PRACTICE TEST 4 – K101 2018 - MULTIPLE CHOICE

Ch 17: Transcription/ Translation

1. One of the mRNA codons specifying the amino acid leucine is 5´-CUA-3´. Its corresponding anticodon is:
a. 5´-GAT-3´.
b. 3´-AUC-5´.
c. 3´-GAU-5´.
d. 3´-GAT-5´.
e. 5´-GAU-3´.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of uracil?
a. The ability to bond with adenine.
b. The ability to bond with guanine.
c. It is a purine.
d. The ability to bond with cytosine.
e. It contains two nitrogenous rings.
3. Which of the following is the attachment site for RNA polymerase?
a. the small subunit of the ribosome
b. the TATAAA box
c. the enhancer
d. the Upstream Promoter Elements
e. the AUG codon
4. Initiation of transcription requires:
a. a promoter sequence.
b. DNA polymerase.
c. an RNA primer.
d. a DNA primer.
5. tRNAs:
a. enter the ribosome via complementary base paring with mRNA codons.
b. have an anticodon.
c. have an attachment site for the amino acid.
d. are recognized by a specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that adds the correct amino acid.
e. All of the above.
6. In virtually all organisms, the first AUG codon codes for:
a. the initiatior amino acid of translation, f-Met.
b. the termination of transcription.
c. the termination of chain elongation.
d. the amino acid valine.
e. a termination tRNA molecule.
7. A polyribosome is:
a. a complex of many ribosomes and an mRNA.
b. a complex of many ribosomes in eukaryotes.
c. an initiation complex in eukaryotes.
d. an elongation complex in eukaryotes.
e. a complex of a ribosome with its two subunits and several mRNAs.
8. Frameshift mutations result from:

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 a. the substitution of one base pair for another.
b. the substitution of more than one base pair.
c. the insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs.
d. the substitution of a stop codon for an amino acid-specifying codon.

Use the figure to answer the corresponding questions.

9. The transcription process begins at the area labeled:

a. A.
b. D.
c. E.
d. G.
10. The component labeled B is:
a. DNase.
b. DNA polymerase.
c. RNA primase.
d. RNA polymerase.
e. reverse transcriptase.

Use the figure to answer the corresponding questions

11. The portion of the molecule labeled 5 is:
a. the attached amino acid.
b. a double-stranded region.
c. a single-stranded region.
d. the anti-codon.
e. the codon.
12. The portion of the molecule in the figure that contains the anti-codon is:
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5.

Use the codon chart below to determine the answers to the next 3 questions:

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13. What amino acid sequence will be generated from the following mRNA sequence?
5’ AUGGAUCGUUUAUCCUUG 3’

a. Met-Arg-Glu-Arg-Glu-Phe
b. Met-Asp-Arg-Leu-Glu-Arg
c. Met-Asp-Leu-Ser-Leu-Arg
d. Met-Asp-Arg-Leu-Ser-Leu
e. Met-Leu-Phe-Arg-Glu-Glu

14. A point mutation changes the sequence above to AUGGAUCGUUGAUCCUUG. What is the resulting
amino acid sequence?
a. Met-Arg-Glu-Arg-Glu-Phe
b. Met-Asp-Arg-STOP
c. Met-Asp-Leu-STOP
d. Met-Asp-Arg-Leu-Ser-Leu
e. Met-Leu-Phe-Arg-Glu-Glu

15. A frame shift deletion changes the sequence above to AUGAUCGUUUAUCCUUGA. What is the resulting
amino acid sequence?
a. Met-Asp-Val-Tyr-Pro-Phe
b. Met-Asp-Arg-Leu-Ser-Leu
c. Met-Ile-Val-Tyr-Pro-STOP
d. Met-Ile-Arg-Leu-Ser-STOP
e. Met-Ile-Val-Tyr-Ser-STOP

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16. Achondroplasia is caused by a change of mRNA codon from GGA to AGA. Achondroplasia is thus an
example of a
a. Silent mutation
b. Missense mutation
c. Nonsense mutation
d. Frameshift mutation
17. A gene that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of
approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that
a. many noncoding stretches of nucleotides will be spliced out of mRNA.
b. there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code.
c. many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid.
d. nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process.
e. there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.
18. A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome:
5' CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA). The following charged transfer RNA molecules (with their anticodons shown in
the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can
form.

tRNA Anticodon Amino Acid

3’ GGC 5’ Proline
3’ CGU 5’ Alanine
3’ UGC 5’ Threonine
3’ CCG 5’ Glycine
3’ ACG 5’ Cysteine
3’ CGG 5’ Alanine

16. The anticodon loop of the first tRNA that will complement this mRNA is
a. 3' GGC 5'
b. 5' GGC 3'
c. 5' ACG 3'
d. 5' UGC 3'
e. 3' UGC 5'
17. The dipeptide that will form will be
a. cysteine-alanine.
b. proline-threonine.
c. glycine-cysteine.
d. alanine-alanine.
e. threonine-glycine.

18. When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by
a. a specific characteristic that identifies it as a “bound” ribosome itself.
b. a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.
c. moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus.
d. a chemical signal given off by the ER.
e. a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message.

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19. A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the
anticodon AAA instead of the typical phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that
a. none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.
b. proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified
by the codon UUU.
c. the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying
anticodons.
d. the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.
e. none of the options will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.

CH 18: Gene Expression

20. Enhancers (Distal Control Elements)
a. increase the rate of eukaryotic gene transcription
b. are binding sites for cell-specific transcription factors
c. may be located upstream or downstream from the genes they regulate
d. may be located thousands of base pairs away from the promoter
e. all of the above
21. Ubiquitination of proteins:
a. Targets them for export from the cell
b. Targets them for degradation in the proteosome
c. Shuts off transcription of the gene for that protein
d. Uses an enzyme called Dicer to chop the protein up into little pieces
e. Is the most common way to regulate the expression of genes in eukaryotes
22. The human Crystalline gene is contained in the genome of every cell of a human, but is only expressed
(made into protein) in the lens of the eye. This is because
a. The crystalline gene is spliced out of the genome early in embryonic development in all cells in the
body except lens cells
b. Activator proteins (transcription factors) that bind to regulatory regions of the crystalline gene
are only found in the lens cells
c. The crystalline gene has specific promoter and enhancer control elements that bind to only lens-
specific activator proteins
d. All of the above
e. b and c only
23. Regulation of gene expression can be accomplished by controlling:
a. the amount of chromatin packing.
b. the amount of mRNA that is transcribed.
c. the rate of translation of mRNA.
d. the rate of mRNA degradation.
e. All of the above.
24. In human females, one X chromosome per cell is randomly inactivated during early embryonic
development, forming a Barr Body. Much of the DNA in this chromosome is in the form of
a. Introns
b. Heterochromatin
c. Euchromatin
d. Tetrads

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25. In eukaryotes, histone acetylation __________.
a. inactivates genes
b. marks genes for destruction
c. promotes transcription
d. imprints genes from one parent
e. reduces the size of the genome

Ch 19 Viruses and Prions

26. In the bacteriophage shown below, the functions of the structures labeled 2 and 3 are
a. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= locomotion.
b. 2= mate recognition, 3= attachment to a host cell
c. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= replication.
d. 2= to take over host cell mechanisms, 3= attachment to a host cell.
e. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= attachment to a host cell

27. All of the following are DNA viruses except:

a. The Herpes virus that causes cold sores
b. The Influenza virus that causes the ‘flu.
c. The Pox-viruses that cause chicken pox
d. The Human Papilloma virus that causes cervical cancer
e. The Parvoviruses that cause the common cold

28. Retroviruses like the HIV virus differ from other viruses by:
a. Using the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy their RNA into DNA.
b. the shape of their capsid.
c. the sugar coating on their capsids.
d. lytically destroying their hosts.

29. The five stages of a lytic viral infection are attachment, penetration, _______, assembly, and release
a. Integration
b. Lysogeny
c. Transduction
d. Replication

30. Prion diseases of humans include:

a. Kuru.
b. Scrapie.
c. Mad Cow Disease.
d. Variant Creutfeld-Jacob disease (vCJD).
e. A and D

31. The Prion Hypothesis (Dr. Stanley Pruissner) states that

a. Mad cow disease is caused by eating beef tainted with abnormally folded prion proteins.
b. Cooking beef infected with prion proteins will destroy the prions, making the meat safe to eat.
c. Kuru, a TSE in humans, can be caused by the religious practice of ritual cannibalism.
d. TSEs result from the conversion of normal PrP-c to an abnormally folded PrP-sc state
e. Prion particles infect cells of the brain and redirect the cell’s DNA synthesis machinery to replicate
new prion particles in the neurons responsible for memory

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Chapter 20 – Biotechnology, Part I & II
32. Match the rDNA (recombinant DNA) with the disease it is intended to treat
a. Avonex (4) (1) Diabetes
b. Humulin (1) (2) Low white blood cell counts
c. Epogen/Aranesp (5) (3) Cystic fibrosis
d. Neulasta (2) (4) Multiple sclerosis (MS)
e. Pulmozyme (3) (5) Low red blood cell counts (anemia)
33. Match the mAb (monoclonal Antibody) drug with the disease it is intended to treat
a. Herceptin (3) (1) RSV (Respiratory syncytial Virus
b. Rituxin (4) (2) Cancer (anti-VEGF, anti angiogenesis)
c. Enbrel (5) (3) HER-2+ breast cancer
d. Synagis (1) (4) CD20+ Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma
e. Avastin (2) (5) T-cell autoimmune diseases like
Rheumatoid arthritis and Psoriasis
f. Rheumatoid arthritis and Psoriasis

34. Which of these statements is NOT TRUE regarding the procedure for making cloned animals by
somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)?
a. The recipient egg is e-nucleated before the procedure
b. The donor nucleus can be either from a male or a female cell
c. The donor nucleus is from a haploid, quiescent cell
d. A brief electric shock is used to simulate fertilization
e. A surrogate mother is used to carry the pregnancy to term
35. Gene Therapy treatments with new drugs like Kymriah and Yescarta (select all that apply)
a. Provide a safer bone marrow transplant procedure using matched donors
b. Are the first FDA-approved drugs for personalized immunotherapy to treat specific leukemias
c. Involve the use of a genetically engineered Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell to recognize
proteins like CD19 on cancer cells

Ch 27 Bacteria
36. Match the bacterium with the human disease it can cause
a. Clostridium tetani X v. Anthrax
b. Treponema pallidum Z w. Gonorrhea
c. Helicobacter pylori Y x. Tetanus (“Lockjaw”)
d. Bacillus anthraxis V y. Stomach ulcers
e. Neisseria gonorrhea W z. Syphilis

37. Match the bacterium with its phylum

a. Clostridium dificile q m. Spirochaetes
b. Helicobacter pylori p n. Cyanobacteria
c. Anabaena n p. Gm (-) Proteobacteria
d. Treponema pallidum m q. Gm (+) Eubacteria

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38. Once they appeared on Earth 2 billion years before present (YBP), these organisms forever changed
the atmosphere on earth by the production of large quantities of oxygen gas.
a. Gm (+) eubacteria
b. Archaea
c. Cyanobacteria
d. Plants
e. Gm (-) Rickettsias

Lab 10: Electrophoresis Lab

39. Electrophoresis Lab: Why does a 500-bp piece of DNA travel faster than a 1500-bp piece of DNA
during agarose gel electrophoresis?
a. A 500 bp piece has fewer (-) charges than a larger piece of DNA
b. A 500 bp piece is less likely to be tangled up in the agarose strands than the 1,500 bp piece
c. A larger, 1500 bp piece is strongly attracted to the (-) pole and prefers to stay near the wells
d. A 500 bp piece has fewer (+) charges than a larger piece of DNA

40. Electrophoresis Lab The migration of DNA within an agarose gel during electrophoresis is primarily
based on what factor?
a. The number of DNA fragments
b. The negative charge of the DNA
c. The volume of the DNA sample loaded
d. The size of the DNA fragments
e. The size of the wells of the gel

Lab 11: Meiosis & Karyotypes (NOTE: There will be a few “When do cells become haploid?” questions
repeated from Exam 3. Be ready….if you still don’t understand this, ask us before the exam Let’s get 100%!)
41. A baby with a karyotype of 45, XO could be said to have:
a. Down Syndrome
b. Edwards Syndrome
c. Klinefelter’s Syndrome
d. Turner Syndrome
e. Jacob Syndrome

Lab 12: GENETICS, Round II

42. (Sex-linkage) If a male has hemophilia (XfY), and his spouse is heterozygous for hemophilia,
a. There is a 50% chance that their sons will have hemophilia
b. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will have hemophilia
c. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will be carriers for hemophilia
d. All of the above
e. A and c only

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43. (Hardy-Weinberg) In a population with two alleles for cystic fibrosis, C and c, the frequency the
recessive allele is 0.6. What percent of the population would be heterozygous carriers for cystic
fibrosis if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. 16%
b. 36%
c. 40%
d. 48%
e. 64%

44. (Linked genes) A fruitfly with red eyes and leg bristles (genotype RrBb) was mated with a white-eyed
fly lacking bristles (rrbb). Five hundred offspring were counted, with the following results:
58 Rrbb offspring; 62 rrBb offspring; 200 RrBb offspring; 180 rrbb offspring.
Based on these results, how much distance is between these two genes on the chromosome?

a. 24% (24 map units)

b. 58% (58 map units)
c. 60% (60 map units)
d. 76 % (76 map units)
e. 100% (100 map units)

45. The pedigree at right shows a family with a

disease pattern indicated by shaded symbols.
Which of the following patterns of transmission for this gene are consistent with this pedigree?
a. autosomal recessive
b. autosomal dominant
c. X-linked recessive

46. The trait found in the individuals represented by the

shaded symbols is rare in the general population. Which
of the following patterns of transmission for this gene
is/are consistent with this pedigree?
a. autosomal recessive
b. autosomal dominant
c. X-linked recessive

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47. (Chi square) A large ear of corn has a total of 320 grains, including 182 Purple & Starchy, 54 Purple &
sweet, 63 yellow & Starchy, and 21 yellow & sweet. Your Hypothesis is that this ear of corn was
produced by a dihybrid cross (PpSs x PpSs) involving two pairs of heterozygous genes resulting in a
theoretical (expected) ratio of 9:3:3:1. What is the Chi-square ( 2) value? (Reminder: 2 = (o-e)2/e).
See lab ppt for “How to Solve Chi square problems”.
a. 2 = 3.85
b. 2 = 5.99
c.  2 = 0.82
d. 2 = 0.02
48. Using the above problem, What is the
degree of freedom? Is this a good fit?
a. df = 1, yes
b. df = 2, no
c. df = 3, yes
d. df = 4, no

49. In the pGLO lab, how could you confirm that a transformed cell was expressing the bla gene?
a. It would fluoresce green
b. It would grow on Amp plates
c. If would not grow on ‘LB only’ plates
d. If would only grow on ‘LB only’ plates

50. After transformation of HB101 by pGLO, why are the cells grown in LB broth for 20 minutes before
plating on Amp plates?
a. The Green Fluorescent Protein takes 20 minutes to be transcribed and translated
b. The pGLO plasmid does not fully enter the HB101 cells until 20 minutes after the heat shock
c. The Arabinose promoter needs at least 20 minutes before RNA polymerase can bind to the
promoter
d. There is a phenotypic lag of ~20 minutes before the b-lactamase gene for Amp resistance can be
expressed
e. The HB101 bacteria are weak after the heat shock treatment, and need 20 minutes to recover

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