A dependent variable is controlled in an experiment.

Select one:
a. Case to case basis
b. Participant involvement
c. No participant involvement
d. Immersion and simulation
Select one:
a. How many teenagers are using the social media?
b. Does the information on the issue appear to have evidences?
c. Is the source current or out of date to answer the problem?
d. What are the basic values or goals of the organization?
It identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
Select one:
a. Hypothesis
b. Delimitation
c. Limitation
d. Scope
What section identifies the people or institution who will benefit from the findings of the study?
Select one:
a. Title
b. Significance of the Study
It relates to the growth of knowledge, to the verification or validation of existing knowledge or practice
to the development of new knowledge.
Select one:
b. Qualitative Research
e. Statement of the Problem
Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma?
Select one:
a. Misconduct in research
b. Informed consent
c. Falsification of documents
d. Conflict of interest
What is pure research?
Select one:
a. It develops or refines theories.
b. It taking the results of scientific research and utilizing it directly in real world situations.
c. Psychologists working in human factors often do this research.
d. It is used to find solutions to everyday problems, cure illness, and develop innovative technologies.
Select one:
a. Make recommendations for further research.
c. Determine the implications and conclusions.
d. Build the reference page.
Why does online qualitative research hold an advantage over paper-based systems?
Select one:
a. Because of the ability to review trends and analyze data
b. Because of the ability to insure data integrity
c. Because of the ability to insure that all required items are collected for a trial
d. Because of the ability to maintain confidentiality of research records
Professionals do not need to use this method even when they have research problems at work.
Select one:
a. Qualitative
c. Quantitative
What is in significance of the study?
Select one:
a. research purpose
b. research beneficiaries
c. research coverage
d. research questions
Which title uses the qualitative inquiry?
Select one:
a. Starbucks and its Peers: Corporate Social Responsibility and Corporate Financial Performance
b. Eating habits of Preschoolers in Bulacan
c. Analysis of the Performance of Initial Public Donations
d. Under Pricing of Convertible Bonds in Asia
Which of the following is not a characteristic of research?
Select one:
a. Research is guided by specific problem or question.
b. Research questions are on existing information.
c. Research divides the major problems into sub-problems.
d. Research begins with an unanswered problem or question.
What makes qualitative research a flexible design?
Select one:
a. need a special class of analytical skills
b. a participant observer has little control over the activities of the observed
d. analyze their outcomes from the inside out

Which of the following is a characteristic of a researchable question?
Select one:
a. Interesting
b. Trendy
c. Unique
d. Empowerment
What is a variable?
Select one:
a. The unpredictable words in research.
b. Something that can be changed in research.
c. Anything that has a quantity or quality that varies.
d. The composition of research questions and titles.
What is the classification of research areas?
Select one:
a. Economics, governance and society
b. Education, business and science
c. Education, profession and administration
d. Engineering, profession and science

Research is
Select one:
a. investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources
b. any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems
c. the activity anyone who has good reputation and integrity
d. triggers one to find the true meaning of knowledge
The variable which is not influenced by other variables in the study.
Select one:
a. Independent variable
b. Common variable
c. Dependent variable
d. Discrete variable
Its method is limited by variables.
Select one:
a. Qualitative

d. Quantitative
There should be a general statement of the problem which narrows down to sub-problems or specific
questions.
Select one:
a. Significance of the Study
c. Statement of the Problem
d. Qualitative Research
e. Quantitative Research
Which of the following is a proof of the research experience?
Select one:
a. Biography of the researcher
b. Researcher's identity and insights
d. Researcher's emotions
Select one:
a. The knowledge on numbers can be practiced in statistics.
b. The daily life activities can be studied.
c. Topics may come from laboratory experiences in school.
d. Survey is easily done in a public or crowded place.
What is the independent variable in the title stated in the previous item?
Select one:
a. Manila
b. intervention
c. Dogs
d. Children with Disabilities
Which of the following is not under qualitative research?
Select one:
a. everyday life research
b. pure research
c. applied research

Which of the following is NOT a description of a good research?
Select one:
a. Research scope is ambiguous.
b. Research process is detailed.
c. Research design is thoroughly planned.
d. Purpose is clearly defined.
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? The data and the researcher's
interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained (Roller &
Lavraks, 2015).
Select one:
a. Importance of context
b. Presence of absolute truth
c. Inductive approach
d. Flexible design
It is used to measure attitudes, opinions, behaviors, and other defined variables - and generalize results
from a larger sample population.
Select one:
a. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
It does not apply statistical test or measurement on data analysis.
Select one:
c. Quantitative
d. Qualitative
Generalize the beneficiaries of a study.
Select one:
a. Teenagers are always involved in social issues.
b. Students will learn much information in any research.
c. The government must be concerned in any human problem.
d. The readers are involved in all the studies that they read.
What process in research is described in this sentence? It can be a qualitative or a quantitative research.
Select one:
a. Form a hypothesis
b. Determine a problem
c. Collect data
d. Design the study
Which one is the independent variable in this title: The Plight of Filipino Migrant Workers in the Middle
East?
Select one:
a. Filipino Migrant Workers
b. Plight
c. Middle East
d. Both Filipino Migrant Workers and Middle East
It is considered valid and reliable.
Select one:
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative

What research purpose could be used in this title, Dogs: Intervention for Children with Disabilities in
Manila?
Select one:
a. Applied
c. both choices are correct
d. Pure/basic
Identify the wrong statement about research.
Select one:
a. The purpose of research leads to the construction of research questions.
b. Research aims to answer or solve specific issue or problem.
c. Research discovers the potential power of a researcher.
d. Research has the ultimate goal of developing an organized body of scientific knowledge.
What subject involves the everyday life?
Select one:
a. Social science
b. Mathematics
c. Humanities
d. Business
Where can one find the literature of a qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Ending part
b. Beginning part
c. Reference part
d. Middle part
Which of the following is not a basic ethical principle of research?
Select one:
a. Minimize possible harms
b. Respect for persons
c. Respect for nature and animals
d. Observe justice
What is the research experience?
Select one:
a. researcher's personal aspects
b. one's research knowledge
c. researcher's achievements
d. researcher's expertise
Research is
Select one:
a. investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources
b. the activity anyone who has good reputation and integrity
c. triggers one to find the true meaning of knowledge
d. any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems
Which of the following is incorrect about everyday life research?
Select one:
a. It is a scientific research methodology.
b. It focuses on details and seemingly insignificant occurrences.
c. It is a participatory action research methodology.
d. It is written in second hand person voice.
Which of the following is not a thesis statement?

Select one:
a. Man's greatest treasures are the lessons he learned.
b. The wanton cutting down of trees.
c. Coffee is now considered a health drink.
d. The Israeli-Hebollah conflict in Lebanon has placed the UN in the difficult position.
Which word was developed from the everyday life of man?
Select one:
a. Social
b. Science
c. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
Which of the following is a product of qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Medicines
b. Policies
c. Automobiles

Select one:
b. Is this tool interesting and useful?
c. How often and how much time do you spend on each visit to a hospital?
d. How satisfied are you with your pay and job conditions?
Which is a good argument in the research hypothesis?
Select one:
a. A dog can be trained to alert a human if the telephone is ringing.
b. Childhood obesity is alarming nowadays.
c. The amount of sun exposure is good to a plant.
d. More students get sick during the final week of testing than at other times.
It uses measurable data to formulate facts and uncover patterns in research.
Select one:
a. Quantitative
c. Qualitative

In ethical dilemma of research, authorship requires
Select one:
a. Accurate data recording
c. Significant intellectual contribution
d. Correct citation of authors
____________ tend to be generally expressed; a ____________ is a specific prediction about what the
readers will find.
Select one:
a. variable; findings
b. scope and delimitation; significance of the study
d. research question; hypothesis
What is the basic skill required of any researcher?
Select one:
a. Ability understand major philosophical issues
b. Ability to source data
c. Ability to calculate statistics
d. Ability to generate ideas for research projects
It is quantitative research designed to portray a complete and accurate description of historical events.
Select one:
a. Case study research
b. Historical research
c. Descriptive research
d. Correlational research
It describes a problem or condition from the point of view of those experiencing it.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
c. Qualitative

Which of the following is not a characteristic of qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Inductive approach
b. Flexible design
c. Important context
d. Presence of absolute truth
Its hypotheses are Specific, testable, stated prior to particular study.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
c. Qualitative
What is the sample size in qualitative research?
Select one:
a. big
b. holistic
c. representative
d. small
Which of the following is correct about research questions?
Select one:
c. They must guide the design of the study.
d. They must inform the content of the research discussion.
e. They must articulate the gap found in the literature.
Which of the following is excluded in the scope and delimitation?
Select one:
a. Research findings
b. The general purpose
c. Locale of the study
d. The population or universe
Which of the following is not found in the scope and delimitation?

Select one:
a. Rationale
b. Solutions
c. Timelessness
d. Problems
It mentions the restrictions identified by the researcher that may affect the outcome of the study which
he/she has little or no control, but are anticipated.
Select one:
What is the first thing to do in formulating research title?
Select one:
a. Identify the problem and the participants involve.
c. Choose the right words (i.e. nouns, prepositions, verbs).
d. Construct the variables under study.

It is a formal, objective, systematic process in which numerical data are used to obtain information
about the world.
Select one:
a. Quantitative Research
In ethical dilemma, conflict of interest happens when
Select one:
a. The researcher's background is not related to his/her research topic.
b. The researcher bribes the authority to be in the research location.
c. The researcher participates as a research subject for his/her own study.
d. The researcher gives money for participants to join.
Online and mobile qualitative research enhance data integrity by
Select one:
b. Limiting free-text responses and maximizing the use of standard vocabularies
c. Validating data values whenever possible
d. Eliminating redundancy
Applied research is done ______________________.
Select one:
a. in natural setting
b. in computer simulation
c. anywhere
d. in a laboratory
It does need any research instrument to collect its data.
Select one:
b. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
Which of the following is the good way to find a good topic?
Select one:
a. Personal experience
c. Looking for the next step in the research process

d. Getting an idea from your adviser
The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their effect on the findings.
Select one:
a. True
c. False
d. Depending on the topic
In selecting factors for a study, which of these does a researcher needs to consider?
Select one:
a. They have been investigated before.
b. They are not of interesting so only few will choose them.
c. They are available for investigation.
d. They do not lead to another question.

The method is affected by the researcher.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
c. Qualitative
It has primarily deductive process used to test pre-specified concepts, constructs, and hypotheses that
make up a theory.
Select one:
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
What is the best description of research rationale?
Select one:
a. Location of the research
b. Similar to research hypothesis
c. Reasons for conducting the research
d. The scope and delimitation of research

Validity in research refers to
Select one:
a. The power of the instrument to be used
b. How well a test measures what it is supposed to measure
c. the legality of the test to be used
d. How the researcher uses the instrument to the participants
What implications do human values have on qualitative research?
Select one:
a. They set the price the research is worth to be sold for.
b. They influence the ethical decisions of the researcher.
c. They contribute to the value of the data set by other researchers.
d. They influence the number of researchers to be involved in the study.
What is an example of qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Historical research
b. Descriptive research
c. Correlational research
d. Case study
A case study methodology is useful in
Select one:
a. Studies with big population
b. Study of a bounded entity
c. Statistical analysis
d. Study spreads in large geographic areas
What is the use of research variables?
Select one:
a. They are quiet detailed with an overview of in depth.
b. They have a period when they starts and stops.
c. They are the measurable factors of the research.
d. They may have a pattern such as daily, weekly, ad-hoc and monthly.
Which of the following best describes a hypothesis?
Select one:
a. The data that need to be supported
b. A clear relationship between factors
c. Basis for research questions
d. Statement that the researcher set out to prove
Choose a good research problem for a qualitative research?
Select one:
a. A student examined the function of boxing as a way to help adolescents with a criminal record to deal
with aggression
b. A shopper wants to compare the number of shoppers during ordinary and Christmas season.
c. A lawmaker is thinking of an innovation for a cleaner election.
d. A teacher was considering a computer instructional tool for active learning pedagogy.
In qualitative research, researchers evaluate any number of variables to make sense of the data. These
variables include
Select one:
a. Language of the participants
c. Educational background of participants
d. Quantity of participants
Which of the following is a comparison between pure and applied research?
Select one:
a. Both of them are good research design.
b. None of them is applicable for everyday life research.
c. Both of them need statistical measurement.
d. Both of them are feasible research purpose.
Which research refers to scientific study and research that seeks to solve practical problems?
Select one:
a. Pure research
b. Both Basic and Applied research
d. Both Basic and Pure research
e. Both Pure and Applied research
f. None of the choices
g. Basic research
h. Applied research
Which of the following is the strength of qualitative research?
Select one:
a. It is focused on the scientific explanations of facts.
b. It measures reliability and validity of instruments using figures.
c. This may in turn generate new forms of human action.
d. The theme of everyday life is very subjective.
What is the prevention to the situation mentioned in the previous item (no. 107)?
Select one:
a. Millenials must protect their social media accounts by using complicated passwords and customizing
their account settings.
b. People must secure their photographs and personal information from public viewing.
d. Millenials should not save many pictures and personal information in their gadgets (i.e. smart phones,
laptop, etc.)
What is the contrast of everyday life research from others?
Select one:
a. It documents the particulars of life.

c. It captures life as it is lived.
d. It allows the researcher to describe behavior as it occurs in natural contexts.
It is the best research method to use in any field of study.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
d. Qualitative
Its hypotheses are tentative and evolving, based on particular study.
Select one:
b. Qualitative
c. Quantitative
What would happen if the constructed research question has no precise answer?
Select one:
a. The results will not be accurate and valid.
b. The results will not address the specific need of the problem.
d. The whole research process is useless.

It provides observed effects (interpreted by researchers) of a program on a problem or condition.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
d. Qualitative
RSCH
others would have to
come back tomorrow."
Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
and a text, we need to read more than the literal
meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006).
We should use given information in inferring ideas
Recommendations should aim to solve or help solve problems discovered in the investigation.
False
The best research design is the qualitative research design.
False
umbrella. He would feel silly
carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning.
Mateo heard a weather forecast? it would rain in the afternoon.
Godina (2004) explored the contradictory literacy practices of 10 high school students of Mexican
background from the rural
Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal
how Mexicanbackground students demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and
communities than those acknowledged at school.
Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic
responsibilities and potential of the Mexicanbackground students.
Ethnographic Research
1965 in a Virginia state
hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing
experience. The researcher
wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and
during the introduction of
antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care
despite crowded wards and
instead of on the patient's mind.
The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite
what they felt to be a
"thankless job."
8 nurses
Daly (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the lived experiences of mothers of suicidal adolescents. She
contended that, unfortunately,
the mother's experience is often the hidden dimension in the family. Unstructured interviews were
conducted with 6 mothers living
with suicidal adolescents. Six themes were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection,
feeling alone in the struggle,
helplessness and powerlessness in the struggle, cautious parenting, and keeping an emotional distance.
Phenomenological Research
Interview Segment
though what we can do
about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if
you go to town. They are
always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing
quite well from begging. But
if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself.
They say a lot of people
choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to
say - it lets them off the
hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about
homelessness. I feel that something
government to do something.
It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do.
Being homeless is a choice and individual decision.
True
Interview Segment
quite well from begging. But
if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself.
They say a lot of people
choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to
say - it lets them off the
hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about
homelessness. I feel that something
government to do something.
It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do.
Homelessness is a perennial global problem
True
1965 in a Virginia state
hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing
experience. The researcher
wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and
during the introduction
of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care
despite crowded wards and
instead of on the patient's
mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions,
despite what they felt to be a
"thankless job."
Narrative Research
Williams and Irurita (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the personal control and emotional comfort of
hospitalized patients.
Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The
basic psychological
process identified by the researchers was labeled "optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional
comfort." Personal control
referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment? emotional comfort was defined as a
state of relaxation that
affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of
emotional comfort.
Grounded Theory Research

background from the rural
Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal
how Mexicanbackground
students demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and communities than those
acknowledged at
school. Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the
realistic responsibilities and
potential of the Mexicanbackground students
high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest
Interview Segment
quite well from begging.
But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for
yourself. They say a lot of
people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the
authorities to say - it lets them
off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about
homelessness. I feel that
something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come
for the government to
do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do.
The homeless are also the same beggars asking for money on the street.
True
hospitalized patients.
Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The
basic psychological
process identified by the researchers was labeled "optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional
comfort." Personal control
referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment? emotional comfort was defined as a
state of relaxation that
affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of
emotional comfort.
hospitalized patients
Results rely heavily on words, and often quotations from those studied are included in the document.
True
impossible.
False
Bill and Jessica were almost done taking turns choosing the players for their teams. It was Jessica's turn
to choose, and only
Kurt was left. Jessica said, "Kurt."
Jessica was pleased to have Kurt on her team.
You just opened a bag of potato chips and poured some juice in a glass when the phone rang. You went
out of the kitchen to
answer it. When you returned after a couple of minutes, you found the split juice and pieces of chips on
the floor. Your little
sister was tearyeyed and said, "I'm sorry. It was an accident."
Your sister decided to get her own snacks
True
Word Tables and Lists
Characteristics of the people being studied
It is highly recommended through texts and marking them up with different colored highlighter pens.
Pawing
Organizational chart of the institution being studied
Graphics
Spradley (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) recorded conversations among tramps at informal gatherings,
meals, card games, and
bull sessions. As the men talked to each other about their experiences, there were many references to
making a flop.
Spradley combed through his recorded material and notes looking for verbatim statements made by
informants about his
topic. On analyzing the statements, he found that most of the statements could fit into subcategories
such as kinds of flops,
ways to make flops, ways to make your own flop, kinds of people who bother you when you flop, ways
to make a bed, and
kinds of beds. Spradley then returned to his informants and sought additional information from them on
each of the
subcategories.
indigenous categories
He stole the recipe from the chef.
Plagiarism
Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives Quarterly, vol.
23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
CMS
Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Research survey
Dynamic
An Inconvenient Truth. Directed by Davis Guggenheim, performances by Al Gore and Billy West,
Paramount, 2006.
MLA
Falsification
Fabrication
Theatrical play
Dynamic
Food blog
Syndicated
The research assistant wrote an anonymous name in the list.
Fabrication
APA
"Good morning. I'm a health officer in our barangay and I also belong to the medical research team of
our community."
Do you find her comments on your website offensive?
Leading
How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions? what individuals'
behaviors indicate about their
feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession.
Physical behavior and gestures

Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers? dynamics of interaction
Verbal behavior and interactions
How can he pull them all
together and use them in his own paper in a list?
Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
A blogger made a photo collage for his latest blog. He picked photos from his Facebook friends without
asking for their consent.
What research misconduct did he commit?
Plagiarism
Which of the following statements describes the process of reviewing the literature in a qualitative
study?
It is limited to a brief preliminary search so as to avoid bias from the researcher.
In MLA citation style, when documenting one author in reference in a text, which is correct?
This point has been argued before (Frye 197).
Which of the following statements is correct?
The reference list is doublespaced with hanging indents.
Which of the following is not an example of dynamic source?
paintings
Arrange the correct order of the guidelines for a coherent review of related literature:
1. Avoid misinterpretation or distortion of the writer's original meaning by direct quotation.
2. Analyze their respective content, facts, findings, methods, concepts and implications. Cite properly all
relevant literature into a
meaningful whole.
3. Synthesize into holistic body of content or in one relevant discussion.
4. Classify and identify the appropriate categories, relationship, similarities, of both local and
international studies.
4, 2,1,3
Which of the following is an example of static type of source?
Html coded web sites
Which of the following is the most essential in conducting the review of related literature?
Examine all potential literature.
When doing your background reading for your literature review it is important to
All of the choices
MLA
Syndicated
What does CMS citation style mean?
Chicago Manual Style
Key word searches
What comes first before planning the structure of literature review?
Outlining the aim of the research
Which of the following is the best advice in using internet search engines in qualitative research?
Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources
What is the APA citation style of the information of the source presented?
Title: John Adams
Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703726) and index
Cullough, D. (2001). John Adams, 703726. New York : Simon & Schuster
Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters
Which of the following is not an error that will result to plagiarism?
Paraphrasing other people's information and citing the source of that information
In 1904, Matisse came under the influence of Signac's use of separated colors in his paintings. This was
called "divisionism." As
Spurling says, "Divisionism provided logical grounds for separating the ultimate goal of painting order,
harmony, emotional
stability achieved through rhythmic compositions of form and color from its traditional dependence on
the subject. This was an
important idea for Matisse.
No year of publication beside the cited names
Which of the following is the best way to avoid plagiarism?
Make sure that the source of every idea is very clearly identified and cited.
What information is required for the APA intext citation?
Title: John Adams
Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703726) and index.
McCullough, 2001
Which of the following is true in MLA citation of block quotes?
All of the choices
The literature review must be:
Required reading for the program of the study
What does the researcher engage in reading the literature?
An evaluation of the literature
What is the purpose of the search for literature in research?

The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature.
Which characteristic is the first consideration in surveying related literature and studies?
The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible.
In APA citation style, which of the following is TRUE about quotations?
They should be used only when absolutely necessary.
Why does a researcher need to cite his/her sources?
To show readers the materials where the researcher base his/her analysis, narrative or conclusion.
Which of the following is the best way to protect yourself against plagiarism?
All of the choices
Describe your relationship with your colleagues.
Open
Where people enter and exit? how long they stay? who they are (ethnicity, age, gender)? whether they
are alone or
accompanied? number of people
Human traffic
Would you like to continue that kind of relationship?
Mapping
"One area of this research is to record particular challenges that cancer patients face after
chemotherapy. Could you tell me
your experience?"
Open
What individuals' preferences concerning personal space suggest about their relationships
Personal space
"How old were you when you discovered your disease?"
Do you feel great when people admire your work?
Leading
APA
Research journal
Syndicated
Weinstein, Joshua I. "The Market in Plato'sRepublic." Classical Philology 104 (2009): 439-58.
CMS
Static
The bibliography is incomplete.
Fabrication
The researcher manipulated the results of the study.
Falsification

MLA
Official website
Static
Plagiarism
Static
Reference list allows readers to locate and use the sources and copy the ones cited.
False
References can be the same as bibliography.
False
He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
James Springer and his identical twin James Lewis were separated at birth. They were raised in different
homes. They did not
meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer's first wife was
named Linda and his second
wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James
Allen. Each had owned a
dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law
enforcement after high school.
They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of
cookies. (adapted from
http://www.gedonlineclass.net)
What conclusion can you draw about twins based on this article?
Identical twins have a lot in common
Conclusions should refer only to the population, area, or subject of the study.
True
"English has been dubbed as the "language of the world". Over a billion people in the world have
considered English as their second
language. With over 2,500 OFW's leaving the country everyday to different parts of the globe, Filipinos
are expected to arm
themselves with English to communicate with the world."(Excerpt from "Nursing the Carabao English",in
Yu& Plata, 2006)
Communicating in English is an important tool for Filipinos who want to work abroad.
indicated that change is
necessary.
True
The readers must be informed why this research counts and why is it important.
True
homes. They did not
meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer's first wife was
named Linda and his second
wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James
Allen. Each had owned a
dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law
enforcement after high school.
They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of
cookies. (adapted from
http://www.gedonlineclass.net)
What conclusion can you draw about the two men in the article?
Even though these men were raised differently, they like many of the same things.
Maria is watching too much television. A toddler shouldn't be spending hours staring blankly at a screen.
Worse yet, some of her wild behavior have been inspired by those awful cartoons she watches.
Some cartoons are not good for Maria.
In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011
evermarried women, gathered
social and economic histories from 150 families. She conducted indepth interviews with present and
formal officials (known as
cadres), and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers, journals and other sources.
Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was largely constrained from asking direct questions about resistance,
the informal record of field notes, interview transcripts, and questionnaire data contains few overt
challenges to state policy." Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their conversations with the
researchers, both peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they
did not like. Cadres, for example were loathe to comment on birthplanning campaigns? peasant women
were reluctant to talk about sterilization. These silences form one part of the unofficial record of birth
planning in the villages. More explicit protests were registered in informal conversations. From these
interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance
that was politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of Chinese culture and of practical
reason.
searching for missing information
Geographic map of the study area
Graphics
Another linguistic approach is to look for naturally occurring shifts in thematic content.
Transitions
people acquire and
maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how people solve problems
Social science queries
The changing image of public transportation
Pictures The approach is based on a powerful trick most of us learned in kindergarten and requires
paper and scissors.
Cutting and Sorting
The object is to look for metaphors in rhetoric and deduce the schemas, or underlying principles, that
might produce patterns in those metaphors.
Metaphors and analogies
Look carefully at words and phrases that indicate relationships among things.
Connectors
Pictures
Bisogni, et. al. (2005) studied the conceptual understanding of how management of food and eating is
linked to life course events and
experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults in upstate New York,
particularly 14 men and 11 women with
moderate to low incomes. A conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity
represented participants'
confidence in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and
circumstances. Most participants had
faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health
conditions). Participants linked
strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme
financial circumstances or the
absence of strong standards.
Narrative Research
Bullington (2005) investigated how older people (60+) experience the ageing body and how these
experiences affect aged peoples'
sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between
the ages of 63 and 82, recruited
from a retired peoples' organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The
results showed that generally the
experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms of
body and self, and finding ways
to feel at home in this changed situation.
13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82
Dunckley, Aspinal, AddingtonHall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one
hospice and one nursing home
setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and
barriers to the use of the Palliative
Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semistructured interviews, completed diaries, and
participated in monthly meetings to
give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the
POS.
Action Research
Dunckley, Aspinal, AddingtonHall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one
hospice and one nursing home
setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and
barriers to the use of the Palliative
Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semistructured interviews, completed diaries, and
participated in monthly meetings to
give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the
POS.
staff of one hospice and one nursing home
Interview Segment
though what we can do about
it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go
to town. They are always there
asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from
begging. But if you have any
caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of
people choose to live on the
the hook. So really I guess the
should be done but I feel
powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do
something. It makes me feel
uncomfortable? I don't know what to do.

Common people are powerless to help the homeless.
False
experiences affect aged peoples'
sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between
the ages of 63 and 82, recruited
from a retired peoples' organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The
results showed that generally the
body and self, and finding ways
to feel at home in this changed situation.
Phenomenological Research
Interview Segment

Homelessness is hopeless to be solved.
False
linked to life course events and
experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults in upstate New York,
particularly 14 men and 11 women with
moderate to low incomes. A conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity
represented participants'
confidence in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and
circumstances. Most participants had
faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health
conditions). Participants linked
strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme
financial circumstances or the
absence of strong standards.
14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes
Interview Segment
False
Interview Segment
Not all homeless are impoverished.
True
Textbooks
Static
The researcher copied the results of the study from another thesis.
Plagiarism
She changed the gender of the participant to complete the all male survey.
Falsification
Ebert, Roger. Review of An Inconvenient Truth, directed by Davis Guggenheim. rogerebert.com, 1 June
2006,
http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/aninconvenienttruth2006. Accessed 15 June 2016.
MLA
Baxter, C. (1997). Race equality in health care and education.Philadelphia: Ballière Tindall.
APA
Leroux, Marcel. Global Warming: Myth Or Reality?: The Erring Ways of Climatology. Springer, 2005.
CMS
Live concert
Dynamic
Discovery Channel
Syndicated
Alibali, M. W. (1999). How children change their minds: Strategy change can be gradual or abrupt.
Developmental Psychology,
35,127145.
APA
The researcher declared she interviewed the resource person even if she didn't.
Fabrication
RSCH 4th quarter exam
RSCH-111 WEEK:11 SHORT QUIZ 7
correct answer:
- Fabrication
2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient- truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016.
-MLA
study?
A: It is a continuing process because the research problem becomes more focused throughout the
research.
-APA
Live concert
-Dynamic
-CMS
Discovery Channel
-Syndicated
-Falsification
Textbooks
-Static
-Plagiarism
Developmental Psychology, 35,127-145.
-APA
RSCH-111 WEEK 11: L.A 7
-Plagiarism
Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives
Quarterly, vol.
23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
-CMS
-Falsification
Paramount, 2006.
-MLA
Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Research survey
- Dynamic
research long quiz 4
30/30
c-Misha Sanches
Which of the following is the first to help improve the use of the research literature?
Keep a researcher notebook
Title: John Adams

Cullough, David. John Adams, p. 703-726. New York : Simon & Schuster (2001). Print.
Why does a researcher need to cite his/her sources?
Examine all potential literature.
The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature.
Which of the following is the best way to avoid plagiarism?
Make sure that the source of every idea is very clearly identified and cited.
What does the researcher need to generate useful and thorough key word searches?
A search and reading strategy
Outlining the aim of the research
Published accounts of researchers
Economy Hurt by Decline in English (2006, June 18). The Manila Times, p. A1, A2.
APA
An evaluation of the literature
asking for their consent. What research misconduct did he commit?
Plagiarism
The authenticity of the information

Paraphrasing other people's information and citing the source of that information.
Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources.
Required reading for the program of the study
APA and MLA
Which one is an example of a correct in-text quotation?
Eguchi and Eguchi (2006) and Icassatti (2006) mentioned that students showed enthusiasm while using
these strategies.
Last week your professor talked about her theory of the best method for electoral reform in a lecture.
Since she knows all about it, do you need to reference this?
You need to cite it in the body of your paper and in the reference list.
All of the choices
The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible.
In MLA citation style, when documenting one author in reference in a text, which is correct?
This point has been argued before (Frye 197).
What is the difference of related literature from related studies?
Related literature are materials usually printed and found in books.
Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature?
Introduction

Syndicated
Which of the following is an example of static type of source?
Html coded web sites
What information is required for the APA in-text citation?
Title: John Adams
McCullough, 2001
What organizational principle is used to explain ideas according to their respective premise?
Theme
MLA
What research misconduct is committed when the researcher use the sentences from published medical
literature with minor modification in word structure without attribution?
Plagiarism
RSCH-110 QE
Which of the following can be found in the final part of the research paper?
Select one:
- Conclusion and recommendations of the study
Data gathering techniques are part of
Select one:
- The methodological framework
What is literature in research?

Select one:
- All of the choices
What category of information in participant observation is concerned about clothing, age, gender,
physical appearance of respondents?
Select one:
-Appearance
Select one:
-Recommendations should be logical and valid.
Which of the following is correct?
Select one:
-Only research conducted by academic staff with human participants requires ethical approval.
Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships?
Select one:
- Rather than
Why do researchers need to be knowledgeable about research misconduct?
A Qualitative Study of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children
Select one:
- Ethnographic Research
The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the
Select one:
- Ethnographic
Select one:
-all of the choices
The entire research project is an exercise in
Select one:
-. All of the choices
What data collection procedure is used when analyzing and communicating the social life through
photos?
Select one:
-Visual data
What is the basis of research conclusion?
Select one:
- Data results
Select one:
In participant observation, what information can be observed?
Select one:
Which of the following should include the informed consent during an experimentation?
Select one:
A personal journey with grounded theory methodology
Select one:
- Grounded Theory
Living with the patients with Schizophrenia and their families
Select one:
- Phenomenological Research
Select one:
- Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English grammar & composition part 1. Manila: CKC Publication
What research method allows researchers to obtain a detailed description of social settings or event in
order to situate people's behavior within their own socio-cultural context?
Select one:
-. Observation
Select one:
-. Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
Children of wealthy parents in the education system
Select one:
- Grounded Theory
Which organizational principle is used to connect the research topic to different backgrounds (i.e.
political, methodological, geographical, literary)?
Select one:
- Sector
What research design is used when a theory is developed from data generated by a series of
observations or interviews principally involving an inductive approach?

Select one:
- Grounded theory
What are research data?
Select one:
Which of the following is the basic rule in data collection?
Select one:
- Begin with secondary data, then proceed if necessary to collect primary data.
Select one:
- Establish an initial rapport
Select one:
Which of the following is qualitative data analysis?
Select one:
A researcher would like to display the geographic map of his research population. What mode for
displaying qualitative data should he use?
Select one:
-Graphics
Select one:
- Conclusion
The research project is

Select one:
- A scientific endeavor
Thea is interested to study the young people with dementia - chronic disorder caused by brain disease
or injury. What research design is appropriate for her research inquiry?
Select one:
-Phenomenological research
What is common in data collection among qualitative researches?
Select one:
-Language based
Select one:
-Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
Select one:
- The Life and Works of Rizal
Solving word problems of preschoolers through illustrations
Select one:
- Action Research
-Research Design
How does key word in context (KWIC) work for novice researchers?
- Researchers identify key words and then systematically search the corpus of text to find all
instances of the word or phrase.
Which of the following is the content of conclusion?

- A judgment or final decision
What is the grounded theory research design?
Select one:
- The researcher generates a general explanation (a theory) of a process, and action, or an interaction
shaped by the views of a large number of participants.
Select one:
Select one:
-Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words- in-contexts (KWIC)
Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________.
Select one:
- The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed.
Select one:
-Memoing, verification and credibility
Which of the following is not normally associated with qualitative data?
Select one:
-Pie charts
Select one:
-Qualitative
Select one:
-Presenting the data in tabular form
A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to- face in shopping areas. What qualitative data
Select one:
- Interview
Select one:
-Mapping questions
Which of the following research questions should NOT be answered using action research methods?
Select one:
- Is parent attitude toward school uniforms related to their socioeconomic status?
The lived experience of being a sole mother in the Philippines
Select one:
Which of the following is NOT the function of references?
Select one:
-To ensure sufficiently long reference list
-Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid.
A study of the Italians and the health benefits of the Mediterranean lifestyle
Select one:
-Action Research

Select one:
-APA format
What is the optimal number of participants for a focus group discussion?
Select one:
- 8-12 members
A historical and comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded
theorizing
Select one:
- Ethnographic Research
Which of the following is an example of falsification in research?
Select one:
-Manipulated data from the findings
that was taken?
Select one:
-Action research
Which of the following belongs to related literature?
Select one:
-textbook
Select one:
- The layout of the site
Which of following should NOT be considered in conducting in-depth interview?
Select one:
- Pretend to be interested in hearing about the life of the interviewee.
__________________ is the thing (person, place, event, etc.) that is selected for inclusion in the study.
Select one:
-Sampling unit
A teacher conducts an action research study of the problem-solving methods used by students in her
ninth-grade Algebra I classes. Which of the following can she assume on the basis of her study?
Select one:
-Results apply only to Algebra I students in ninth grade.
Student awareness in global warming
Select one:
- Action Research
Select one:
- Static
What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the
Select one:
- Enumerative approach
What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis?
Select one:
- To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study
Select one:
- A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in
the report
Select one:
-Lying by fabrication
use?
Select one:
- Observation
Which of the following is not a type of narrative research?
Select one:
- Case study
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies?
Select one:
-Reviewed materials must be many.
According to historical accounts, face-to- face methods have been used since the early years of
civilization to collect population figures. Why were these records kept?
Select one:
Which of the following is the correct notion about observation?
Select one:
- A key data gathering method in social sciences.
Lived experiences of adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers

Select one:
A literature review should include material that is _____________________.
Select one:
- Directly related to the research questions
Select one:
- Focus group discussion
- Focus group discussion
What is the best research design?
- For beginning researchers, a qualitative research is advisable because the natural setting is accessible.
What kind of research will answer a social inquiry?
The correct answer is: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and
analyzes people's values and perspective through observation.
promote the values that are essential to collaborative work, such as trust, accountability, mutual respect
and fairness.
The correct answer is: Ethical standards
and experience.
"Research is the highest form of adoration" ? Pierre Teilhard de Chardin

The correct answer is: Research is valuing others' work.
and experience.
"I believe in innovation and that the way you get innovation is you fund research and you learn the basic
facts. " -Bill Gates
The correct answer is: Innovation is funding a research and learning its basic facts.
and experience.
"Do research. Feed your talent. Research not only wins the war on cliche, it's the key to victory over fear
and it's cousin, depression." ? Robert McKee
The correct answer is: Research is not only answering questions but also discovering one's talent and
skill
and experience.
"The measure of greatness in a scientific idea is the extent to which it stimulates thought and opens up
new lines of research." ? Paul A.M. Dirac
The correct answer is: Research starts from the stimulated mind and may end to measure of greatness.
and experience.
"Research is formalized curiosity. It is poking and prying with a purpose. " -Zora Neale Hurston
The correct answer is: Research is a formalized curiosity with a purpose.
and experience.
"All I'm armed with is research." -Mike Wallace
The correct answer is: Research can equip anyone.
and experience.
"The more important reason is that the research itself provides an important long-run perspective on
the issues that we face on a day-to-day basis. " -Ben Bernanke
The correct answer is: Research provides an important perspective on our daily issues.
and experience.
Armstrong
The correct answer is: Research is an investigation of the unknown.
and experience.
"Research is about engaging in a conversation with a brand." -Matthew Rhodes
The correct answer is: Research is discussing specific issues.
and experience.
"Find out what's really out there. I never said to be like me, I say be like you and make a difference." -
Marilyn Manson
The correct answer is: Research is finding out there what other's has not seen so you make a difference.
Debriefing should…
The correct answer is: Explain all relevant aspects of research procedures
The correct answer is: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
Researchers can encourage people to volunteer to participate in their project by
The correct answer is: Offering small incentives
Confidentiality is used to protect a participant's privacy by
The correct answer is: Sharing only the information permitted by the participant
The correct answer is: His/her name and identifying characteristics
Research hypotheses can be defined as

The correct answer is: A tentative conclusion or answer to a specific question raised at the beginning of
the investigation.
Which of the following is similar in qualitative and quantitative research?
The correct answer is: Both can be utilized by researchers depending on the use.
Which of the following is not considered to be an example of misconduct in research?
The correct answer is: Fabrication of data
The correct answer is: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with
the research
Confidentiality and anonymity are important to insure limited risk of exposure of information including…
The correct answer is: Illegal behaviors
Normally, in which part of the research report are the hypotheses justified to the reader?
The correct answer is: in the introduction
What is the purpose of informed consent?
The correct answer is: To make sure that participants know exactly what to expect from the research
and to communicate their right to withdraw at any stage.
What scope of research promotes awareness to its audience?
The correct answer is: Education
What scope of research increases the productivity of an institution?
The correct answer is: Administration
Which of the following should not be done by the researchers?
The correct answer is: Prevent mental and physical harm to subjects.
The correct answer is: Falsification of data bank
Which of the following is not an example of qualitative researchers?
The correct answer is: descriptive research

Critical researchers are primarily concerned with
The correct answer is: ethical violations in methodology
Fraud in research comprises
The correct answer is: all of the choices
deadlines?
The correct answer is: Emotions
Among the steps in the research process, which part typically takes the most time of the researcher?
The correct answer is: Collecting data
The correct answer is: a tool for data collection
The correct answer is: conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct
Which of the following statements is wrong?
The correct answer is: Research must give pride to its investigator.
Which of the following is not part of a systematic investigation?
The correct answer is: Getting funding for the research
Researcher's involvement to the research means
The correct answer is: The research that the researcher takes in becomes a personal importance.
Research in daily life has
The correct answer is: Practical value
Research is
The correct answer is: Analyzing and interpreting new information
Which of the following best describes a hypothesis?
The correct answer is: Proposed before a good research question can be developed.
Modern qualitative research can generally involve a detailed study of
The correct answer is: values and judgement
Almost all research plans include the following components:
The correct answer is: a problem statement, a hypothesis, definitions, a literature review, a sample of
subjects, tests or other measuring instruments, a description of procedures, and data analysis.
The correct answer is: fabricator of data
is called
The correct answer is: inductive method
Research is
The correct answer is: Searching for the truth in a scientific way
Who is responsible for ethical behavior?
The correct answer is: the researchers
The correct answer is: Identification of problem
The correct answer is: Social class of the researcher
Research done in natural settings is
The correct answer is: more likely to involve applied research than basic research
What is a major ethical drawback of offering financial incentive for participation?
The correct answer is: It can be coercive.
Research involves exploring what _________________ other researchers have come to.
The correct answer is: conclusion
research.
"The major strength of qualitative approach is the depth to which explorations are conducted, and
descriptions are written, usually resulting in sufficient details for the reader to grasp the idiosyncrasies
of the situation." - Myers
The correct answer is: The importance of context and meaning are the reasons to get the depth of
explorations in qualitative research. The setting of the problem and multiple ways to get data from the
locale will surely help the researcher to explain the unexplainable.
research.
"Formal symbolic representation of qualitative entities is doomed to its rightful place of minor
significance in a world where flowers and beautiful women abound." Albert Einstein
The correct answer is: Qualitative research is everyday life research. The issues to be addressed are in
the beautiful places where problems are least expected to arise such as home, school, church, tourist
spots, etc.
Qualitative design is messy because it involves multi-layered processes.
research.
"The most important advances, the qualitative leaps, are the least predictable. Not even the best
scientists predicted the impact of nuclear physics, and everyday consumer items such as the iPhone
would have seemed magic back in the 1950s." - Martin Rees
The correct answer is: The flexible design of qualitative research is illustrated in the quotation since it
can be modified from modern to conservative or vice-versa depending on the need of the study. The
skill set required of the researcher is the key to interpret unpredictable findings.
Online and mobile technology offer limited enhancements to qualitative research designs.
The correct answer is: False - unique
Qualitative research derives meaning from data of multiple sources.
The qualitative design cannot be modified or changed.
The correct answer is: False - can
Qualitative research can prove the absolute truth.
The correct answer is: False - absence of absolute truth

Education, nursing, sociology, anthropology, information studies, humanities, and health sciences are
the only topics to be used for qualitative research.
Qualitative research uses survey as an instrument for data collection.
The correct answer is: False - observation
Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher including his/her meditation on
daily activities and experiences.
Qualitative research addresses scientific issues.
The correct answer is: False - personal
researchers.
"The worse thing that contemporary qualitative research can imply is that, in this post-modern age,
anything goes. The trick is to produce intelligent, disciplined work on the very edge of the abyss." ?
David Silverman
The correct answer is: The messy analysis and inductive approach is the qualitative characteristic
describe in this quotation. It involves multilayered process which may include anything but the inductive
approach will shape the result into an intelligent and disciplined work that will really make a difference.
"Modernity is a qualitative, not a chronological, category." - Theodor Adorno
The correct answer is: The unique capabilities of online and mobile qualitative research can be under
modern category and they are very much useful in qualitative research.
Multitasking: Helpful or Hurtful
The correct answer is: Applied
Which part of the research paper do you find the following? The weaknesses spring out of the
inaccuracies of the perceptions of the respondents.
The correct answer is: Scope and Delimitations

Ways to Improve School Readiness for Children
Avoid rhetorical questions (answerable by yes/no) for they only elicit either of the two responses and
may result to vagueness.
The correct answer is: Statement of the Problem
Which part of the research paper do you find the following? Possible solutions to existing problems or
improvement to unsatisfactory conditions.
The correct answer is: Significance of the Study
The best quality data that a researcher can get is the double blind test.
Individuals are like scientists who develop theories on how the world and their own activities function.
It is generally used to figure out the changes in a system when a variable in the system changes,
measuring how the end result changes by altering a variable.
how to do it.
It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
It can be defined like mathematical and statistical models which are describing a diverse array of
variables relationship.
Looks at relationships between variables and can establish cause and effect in highly controlled
circumstance.
It is the arrangement of the individual's arrangements of a particular person.
It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one's research study.
The correct answer is: Research Title
The correct answer is: Pure
It must also reflect the variables under study.
The correct answer is: Research Title
Match the general term to its specific topic.
1. Generalization - [OFWs and migration]
2. Theater - [Les Miserables]
3. Texting - [Code switching]
4. Cloning - [Stem cell research]
5. Emotional quotient - [cyberbullying]

6. Anime - [manga]
7. Nuclear power - [Fukushima crisis]
8. Holidays - [Eid ul Fitr]
9. Natural material - [wood]
10. Dogs - [cross breeding]
College Tuition Becoming Prohibitive to Young Adults from Being Successful
This section indicates the specific benefits which will be gained from the results of the study.
A brief statement of the general purpose of the study.
How Do Slime Molds Reproduce

It has multiple possible answers.
information.
Developing algorithm for performing classification based on pixels
The period of the study which includes the time, either months or years, during which the data were
gathered.
The correct answer is: Scope and Delimitations
How to cure Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Theory of Relativity
The rationale, timeliness, and or relevance of the study.
No experimental treatments were given, and no control other than gender was attempted.
The correct answer is: DELIMITATION

The researchers also determined the children's reactions on violent cartoon shows watched on
television.
The correct answer is: SCOPE
This is qualitative research that investigates the daily life of housewives on weekdays.
Some technical terms on information technology were not explained in this study.
This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the policy.
The inputs are only coming from senior high school students of the subject school.
The correct answer is: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research
problem.
How does ethical consideration consider in the scope and delimitation?
The correct answer is: Acknowledge the researcher's co-authors.
Which of the following skill does not belong to a qualitative researcher?
The correct answer is: Technically capable in operating statistical devices.

Limitations of research refer to the
The correct answer is: Restrictions identified by the researcher.
Which of the following subject areas can be covered by qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Anthropology
Why are research questions used in qualitative research?
The correct answer is: All of the above
Willing (2009) argues that many qualitative researchers tend not to work with "variables" that are
defined by the researcher prior to the research project because
The correct answer is: All of the above
The correct answer is: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers
What is the characteristic of a specific question in the statement of the problem?
The correct answer is: It must contribute to the development of the whole research problem or topic.
What is the composition of a research title?
The correct answer is: The title must reflect the variables under study.
Which of the following is NOT strength of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Subjectivity leads to procedural difficulty.
Which sentence belongs to the Scope and Delimitation of a research?
The correct answer is: This study determines the status of irregular second year students enrolled in a
Catholic school.
Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher because
The correct answer is: They are particularly useful for exploring how and why things that have
happened.
Qualitative research proves the absence of the absolute truth because
The correct answer is: The researcher strives to collect information from which some level of useful
knowledge can be gained.
The correct answer is: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday
lives that we lead.
Which of the following is NOT found in the significance of the study?
The correct answer is: Possible recommendations to the research findings.
Scope and delimitation distinguishes the constraints of the study by delimiting the topic in terms of
time, ____________________, availability of subjects, resources and ethical considerations.
The correct answer is: Measurability
The correct answer is: The effectiveness of abstinence programs
What are the types of issues that qualitative research commonly answers?
The correct answer is: Sensitive or personal issues
What contributes to the messiness of qualitative research messy?
The correct answer is: the inductive approach
Which of the following is a good title for a qualitative research?
The correct answer is: The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy
Ghost College in Bangued, Abra
Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Flexible design
What is the purpose of daily life research?
The correct answer is: To study the social interaction in a natural environment.
Daily life research is advisable for students because
The correct answer is: It involves their experience.
The correct answer is: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.
The correct answer is: The participants and the researcher share the "research space".
What is NOT an advantage of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: It measures the validity and reliability of a research instrument.
What is the coverage of ethical considerations in research?
The correct answer is: Human and non-human participants
How can online and mobile communications become advantageous in qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Participants can enrich their text responses by attaching files, images, links to
websites, and voice response.
Independent variable is identified as the _____________ of the research topic.
The correct answer is: Solution
It does not apply statistical test or measurement on data analysis.
The correct answer is: Qualitative
The correct answer is: Make recommendations for further research.
A well-formulated title must state ______________ in a clear, concise, and precise way.
The correct answer is: Variables
What subject involves the everyday life?
The correct answer is: Social science
It is considered valid and reliable.
It is a formal, objective, systematic process in which numerical data are used to obtain information
about the world.
The correct answer is: Quantitative Research
Its hypotheses are tentative and evolving, based on particular study.
What is the use of research hypotheses?

____________ tend to be generally expressed; a ____________ is a specific prediction about what the
readers will find.
The correct answer is: research question; hypothesis
The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their effect on the findings.
It relates to the growth of knowledge, to the verification or validation of existing knowledge or practice
to the development of new knowledge.
Online and mobile qualitative research enhance data integrity by
Hypothesis refers to the
The correct answer is: A tentative statement about the relationship
Restate the statement: Although it might be said that an absolute truth is intangible in all forms of
research, the interactive, personal and interpretive approach in qualitative inquiry extinguishes the
notion that the outcomes represent an absolute truth.
The correct answer is: Absolute truth in non-existing in qualitative inquiry.
What is pure research?
The correct answer is: It develops or refines theories.
Research is
The correct answer is: investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources
Which title uses the qualitative inquiry?
The correct answer is: Eating habits of Preschoolers in Bulacan
In ethical dilemma, conflict of interest happens when
The correct answer is: The researcher participates as a research subject for his/her own study.
Which of the following is the good way to find a good topic?
The correct answer is: Personal experience

Which word was developed from the everyday life of man?
The correct answer is: Social
What is the research experience?
The correct answer is: researcher's personal aspects
Which of the following is a characteristic of a researchable question?
The correct answer is: Unique
Its hypotheses are Specific, testable, stated prior to particular study.
The correct answer is: Quantitative
Which is a good argument in the research hypothesis?
The correct answer is: A dog can be trained to alert a human if the telephone is ringing.
Generalize the beneficiaries of a study.
The correct answer is: The readers are involved in all the studies that they read.
What is the best definition of justice in research?
The correct answer is: Fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants
Its method is limited by variables.
It is also used to uncover trends in thought and opinions, and dive deeper into the problem.
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? The data and the researcher's
interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained (Roller &
Lavraks, 2015).
The correct answer is: Importance of context
What section identifies the people or institution who will benefit from the findings of the study?

It identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
The correct answer is: Scope
Which of the following is a proof of the research experience?
The correct answer is: The daily life activities can be studied.
Which of the following is a product of basic research?
The correct answer is: natural sciences
The correct answer is: No participant involvement
It generates data about human groups in social settings.
The correct answer is: Qualitative Research
It uses measurable data to formulate facts and uncover patterns in research.
The correct answer is: Quantitative
Which of the following is not under qualitative research?
The correct answer is: pure research
What is the basic skill required of any researcher?
The correct answer is: Ability to source data
What is wrong with double meaning question in research?
The correct answer is: It may result to inaccuracies in the attitudes being measured for the question.
Choose a good research problem for a qualitative research?

The correct answer is: A student examined the function of boxing as a way to help adolescents with a
criminal record to deal with aggression
Time expenditure on research is lighter on the planning end and heavier during the analysis phase.
Which of the following is not found in the scope and delimitation?
The correct answer is: Timelessness
Which of the following is the strength of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: This may in turn generate new forms of human action.
Paraphrase the statement: Qualitative approaches are typically used to explore new phenomena and to
capture individuals' thoughts, feelings, or interpretations of meanings and process (Given, 2008).
The correct answer is: It is used to gain an understanding of underlying reasons, opinions, and
motivations of humans.
Which of the following is not a thesis statement?
The correct answer is: The wanton cutting down of trees.
Which of the following statements is true based on the question: which of these is a way to build the
general knowledge of a research topic?
I. Read a good recent textbook chapter.
II. Look for the recent publication before reading a material.
III. Find and use a reader on the topic in question.
The correct answer is: I and III
4TH QUARTER EXAM

Research survey
The correct answer is: Dynamic
Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives Quarterly, vol.
23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
The correct answer is: CMS
Paramount, 2006.
Developmental Psychology, 35,127-145.
2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient-truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016. Ebert,
Roger. Review of An Inconvenient Truth, directed by Davis Guggenheim. rogerebert.com, 1 June 2006,
http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient-truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016
Live concert
Discovery Channel
Textbooks
The correct answer is: Static
Theatrical play
Food blog
The research assistant wrote an anonymous name in the list.
The bibliography is incomplete.
Weinstein, Joshua I. "The Market in Plato'sRepublic." Classical Philology 104 (2009): 439-58.


The researcher manipulated the results of the study.
Research journal
Official website
The correct answer is: Required reading for the program of the study
What should be used in writing a related literature review?
What organizational principle is used to explain ideas according to their respective premise?
The correct answer is: Theme
The correct answer is: APA and MLA
The correct answer is: Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources.
The correct answer is: The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible.
asking for their consent. What research misconduct did he commit?
Which of the following is not an example of dynamic source?
The correct answer is: paintings
The correct answer is: The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature.
Which of the following is the most essential in conducting the review of related literature?
The correct answer is: Examine all potential literature.
Economy Hurt by Decline in English (2006, June 18). The Manila Times, p. A1, A2.
The correct answer is: Outlining the aim of the research
What is the difference of related literature from related studies?
The correct answer is: Related literature are materials usually printed and found in books.
When doing your background reading for your literature review it is important to
The correct answer is: An evaluation of the literature
The correct answer is: The authenticity of the information
The correct answer is: Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and
chapters
The correct answer is: Published accounts of researchers
The correct answer is: Paraphrasing other people's information and citing the source of that
information.
What is missing in the following passage from a student paper?
In 1904, Matisse came under the influence of Signac's use of separated colors in his paintings. This was
called "divisionism." As Spurling says, "Divisionism provided logical grounds for separating the ultimate
goal of painting - order, harmony, emotional stability achieved through rhythmic compositions of form
and color from its traditional dependence on the subject. This was an important idea for Matisse.
The correct answer is: No year of publication beside the cited names
Title: John Adams
The correct answer is: Cullough, D. (2001). John Adams, 703-726. New York : Simon & Schuster
In APA citation style, which of the following is TRUE about quotations?
The correct answer is: They should be used only when absolutely necessary.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review?
The correct answer is: It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data.
What research misconduct is committed when the researcher use the sentences from published medical
literature with minor modification in word structure without attribution?
The correct answer is: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
The correct answer is: Key word searches
In MLA, which of the following is the correct way to cite a website in a text?
The correct answer is: Both choices are correct
study?
The correct answer is: It is limited to a brief preliminary search so as to avoid bias from the researcher.
The correct answer is: Narrative Research
hospitalized patients. Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations
were conducted. The basic psychological process identified by the researchers was labeled "optimizing
personal control to facilitate emotional comfort." Personal control referred to the ability of patients to
influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation that affected the
physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of emotional comfort.
The correct answer is: Grounded Theory Research

background from the rural Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a
sociocultural context. Findings reveal how Mexican-background students demonstrate different literacy
practices in their homes and communities than those acknowledged at school. Results indicate that the
lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic responsibilities and
potential of the Mexican-background students.
The correct answer is: high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest
Interview Segment
reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know
though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any
authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am
not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to
do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me
feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do.
The homeless are also the same beggars asking for money on the street.
hospitalized patients. Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations
were conducted. The basic psychological process identified by the researchers was labeled "optimizing
personal control to facilitate emotional comfort." Personal control referred to the ability of patients to
influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation that affected the
physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of emotional comfort.
The correct answer is: hospitalized patients
linked to life course events and experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults
in upstate New York, particularly 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes. A conceptual
model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity represented participants' confidence in
meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and circumstances.
Most participants had faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social
support, roles, health conditions). Participants linked strong food management skills with high levels of
food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial circumstances or the absence of strong
standards
The correct answer is: Narrative Research
experiences affect aged peoples' sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted
with 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82, recruited from a retired peoples' organization,
Church organizations, and from the working population. The results showed that generally the
body and self, and finding ways to feel at home in this changed situation.
The correct answer is: 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82
The correct answer is: Action Research
The correct answer is: staff of one hospice and one nursing home
Common people are powerless to help the homeless.
experiences affect aged peoples' sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted
with 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82, recruited from a retired peoples' organization,
Church organizations, and from the working population. The results showed that generally the
body and self, and finding ways to feel at home in this changed situation.
The correct answer is: Phenomenological Research
Homelessness is hopeless to be solved.
linked to life course events and experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults
in upstate New York, particularly 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes. A conceptual
model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity represented participants' confidence in
meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and circumstances.
Most participants had faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social
support, roles, health conditions). Participants linked strong food management skills with high levels of
food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial circumstances or the absence of strong
standards.
The correct answer is: 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes
Not all homeless are impoverished.
contended that, unfortunately, the mother's experience is often the hidden dimension in the family.
Unstructured interviews were conducted with 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents. Six themes
were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection, feeling alone in the struggle,
Being homeless is a choice and individual decision.
background from the rural Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a
sociocultural context. Findings reveal how Mexican-background students demonstrate different literacy
practices in their homes and communities than those acknowledged at school. Results indicate that the
lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic responsibilities and
potential of the Mexican-background students.
The correct answer is: Ethnographic Research
Homelessness is a perennial global problem.
The correct answer is: 8 nurses
French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students.
The correct answer is: female senior students
French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students.
Being homeless is a permanent social status.
Gance-Cleveland (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) examined the features, critical attributes, processes, and
benefits of school based support groups for adolescents with an addicted parent. Participant
observations were conducted weekly at two high schools over one semester. Interviews were conducted
with program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators, and participants. School-
based support group participation was found to enhance self-knowledge and led to self-care and self-
healing.
The correct answer is: program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators
The government is the only one who can help the homeless.
Edwards (2007) explored the process of college men's gender identity development. In order to try to
meet these expectations and be seen as men, participants described putting on a performance that was
like wearing a mask or "putting my man face on." This process included learning societal expectations of
them as men, as well as specific cultural group expectations. The men in this study were all aware that
they did not neatly fit behind the mask, either as a result of personal characteristics or social identities.
Their resulting insecurities led them to wearing the mask both consciously and unconsciously so that
they would be seen as men by society.
The correct answer is: Grounded Theory Research
Edwards (2007) explored the process of college men's gender identity development. In order to try to
meet these expectations and be seen as men, participants described putting on a performance that was
like wearing a mask or "putting my man face on." This process included learning societal expectations of
them as men, as well as specific cultural group expectations. The men in this study were all aware that
they did not neatly fit behind the mask, either as a result of personal characteristics or social identities.
Their resulting insecurities led them to wearing the mask both consciously and unconsciously so that
they would be seen as men by society.
The correct answer is: college men
contended that, unfortunately, the mother's experience is often the hidden dimension in the family.
Unstructured interviews were conducted with 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents. Six themes
were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection, feeling alone in the struggle,
The correct answer is: 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents
Gance-Cleveland (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) examined the features, critical attributes, processes, and
benefits of school based support groups for adolescents with an addicted parent. Participant
observations were conducted weekly at two high schools over one semester. Interviews were conducted
with program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators, and participants. School-
based support group participation was found to enhance self-knowledge and led to self-care and self-
healing.
The correct answer is: Ethnographic Research
The correct answer is: Physical behavior and gestures
"Good morning. I'm a health officer in our barangay and I also belong to the medical research team of
our community."
"Can you describe how you first became aware of your sickness?"
Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in sub-populations of interest to the study, such
as profession, social status, socioeconomic class, religion, or ethnicity
The correct answer is: Appearance
What do you feel when people admire your work?
The correct answer is: Open
Would you like to continue that kind of relationship?
The correct answer is: Mapping
What individuals' preferences concerning personal space suggest about their relationships
The correct answer is: Personal space
The correct answer is: Leading
The correct answer is: Open
The characteristics of these individuals; what differentiates them from others; whether people consult
them or they approach other people; whether they seem to be strangers or well known by others
present.
The correct answer is: People who stand out
"One area of this research is to record particular challenges that cancer patients face after
chemotherapy. Could you tell me your experience?"
The correct answer is: Human traffic
Organizational chart of the institution being studied
The correct answer is: Graphics
Another way to find themes is to look for local terms that may sound unfamiliar or are used in unfamiliar
ways.
The correct answer is: Indigenous category
concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. She began
by looking at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases, paying particular
attention to informants' use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about marriage.
Nan, one of her informants, says that "marriage is a manufactured product." This popular metaphor
indicates that Nan sees marriages as something that has properties, like strength and staying power, and
as something that requires work to produce. Some marriages are "put together well," while others "fall
apart" like so many cars or toys or washing machines.
The correct answer is: metaphors and analogies
The correct answer is: Compare and contrast
Look carefully at words and phrases that indicate relationships among things.
The correct answer is: Connectors
The changing image of public transportation
The correct answer is: Pictures
The approach is based on a powerful trick most of us learned in kindergarten and requires paper and
scissors.
The correct answer is: Cutting and Sorting

The object is to look for metaphors in rhetoric and deduce the schemas, or underlying principles, that
might produce patterns in those metaphors.
The correct answer is: Metaphors and analogies
Sherzer (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) presents a detailed analysis of a two-hour performance by Chief
Olopinikwa of a traditional San Blas Kuna chant. The chant was recorded in 1970. Like many linguistic
anthropologists, Sherzer had taught an assistant, Alberto Campos, to use a phonetic transcription
system. After the chant, Sherzer asked Campos, to transcribe and translate the tape. Campos put Kuna
and Spanish on left- and right-facing pages. By studying Campos's translation against the original Kuna,
Sherzer was able to pick out certain recurrent features. Campos left out the chanted utterances of the
responding chief (usually something like "so it is"), which turned out to be markers for verse endings in
the chant. Campos also left out so-called framing words and phrases (like "Thus" at the beginning of a
verse and "it is said, so I pronounce" at the end of a verse). These contribute to the line and verse
structure of the chant. Finally, "instead of transposing metaphors and other figurative and allusive
language into Spanish" Campos "explains them in his translation".
The correct answer is: transitions
Another linguistic approach is to look for naturally occurring shifts in thematic content.
The correct answer is: Transitions
It is based on a simple observation: if you want to understand a concept, then look at how it is used.
The correct answer is: Key words in context (KWIC)
In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011 ever-
married women, gathered social and economic histories from 150 families. She conducted in-depth
interviews with present and formal officials (known as cadres), and collected documentary evidence
from local newspapers, journals and other sources. Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was largely
constrained from asking direct questions about resistance, the informal record of field notes, interview
transcripts, and questionnaire data contains few overt challenges to state policy." Greenhalgh
concludes, however, that their conversations with the researchers, both peasants and cadres made
strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. Cadres, for example were loathe
to comment on birth-planning campaigns; peasant women were reluctant to talk about sterilization.
These silences form one part of the unofficial record of birth planning in the villages. More explicit
protests were registered in informal conversations. From these interactions emerged a sense of
profound distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance that was politically risky and a
compliance that violated the norms of Chinese culture and of practical reason.
The correct answer is: searching for missing information
Geographic map of the study area

The correct answer is: Pictures
Results rely heavily on words, and often quotations from those studied are included in the document.
impossible.
Bill and Jessica were almost done taking turns choosing the players for their teams. It was Jessica's turn
to choose, and only Kurt was left. Jessica said, "Kurt."
The correct answer is: Jessica was pleased to have Kurt on her team.
You just opened a bag of potato chips and poured some juice in a glass when the phone rang. You went
out of the kitchen to answer it. When you returned after a couple of minutes, you found the split juice
and pieces of chips on the floor. Your little sister was teary-eyed and said, "I'm sorry. It was an accident."
The correct answer is: Your sister decided to get her own snacks.
draw the conclusion
Conclusions should refer only to the population, area, or subject of the study.
homes. They did not meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following:
Springer's first wife was named Linda and his second wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty
and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had owned a dog named Toy. Their
favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law enforcement after high
school. They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same
brand of cookies. (adapted from http://www.gedonlineclass.net)
What conclusion can you draw about the two men in the article?
The correct answer is: Even though these men were raised differently, they like many of the same
things.
References can be the same as bibliography.
Reference list allows readers to locate and use the sources and copy the ones cited.
The readers must be informed why this research counts and why is it important.
The correct answer is: He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
homes. They did not meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following:
Springer's first wife was named Linda and his second wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty
and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had owned a dog named Toy. Their
favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law enforcement after high
school. They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same
brand of cookies. (adapted from http://www.gedonlineclass.net)
What conclusion can you draw about twins based on this article?
The correct answer is: Identical twins have a lot in common.
"English has been dubbed as the "language of the world". Over a billion people in the world have
considered English as their second language. With over 2,500 OFW's leaving the country everyday to
different parts of the globe, Filipinos are expected to arm themselves with English to communicate with
the world."(Excerpt from "Nursing the Carabao English",in Yu& Plata, 2006)
The correct answer is: Communicating in English is an important tool for Filipinos who want to work
abroad.
Maria is watching too much television. A toddler shouldn't be spending hours staring blankly at a screen.
Worse yet, some of her wild behavior have been inspired by those awful cartoons she watches.
The correct answer is: Some cartoons are not good for Maria.
The correct answer is: We should use given information in inferring ideas.
The correct answer is: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
The best research design is the qualitative research design.
The correct answer is: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
Recommendations should aim to solve or help solve problems discovered in the investigation.
Arrange the following parts of the research paper by numbering them chronologically from 1 to 10.
Methodology
Significance of the Study
Conclusions and Recommendations
Introduction
Review of Related Literature
Title
References
Statement of the Problem
Presentation and Interpretation of Data

Scope and Delimitation
Which of the following is the content of conclusion?
The correct answer is: A judgment or final decision
What research method allows researchers to obtain a detailed description of social settings or event in
order to situate people's behavior within their own socio-cultural context?
The correct answer is: Observation
What is literature in research?
The correct answer is: Memoing, verification and credibility
The correct answer is: APA format
Living with the patients with Schizophrenia and their families
What research design is used when a theory is developed from data generated by a series of
observations or interviews principally involving an inductive approach?
The correct answer is: Grounded theory
The correct answer is: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not
directly contained in the report.
The correct answer is: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC)
The correct answer is: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic,
supportable, and valid.
Which of the following research questions should NOT be answered using action research methods?
The correct answer is: Is parent attitude toward school uniforms related to their socioeconomic status?
The correct answer is: Recommendations should be logical and valid.
What data collection procedure is used when analyzing and communicating the social life through
photos?
The correct answer is: Visual data
The correct answer is: Lying by fabrication
What is the grounded theory research design?
The correct answer is: The researcher generates a general explanation (a theory) of a process, and
action, or an interaction shaped by the views of a large number of participants.
Which organizational principle is used to connect the research topic to different backgrounds (i.e.
political, methodological, geographical, literary)?
The correct answer is: Sector
__________________ is the thing (person, place, event, etc.) that is selected for inclusion in the study.
The correct answer is: Sampling unit
The correct answer is: Research design
The correct answer is: Focus group discussion

Which of the following is an example of falsification in research?
The correct answer is: Manipulated data from the findings
use?
The correct answer is: Observation
Why do researchers need to be knowledgeable about research misconduct?
The correct answer is: The Life and Works of Rizal
The correct answer is: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English grammar & composition part 1. Manila: CKC
Publication
The correct answer is: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
The research project is
The correct answer is: A scientific endeavor
A researcher would like to display the geographic map of his research population. What mode for
displaying qualitative data should he use?
Data gathering techniques are part of

The correct answer is: The methodological framework
What category of information in participant observation is concerned about clothing, age, gender,
physical appearance of respondents?
The correct answer is: Appearance
The correct answer is: Mapping questions
The correct answer is: Establish an initial rapport
What is the best research design?
The correct answer is: For beginning researchers, a qualitative research is advisable because the natural
setting is accessible.
A study of the Italians and the health benefits of the Mediterranean lifestyle
What is pawing in context analysis?
The correct answer is: Marking the texts up with different colored highlighter pens.
The correct answer is: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
Which of the following is qualitative data analysis?
Select one:
b. Involves the uncovering information relating to languages within cultural contexts.
c. Involves seeking meaning and developing interpretive explanation through the process of feedback.
d. Needs to maintain a detailed and critically reflective diary record and be prepared to subject
himself/herself to regular periods of debriefing with a supervisor or colleague.
Feedback

What is the basis of research conclusion?
The correct answer is: Data results
Student awareness in global warming
The correct answer is: all of the choices
The correct answer is: Focus group discussion
The correct answer is: Conclusion
The correct answer is: The layout of the site
that was taken?
The correct answer is: Action research
The correct answer is: Presenting the data in tabular form
Which of the following should include the informed consent during an experimentation?
RSCH G11
interest
Answer: False
Select one: a. Involvement b. Research Adventure c. Emotions d. Knowledge
published yet.
instruments
-Research is

of the Fruit Fly
Answer: PURE
Answer: PURE
Answer: APPLIED

Answer: APA
Mel Gibson)
Answer: 4

Answer: OPEN
-Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned.
Answer: 5
how to do it.
Answer: False
Answer: False
deadlines?
Answer: Emotions
statement is called
Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's

Answer: true
Answer: true
Answer: False
Answer: PURE
university.
Answer: SCOPE
Answer: True
Answer: True

lead.
Answer: True
Answer: Fabrication
(2013)
Answer: False
Answer: APA
(2013)
Answer: False
Answer: 8 nurses
Answer: Plagiarism
Answer: Chronology
don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So
come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do.
Answer: True
Answer: MLA
Answer: Syndicated
Answer: MLA
-Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature?
Answer: 5
Answer: True
answer.
answer.
for impossible.
Answer: False
Answer: 2
correct answer.

correct answer.
Answer: Graphics
Answer: 6
Answer: LEADING
Answer: true
problems.
answer.
Answer: MAPPING
correct answer.

Answer: Case study
Answer: Qualitative
Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and
valid.

use?
Answer: Observation
Answer: Static

Answer: textbook

Answer: Rather than
Answer: Interview
Answer: APA format

that was taken?
Answer: Conclusion
Interdisciplinary discussion becomes more comprehensive through this principle.
A: sector
Paraphrasing must be done properly to avoid plagiarism. What is paraphrasing?
Drinking to cope is very common among college students and is related to much higher levels of alcohol
consumption, episodes of heavy drinking, and levels of both negative and positive alcohol related
consequences" (p. 486). Levenson and Park (2002)
A: Levenson and Park (2002) found that drinking to cope is very common among college students and it
is related to much higher levels of alcohol consumption and related consequences.
DISS LA1
Question 1
The purpose of social science is to
Select one:
a. to study the behavior of wildlife and how they affect the en
b. no correct answer
c. study systematically all aspects of human behavior and the human condition, using a methodology
borrowed from the physical sciences wherever possible.
Question 2
Each newly born human being enters a social world which has been shaped by those born previously
and is continually reshaped by each new generation.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 3
This branch of science deals with the physical world.
Select one:
a. Natural Sciences
b. Humanities
Question 4
A method of procedure which has characterized natural science since the 17th century, consisting in
systematic observation, measurement, and experiment, and the formulation, testing, and modification
of hypotheses.
Select one:
a. Scientific Experiment
b. Scientific Study
c. Scientific Observation
d. Scientific Method
Question 5
Social science is the study of
Select one:
a. society and animal behavior
b. animal and human behavior
c. society and human behavior
d. no correct answer
DISS SQ1
Question 1
Each newly born human being enters a __________ that has been shaped by those born previously and
is continually reshaped by each new generation. (Perry & Perry, 2003)
Select one:
a. crippled world
b. real world
c. natural world
d. social world
Question 2
Which discipline doES social sciences rely heavily upon when it comes to matters of methodology?
Select one:
a. Life Science
b. Psychology
c. Physical Science
d. Mathematics
Question 3
The purpose of the social sciences is
Select one:
a. is to create a new field specifically for the study of society
b. is to study systematically all aspects of human behavior/condition
c. is to inject an intellectual culture among the people
d. is to examine the creativity of the human mind
Question 4
Which of the following is NOT a discipline of the social sciences?
Select one:
a. economics
b. none of the above
c. philosophy
d. history
e. political science
Question 5
Social science is the study of ___________.

Select one:
a. mind and human behavior
b. society and cultural influences
c. society and human behavior
d. human behavior and politics
Question 6
The entry of the human person into the world of societies is something that can be avoided.
Select one:
a. Perhaps
b. True
c. False
Question 7
What do all the disciplines within the social sciences have in common?
Select one:
a. passion for knowledge
b. interest in human behavior
c. scientific method
d. source of educated insights
Question 8
Social science is a unified science consisting of only one discipline.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 9
How is social science different from social philosophy?
Select one:
a. interest in society
b. history and origins
c. spelling
d. the inclusion of the scientific method
Question 10
This social world was not always understood. But in the last 200 years, disciplines have originated with
the goal of examining it with the exact same ____________ that the sciences use.
Select one:
a. concepts and theories
b. method and principle
c. scientific methodology
d. organization
DISS LA2
Question 1
True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: Social Science is the study of
society and human behavior.
Answer: T
Question 2
True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: The purpose of social science is
to study systematically all aspects of human behavior and of the human condition,
without having to borrow the methodology used by the people practicing physical
sciences.
Answer: F
Question 3
True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: The Natural Sciences is divided
into two groups.
Answer: T
Question 4
True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: The factor unique to the social
sciences compared with the disciplines under Natural Sciences is its focus on society
accompanied by the use of a scientific method that, in a way, becomes a unity for both
the natural and the humanities.
Answer: T
Question 5
True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: What makes social science a
science is its determination to use the scientific method to study specific aspects of
human behavior in the social world.
Answer: T
DISS SQ2
Question 1
Social science is, in a way, a unity of __________.
Select one:
a. physical science and the humanities
b. philosophy and psychology
c. art and science
d. natural science and the humanities
Question 2
Which of these disciplines is part of the humanities?

Select one:
a. Biology
b. Psychology
c. Philosophy
d. Economics
Question 3
The __________ is learning or literature concerned with human culture.
Select one:
a. humanities
b. literature
c. work of art
d. museum
Question 4
This is what makes social science a science.
Select one:
a. structure and internal organization
b. parallel words
c. focus on society
d. none of the above
Question 5
The Natural Sciences is a branch of science that deals with the _________.
Select one:
a. social world
b. supernatural world
c. physical world
d. whole world
Question 6
What makes social science unique from natural science and the humanities?
Select one:
a. emphasis on the role of the community in fostering human life
b. focus on human culture and everyday life
c. inclusion of economics into its study of society
d. focus on society accompanied with scientific method
Question 7
The Natural Sciences are divided into two groups:
Select one:
a. rocket and physical science
b. life and meteorological science
c. physical and life science

d. life and death science
Question 8
Which of the following is/are aspects covered by the social sciences?
Select one:
a. specific aspects of human behavior
b. society
c. life
d. society and specific aspects of human behavior
Question 9
Science may be briefly defined as a method using a system of rational inquiry dependent
on the ___________.
Select one:
a. preference of the researcher

b. careful analysis of data and statistics
c. system applied to it
d. empirical testing of facts
Question 10
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural science?
Select one:
a. chemistry
b. biology
c. political science
d. geology
e. all of the choices
DISS LQ1
Question 1
This consists in systematic observation, measurement, and experiment, and the
formulation, testing, and modification of hypotheses.
Select one:
a. Linguistic Analysis
b. Statistics
c. Laboratory Experimentation
d. Scientific Method
Question 2
What does all the disciplines within the social sciences have in common?
Select one:
a. source of educated insights
b. scientific method
c. passion for knowledge

d. interest in human behavior
Question 3
Which of these disciplines is part of the humanities?
Select one:
a. Biology
b. Philosophy
c. Economics
d. Psychology
Question 4
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural science?
Select one:
a. chemistry
b. all of the above

c. geology
d. biology
e. political science
Question 5
When was the scientific method first created and applied?
Select one:
a. 12th century
b. 16th century
c. 45 B.C.E.
d. 17th century
Question 6
The life sciences are also called:
Select one:
a. biological science
b. natural science
c. pre-medical science
d. evolutionary science
Question 7
The Natural Sciences is a branch of science that deals with the _______.
Select one:
a. physical world
b. supernatural world
c. social world
d. whole world
Question 8
Science may be briefly defined as a method using a system of rational inquiry dependent
on the _______.
Select one:
a. empirical testing of facts
b. careful analysis of data and statistics
c. preference of the researcher
d. system applied to it
Question 9
The following are disciplines of the humanities except:
Select one:
a. Political Science
b. History
c. Geology
d. Literature
Question 10
Which discipline does social sciences rely heavily upon when it comes to matters of
methodology?
Select one:
a. Mathematics
b. Physical Science
c. Psychology
d. Life Science
Question 11
Which of the following is NOT a discipline of the social sciences?
Select one:
a. political science
b. philosophy
c. none of the above
d. economics
e. history
Question 12
What makes social sciences “social”?
Select one:
a. society as its subject
b. society as creating the science
c. both choices
Question 13
The purpose of the social sciences

Select one:
a. is to create a new field specifically for the study of society
b. is to study systematically all aspects of human behavior/condition
c. is to examine the creativity of the human mind
d. is to inject an intellectual culture among the people
Question 14
Which aspect of society does social science concern itself with?
Select one:
a. literacy of the people
b. economic stature
c. all aspects of society including human behavior
d. influence of science
Question 15
Each newly born human being enters a ________ that has been shaped by those born
previously and is continually reshaped by each new generation. (Perry & Perry, 2003)
Select one:
a. real world
b. social world
c. crippled world
d. natural world
Question 16
Social Philosophy and Social Sciences are one and the same.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The _________ is learning or literature concerned with human culture.
Select one:
a. museum
b. humanities
c. work of art
d. literature
Question 18
Which of the following is/are aspects covered by the social sciences?

Select one:
a. specific aspects of human behavior
b. society
c. specific aspects of human behavior and society
d. life
Question 19
The entry of the human person into the world of societies is something that can be
avoided.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
c. Perhaps
Question 20
Social science is a unified science consisting of only one discipline.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 21
This social world was not always understood. But in the last 200 years, disciplines have
originated with the goal of examining it with the exact same ________ that the sciences
use.
Select one:
a. scientific methodology
b. organization
c. concepts and theories
d. method and principle
Question 22
The Natural Sciences are divided into two groups:
Select one:
a. life and meteorological science
b. life and death science
c. physical and life science
d. rocket and physical science
Question 23
Social science is the study of _________.
Select one:
a. mind and human behavior
b. human behavior and politics
c. society and cultural influences
d. society and human behavior

Question 24
Politics is the only power that social science emphasizes.
Select one:
a. False
b. True.
Question 25
What makes social science unique from natural science and the humanities?
Select one:
a. emphasis on the role of the community in fostering human life
b. inclusion of economics into its study of society
c. focus on human culture and everyday life
d. focus on society accompanied with scientific method

Question 26
This is what makes social science a science.
Select one:
a. parallel words
b. structure and internal organization
c. focus on society
d. none of the above
Question 27
Social science is, in a way, a unity of _________.
Select one:
a. art and science
b. philosophy and psychology
c. physical science and the humanities

d. natural science and the humanities
Question 28
How is social science different from social philosophy?
Select one:
a. history and origins
b. spelling
c. interest in society
d. the inclusion of the scientific method
Question 29
Correct
Is sociology the same with the social sciences?
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 30
To which discipline does physics fall under:
Select one:
a. Medicine
b. Social Science
c. Humanities
d. Natural Science
DISS LA3
Question 1
True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: Anthropology combines natural
science and information gathered from the social sciences to uncover the relationships
between biological traits acquired socially by living in groups.

Answer: T
Question 2
Fill in the blanks: the word Anthropology comes from two ancient Greek words -
anthropos and logos, which means ____ and _____ respectively.
Select one:
a. society and study
b. human being and study
c. animal being and study
d. study and society
Question 3
This is a social science that seeks to understand human origins and adaptation,and the
diversity of cultures and worldviews.
Answer: ANTHROPOLOGY
Question 4
True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: As social science is concerned
with all aspects of society and human behavior, it is not only composed of one science or
one subject.
Answer: T
Question 5
He is considered the father of modern anthropology.
Answer: FRANZ BOAS
DISS SQ3
Question 1
Social Science is not only composed of one science or one subject. Since it concerns itself
with all aspects of society and human behavior, it is naturally divided into __________,
all of which share an interest in human behavior.
Select one:
a. branches
b. disciplines
c. straws
d. theories
Question 2
Geography is considered to be both a natural science and a social science.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 3
“Language is an everyday occurrence in society, and one cannot possibly communicate
with individuals within society without the usage of language.”
Select one:
a. Perhaps
b. True
c. False
Question 4
Anthropology comes from two Greek words:
Select one:
a. anthrax and logia
b. anthros and logos
c. anthropos and logos
d. anthros and logia
Question 5
Linguistics is the scientific study of:
Select one:
a. human language
b. grammar and composition
c. source of educated insights
d. culinary art
Question 6
Geography is concerned with:
Select one:
a. the population
b. human behavior and politics
c. rocks and sediments
d. structure of the planet earth
Question 7
Which of the following is NOT a branch of linguistics?
Select one:
a. syntax
b. semantics
c. morphology
d. diction
Question 8
For John and Erna Perry, an important part of political science is _________, which tries
to uncover patterns of behavior among the nations of the world.
Select one:
a. stability and unity
b. economic growth
c. proper distribution of power
d. international relations
Question 9
______________ is a study of the past, one that describes/narrates and analyzes human
activities in the past and the changes that these had undergone.
Select one:
a. philosophy
b. economics
c. political science
d. history
Question 10
This discipline probes the need for an institution to maintain order, make decisions, and
provide for defense.
Select one:
a. sociology
b. political science
c. peace and order

d. military science
DISS LA4
Question 1
He was one of the proponents of proto-anthropology.
Answer: HERODOTUS OF HALICARNASSUS
Question 2
The father of modern Economics.
Select one:
b. Herodotus of Halicarnassus
c. Franz Boas
d. Adam Smith
Question 3
Which of the following is NOT true about Economics?
Select one:
a. It deals with resources, and how the proper management of these sources will lead to
the prosperity of society as a unit.
b. it is a social science that deals with the optimum allocation of scarce resources among
its alternatives to satisfy the unlimited human wants and needs of the people.
c. Unlike other discplines, which are more inclined to discover the very ideals that
enable society to function, Economics limits itself to that of the mateial component
of the society.
d. It is a discipline that was only established recently,because our ancestors did not
believe in the value of private property.
Question 4
This refers to the lack of proper resources for the needs of a person or a group of
people.
Answer: SCARCITY
Question 5
Economics comes from the Greek word ta oikonomika, meaning
Select one:
a. science of the household
b. science of the coin
c. science of the academy
d. science of the government
DISS SQ4
Question 1
__________ is considered the father of modern anthropology.
Select one:
a. Plato
b. Karl Marx
c. Keira Knightley
d. Franz Boas
Question 2
The Greek word politika means:
Select one:
a. affairs of the cities
b. rule of law
c. governance
d. management
Question 3
Herodotus wrote which work that earned him the title of the father of history?
Select one:
a. De Natura
b. A History of Time
c. The Histories
d. Greek History
Question 4
In other words, political science as a discipline found its roots in Ancient Greek
_________, that ultimately led to its continuous development in other major
civilizations.
Select one:
a. philosophy
b. rhetoric
c. cuisine
d. drama
Question 5
Eriksen and Nielsen note that one particular Greek, namely Herodotus of Halicarnassus
(c. 484–425 BCE), was one of the proponents of what is called a ___________, or the
prelude to modern anthropology as we know today.

Select one:
a. scientific anthropology
b. philosophical anthropology
c. proto-anthropology
d. social philosophy
Question 6
Which of these individuals is the father of modern linguistics?
Select one:
a. C.S. Peirce
b. Bertrand Russell
c. Ludwig Wittgenstein
d. Noam Chomsky
Question 7
“The most concrete origin, however, can be found in Ancient China with the writings of
Fan Li (also known as Tao Zhu Gong) who wrote a __________ for businessmen. (Wang,
2012)
Select one:
a. novel
b. book
c. law of Chinese trade
d. golden laws for businessmen
Question 8
What is one of the most notable proponents of the study of geography, and is still
recognized today as an intellectual treasure? This came from 600 BCE in Babylon.
Select one:
a. Code of Hammurabi
b. Imago Res
c. Imago Dei
d. Imago Mundi
Question 9
_____________ is considered the father of geography. He is known as the first person to
actually use the term.
Select one:
a. Eleanor
b. Euripedes
c. Eratosthenes
d. Erasmus
Question 10
“The history of linguistics is a branch of intellectual history, for it deals with the history
of ideas – ideas about language – and directly with language itself.”
Select one:
a. False
b. True
DISS LQ2
Question 1
What does the word scarcity mean?
Select one:
a. lesion or wound
b. metropolitan
c. amusement park
d. lack of resources
Question 2
__________ is considered the father of geography. He is known as the first person to
actually use the term.

Select one:
a. Eleanor
b. Erasmus
c. Eratosthenes
d. Euripedes
Question 3
Which of the following is NOT a branch of linguistics?
Select one:
a. semantics
b. morphology
c. syntax
d. diction
Question 4
What is one of the most notable proponents of the study of geography, and is still
recognized today as an intellectual treasure? This came from 600 BCE in Babylon.
Select one:
a. Imago Res
b. Imago Dei
c. Code of Hammurabi
d. Imago Mundi
Question 5
Eriksen and Nielsen note that one particular Greek, namely Herodotus of Halicarnassus
(c. 484–425 BCE), was one of the proponents of what is called a _______, or the prelude
to modern anthropology as we know today.
Select one:
a. philosophical anthropology
b. proto-anthropology
c. social philosophy
d. scientific anthropology
Question 6
According to Ajan Raghunatan, “Plato believed that body and mind are two united
entities and mind could exist even after death.”
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 7
Sociology comes from the Latin word _________ meaning “companion” with the Greek
word _______ which means “study” or “word.”
Select one:
a. socia and logos
b. socialus and logia

c. socius and logos
d. socius and loguis
Question 8
Select one:
a. the population
b. rocks and sediments
c. human behavior and politics
Question 9
Select one:
a. management
b. affairs of the cities
c. governance
d. rule of law
Question 10
Linguistics is the scientific study of:
Select one:
a. source of educated insights
b. grammar and composition
c. human language
d. culinary art
Question 11
Anthropology comes from two Greek words:
Select one:
a. anthros and logia
b. anthros and logos
c. anthropos and logos
d. anthrax and logia
Question 12
For John and Erna Perry, an important part of political science is _________, which tries
to uncover patterns of behavior among the nations of the world.
Select one:
a. economic growth
b. international relations
c. stability and unity
d. proper distribution of power
Question 13
_________ is considered the father of modern anthropology.
Select one:
a. Karl Marx
b. Franz Boas
c. Keira Knightley
d. Plato
Question 14
This discipline probes the need for an institution to maintain order, make decisions, and
provide for defense.
Select one:
b. military science
c. sociology
d. peace and order
Question 15
Jean-Jacques Rousseau wrote which political science work?
Select one:
a. The Social Contract
b. Les Histoires
c. Émile
d. On the Nature of Social Structures
Question 16
Social Science is not only composed of one science or one subject. Since it concerns itself
with all aspects of society and human behavior, it is naturally divided into __________,
all of which share an interest in human behavior.
Select one:
a. theories
b. disciplines
c. branches
d. straws
Question 17
As John and Erna Perry put it, “The discipline does attempt to study systematically a
sequence of related events – or a number of such sequences – for the purpose of
learning about, verifying, and establishing meaningful relationships among them.” (Perry
& Perry, 2003)
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 18
“Language is an everyday occurrence in society, and one cannot possibly communicate
with individuals within society without the usage of language.”

Select one:
a. Perhaps
b. False
c. True
Question 19
__________ is a study of the past, one that describes/narrates and analyzes human
activities in the past and the changes that these had undergone.
Select one:
b. economics
c. history
d. philosophy
Question 20
“Economists do not perceive people as complex ____________.” -Wilkins, 1979
Select one:
a. rational animals
b. social builders
c. systems of thought
d. social creatures
Question 21
The chief concern of political science is __________.
Select one:
a. distribution of goods
b. study of power
c. legislature
d. government officials
Question 22
In other words, political science as a discipline found its roots in Ancient Greek
____________, that ultimately led to its continuous development in other major
civilizations.
Select one:
a. drama
b. philosophy
c. cuisine
d. rhetoric
Question 23
Which of these individuals is the father of modern linguistics?
Select one:
a. C.S. Peirce
b. Noam Chomsky
c. Ludwig Wittgenstein
d. Bertrand Russell
Question 24
Economics comes from the Greek ta oikonomika meaning “____________“ Oikonomika
itself comes from the Greek word, oikos meaning --- or ---.
Select one:
a. science of the factory
b. science of the household
c. science of the domain
d. structure of the home
Question 25
____________ is the study of populations, including increases and decreases in size,
composition, age grouping, and future trends. (Perry & Perry, 2003).
Select one:
a. philosophy
b. demography
c. statistics
d. applied mathematics
Question 26
Herodotus wrote which work that earned him the title of the father of history?
Select one:
a. Greek History
b. The Histories
c. De Natura
d. A History of Time
Question 27
Geography is considered to be both a natural science and a social science.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 28
History can be derived from two Greek terms: ________ meaning “learned or wise
man,” and ________ meaning “finding out.”
Select one:
a. histōr and histōria
b. logos and histor
c. histor and historesis
d. historianus
Question 29
“The history of linguistics is a branch of intellectual history, for it deals with the history
of ideas – ideas about language – and directly with language itself.”
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Commented [C1]:
DISS LA5
Question 1
According to Karl Marx, the proletariat refers to the
Select one:
a. the government
b. working class
c. owners of production in society
d. academics
Question 2
Which of the following is NOT true about capitalism?
Select one:
a. It is a method for analyzing the language, narratives, and cultural phenomena that
uncovers basic elements that form structures.
b. It is and economic and political system in which a country's trade and industry are
controlled by private owners for profit, rather than by the state.
c. It involves mass production, for mass production develops into mass money.
d. Its evolution dates back to at least the 17th century, when private ownership
overcome the standard "one for all, all for one," system of ownership in older
societies.
Question 3
This level of alienation occurs when the production becomes the only focus that the
worker should have. Personal issues and development, as well as experiences which
could enhance human nature, end up neglected for more production.
Select one:
a. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature
b. Alienation of Worker from Products
c. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers
d. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process
Question 4
The Parsonian theory is also known as
Select one:
a. no correct answer
b. Structural Democracy
c. Structural-Marxism
d. Structural-Functionalism
Question 5
This theory became the first and foremost response to the despotic rule of capitalism.
Select one:
a. Anthropology
b. Alientation
c. Structural-Functionalism
d. Marxism
DISS SQ5
Question 1
That is why apart from the disciplines, the social sciences have what we call the
dominant approaches and ideas that are present within the different disciplines. These
are the ________ of a discipline, or better yet, the very inspiration of the different social
sciences.
Select one:
a. legs
b. principles
c. roots
d. rules
Question 2
____________ is a method for analyzing language, narratives, and cultural phenomena
that uncovers basic elements that form structures (often binary oppositions).
Select one:
a. conventionalism
b. pure mathematics
c. structuralism
d. scientific literature
Question 3
It is defined as an approach that sees society as a complex system whose parts work
together to promote solidarity and stability. It looks for a structure’s social function.
Select one:
a. structural-functionalism
b. functionalism
c. functional-structuralism
d. both functionalism and functional-structuralism
Question 4
Parsons determined that each individual does not have expectations of the other's
action and reaction to his own behavior, and that these expectations would (if
successful) be "derived" from the accepted norms and values of the society they inhabit
only on condition. (Parsons, 1961)
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 5
He (Parsons) held that "the social system is made up of the:
Select one:
a. actions of individuals
b. different classes
c. living units of the families
d. critical individual parts
Question 6
Parsons doctoral dissertation was entitled _______ with his main focus on the work of
Werner Sombart and Max Weber.
Select one:
a. On the Genealogy of Morals
b. The Art of War
c. The Concept of Monetary Displace

d. The Concept of Capitalism in the Recent German Literature
Question 7
“Simply put, structuralism is understanding human culture and elements in terms of

their relationship with a larger, overarching system.”
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 8
These are known as classic writers of sociology except:
Select one:
a. Jean Valjean
b. Adam Smith
c. Emile Durkheim
d. Max Weber
Question 9
The disciplines prove how social science is __________ meaning that the social sciences
are things that you can use everyday to understand reality much better.
Select one:
a. applicable and useful
b. theoretical and practical
c. applicable and practical
d. practical and judicial
Question 10
Talcott Parsons was greatly influenced by which thinker:
Select one:
a. Vilfredo Pareto
b. Samson McGregor
c. Jean-Paul Sartre
d. Aristocles
DISS SQ6
Question 1
This exploitation of wage labor led to the creation of two ‘classes’:
Select one:
a. ruler and worker
b. first and second
c. worker and laborer
d. ruler and subjects
Question 2
Karl Marx was highly influenced by which German philosopher:
Select one:
a. G.W.F. Hegel
b. Friedrich Nietzsche
c. Martin Heidegger
d. Edmund Husserl
Question 3
What is another word for the ruling class?
Select one:
a. bourgeoisie
b. elites
c. false prophets
d. untouchables
Question 4
Capitalism made its breakthrough in ________. (Fulcher, 2004)
Select one:
a. The United States of America
b. Scotland
c. The Kingdom of Nova Scotia
d. Britain
Question 5
The evolution of capitalism, according to Fulcher’s account, dates back to at least the
century, when private ownership overcome the standard “one for all, all for one” system
of ownership in older societies.
Select one:
a. 3rd
b. 17th
c. 19th
d. 11th
Question 6
Which of the following is NOT a communist country?
Select one:
a. People’s Republic of China
b. Laos
c. Russian Federation
d. Vietnam
Question 7
_____________ is defined as an economic and political system in which a country's

trade and industry are controlled by private owners for profit, rather than by the state.
Select one:
a. capitalism
b. hedonism
c. imperialism
d. minimalism
Question 8
_________ is one’s stature in society, normally based on economic capabilities. critical
individual parts.
Select one:
a. reputation
b. class
c. power
d. identity
Question 9
According to Fulcher, “Capitalist production depends on the exploitation of wage labor,

which also fuels the consumption of the goods and services produced by capitalist
enterprises. Production and consumption are linked by the markets that come to
mediate all economic activities.” (Fulcher, 2004)
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 10
Which book did Marx write with Friedrich Engels?
Select one:
a. Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften
b. The Communist Manifesto
c. The Communist Manifesto and Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften
d. Das Kapital and The Commmunist Manifesto*
e. Das Kapital
DISS LQ3
Question 1
What is another word for the ruling class?
Select one:
a. bourgeoisie
b. elites
c. false prophets
d. untouchables
Question 2
__________ is defined as an economic and political system in which a country's trade

and industry are controlled by private owners for profit, rather than by the state.
Select one:
a. capitalism
b. imperialism
c. minimalism
d. hedonism
Question 3
It is defined as an approach that sees society as a complex system whose parts work
together to promote solidarity and stability. It looks for a structure’s social function.
Select one:
a. functional-structuralism
b. functionalism
c. functionalism and functional-structuralism
d. structural-functionalism
e. functionalism and structural-functionalism
Question 4
“In this class conflict, the working class merely works for the profit of the bourgeoisie.
Capitalism, thus, favors the increase of the higher classes’ private property and control
over the means of production.”
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 5
Parsons doctoral dissertation was entitled ______ with his main focus on the work of
Werner Sombart and Max Weber.
Select one:
a. On the Genealogy of Morals
b. The Concept of Capitalism in the Recent German Literature
c. The Concept of Monetary Displace
d. The Art of War
Question 6
Talcott Parsons was greatly influenced by which thinker:
Select one:
a. Samson McGregor
b. Jean-Paul Sartre
c. Vilfredo Pareto
d. Aristocles
Question 7
Private property is replaced with ________, and man becomes friend once more to
fellow man. It is in a communist setting, Marx envisions, that society will flourish.
Select one:
a. common ownership
b. proper distribution
c. joint custody
d. military possession
Question 8
Which book did Marx write with Friedrich Engels?
Select one:
a. Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften
b. Das Kapital
c. The Communist Manifesto and Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften
d. The Communist Manifesto
e. Das Kapital and The Communist Manifesto
f. Das Kapital and Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften

Question 9
According to Fulcher, “Capitalist production depends on the exploitation of wage labor,

which also fuels the consumption of the goods and services produced by capitalist
enterprises. Production and consumption are linked by the markets that come to
mediate all economic activities.” (Fulcher, 2004)
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 10
“The ______________ conditions the social, political and intellectual life process in
general. It is not the consciousness of men that determines their being, but, on the
contrary, their social being that determines their consciousness.” (Marx, 1859)”
Select one:
a. economic
b. mode of production of material life
c. means of production
d. dictate of the bourgeoisie
Question 11
Which of the following is NOT a communist country?

Select one:
a. People’s Republic of China
b. Laos
c. Russian Federation
d. Vietnam
Question 12
These are known as classic writers of sociology except:
Select one:
a. Max Weber
b. Emile Durkheim
c. Adam Smith
d. Jean Valjean
Question 13
That is why apart from the disciplines, the social sciences have what we call the
dominant approaches and ideas that are present within the different disciplines. These
are the ________ of a discipline, or better yet, the very inspiration of the different social
sciences.
Select one:
a. roots
b. principles
c. legs
d. rules
Question 14
________ is a method for analyzing language, narratives, and cultural phenomena that
uncovers basic elements that form structures (often binary oppositions).
Select one:
a. scientific literature
b. conventionalism
c. pure mathematics
d. structuralism
Question 15
“The goal of an economic-centered and capitalist-inspired work place is the generation

of more products. Once the worker is done with the product, he disowns it.”
Select one:
a. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers
b. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature

c. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process
d. Alienation of Worker from Products
Question 16
What is another term for the working class?
Select one:
a. proscetariat
b. slaves
c. proletariat
d. merchants
Question 17
Which of the following is a communist country?
Select one:
a. Kazakhstan
b. China
c. Norway
d. Denmark
Question 18
Which of the following is the Marxist wing of Philippine parties?
Select one:
a. Philippine Marxist Association
b. Partido Komunista Liberal
c. Communist Party of the Philippines
d. Communist Society of Education
Question 19
The evolution of capitalism, according to Fulcher’s account, dates back to at least the
century, when private ownership overcome the standard “one for all, all for one” system
of ownership in older societies.
Select one:
a. 11th
b. 3rd
c. 17th
d. 19th
Question 20
“The goal of an economic-centered and capitalist-inspired work place is the generation
of more products. Once the worker is done with the product, he disowns it.”
Select one:
a. Alienation of Worker from Products
Question 21
“Production is the only focus the worker should have. One’s personal issues and
development, as well as experiences that could enhance human nature are neglected
for more production.
Select one:
b. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers
c. Alienation of Worker from Products
Question 22
The disciplines prove how social science is _______ meaning that the social sciences are
things that you can use everyday to understand reality much better.
Select one:
a. applicable and useful
b. applicable and practical
c. practical and judicial
d. theoretical and practical
Question 23
_________ is one’s stature in society, normally based on economic capabilities. critical

individual parts.
Select one:
a. identity
b. class
c. reputation
d. power
Question 24
“The worker is forced to abide by the same technique, the same default setting, when
attempting to produce something from their labor. It takes away creativity from the
worker, and results in a monotonous, robot-like mode of production.”
Select one:
a. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process
d. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature
Question 25
“Simply put, structuralism is understanding human culture and elements in terms of

their relationship with a larger, overarching system.”
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 26
Parsons determined that each individual does not have expectations of the other's
action and reaction to his own behavior, and that these expectations would (if
successful) be "derived" from the accepted norms and values of the society they inhabit
only on condition. (Parsons, 1961)
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 27
He (Parsons) held that "the social system is made up of the:
Select one:
a. actions of individuals
b. living units of the families
c. critical individual parts
d. different classes
Question 28
“Workers are forced to pay attention to the production only. Thus they will have no time
to interact with fellow workers, whose main focus too is to do labor in exchange for
salaries. Workers are alienated from this experience to make way for an undivided
attention for the production of goods.”
Select one:
c. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process
d. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers
Question 29
Capitalism made its breakthrough in ________. (Fulcher, 2004)
Select one:
a. Scotland
b. The Kingdom of Nova Scotia
c. Britain
d. The United States of America
Question 30
Karl Marx was highly influenced by which German philosopher:
Select one:
a. Martin Heidegger
b. Friedrich Nietzsche
c. G.W.F. Hegel
d. Edmund Husserl
DISS SQ7
Question 1
When one speaks of a ___________, it means that it is a philosophical movement that

includes those who claim that an ideology or proposition is true if it works satisfactorily,
that the meaning of a proposition is to be found in the practical consequences of
accepting it, and that unpractical ideas are to be rejected. (McDermid, 2009)
Select one:
a. social science
b. political practice
c. pragmatic philosophy
d. theoretical and practical
Question 2
It is a movement in psychology and philosophy that emphasized the outward behavioral

aspects of thought and dismissed the inward experiential, and sometimes the inner
procedural, aspects as well.
Select one:
a. essentialism
b. behaviorism
c. cataclysm
d. fundamentalism
Question 3
Mead published several books, including Carus Lectures as well as the Philosophy of
Social Action.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 4
Which element of communication is regarded as “symbolic”?
Select one:
a. Grammar
b. Prose
c. Diction
d. Language
Question 5
Which pragmatic thinker did Mead transfer with to Chicago and was greatly influenced
by?
Select one:
a. James Dewey
b. John Rawls
c. William Smith
d. John Dewey
Question 6
The term “symbolic interactionism” was coined by which of Mead’s students:
Select one:
a. Harold Buchanan
b. Henri Thoreau
c. Spencer Hawkes
d. Herbert Blumer
Question 7
“Meaning can be described, accounted for, or stated in terms of symbols or language at

its highest and most complex stage of development.” (Mead, 1972)
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 8
Pragmatic philosophy is more focused on theory than practice:

Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 9
Behaviorist approaches tend to focus more on the empirical or outward observation of

the subjects.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 10
Symbolic interactionism’s key principles can be seen in the work:
Select one:
a. On the Precision of Vocal Communities
b. Mind and the Spirit
d. The Theory of Language
DISS SQ8
Question 1
In 1885-86, Freud spent the greater part of a year in Paris, where he was deeply
impressed by the work of the French neurologist Jean Charcot who was at that time
using ________ as a medical technique.
Select one:
a. acupuncture
b. pills
c. cannabis
d. hypnotism
Question 2
His academic interests were broad, but he settled for _________ at the University of
Vienna in 1873 and obtained his degree in 1881.
Select one:
a. philosophy
b. law
c. medicine
d. psychology
Question 3
In 1895, Freud and his colleague Josef Breuer published:
Select one:
a. On the Nature of the Mind
b. Studies in Hysteria
c. The Communist Manifesto
d. The Interpretation of Dreams
Question 4
“The Freudian view of human nature is basically _______. According to him, our
behavior is determined by irrational forces, unconscious motivations, biological and
instinctual drives, as these evolve through key psychosexual stages in the first six years
of life. (Corey, 2009)
Select one:
a. altruistic
b. weak
c. demonstrative
d. deterministic
Question 5
Freud was a mentor to two other major psychologists:

Select one:
a. May and Bellini
b. Adler and Jung
c. Marx and Lenin
d. James and Franco
Question 6
Psychoanalysis as an approach was only considered a major psychological and

sociological theory during the life of its proponent:
Select one:
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Rollo May
c. William Adler
d. Carl Jung
Question 7
Freud places no emphasis on the sexual formation of an individual, and how rooting out
these past experiences in psychoanalysis will be a good form of treatment.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 8
It is a source of motivation that encompasses sexual energy.
Select one:
a. libido
b. friends
c. happiness
d. confidence
Question 9
Which Freudian work is considered the most important one?
Select one:
a. The Id and Ego
b. Against Academics
c. The Interpretation of Dreams
d. Studies in Hysteria
Question 10
According to Stephen Thornton, “Freud’s psychoanalytic theory was initially not well
received – when its existence was acknowledged at all it was usually by people who
were, as Breuer had foreseen, scandalized by the emphasis placed on sexuality by
Freud.” (Thornton, 2010)
Select one:
a. True
b. False
DISS LQ4
Question 1
Which element of communication is regarded as “symbolic”?
Select one:
a. Prose
b. Grammar
c. Diction
d. Language
Question 2
Freud places no emphasis on the sexual formation of an individual, and how rooting out
these past experiences in psychoanalysis will be a good form of treatment.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 3
“The Freudian view of human nature is basically _________. According to him, our
behavior is determined by irrational forces, unconscious motivations, biological and
instinctual drives, as these evolve through key psychosexual stages in the first six years
of life. (Corey, 2009)
Select one:
a. demonstrative
b. weak
c. altruistic
d. deterministic
Question 4
These three principles are important for Mead because these form a symbolic
interaction that enables society to be united and become real active agents of social
progress. With the use of communication, there arises a universal want for the:
Select one:
a. engaging dialogue
b. common good
c. justice for the oppressed
d. human rights
Question 5
Which pragmatic thinker did Mead transfer with to Chicago and was greatly influenced
by?
Select one:
a. John Rawls
b. John Dewey
c. James Dewey
d. William Smith
Question 6
The ______ is the original system of personality; at birth a person is _______. The
________ is the primary source of psychic energy and the seat of the instincts. It lacks
organization, and it is blind, demanding and insistent.” (Corey, 2009)
Select one:

b. superego
c. id
d. ego
Question 7
Select one:
a. Studies in Hysteria
b. The Interpretation of Dreams
c. On the Nature of the Mind
d. The Communist Manifesto
Question 8
“Symbolic interaction is an entire process of ________: meaning, speaking, and

thinking.”
Select one:
a. rhetoric
b. organism
c. learning
d. dialogue
Question 9
The principle of meaning teaches us that human persons interact, and that we do so
through the use of:
Select one:
a. symbols
b. writings
c. puzzles
d. speeches
Question 10
When one speaks of a __________, it means that it is a philosophical movement that

Select one:
a. theoretical and practical
b. pragmatic philosophy
c. political practice
d. social science
Question 11
Freud was a mentor to two other major psychologists:
Select one:
a. James and Franco
b. May and Bellini
c. Adler and Jung
d. Marx and Lenin
Question 12
It is a movement in psychology and philosophy that emphasized the outward behavioral

aspects of thought and dismissed the inward experiential, and sometimes the inner
procedural, aspects as well.
Select one:
a. essentialism
b. behaviorism
c. fundamentalism
d. cataclysm
Question 13
Which of the following is a part of the Structure of Personality?
Select one:
a. body
b. ego
c. super id
d. spiritus
Question 14
Thought is based on language. While in a conversation, your mind is imagining or

thinking about the different points of view or meanings to what the other person is
saying to you.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 15
Mead published several books, including Mind, Self, and Spirit as well as the Philosophy
of Social Action.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 16
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 17
The term “symbolic interactionism” was coined by which of Mead’s students:
Select one:
a. Herbert Blumer
b. Harold Buchanan
c. Spencer Hawkes
d. Henri Thoreau
Question 18
When Mead mentions the ‘taking the role of the other,’ he implies that through
language, human persons could interpret the of the individual he is communicating with.
Select one:
a. symbolic nature
b. complex ideas
c. signs and symbols
d. hidden message
Question 19
Pragmatic philosophy is more focused on theory than practice:
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 20
using ______ as a medical technique.
Select one:
a. cannabis
b. acupuncture
c. hypnotism
d. pills
Question 21
“Meaning can be described, accounted for, or stated in terms of symbols or language at

its highest and most complex stage of development.” (Mead, 1972)
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 22
Symbolic interactionism’s key principles can be seen in the work:
Select one:
b. On the Precision of Vocal Communities
c. The Theory of Language
d. Mind and the Spirit
Question 23
It includes a person’s moral code, the main concern being whether action is good or bad,
right or wrong. It represents the ideal rather than the real, and strives not for pleasure
but for perfection. The rewards are feelings of pride and self-love; the punishments are
feelings of guilt and inferiority.” (Corey, 2009)
Select one:
a. id
b. superego
c. ego
Question 24
“It is the ‘executive’ that governs, controls and regulates the personality. As a ‘traffic
cop’ it mediates between the instincts and the surrounding environment. The
__________ controls consciousness and exercises censorship.” (Corey, 2009)
Select one:
a. ego
b. id
d. superego
Question 25
The very basic principle of the id is to attain pleasure and avoid pain.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 26
Behaviorist approaches tend to focus more on the empirical or outward observation of

the subjects.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 27
Which Freudian work is considered the most important one?
Select one:
a. Studies in Hysteria
b. The Interpretation of Dreams
c. The Id and Ego
d. Against Academics
Question 28
His academic interests were broad, but he settled for _______ at the University of
Vienna in 1873 and obtained his degree in 1881.
Select one:
a. philosophy
b. medicine
c. law
d. psychology
Question 29
Psychoanalysis as an approach was only considered a major psychological and

sociological theory during the life of its proponent:
Select one:
a. William Adler
b. Sigmund Freud
c. Rollo May
d. Carl Jung
Question 30
It is a source of motivation that encompasses sexual energy.

Select one:
a. friends
b. happiness
c. confidence
d. libido
DISS SQ9
Question 1
The “rational” approach started at the dawn of the Cold War.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 2
Rational Choice Theory is primarily a part of theory as well as that of social theory.
Select one:
a. logical
b. practical
c. scientific
d. economic
Question 3
If one thinks about it, rational choice seems to have been around for quite some time,
since the primary inclination of a human being is to choose what is most rational.
However, rational choice as a theory applied in both sociology and economics has been
applied only recently.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 4
The value of historical institutionalism is that it shows how an institution can reflect the
changes within society, and how one need not to extensively pursue a conclusion based
on multiple observations on society, but rather can be focused on one body that
sufficiently accounts for a proper description of society’s progress.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 5
Rationality could take various forms, but applied to sociology, it becomes the ___ of
society.
Select one:
a. creation
b. improvement
c. devotion
d. identity
Question 6
New institutionalism and old institutionalism are the same.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 7
This traces the progress of both socio-economic behavior in society through the growth
and history of an institution.
Select one:
a. Historical institutionalism
b. Fundamental Institutionalism
c. New Institutionalism
d. Old Institutionalism
Question 8
Which of the following is a work of Michel Foucault?
Select one:
a. The Birth of Tragedy
b. The Last Resort
c. Discipline and Punish
d. Creation of Adam
Question 9
According to Blume and Easley, rational choice had been around ever since the rise of
through the rise of Adam Smith.
Select one:
a. capitalism
b. fascism
c. economics
d. communism
Question 10
The basic premise of rational choice is that social behavior and attitude is the result of
____.
Select one:
a. deliberation and choice
b. individual actions and choices
c. communal agreement
d. mutual understanding
DISS LQ
Question 1
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is a method for analyzing language, narratives, and cultural phenomena that
uncovers basic elements that form structures (often binary oppositions).
Select one:
a. structuralism
b. scientific literature
c. pure mathematics
d. conventionalism
Question 2
This traces the progress of both socio-economic behavior in society through the growth
and history of an institution.
Select one:
a. Fundamental Institutionalism
b. Old Institutionalism
c. New Institutionalism
d. Historical institutionalism
Question 3
To which discipline does physics fall under:
Select one:
a. Social Science
b. Humanities
c. Natural Science
d. Medicine
Question 4
“It is the ‘executive’ that governs, controls and regulates the personality. As a ‘traffic
cop’ it mediates between the instincts and the surrounding environment. The
__________ controls consciousness and exercises censorship.” (Corey, 2009)
Select one:
b. superego
c. ego
d. id
Question 5
New institutionalism and old institutionalism are the same.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 6
According to Blume and Easley, rational choice had been around ever since the rise of
through the rise of Adam Smith.
Select one:
a. capitalism
b. economics
c. communism
d. fascism
Question 7
This consists in systematic observation, measurement, and experiment, and the

formulation, testing, and modification of hypotheses.
Select one:
a. Laboratory Experimentation
b. Linguistic Analysis
c. Scientific Method
d. Statistics
Question 8
Rationality could take various forms, but applied to sociology, it becomes the ___ of
society.
Select one:
a. identity
b. improvement
c. creation
d. devotion
Question 9
Question text
“Production is the only focus the worker should have. One’s personal issues and
development, as well as experiences that could enhance human nature are neglected
for more production.
Select one:
a. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process
c. Alienation of Worker from Products
d. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers
Question 10
When Mead mentions the ‘taking the role of the other,’ he implies that through
language, human persons could interpret the of the individual he is communicating with.
Select one:
a. hidden message
b. symbolic nature
c. complex ideas
d. signs and symbols
Question 11
Thought is based on language. While in a conversation, your mind is imagining or

thinking about the different points of view or meanings to what the other person is
saying to you.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 12
If one thinks about it, rational choice seems to have been around for quite some time,
since the primary inclination of a human being is to choose what is most rational.
However, rational choice as a theory applied in both sociology and economics has been
applied only recently.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 13
This social world was not always understood. But in the last 200 years, disciplines have
originated with the goal of examining it with the exact same ____ that the sciences use.
Select one:
a. concepts and theories
b. method and principle
c. scientific methodology
d. organization
Question 14
Select one:
a. human behavior and politics
b. rocks and sediments
c. the population
Question 15
The ______ is the original system of personality; at birth a person is _______. The
________ is the primary source of psychic energy and the seat of the instincts. It lacks
organization, and it is blind, demanding and insistent.” (Corey, 2009)
Select one:
a. id
b. superego
c. ego
Question 16
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 17
Select one:
a. On the Nature of the Mind
b. Studies in Hysteria
c. The Communist Manifesto
d. The Interpretation of Dreams
Question 18
What is another term for the working class?
Select one:
a. proletariat
b. proscetariat
c. merchants
d. slaves
Question 19
using ______ as a medical technique.
Select one:
a. acupuncture
b. cannabis
c. pills
d. hypnotism
Question 20
Which of the following is a work of Michel Foucault?
Select one:
a. Discipline and Punish
b. Creation of Adam
c. The Last Resort
d. The Birth of Tragedy
Question 21
The “rational” approach started at the dawn of the Cold War.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 22
Rational Choice Theory is primarily a part of theory as well as that of social theory.
Select one:
a. scientific
b. economic
c. logical
d. practical
Question 23
The basic premise of rational choice is that social behavior and attitude is the result of
____.
Select one:
a. mutual understanding
b. individual actions and choices
c. communal agreement
d. deliberation and choice
Question 24
It includes a person’s moral code, the main concern being whether action is good or bad,
right or wrong. It represents the ideal rather than the real, and strives not for pleasure
but for perfection. The rewards are feelings of pride and self-love; the punishments are
feelings of guilt and inferiority.” (Corey, 2009)
Select one:
a. ego
c. id
d. superego
Question 25
“Symbolic interaction is an entire process of ________: meaning, speaking, and

thinking.”
Select one:
a. rhetoric
b. dialogue
c. learning
d. organism
Question 26
The very basic principle of the id is to attain pleasure and avoid pain.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 27
When one speaks of a __________, it means that it is a philosophical movement that

Select one:
a. pragmatic philosophy
b. political practice
c. theoretical and practical
d. social science
Question 28
The value of historical institutionalism is that it shows how an institution can reflect the
changes within society, and how one need not to extensively pursue a conclusion based
on multiple observations on society, but rather can be focused on one body that
sufficiently accounts for a proper description of society’s progress.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 29
Select one:
a. rule of law
b. management
c. affairs of the cities
d. governance
Question 30
Private property is replaced with ____, and man becomes friend once more to fellow
man. It is in a communist setting, Marx envisions, that society will flourish.
Select one:
a. proper distribution
b. military possession
c. common ownership
d. joint custody
DISS LA6
Question 1
The most important work of de Beauvoir that contributed to feminist theory is her work:
Select one:
a. Creation of Adam
b. The Second Sex
c. Interpretations of Reality
d. Woman Demystified
Question 2
In the 20th century, ‘first-wave’ feminists had demanded civil and political equality.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 3
The word feminist or feminism emerged in Europe around the later years of the 1600s
and in the United States in 1910. (Goldstein, 1989)
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 4
Renowned feminist and French philosopher ___ was born in Paris on the 9th of January,
year 1908.
Select one:
a. Simone de Beauvoir
b. Simone Weil
c. Simon Blackwell
d. Jean-Paul Sartre
Question 5
The father of modern phenomenology is the philosopher:
Select one:
a. Charles Taylor
b. Edmund Husserl
c. Martin Heidegger
d. Wilhelm Dilthey
Question 6
The last wave of feminism, also known as third-wave feminism, is an acceptance of the
second-wave and is a support of sorts of the preceding wave. Third-wave feminism
distinguished itself from the second wave around issues of sexuality, challenging female
heterosexuality and celebrating sexuality as a means of female empowerment. (Holt &
Cameron, 2010)
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 7
de Beauvoir studied _____ at the University of Paris and eventually studied mathematics
at the Institut Catholique de Paris and literature at the Institut de Sainte-Marie.
Select one:
a. literature and philosophy
b. mathematics and philosophy
c. physical science and medicine
d. natural science and mathematics
Question 8
Second-wave feminism concentrated on the ___ sector, pushing not for exact rights, but
for social recognition and a new identity. Second-wave feminism reacts negatively to the
age-old view of women: weak and undetermined.
Select one:
a. scientific
b. economic
c. social
d. political
Question 9
Hermeneutics, on the other hand, comes from the Greek word ‘hermeneutikos’
meaning:
Select one:
a. puzzle
b. messaging
c. interpret
d. isolation
Question 10
Charles Fourier was known to coin the term:

Select one:
a. feminieuse
b. feminisme
c. feminierre
d. feminin
DISS LA7
Question 1
This is typically defined as the sociological study of societal-environmental interactions,

although this definition immediately presents the problem of integrating human cultures
with the rest of the environment. (Schaefer, 2016)
Select one:
a. human ecology
b. psychological sociology
c. environmental sociology
d. economic environmentalism
Question 2
There is no clear definition for human environment system, as it crosses ____ at once
such as ecology, sociology and environmental demographics.
Select one:
a. a number of roads
b. multiple disciplines
c. uncharted borders
d. varying social sciences
Question 3
Although the focus of the field is the relationship between society and environment in
general, environmental sociologists typically place special emphasis on studying the
social factors that cause environmental problems, the societal impacts of those
problems, and efforts to solve the problems.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 4
There is no clear definition for human environment system, as it crosses multiple

disciplines at once such as ecology, sociology and environmental demographics.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 5
As a social science, the origins of human-environment systems did not actually begin
with society itself, but rather with ____ themes.
Select one:
a. economic
b. tantric
c. ecological
d. overarching
Question 6
Human-Environment System can also be called:
Select one:
a. environmental personal theory
b. human demographics
c. human ecology
d. sociology
Question 7
The primary thrust of this theory is that the two parties: humans and the environment,
are in a state of continuous seclusion and disintegration.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 8
Ecology is defined as “the branch of biology that deals with the ____ of organisms to one
another and to their physical surroundings.”
Select one:
a. relations
b. differences
c. understanding
d. equality
Question 9
Human-environment system means that society lives in a blank, dysfunctional world and
a world that affects society greatly.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 10
This is the totality of things that in any way may affect an organism, including both
physical and cultural conditions; a region characterized by a certain set of physical
conditions.
Select one:
a. society
b. environment
c. nature
d. world
DISS SQ10
Question 1
His (Mercado’s) style of writing and analysis of Philippine society and culture is ____,
meaning that for him, language is an important facet in understanding Filipino society as
a whole.
Select one:
a. unequal
b. quantitative
c. analytic
d. meta-linguistic
Question 2
The people must be educated in civic virtues and enlightened in all possible senses to be
able to struggle for their rights.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 3
Manuel Dy, Jr. mentions in his book Contemporary Social Philosophy that “a Filipino
ethics must value ____.” (Dy, 2013)
Select one:
a. holiness
b. welfare
c. solidarity
d. ethics
Question 4
Schools of sufficient quality and quantity must be established throughout the
archipelago primarily for enlightenment and secondarily, livelihood.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 5
Isabelo de los Reyes is also credited to be the first Filipino:
Select one:
a. socialist
b. warrior
c. journalist
d. poet
Question 6
Rizal envisioned a Philippine society that had ___, and the desire to serve one’s country
wholeheartedly and without reservation.
Select one:
a. confidence
b. growing investments
c. service
d. racial pride
Question 7
Mercado's work ____ talks about the fundamental trait of Filipinos to incorporate the
religious into their social lives, and how Philippine society is shaped by the values and
teachings of a belief in a Supreme Being or God.
Select one:
a. Elements of Philosophy
b. True Blood
c. Inculturation and Filipino Theology
d. Elements of Philippine Philosophy
Question 8
According to Rolando Gripaldo’s work Filipino Philosophy, Rizal envisioned a ____

society.
Select one:
a. united
b. capitalist
c. noble
d. utopian
Question 9
Filipinos place a great amount of importance on close family ties that it is arguably the
most practiced Filipino value at present.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 10
Rizal is not only known for his dedicated life and the works Noli Me Tangere and:
Select one:
a. El Filibusterismo
b. Consejo de las Casas
c. Mi Amor
d. Ibong Adarna
DISS SQ11
Question 1
The most important aspect of this definition is the Filipino orientation. For centuries,
Filipino behavior has been analyzed and interpreted in the light of ____ theories.
Select one:
a. Western
b. American
c. Eastern
d. Spanish
Question 2
Question text
From the beginning of the periods when the Philippines was colonized by Spain, and
then the USA, academic psychology, or the psychology taught in schools, was
predominantly ____ in theory and in methodology
Select one:
a. Spanish
b. Western
c. American
d. Eastern
Question 3
Pua and Marcelino regard him as the founder of Sikolohiyang Pilipino
Select one:
a. Virgilio G. Enriquez
b. Virgilio S. Lorenzo
c. Virgilio Ramos
d. Carpio Santos
Question 4
“Sikolohiyang Pilipino is anchored on Filipino thought and experience as understood

from a Filipino perspective (Enriquez, 1975).”
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 5
In simpler terms, Sikolohiyang Pilipino is aimed at understanding the Filipino ____ the
Filipino.
Select one:
a. referring to
b. according to
c. disloyal to
d. in line with
Question 6
Enriquez also eliminated the bondage of Western tradition that bothered Filipino
intellectuals before him. This proves that Sikolohiyang Pilipino is something original to
the Filipino, and that Filipino culture is not destined to live under the shadows of
another culture or an outside nation.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 7
Sikolohiyang Pilipino is a by-product of Western psychology.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 8
Filipinos have never been a strictly intellectual culture. Their mindset even before the
dawn of the 21st century has always been a collection of both the strictly academic and
the open culture that Filipinos have always espoused.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 9
The principle emphasis of Sikolohiyang Pilipino is to destroy national identity and

consciousness, social involvement, and psychology of language and culture.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 10
Since the Philippines was a colony of three different countries, they have been exposed
to culture after culture, all of them distinct and special in their own way, that have led to
the Filipinos having a certain kind of:
Select one:
a. self-awareness
b. class conflict
c. identity crisis
d. classification
DISS LQ7
Question 1
Apart from the suggestions given above, a degree in the social sciences will also be the
key to teaching other learners about the different elements of the social sciences.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Social Anthropologist
Select one:
a. History
b. Economics
c. Anthropology
d. Political Science
e. Psychology
Question 3
Guidance Counselor
Select one:
a. History
b. Anthropology
c. Psychology
d. Economics
e. Political Science
Question 4
Politician
Select one:
b. History
c. Psychology
d. Anthropology
e. Economics
Question 5
The social sciences are not limited to the four corners of a classroom. It is something
active, and plays a continuous part in society.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
It is a sense or ideology of wanting something to happen to your nation. It is, in a way,

willing that a society take a certain shape according to what you think is best for the
progress of a nation.
Select one:
a. Patriotism
b. Puritanism
c. Nationalism
d. Valor
Question 7
Public Administration Teacher

Select one:
a. Anthropology
b. Economics
c. Political Science
d. Psychology
e. History
Question 8
Granted, most individuals would have different opinions on what is the best for a
perfect society to take shape. However, the common goal here is for society itself
to_______.
Select one:
a. diminish
b. integrate
c. prosper
d. solidify
Question 9
The most concrete of this participation and active involvement of the social sciences can
be seen in the different ______ available to those who pursue this colorful field.
Select one:
a. professions
b. institutions
c. theories
d. literature
Question 10
Clinical Psychology
Select one:
a. History
b. Political Science
c. Anthropology
d. Economics
e. Psychology
Question 11
History Teacher
Select one:
a. History
b. Economics
c. Psychology
e. Anthropology
Question 12
Lawyer
Select one:
a. Psychology
b. Political Science
c. Economics
d. Anthropology
e. History
Question 13
Industrial Psychiatrist
Select one:
a. History
b. Economics
c. Psychology
e. Anthropology
Question 14
Economics Teacher
Select one:
b. History
c. Economics
d. Psychology
e. Anthropology
Question 15
_______ work as coaches to other people in areas including business, sport and
education. They also work in hospitals and health centers, (i.e. in clinical settings)
helping to support people with a range of psychological problems.
Select one:
a. Market Researchers
b. Sociologists
c. Psychologists
d. Economists
Question 16
University work, administrative work, and mentoring are fueled by social science experts
who share the common vision of an examined and critical society.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Stock Market Analyst
Select one:
a. Psychology
b. History
c. Economics
d. Anthropology
e. Political Science
Question 18
Your role is to analyze the allocation of material goods of society and how it affects the
daily life of each individual as well as society in general.
Select one:
a. Psychologists
b. Economists
c. Market Researchers
d. Sociologists
Question 19
The reason why nationalism can be so strong is that individuals within the society seeks
a progressive society distant to its own cultures and traditions without the influence of
other societies as much as possible.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Non-Profit Organization Administrator

Select one:
a. Psychology
b. Anthropology
d. History
e. Economics
Question 21
Market Researcher
Select one:
b. Economics
c. Anthropology
d. History
e. Psychology
Question 22
Ancient Civilization Researcher

Select one:
b. Anthropology
c. History
d. Economics
e. Psychology
Question 23
On the other hand,_____ also serves a purpose in understanding more the social
phenomenon of nationalism. When one has nationalistic ideas, he seeks the progress of
his nation. This includes a desire for a country's economy to grow.
Select one:
a. business
b. human resources
c. economics
d. accountancy
Question 24
Museum Curator
Select one:
a. History
b. Psychology
d. Economics
e. Anthropology
Question 25
Trade Union Management
Select one:
a. Economics
b. Anthropology
c. History
e. Psychology
Question 26
Through the lens of anthropology (and even psychology) we can see that what drives the
social phenomenon of nationalism is a sense of both racial pride and a degree of
__________ (a fear of foreigners or other cultures).
Select one:
a. fear
b. xenophobia
c. discrimination
d. hate
Question 27
Another point is that the social sciences are composed of different disciplines that
provide multiple perspectives on how society should be studied and examined.
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
This is the association between the social sciences and the humanities in analyzing
society.
Select one:
a. Theory and Practice
b. Dominant Approaches
c. Multi-disciplinarity
d. Disciplines
Question 29
________ work in many sectors - for the government, for charities and for a variety of
commercial organizations. Researchers can be employed directly, or through an agency,
or they may work as freelancers, (i.e. be self-employed).
Select one:
a. Market Researchers
b. Sociologists
c. Psychologists
d. Economists
Question 30
“The most concrete origin, however, can be found in Ancient China with the writings of
Fan Li (also known as Tao Zhu Gong) who wrote a _________ for businessmen. (Wang,
2012)
Select one:
a. novel
b. book
c. golden laws for businessmen
d. law of Chinese trade

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21st Century Literature from the Philippines and

the World (ENGL-121) - 2S Grade 11

"A big blue house, with a well-kept rose garden," is an example of a:

a. Setting as Place CORRECT

c. Setting as Cultural Context (Condition)

b. The Agyu CORRECT

a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar CORRECT

Jose Corazon de Jesus began a famous column in Taliba called _____

b. Buhay Maynila CORRECT

a. "Manalangin ka sa Prayle Linggo man at piyesta."

b. "Huwag kang makinakaw."

c. "Huwag kang mamamatay kung wala pang salaping panlibing." CORRECT

d. "Sambahin mo ang Payle lalo na sa lahat."

It is easy to interpret poems.

The correct answer is: Aurelio Tolentino

He was a corresponding member of the Royal Academy of the Spanish Literature.

The correct answer is: Cecilio Apostol

It is a narrative poem written in four-line stanzas.

The correct answer is: Ballad

The correct answer is: 'True'

The following are Bathala's daughters to a mortal woman except:

The correct answer is: Mayari

The correct answer is: Climax

The correct answer is: The Quest for the Father

The correct answer is: Pasyon

The correct answer is: Amanikable

A short piece of fiction that is a "bite size" version of a novel.

The correct answer is: Short Story

A mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed.

The correct answer is: Riddle

The correct answer is: Poetry

The following are means for an alipin to become a freeman EXCEPT:

The correct answer is: Getting captured in war

The correct answer is: 'True'

It is an allegory with moral or religious bent.

The name of Lam-ang's love interest.

The correct answer is: Ines Cannoyan

The correct answer is: Ninay

The correct answer is: 'True'

The correct answer is: Fictional Literature

The correct answer is: Jose Garcia Villa

The correct answer is: The Quest for the Father

The correct answer is: 'False'

___ is a long narrative poem, telling heroic deeds or events.

The correct answer is: Epic

Not every poem has a speaker.

The correct answer is: 'False'

The Japanese encouraged nationalism, or the love for one's motherland.

The correct answer is: 'True'

The correct answer is: Lyric poems

The correct answer is: 'False'

The correct answer is: Lope K. Santos

It is a story about animals that possess human traits.

The correct answer is: 'Fable'

The correct answer is: Sa Pula, Sa Puti

The correct answer is: 'Setting as Time'

Claro M. Recto wrote for La Vanguardia under what penname?

The correct answer is: 'Aristeo Hilario'

The correct answer is: 'True'

The correct answer is: Barlaan at Josaphat

The correct answer is: La Hija Del Fraile

In a story, it is the verbal representation of a human being.

The correct answer is: Character