ARIRANG FLYING SCHOOL

A/C Structure:

1. Aircraft designers and manufacturers have tried hard to build a/c which will:
a) fly faster and carry more load,
b) can carry optimum load and reasonable distance with fuel compromisation,
c) fly faster, carry more load and greater distance with fuel cost compromisation,
d) both a & b are correct.
2. A second horizontal surface is used to balance the:
a) pitching and turning moment created by the wings,
b) directional stability,
c) static stability,
d) all of the above is correct.
3. Which of the followings is correct?
a) The term strain used when an internal force is applied to a structure that acts to
deform it.
b) The resistance to the two opposite tensile loads is shear stress.
c) Hoop stress also referred to as axial stress.
d) Torsional stress within the material resists the compressive load.
4. The a/c structure and component’s safe life is based on:
a) calendar time,
b) landings,
c) pressurization cycle,
d) all of the above are correct.
5. A/C structures consists mainly of :
a)Al alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at point require high strength.
b)magnesium sheets with Al rivets and titanium or steel at point requiring high strength.
c)cu alloy sheet and rivets and uranium or titanium at point where high strength is
required.
d) all of the above are correct.
6. Which of the following components are not used to give the shape of the wing?
a) Spar,
b) Frame and Stringer,
c) Former and Longeron,
d) All the above are correct.
7. A torsion box:
a) is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads,
b) is a structure formed between the spars and upper & lower surfaces.
c) is a structure designed to reduce the weight.
d) both a & b are correct.
8. A cantilever wing:
a) is externally braced with either struts or bracing wire,
b) is supported at one end only with no external bracing,
c) has both an upper and lower airfoil section.
d) none of the above is correct.
9. The structure of the engine pylon:
a) is attached to the front and main spars,
b) is attached to the frame & former of the fuselage,
c) is nothing but a tertiary structure,
d) none of the above is correct.
10. Winglets:
a) are used on larger and high altitude a/c wing instead of trailing edge of wing.
b) are used on larger and high altitude a/c wing instead of wing tips,
c) means a structure that is used in fuel tanks for ventilation,
d) both a & c are correct.
11. Monel metal:
a) is an alloy of copper, nickel, manganese and iron,
b) is an alloy of nickel, manganese, alluminium and iron,
c) is an alloy of copper, titanium, iron and stainless steel.
d) none of the above is correct.

12. The disadvantages of composite material are:

a) difficult to repair, quickly eroded by hail and sand,
b) difficult to manufacture and to give proper shape,
c) can’t withstand the compressive load,
d) none of the above is correct.
13. Purpose of electrical bonding is:
a) to ensure that each part of the a/c structure has the same electrical resistance,
b) to ensure that each part of the a/c structure has the same electrical potential,
c) to minimize the resistance of the a/c parts,
d) both b & c are correct.
14. A monocoque structure is:
a) one where skins carry little load,
b) one where skins carry all the loads placed on the structure,
c) used extensively in the production of current modern a/c,
d) both a & c are correct.
15. Which of the followings is the purpose of the wing spar?
a) To withstand the bending and shear loads,
b) To withstand bending and torsional loads,
c) To withstand compressive and radial loads,
d) Both a & c are correct.
16. The prototype a/c must be subjected to proof loading and it is:
a) 1.35 times design ultimate limit load,
b) 1.5 times design limit load,
c) 1.25 times design limit load,
d) None of the above is correct.
17. Regarding a safe life structure which:
a) will only fail after a known number of operation or hours of use,
b) should not fail until a predicted number of fatigue cycles has been achieved,
c) has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults,
d) both a & c are correct.
 18. The skin of a modern pressurized a/c:
a) Is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle,
b) Provides aerodynamic lift and prevent corrosion by keeping out adverse weather
c) Is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the loads,
d) Both a & c are correct.
19. The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:
a) Support the wings,
b) Houses the crew and payload,
c) Keep out adverse weather,
d) Provide access to the cockpit.
20. Flight deck windows are constructed from:
a) An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals,
b) Strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayer and rubber
pressure seals,
c) Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conductive coating and rubber seals,
d) Strengthened glass with rubber seals.
21. A damage tolerant structure:
a) Has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area,
b) Is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect.
c) Is not required to repair until the a/c undergoes deep maintenance.
d) Both a & c are correct.
22. Passenger cabin window:
a) Are fitted from the inside and being larger than the apertures,
b) Is ventilated by hot engine bleed air in between two layers to prevent fog up,
c) Are fitted from the outside and be produced by two separate sheets of material.
d) Both b & c are correct.

23. Modern subsonic and transonic a/c uses a stepped nose profile which allows:
a) The pilot the required vision for both ground and flight operations,
b) The reduction in the physical size of the windscreens,
c) The windscreens to shed rain and lessen the effect of bird strike,
d) All the above are correct.

24. Which of the following is not a part of fuselage structure:

a) Frames,
b) Stringers,
c) Ribs,
d) Former.

25. Doors of air transport a/c:

a) Must be located near the propeller disc or any other hazard area to see physically if
required in emergency situation,
b) Must be hinged at the front or the top opens outwards and has two locking device.
c) Must have a means of preventing the a/c being pressurized if they are not closed and
secured.
d) Both b & c are correct.
 26. For propeller a/c powered by a single engine, either piston or turbo prop, the option for
mounting the engine is:
a) To a support frame mounted on a pylon which in turn is attached to the fuselage,
b) On stub wings,
c) Can be mounted in any place,
d) Both a & c are correct.
27. For air transport aircraft the structure must be able to withstand:
a) A +ve load factor of not less than 1.5g and not greater than 3.8g.
b) A –ve load factor of not less than -1g at speed up to it’s cruise speed.
c) A +ve load factor of not less than 1.5g and not greater than 2.8g.
d) None of the above is correct.

28. Hip wing is the term used for wings that are mounted in between the:
a) Middle and top of the fuselage,
b) Top and bottom of the fuselage,
c) Bottom and middle of the fuselage,
d) None of the above is correct.
29. Aircraft are categorized into three groups these are:
a) Low wing, high wing & mid wing,
b) High wing, mid wing & hip wing,
c) Normal, utility & aerobatic,
d) All the above are correct.
30. For large transport a/c landing gear mounted in:
a) Directly to the front spar,
b) The trunnion pivot point,
c) Directly to the main spar,
d) Both b & c are correct.
31.”The fitment of wing to fuselage falls into three categories i.e. Biplane, Braced
monoplane & Cantilever monoplane”.
The statement above is:
a) true
b) false

32. Which of the following components terminates the pressure cabin?

a) Frames,
b) Formers,
c) Bulkheads,
d) None of the above.
33. A/c servicing carried out:
a) Based on flying hours and landings,
b) Based on landings and calendar date,
c) Normally in case of major servicing, in every five years interval,
d) All the above are correct.
34. Shock loads is termed when:
a) A sudden decrease of load that is being removed from structure,
b) Bird strikes on to the compressor blades of a jet engine,
c) Ever in every normal landing has been occurred.
 d) All the above are correct.
35.’Fail Safe’ Technique means:
a) One major single component within the structure takes the entire loads,
b) The design incorporates extra structural items,
c) Loads are being dissipated through single load path,
d) All of the above are correct.
36. Fuselage shape:
a) Initially was cylindrical with tapered nose,
b) Depend on type of wings and flight controls fitted,
c) Initially was streamlined tapering design with rounded nose,
d) Is basically a cylinder with tapered tail and rounded nose.
37. Which of the followings arrangement has resulted in an alteration to the design of the rear of
the fuselage?
a) In front the nose landing gear and in rear the main landing gears,
b) In middle the body gear and the two main landing gears,
c) In rear the tail gear and in front the two main landing gears,
d) Rear fuselage alteration has come gradually after research in aviation.
38. Engine strakes are used:
a) To control the vortex of over wing,
b) To control the vortex of wing tips,
c) Around the engine cowling,
d) Both a & c are correct.
39. Method for reducing the wing tip vortex is:
a) Wing tip vents,
b) Low aspect ratio wing,
c) High fineness ratio,
d) None of the above is correct.
40. Which of the followings is part of wing?
a) End caps,
b) Root,
c) Former,
d) Both a & c are correct.
41.The structure of the engine pylon:
[[

a) Will take the strain of the engine’s mass when stationary,

b) Will take the mass, vibration, torque & thrust when it is running,
c) Is a primary structure,
d)All of the above are correct.
42. The advantages of mounting the engines at stub wings are:
a) Reduction of cabin noise,
b) Drag minimized,
c) Easy for installation of mounting structure,
[
d) Both a & b are correct.
43. “If an aircraft mass is 5800 kg, it will be manufactured as per JAR 23”.
The above statement is:
a) true.
b) false.
44. i) The design of a delta wing and its surface area are such that a horizontal stabilizer is
not essential.
ii) V tail of a V tailed aircraft provides the balancing force for the wings and
provides the directional stability of the fin.
Regarding above statements:
a) Both are false
b) Both are true.
45. i) The stress value of a material can be defined as the force per unit area and can be given
as N/mm2.
ii) Design limit load is the maximum load that the a/c designer or component
manufacturer expects the airframe or component to be subjected to in operation.
Regarding above statement:
a) Both are true.
b) Both are false,

46.“ Secondary structure is the structure that is not stressed but failure of which
causes the catastrophic failure”.

The above statement is:

a) true
b) false.

47.i) Modern civil air transport a/c’s fuselage takes the form of a tube which houses
the flight deck, pax cabin, freight hold and the majority of the equipments.
ii) A semi-monocoque structure is one where skin does not take all the loads placed on
the structure.
Regarding above statement:
a) Both are false,
b) Both are true.
48.“Doors for a/c certified under JAR 23 and JAR 25 must qualify as a Type A,
Type I or Type II passenger emergency exit”.
The above statement is:
a) False
b) True.
49.“ In the event of bird strike the outer layer of windscreen might crack but the bonding and
laminations provide the strength to keep the windscreens intact”.
The above statement is:
a) true,
b) false.
50. The seat mounting rails are attached to the crossbeams beneath the floor panels
and the mounting rails are classified as:
a) primary structure,
b) secondary structure,
c) tertiary structure,
d) None of the above is correct.
 51.” The internal construction and the shape of the wing will depend on the prevailing
weather condition like density, pressure and temperature of the air”
The above statement is:
a) true,
b) false.
52. “In flight the bracing strut of a high winged monoplane is subjected to tensile loads and
on the ground it is subjected to compression loads”.
The above statement is:
a) true,
b) false.
53. “When a wing flexes the greatest motion will be felt at root and greatest strain will be
felt at tip”.
The above statement is:
a) false,
b) true.
54. The forward layer of windscreen in all type of air transport a/c is:
a) heated for de-icing,
b) heated for not becoming brittle,
c) not heated at all,
d) Both a & b are correct.

Answer Sheet:

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. C A B D A D B B A B A A B B
Q.No. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. B C C C B B A A D C C A B C
Q.No. 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. C B A C C B B D A C D D D D
Q.No. 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Ans. B B A B B B A A B A A D

Landing Gear:
01. When an a/c lands there are several factors that come into play these are:
a) Its mass and its sink rate,
b) Its sink rate and forward velocity at touch down,
c) Its forward velocity, mass and sink rate,
d) All the above are correct.
02. Oil is used in an oleo to:
a) Support the weight of the a/c,
b) Limit the speed of compression of the strut,
c) Lubricate the piston within the cylinder,
d) Limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.
03. The nose wheel assembly must be centered before retraction because:
a) There is limited space in nose wheel bay,
b) The tyres may be damaged on landing if it is not straight,
c) It will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on T/O.
d) Both a & b are correct.
04. Inadvertent retraction of the L/G on the ground is:
a) Impossible as system is not powerful enough,
b) Always a danger after the ground lock pins have been removed,
c) Prevented by the air/ground logic system,
d) All the above are correct.
05. L/G down lock pins are:
a) Fitted before flight to ensure that gears don’t fold during T/O roll.
b) Fitted after flight and remain with gear till landing,
c) Removed before flight and stowed on the a/c,
d) Both a & c are correct.
06. A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:
a) A torque link is worn or damaged,
b) The a/c is over loaded,
c) The a/c is under loaded,
d) Both a & c are correct.
07. When the L/G is selected Up the sequence of light is:
a) Red, green, out,
b) Out, green, red,
c) Green, red, out,
d) Out, red, green.
08. During emergency lowering, main and nose landing gear will lock by:
a) Hydraulic force,
b) Mechanical force,
c) Airflow,
d) None of the above is correct.
09. L/G selector handle:
a) Must be detented so as to require a confirm decision,
b) Must be located in front of the throttles or thrust levers,
c) Is placed in ‘off’ position during cruise,
d) All the above are correct.
10. Which of the followings can be used as air/ground switches?
a) Pressure switches,
b) Toggle switches,
c) Any type of switch that is used in oleo,
d) All the above are correct.
11. L/G selector lever is selected down, the sequence of components operation:
a) Down lock actuator, L/G actuator, door actuator,
b) Up lock actuator, door actuator, L/G actuator,
c) Door actuator, up lock actuator, L/G actuator,
d) L/G actuator, door actuator, down lock actuator.
12. Main gear bays for large low winged a/c:
a) Are inside the engine nacelle,
b) Are inside the fuselage,
c) Are inside wing structure,
d) Both a & c are correct.

13. Undercarriages that extended / retracted fore and aft have:

a) No effect on a/c longitudinal CG,
b) An effect on a/c longitudinal CG,
c) An effect on a/c longitudinal CP,
d) Both a & c are correct.
14. Nose wheel steering disconnects mechanism:
a) To be fitted before flight,
b) Is fitted automatically,
c) To be fitted prior to towing,
d) To be fitted after landing.
15. Which of the following components get steering signal and be steered?
a) Nose gear and main gear,
b) Body gear and nose gear,
c) Main gear and body gear,
d) Nose, body & main gear in case of large heavy a/c.
16. Torque link:
a) Is connected to upper leg,
b) Has three pivot point,
c) Is connected to lower leg,
d) None of the above is correct.
17. Purpose of bogie trim actuator is:
a) To prevent the bogie wheels bouncing over rough surfaces,
b) To assist the bogie wheels running over rough surfaces,
c) To assist wheels for free rotation,
d) Nothing but for extension & retraction of the gears.

18. An amber truck light in cockpit indicates that:

a) The door is in a correct position,
b) The bogie is in wrong position,
c) Nose wheel is not fore and aft position during landing,
d) The part of the gear is unlocked.
19. Bogie beam:
a) Attaches to the main spar,
b) Supports and locate the axles,
c) Is twin wheels configuration in the same axle,
d) Is twin wheels configuration in the same axle with centrally pivoted.
20. Sleeve type ground lock is:
a) Attached to the ram of up lock actuator,
b) Used on geometric locks,
c) Attached to the ram of down lock actuator,
d) Attached to the ram of gear actuator.
21. Landing gear oleo ‘bottom out’ means:
a) Top casting has touched the bottom casting,
b) Leg’s travel is greater than the available distance,
c) Landing load is greater than the designed load of the oleo,
d) All the above are correct.
22. Steering actuators:
a) Connected to the upper leg,
b) Connected to the lower leg through ‘Rack and Pinion’,
c) Rotate in the same direction,
d) Both b & c are correct.
23. The JAA regulations require that no single failure shall result in the loss of the braking system
and the aircraft must be brought to a full stop in no more than:

a) 1.75 x the normal braking distance,

b) 2 x the normal braking distance,
c) 1.5 x the normal braking distance,
d) None of the above is correct.
24. When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the gauge should be
modified by:
a) 10psi
b) 10%
c) 4psi
d) 4%
25. The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:
a) The aircraft main hydraulic system
b) The pilots brake pedals
c) A self contained power pack
d) The hydraulic reservoir.
26. A hydraulic gear retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, up locks and:
a) An anti-skid braking system
b) Down locks
c) Torque links
d) A shock absorber.
27. At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10 mph the antiskid braking system is:
a) Inoperative
b) Operative
c) Operative only on the nose wheel brakes
d) Operative only on the main wheel brakes.
28. L/G down lock pins are:
a) Used to prevent inadvertent retraction of landing gear.
b) Fitted to keep the landing gear straight and remain with gear till landing,
c) Not mandatory for modern air transport aircraft,
d) None of the above is correct.
29. During emergency lowering, main landing gear doors will:
a) Close hydraulically,
b) Close by airflow,
c) Close mechanically,
d) None of the above is correct.
30. L/G selector handle:
a) Is a mechanical knob used to control the landing gear operation during T/O and Landing.
b) Is a mechanical handle used to control the landing gear operation during maintenance only,
c) Is prevented operation by air ground logic circuit.
d) None of the above is incorrect.

31. On/Off Anti-skid system is controlled by:

a) maxaret anti-skid unit,
b) electronic anti-skid unit,
c) auto brake system,
d) both b & c are correct.
32. i) In the auto brake system the pilot does not touch the toe pedals during the landing run.
ii) In the event of anti skid system failing a FAIL light will illuminate to warn the pilot.
Regarding the above statements which of the following is correct?
a) Both are True
b) Both are False.

33. The most likely cause of brake fade is:

a) oil or grease on the brake drums
b) worn stators
c) the pilot reducing the brake pressure
d) overheating.
34. Tyre wear when taxying can be reduced :
a) restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers
b) taxying at less than 40 kph
c) staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway
d) taxying at less than 25 knots.
35. An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:
a) 135 mph
b) 135 knots
c) 145 knots
d) 145 mph
36. The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is:
a) dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies
b) grease on the rotor assembly
c) the brake pressure being too high
d) incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies.
37. Creep (slippage):
a) can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim
 b) may cause excess wear
c) never occurs on new tyres.
d) none of the above is correct.
38. The anti-skid system would be used:
a) on landing runs only,
b) on take off runs only,
c) for both take off and landing runs,
d) not for take off and landing runs.
39. The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures
will have:
a) fallen by 15% from their rated value
b) risen by 15% from their rated value
c) remained constant
d) risen by 10% of their original value
40. The ply rating of a tyre:
a) always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcase.
b) never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcase.
c) indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted
d) is the index of the tyre strength.
41. In the event of an approach to land being made with the throttle levers retarded towards idle
and the flaps down and the gear up , the warning given to the pilot will be a;
a) continuous bell
b) horn
c) buzzer
d) stick shaker
42. A green fusible plug is designed to deflate the tyre if a temperature of --------is reached.
a) 177 ° C
b) 277 ° C
c) 150 ° C
d) 199 ° C.

Answer Sheet:

Q.No. 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. C D A C C A C A D A C B B C
Q.No. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. B B A B B D D A C D A B A A
Q.No. 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. D C A A D B B D A C D D B C

Hydraulic:

01. i) Pascal's law states that pressure is inversely proportional to load,

ii) Pascal’s law also states that liquid is compressible. Which of the following is correct
regarding the above statements?
 a) Both are true.
b) Both are false.
02. A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the:
a) u/c up line and flap up line.
b) u/c down line and flap up line.
c) u/c down line and flap down line.
d) supply line to the a/c retraction actuator.
03. “A pre charge pressure of 1000 bar of gas is shown on the accumulator gauge. The
system is then pressurized to 1500 bar, so the accumulator will also read 1500 bar”, which
of the following is correct regarding the statement?
a) True
b) False

04.The pressure gauge of a hydraulic system provides information regarding the pressure
of:
a) the air in the accumulator.
b) the air and hydraulic fluid in the system.
c) the proportional pressure in the system.
d) the hydraulic fluid in the system.
05. A shuttle valve:
a) is used to replace NRVs.
b) allows two supply sources to operate one unit
c) allows one source to operate two units
d) acts as a non-return valve
06. Hammering in system:
a) is normal and does not affect the systems efficiency.
b) is caused by pipe diameter fluctuations.
c) is an indication that a further selection is necessary.
d) is detrimental to the system.

07. A restrictor valve:

a) is used to restrict the number of services available after loss of system pressure.
b) controls the rate of movement of a service
c) controls the rate of build up of pressure in the system
d) controls the distance a jack moves
08. With a hydraulic lock there is:
a) flow, but no jack movement
b) no flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects.
c) no flow, jack is stationary
d) constant flow
09. The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:
a) high operating fluid temperature
b) system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible corrosion.
c) seal damage and jack corrosion
d) normal operation.
10. Accumulator floating piston:
a) pushes the fluid up when being charged.
 b) pushes the fluid down when being charged
c) provides a seal between the gas and fluid
d) prevents a hydraulic lock.
11. A relief valve:
a) relieves below system pressure.
b) maintains pressure to a priority circuit.
c) relieves at its designed pressure.
d) prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature.
12. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:
a) to compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion.
b) to allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored.
c) to indicate system contents.
d) to maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator.
13. With air in the hydraulic system you would:
a) ignore it because normal operation would remove it.
b) bleed the air out of the system.
c) allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.
d) expect it to operate faster.
14. The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:
a) filters the fluid returning to the tank.
b) is fitted down stream of the pump.
c) can be by passed when maximum flow is required.
d) clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir.
15. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:
a) an automatic cut out.
b) engine RPM.
c) a control piston.
d) a swash plate that senses the fluid temperature.
16. A high pressure hydraulic pump:
a) needs a positive fluid supply.
b) does not need a positive fluid supply.
c) outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force.
d) does not need a cooling fluid flow.
17. Case drain filters are
a) fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system
b) designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to drain to atmosphere
c) to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition
d) fitted in the reservoir outlet
18. The purpose of an accumulator is to:
a) relieve excess pressure.
b) store fluid under pressure.
c) store compressed gas for tyre inflation.
d) remove air from the system.
19. With a one way check valve (NRV):
a) flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure.
b) flow stops when the thermal relief valve off loads the hand pump.
 c) flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure.
d) flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure.
20. Hydraulic pressure of 3000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is
0.02m 2 and the same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m2.

a) both have the same force.

b) both jacks will move at the same speed.
c) the smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1200N
d) the smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N
21. A separator in an accumulator:
a) isolates the gas from the fluid.
b) reduces the size of the accumulator required.
c) removes the dissolved gases from the fluid.
d) maintains the fluid level in the reservoir.
22. In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be:
a) greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack.
b) greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed on the actuator
c) high initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel.
d) the same at all points.
23. The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir
is at the full level. The system is then pressurized. Will the contents level:
a) fall below the "full" mark.
b) fall to a position marked 'full accs charged'.
c) remain at the same level.
d) rise above the "full" mark.
24. A pressure maintaining or priority valve:
a) enables ground operation of services when the engines are off.
b) is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services.
c) is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system pressure.
d) is used to increase pressure in the system.
25. A hydraulic lock occurs:
a) when the thermal RV operates.
b) when fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank.
c) when flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move .
d) when fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to bypass to the
reservoir.
26. A non return valve:
a) can only be fitted if provided with a by pass selector.
b) closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure.
c) opens if inlet pressure equals , outlet pressure.
d) closes if inlet pressure ceases.
27. Low gas pressure in accumulator causes:
a) rapid jack movements.
b) no effect on system.
c) rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating.
d) rapid and smooth operation of system.
28. The specification of hydraulic fluids (mineral, vegetable or ester based) is:
 a) always distinguishable by taste and smell.
b) generally distinguishable by colour.
c) generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same manufacturer.
d) cannot be distinguished by colour alone.
29. ‘An Automatic Cut Out Valve (ACOV) will provide an idling circuit when the
accumulator is fully charged’, which of the following is correct regarding the above
statement?
a) True,
b) False.

30. The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:

a) allow the parking brake to remain on overnight if required.
b) allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to prevent the wheels locking.
c) prevent over-pressurising the reservoir as altitude increases.
d) prevent total loss of system fluid if the brake pipeline is ruptured.
31. A shuttle valve will allow:
a) the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down.
b) the pressure pump to off-load when the system pressure is reached.
c) two independent pressure sources to operate a system/component.
d) high pressure fluid to return to the reservoir if the Full Flow Relief Valve fails.
32. When the hydraulic system pressure is released
a) reservoir air pressure will increase.
b) reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other components in the
system.
c) reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest point in the system.
d) reservoir contents are dumped overboard.
33. Skydrol hydraulic fluid:
a) needs no special safety precautions or treatment.
b) is flame resistant but is harmful to skin, eyes and some paints.
c) is highly flammable and harmful to skin, eyes and some paints.
d) is highly flammable but not harmful in any other way.
34. Skydrol hydraulic fluid can be used to replenish:
a) any hydraulic system without restriction.
b) hydraulic systems that have butyl rubber seals only.
c) any hydraulic system in an emergency.
d) hydraulic systems that have neoprane seals only.
35. A variable displacement pump on system startup will be at:
a) minimum stroke.
b) an optimised position depending on fluid viscosity.
c) maximum stroke.
d) mid stroke.
36. Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are fitted:
a) to release all the pressure back to return in an overheat situation.
b) to release half the pressure back to return in an overheat situation.
c) to relieve excess pressure back to the actuator in an overheat situation.
d) in isolated lines only to relieve excess pressure caused by temperature rises.
37. A main system hydraulic pump:
a) does not need a positive fluid supply if primed before startup.
 b) always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation.
c) does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation.
d) can be run dry without causing any damage.

38. Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:
a) exert the same force.
b) will lift equal loads.
c) will move at the same speed.
d) exert different forces.
39. To prevent cavitation of the pump a hydraulic reservoir may be:
a) pressurised
b) bootstrapped
c) above the pump
d) all of the above are correct.
40. A hand pump is usually fitted
a) for ground servicing purposes
b) lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c) pressurising the oleo struts in the air
d) retracting the gear after take-off.

Answer Sheet:
Q.No. 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. B A A D B D B C B C C A B B
Q.No. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. C A C B D D A D A B C D C D
Q.No. 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A D C B B B C D B D D A

Fuel:

01. The measure of a fuel’s tendency to change state from a liquid to a vapour is called:
a) Vapour Pressure,
b) Fluidity,
c) Volatility,
d) None of the above is correct.
02. Octane rating is:
a) Measure of fuels tendency to vaporize,
b) Lower means the higher will be it’s resistance to detonation,
c) Measure of fuel’s resistance to detonation,
d) All the above are correct.
03. Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:
a) To assist in correct fuel distribution.
 b) To prevent fuel surging during aircraft maneuvers.
c) To prevent the static build up in the tank during refueling.
d) To channel fuel to the vent valve.
04. Tetra ethyl lead is added to some aviation fuel to:
a) Decrease its octane rating.
b) Decrease the risk of detonation.
c) Increase its calorific value.
d) Increase its specific gravity.

05. The aircraft cannot be refueled while:

a) A ground power unit is operating on the ramp.
b) Passengers are walking through the refueling zones.
c) Passengers are boarding.
d) The A.P.U. is running.
06. If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:
a) Water contamination.
b) Anti-microbiological additives.
c) Mixing different fuel grades.
d) Oil in the fuel.
07. The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:
a) The use of fuel from any tank to any engine.
b) Refueling when only one bowser is in use.
c) Isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire.
d) Transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks.
08. Fuel is heated:
a) To stop cavitations in the High Pressure Fuel Pump.
b) To maintain a constant viscosity.
c) To prevent water contamination.
d) To stop ice blocking the Low Pressure fuel filter.
09. Fuel tank booster pumps are:
a) Centrifugal, low pressure.
b) Centrifugal, high pressure
c) Gear type, low pressure
d) None of the above is correct.
10. The Low Pressure engine driven pump:
 a) Backs up in case the engine High Pressure Pump fails.
b) Backs up in case of a double booster pump failure.
c) Pressurizes the fuel tanks to assist flow to the booster pumps.
d) All the above are correct.
11. Stake pipe is used in fuel tank:
a) To prevent the risk of engine failure due to water or contaminants passing through the fuel,
b) To retain fuel for emergency use,
c) To drain fuel for checking the water contamination,
d) All the above are correct.
12. With an increase in outside air temperature, specific fuel consumption will:
a) Increase.
b) Decrease.
c) Stay the same.
d) Stay the same for all temperatures up to and including 15°C and thereafter increase.
13. “A fuel booster pump, besides pumping fuel to the engine, can also be utilized to jettison and
transfer the fuel”. Which of the following is correct regarding the above statement?
a. True,
b. False.

14. To indicate that a refueling bowser carries JET A1 aviation kerosene:

a. yellow and black stripes are marked on the refueling hose.
b. JET A1 would be painted in 30cm high symbols on the side of the container.
c. JET Al is printed in white on a black background label positioned prominently on
the vehicle.
d. the driver wears a straw yellow water and fuel proof jacket.

15. If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:
a. water contamination.
b. anti-microbiological additives.
c. mixing different fuel grades.
d. oil in the fuel.
16. “The purpose of the fuel cooled oil cooler is to heat the oil and cool the fuel”. The
statement is:
a. true,
b.false.
17. Which of the following caution light come in cockpit due to sufficient differential fuel
Pressure?
a) Cross Feed Light,
b) Low Pressure Light,
c) Filter By-Pass Light,
d) None of the above.
18. Fuel system that uses aviation gasoline is considered conducive to vapour formation, which of
the following times vapour locks are likely to form?
a) Low ambient pressire,
b) Low angle of attack,
c) Low fuel temperature,
d) All the above are correct.
19. Auxiliary fuel pump is selected ‘ON’:
a) For take off,
b) For tank changes,
c) In the event of the engine running rough,
d) All the above are correct.
20. Vent-Surge tanks is an integral part of the fuel system on large aircraft normally located:
a) Between the main fuel tanks and the wing tips,
b) Inside the center tank,
c) Inboard of each main tank,
d) Inside the tip tank.
21.” Standard refueling connections must be able to withstand a pressure of 50 psi and the defuel
system a suction pressure of minus 5 psi”. The statement above is:

a) True,
b) False.
22. Temperature probe to measure the fuel temperature is normally connected to:
a) Center tank,
b) Left tank,
c) Right tank,
d) All the tanks.
23. Auxiliary Power Unit is normally supplied fuel from:
a) Right tank,
b) Left tank,
c) Center tank during prolong ground operation,
d) Both b & c are correct.
24. Aircraft should not be fuelled within a certain minimum distance from operational
radar or HF radio equipment in aircraft or ground installations, the distance is:

a) 30 metres,
b) 50 metres,
c) 100 metres,
d) None of the above is correct.

25. Methods of refueling an aircraft are:

a) Open line,
b) Bowser method,
c) Pressure line,
d) Both a & c are correct.

26. Fuel tanks for large transport aircraft must have a sump of effective capacity, in the
 normal ground attitude, of not less than of:

a) 0.10% of tank capacity,

b) 1/4 of a litre,
c) 10% of total tanks capacity,
d) Both a & b are correct.
27.“Large transonic and supersonic aircraft often have an auxiliary tank mounted within
the tailplane to allow fuel to be transferred and assist in trimming the aircraft”.
The above state is:
a) True,
b) False.

28. Each fuel tank must have a low point, which is termed a ‘sump’ to collect:
a) Metal chips from pumps,
b) Debris,
c) Water,
d) All the above are correct.

Answer Sheet:

Q.No. 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. C C B B B A A D A B A A A C
Q.No. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. A B C A D A A B D A D D A C

Piston Engine:
01. Combustion, in a four stroke engine, theoretically occurs at:
a) A constant pressure.
b) A constant temperature.
c) A constant volume.
d) A constant velocity.
02. In a divergent duct:
a) The velocity and temperature increase, the pressure decreases.
b) The temperature and pressure increase, the velocity decreases.
c) The temperature and pressure decrease, the velocity increases.
d) The velocity and temperature decrease, the pressure increases.
03. During the induction stroke:
a) The mixture becomes weaker.
b) The volume of the gases becomes smaller.
c) The temperature of the gases reduces.
d) The pressure of the gases increases.
04. Ideally, maximum pressure is attained within the cylinder:
a) When combustion is complete.
b) At the end of the compression stroke.
 c) During the period of valve overlap.
d) When combustion temperature is at a minimum.
05. The purpose of a valve spring is to:
a) Close the valve.
b) Cause a snap opening of the valve.
c) Allow the valve timing to vary with changing R.P.M.
d) Maintain the valve clearance within tolerance.
06. A reduction gear is fitted:
a) Between the camshaft and the propeller.
b) Between the pushrods and the valves.
c) Between the crankshaft and propeller.
d) Between the connecting rod and the crankshaft.
07. Prolonged use of low R.P.M. could cause contamination of the:
a) Oil filter.
b) Spark plug.
c) Carburetor.
d) Oil pump.
08. If the starter Engaged Light remains on after engine start, you should:
a) Shut the engine down immediately.
b) Ignore it if it remains on for longer than 30 seconds.
c) Shut the engine down if the light remains on for more than 30 seconds.
d) Shut the engine down if the light remains on for more than 60 seconds.
09. Two valve springs are fitted to each valve:
a) To minimize camshaft wear.
b) To allow a greater cam rise.
c) To prevent valve rotation.
d) To reduce valve bounce.
10. The length of the stroke is:
a) Equal to the length of the cylinder.
b) Determined by the size of the piston.
c) Equivalent to twice the crank throw.
d) Inversely proportional to the engine power output.
11. The purpose of a crankcase breather is to:
a) Maintain the oil tank pressure at atmospheric.
b) Prevent distortion of the crankcase.
c) Allow the oil to breathe.
d) Prevent pressure building up inside the crankcase.
12. The exhaust valves:
a) Are opened directly by action of push rods which are in turn operated by cams on
crankshafts.
b) Are less affected by the heat of combustion than the inlet valves.
c) Are opened by the valve springs and closed by the rocker gear.
d) Sometimes have their stems partly filled with sodium to assist cooling.
13. A normally aspirated engine is one which:
a) Has four cylinders.
b) Is not supercharged.
c) Is never air cooled.
 d) All of the above are correct.
14.The camshaft of a horizontally opposed four stroke engine rotates at:
a) Twice engine speed,
b) Engine speed,
c) Twice magneto speed,
d) Half engine speed.

15. The ratio of the power produced by an engine to the power available in the fuel is known as:
a) Specific fuel consumption.
b) Indicated horse power.
c) Volumetric efficiency.
d) Thermal efficiency.
16. Specific Fuel Consumption (S.F.C.)
a) Is the inability of the internal combustion engine to use any fuel other than that specified
by the manufacturer.
b) Becomes greater as the efficiency of the engine improves.
c) Is the weight of fuel used by an engine per unit horse power per unit time.
d) Increases in proportion to the thermal efficiency.
17. The scavenge pump system in a lubrication system has:
a) A by-pass in case of blockage.
b) A smaller capacity than the pressure pump.
c) A bifurcated tertiary drive system.
d) A larger capacity than the pressure pump.
18. In a "wet sump" oil system, the oil is contained in the:
a) Engine and tank.
b) Tank and oil cooler.
c) Sump and tank.
d) Engine and sump.
19. The oil contents of a piston engine (wet sump) are checked:
a) When the engine is running at idle power.
b) As soon as possible after the engine is stopped because the oil will drain away from the
Sump.
c) After approximately 15 minutes once the engine has stopped.
d) When the oil has reached a specific temperature.

20. The device utilized to measure temperature on a piston engine is:

a) Thermometer.
b) Barometer.
c) Thermocouple.
d) Thermostat.

21. The spark appears at the plug electrodes when:

a) The contact breaker closes.
b) The contact breaker opens.
c) The contact breaker stays open.
d) The magneto switch is made.
22. The temperature of the gases within the cylinder of a four stroke engine during the power
stroke will:
a) Be constant.
 b) Decrease.
c) Increase.
d) Follow Charles's Law.
23. The number of revolutions of the crankshaft required to complete a full cycle in a four stroke
engine is:
a) 6
b) 4
c) 2
d) 8.
24. The inlet valve opens before T.D.C. in the exhaust stroke to:
a) Increase the pressure in the cylinder on completion of the induction stroke.
b) Reduce engine vibration.
c) Allow the incoming mixture to mix with a certain proportion of the exhaust gases.
d) Induce a greater amount of mixture into the cylinder.
25. The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:
a) Exhaust, power, induction, compression.
b) Induction, power, compression, exhaust.
c) Power, exhaust, compression, induction.
d) None of the above is correct.
26. With an increase in the rotational speed of a four stroke engine, the valve overlap:
a) Increases.
b) Remains constant.
c).Decrease
d) Increases up to ground idle and thereafter decreases.
27. If the volume of a quantity of gas is halved during compression:
a) Its temperature remains constant.
b) Its mass is approximately doubled.
c) Its pressure is approximately halved.
d) None of the above is correct.
28. Combustion, in a four stroke engine, occurs:
a) after compression stroke and just before power stroke,
b) before exhaust stroke and after power stroke,
c) after induction stroke and before compression stroke
d) None of the above is correct.

29. The “anti-knock” value of a fuel is its:

a) degree of resistance to pre-ignition,
b) resistance to adiabatic combustion,
c) ability to oppose burning,
d) resistance to detonation.
30. During the compression stroke:
a) The temperature of the gases remains constant.
b) The volume of the gases increases.
c) The mass of the mixture decreases.
d) None of the above is correct.
31. The power output of an internal combustion engine:
a) Is proportional to the volume of mixture induced into the cylinder.
 b) Increases with increased outside air temperature.
c) Falls as the charge temperature falls.
d) None of the above is correct.
32. Brake Horsepower is:
a) Theoretical power in the cylinder.
b) Power lost in the engine.
c) Power required to slow the aircraft down.
d) None of the above is correct.

33. The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between:

a) The root chord and the tip chord of the propeller.
b) The chord and the airflow relative to the propeller.
c) The chord of the propeller and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
d) None of the above is correct.
34. The blade angle:
a) Is constant along the propeller blade.
b) Increases from root to tip.
c) Varies with changes in engine rpm.
d) Decreases from root to tip.
35. The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:
a) Depends on forward speed only.
b) Depends on engine rotational speed only.
c) Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller.
d) Both a & b are correct.

36. The blade angle of a fixed pitch propeller would be set to give the optimum angle:
a) During take off.
b) During the cruise.
c) At the maximum level flight speed.
d) For landing.
37. The thrust force of a propeller producing forward thrust:
a) Tends to bend the propeller tips forward.
b) Tends to bend the propeller tips backward.
c) Tends to bend the propeller in its plane of rotation.
d) Causes a tension load in the propeller.
38. The greatest stress on a rotating propeller occurs:
a) At the tip.
b) At about 75% of the length.
c) At the mid point.
d) At the root.
39. Tetra Ethyl Lead is added to some aviation fuel to:
a) decrease its octane rating,
b) increase its calorific value,
c) increase its specific gravity,
d) none of the above is correct.
40. A chemically correct mixture is:
a) 15:1 (fuel: air),
 b) 1:15(fuel: air),
c) 13:1(air:fuel),
d) none of the above is correct.
41. If the vent pipe of an aircraft’s fuel tank becomes blocked, it will cause:
a) the pressure in the tank to fall when the fuel is used,
b) the fuel pressure at the carburetor to rise,
c) the pressure in the fuel tank to rise when fuel is used,
d) both b & c are correct.

42. Valve overlap is incorporated in the valve timing of a piston engine to:
a) reduce wear on the big end bearings,
b) prevent a weak cut when the engine is accelerated rapidly,
c) improve compression ratio,
d) none of the above is correct.
43. The discharge nozzle injects fuel:
a) Continuously into the inlet manifold as close to the inlet valve as possible.
b) Into the inlet manifold when the inlet valve opens.
c) Into the combustion chamber during the compression stroke.
d) Continuously into the combustion chamber during the induction stroke.
44. A weak mixture is used for which of the following?
a) take off
b) climbing
c) engine starting
d) cruising.
45. A weak mixture would be indicated by:
a) A drop in engine speed.
b) White smoke in the exhaust manifold.
c) Detonation and black smoke from the exhaust.
d) An increase in engine speed with black smoke from the exhaust.
46. Excessive cylinder head temperatures are caused by:
a) The prolonged use of weak mixtures.
b) The ignition timing being too far advanced.
c) The prolonged use of rich mixtures.
d) The ignition being too far retarded.
47. A possible cause of the engine backfiring could be:
a) An exhaust valve sticking open.
b) A broken push rod.
c) A blocked float chamber.
d) A sticking inlet valve.
48. When the ignition switch is placed in the `ON' position it:
a) Isolates the breaker points.
b) Makes the engine starter motor circuit.
c) `Earths' or `grounds' the secondary winding.
d) Breaks the primary to earth circuit.

Answer Sheet:
Q.No. 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. C B C A A C B A D C D D B D
Q.No. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. D C D D C C B B C D D B D A
Q.No. 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. D D D D D D D B A D D B A D
Q.No. 43 44 45 46 47 48
Ans. A D A A A D
Basic Electricity:
01. All effects of electricity take place because of the existence of a tiny particle called the:
a) electron.
b) proton.
c) neutron.
d) atom.
02. Materials containing 'free electrons' are called:
a) insulators
b) resistors
c) collectors
d) conductors.
03. Chemical action produces electricity in:
a) a light meter.
b) a generator.
c) a primary cell.
d) starter generator.
04. A photo electric cell produces electricity when:
a) two metals are heated.
b) exposed to a light source.
c) a light source is removed.
d) exposed to the heat of the sun.
05. Heat produces an electric charge when:
a) like poles are joined.
b) a hard and soft glass is heated.
c) the junction of two unlike metals is heated.
d) hard and soft material are rubbed together.
06. The electrons of an atom are:
a) positivelycharged.
b) neutral.
c) negatively charged.
d) of zero potential.
07. Three resistance of 60 ohms each in parallel give a total resistance of:
a) 180 ohms
b) 40 ohms
c) 30 ohms
d) 20 ohms.
08. A device consuming 80 watts at 8 amps would have a voltage supply of:
 a) 640 volts.
b) 12 volts.
c) 10 volts.
d) 8 volts.
09. The voltage applied to a simple resistor increases
a) Current will decrease but power consumed remains constant
b) Resistance and power decrease
c) Current flow will increase and power consumed will increase
d) Current flow increases and power consumed decreases.
10. A circuit breaker is a device for:
a) controlling rotor movement only.
b) isolating the service on overload.
c) isolating the battery when using the ground batteries.
d) earthing the magnetos when switching off.
11. A thermal circuit breaker works on the principle of:
a) differential expansion of metals.
b) differential thickness of metals.
c) differential density of metals.
d) differential pressure of metals.
12. Circuit breakers are fitted in:
a) series with the load.
b) parallel with the load.
c) across the load.
d) shunt with the load.
13. What must be checked before replacing a fuse:
a) the ohms of the circuit.
b) the amps being used in the circuit.
c) the amps capacity of the consuming device in the circuit.
d) the correct fuse volt or watts rating.
14. Fuses:
a) protect the load.
b) protect the cable.
c) protect the generator.
d) protect both the circuit cable and load.

15. A battery capacity test is carried out:

a) 6 monthly
b) 2 monthly
c) 3 monthly
d) every minor check
16. An electric circuit normally consists the following:
a) Generator, a load, a controlling mechanism and a conductor,
b) A load, a controlling mechanism, battery and a conductor,
c) Alternator, a load, a controlling mechanism and a conductor,
d) Power source, a load, a switch and a conductor.
17. Circuit breakers and fuses
A) Are used in DC circuits only
 b) Are used in AC or DC circuits
c) Are used in AC circuits only
d) Are used in low current circuits only.
18. A fuse is used to protect an electrical circuit, it is of:
a) Low melting point.
b) High capacity.
c) High melting point.
d) Low resistance.

19. Battery voltage is tested with:

a) A megometer.
b) A voltmeter on rated load.
c) An ammeter with a rated voltage.
d) A hygrometer.
20. Electro-motive force is measured in:
a) Amps x Volts
b) Watts
c) Volts
d) Ohms.
21. Power can be calculated in AC resistive circuit by:
a) Voltage x Current,
b) Current x Resistance,
c) Voltage x Resistance,
d) None of the above is correct.
22. A transformer is a device which is used to:
a) Step up or step down the AC voltage,
b) Step up or step down the AC current,
c) Control the frequency of AC circuit,
d) Both a & b are correct.
23. The purpose of rectifier is to:
a) Convert AC into DC,
b) Convert DC into AC,
c) Rectify the pulsative DC,
d) Rectify the wild AC.
24. Rheostats are used to vary the intensity of panel or flight deck light by varying the:
a) Current,
b) Power,
c) Resistance,
d) Voltage.
25. “ The reliability of proximity switches is greater than the micro switches”. The
Statement is:
a) True,
b) False.
26.The formula for calculating the total value of capacitors connected in series is:
a) CT = C1+C2+C3… ,
b) 1/CT =1/C1+1/C2+1/C3….,
c) RT = R1+R2+R3…,
d) Capacitors can not be connected either in series or in parallel.
27. In case of emergency when engine generators and APU generator fail, aircraft can still
 be supplied from:
a) Aircraft battery,
b) Ram Air Turbine,
c) Alternator/Inverter,
d) Both a & b are correct.
28.External Power Unit is used:
a) When APU is available,
b) On ground to power the Galley System only,
c) In flight if APU became unserviceable,
d) For lighting and refueling systems on ground.
Answer Sheet:

Q.No. 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. A D C B C C D C C B A A C D
Q.No. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. C D B A B C A D A C A B D D

Instruments:

01. A pitot head is used to measure:

a) dynamic minus static pressure.
b) static plus dynamic pressure.
c) static pressure.
d) dynamic pressure.
02. A static vent is used to measure:
a) dynamic pressure minus pitot excess.
b) dynamic pressure plus pitot excess.
c) atmospheric pressure.
d) pitot excess pressure.
03. Which of the following materials are classed as ferromagnetic?
a) iron, steel, carbon-fibre.
b) nickel, iron, steel.
c) copper, iron, carbon steel.
d) iron, cobalt steel, chromium steel.
04. Static vents are usually fitted to both sides of the aircraft fuselage. This will:
a) reduce the position error.
b) balance out errors caused by side slipping or yawing.
c) require a calibration card for each static vent.
d) enable a greater number of instruments to be fitted.
05. Which of the following instruments require inputs of both pitot and static pressure:
a) airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed indicator.
b) airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter.
c) airspeed indicator only.
d) airspeed indicator and machmeter.
06. Compass swings should be carried out:
a) on the apron.
b) only on the compass swinging base or site.
c) at the holding point.
 d) on the active runway.
07. Converted into degrees Celsius - 40°F is:
a) -56.5°C
b) -4°C,
c) -20°C
d) -108°C.

08. In an aircraft thermometer with an electrical resistance sensor to measure the air
temperature, the resistance wire element is probably:
a) plutonium
b) platinum,
c) potassium
d) beryllium copper.

09. Flying at high speed at high altitude, the difference between ram air temperature and static
air temperature is:
a) likely to be less than when flying low and slow.
b) due to adiabatic cooling.
c) due to adiabatic warming.
d) proportional to the square of the absolute temperature.
10. Aircraft air temperature thermometers are shielded to protect them from:
a) solar radiation.
b) accidental physical damage on the ground or hailstones in flight.
c) airframe icing.
d) kinetic heating.
11. At a true airspeed of 500 knots, a ram rise of air temperature can be expected of:
a) 50 degrees Celsius
b) 25 degrees Celsius
c) 5 degrees Celsius
d) 16 degrees Celsius.
12. An air temperature probe may be aspirated in order to:
a) prevent icing.
b) measure air temperature on the ground.
c) compensate for thermal soaking at the ramp position.
d) reduce the effect of solar radiation.
13. Total Air Temperature is:
a) the maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically.
b) the temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise.
c) the static air temperature minus the recovery factor.
d) the recovery factor plus the ram rise.
14. The difference between static air temperature and total air temperature is known as:
a) corrected outside air temperature.
b) the ram rise.
c) the recovery factor.
 d) hot ramp radiation.
15. A direct reading aircraft thermometer usually consists of a bimetallic helix protruding into
the airstream. Movement of the pointer over the temperature scale will depend upon:
a) difference in electrical resistance of the two metals.
b) increase in pressure as airspeed increases.
c) increase in adiabatic cooling as airspeed increases.
d) different coefficients of expansion of the two metals.

16. A remote reading thermometer depends upon ....... to indicate changes in temperature:
a) change of electrical resistance of the two metals.
b) change of electrical resistance with temperature.
c) change of electrical resistance with change in pressure.
d) change of electrical capacitance with change in temperature.
17. If the pitot line to an ASI becomes totally blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:
a) decrease, no matter what the actual airspeed is.
b) increase, no matter what the actual airspeed is.
c) progressively under indicate the value of the airspeed.
d) stick at the airspeed showing at the moment of blockage.
18. The airspeed indicator is calibrated to:
a) conditions of the International Standard Atmosphere.
b) conditions of the International Standard Atmosphere at MSL.
c) an air density of 1013.25 gms/m3
d) indicate correctly in any atmosphere.
19. Dynamic pressure is equal to:
a) 1/2 vp2
b) 1/2 pv2
c) (1/2 pv)2
d) 1/2 (pv)2
20. In high speed flight at high altitude the static source will suffer:
a) barometric error
b) lag
c) temperature error
d) position error.
21. Which of the following types of pressure gauge would be best suited to a high pressure
input?
a) aneroid capsule,
b) bourdon tube,
c) bellows,
d) dynamic probe.
22.” The temperature lapse rate is 2.98 degree Celsius per 1000 ft up to a height of
36,090ft above which the temperature is assumed to remain constant at -56.5degree
Celsius”. The above statement is:
a) true,
b) false.

23.If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:
a) increase, no matter what the actual airspeed is.
 b) progressively under indicate the value of airspeed.
c) progressively over indicate the value of airspeed.
d) stick at the airspeed showing at the moment of blockage.
24. Torque meters provide a reliable measure of power output from:
a) a turbo jet engine,
b) a noise suppression unit,
c) a turbo-propeller engine,
d) an APU.

25.” A practical approximation for the lower levels of the atmosphere is that a decrease
in Pressure of one milibar equates to an increase in height of 30 feet”. The above
statement is:

a) true,
b) false,
26. Compared to the VSI what errors are eliminated by the IVSI?
a) lag,
b) turning,
c) pressure,
d) temperature.

27. If the alternate static source is selected, the greatest error in the machmeter will be;
a) position error,
b) manoeuvre induced error,
c) density error,
d) lag.
28. If the pitot line becomes blocked during a climb the machmeter will:
a) be unaffected,
b) under read,
c) over read,
d) under read by an increasingly erroneous amount.
29. The air speed indicator provides the speed indication by measuring the pressure
difference in between:

a) Pitot pressure and static pressure,

b) Static pressure and dynamic pressure,
c) Dynamic pressure and pitot pressure,
d) All of the above are correct.
30. Density varies:
a) directly with pressure and inversely with temperature.
b) directly with temperature and pressure.
c) inversely with temperature and pressure.
d) inversely with pressure and directly with temperature.
31. Dynamic pressure is:
a) Static pressure minus pitot pressure.
b) Pitot pressure plus static pressure.
 c) Density and static pressure.
d) Pitot pressure minus static pressure.
32. The fuel flow meter electrically measures the flow of fuel and indicates:
a) The weight of the fuel,
b) The volume of fuel,
c) The density of fuel,
d) None of the above is correct.
33. Sound is propagated at a velocity which is dependent upon:
a) barometric pressure,
b) density,
c) static pressure,
d) temperature.

34. An aircraft flies into a colder air mass. This will cause the altimeter to:
a) over-read
b) under-read
c) read the correct altitude
d) the indication will depend on the hemisphere of operation.
35. What is Density Altitude?
a) temperature altitude,
b) pressure altitude corrected for the prevailing temperature,
c) the altitude in the International Standard Atmosphere at which the prevailing density
would be found,
d) pressure altitude corrected for Total Air Temperature.
36. What is used for EGT measurement?
a) helical bi-metallic strips,
b) thermistors,
c) radiation pyrometry,
d) thermo emf thermocouples.
37. A Radio Altimeter is:
a) ground based and measures true altitude,
b) ground based and measures true height,
c) aircraft based and measures true altitude,
d) aircraft based and measures true height,

38. What is used to measure gas turbine inlet pressure

a) Bourdon Tube,
b) Differential capsule,
c) Aneroid capsule,
d) Bellows.
39. A volumetric fuel flow meter is different to a mass flow meter because the mass
flow meter compensates for:
a) dielectric,
b) density,
c) volume,
d) pressure.
40. The working principle of a capacitive fuel contents gauging system is based upon
a) volume of fuel,
 b) changes in capacitance,
c) height of fuel,
d) dielectric value.
41. What type of sensor is used to measure the output of a low pressure booster pump
a) bourdon tube,
b) aneroid capsule,
c) bellows,
d) differential capsule.
42. What is the most basic function of an autopilot?
a) altitude hold,
b) heading hold,
c) wing leveler,
d) altitude and heading hold.
Answer Sheet:

Q.No. 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. B B D B D B B B C A B B A B
Q.No. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. D A A C B A B B A C A A A C
Q.No 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. A A B A D A C D D D B B C C

Descriptive / Short Notes:

01 What is the difference between the wing tip and tip tank. Write down the advantages of tip
tank.
02. Name and purpose of the L/G indications lights come in cockpit.
03. Write down the name of three components those were used previously to absorb the landing
loads of the a/c and mention their common disadvantages.
04.What are the things controlled by air/ground logic and where the air/ground switches are
mounted?
05. a) What is design Philosophy?
b) What do you mean by “Damage Tolerant Structure”?
06. a) Write down the requirements of modern undercarriage.
b) Describe the Shimmy Damper.
07. a) Describe the different grades of aviation gasoline?
b) What is meant by ‘Fuel Feed System’?
08. a) Write down the principles of four stroke internal combustion engine.
b) What are the major components of piston engines? Write down the purpose of
Crankshaft.
09. What are the form of air/ground logic switches? Describe the proximity switch.
10. What is the reason of wing tip vortex? Write down the name of methods are used to
 reduce the wing tip vortex?
11. What is detonation? Write down the causes and affect of detonation.
12. What is the function of carburetor? Write down the advantages of fuel injection
system.
13. Write short notes on: i) Blow Out Bungs, ii) Torque Links, iii) Power Plant,
iv) Carburetor Icing, v) Tail Bumper, vi) Shimmy damper, vii) Nose Wheel Rumbling.
14. a) What are the different types of wheel brakes?
b) How hydraulic fluid is retained in modern hydraulic reservoir for emergency
use?

15. a) Where are the systems operated by hydraulic system?

b) What is RAT?
16. a) What are the functions of accumulators?
b) Name the different types of accumulators.
17. a) What are the types of hydraulic fluids?
b) Write down the properties of hydraulic fluids.
18. Write down the formula of relationship in between:
a) Pressure, Area & Force.
b) Length, Volume & Area.