GENERAL AND ORAL ANATOMY; GENERAL AND ORAL PHYSIOLOGY

Shade AE if the answer is not in the choices given.

1. The movement of the TMJ in transverse direction occurs at?

A. Superior joint compartment C, Inferior joint compartment
B. Lateral joint compartment D. Medial joint compartment

2. The TMJ meniscal disc has the following description, except?

A. Biconcave disc C. Has a thick posterior compartment
B. The thinnest part is at the anterior compartment D, Divides the cavity into 2 compartments

3. The following describes the mandible, except?

A. Develops from 1st brachial arch
B. Condyle develops by means of membranous ossification
C. Ramus grows in a posterior direction
D. Serves as the attachment of several muscles of mastication

4. Metopic suture is associated with what bone?

A. Frontal bone B. Sphenoid bone C. Temporal bone D. Maxillary bone

5. The sphenoid bone develops from

A. Membranous development B. Endochondral development C. Both

6. The cervical vertebra and the hand and wrist bone is

A. Adjunct to determine the growth status of an individual
B. Its development is affected by the increase in size of individual;
C. Important landmark in determining the growth status of an individual
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

7. Pterion comprises of the following

A. Temporal, occipital, sphenoid, parietal C. Sphenoid, temporal, frontal, parietal
B. Parietal, occipital, frontal, sphenoid D. Temporal, parietal, frontal, occipital

8. The hinge movement of TMJ is accomplished by, which among the following choices is incorrect
A. Inferior joint cavity C. Lateral pterygoid opposes the movement
B. Anterior opening of the jaw and posterior movement D. None of the above

9. The number of muscle present in man

A. 640 B. 450 C. 850 D. 550

10. Which of the following muscles is the smallest?

A. Corrugator supercilli B. Stapedius C. Stylohyoid D. Phenomandibular

11. The 5th muscle of mastication is

A. Stylomandibularis B. Sphenomandibularis C. Hyomandibularis D. None of the above

12. A segment of the lung that is pyramidal in shape, apex towards the lung root
A. Bronchopulmonary segment B. Upper segment C. Lower segment D. None of the above

13. It is much easier to smile because when you smile there are 20 muscles that act on it, but when you frown
there are how many muscle acts on it?
A. 30 Muscles B. 40 muscles C. 50 muscle D. 600 muscles
 14. The following are paired cartilages of the larynx, except
A. arytenoid B. cuneiform C. corniculate D. cricoid

15. This muscle is also called caninus

A. depressor labii inferioris C. levator labii superioris
B. levator anguli oris D. depressor anguli oris

16. The following are the origin of the trapezius, except

A. superior nuchal line B. lumbosacral fascia C. ligamentum nuchae D. C7-T12

17. The following are the rotator cuff muscle, except

A. Teres major B. teres minor C. supraspinatus D. infraspinatus

18. It extends the arm and medially rotates the glenohumeral joint
A. subscapularis B. supraspinatus C. teres major D. teres minor

19. Muscular dystrophy a genetic disease that causes atrophy of the muscle fibers and it is also called the
pompe disease
A. 1st and the 2nd statement are correct
B. 1st and 2nd statement are incorrect
C. one is correct the other is not

20. Superficial muscle that covers the lower jaw and anterior part the neck, what is the nerve supply of this
muscle
A. temporal N B. Buccal N C. mandibular N D. cervical N

21. The following are inserted into the intertubercular groove of the humerus, except
A. Teres Major B. Teres minor C. pectoralis Minor D. latissimus dorsi

22. The main blood supply of the 2nd and 5th digits when blocked or injured will cause
A. trousseau sign B. hand paralysis C. tunnel syndrome D. carpal syndrome

23. The sciatic nerve after passing through the gluteus maximus will run towards the following muscle, except
A. piriformis B. pyramidalis C. obturator internus D. adductor magnus

24. The muscles of the thigh that is located at the lateral compartment moves the thigh in
A. away from the midline B. towards the midline C. rotates the leg D. medially position

25. Decompression fasciotomy is, except?

A. incision is made through the skin C. incision to relieve pressure
B. incision is made up to the muscle D. none of these

26. The cementoenamel junction of teeth curves in which two directions?

I. Towards the apex on the facial and lingual surfaces.
II. Away from the apex on the facial and lingual surfaces
III. Towards the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces
IV. Away from the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces
A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV

27. Primary teeth differ from the permanent teeth in that primary teeth have:
I. Whiter crown
II. More pronounced cervical ridges
III. Comparatively ridges larger pulp cavities
IV. Comparatively larger and slender roots
V. Longer crowns compared with their mesiodistal diameters
A. I, II & III B. I, II III & IV C. I, II III & V D. I, IV & V E. III, IV & V

28. A linear depression that crosses the mesial marginal ridge of maxillary premolar occlusally:
A. Mesial marginal ridge C. mesial marginal developmental ridge
B. Mesial marginal developmental groove D. both A & B E. both B & C

29. The sixth cusp of mandibular 1st molar located between the two lingual cusps is:
 A. Tuberculum intermedium C. cusp of carabelli
B. Tuberculum sextum D. distal cusp E. mesiodistal cusp

30. Occlusally, mandibular second premolar three-cusps type exhibits the following, except:
A. Crown appears square lingual to the buccal cusp ridges.
B. Grooves converge in a central pit and form a Y occlusally.
C. Well-developed lingual cusp directly opposite the buccal cusp.
D. Three fossae, three triangular ridges, three grooves, three developmental pits.
E. Central groove may be straight , sometimes crescent-shaped

31. The following ridges forms the perimeter of the occlusal table of maxillary first molars, except:
A. Buccal cusps ridges C. mesial marginal ridge E. fifth cusp ridges
B. Lingual cusps ridges D. distal marginal ridge

32. The first evidence of calcification of maxillary third molar:

A. 6 years C. 7 to 9 years
B. 7 to 8 years D. 8 to 9 years E. 12 to 13 years

33. Which of the following is not true regarding surfaces of the teeth?
A. Mesial surfaces are those towards the median line of the face
B. Distal surfaces are those most distant from the median line of the face.
C. The surface that is towards the lips is the lingual surface.
D. Collectively, the surface that is towards the cheeks on posterior teeth and the lips on anterior
teeth is the facial surface.
E. The surface that is towards the cheek on posterior teeth is the buccal surface.

34. The largest incisal/occlusal embrasure is located between:

A. Maxillary central and lateral incisors D. Mandibular lateral incisor and canine
B. Mandibular central and lateral incisors E. Maxillary canine and first premolar
C. Maxillary lateral incisor and canine

35. The following forms the perimeter of maxillary first premolar occlusally, except:
A. mesial and distal cusp ridges of the buccal cusp
B. mesial and distal cusp ridges of the lingual cusp
C. buccal and lingual triangular ridges
D. mesial and distal marginal ridges
E. none, all forms the perimeter of max first premolar occlusally.

36. The following features are TRUE of maxillary first premolar mesially , except :
A. Presence of a developmental depression on the crown and root.
B. Well-defined developmental groove in the enamel of mesial marginal ridge.
C. the groove and depression are in line with each other
D. the groove and depression are connected with each other.
E. All of the above are true.

37. A peg shaped lateral incisor would developed from how many lobes?
A. one lobe B. three lobes C. two lobes D. four lobes E. five lobes

38. Maxillary lateral incisors vary considerably in its development. Variations includes the following, except:
A. Non-descript pointed form C. Missing entirely
B. deep developmental grooves D. twisted roots; distorted crowns E. notch on the incisal ridge

39. The height of contour of a mandibular incisor when viewed facially is located at what third of the crown?
A. Cervical C. junction of cervical and middle
B. Middle D. incisal E. junction of middle and incisal

40. The mandibular central incisors exhibits which one of the following characteristics when viewed from the
incisal aspect?
A. The labial surface is more narrow than the lingual surface.
B. The incisal ridge is facial to the line bisecting the crown LL.
C. The incisal ridge is almost at right angle to the line bisecting the crown LL.
D. The LL diameter of the crown is always less than the MD diameter.
 E. None of the above.

41. The sixth cusp of mand. 1st molars located on the distal marginal ridge:
A. tuberculum intermedium C. cusp of carabeli
B. tuberculum sextum D. none of the choices

42. Which of the following forms the oblique ridge of maxillary first molars?
I. distolingual triangular ridge IV. mesial triangular ridge of ML cusp
II. mesiobuccal triangular ridge V. distal triangular ridge of ML cusp
III. distobuccal triangular ridge
A. I & IV B. I & V C. II & V D. III & IV E. III & V

43. The following are considered primary cusps of maxillary molars, except:
A. mesiolingual B. distobuccal C. mesiobuccal D. distolingual E. none of these

44. These molars has two antagonists, except:

A. maxillary first molars C. maxillary third molars
B. mandibular first molars D. mandibular third molar

45. Which among the permanent teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal
marginal ridge?
A. Maxillary first molar C. Mandibular second molar
B. Mandibular first molar D. Mandibular first premolar E. Maxillary first premolar

46. The following cusps of the maxillary molars that forms the maxillary molar primary cusp triangle.
I. Mesiofacial II. Mesiolingual III. Distofacial IV. Distolingual
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. II, III & IV D. I, III & IV

47. Cross sectionally, deciduous teeth as compare to permanent teeth are as follows, except:
A. Pulpal horns are higher, especially mesial horns, and chambers are proportionately larger.
B. Dentin thickness between the pulp and the enamel is limited.
C. Enamel rods at the cervix slope gingivally instead of occlusally as in the permanent teeth.
D. Enamel cap of deciduous molars is thinner and has a more consistent depth.
E. There is a comparatively greater thickness of dentin over the pulpal wall at the occlusal fossa of
deciduous molars.

48. Deciduous teeth, in comparison with their permanent counterpart, present the following, except:
A. Crowns of deciduous anterior teeth are wider mesiodistally in comparison with their crown
length.
B. Cervical ridges of enamel of anterior teeth are more prominent.
C. Cervical ridges buccally on deciduous molars are much more pronounced
D. Buccal and lingual surface of deciduous molars are flatter above the cervical curvatures.
E. Occlusal surfaces of deciduous molars are wider than those of permanent molars.

49. What would you estimate to be the dental age of a child with the following teeth: all primary maxillary
incisors, canines and molars; permanent mandibular incisors and first molars.
A. 2 to 4 years C. 8 to 9 years
B. 5 to 7 years D. 10 to 11 years E. over 12 years

50. All mandibular posterior teeth have crown outlines from mesial or distal aspect that is roughly
rhomboidal. Their entire crown has a lingual tilt in relation to the root axis.
A. The first statement is true, while the second statement is false.
B. The second statement is false, while the first statement is false.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements is false.

51. The repeating units of nucleic acids or nucleotides are made up of the following molecules
A. nitrogenous base and sugar C.pyrimidine/purine , sugar and phosphate
C. nitrogenous base and phosphate D. pyrimidine/purine and phosphate E. sugar and phosphate.

52. In the cytoplasm, rRNA and protein combine to form a

A. nucleoprotein B. ribosome C. rER D. A and B E .B and C.
 53. In 1972, the Fluid Mosaic Model of membrane structure was proposed by
A.Robert Hooke C. Charles Overton E. Gorter and Grendel
B. Singer and Nicholson D. Danielli and Davson.

54. The synthesis of specific proteins from the mRNA base sequence code is
A. replication B. translation C. transcription D. transduction E. both B and C.

55. This type of RNA is characterized by bending on itself to form a cloverleaf structure that twists further
into an upside down “L” shape is
A. iRNA B. miRNA C. mRNA D. rRNA E. tRNA.

56. All are specific types of facilitated diffusion, except

A. counter transport B. cotransport C. gated channels D. antiport E. uniport.

57. Facilitated diffusion is significant to cells and humans because of the following, except
A. communication of neurons C. contraction of muscles E. transport of food in the small intestines
B. cell respiration D. glandular secretion.

58. All are applications of osmosis in cells and humans, except in

A. cells that remove water produced during cell respiration
B. kidney cells forming urine
C. large intestines cells that transport water to the blood stream
D. movement of glucose and amino acids across the cell membrane.

59. Transmembrane proteins of opposite cells attach in a tight zipper-like fashion are seen in
A. tight junctions B. desmosomes C. gap junctions D. plasmodesmata E. all of them.

60. This type of RNA carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm for controlling the type of protein formed
A)mRNA B)tRNA C)rRNA D)hnRNA E)sn RNA.

61. During this stage of mitosis, the 2 chromatids of each chromosome are pulled apart at the centromere and
all 46 pairs of chromatids are separated forming two separate sets of 46 daughter chromosomes
A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase E. interphase.

62. When cells are no longer needed or become a threat to the organism, they undergo a suicide programmed
cell death called
A. necrobiosis B. necrosis C. pyknosis D. cytokinesis E. apoptosis.

63. Arrange the following terms in the sequence that best reflects how the body maintains homeostasis, for
example during a fever: 1- effector activated 2-integrating center process 3-negative feedback loops
activated 4-sensor activated 5-return to set point
A. 24315 B. 53241 C. 43152 D. 42135 E. 12453.

64. The transport of glucose molecules from outside the cell, across the membranes, and into most tissue cells
(excluding the intestine or kidney tubule) occurs by the process of
A. active transport C. simple or passive diffusion
B. facilitated diffusion D. coupled transport E. antiport.

65. This type of contraction/s is/are propagated for only short distances and function to mix intestinal contents
A. peristalsis B. assimilation C. segmentation D, propulsive movements E. both A and C.

66. The only means by which macromolecules, such as protein molecules can enter cells is by
A. phagocytosis B. emeiocytosis C. exocytosis D. pinocytosis E. karyokinesis.

67. All are functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, except

A. glycogen breakdown C. synthesis of cholesterol
B. synthesis of phospholipids D. detoxification of drugs and poisons E. synthesis of proteins.

68. This structure serves as the site and carries the enzymes for protein synthesis
A. nucleic acids B. nucleoproteins C. ribosomes D. phagosomes E. peroxisomes.
 69. These are glycoproteins and/or glycolipids on extracellular surface which serve as ID tags to determine
which species, which type of cell, or individual are the
A. transport proteins C. enzymatic proteins
B. cell recognition proteins D. receptor proteins E.attachment proteins.

70. The extent to which the lungs expand for each unit increase in transpulmonary pressure is called
A, compliance B. resonance C. vibration D. ventilation E. articulation.

71. These are subtypes of transport proteins which bind to a substance and carry it across the membrane, can
change in shape in the process are the
A .channel proteins B. carrier proteins C. integrins D. glycophorins E. chemical messengers.

72. Water molecules can move directly through the phospholipids of the plasma membrane by
A. facilitated diffusion B. osmosis C. pinocytosis D. heterophagy E. filtration.

73. The large molecules that move out of the cell through exocytosis are the following, except
A. proteins B. polysaccharides C. polynucleotides D, water E. neurotransmitters.

74. All are examples of endocytosis, except

A.phagocytosis C. receptor-mediated endocytosis
B. pinocytosis D. surface tension E, none of them.

75. These molecules move through the plasma membrane by facilitated diffusion, except
A. Na+, K+ and Cl- C. glucose
B. amino acids D. small water soluble molecules E. Ca++ and Mg++

76. This phase of tooth eruption is completed when the tooth reaches the occlusal plane.
A. Pre-eruptive B. Eruptive C. Functional D. all of the above

77. Third stage of tooth eruption.

A. Gingival Emergence C. Emergence of crown tip into the oral cavity
B. Postemergent eruptive spurt D. all of the above

78. The tooth is pushed out of the bone by forces generated

A. beneath the tooth B .above the tooth C .around the tooth D. beneath and around the tooth

79. Remnants of dental lamina and connective tissue contained in the gubernacular canal which are found in
successional teeth.
A. pulp tissue B. periodontal ligament C. gubernacular cord D. alveolar bone

80. Cells within the periodontal ligament which may generate an eruptive force either by their contractility
or locomotor activity.
A. fibroblasts B. odontoblasts C. cementoblasts D. cementoclasts

81.Correct sequence of tooth eruption in the maxillary arch

A. 61234587 B. 61243578 C. 61245378 D. 62143578

82. Correct sequence of tooth eruption in the mandibular arch

A. 61234578 B. 61243578 C. 61254378 D. 62143578

83. Mandibular arch conforms generally to one or more curved planes which appear concave and the
opposing maxillary arch, the curvature appears
A. concave B. flat C. convex D. any of the above

84. Development of occlusion begins with the occlusion of the

A. permanent teeth B .mixed dentition C. deciduous teeth D. all of the above

85. Basic pattern of tooth position A. Arch B. Gingiva C. Curve of Spee D. Articulation

86. Used to describe contacts between the teeth in opposing dental arches during mandibular movements
A. Arch B. Gingiva C. Curve of Spee D. Articulation
87. Curved alignment of cusps and incisal ridges observed from a point opposite the first molars.
A. Arch B. Gingiva C. Curve of Spee D. Articulation

88. Each tooth has 2 antagonists, except A. 31 B. 38 C. 26 D. 43

89. Position assumed by the permanent tooth germs relative to their precursor.
A. lingual B. mesial C. distal D. labial E. buccal

90. Example of disturbance A. posterior open bite B. bruxism C. attrition D. cracked tooth

91. Exampe of disorder A. overcrowding B. bruxism C. sharp teeth D. increase overbite

92. Temporomandibular joint is composed of muscles, bone, ligament, cartilage and

A. synovial membrane B. nerve C. sulcus D. sinus

93. Bony elevation located anterior and posterior to the glenoid fossa
A. articular eminence B. temporal bone C. condylar process D. mandible

94. It completely surrounds the condyle

A. temporomandibular ligament C. sphenomandibular ligament
B. capsular ligament D. stylomandibular ligament

95. With wider opening of the jaw, the sphenomandibular ligament is

A. slightly stretched B. relaxed C. separated D. collapsed

96. Lines the internal surface of the meniscus

A. stylohyoid B. cartilage C.masseter D.synovial membrane

97. Olfactory receptors are located on the olfactory mucous which lies on the
A. posterodorsal part of nasal cavity C. anterodorsal part of nasal cavity
B. posterosuperior part of nasal cavity D. anterosuperior part of nasal cavity

98. Odor obtained from the abdominal skin of a deer

A. camphoraceous B. ethereal C.pungent D. putrid E. musky

99.Volatile, inflammable liquid obtained by the distillation of alcohol with sulfuric acid
A. peppermint B. pungent C. ethereal D.musky

100 .Smell of a decomposing organic matter A. pungent B. putrid C. musky D. sweet

1. At birth, which of the following structures is nearest the size it will eventually attain in
adulthood?
A. Cranium C. middle face
B. Mandible D. nasal Capsule

2. When lowering the floor of the mouth of a patient, a practitioner detaches all or part of which
muscles?
A. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid D. Geniohyoid and genioglossus
B. Mylohyoid and buccinator E. Buccinator and genioglossus
C. Mylohyoid and genioglossus

3. The pterygomandibular raphe is a tendon between which muscle?

A. stapedius and stylohyoid
B. buccinator and superior constrictor
C. medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid
D. levator veli palatine and tensor veli palatini
E. anterior belly of digastric and sternocleidomastoid

4. Which of the following contributes principally to the increase in height of maxillary bones?
A. sutural growth C. apposition on the tuberosity
B. alveolar growth D. apposition on the anterior surfac
5. Fracture through the angle of the mandible can result in an upward displacement of the
proximal fragment. Which of the following groups of muscles produces this movement?
A. Digastric and geniohyoid
B. Masseter, digastric and lateral pterygoid
C. Masseter, temporal and lateral pterygoid
D. Masseter, temporal and medial pterygoid

6. The following are classified as mixed cranial nerves:

1. CN 5 3. CN 9
2. CN 7 4. CN 11 5. CN 12
A. 1,2 3 B. 2,3,4 C. 3,4,5 D. 1, 4,5 E. 4 & 5

7. The longest and most convoluted portion of the digestive tract is:
A. Large intestine D. Pharynx
B. Esophagus E. Rectum
C. Small intestine

8. Common opening of the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct in the duodenum:
A. Major duodenal duct D. Ampulla of vater
B. Common bile orifice E. Hepatopancreatic ampulla
C. Minor duodenal duct

9. This is smooth muscle that helps eject urine from the bladder:
A. Dartos muscle D. Myometrium
B. Detrussor muscle E. Bulbospongiosus
C. Trigone

10. The cranial nerves that are associated with the tongue:
1. CN 5 2. CN 7 3. CN 9 4. CN 11 5. CN 12
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,4,5 D. 1,2,3,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5

11. The foramen where the CSF passes were:

1. Iter 2. Stensen’s 3. Magendie 4. Monro 5. Luschka
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,3,4,5 D. 1,3,5 E. 2,3,5

12. In performing tracheostomy, the involved triangle is the:

A. Carotid triangle D. Submental triangle
B. Muscular triangle E. Subclavian triangle
C. Submandibular triangle

13. Indentation in the medial border of the kidney’s for the passage of renal vessels and ureters:
A. Renal hiatus D. renal hilus
B. Renal sinus E. renal orifice
C. Renal pelvis

14. Inner layer of the dura mater between cerebral hemispheres cerebellum:
A. Londitudinal D. falx cerebri
B. central sulcus E. Falx cerebelli
C. transverse cerebi

15. The liver is one of the two organ, along with the lungs, to receive a dual blood supply. Which
two structures are responsible for that dual blood supply to the liver?
1. Common carotid artery 3. Splanchnic vein
2. Hepatic artery 4. Hepatic portal vein
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 2 & 4 E. 1 & 4

16. Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the superior and inferior venae cavae and
also from the anterior cardiac veins?
A. Right atrium C. Right ventricle
B. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

17. Which two muscle below form a sling around the angle of the mandible?
 1. Buccinator muscle 3. Medial pterygoid muscle
2. Masseter muscle 4. Lateral pterygoid muscle
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 1 & 3 E. 1 & 4

18. Which three muscle are considered to be the circular muscles of the pharynx?
1. Superior constrictor 3. Palatopharyngeus 5. Inferior constrictor
2. Stylopharyngeus 4. Middle constrictor 6. Salpingopharyngeus
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 3, 5 C. 1, 4, 6 D. 1, 4, 5 E. 2, 4, 5

19. Which lobe of the cerebrum is responsible for hearing?

A. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe

20. Which structures make up the brainstem?

1. Diencephalon 3. Medulla oblongata
2. Pons 4. Mesencephalon
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 1,2,3,4

21. Non-neuronal tissue of the CNS that performs supportive and other ancillary functions is
called:
A. Dermatome C. Bursa
B. Neuroglia D. Synapse

22. The cardiac notch is a deep indentation on the:

A. Superior lobe of the left lung D. Middle lobe of the right lung
B. Inferior lobe of the left lung E. Superior lobe of the right lung
C. Inferior lobe of the right lung

23. During an inferior alveolar block injection, the needle passes through the mucous membrane
and the buccinator muscle and lies lateral to which muscle ?
A. Masseter C. Medial pterygoid
B. Temporalis D. Lateral pterygoid

24. The internal acoustic meatus transmits which two of the following structures?
1. Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) 3. Facial nerve (CN VII)
2. Trigeminal nerve (CN V) 4. Vagus nerve (CN X)
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 1 & 3 D. 1 & 4 E. 2 & 4

25. Which of the following is the best way to palpate the posterior aspect of the mandibular
condyle?
A. Intraorally
B. Through the external auditory meatus
C. Lateral to the external auditory meatus
D. Any of the above.

26. When a permanent tooth clinically emerges, how much of the root structure is most likely to
have developed?
A. ¼ B. 1/3 C. 2/3 D. 4/5

27. Where is the orifice to the fourth canal in a maxillary first molar usually found?
A. Under the distofacial cusp.
B. Lingual to the orifice of the mesiofacial canal
C. On a line running from the palatal orifice to the distofacial orifice.
D. On a line running from the distofacial orifice to the mesiofacial orifice.

28. Which of the following eruption sequences is most commonly found in the primary dentition?
A. Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, first molar, second molar
B. Central incisor, lateral incisor, first molar, canine, second molar
C. First molar, central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, second molar
D. First molar, central incisor, lateral incisor, second molar, canine

29. Which among the permanent molars develops from 5 lobes?

 A. maxillary 1st C. mandibular 1st
B. maxillary 2nd D. mandibular 2nd E. third molars

30. The lingual lobe of an anterior teeth is referred to as the:

A. lingual ridge C. mamelons
B. cingulum D. tubercles E. lingual pit

31. Mesial developmental depression is a characteristic feature of which premolar?

A. maxillary 1st C. mandibular 1st
B. maxillary 2 nd D. mandibular 2nd 2-cusp E. Mandibular 2nd 3-cusps

32. “Primate spaces” in the primary dentition are found in which two locations?
1. In the maxillary arch, located between the central & lateral incisors
2. In the maxillary arch, located between the lateral incisors & canines
3. In the mandibular arch, located between the canines & first molars
4. In the mandibular arch, located between the lateral incisors & canines
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 4 E. 1 & 3

33. Anterior teeth whose cingulum are located off center to the distal.
1. Maxillary centrals 4. Mandibular centrals
2. Maxillary laterals 5. Mandibular laterals
3. Maxillary canines 6. Mandibular canines
A. 1,2,4,5 B. 1,2,4,5,6 C. 1,3,4,5,6 D. 2,3,4 E.1, 5, 6

34. During a working side movement of the mandible, the oblique ridge of a maxillary first molar
passes through which sulcus of a permanent mandibular first molar?
A. Mesiobuccal sulcus C. Mesiolingual sulcus
B. Distobuccal sulcus D. Distolingual sulcus

35. How many planes of movement can the mandible move in?
A. one B. two C. three D. four

36. Cusp of carabelli is found on which cusp of maxillary first molar?

A. mesiobuccal cusp C. distobuccal cusp
B. mesiolingual cusp D. distolingual cusp

37. Cervical contours are closely related to the attachment of gingival at the neck of the tooth. The
greatest contours of the cervical lines and gingival attachments occur on which of the following
surfaces?
A. Distal surfaces of anterior teeth C. Mesial surfaces of anterior teeth
B. Distal surfaces of posterior teeth D. Mesial surfaces of posterior teeth

38. The surfaces of teeth that have a trapezoidal outline:

1. Lingual of posterior teeth 3. Buccal of posterior teeth
2. Labial of anterior teeth 4. Proximal of posterior teeth
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 2 & 3 only D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only

39. Occlusocervically, the height of the distal marginal ridge of a permanent first molar is the same
height as:
A. The mesial marginal ridge of a permanent maxillary 2nd premolar
B. The mesial marginal ridge of a permanent mandibular first molar
C. The mesial marginal ridge of a permanent maxillary 2nd molar
D. The distal marginal ridge of a permanent maxillary second premolar.

40. The axial surfaces of teeth that have a rhomboidal outline?

A. Mesial and distal of maxillary posterior teeth
B. Mesial and distal of mandibular posterior teeth
C. Lingual of maxillary posterior teeth
D. Buccal of maxillary posterior teeth
E. Buccal of mandibular posterior teeth
41. The part of the tooth that is exposed to the oral cavity is referred to as:
A. clinical crown C. clinical root
B. anatomic crown D. Anatomic root E. both A & B

42. Oblique ridges of maxillary molars are formed by which two triangular ridges (TR)?
1. mesial TR of mesiolingual cusp 3. TR of distobuccal cusp
2. distal TR of mesiolingual cusp 4. TR of distolingual cusp
A. 1 & 3 B. 1 & 4 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 1 & 4

43. Which among the premolars develops from 5 lobes?

A. maxillary 1st C. mandibular 1st E. mandibular 2nd – 3 cusp type
B. maxillary 2 nd nd
D. mandibular 2 - 2 cusp type

44. The mandibular molars have an inclination towards what direction?

A. Facially C. neither facially nor lingually
B. Lingually D. Both, depending on the type of mandibular molars

45. Y-shaped groove is characteristic of :

A. maxillary 1st C. mandibular 1st E. mandibular 2nd – 3 cusp type
B. maxillary 2nd D. mandibular 2nd- 2 cusp type

46. This molar presents cusps that are almost equal in size:
A. maxillary 1st C. mandibular 1ST
B. maxillary 2nd D. mandibular 2nd E. third molars

47. This molar presents buccal roots that are plier-handled in shaped?
A. maxillary 1st C. mandibular 1ST
B. maxillary 2 nd D. mandibular 2nd E. third molars

48. One of its’ distinguishing landmark is the mesiolingual developmental groove:

A. maxillary 1st C. mandibular 1ST
B. maxillary 2 nd D. mandibular 2nd E. third molars

49. This molar presents two major and two minor fosae?
A. maxillary 1st C. mandibular 1ST
B. maxillary 2nd D. mandibular 2nd E. third molars

50. A well-developed transverse ridge is found on the occlusal of this tooth?

A. maxillary 1st molar C. mandibular 1ST premolar
B. maxillary 2nd premolar D. mandibular 2nd 3-cusp type

51. Maximum volume to which the lungs can be expanded with the greatest possible inspiratory
effort:
A. 2,300ml B. 5,800ml C. 3,500ml D. 4,600ml E. 5,000ml

52. Signals entering a neuronal pool excite far greater numbers of nerve fibers leaving the pool:
A. Convergence C. reverberatory circuit
B. Divergence D. both A & B E. all of the choices

53. Tactile cells of Merkel:

A. determine texture of what is felt D. both A & B
B. important in localizing touch sensations E. both B & C
C. detect tissue vibration

54. Sensations transmitted by anterolateral system:

1. pain 3. tickle & itch
2. crude touch 4. position sensations 5. sexual sensations
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,2,3,5 C. 2,3,4,5 D. 1,3,4,5 E. 5 only

55. Kinesthesia:
 A. rate receptors C. phasic receptors
B. position senses D. both A & B E. both B & C

56. Intensity of this taste sensation is approximately proportional to the logarithm of the hydrogen
ion concentration:
A. sweet B. salty C. sour D. bitter E. none of these.

57. Which of the following is derived from the unsaturated fatty acids in cell membranes?
A. Histamine C. prostaglandins
B. Serotonin D. bradykinins E. endorphine

58. After A threshold stimulus, the cell-membrane permeability becomes altered. The liberation of
which of the following transmitter substances causes this alteration?
A. Acetylcholine C. hydroxycholine
B. Cholinesterase D. acetylsalicyclic acid

59. Which of the following cranial nerves have parasympathetic activity?

A. I, III, VII, IX C. III, V, VII, IX
B. II, V, IX, X D. III, VII, IX, X E. V, VII, VIII, X

60. Succinylcholine blocks neuromuscular transmission by:

A. inhibiting cholinesterase
B. inhibiting the CNS
C. depolarizing the motor endplate of skeletal muscle
D. inducing formation of cholinesterase at the endplate
E. blocking release of acetylcholine at the endplate

61. Gastric secretion is regulated by which two mechanisms?

1. Counter-current mechanism
2. Neural mechanism
3. Hormonal mechanism
4. Immunological mechanism
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 1 & 3 E. 2 & 4

62. Which of the following represents the standard bipolar limb lead 1 of the ECG?
A. right arm (-) and left arm (+) C. Left arm (-) and left leg (+)
B. right arm (-) and left leg (+) D. Left arm (-) and right leg (+)

63. Which valve composed of two cusps that prevent a backflow of blood from the left ventricle to
the left atrium during ventricular contraction?
A. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve
B. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve

64. Which of the following substances is filtered but not reabsorbed by the kidney tubules?
A. Sodium chloride C. Para-aminohippurate (PAH)
B. Inulin D. Glucose

65. Which of the following is synthesized only by microoraganisms and is not present in plants?
A. Vitamin A C. Vitamin C
B. Cobalamin (Vitamin B 12) D. Vitamin E

66. The pitch of a sound is related mainly to which of the following characteristics of a sound
wave?
A. Amplitude of waves D. Secondary waves
B. Frequency of waves E. Length of waves
C. Superimposed wave

67. Muscle cells use which of the following to store energy?

A. NADH C. Creatine phosphate
B. FADH2 D. Phosphoenolpyruvate
68. Rods and cones of the retina are examples of:
A. Mechanoreceptors C. chemoreceptors
B. Photoreceptors D. thermoreceptors

69. The action potential is an explosion of electrical activity that is created by a:

A. Polarizing current C. Repolarizing current
B. Depolarizing current D. Both B & C

70. The difference in electrical charge between the inside and the outside of the cell membrane of
an unstimulated (nonconducting) neuron is called the:
A. Relative refractory potential C. Resting membrane potential
B. Action potential D. Absolute refractory potential

71. Ovulation occurs as a result of:

A. The progesterone-induced LH surge
B. The estrogen-induced FSH surge
C. The progesterone-induced FSH surge
D. The estrogen-induced LH surge

72. Which receptors are stimulated by distension of the lungs?

A. Irritant receptors C. Lung stretch receptors
B. J receptors D. Joint and muscle receptors

73. Alveolar ventilation is expressed as:

A. Respiratory rate x (Tidal volume + Dead space)
B. Respiratory rate + (Tidal volume + Dead space)
C. Respiratory rate x (Tidal volume – Dead space)
D. Respiratory rate - (Tidal volume – Dead space)

74. When the lungs are in the resting position, the pressure within them, which is called the
intrapulmonary pressure, is equivalent to which of the following?
A. Blood pressure C. Atmospheric pressure
B. Critical pressure D. Transmural pressure

75. The unpleasant sensation of difficulty in breathing is called:

A. Hypercapnea C. Hypocapnea
B. Dyspnea D. Apnea

76. In serial extraction procedures, concerns about the eruption sequence are usually related to
the eruption pattern of which permanent teeth?
A. maxillary canines and first premolars
B. mandibular first and second premolars
C. mandibular first molars and incisors
D. mandibular canines and first premolars

77. The space for the eruption of permanent mandibular second and third molars is created by the:
A. apposition of the alveolar process
B. apposition at the anterior border of the ramus
C. resorption at the anterior border of the ramus
D. resoprtion at the posterior border of the ramus

78. When using an occlusal separator, a practitioner can expect which of the following types of
TMJ disorders to respond most favorably?
A. Chronic dislocation C. Capsular fibrosis
B. Muscle spasm D. Unilateral condylar hyperplasia

79. When a patient opens his mouth, there is an audible click. Which of the following represents
the most plausible explanation?
A. The joint capsule has thickened
 B. The disk and condyle lack functional coordination
C. The articular eminence has flattened
D. The medial pterygoid muscle is in spasm.

80. A fracture through the neck of the condyle can result in the forward displacement of the
condylar head because of the pull of which of the following muscles?
A. Temporal C. Buccinator
B. Masseter D. Medial pterygoid E. Lateral pterygoid

81. Which of the following is the most likely indication for splinting?
A. Primary occlusal trauma
B. Mobility with patient discomfort
C. Mobility with a decrease in tissue quality, secondary to hormonal imbalance
D. Mobility related to a unilateral “skid” from centric relation to centric occlusion

82. In a protrusive condylar movement, interferences can occur between which posterior cusp
inclines?
Inclines of maxillary Inclines of mandibular
A. Mesial Distal
B. Distal Mesial
C. Mesial Mesial
D. Distal Distal

83. Speech problems associated with cleft lip and palate are usually the result of:
A. poor tongue control that produces lisping.
B. The inability of soft palate to close air flow into the nasal area.
C. The inability of the tongue to close air flow from the epiglottis
D. Missing teeth that make formation of articulation sounds by the tongue difficult.
E. Poor lip musculature or heavy scars in the lips that limit vowel sound production.

84. The mandible in its physiologic rest or postural resting position has:
A. slight contact of teeth C. no contact
B. maximum contact of teeth D. premature contact E. slanted

85. This is a position assumed by the jaw when it is not engaged in any activity:
A. initial contact C. centric occlusion
B. physiologic rest position D. habitual occlusal position
E. most protruded position
86. When lowering the floor of the mouth of a patient, a dentist detaches all or part of which
muscles?
A. mylohyoid and geniohyoid C. mylohyoid and genioglossus
B. mylohyoid and buccinator D. geniohyoid and genioglossus
E. buccinator and genioglossus

87. Which muscle plays an subsidiary role in mastication?

A. Masseter C. buccinator
B. lateral pterygoid D. medial pterygoid E. temporalis

88. Bilateral contraction of the posterior fibers of the temporalis muscles results in:
A. retrusion C. opening
B. protrusion D. closing E. none of these

89. Which of the following jaw positions is determined almost exclusively by the behavior of the
musculature?
A. Postural C. retruded contact
B. Intercuspal D. protruded contact

90. When the teeth are in centric occlusion, the position of the mandible in relation to the maxilla is
primarily determined by the:
A. intercuspation of teeth
B. presence or absence of diastemas
C. tonus of muscles of head and neck
 D. ligaments of the TMJ

91. The non-working condyle performs which of the following movements?

A. straight forward
B. downward, forward and lateral
C. downward, forward and medial
D. downward, backward and medial

92. During nonmasticatory swallowing, teeth are usually:

A. protruded
B. In a working arrangement
C. in contact in intercuspal position
D. none of the above. This is a nonexistent act.

93. In periodontal structures, normal interdental osseous architecture is influenced to the greatest
extent by which of the following?
A. Proximal CEJ of adjacent teeth at the same level
B. Convex coronal facial contours located in the gingival thirds
C. Convex coronal lingual contours located in the middle thirds
D. Occlusal table of posterior teeth being 50-60% of the faciolingual overall widths of the
teeth.

94. Which of the following groups of fibers of the periodontal ligament is most resistant to forces
along the long axis of a tooth?
A. Apical C. horizontal
B. Oblique D. alveolar crest

95. When the mouth is open, there is more interocclusal distance anteriorly than posteriorly
because of the:
A. curve of Spee
B. shape of the articular eminence
C. anterior inclination of the teeth
D. rotary nature of the opening-closing movements

96. In the dentulous mouth, placing the mandible in the retruded path of closure usually results in:
A. an increases in occlusal vertical dimension
B. an increase in horizontal overlap
C. a decrease in vertical overlap
D. all of the above
E. both A & B .

97. In the intercuspal position, facial cusps of mandibular teeth occlude with
A. fossae only
B. grooves and embrasures
C. fossae and marginal ridges only
D. fossae, marginal ridges and embrasures

98. Which of the following occur normally during the act of swallowing?
1. masseter muscles contract
2. the suprahyoid group of muscles relaxes
3. teeth come into occlusal contact
4. the tip of the tongue touches the roof of the mouth
A. 1,2 & 3 B. 1,2 & 4 C. 1,3 & 4 D. 2,3 & 4 E. 1,2,3 & 4

99. Contraction of the posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle results in the mandible:
A. closing D. opening with translation
B. retruding E. opening without translation
C. protruding

100. The muscle of mastication that is primarily responsible for synchronizing the movement
of the condyle and the articular disc is the:
A. Masseter C. internal pterygoid (medial pterygoid)
 B. Temporalis D. external pterygoid (lateral pterygoid)
1. The layer of adrenal gland responsible for the production of sex steroids, estrogen and
progesterone:
A. zona reticularis C. zona glomerulosa
B. zona fasciculate D. both A & B E. both B & C

2. The nerve supply of diaphragm is:

A. Phrenic nerve C. Nerve to the lungs
B. Intercostal nerve D. Both A & B E. both A & C

3. The kidneys lie against the posterior abdominal wall at the level of vertebra:
A. T12 to L3 C. T11 to L2
B. T14 to L6 D. T1 to L4 E. none of these

4. Lies anterior to pre-frontal cortex in left hemisphere and generates a motor program for the
muscle of the larynx, tongue, cheeks and lips to produce sounds:
A. Brocas area C. pre-central gyrus
B. Wernickes area D. post-central gyrus E. both C & D

5. A muscle of the face that act in the expression of surprise.

A. corrugators supercilli C. frontalis
B. nasalis D. proceus E. none of these

6. Distal row of the carpal bone:

A. Trapezium C. lunate
B. Triquetrium D. scaphoid E. none of these

7. An artery to the big toe:

A. Pollicis artery C. Digital artery
B. Hallucis artery D. thumb artery E. none of these

8. The xiphosternal joint is at the level of:

A. 9th thoracic vertebra and 8th spine C. 10th thoracic vertebra and 9th spine
B. 8th thoracic vertebra and 8th spine D. 7th thoracic vertebra and 7th spine

9. The superior articular facet of the atlas articulates with:

A. mandibular condyle C. glenoid fossa of the skull
B. occipital condyle of the skull D. condylar notch

10. The alimentary tract extends:

A. from the stomach to the anus D. from the mouth to the stomach
B. from the mouth to the colon E. from the mouth to the anus
C. from the pharynx to the intestine

11. Also known as the heel bone:

A. calcaneus B. talus C. cuboid D. navicular E. none of these

12. Posterior wall of the oral cavity:

A. The union of palatopharyngeal and palatoglossal arches
B. The space just beneath the posterior tongue
C. The wall of the oropharynx
D. The space after the palatine tonsil

13. It carry the head of mandible forward and rotate it on the disc so that the chin moves
downwards and the mouth is opened.
A. Lateral pterygoid C. posterior part of the temporalis
B. anterior part of the temporalis D. Pterygoideus internus

14. The following are mixed nerve, except:

A. CN5 B. CN7 C. CN9 D. CN10 E. CN11

15. The nerves that innervate the TMJ are?

 A. auriculotemporal and mandibular nerves
B. auriculotemporal N. and condylar branch of the V3
C. Auriculotemporal N. and Massetric branch of V3
D. Auriculotemporal N. and Buccal nerve of V3

16. The most superficial muscle of the calf:

A. soleus B. gastrocnemius C. plantaris D. longus femoris

17. Also known as the pacemaker of the heart.

A. SA node B. AV node C. Bundle of His D. purkenji fibers

18. Highest point of the skull.

A. Obellion B. vertex C. inion D. parietal eminence

19. Which of the following is NOT housed by the cranial cavity?

A. Eyes B. diencephalons C. Iter D. Medulla oblongata

20. These are cauliflower-like extensions of the arachnoid meninx of the brain.
A. medulla oblongata C. arachnoid villi
B. choroids plexus D. choroids villi E. none of these

21. The following are TRUE about maxillary sinus, except:

A. biggest paranasal sinus
B. located superior to the nasal bone and anterior to the ethmoid bone
C. Anthrum of HigHmore
D. floor is the alveolar process

22. What is caudal to midbrain?

A. Cerebrum B. Thalamus C. Pons D. medulla oblongata

23. The three auditory ossicles in each middle ear cavity are the following, except:
A. malleus B. incus C. meatus D. stapes

24. Forms the inferior half of the nasal septum. Its name literally means “plowshare” which refers
to its resemblance to the blade of the plow.
A. Vomer C. inferior nasal concha
B. lateral plate of ethmoid bone D. septal cartilage

25. The following drains into the oral cavity proper, except:
A. Bartolinis duct C. Whartons duct
B. Stensens duct D. Ducts of ravini

26. Skeletal muscle is described by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. striated B. voluntary C. multinucleate D. autorhythmic

27. The walls of hollow organs and some blood vessels contain this muscle tissue:
A. striated B. skeletal C. cardiac D smooth

28. Which of the following is unique to cardiac muscle tissue?

A. Is voluntary C. has intercalated discs

B. is non-striated D. contains smooth muscle tissue

29. Approximately what percentage of body heat is generated by muscle tissue:

A. 15% B. 30% C. 55% D. 85% E. 98%

30. The major regulatory proteins in muscle tissue are:

A. myosin and tropomyosin C. actin and troponin
B. myosin and actin D. troponin and tropomyosin

31. Which of the following actions is caused by skeletal muscle:

 A. constriction of blood vessels C. dilation of pupil
B. heartbeat D. eye movements

32. Which of the following does NOT occur in a muscle during contraction:
A. thick and thin filaments bind to each other C. muscle fibers stretch
B. thick and thin filaments “slide” past each other D. muscle fibers shorten

33. This process aids in skeletal muscle relaxation after contraction:

A. calcium is released from intracellular storage sites
B. motor neurons send electrical signal to muscle
C. acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine
D. troponin binds calcium

34. The stiffness of muscle tissue in rigor mortis partially results from:
A. excessive acetycholine activity on muscle
B. excessive calcium release in muscle
C. excessive lactic acid build up
D. excessive contraction of the fibers

35. Which of the following statements regarding aging and the muscular system is true:
A. aging is associated with decreased myoglobin production
B. the effects of aging can be nearly completely reversed
C. satellite cells increase in aging causing fibrosis
D. young persons have more adipose in muscles compared to elderly persons

36. Training exercises such as jogging, swimming and aerobics have this effect on skeletal muscle
tissue:
A. increase number of mitochondria per muscle fiber
B. increase number of muscle fibers
C. increase number of motor units
D. increase number of skeletal muscles

37. Some of the nerves that innervate lymph nodes have been discovered to be adrenergic (can
release norepinephrine). This would suggest that:
A. the parasympathetic nervous system may influence lymph node activity
B. the sympathetic nervous system must act to enhance lymph node activity
C. the parasympathetic nervous system has no effect on lymph node activity
D. the sympathetic nervous system may influence lymph node activity

38. The parasympathetic nervous system affects all of these organs EXCEPT:
A. heart C. salivary glands
B. pupillary smooth muscles D. adrenal glands

39. "Night blindness" is an early sign of:

A. cataracts B. glaucoma C. vitamin A deficiency D. myopia

40. Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative EXCEPT:

A epinephrine D. thyroxine (T4)
B. melatonin E. thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
C. norepinephrine

41. Low blood glucose level typically results in the secretion of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. glucagon C. hGH
B. thyroxine (T4) D. PTH E. none of these

42. This hormone acts on the intestines and causes increased calcium absorption:
A. calcitonin C. thyroxine
 B. calcitriol D. pancreatic polypeptide E. corticotropin releasing factor (CRF)

43. If you were to eat four sugar glaze doughnuts and a large pepsi, which hormone would you
expect to be secreted at higher levels:
A. insulin C. glucagon
B. epinephrine D. cortisol E. oxytocin

44. A lack of or decrease in insulin hormone receptors on cells can result in:
A. diabetes insipidus D. insulin-dependant diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
B. type I diabetes mellitus E. juvenile diabetes
C. type II diabetes mellitus

45. A hematocrit value of 80 is termed:

A. polycythemia B. anemia C. thrombocytopenia D. leukemia

46. An increased neutrophil count typically is associated with:

A. an ongoing bacterial infection C. allergic reactions
B. neutropenia D. an ongoing parasitic infections

47. Hypoxia induces the kidneys to produce:

A. platelets B. intrinsic factor C. urobilin D. erythropoetin

48. A patient with CAD (coronary artery disease) is experiencing severe angina and self-
administers sublingual nitroglycerin. This will act as a(n):
A. cardiac beta-blocker D. coronary vasoconstrictor
B .coronary vasodilator E. anticoagulant blood-thinner
C. angioplastic agent

49. Which of the following disorders is characterized by painful musculoskeletal "tender points":
A. fibromyalgia C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. myasthenia gravis D. Becker muscular dystrophy

50. The blood vessels that play the most important role in the regulation of blood flow to a tissue
and blood pressure are the:
A. arteriole B. capillaries C. venules D. arteries E. ) veins

51. The swallowing of food or fluid from the mouth to the esophagus is called:
A. deglutition B. ingestion C. absorption D. peristalsis

52. If the lingual frenulum is too short, a person may be affected by

A. an inability to taste food C. difficulty with speech
B. a pain when chewing D. crooked teeth E. a dry mouth

53. The numerous small elevations on the dorsal surface of the tongue that support taste buds and
aid in handling food are called
A. cilia B. rugae C. villi D. gyri E. papillae

54. When looking directly into the oral cavity, one would not be able to see the:
A. lingual frenulum C. palatine tonsils
B. uvula D. epiglottis E. palatal rugae

55. Tooth decay, if not treated, would progressively erode the cusp of a tooth in which of the
following sequences?
A. cementum, dentin, enamel, pulp C. dentin, cementum, enamel, pulp
B. enamel, dentin, pulp D. cementum, enamel, dentin, pulp

56. Which of the following statements is false concerning saliva?

A. It aids in the formation of a bolus
B. It is secreted from exocrine salivary glands
C. It contains digestive enzymes
D. Between 1,000 and 1,500 ml are secreted daily
E. None of the above

57. During the second stage of deglutition

A. food is pulverized through chewing C. the bolus is formed
B. the bolus passes through the pharynx D. . the bolus enters the stomach

58. Which of the following is true regarding curvatures of the maxillary central incisor cervical line /
CEJ?
A. It is a semicircular curve toward the root apex on the labial surface.
B. It shows more curvature towards the incisal on the mesial surface than the distal.
C. It is a semicircular curve toward the incisal on the lingual surface.
D. Both A & B
E. All of the above.

59. From the mesial aspect, the crest of curvature (greatest measurement) in the labial and
lingual surface of maxillary incisors are located in which third of the crown?
A. Incisal D. junction of middle and cervical
B. junction of incisal and middle E. cervical
C. middle

60. Comparing the maxillary lateral to the maxillary central incisor, which of the following is true
regarding the lateral incisor?
A. The lingual fossa is more pronounced.
B. The mesial and distal outline of crown labially is convex.
C. The incisal ridge is facial to a line bisecting the root labiolingually.
D. Both A & B
E. All of the above.

61. The mesial contact area of maxillary central incisors is located at the:
A. incical ridge
B. near the mesioincisal angle
C. near the junction of incisal and middle third
D. at level with the distal contact area
E. none of the above.

62. The canines are important concerning esthetics due to which of the following considerations?
A. They can serve to help stabilize dental prosthetics
B. The position of the canine near the corner of the mouth
C. Both A and B.
D. The position of the bony ridge or canine eminence help support facial expression.

E. A, B and D

63. When viewed from the facial, the mesial outline of the mandibular canine crown and root is
generally:
64. A. more convex than the maxillary canine.
65. B. more concave that the maxillary canine
C. straight as compared to the maxillary canine
D. no difference as compared to the maxillary.

66. The term bicuspids, when applied to human dentition, is misleading. The term premolar is
more appropriate because:
A. Most premolars demonstrate one cusp only
B. Human premolars show a variation from one to three cusps.
C. Human premolars show a variation from two to five cusps.
D. The typical premolar will have a five cusps.
E. none of the above.

67. The maxillary second premolar erupts at about what age?

 68. A. 9 to 10 years D. 11 to 12 years
69. B. 10 to 11 years E. none of these
C. 10 to 12 years

70. The following linear elevation circumscribe the occlusal table of maxillary premolar, except:
71. A. mesiobuccal cusp ridge D. distal marginal ridge
B. mesiolingual cusp ridge E. lingual triangular ridge
C. mesial marginal ridge

72. After eruption of maxillary second premolar, root is completed at what age?
73. A. 6 – 7 years C. 10 – 11 years
74. B. 9 –10 years D. 10 – 12 years E. 12 – 14 years

75. Which of the following represents the geometric form of mandibular posterior teeth when
viewed from the medial or distal aspect?
A. Rhomboidal C. Elliptical
B. Trapezoidal D. Triangular E. Square

76. The largest and longest cusp in permanent posterior teeth is the

A. mesiolingual cusp of a maxillary first molar

B. distolingual cusp of a maxillary first molar

C. mesiofacial cusp of a mandibular first molar

D. Distofacial cusp of a mandibular first molar

77. The following present a trapezoidal outline on their crown portion.

I. facial aspect of incisors III. proximal aspect of premolars
II. lingual aspect of molars IV. proximal aspect of maxillary molars
V. proximal aspect of mandibular molars

A. I, II, III & IV B. I, II. III & IV C. I, II, IV & V D. I, II & III E. I & II

78. The cervical line of teeth curves in which two directions?

I. Towards the apex on the facial and lingual surfaces.

II. Away from the apex on the facial and lingual surfaces.

III. Towards the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces.

IV. Away from the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces.
A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV

79. The surface that would best exhibits the occlusal sulcus of maxillary premolars:

A. buccal surface C. proximal surface

B. lingual surface D. occlusal surface E. none of the choices.

80. Following eruption, the roots of the maxillary first molar are completed developmentally at
about what age?

A. 8 to 9 years C. 10 to 11 years

B. 9 to 10 years D. 12 to 14 years E. none of these

1. Which of the following occurs when the distobuccal cusp of a permanent mandibular right first
molar moves through the buccal groove from the central fossa of the maxillary right first molar?
A. direct lateral excursion to the left
B. direct lateral excursion to the right
C. direct protrusive mandibular excursion
D. lateral-protrusive excursion to the left
E. lateral-protrusive excursion to the right
 2. The embrasures surrounding the contact area of an anterior tooth are:
A. gingival, cervical, facial and lingual C. incisal, cervical, and facial only
B. incisal, cervical, facial and lingual D. cervical, lingual and facial only

3. Proximal contact of posterior teeth creates wear patterns that eventually cause:
A. gingival recession
B. decreased length of anatomic crown
C. increased length of clinical crown
D. reduced interproximal embrasure spaces.

4. Contraction of the posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle results in the mandible”
A. closing C. protruding E. opening without translation
B. retruding D. opening with translation
5. When the mandible I in its physiologic rest or postural position, contact of teeth is?
A. slight B. maximum C. premature D. not present

6. What muscle tissues form the floor of the mouth in the lingual vestible?
A. Lingual C. buccinator
B. Stylohyoid D. mylohyoid E. sphenomandibular

7. In a normal retrusive tooth contacting movements of the mandible, which tooth contacts the
maxillary central incisor?
A. Canine C. central incisor E. none of these
B. lateral incisor D. central and lateral incisor

8. In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential contact both
anterior and posterior antagonists?
A. maxillary canine C. maxillary lateral incisor
B. mandibular canine D. mandibular lateral

9. The protrusive pathway of mandibular cusps on maxillary posterior teeth is toward the?
A. Facial B. distal C. lingual D. mesial E. none of these

10. The disk (meniscus) of the TMJ is moved forward principally by the?
A. Condyle D. stylomandibular ligamen
B. articular capsule E. medial pterygoid muscle
C. lateral pterygoid muscle

11. In an ideal arrangement of teeth in the intercuspal position, the mesiobuccal cusp of the
permanent mandibular first molar would be in contact with the maxillary first molar:
A. in the central fossa C. on the oblique ridge
B. in the distal fossa D. on the mesial marginal ridge area

12. A primary mandibular second molar differs from a permanent mandibular first molar in that a
primary mandibular second molar:
A. is darker in color C. has a form peculiar to itself
B. is larger in size D. has a larger occlusal surface
C. has roots that are more divergent

13. The distal contact area of a permanent maxillary canine is usually located at the :
A. middle third C. middle of cervical third
B. middle of incisal third D. junction of incisal and middle third

14. The sixth cusp of mand. 1st molar located between the two lingual cusps:

A. tuberculum intermedium C. cusp of carabeli

B. tuberculum sextum D. none of the choices
15. At what age does the maxillary second premolar crown begin calcification?
 A. 1 to 1.5 years D. about 3 months prenatal
B. about 3 months postnatal E. about 2.5 to 3 years
C. about 2 to 2 ¼ years

16. When viewed from the mesial, an identifying characteristics of maxillary first premolar crowns
is which of the following?
A. The presence of a mesial developmental depressions.
B. A longer lingual cusp compared to the buccal cusp.
C. A facial crest of contour located in the occlusal third of the crown.
D. The presence of a mesiolingual groove.
E. none of the above.

17. The part of the tooth that is not exposed to the oral cavity:
A. clinical root C. anatomical root E. both A & C
B. clinical crown D. anatomical crown

18. This teeth has a single antagonist.

A. maxillary central and mandibular third molar
B. mandibular central and maxillary third molar
C. mandibular central incisor
B. maxillary third molar
C. none of the choices.

19. The maxillary lateral incisors is smaller than maxillary central incisor in all aspect except which
one of the following?
A. crown length D. root length
B. crown width MD E. diameter at the cervix
C. crown width LL

20. The process whereby the organic component of the teeth hardens is referred to as?
A. Eruption C. exfoliation
B. Emergence D. resorption E. calcification

21. Human permanent anterior teeth show how many developmental lobes?
A. one lobe C. three lobes
B. two lobes D. four lobes E. five lobes
. Salivary glands of the hard palate are located in the:
A. median raphe B. anterolateral zone C. gingival zone D. Posterolateral zone
2. Long bones of the skeleton increase in length because of the:
A. mitotic division of osteocytes
B. mitotic division of osteoblasts
C. resorption of primary bone by osteoclasts
D. appositional growth on the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate
E. interstitial growth in the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate.

3. Which of the following muscles serves as the forearm’s principal extensor?

A. pronator teres C. Triceps brachii
B. brachioradialis D. Coracobrachialis E. Extensor carpi radialis longus

4. A tumor of the maxillary sinus may cause an overflow of tears by exerting pressure on the:
A. lacrimal gland C. conjunctival sac
B. lacrimal puncta D. nasolacrimal duct E. none of these.

5. Which of the following artery is not a branch of the maxillary artery?

A. deep temporal C. inferior alveolar
B. middle meningeal D. superficial temporal E. posterior superior alveolar

6. Which of the following artery-foramen/fissure pairings is NOT correct?

A. Accessory meningeal – foramen ovale D. Middle meningeal – foramen spinosum
B. Inferior alveolar – mandibular formane E. Anterior tympanic – petrotympanic fissure
16. C. Posterior superior alveolar – sphenopalatine foramen

7. Surgical excision of the parotid gland endangers which of the following structures in in addition to the
facial nerve?
 A. hypoglossal nerve
B. motor nerves to the muscles of mastication
C. external carotid artery and auriculotemporal nerve
D. lesser occipital nerve and spinal accessory nerve

8. A needle for an inferior alveolar nerve injection mistakenly passes posteriorly at the level of the
mandibular foramen. Which of the following structures is it likely to contact?
A. Parotid gland C. Internal carotid artery
B. Lingual nerve D. Pterygomandibular raphe E.Tendon of the temporalis muscle

9. Which of the following cartilages will be cut twice in a sagittal section through the neck?
A. cricoid B. thyroid C. arytenoid D. epiglottis E. 2nd tracheal cartilage
10. Which of the following contains the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract?
A. Pars nervosa C. Infundibular stalk
B. Pars intermedia D. Pars distalis of the hypophysis

11. The lateral boundary of the retropharyngeal (prevertebral) space at the level of the
oropharynx is the:
A. carotid shealth D. pterygomandibular raphe
B. medial pterygoid muscle and its fascia E. stylopharyngeus muscle and its fascia
C. middle pharyngeal constrictor and its fascia

12. The temporalis muscle inserts into the:

A. coronoid process C. lateral aspect of the mandibular angle
B. condylar process D. articular disk of the TMJ E. fovea of the mandible

13. Which of the following is surrounded partly by connective tissue and epithelium, contains lymphoid
follicles, has no sinuses, and is penetrated by a umber of crypts?
A. spleen C. Lymph node
B. Thymus D. Palatine tonsil E. Bursa of Fabricius

14. The trigeminal nerves innervates exclusively which of the following muscles or muscle parts?
A. buccinator and masseter D. medial and lateral pterygoid
B. mylohyoid and geniohyoid E. tensor and levator veli palatine
C. anterior & posterior bellies of digastric

15. Which fossa is an irregular-shaped space lying posterior to the maxilla, between the pharynx and the
ramus of the mandible?
A. pterygopalatine fossa B. mandibular fossa C. infratemporal fossa D. coronoid fossa

16. Defined as a small pit or depression in bone?

A. Fossa B. fissure C. fovea D. meatus

17. Which bones form the floor of the nasal cavity?

A. ethmoid and palatine bone C. palatine bone and maxilla
B. nasal bone and maxilla D. nasal and vomer bones

18. All of the following nerves pass through the superior orbital fissure, except:
A. Ophthalmic nerve (CN V)
B. abducens nerve (CN VI) D. oculomotor nerves (CN III)
C. Optic nerve nerve (CN II) E. trochlear nerves (CN IV)

19. Which part of the urinary system transports urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder?
A. kidney B. ureters C. urethra D. all

20. The ductus venosus present in the fetus becomes what in the newborn?
A. ligamentum arteriosum B. ligamentum teres C. fossa ovalis D. ligamentum venosum

21. A small, pear-shaped muscular sac lying on the undersurface of the liver.
A. pancreas B. gallbladder C. stomach D. esophagus

22. Which structure is called the adenoid when enlarged?

A. lingual tonsil B. palatine tonsil C. pharyngeal tonsil

23. Which muscle of the anterior abdominal wall helps form the cremaster muscle?
A. external oblique B. internal oblique C. transverses D. rectus abdominis
 24. Which muscle of the soft palate draws the soft palate down to the tongue, closing the oropharyngeal
isthmus?
A. tensor veli palatini C. palatoglossus
B. levator veli palatini D. palatopharyngeus E. muscularis uvulae

25. Which space should be entered when performing an emergency tracheotomy?

A. epidural space B. medullary space C. cricothyroid space D. pleural space

26. A shallow linear depression on the surface of a tooth that does not mark the junction of primary parts of
the tooth, is called?
A. the oblique ridge C. a transverse ridge
B. a developmental groove D. a supplemental groove E. a mamelon

27. Which one of the following is not a line angle found on an anterior teeth?
A. Mesiolabial B. distoocclusal C. Linguoincisal D. distoincisal E. distolabial

28. All but which one of the following are point angle found on posterior teeth?
A. distolinguoincisal C. distobucco-occlusal
B. mesiobucco-occlusal D. mesiolinguo-occlusal E. distolinguo-occlusal

29. Using the universal system notation, tooth C is which of the following?
A. primary left mandibular second molar D. permanent right maxillary canines
B. primary right maxillary first molar E. permanent left maxillary lateral
C. primary right maxillary canine
30. Which of the following is true regarding roots of the mandibular canines?
A. A bifurcated root is not uncommon. D. If bifurcated, the roots are mesial and distal
B. If bifurcated, the roots are facial and lingual E. A, B and D.
C. both A and B

31. Compared to the maxillary canine, which of the following is true of the mandibular canine? A.
Viewed from the mesial, the crown has less labial curvature
B. Viewed from the mesial, the crown shows a more prominent cingulum.
C. both A and B
D. Viewed from the distal, the crown is thicker in the incisal aspect.
E. A, B and D.
32. The developmental groove form a Y pattern in which of the following premolars?
A. mandibular 2nd with 2 cusps
B. mandibulart 1st with 1 cusp D. maxillary 2nd with 2 cusps
st
C. maxillary 1 with 3 cusps E. mandibular 2nd with 3 cusps.

33. A linear elevation that serves as a line of demarcation between the MMR and lingual lingual lobe of
mandibular 1st premolar?
A. mesial marginal developmental groove
B. mesial developmental groove D. mesiolingual developmental groove
C. lingual developmental groove E. mesiolingual developmental ridge.

34. The smallest cusp of mandibular second premolar 3 –cusp type.:

A. mesiobuccal cusp C. mesiolingual cusp
B. distolingual cusp D. buccal cusp E. distobuccal cusp’

4. The globin portion of a hemoglobin molecule consists of:

A. one alpha chain and one beta chain C. three alpha chains and three beta chains
B. two alpha chains and two beta chains D. four alpha chains and four beta chains.

5. Which blood group has neither antigen A or B?

A. type A B. type B C. type O D. type AB.

6. Which of the following is considered to be the normal hemoglobin?

A. hemoglobin A C. hemoglobin H
B. hemoglobin C D. hemoglobin S E. hemoglobin M.

7. What major type of protein present in the plasma functions to provide colloid osmotic pressure, in the
plasma?
A. globulin B. albumin C. fibrinogen D. all of them

8. The normal plasma concentration of calcium varies between:

A. 3.0 and 5.0 mg/dl C. 8.5 and 10.5 mg/dl
 B. 5.5 and 7.5 mg/dl D. 15.0 and 20.0 mg/dl

9. Within the spinal cord, the H-shaped mass of gray matter is divided into horns, which consists mainly of
neuron cell bodies. Cell bodies in the posterior horn relay:
A. voluntary motor impulses B. reflex motor impulses C. sensory impulses D. all

10. Which part of the brainstem serves as an autonomic reflex center to maintain homeostasis, regulating
respiratory, vasomotor, and cardiac functions?
A. midbrain B. pons C. medulla oblongata D. A & B only E. all.

11. 84% of the entire blood volume of the body is in the:

A. pulmonary circulation B. systemic circulation C. heart D. pulmonary vessels

12. All of the following statements concerning the backbone of DNA are true , except:
A. it is constant throughout the molecule
B. . it consists of deoxyriboses linked by phosphodiester bridges or phosphodiester linkages
C. it is hydrophobic
D. it is highly polar

13. The primary purine bases in both RNA and DNA are:
A. thymine (T) and Guanine (G) C. cytosine (C) and thymine (T)
B. adenine (A) and Guanine (G) D. Guanine (G) and cytosine (C)

14. The thick ascending loop of Henle reabsorbs :

A. potassium ions and water C. sodium and chloride ions
B. water only D. potassium and chloride ions

15. The kidney normally excrete:

A. 1 to 2 L of urine per day C. 50 to 75 L of urine per day
B. 10 to 20 L of urine per day D. 100 to 150 L of urine per day.

16. Fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs where?

A. in the cytosol B. in the mitochondria C. in the nucleus

17. Gluconeogenesis, which occurs mainly in the liver, is the synthesis of glucose from compounds that are
not carbohydrates. Which organ is a minor contributor of newly synthesized glucose molecules?
A. appendix B. gallbladder C. kidneys D. pancreas.

18. The liver releases glucose back into the circulating blood during exercise. Besides the skeletal muscle,
what other organ takes up this extra glucose?
A. kidneys B. heart C. brain D. lungs

19. Temperature-regulating mechanisms that increase heat production include:

I, shivering III. Increased voluntary activity
II. cutaneous vasodilation IV. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
V. increased secretion of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
A. I, II & III B. I, II & V C. I, III & IV D. I, III & V E. III, IV & V

20. Which of the following can alter the function of the medullary centers for respiration?
I, The central and peripheral chemoreceptors.
II, The apneustic and pneumotaxic centers in the pons
III, The central nervous system at the conscious level.
A. I & II only B. I & III only C. II & III only D. I, II & III

21. Which intraocular structure/s contains the nerves that sense light and the blood supply that nourishes
them?
I, Sclera III. Iris V. Lens
II, Cornea IV. Pupil VI. Retina
A. I, II & V B. II, III & IV C. III & VI D. III only E. VI only

22. TRUE of pharyngeal stage of swallowing

I, esophagus is open III. Peristaltic wave from pharynx to esophagus
II, trachea is open IV. Principally a reflex act
A. I, II & III B. I, III & IV C. II, III & IV D. I & IV only E. II only

23. Erythropoietin:
 A. Raises the blood sugar level C. Promotes protein production
B. Controls blood pressure D. Stimulates RBC production

24. The function of arteries is to:

A. Acts as control valves through which blood is released into the capillaries
B. Exchange fluid, nutrients, electrolytes, hormones and other substances
C. Transport blood under high pressure to the tissues.
D. Acts as conduits for the transport of blood from the tissues back to the heart

25. The stretch receptors of the atria that elicit the Bainbridge reflex transmit their afferent signals through
the:
A. Trigeminal nerves to the medulla of the brain
B. Vagus nerves to the medulla of the brain
C. Facial nerves to the medulla of the brain.
D. Glossopharyngeal nerves to the medulla of the brain.

26. Failure of the heart to show tetanus when stimulated is explained by:
A.Fatigue B. a long chronaxie C. automaticity D. a long refractory period

27. Normally, the rate of the heart beat in a human is determined by:
A, the bundle of His D. the sinoatrial node
B. All cardiac muscle E. the cervical ganglion
C. the nerve impulses from the cardiac center of the medulla

28. In the absence of compensatory changes, a drop in blood pressure results from:
A, vasoconstriction C. increased stroke volume
B. increased hematocrit D. increased cardiac output E. decreased venous return

29. All of the following statements concerning supporting cusps are true, except:
A. they contact the opposing tooth in the intercuspal position
B. they support the vertical dimension of the face
C. they are nearer the faciolingual center of the tooth than the non-supporting cusps
D. their outer incline has a potential for contact
E. they have narrower and sharper cusp ridges than non-supporting cusps.

30. Parts of the free gingiva include all of the following, except:
A. gingival margin C. mucogingival junction
B. free gingival groove D. gingival sulcus E. interdental gingiva

31. Which group of the principal fibers of the periodontal ligament runs perpendicular from the alveolar bone
to the cementum and resists lateral forces?
A. alveolar crest B. horizontal C. oblique D. apical E. interradicular.

32. Which group of gingival fibers resist rotational forces that are applied to a tooth?
A. transseptal fibers C. alveologingival fibers
B. dentogingival fibers D. circumferential fibers E. dentoperiosteal fibers.

33. Gingival fibers are found within the:

A. attached gingiva B. free gingiva C. muciogingival junction D. attached and free gingiva

34. The periodontal ligament is made up of all of the following, except:

A. collagenous fibers B. cartilage C. nerves D. lymphatics E. blood vessels.

35. The articular disc of the TMJ is a fibrous, saddle-shaped structure that separates:
A. the condyle and the sphenoid bone C. the condyle and the temporal bone
B. the condyle and the ethmoid bone D. the condyle and the occipital bone

36. Rotational movements take place in which compartment of the TMJ?

A. Upper (mandibular fossa-disc) compartment C. BOTH A & B
B. Lower (condyle-disc) compartment D. neither of the two.

37. The lateral pterygoid muscles help perform which two mandibular movements?
1. closing 2. opening 3. retrusion 4. protrusion:
A. 1 & 3 B. 1 & 4 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4.

38. Medial to lateral curve of the occlusal surfaces of the teeth observed from a buccal and a proximal view:
A. curve of Spee B. curve of Wilson C. both D. neither.
 39. The most calcified of the dental tissues is:
A. dentin B. enamel C. cementum D. pulp.

40. The pH of saliva is:

A. between 1.0 and 3.0 C. between 6.0 and 7.0
B. between 2.5 and 4.5 D. between 9.0 and 10.0

41. All of the following statements concerning enamel hypoplasia are true, except:
A. it is a defect in the mineralization of the formed enamel matrix
B. the enamel of primary and permanent teeth appear pitted
C. radiographically the enamel is either absent or very thin over tips of cusps and interproximal areas.
D. it can be caused by nutritional deficiencies

42. Caries activity is directly proportional to all of the following, except:

A. the consistency of fermentable carbohydrates ingested
B. the quantity of fermentable carbohydrates ingested
C. the frequency of ingesting fermentable carbohydrates
D. the oral retention of fermentable carbohydrates ingested.

43. All of the following characterized saliva, except:

A. high potassium and bicarbonate ion concentrations
B. low sodium and chloride concentrations
C. it is hypertonic
D. its production is inhibited by vagotomy

44. Which of the following decrease with age in the dental pulp?
I, Number of collagen fibers III. The size of the pulp
II, Number of reticulin fibers IV. Calcifications within the pulp
A. I & II only B. I & III only C. I & IV only D. II & III only E. IV only

45. Which of the following ligaments has an outer oblique portion which limits the extent of jaw opening
and initiates translation of the condyle down the articular eminence?
A. Capsular B. Collateral C. Stylomandibular D. temporomandibular

46. Which of the following can adversely affect the self-cleansing quality of a dentition in normal
alignment?
A. Contact of adjacent teeth.
B. Efficient use of a toothbrush
C. Friction of food material during mastication.
D. Too great a contour of the cervical enamel ridge.

47. How does the mandibular arch generally compare in length with the maxillary arch?
A. it is exactly the same B. it is slightly longer C. it is slightly shorter

For numbers 96-100, match the hormone on the left with the appropriate gland or structure that
produces it on the right

48. Insulin © A. Parathyroid gland

49. Progesterone (D) B. Kidneys

50. Renin and angiotensin (B) C. Pancreas

51. Parathyroid hormone (A) D. Ovaries

52. Prolactin (E) E. Pituitary gland

1. In the dentulous mouth, placing the mandible in the retruded path of closure usually results in:
A. an increases in occlusal vertical dimension
B. an increase in horizontal overlap
C. a decrease in vertical overlap
D. all of the above
E. both A & B .
2. 1. Part of the leg that is devoid of muscle
3. A. anterolateral compartment B. anteromedial compartment
4. . posteromedial compartment D. posterolateral compartment
5.
6. 2. Muscles that attaches to IT band, except
7. A. Gluteus maximus B. gluteus medius
8. C. tensor fascia latae D. none of the above
9.
10. 3. The nasal septum comprises of the following, except
11. A. perpendicular plate of ethmoid B. cribriform plate of ethmoid
12. C. vomer D. septal cartilage
13.
14. 4. Group of muscles of the thigh that extends the knee and flexes the thigh
15. A. posterior compartment B. anterior compartment
16. C. medial compartment D. lateral compartment
17.
18. 5. Group of muscles of the thigh that flexes the knee and extends the thigh
19. A. anterior compartment B. posterior compartment
20. C. lateral compartment D. medial compartment
21.
22. 6. The following muscels adducts the thigh, except
23. A. adductor brevis B. adductor longus
24. C. gracilis D. adductor pollicis
25.
26. 7. Fibers of these muscles are thin and spindle
27. A. smooth muscle cell B. cardiac muscle cell
28. C. skeletal muscle cell D. none
29.
30. 8. These are small fluid sacs that lie between some tendons and bones beneath them, what do you
call its inflammation
31. A. tendonitis B. . cellulitis
32. B. bursitis D. none
33.
34. 9. Muscles that easily fatigue is due to
35. A. small muscle B. skeletal in origin
36. C. build-up of lactic acid D. all of the above
37.
38. 10. The following are good site for vaccination in children except
39. A. vastuslateralis B. deltoid
40. C. rectus femoris D. gluteus medius E. vastusmedialis
41.
42. 11.Muscles are named accordingly, in genioglossus which is the origin
43. A. genial tubercle B. tongue
44. C. lower posterior part of the mandible D. hyoid bone
45.
46. 12. Muscles are named according to the following, except
47. A. . direction of muscle fiber B. shaped
48. C. size D. direction of pull E. action and location
49.
50. 13. The medial head of the semitendinosus usually has
51. A. vertical fibers B. tendons in between
52. C. tendon attached to tibia D. none
53.
54. 14. The smallest muscle is found in the middle ear, its length is about
55. A. 3mm B. 4mm C. 5mm D. 6mm
56. 15. The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphyses is termed:
A. perichondrium B. periosteum
C. endosteum D. exofibrium E. articular cartilage
57. 16. Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone:
A. sternum B. ethmoid
C. femur D. patella E. phalanx
58. 17. These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:
A. osteoclasts & collagen B. mineralized salts & osteocytes
C. mineralized salts & collagen D. collagen & elastic fibers E. collagen & Mesenchyme
59. 18. A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the:
A. epiphysis B. metaphysis
C. diaphysis D. epiphyseal plate E. mesenchyme
60. 19. Yellow marrow consists of:
A. osteoprogenitor cells B. blood cell progenitor cells
C. hyaline cartilage D. adipose E. spongy bone
61. 20. Chondroblasts produce:
A. basement membranes B. bone matrix
C. cartilage matrix D. mesothelium E. endothelium
62. 21. These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the
bone length:
A. Haversian canals B. canaliculi
C. perforating canals D. osteocytes E. lacunae
63. 22. The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:
A. osteoclasts B. chondrocytes
C. osteocytes D. fibroblasts E. osteoblasts
64. 23. Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:
A. an indication of microcephaly B. frontal sinuses
C. epiphyseal plates D. cribriform plates E. fontanelles
65. 24. Endochondral and intramembranous are two mechanisms of:
A. bone remodeling B. embryonic skeletal ossification
C. controlling blood calcium levels D. cartilage synthesis
66. 25. Which of the following is least likely to require arthroscopic surgery:
A. removal of a torn meniscus in the knee
B. removal of torn articular cartilage in the knee
C. repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee
D. repair of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in the knee
67. 26. The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains:
A. chondroitin sulfate B. hydroxyapatite
C. osteoblasts D. blood vessels
E. synovial fluid
68. 27. This hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone and the increase in blood calcium levels:
A. growth hormone B. estrogen
C. parathyroid hormone D. calcitonin
69. 28. The nephron is:
A. the site of urine storage B. the functional unit of the kidney
C. the site where ADH is produced D. also called the "Bowman's capsule"
70. 29. Which of the following is NOT a means of regulating glomerular filtration:
A. muscular regulation B. renal autoregulation
C. hormonal regulation D. neuronal regulation
71. 30. Renin is produced by:
A. the glomerulus B. macula densa
C. proximal convuluted tubule D. juxtaglomerular cells
72. 31. The function of the macula densa cells is to:
A. prevent water reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle
B. add bicarbonate ions to the tubular filtrate
C. secrete renin in response to decreased afferent arteriole pressure
D. monitor NaCl concentration in the filtrate
E. reabsorb Na+ ions into blood from the filtrate
73. 32. Atrial naturiuretic peptide works to:
A. increase afferent arteriole pressure B. increase blood flow to the kidney
C. enhance the effects of ADH D. inhibit the effects of aldosterone
E. increase blood volume
74. 33. If the level of aldosterone in the blood increases, then:
A. less sodium is excreted in the urine B. less potassium is excreted in the urine
C. systemic blood pressure will decrease D. glomerular filtration will decrease

75. 34. The most important function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is to:
A. secrete water and sodium into the filtrate
B. reabsorb sodium
C. generate bicarbonate ions in response to decreased blood pH
D. secrete renin in response to decreased renal blood pressure or blood flow
E. constrict the afferent arterioles and decrease sodium reabsorption
76. 35. If the diameter of the afferent arteriole is smaller than the diameter of the efferent arteriole, then:
A. the net filtration pressure will decrease
B. blood pressure in the glomerulus will decrease
C. GFR will increase
D. a and b only
E. a, b and c
77. 36. From the distal convoluted tubule, filtrate will then be carried to the:
A. renal corpuscle B. collecting duct
C. nephron loop D. proximal convoluted tubule
E. glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
78. 37. All of the following are normally found in urine except:
A. glucose B. sodium ions
C. uric acid D. urea E. creatinine
79. 38.In some autoimmune diseases, capillaries may become damaged resulting in and high levels of
albumin proteins and blood cells appearing in the urine. Which region of the nephron contains
capillaries that, when damaged, could cause this appearance in urine:
A. renal glomerulus B. proximal convoluted tubule
C. nephron loop D. distal tubule
80. 39. Sertoli cells produce:
A. mucus B. androgen-binding protein (ABP)
C. testosterone D. FSH and LH
81. 40. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG):
A. begins to be produced about 4 weeks post-fertilization
B. is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation
C. "rescues" and maintains the corpus luteum
D. signals that a new menstrual cycle should begin
82. 41. The fluid-filled sac which provides a protective cushion and acts as a "waste pail" for the developing
embryo is the:
A. yolk sac B. chorion
C. placenta D. amnion
83. 42. High levels of _______ found in the mother's blood can be an indicator of neurologic or hepatic
abnormalities in the developing fetus:
A. Hcg B. GnRH
C . AFP D. relaxin
84. 43. Acute sensitivity of the sense of smell due to some diseases of the central nervous system
A.hypernosmia B.hyponosmia C.hyperemia
D.hyporemia
85. 44.The action is to depress, protrude and move the mandible from side to side A.Masseter
B.Temporalis C.Medialpterygoid D.Lateral pterygoid
86. 45 Inserted on the lateral surface of the coronoid process, ramus and gonion A.Masseter
B.Temporalis C.Medialpterygoid
D.Lateralpterygoid
87. 46. Associated with organic compounds such as chloroform A.sweet
B.sour C.salty D.bitter E.umami
88. 47.Associated with hydrogen ions as acid and acid salts A.sweet
B.sour C.salty D.bitter E.umami
89. 48. Incisors with negative overjet, molar class I relationship. A.Class I
B. Class II C. Class III D. Pseudo-class III
90. 49. Malocclusion due to discrepancies between the length of the 2 dental arches and tooth size.
A.Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Pseudo-class III
91. 50. 2/3 of root completed (Nolla’s Calcification) A.Stage 3
B.Stage 8 C. Stage 6 D.Stage 5 E.Stage 1
92. 51. 1/3 of crown completed (Nolla’s Calcification) A.Stage 3
B.Stage 8 C.Stage 6 D.Stage 5 E.Stage 1
93. 52. Vertical relation between upper and lower incisors. A.Occlusion
B.Position C.Articulatiion D.Overbite E.Overjet
94. 53. Relationship of maxilla to mandible when the teeth are in occlusion. A.Occlusion
B.Position C.Articulation D.Overbite E.Overjet
95. 54. A complex group of reactions to move food onwards in the digestive tract while preserving the
airway. A.Mastication
B.Deglutition C.Speech D.Respiration
96. 55. A physiologic activity formed when there is normal occlusion in a cyclic movement. A.Mastication
B.Deglutition C.Speech D.Respiration
97. 56. Distal flaring of maxillary incisors A.Pre-
dental jaw relation B.Deciduos dentition C.Mixed
dentition D.Permanent dentition
98. 57. Presence of interocclusal space A.Pre-dental
jaw relation B.Deciduos dentition C.Mixed dentition
D.Permanent dentition
99. 58. In physiologic mesial drift, there is formation of new bone on the A.mesial
surface B.facial surface C.distal surface
D.lingual surface
100. 59. Absence of swallowing due to paralysis of muscles of deglutition or muscle of mastication
A.Dysphagia B.Aphagia C.Odynophagia
D.Asphexia
101. 60. Produced by alternate rounded protuberances and depression in the gingival surface
A.stippling B.mucous membrane C.swelling
D.marginal contour
 102. 61. Cells that play a role in eruption because of their contractile property
A.fibroblast B.osteoblast C.cementoblast
D.odontoblast
103. 62. Detectable in radiograph as a radioluscent line paralleling the root surface
A.periodontal space B.laminadura C.supporting
bone D.cementum
104. 63.Color of gingiva may vary according to the degree of
A.vascularity B.epithelial keratinization C.pigmentation
D.thickness of the epithelium E.all of the above
105. 64. Thin,acellular and bacteria free deposit that precedes the first stage in plaque formation due
to its rapid rate of formation A.pellicle
B.supragingival calculus C.plaque
D.subgingival calculus
106. 65.Consists of soft bacterial deposits firmly adhering to the organic film that covers the teeth
and intraoral appliance A.pellicle
B.supragingival calculus C.plaque
D.subgingival calculus
107. 66. At about 27 days it raptures and the stomodeum forms a connection with the foregut.
A. Oral stomodeum B.Dental lamina C.
Buccopharyngeal membrane D.Dental sac E.Dental papilla
108. 67. Breaking up of sound and modification of sound coming from the larynx.
A.Respiration B.Phonation C.Resonance D.Articulation

1. Which of the following bones is NOT classified as flat bone:

A. humerus C. ilium and pubis
B. clavicle D. talus E. scapular and parietal

2. Which of the ffg. Is not a function of the skeletal system:

A. support C. fat storage
B. protection D. hemopoiesis E. mineral storage.

3. Which organ extends from the pyloric opening to the ileocecal junction and is where digestion and
food absorption mainly take place?
A. stomach C. small interstine
B. liver D. large intestine E. kidney.

4. Which muscle of the neck separates the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck? A. digastric
C.sternocleidomastoid
B. mylohyoid D. omohyoid E. none of these.

5. Which tooth may have a pulp chamber that is somewhat triangular as opposed to oval?
A. max.central incisor C. max lateral incisor
B. mand central incisor D. mand lateral incisor E. Max. Canine

6. Which premolar is usually the largest?

A. max first C.mand first
B. max second D. mand second E. all of them.

7. Which is found only on maxillary molars?

A. labial ridge C. oblique ridge
B. marginal ridge D. transverse ridge E. triangular ridge.

8. What is the minimum number of lobes from which any tooth may develop?
A. two C. four
B. three D. five E. one.

9.Triangularly shaped spaces located between the proximal surfaces of adjacent teeth? A. a contact
area C. a gingival space
B. an occlusal curvature D. an embrasure E .all of them

10. The pulmonary circuit is characterized by:

A. high pressure and low resistance C. low pressure and low resistance
B. low pressure and high resistance D. high pressure and high resistance
14. Perikymata found on a newly erupted incisors are found numerously on what portion of the
crown?
A. incisal third C. cervical third
B. middle third D. entire crown length E. junction of incisal and middle third
18. What linear depression is found between the two triangular ridges of the mesiolingual cusp of
maxillary first molar?
A. lingual developmental groove C. Stuart groove
B. buccal developmental groove D. fifth cusp groove E. transverse groove

19. The occlusal outline of maxillary first molar contains two obtuse and two acute angles . The acute
angles are: I. Mesiolingual II. Mesiofacial
III. Distolingual IV. Distofacial
A. I & II C. I & IV
B. I & III D. II & III E. II & IV.

20. The articular surfaces of the TMJ are covered by:

A. elastic cartilage C. hyaline cartilage
C. fibrocartilage D. periosteum E. fats

21. Gastric secretion occurs in three phases, except:

A. cephalic phase C. caudal phase
B. gastric phase D. intestinal phase E. none of these.

22. Aldosterone’s primary effect is on the :

A. liver C. heart
C. kidneys D. lungs E. none of these.

23. Receptors of taste & olfaction organs which are extremely sensitive to chemical environment.
A. chemoreceptors C. mechanoreceptors
B. proprioceptors D. exteroceptors E. all of these

24. Physiologic property of taste receptor when taste is still present even if the stimulus has been
removed:
A. adaptation C. after taste
C. contrast D. dual taste E. none of these.

25. Breaking up of sound and modification of sound coming from the larynx :
A. respiration C. phonation
B. resonance D. articulation E. none of these.

26. Process by which sound is intensified:

A. respiration C. phonation
C. resonance D. articulation E. none of these.

27. Phase of chewing accomplished by the action of the digastric and mylohyoid muscle with the help
of gravity:
A. opening C. closing
B. occlusion D. all of these E. none of these.

28. Changes in blood pressure are due mainly to alterations in resistance by the:
A. veins C. venules
C. capillaries D. arterioles E. none of these

29. In the cytoplasm, rRNA and protein combine to form a

A. nucleoprotein C. ribosome
B. rER D.A and B E .B and C.
32. Smell of a decomposing organic matter
A. pungent C. putrid
C. musky D. sweet
36. Each tooth has 2 antagonists, except
A. 31 C. 38
B. 26 D. 43
39. Correct sequence of tooth eruption in the mandibular arch
A. 61234578 C. 61243578
B. 61254378 D. 62143578
42. All are examples of endocytosis, except
A.phagocytosis C. receptor-mediated endocytosis
B. pinocytosis D. surface tension E, none of them.
52. Which of the following primary molars closely resembles a permanent molar?
A. primary maxillary first molar C. primary maxillary second molar
B. primary mandibular fisrt molar D.primary mandibular second molar
E. B and D only.
56. This is smooth muscle that helps eject urine from the bladder:
A. Dartos C. Myometrium
B.Detrussor muscle D. Bulbospongiosus E. Trigone
60. Which lobe of the cerebrum is responsible for hearing?
A. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe
83. Rods and cones of the retina are examples of:
A. Mechanoreceptors C. chemoreceptors
B. Photoreceptors D. thermoreceptors

84. The action potential is an explosion of electrical activity that is created by a:

A. Polarizing current C. Repolarizing current
B. Depolarizing current D. Both B & C
94. Which muscle plays an subsidiary role in mastication?
A. Masseter C. buccinator
B. lateral pterygoid D. medial pterygoid E. temporalis