Volume - 1 Enforcement Officer

UPSC ONLINE ACADEMY
ENFORCEMENT OFFICER – MOCK SERIES
VOLUME I
2016 EDITION
ISBN-10 151754422X
ISBN-13 978-1517544225
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VOLUME I
ISBN-10 151754422X
ISBN-13 978-1517544225
2016 EDITION
For further information about the courses from UPSC ONLINE ACADEMY
log on to www.upsconlineacademy.net or
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QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK SERIES IN UPSC EXAMINATIONS:
[DETAILS OF THE ASKED QUESTIONS WITH QUESTION NO. ARE MENTIONED ON

OUR WEBSITE ]
** IAS PRELIMS GENERAL STUDIES 2016-
50 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS
** IAS PRELIMS PAPER-2 2015-
30 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS (Excluding

Comprehensions)
** IAS PRELIMS PAPER-2 2015-
23 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS (Excluding

Comprehensions)
INSIDE THE PAGES :
In this book we have made Mock papers of the Enforcement Officer.
NO. OF MOCK PAPERS IN THIS VOLUME :
5 MOCK PAPERS WITH 500 QUESTIONS
Note :
In some questions Explanations have not been covered because it has

ben covered in further questions in volumes.
Those questions are on same topic, for that we have explained only
single time.
Thus, kindly read all the three volumes carefully

ENFORCEMENT
OFFICER MOCK SERIES-
UPSC ONLINE ACADEMY’S MOCK PAPER-1 2016
EXPLANATIONS
Q.1 Kurds who are basically Bedouin tribes fighting for their own
homeland have been a constant source of anxiety in recent times to :
A) Saudi Arabia & Syria
B) Iran & Syria
C) Afghanistan & Iran
D) Iraq & Turkey
Ans.B
Between 25 and 35 million Kurds inhabit a mountainous region
straddling the borders of Turkey, Iraq, Syria, Iran and Armenia. They
make up the fourth-largest ethnic group in the Middle East, but they
have never obtained a permanent nation state.
In recent decades, Kurds have increasingly influenced regional

developments, fighting for autonomy in Turkey and playing prominent
roles in the conflicts in Iraq and Syria, where they have resisted the
advance of the so-called Islamic State (IS) jihadist group.
The Kurds are one of the indigenous people of the Mesopotamian plains
and the highlands in what are now south-eastern Turkey, north-eastern
Syria, northern Iraq, north-western Iran and south-western Armenia.
Today, they form a distinctive community, united through race, culture
and language, even though they have no standard dialect. They also
adhere to a number of different religions and creeds, although the
majority are Sunni Muslims.
Q.2 Which one among the following was not a programme adopted by
the Congress while launching the non-cooperation movement?
WWW.UPSCONLINEACADEMY.NET upsconlineacademy@gmail.com 1
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) Surrender of titles and honorary offices, resignation from nominated
seats in local bodies, boycott of the official and semi official functions
B) Withdrawal of children from government schools and colleges
C) Boycott of elections, foreign goods and government courts
D) Refusal to pay the revenues to the government
Ans. D
Q.3 There is an emerging dispute in the South China Sea with China
aggressively laying claim to the entire area including the islands by
threatening other Southeast Asian claimants with coercive power. Which
among the following is/are the best conflict resolution mechanism(s) in
this situation?
1. The US Pacific Command should militarily counter Chinese
aggression
2. The US should sign military pacts with other Southeast Asian nations
against China
3. The dispute should be resolved utilizing the ASEAN 2002 Declaration
on the Conduct of parties in a peaceful manner
4. The UN Security Council should declare China’s aggressive posture
as a threat to international peace and security and invoke UN Chapter
VII
A) 1 only
B) 3 only
C) 2 & 3
D) 1 & 4
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. B
Q.4 The Eleventh Schedule inserted by the 73rd Amendment distributes
powers between the State Legislatures and the Panchayats, and lists 29
items. Which among the following are listed in the Eleventh Schedule?
1. Minor irrigation
2. Animal husbandary
3. Women and child development
4. Fire service
5. Cattle pounds, prevention od cruelty to animals
Codes:
A) 1, 2 & 3
B) 1,4 & 5
C) 2,3 & 4
D) 3,4 & 5
Ans. A
Q.5 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) So far, there have been three proclamations of emergency in whole of
India
B) A written communication of the decision of the Union cabinet is an
essential precondition for the issue of proclamation of emergency in
whole of India by the President of India
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
C) Under no circumstances could the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights under articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India be denied
even during emergency
D) If the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving the proclamation
of Emergency or its continuance, it shall be revoked within two months
Ans. D
Q.6 Consider the following statements :
1. A new chapter on the Fundamental Duties of citizens was inserted in
the Constitution of India by a Constitutional Amendment Act
2. A new article dealing with the Right to Education regarding providing
free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to
fourteen years was inserted in the Constitution of India by a
Constitutional Amendment Act
3. The Right to property has been omitted as a Fundamental Right and
made only a legal right
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A) 1,2,3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) Only 2
Ans. A
1. Corporation tax and customs duty go exclusively to the Union
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
2. Surcharge on Income-tax and Stamp Duty go exclusively to the States
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
1. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution
2. Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of six
years
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of five
years.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
1. Presidential election of United States of America is held every fifth
year
2. Vice President of United States of America is the ex-officio President
of the house of representatives
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans.D
Last Presidential elections were held in 2012 & now to be held in
November 2016.
Q.10 Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a
candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?
1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid
2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is
found valid
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
Parliamentary committee on public accounts :
1. Consists of not more than 25 members of Lok Sabha
2. Scrutinises appropriation & finance accounts of government
3. Examines the report of Comptroller & Auditor General of India
A) Only 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans.B
Consists of 15 members from Lok Sabha & 7 members from Rajya
Sabha
Q.12 Consider the statements in respect of the Union budget of India :
1. Union Finance minister on behalf of the Prime minister lays an annual
financial statement before both the houses of parliament
2. At the union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the
recommendation of the President of India
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid
before both the Houses of Parliament
Q.13 Which of the following statements is not correct ?
A) Telephone tapping infracts article 21 of the constitution of India
unless permitted by law
B) Article 22 of constitution of India provides that no person who is
arrested shall be detained without being informed of the grounds of
arrest
C) Refusal of grant bail in a murder case without reasonable ground
would amount to deprivation of personal liberty under artice 23 of
constitution of India
D) Article 24 of the constitution prohibits the employment of children
below the age of 14 years in factories or mines or in any other hazardous
jobs
Ans.C
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.14 On which of the following achievements does the UNDP Human
Development Report base its rating of Human Development Index in
respect of different countries ?
1. Life expectancy
2. Educational attainment
3. Adjusted real income
A) 1,2 & 3
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 2 only
Ans.D
1. Modem is used to link a computer with telephone line so that data can
be transmitted at high speeds from one computer to another
2. Pentium chip performs the function of RAM in a computer CPU
3. Giga represents 109
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
C) Only 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
Q.16 The ‘Dual Government’ recommended by Lord Clive provided that
the
A) Criminal justice would be left to the Nawabi officials, while civil and
fiscal matters would be controlled by the Company
B) Company will look after fiscal matters and all the rest would be dealt
by the Indian rulers
C) Indian rulers will deal with all the matters of administration under the
supervision of a Company official
D) Indian rulers will be only titular heads and all the powers shall be
directly dealt by the company
Ans. A
Q.17 During the Indian freedom struggle, what was the purpose of the
Simon Commission ?
A) To inquire into events related to the Jalianwala Bhagh Massacre
B) To look into the working of Government of India Act 1919
C) To suggest strategies for promoting western education in India
D) To design a constitution for India within the framework of Dominion
Status
Ans.B
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
1. Bluetooth technology uses simulation of a given environment
2. Virtual reality uses short range wireless connection for inter-
connecting mobile phones, computers with each other
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard for exchanging data over
short distances (using short-wavelength UHF radio waves in the ISM
band from 2.4 to 2.485 GHz) from fixed and mobile devices, and
building personal area networks (PANs). Invented by telecom
vendor Ericsson in 1994, it was originally conceived as a wireless
alternative to RS-232 data cables. It can connect several devices,
overcoming problems of synchronization.
Physical Typically less than 10 m,

range up to 100 m
Q.19 Consider the following statements about Wholesale Price Index

(WPI):
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
1. It captures the price movement extensively and is, therefore, taken as
an indication of inflation
2. The office of the Economic advisor (OEA) is entrusted ith the
function of compilation and publication of the weekly wholesale price
index in India
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Q.20 Consider the following statements about Gross Domestic Product
1. It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the
borders of a nation in a year
2. It is equal to the total expenditure for all final goods and services
produces within the country in a stipulated period of time
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Gross domestic product (GDP) is a monetary measure of the market
value of all final goods and services produced in a period (quarterly or
yearly). Nominal GDP estimates are commonly used to determine the
economic performance of a whole country or region, and to make
international comparisons. Nominal GDP, however, does not reflect
differences in the cost of living and the inflation rates of the countries;
therefore using a GDP PPP per capita basis is arguably more useful
when comparing differences in living standards between nations.
An IMF publication states that "GDP measures the monetary value of
final goods and services - that is, those that are bought by the final user -
produced in a country in a given period of time (say a quarter or a year)
Q.21 The ex-officio members of National Human Rights Commission of
India incudes :
A) Chairperson of National commission for minorities ,National
Commission for Schedules Castes , National Commission for Scheduled
Tribes, National Commission for Women
B) Chairperson of National commission for minorities ,National
Tribes only
C) Chairperson of National commission for Schedules Castes , National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes, National commission for women
only
D) Chairperson of National commission for minorities ,National
Tribes, National commission for protection of child rights
Ans. A
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.22 Besides representation Parliament of India is also a deliberative
body with diverse functions. Which one among the following is not a
function of Parliament of India ?
A) Ventilating the grievances of people
B) Executing major policy decisions
C) Holding the govt. accountable for its actions & expenditure
D) Amending the constitution
Ans. B
Q.23 Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at
A) First hour of the sitting
B) Last hour of the sitting
C) 12.00 noon
D) No fixed timings
Ans. C
Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally
reserved for the asking and answering of questions.
Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has
come to be known as "Zero Hour". It starts at around 12 noon (hence the
name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of
importance during this time.
Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of
national importance take place from 2pm onwards.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.24 Consider the following statements:
1. The Armed Forces Special Power Act (AFSPA) was first enforced in
the hills of Assam
2. The AFSPA is enforced in regions notified as ‘disturbed area’
3. Under the provisions of the Act, the Chief Minister of a State can
declare the whole State or part of it as ‘disturbed area’
A) 1,2 & 3
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 2 only
Ans. A
The Armed Forces Special Powers Ordinance of 1942 was promulgated
by the British on 15 August 1942 to suppress the Quit India Movement.
Modeled on these lines, four ordinances—the Bengal Disturbed Areas
(Special Powers of Armed Forces) Ordinance; the Assam Disturbed
Areas (Special Powers of Armed Forces)Ordinance; the East Bengal
Disturbed Areas (Special Powers of Armed Forces) Ordinance; the
United provinces Disturbed Areas(Special Powers of Armed Forces)
Ordinance were invoked by the central government to deal with the
internal security situation in the country in 1947 which arouse out
of Partition of India.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
According to the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), in an area
that is proclaimed as "disturbed", an officer of the armed forces has
powers to:
 After giving such due warning, Fire upon or use other kinds of force
even if it causes death, against the person who is acting against law or
order in the disturbed area for the maintenance of public order,
 Destroy any arms dump, hide-outs, prepared or fortified position or

shelter or training camp from which armed attacks are made by the
armed volunteers or armed gangs or absconders wanted for any
offence.
 To arrest without a warrant anyone who has committed cognizable

offences or is reasonably suspected of having done so and may use
force if needed for the arrest.
 To enter and search any premise in order to make such arrests, or to

recover any person wrongfully restrained or any arms, ammunition or
explosive substances and seize it.
 Stop and search any vehicle or vessel reasonably suspected to be

carrying such person or weapons.
 Any person arrested and taken into custody under this Act shall be
made present over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station
with least possible delay, together with a report of the circumstances
occasioning the arrest.
 Army officers have legal immunity for their actions. There can be no
prosecution, suit or any other legal proceeding against anyone acting
under that law. Nor is the government's judgment on why an area is
found to be disturbed subject to judicial review.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
 Protection of persons acting in good faith under this Act from
prosecution, suit or other legal proceedings, except with the sanction
of the Central Government, in exercise of the powers conferred by
this Act.
Q.25 The survey of India works under which of the following ministries
of the government of India ?
A) Minister of Defence
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Science & Technology
D) Ministry of Tourism & Culture
Ans.D
Q.26 Recently a spacecraft of NASA called stardust returned to earth
after its journey for several years .Which of the following was its
mission ?
A) Bringing dust samples from Mars
B) Bringing photographs of Jupiter
C) Colliding with a meteor to destroy it
D) Bringing dust samples from a comet
Ans.D
Q.27 What was the main task of the COP-8 of UNFCC which was
hosted by India recently ?
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) Controlling the menace of food shortage, malnutrition & starvation
deaths in world
B) Commiting the nations to curtail the production of weapons of mass
destruction
C) Negotiating the issues related to the genetically modified crops &
their impact on national economies & multilateral trade
D) Negotiating the climate related issues & commitments of nations to
deal with them
Ans.D
Q.28 Chemically What is snake venom ?
A) Glycolipid
B) Polysaccharide
C) Protein
D) Steroid
Ans.C
Q.29 Which of the following animals has vertebrae ?
A) Sea Cucumber
B) Sea Horse
C) Sea Urchin
D) Star Fish
Ans.B
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.30 Consider the following statements wit reference to the power
generation in India :
1. Hydroelectric power generation is around 30% of the thermal power
generation
2. The overall plant load factor is around 70%
3. The total power generation capacity in India is around 1-06 lakh MW
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 2
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) 2 & 3
Ans. A
1. Compared with proteins & fats , carbohydrates are more suitable for
the production of energy in the human body
2. Compared with the proteins & fats, carbohydrate molecule contain
relatively more oxygen
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans.C
Q.32 Under which one of the following Union Ministries does not
Genetic Engineering Approval Committee work?
A) Science and technology
B) Environment and forests
C) Agriculture
D) Human Resource Development
Ans. D
Q.33 Which of the following is named Saras ?
A) A submarine acquired by the Indian navy
B) An early warning radar & communication system acquired by the
Indian Air Force
C) India’s first locally designed civilian aircraft
D) An anti-tank missile developed by India
Ans.C
Q.34 Who among the following constitute the National Development
Cuncil?
1. The Prime Minister
2. Ministers of the Union cabinet
3. Chief Ministers of the States
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
4. The Chairman, Finance Commission
Codes:
A) 1 & 2
B) 1,2 & 3
C) 2,3 & 4
D) 1,2,3 & 4
Ans. B
Q.35 3G & 4G are wireless technologies which are faster, more secure
& reliable . Present day 3G technology is capable of handling data
around 2 Megabytes per second . What speed is expected from new 4G
technology ?
A) 10-30 Megabits per second (1-5 GHZ per second freq band)
B) 10-100 Megabits per second (2-10 GHZ per second freq band)
C) 100 Megabits-1 Gigabit per second (2-8 GHZ frequency band)
D) More than 10 Gigabits per second (10-20 GHZ freq band)
Ans. C
1. Concept of gene patenting as declared in dunkel draft is not
acceptable to the advocates of Gene Campaign
2. Safeguarding genetic resources & protecting the rights of farmers in
developing countries are the main objectives of advocates of “Gene
Campaign”
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans.B
"Gene patenting" is a broad term referring to the patenting of genetic
sequences such as DNA and RNA, and to alternative forms of DNA
such as cDNA (complementary DNA).
After it was announced in June 2000 that the human genome was almost
completely mapped, private and public entities unleashed a flood of
patent requests for genes and small pieces of gene sequences. The total
number of human genes is estimated to be about 30,000, and it is
estimated that up to 20 percent of genes are patented by private
companies, the government and even individuals.
The AMA is opposed to gene patenting because it has the potential to
inhibit access to genetic testing for patients and hinder research on
genetic disease. Others believe that gene patents provide incentives for
private company investment in education.
Q.37 What is clickjacking ?
A) A device that sends & receives data at every click in a bit second
B) A device technique which counts clicks on the internet
C) A malicious technique of tricking web users into revealing
confidential information
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) A digital process that is used to display an image on mobiles
Ans. C
Q.38 Pesticide treadmill refers to :
A) Increase in concentration of pesticides in the body of organism
B) Increase in doses of pesticides to prevent the resurgence of pests that
were being controlled
C) Development of resistance in plant due to excessive & prolonged use
of pesticide
D) Production of more synthetic pesticides
Ans.B
Q.39 In the evolution of animal kingdom, the first animals with true
body cavity belong to the phylum :
A) Annelida
B) Arthropoda
C) Aschelminthes
D) Platyhelminthes
Ans. A
The annelids also known as the ringed worms or segmented worms, are
a large phylum, with over
17,000 extant species including ragworms, earthworms, and leeches.
The species exist in and have adapted to various ecologies - some in
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
marine environments as distinct as tidal zones and hydrothermal vents,
others in fresh water, and yet others in moist terrestrial environments.
An arthropod is an invertebrate animal having
an exoskeleton (external skeleton), asegmented body, and
jointed appendages (paired appendages). Arthropods form
the phylum Arthropoda, which includes
theinsects, arachnids, myriapods, and crustaceans. Arthropods are
characterized by their jointed limbs and cuticle made ofchitin, often
mineralised with calcium carbonate. The arthropod body plan consists
of segments, each with a pair of appendages. The rigid cuticle inhibits
growth, so arthropods replace it periodically by moulting. Their
versatility has enabled them to become the most species-rich members
of all ecological guilds in most environments. They have over a million
described species, making up more than 80% of all described living
animal species, some of which, unlike most animals, are very successful
in dry environments.
The Aschelminthes, closely associated with the Platyhelminthes, are an
obsolete phylum of pseudocoelomate and other similar animals that are
no longer considered closely related and have been promoted to phyla in
their own right. The term Aschelminth is now generally only used as an
informal name for any member of the approximately ten
different invertebrate phyla formerly included within Aschelminthes.
It is considered a polyphyletic group.
The flatworms, flat worms, Platyhelminthes, Plathelminthes,

or platyhelminths helminth-, meaning "worm") are a phylum of
relatively simple bilaterian, unsegmented, soft-bodied invertebrates.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Unlike other bilaterians, they are acoelomates (having no body cavity),
and have no specialized circulatory and respiratory organs, which
restricts them to having flattened shapes that allow oxygen and nutrients
to pass through their bodies by diffusion. The digestive cavity has only
one opening for both ingestion (intake of nutrients) and egestion
(removal of undigested wastes); as a result, the food cannot be processed
continuously.
1. Nucleus in plant cells is generally near the boundary wall
2. Plant cells possess a single prominent vacuole occupying most of the
volume of cell
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. D
This organelle has two major functions. It stores the cell's hereditary
material, or DNA, and it coordinates the cell's activities, which include
intermediary metabolism, growth, protein synthesis, and reproduction
(cell division). Only the cells of advanced organisms, known as
eukaryotes, have a nucleus.
Where is the nucleus located in the cell?
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
The eukaryotic cell nucleus. These are the ribosome-studded double
membranes of the nuclear envelope, the DNA (complexed as
chromatin), and the nucleolus. Within the cell nucleus is a viscous liquid
called nucleoplasm, similar to the cytoplasm found outside the nucleus.
Q.41 Which of the following organisms has a role in converting nitrates

to free nitrogen ?
A) Pseudomonas
B) Nitrosomonas
C) Nitrobacter
D) Rhizobium
Ans.D
Q.42 Consider the following statements describing the function of plants
:
1. Photosynthetic is a process to convert light energy from the sun into
chemical energy i.e. Carbohydrates are synthesized from Carbon dioxide
& water using the sun light
2. Fermentation of Zymology is a metabolic process that converts
carbohydrates to alcohol & carbon di oxide
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. C
Q.43 Which of the following statements correctly denotes Bio-
fortification ?
A) Enrichment of the nutrient quality of the soil using biological agents
B) Breeding crops to increase their nutritional values
C) Inrcrease of organo-metallic compounds in the organism through
energy flow in an ecosystem
D) Adoption of genetic variable plants for breeding of high yielding
plants
Ans. B
Q.44 Consider the following statements about Star Alliance Network :
1. Established in year 1997, it is the global airline network with the
highest number of member airlines , daily flights, destinations &
countries flown to
2. Air India has recently joined the star Alliance in a bid to garner more
revenue
Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.45 With reference to the Indian freedom, consider the following
statements :
1. Cabinet Mission plan stated that the Muslim league’s demand for
Pakistan could not be conceded
2. Cabinet Mission plan proposed a federal union embracing both the
british India & princely states
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans.C
Q.46 Which of the following factors affects individual’s demand for a
commodity ?
1. Price of the commodity
2. Income of the consumer
3. Prices of related goods
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) Only 1
Ans. C
Q.47 Human Development Index comprises which of the following ?
1. Literacy rate
2. Life expectancy at birth
3. National income per head in US dollars
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) Only 1
Ans. C
Q.48 With reference to the national income, consider the following
statements :
1. It is the money value of all final goods & services produced during a
financial year in an economy
2. It is also known as Net national Product at factor Cost
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. C
Q.49 White goods includes :
A) Stainless steel & aluminium utensils
B) Milk & milk products
C) Items purchased for conspicuous consumption
D) Soaps, detergents & other mass consumption goods
Ans. B
Q.50 The main source of credit to the farmers include :
A) Primary Agriculture Cooperative Societies, Commercial banks,
RRBs & Private money lenders
B) NABARD , RBI, Commercial banks & private money lenders
C) District Central Cooperative banks , Lead banks , IRDP & jry
D) Large scale multi purpose adivasis programme, DCCB , IFFCO &
Commercial banks
Ans. A
Q.51 Which of the following is/are the objectives of the National
Renewal Fund ?
1. To safeguard the interest of workers who may be affected by the
technological upgradation of industry or closure of sick units
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
2. To provide the assistance to cover the cost of retraining &
redevelopment of employers arising as a result of modernization
technology upgradation
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
1. Fiscal Deficit is greater than Budgetary Deficit
2. Fiscal Deficit is the borrowing from the RBI plus other liabilities of
the Government to meet its expenditure
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Q.53 With reference to the Devaluation, consider the following
statements :
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EXPLANATIONS
1. It promotes export as it reduces the price of domestic product in the
International market
2. It will be successful if there is a elastic demand for the domestic
product in the International Market
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
It will not be successful if there is a elastic demand for the domestic
product in the International Market
1. Share of tertiary sector in total GDP is showing increasing trend
2. Increasing share of tertiary sector is indicative of development process
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.55 The production function of a firm will change whenever :
A) input price changes
B) the firm employees more of any input
C) the firm increases its level of output
D) the relevant technology changes
Ans. D
Q.56 Whether India is experiencing inclusive growth in the true sense
can be assessed by looking at :
1. the economic growth indicators of the different states of Indi
2. whether different social groups like the SC, ST & minorities are
getting excluded from the development process
3. whether govt. various flagship programmes are reaching socially
excluded
4. State by State human development profile
A) Only 1
B) 2,3,4
C) 2 & 4
D) 1,3,4
Ans.D
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.57 Which of the following does not form a part of current account of
balance payments ?
A) Export & Import of goods
B) Export & import of services
C) Income receipts & payments
D) Capital receipts & payments
Ans. D
The balance of payments, also known as balance of international
payments and abbreviated BoP, of a country is the record of all
economic transactions between the residents of the country and the rest
of the world in a particular period (over a quarter of a year or more
commonly over a year). These transactions are made by individuals,
firms and government bodies. Thus the balance of payments includes all
external visible and non-visible transactions of a country. It represents a
summation of country's current demand and supply of the claims on
foreign currencies and of foreign claims on its currency .These
transactions include payments for the
country's exports and imports ofgoods, services, financial capital,
and financial transfers. It is prepared in a single currency, typically the
domestic currency for the country concerned. Sources of funds for a
nation, such as exports or the receipts of loans and investments, are
recorded as positive or surplus items. Uses of funds, such as for imports
or to invest in foreign countries, are recorded as negative or deficit
items.
When all components of the BOP accounts are included they must sum
to zero with no overall surplus or deficit. For example, if a country is
importing more than it exports, its trade balance will be in deficit, but
the shortfall will have to be counterbalanced in other ways – such as by
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EXPLANATIONS
funds earned from its foreign investments, by running down central bank
reserves or by receiving loans from other countries.
Q.58 Which of the following is not the source of tax revenue for the
central :
A) Income tax
B) Customs duties
C) Service tax
D) Motor Vehicle tax
Ans. D
Q.59 Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue increases with
increase in output
2. When marginal revenue is zero, total revenue is maximum
3. When marginal revenue becomes negative, total revenue falls with
increase in output
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.60 The value of all final goods & services produced by the normal
residents of a country & their property whether operating within the
domestic territory of the country or outside in a year is :
A) Gross National Income
B) Net National Income
C) Gross Domestic Product
D) Net Domestic Product
Ans. C
Q.61 Which of the following statement is/are true ?
1. If increase in demand & supply are of equal magnitude the price will
remain unchanged but the equilibrium quantity will increase
2. If increase in demand is of greater magnitude than increase in supply,
both equilibrium price & equilibrium quantity will increase
3. If increase in supply is of greater magnitude than increase in demand
equilibrium will fall but equilibrium quantity will increase
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.62 Match list I & List II & select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
List-I
Founders
A) Larry page
B) Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata
C) Leela Samson
D) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw
List-II
GROUP / ORGANISATION
1. Tata group
2. Google
3. Censor board
4. Biocon
Codes:
A) a-1,b-2,c-4.d-3
B) a-2, b-1,c-4,d-3
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EXPLANATIONS
C) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
D) a-1,b-2,c-3,d-4
Ans. C
given below :
List-I
Chairperson
A) R K Srivastav
B) A.K. Mittal
C) Sindhushree Khullar
D) Pahlaj Nihalani
List-II
BOARD/AUTHORITY
1. Central Board of Film Certification(CBFC)
2. National Institution for Transforming India(NITI) Aayog
3. Railway board
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EXPLANATIONS
4. Airports Authority of India (AAI)
Codes:
A) a-4, b-3, c-2,d-1
B) a-3, b-4 ,c-2,d-1
C) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
D) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Ans. A
Q.64 FTP stands for-
A) File transfer Protocol
B) File transaction process
C) Folder transfer protocol
D) Field transfer protocol
Ans. A
Idioms/Phrases:
Q.65 To make clean breast of
A) To gain prominence
B) To praise oneself
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EXPLANATIONS
C) To confess without of reserve
D) To destroy before it blooms
Ans. C
Q.66 To keeps one's temper
A) To become hungry
B) To be in good mood
C) To preserve ones energy
D) To be aloof from
Ans. B
Select the word that is most suitable in meaning to the word :
Q.67 CORPULENT
A) Lean
B) Gaunt
C) Emaciated
D) Obese
Ans. D
Q.68 BRIEF
A) Limited
B) Small
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EXPLANATIONS
C) Little
D) Short
Ans. D
Q.69 Escalate
A) Rise
B) Diminish
C) Roll on
D) Spiral
Ans. A
Q.70 Flippant
A) Disrespectful
B) Polite
C) Serious
D) Wrong
Ans. A
PASSAGE
A game of strategy, as currently conceived in game theory, is a situation
in which two or more players make choices among available alternatives
(moves). The totality of choices determines the outcomes of the game,
and it is assumed that the rank order of preferences for the outcomes is
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EXPLANATIONS
different for different players. Thus the interests of the players are
generally in conflict. Whether these interests are diametrically opposed
or only partially opposed depends on the type of game.
Psychologically, most interesting situations arise when the interests of
the players are partly coincident and partly opposed, because then one
can postulate not only a conflict among the players but also inner
conflicts within the players. Each is torn between a tendency to
cooperate, so as to promote the common interests, and a tendency to
complete, so as to enhance his own individual interests.
Internal conflicts are always psychologically interesting. What we
vaguely call interesting psychology is in very great measure the
psychology of inner conflict. Inner conflict is also held to be an
important component of serious literature as distinguished from less
serious genres. The classical tragedy, as well as the serious novel,
reveals the inner conflict of central figures. The superficial adventure
story, on the other hand, depicts only external conflict; that is, the threats
of the person with whom the leader (or viewer) identifies stem in these
stories exclusively from external obstacles and from the adversaries who
create them. On the most primitive level this sort of external conflict is
psychologically empty. In the fisticuffs between the protagonists of good
and evil, no psychological problems are involved or, at any rate, none
are depicted in juvenile represents of conflict.
The detective story, the adult analogue of a juvenile adventure tale, has
at times been described as a glorification of intellectualized conflict.
However, a great deal of the interest in the plots of these stories is
sustained by withholding the unraveling of a solution to a problem. The
effort of solving the problem is in itself not a conflict if the adversary
(the unknown criminal) remains passive, like Nature, whose secrets the
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EXPLANATIONS
scientist supposedly unravels by deduction. If the adversary actively puts
obstacles in the detectives path toward the solution, there is genuine
conflict. But the conflict is psychologically interesting only to the extent
that it contains irrational components such as tactical error on the
criminals part or the detectives insight into some psychological quick of
the criminal or something of this sort. Conflict conducted in a perfectly
rational manner is psychologically no more interesting than a standard
Western. For example, Tic-tac-toe, played perfectly by both players, is
completely devoid of psychological interest. Chess may be
psychologically interesting but only to the extent that it is played not
quite rationally. Played completely rationally, chess would not be
different from Tic-tac-toe.
In short, a pure conflict of interest (what is called a zero-sum game)
although it offers a wealth of interesting conceptual problems, is not
interesting psychologically, except to the extent that its conduct departs
from rational norms.
Q.71 According to the passage, internal conflicts are psychologically
more interesting than external conflicts because
A) internal conflicts, rather than external conflicts, form an important
component of serious literature as distinguished from less serious
genres.
B) only juveniles or very few adults actually experience external
conflict, internal conflict is more widely prevalent in society.
C) in situations of internal conflict, individuals experience a dilemma in
resolving their own preferences for different outcomes.
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D) there are no threats to the reader (or viewer) in case of external
conflicts.
Ans. C
Q.72 Which, according to the author, would qualify as intresting
psychology?
A) A statisticians dilemma over choosing the best method to solve an
optimisation problem.
B) A chess players predicament over adopting a defensive strategy
against an aggressive opponent
C) A mountaineers choice of the best path to Mt. Everest from the base
camp.
D) A finance mangers quandary over the best way of raising money
from the market.
Ans. B
Q.73 According to the passage, which of the following options about the
application of a game theory to a conflict-of-interest situation is true ?
A) Assuming that the rank order of preferences for options is different
for different players.
B) Accepting that the interests of different players are often in conflict.
C) Not assuming that the interests are in complete disagreement.
D) All of the above.
Ans. D
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.74 The problem solving process of a scientist is different from that of
a detective because
A) scientists study inanimate objects, while detectives deal with living
criminals or law offenders.
B) scientists study known objects, while detectives have to deal with
unknown criminals or law offenders.
C) scientists study phenomena that are not actively altered, while
detectives deal with phenomena that have been deliberately influenced
to mislead.
D) scientists study psychologically interesting phenomena, while
detectives deal with adult analogues of juvenile adventure tales.
Ans. C
Q.75 Aruna cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smaller
pieces of equal size. Each of the small pieces is twenty grams in weight.
If she has seven pieces of the cake in all with her, how heavy was the
original cake?
A) 100 grams
B) 150 grams
C) 200 grams
D) 240 grams
Ans. D
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EXPLANATIONS
The seven pieces consist of 6 smaller equal pieces and one calf
cake piece.
Weight of each small piece = 20 g.
So, total weight of the cake = [2 × (20 × 6)]g = 240g.
Q.76 A farmer built a fence around his square plot. He used 27 fence
poles on each side of the square. How many poles did he need
altogether?
A) 54
B) 84
C) 104
D) 108
Ans. C
Since each pole at the corner of the plot is common to its two
sides.
Therefore total number of poles needed = 27 × 4 - 4 = 104.
Q.77 B is thrice as fast as A. If A can finish a job in 12 days, how long
will it take for both A & B to finish the same job together?
A) 3 days
B) 4 days
C) 4.5 days
D) 5 days
Ans. B
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EXPLANATIONS
Xy /x-y = 3 * 12 / 12-3
36/9 = 4
Q.78 A can complete a work in 20 days & B in 30 days. A worked
alone for 4 days & then B completed the remaining work along with C
in 18 days. In how many days can C working alone complete the work ?
A) 68 days
B) 90 days
C) 12 days
D) 72 days
Ans. B
Work done by A = 4/20 = 1/5
Therefore remaining work = 1-1/5 = 4/5
Let C working alone can do work in x days
Thus, 18/30 + 18/x = 4/5
Or 18(x+30) * 5 =4*30x
90x + 2700 = 120 x
30x = 2700
Or x=90 days
Q.79 The width of the rectangle is 4x which is only 25% of its length.
What are the area & the perimeter of the rectangle ?
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EXPLANATIONS
2
A) 16x sq.unit & 16x units
B) 20x2 sq.unit & 40x unit
C) 32x2 sq.unit & 64x unit
D) 64x2 sq.unit & 40x unit
Ans. D
Width = 4x
Length = 4x(10025) = 16x
Area = 4x * 16x = 64x2 sq.unit
Perimeter = 2 (4x+16x) = 40x unit
Q.80 How many triangle are there in the given figure ?
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
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EXPLANATIONS
D) 13
Ans. B
Q.81 least integer whose multiplication with 588 leads to perfect square
is?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 7
Ans. B
Factors of 588 = 2*2*3*7*7
we already have pairs of twos and pairs of seven. Only three is alone.
Hence to make a perfect square, we need to multiply it with 3
Q.82 If 20% of P = 30% of Q = 1/6 of R, then P:Q:R is:

A) 3 : 2: 16
B) 2 :3 : 16
C) 15 : 10 : 18
D) 10 : 15 : 18
Ans. C
PQR=1/5:3/10:1/6
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EXPLANATIONS
=15:10:18
Q.83 Suppose the telegraph poles on a railroad are 50 metres apart , how
many will be passed by a car in 4hrs if the speed of the train is 45 km/hr
?
A) 3814
B) 4221
C) 3211
D) 3601
Ans. D
Total distance covered by the train = 4*45 = 180km
Therefore, in the distance of 180 km , there will be :
180000 / 50 + 1 = 3601 poles
Q.84 A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in
completion of the work beyond a certain date is as follows: Rs. 200 for
the first day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third day etc.,
the penalty for each succeeding day being Rs. 50 more than that of the
preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays
the work by 10 days?
A) Rs. 4950
B) Rs. 4250
C) Rs. 3600
D) Rs. 650
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. B
Rs. 4250
(200 + 250 + 300 + ...10 terms
This is an Arithmetic Progression
first term (a) = 200
difference (d) = 50
number of terms (n) = 10
sum = n/2 [2a+(n-1)d]
10/2*[2*200 + (9*50)]=4250
Q.85 R was born when his father A was 27 years old. A's brother is of
same age as of R's mother. R married on his mother's fiftieth birthday. A
is three years older than his brother. How old was R on his marriage
day?
A) 28 years
B) 26 years
C) 27 years
D) 25 years
Ans. B
EXPLANATION:
A= 27
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EXPLANATIONS
M= A’s brother
M= 27-3 = 24
R= 50-24
=26 yrs.

1. Snowline occurs at a higher altitude in Eastern Himalayas than in the
Western Himalayas
2. The lower part of the Western Himalayas have evergreen forests
3.Mangrove forests occur discontinuously along the coastal areas of the
eastern part of India
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct ?
A) Only 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Q.87 With reference to the Basel series of norms , consider the
following statements :
1. These are the broad supervisory standards formulated by Basel
Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS)
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EXPLANATIONS
2. These ensure that financial institutions have enough capital on
account to meet obligations and absorb unexpected losses
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Basel 1 - Covered only Credit Risk
Basel 1.1 Covered Credit risk and Market Risk
Basel 2 Covered Credit Risk, Market Risk,Operational Risk,
Basel 3 Covered Credit Risk, Market Risk,Operational Risk &
liquidity Risk
Q.88 Who among the following are the members of G-7 ?
1. US
2. Japan
3. Russia
4. Italy
5. France
Which among the above are correct ?
A) Only 1,3,5
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EXPLANATIONS
B) Only 2 & 5
C) 1.2.3.5
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans.D
Russia was added to the G7 club of the US, Japan, Germany, Italy,
France, Canada and Britain in 1999 as a reward for choosing the path of
democracy after the collapse of Communism.
Q.89 With reference to the recently discovered gravitational waves,
consider the following statements :
1.Cosmic Inflation is the expansion of space in the early universe at a
rate much faster than the speed of light
2. B-mode is a twisting or ‘curl’ pattern in the polarized orientations of
the ancient light
3. Cosmic Microwave Backgroud consists of only of magnetic fields that
permeates the universe
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
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EXPLANATIONS
Cosmic Microwave Background consists of electric & magnetic fields
that permeates the universe
Q.90 Which among the following are the functions of Genetic
Engineering Approval Committee ?
1. It has the powers to take punitive actions under EPA
2. Approval & evaluation of large scale field trials
3. To adopt producers for restriction or prohibition, production, sale,
import & use of GMOs both for research and applications under EPA.
A) Only 2 & 3
B) Only 1
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
Q.91 Who among the following are not the members of the Arab League
?
1. Chad
2. Israel
3. South Sudan
4. Libya
5. Oman
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EXPLANATIONS
A) 3,4,5
B) Only 1 & 2
C) 1,2,5
D) All are the members
Ans. B
The Arab League was founded in Cairo in 1945 by Egypt, Iraq,
Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria, Transjordan (Jordan from 1946)
and Yemen (North Yemen, later combined Yemen). There was a
continual increase in membership during the second half of the 20th
century, with additional 15 Arab states and 4 observers being admitted.
Q.92 With reference to the committee on Privileges, consider the
1. It is semi judicial in nature
2. It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha
3. It examines the cases of breach of privileges & recommends
appropriate action
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1 & 2
D) All are correct
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. A
The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha
committee has 10 members.
Q.93 Custom duty on non-edible oils has been reduced to encourage
soaps & Oleochemicals. What are Oleochemicals ?
1. These are the chemicals derived from the Plant products
2. They are analogous to petrochemicals derived from petroleum.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
These are the chemicals derived from the Plant products & animal fats.
Q.94 With reference to the White labeled ATMs , consider the following
statements :
1. Non-bank entities would be permitted to set up WLAs in India, after
obtaining authorisation from RBI
2. White-label ATMs accepts only cards issued by banks and does not
accept cash deposits.
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EXPLANATIONS
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Q.95 With reference to the IMF quota, consider the following statements
1. Each IMF member country is assigned a quota that reflects the
country’s relative size in the global economy.
2. The largest members of the IMF are the United States & India
Which among the above statements is/are correct
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
The largest members of the IMF is the United States & Tuvalu is the
lowest
Each member’s quota also determines its relative voting power
Q.96 With reference to the Inflation Indexed Bonds, consider the
1. Charitable institutes & Universities are restricted for subscription
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EXPLANATIONS
2. Distribution or sale of bonds is through the banks
3. Limit for investment in these bonds is Rs.5000 to Rs. 5 lakh
Which among the above statements is/are correct
A) Only 1 & 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Inflation linked bonds are launched as instruments that will protect
savings from inflation, especially the savings of the poor and middle
classes.
Eligibility for subscription: Individuals, Hindu Undivided Family,
charitable institutions and universities.
The interest rate would comprise two parts — a fixed rate of 1.5% per
annum and inflation rate based on CPI with a lag of three months. It
would be compounded on the principal on half-yearly basis and paid at
the time of maturity.
Q.97 Finance Commission in India are set up from time to time
A) To lay down financial policies of the Government
B) To evolve a satisfactory tax-structure for the economic development
of the country
C) To promote foreign trade
D) For transfer of economic resources from Centre to States
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. B
The Finance Commission of India came into existence in 1951. It was
established under Article 280 of theIndian Constitution by the President
of India. It was formed to define the financial relations between the
centre and the state. The Finance Commission Act of 1951 states the
terms of qualification, appointment and disqualification, the term,
eligibility and powers of the Finance Commission.
1. The President will constitute a Finance Commission within two

years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter
at the end of every fifth year or earlier, as the deemed necessary by
him/her, which shall include a chairman and four other members.
2. Parliament may by law determine the requisite qualifications for
appointment as members of the Commission and the procedure of
selection.
3. The Commission is constituted to make recommendations to the
president about the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes
between the Union and States and also the allocation of the same
amongst the States themselves. It is also under the ambit of the
Finance Commission to define the financial relations between the
Union and the States. They also deal with devolution of non-plan
revenue resources.
Functions :
1. Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Center and the

States, to be divided as per their respective contributions to the
taxes.
2. Determine factors governing Grants-in Aid to the states and the
magnitude of the same.
3. To make recommendations to president as to the measures needed
to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the
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EXPLANATIONS
resources of the panchayats and municipalities in the state on the
basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission
of the state.
4. any other matter related to it by the president in the interest of
sound finance

1. In India , there is no ceiling in the FDI in oil refining
2. Indian Oil Corporation has only 49% share holding in Lanka IOC
which retails fuel in Sri Lanka
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans.C
Q.99 Consider the following services in India :
1. Internet Café
2. Private tutorial/ coaching centre
3. Restaurant
On which of the above Service tax is imposed ?
A) 1 & 2
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EXPLANATIONS
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
Q.100 Which among the following are the indicators of the India Human
Development Report ?
1. Education related index
2. Health related index
3. Infrastructure & Amenities index
4. Economic
5. Unemployment related index
A) 1 & 4
B) 2,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4
D) All are correct
Ans.C
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EXPLANATIONS
Passage
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that
confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security
and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence
make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter
whether they belong to the higher groups such as human .beings or to
the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace,
comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man.
Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that
threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do
all other creatures.
Q.1 The author’s main point is that
A) different forms of life are found on earth
B) different levels of existence are possible in nature
C) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
D) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
Ans. C
Q.2 Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in
developing the author’s position ?
A) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
B) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
C) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
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EXPLANATIONS
D) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death
Ans. B
Passage
Alleviation of rural poverty has been one of the primary objectives of
planned development in India. Ever since the inception of planning, the
policies and the programmes have been designed and redesigned with
this aim. The problem of rural poverty was brought into a sharper focus
during the Sixth Plan. The Seventh Plan too emphasized growth with
social justice.
It was realised that a sustainable strategy of poverty alleviation has to be
based on increasing the productive employment opportunities in the
process of growth itself. However, to the extent the process of growth
bypasses some sections of the population, it is necessary to formulate
specific poverty alleviation programmes for generation of a certain
minimum level of income of the rural poor.
Rural development implies both the economic betterment of people and
greater social transformation. Increased participation of people in the
rural development process, decentralisation of planning, better
enforcement of land reforms and greater access to credit and inputs go a
long way in providing the rural people with better prospects for
economic development. Improvements in health, education, drinking
water, energy supply, sanitation and housing coupled with attitudinal
changes also facilitate their social development.
Rural poverty is inextricably linked with low rural productivity and
unemployment, including underemployment. Hence, it is imperative to
improve productivity and increase employment in rural areas. Moreover,
more employment needs to be generated at higher levels of productivity
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EXPLANATIONS
in order to generate higher output. Employment at miserably low levels
of productivity and income is already a problem of far greater magnitude
than unemployment as such. It is estimated that in 1987-88, the rate of
unemployment was only 3 per cent and inclusive of underemployment, it
was around 5 per cent. As per the currently used methodology in the
Planning Commission, poverty for the same year was estimated to be 30
per cent. This demonstrates that even though a large proportion of the
rural population was working it was difficult for them to eke out a living
even at subsistence levels. It is true that there has been a considerable
decline in the incidence of rural poverty over time. In terms of absolute
numbers of the poor, the decline has been much less. While this can be
attributed to the demographic factor, the fact remains that after 40 years
of planned development about 200 million are still poor in rural India.
Q.3 Rural poverty is associated with which of the following factors ?
1. Poor effectiveness of productive efforts
2. Better sanitation and housing facilities
3. Lack of technical education for the rural youth
4. Dearth of employment opportunities
Select the correct answer, using the code given below
A) 1 and 4
B) 3 and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 1,2 and 3
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. A
Q.4 Consider the following statements
1. Rural development implies social change coupled with economic
upliftment.
2. Before the Sixth Plan, the policies regarding alleviation of rural
poverty were almost non-existent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. A
Q.5 Which one of the following is not stated in the passage as an
important factor for rural development ?
A) Involvement of the rural people in the development process
B) Better enforcement of land reforms
C) Greater access to credit
D) Setting heavy industrial units in the rural areas
Ans. D
Q.6 Mr. M can drive from Rampur to Sitapur by two alternative roads in
same time. Road I is 20 km longer than road II, but is in a good
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
condition and he can drive at a constant normal speed. Road II is in bad
condition and he has to drive at a speed of 20 km/hr slower. After road II
is repaired, how long will it take him at normal speed?
A) Less than 1 hour
B) More than 1 hour
C) Exactly 1 hour
D) Cannot be ascertained from the given information
Ans. D
EXPLANATION:
D1/S1 = D2+20/ S2+20
No solution can be assumed
Q.7 A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189
digits in all. How many pages does the book have?
A) 1069
B) 1071
C) 1074
D) 1075
Ans. C
1-9 = 9 digits = 9
10-99 = 90* 2 digits = 180
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
100-999 = 900 * 3 digits = 2700
1000-1074 = 75* 4 = 300
Total = 3189
So Ans. is 1074
Q.8 ‘A’ has certain number of oranges to sell each for Rs. 2. ‘S’ bought
25% of the total oranges and ‘T’ bought one third of remaining. ‘M’
bought 50% of what was left and ‘P’ bought 4 oranges. The total amount
paid by ‘S’ and ‘M’ is Rs. 24. Equal number of oranges were purchased
by :
A) ‘S’ and ‘T’ only
B) ‘T’ and ‘M’ only
C) ‘S’ and ‘M’ only
D) ‘S’, ‘T’ and ‘M’
Ans. D
A=100
S=25
T= 75*1/3 = 25
M= 50 * ½ = 25
P=40 Oranges
So, equals are
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
S=T=M
Q.9 ‘A’ has certain number of oranges to sell each for Rs. 2. ‘S’ bought
25% of the total oranges and ‘T’ bought one third of remaining. ‘M’
bought 50% of what was left and ‘P’ bought 4 oranges. The total amount
paid by ‘S’ and ‘M’ is Rs. 24. How much oranges are left with ‘A’ ?
A) 8
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
Ans. A
S+M = 50% = 24
25 % =12
P brought only 4
Therefore left = 12-4 =8
Q.10 Suppose a, b and c are natural numbers and 2s = a + b + c. If (s –
a): (s – b): (s – c) = 1: 7: 4, then ratio of 2a: c is :
A) 11 : 4
B) 11 : 8
C) 4 : 11
D) 8 : 11
Ans. A
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
2s = a+b+c
& (s-a) : (s-b): (s-c) = 1:7:4
We assume s=12
A=11
B=5
C=8
So, 29/c = 2 * 11 /8
= 11/4
Q.11 During the study of the weather conditions of a place for 9 days, it
was observed that it rained on 7 days, morning or evening. When it
rained in the evening, the sky was clear in the morning. There were five
clear evenings. How many clear mornings were there ?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 3
Ans. B
9 D – 7D = 2D (clear evening & morning )
In 7 D --- 5 clear evening
Or 5 rainy morning
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EXPLANATIONS
So, 7-5 = 2 morning clear
Total= 2 + 2 = 4 morning clear
Q.12 The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their HCF is 4. Their LCM is
A) 12
B) 16
C) 24
D) 48
Ans. D
Explanation
Let the numbers are 3x and 4x
Then, their HCF = x
But HCF is = 4
First number = 12
Second number = 16
LCM of numbers = 4*4*3
= 48
Q.13 In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the
persons are married. If two-sevenths of the males are married, what
fraction of the females is single?
A) 2/7
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EXPLANATIONS
B) 1/3
C) 3/7
D) 2/3
Ans. D
Let total no. of persons =100
Therefore total no. of males= 70
Total no. of females= 30
Given that, no. of unmarried persons =30
So, Number of married males=
2/7 * 70=20
Therefore, No. of married females
=30-20 =10
Therefore, No. of unmarried females
=30-10 = 20
Therefore, Required fraction of single females=
20/30 = 2/3
Q.14 Two boys begin together to write out a booklet containing 8190
lines. The first boy starts with the first line , writing at the rate of 200
lines an hour & the second boy starts with the last line, then writes
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EXPLANATIONS
th
8189 line & so on, proceeding backward at the rate of 150 lines an
hour. At what line will they meet ?
A) 4910
B) 4680
C) 4280
D) 5200
Ans. B
Relative speed = 200 + 150 = 350 lines/hr
So, they will meet after =8190 / 350 = 117/5 hrs
Therefore, they will meet at 117/5*200 = 4680th line from the beginning
Q.15 Which among the following are the Gulf Cooperation Countries ?
1. Bahrain
2. Kuwait
3. Qatar
4. Saudi Arabia
5. Oman
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
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EXPLANATIONS
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans.D
Q.16 Which among the following are the roles of the Bharat Bill
Payment Operating Units ?
1. Infrastructure development
2. Transaction handling
3. Handling customer grievance
Which among the above statements are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
Bharat Bill Payment system : A ‘not-for-profit organization’ registered
under the Companies Act 1956, like NPCI (National Payments
Corporation of India). It shall have a Steering Group constituting of
representatives from the participating BBPOUs and other stake holders.
The model would thus be a 2-tier structure with a single standard setting
body (BBPS) with payment and settlement functionalities
responsibilities and multiple operating entities (BBPOUs).
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.17 Who among the following are not the members of the Western
Pacific Naval Symposium ?
1. India
2. China
3. Malaysia
4. Australia
5. Japan
A) Only 2 & 3
B) 3 & 5
C) Only 1
D) All are the members of WPNS
Ans. C
Established in 1987 with objective to encourage cooperation amongst
the navies of its member nations, fortify mutual understanding and trust,
and collectively safeguard regional maritime security. WPNS constitutes
navies whose nations border the Pacific Ocean region.
The WPNS has 21 member states: Australia Brunei Cambodia Canada
Chile China France Indonesia Japan Malaysia New Zealand Papua New
Guinea Peru Philippines Republic of Korea Russia Singapore Thailand
Tonga US Vietnam
India is an observer nation.
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.18 Which among the following are the services provided by the
INSAT-3E ?
1. Televison
2. Communication
3. Tele-education
4. Tele-medicine
Options:
A) Only 3 & 4
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
Defunct communication satellite built by ISRO, 4th satellite in the
INSAT-3 series of ISRO.
Q.19 With reference to the Graveyard orbit, consider the following
statements :
1. It is a super-synchronous orbit where spacecraft are deliberately
positioned at the end of their operational life.
2. A Graveyard Orbit lies considerably over the synchronous orbit
3. For satellites in geostationary orbit and geosynchronous orbits, the
Graveyard Orbit is a few hundred km over the operational orbit.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Which among the above statements are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Satellites are moved to the Graveyard Orbit in order to lower the
probability of their collision with operational space-crafts and of the
generation of extra space debris (known as Kessler Syndrome). If the
alteration in velocity needed to execute a de-orbit maneuver is too high,
then a Graveyard Orbit is utilized.
Q.20 Who among the following are the members of the Boao Forum for
Asia (BFA) ?
1. China
2. India
3. FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce)
Options :
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans.A
A non-governmental and non-profit international organization with a
fixed conference date and a fixed domicile. BFA was officially
introduced on February 27, 2001. Since 2002, BFA has been having its
yearly conference at Boao, Hainan Province, China which now serves as
the permanent site of BFA Headquarters. Each year world’s Top
political and business leaders gather at Boao to brain storm on global
political and economic issues.
Objectives :
To base itself on Asia and encourage and deepen the economic
exchange, coordination, and cooperation within Asia and between Asia
and other parts of the world.
To offer a high-end dialog platform for governments, enterprises,
experts, and scholars to collectively talk about economy, society, and
environment and other pertinent subject matters.
Q.21 Which among the following are the vector borne diseases ?
1. Malaria
2. Dengue
3. Japanese Encephalititis
4. Kala-Azar
5. Chikungunya
Options:
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EXPLANATIONS
A) 1,2,4
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 1,2,3,5
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
Vectors are organisms that are transmit pathogens and parasites from
one infected person or animal, to another e.g. mosquitoes, bugs, ticks,
freshwater snails, etc.
Q.22 Who among the following are the members of North Atlantic
Treaty Organization (NATO) ?
1. UK
2. USA
3. Germany
4. France
5. Iceland
Options :
A) 1,2,4
B) 1,2,3,3
C) 1,2,5
D) All are the members
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
NATO is an intergovernmental military alliance based on the North
Atlantic Treaty (signed on 4 April 1949). The organization comprises a
system of collective defence through which its member states accord to
mutual defense in response to an attack by any external threat.
Baltic States or countries are 3 northern European countries east of the
Baltic Sea – Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania, which attained independence
from the Russian Empire in the backwash of World War I. In the period
between the World Wars, the Baltic States also included Finland.
Q.23 With reference to the Cabinet mission plan, consider the following
statements :
1. Muslim league rejected the plan & the last opportunity to avoid
partititon was lost
2. Muslim League got 73 out of the 78 seats in the interim government
election
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
1. Indian council act 1861 during the viceroyality of Lord Canning
strengthened viceroy authority over his executive council by substituting
portfolio or departmental system for corporate functioning
2. Indian Association that submitted a petition to the house of commons
demanding direct representation in the british parliament
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Q.25 With reference to the Parvana , consider the following statements :
1. It is a ceremony used to be held after rainy season when the monk
assembled in monasteries
2. In this ceremony confession is made by the monks of their offences
committed during their stay in monasteries during the rainy season
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. C
Some of the main features of the Government of India Act 1935 were
the :
1. Abolition of diarchy in the Governor’s provinces
2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative action & to legislate on
their own
3. abolition of the principle of communal representation
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans.B
Communal representation persisted in the act of 1935.
Q.27 With reference to the Indian national movement, consider the
1. When Montague-Chelmsford report was announced, moderates
welcomed the report & extremists condemned it
2. In 1918 , moderates left the congress & formed Indian Liberal
Federation
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
First President of Indian Liberal Federation was Surendranath Banerjee
Q.28 Consider the statements with reference to the provisions of Charter
act of 1833 :
1. Trading activities of East India Company were to be abolished
2. Designation of the Supreme authority was to be changed as the
Governor General of India
3. All law making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in
council
4. An Indian was to be appointed as a Law member in the Governor
General’s Council
A) 1,3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) Only 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3,4
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans.B
It provided for a law member but not for Indian
On the eve of launch of Quit India Movement,
Mahatma Gandhi :
1. asked government servants to resign
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts
3. asked the princes of the princely states to accept the sovereignity of
thir own people
A) Only 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Mahatma Gandhi did not ask to resign but to show their allegiance
towards congress.
Soldiers were not asked to leave their posts but to not to fire on their
compatriots
Q.30 Government of India act 1935 provided for :
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EXPLANATIONS
1. Provincial autonomy
2. Establishment of federal court
3. All India Federation at the centre
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Q.31 With reference to the Round Table Conference, consider the
1. Congress boycotted third round table conference
2. Congress did not participate the first round table conference
3. Poona pact has no provisions for civil service & local bodies
reservation
A) 1 & 2
B) Only 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
Q.32 SIPRI (Stockholm International Peace Research Institute is an
independent international institute in Sweden i.e. dedicated to research
into conflict, armaments, arms control and disarmament. With reference
to the SIPRI Arms Transfer Database, consider the following statements
:
1. It is the only publicly available resource providing consistent data on
arms
2. It contains information on all international transfers of major weapons
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
World’s top five Global arms importers: India (14%), China (5%),
Pakistan (5%), the United Arab Emirates (4%) and Saudi Arabia (4%).
World’s top five Global arms suppliers between 2009 and 2013: the
United States (29 % of global exports), Russia (27%), Germany (7 %),
China (6 %) and France (5%).
Q.33 “WorldGSM” Mobile Tower architecture launched by Indian firm.
Consider the following statements :
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EXPLANATIONS
1. It is an green mobile tower solution to provide mobile services to the
rural communities
2. It is the first micro-telecom application that runs on solar power
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
WorldGSM runs exclusively on solar power and requires no diesel
generator backup. It is also designed for simple delivery and deployment
by local, untrained workers – all resulting in zero OPEX, dramatically
lower CAPEX, and near zero maintenance.
Q.34 With reference to the International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN), consider the following statements :
1. It is the World’s most comprehensive inventory of the global
conservation status of biological species.
2. It Provides information in 9 categories based on population size and
trends, geographic range and habitat needs of species.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
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EXPLANATIONS
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Objective: To have the category of every species re-evaluated every five
years if possible or at least every ten years.
Bird species falling under the Critically Endangered category in India:-

Migratory wetland species: Baer’s Pochard, Siberian Crane and Spoon-
billed Sandpiper.
Non-migratory wetland species: White-bellied Heron.
Grassland species:Bengal Florican, Great Indian Bustard, Jerdon’s
Courser and Sociable Lapwing.
Forest species:Forest Owlet.
Scavengers: Indian Vulture, Red-headed Vulture, White-backed Vulture
and Slender-billed Vulture. Himalayan Quail and Pink-headed Duck are
now considered Extinct for all practical purposes.
Least Concern to Vulnerable: Long-tailed Duck.
Q.35 Who among the following are the members of the Financial
Stability and Development Council (FSDC) ?
1. Finance minister
2. Prime Minister
3. Governor of states
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 1 & 2
C) 1,2,3
D) Only 1
Ans. D
Chairperson : The Union Finance Minister of India
Other Members:
Governor Reserve Bank of India (RBl), Finance Secretary and/ or
Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Secretary,
Department of Financial Services (DFS), Chief Economic Advisor,
Ministry of Finance, Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI), Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
(IRDA), Chairman Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
Authority (PFRDA), Joint Secretary (Capital Markets), DEA, will be the
Secretary of the Council,
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC):
Apex-level body constituted by government of India Idea to constitute
such a super regulatory body was first given by Raghuram Rajan
Committee in 2008
Q.36 Who among the following are the members of the BIMSTEC ?
1. Bangladesh
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
2. Myanmar
3. India
4. Sri Lanka
5. Thailand
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 1,2,4,5
C) Only 1,2,4
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
Other members of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-
Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) :
Myanmar
Nepal
Bhutan
Resolution by NIMSTEC members :
 Enhance cooperation in environmental protection and sustainable

development.
 Enhance cooperation in the field of agriculture, including crops,
livestock and horticulture besides fisheries.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
 Finalize an agreement on trade in goods by 2014 with intent to
promote regional commerce
 Conclude the Agreement on Services and Investments
Q.37 Number of workdays under MNREGA increased from 100 to 150
days. Which among the following are the objectives of the MNREGA ?
1. Water conservation
2. Water harvesting
3. Drought proofing
4. Flood control
5. Land development
A) 1,2,5
B) 1,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4,5
D) 3,4,5
Ans. C
As per the rural job scheme, those tribals who have received land rights
under the Forest Rights Act, 2006 will be eligible for additional 50 days
of wage employment
To distinguish this category from regular MGNREGA workers, they will
be given a job card of a different color
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.38 Under the companies Act, there is a new Corporate Social
Responsibility rules. With reference to CSR which among the following
are the provisions :
1. All CSR activities will have to be within India.
2. The new rules will be applicable to the foreign companies registered
in India.
3. Any type of contributions to any political party will also be treated as
CSR activities.
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3,
Ans. C
Any type of contributions to any political party will not be treated as
CSR activities.
The Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs notified new Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR) rules for companies. They will apply to companies
with at least Rs 5 crore net profit, or Rs.1,000 crore turnover or Rs.500
crore net worth. As part of the new Companies Act, these new CSR rules
would come into effect from April 1, 2014.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Objective: For expanding the scope to include more activities but at the
same time clarifying that contribution to state government funds and
funding of political parties will not be considered CSR activities.
Q.39 Red rot & ergot diseases are associated with the production of :
A) Bajra & Wheat
B) Groundnut & Sugarcane
C) Wheat & Groundnut
D) Sugarcane & Bajra
Ans.D
Q.40 Which of the following crop improvement techniques is based on
the concept of cellular totipotency in plants ?
A) Polyploid breeding
B) Tissue culture
C) Induced mutations
D) Hybridisation
Ans.B
Q.41 When a person drinks alcohol & walks clumsily , it is due to the
effect of alcohol on which of the following parts of the brain ?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Pons
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) Medulla Oblongata
Ans.B
Q.42 To whom among the following is the Rajiv Gandhi National
Fellowship given ?
A) Young victims of either war or famine in other countries to persue
studies in India
B) Poor Indian students to persue the study of certain specialized
subjects in other countries
C) Destitute Indian Children to persue studies upto University level
D) ST students to enable them to get M.Phil & Ph D degree
Ans.D
Q.43 For the review of which of the following was a commission under
the chairmanship of justice M.N. Venkatachaliah constituted by the
Union Government ?
A) Industrial sickness
B) River water disputes
C) Constitution of India
D) Centre-State relations
Ans.C
Q.44 Which one among the following plants produces seeds without
producing flowers ?
A) Cashewnut
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
B) Date palm
C) Pinus
D) Toddy
Ans.C
Q.45 Which among the following are considered as the Green house
gases ?
1. Hydrofluorocarbons
2. Sulfur Hexafluoride
3. Nitrous Oxide
4. Perfluorocarbons
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans.D
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
The letter of that part is the answer.
Q.46 Ankur came home from work (A) / late, tired and irritated, to (B) /
find his five year old son (C) / waited for him at the door. (D)
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
Q.47 For many months (A) / Ram has been admiring (B) / the beautiful
sports car displayed (C) / in a dealer’s showroom. (D)
Ans. B
Q.48 HOSTILE
A) Dogmatic
B) Easy going
C) Steady
D) Friendly
Ans. D
Q.49 PUBLIC HONOUR
A) Accusation
B) Punishment
C) Ignominy
D) Criticism
Ans. C
Select the word that is furthest in meaning to the word :
Q.50 PAROCHIAL-सीमित
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) Broad-minded
B) Contradictory
C) Paranoid
D) Overriding
Ans. A
Q.51 DISGRUNTLED (असँतुष्ट)
A) Contended- युदध करना, सँघर्ष करना
B) Detached
C) Obedient
D) Vigrous
Ans. A
Q.52 VIBRANT (चिकीला और आकर्षक)
A) Feel aggrieved at
B) Occasional
C) Pale
D) Shabby
Ans. C
Q.53 Funds are transferred from the centre to the states the :
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EXPLANATIONS
1. Recommendation of finance commission
2. Centre’s additional grants & loans
3. Assistance from the planning commission
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1
D) 1,2,3,
Ans.D
Q.54 Rural unemployment may be interpreted with respect to the rural
youth as :
A) Staying at home continuous for a period of 1 year
B) Having been unemployed for major part of previous year
C) They are not producing any gainful work-output
D) having been unemployed for previous six months
Ans. C
Q.55 Which of the following statements regarding SAARC is correct ?
A) Sri lanka & Maldives are the only nations comprising of islands
among the members or the SAARC movement
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
B) The countries which are members border China excepting the island
nations of Sri Lanka & Maldives
C) India borders all the SAARC members excepting the island nations of
Maldives & Sri lanka
D) All SAARC countries border other Asian countries excepting island
nations of Sri lanka & Maldives
Ans.C
Q.56 Which of the following group of countries are at present non-
permanent members of the UN security council being elected for a
period of 2 years ?
A) India, Venezuela, Belgium , Zimbabwe
B) France, India , Bulgaria , Pakistan
C) Algeria , Pakistan, Zambia & France
D) India , Bangladesh, Cuba & Yugoslavia
Ans.A
Q.57 New methods of trapping black money devised by the Government
are :
1. NHB funding
2. Foreign Exchange Reserves
3. SBI mutual funds
4. NRI investment rules relaxation
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) 1 & 2
B) 1,3,4
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
Q.58 Constitution makes provisions to ensure the independence of
Judges. The provisions do not include which of the following ?
A) Though appointed by the President their removal is by a difficult
process
B) Their salaries are charged on the consolidated fund of India
C) A retired judge cannot be appointed to any office under the
government
D) The conduct of a judge cannot be discussed in Parliament except
upon a motion regarding his removal
Ans.C
Q.59 Central Government can assign any function to the states :
A) On the directive of the President
B) On the recommendation of Parliament
C) Any time it wishes to do so
D) With the consent of the state government
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
Q.60 Chairman of the finance commission must be :
A) Qualified to be a high court judge
B) A person having special knowledge of economics
C) A person having experience in public affairs
D) All are correct
Ans. C
Q.61 Fiscal deficit as referred to India is defined as :
A) Government expenditure over Government receipts
B) Government investment over Government expenditure
C) Total Government expenditure & interest payments over government
revenue
D) Total expenditure & borrowing & other liabilities over government
receipts
Ans. D
Q.62 Interest tax may be defined as the tax on the :
A) Lendings of government to house holders
B) Central Government lending to the state governments
C) Money borrowed by government from financial institutions
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) Interest earned by the financial institution on the amount lent to the
householders
Ans. D
Q.63 Which of the following committee includes the members Lok
Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha ?
1) Public account committee
2) Estimate committee
3) Business advisory committee
Codes :
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 1
C) 2 & 3
D) Only 3
Ans. B
Q.64 Which of the following diseases are covered in universal

immunization programme ?
1. Polio
2. Measels
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3. Childhood TB
4. Hepatitis B
5. Tetanus
6. Diphtheria
7. Pertussis (whooping cough)
Codes:
A) 1,3,4,5,6,7
B) 2,3,4,5,6,7
C) 1,2,3,4,5,6
D) All are correct
Ans. D
Also note that pentavalent vaccines includes :
1. Diphtheria
2. Pertussis
3. Tetanus,
4. Hepatitis-B
5. Hib. (HibHaemophilusInfluenzae Type B). It is Responsible For
Pneumonia, Meningitis And Epiglottitis)
Q.65 Which of the following pollutants, will not be monitored in the

national air quality index
1. Ozone
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2. Lead
3. Nitrous Oxide
4. Sulfur Oxide
Codes:
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 4
C) Only 1
D) Only 3 and 4
Ans. D
Q.66 Who among the following carries Open Market Operations ?

A) Finance ministry
B) External Affairs ministry
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Planning Commission
Ans. C
Q.67 What is white-fi technology ?
A) Beaming internet over an area using helium balloon
B) Beaming internet over an area using solar drones
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C) Beaming internet over an area using underground cable network
running along with water and gas connections.
D) Beaming internet over an area using unused television spectrum.
Ans. D
Q.68 Which of the following is/are not the financial committee ?

1. Public account committee
2. Estimate committee
3. Committee on public undertaking
4. Committee on private member’s bill & resolutions
A) 1 & 2
B) 3 & 4
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,2,3
Ans.B
Q.69 Dunkel draft deals with:
A) Draft drawn to safeguards human rights
B) Trade related to imports & exports
C) Draft on prohibition of liquor consumption in offies
D) Draft on trade within European market
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Ans. B
Q.70 Match List-I with List- II & select the correct answer using the
code given below :
List-I
Famous person
A) Amrita Sher Gill
B) Bhimsen Joshi
C) Rukmini Devi Arundale
D) Suryakant Tripathi Nirala
List- II
(Well known for)
1. Dancer
2. painter
3. poet
4. Singer
Codes:
A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
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B) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
C) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
D) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Ans. B
Q.71 With which one of the following fields was pandit Bhimsen Joshi
is associated ?
A) Dance
B) Music
C) Novel
D) Short story writing
Ans. B
Q.72 Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, what is
the minimum period of service an employee must have served to make
him eligible for gratuity on his retirement or resignation?
A) Ten years
B) Five years
C) Seven years
D) Six years
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Ans. B
The Act provides for the payment of gratuity to workers employed in

every factory, shop & establishments or educational institution
employing 10 or more persons on any day of the proceeding 12 months.
A shop or establishment to which the Act has become applicable shall
continue to be governed by the Act even if the number of persons
employed falls bellow 10 at any subsequent stage. All the employees
irrespective of status or salary are entitled to the payment of gratuity on
completion of 5 years of service. In case of death or disablement there is
no minimum eligibility period. The amount of gratuity payable shall be
at the rate of 17 days wages based on the rate of wages last drawn, for
every completed year of service. The maximum amount of gratuity
payable is
Rs. 3,50,000/-.
Formula is - Last Wages *15*No. of services/26
Nomination
Each employee is required to nominate one or more member of his
family, as defined in the Act, who will receive the gratuity in the event
of the death of the employee.
ADMINISTRATIVE MACHINERY
All the Assistant Labour Commissioners and Labour Officers in the

Labour Department have been appointed Controlling Authority and all
the Deputy Labour Commissioners have been appointed Appellate
Authority under the Act.
RESPONSIBILITY OF THE EMPLOYEERS
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It is the duty of the employer to determine the amount of gratuity as

soon as it becomes payable and to give notice of the same to the person
to whom gratuity is payable and also to the Controlling Authority. The
employer shall also provide to pay the amount of gratuity to the person
to whom it is payable. Failure to do so shall render him liable to pay the
interest at the prevailing rate from time taken. In case the employee is
not paid the due amount of gratuity he should apply, ordinarily within
thirty days, in Form-I to the employer. Is an employer fails to pay due
gratuity even after the receipt of notice in Form-1, the claimant
employee or his nominee or legal heir, may within ninety days of the
occurrence of the case for the application, should apply in Form-IV, to
the Controlling Authority for issuing direction to the employer. After
conducting the enquiry as prescribed, the Controlling Authority will
determine the amount payable and direct the employer to make the
payment. If the employer fails to comply with the direction the
Controlling Authority can direct the Collector to recover the amount due
and pay to the applicant.
PENALTY
The Act provides that whoever makes false statement for the purpose of
avoiding any payment shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which may extend to six months or with fine which may extend to ten
thousand rupees or with both. An employer who contravenes any
provisions of the Act shall be liable for imprisonment for a term of not
less than three months but which may extend to one year or with fine
which shall not be less than ten thousand rupees but which may extend
to twenty thousand rupees or with both. Where the offence relates to
non-payment of gratuity the employer can be punished with
imprisonment for a term which is not less than six months.
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Q.73 Which one of the following is NOT a statutory provision under the
Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment
and Conditions of Service) Act 1996?
A) Drinking water
B) Accommodation
C) Latrines and urinals
D) Rest rooms and lunch rooms
Ans. D
Q.74 The Minimum Wage Act was passed in the year
A) 1938
B) 1958
C) 1948
D) 1968
Ans. D
The Minimum Wages Act 1948 is an Act of Parliament concerning

Indian labour law that sets the minimum wages that must be paid to
skilled and unskilled labours. The Indian Constitution has defined a
'living wage' that is the level of income for a worker which will ensure a
basic standard of living including good health, dignity, comfort,
education and provide for any contingency. However, to keep in mind an
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industry's capacity to pay the constitution has defined a 'fair wage' Fair
wage is that level of wage that not just maintains a level of employment,
but seeks to increase it keeping in perspective the industry’s capacity to
pay. To achieve this in its first session during November 1948, the
Central Advisory Council appointed a Tripartite Committee of Fair
Wage. This committee came up with the concept of Minimum Wages.
A minimum wage is such a wage that it not only guarantees bare
subsistence and preserves efficiency but also provides for education,
medical requirements and some level of comfort. India introduced the
Minimum Wages Act in 1948, giving both the Central government and
State government jurisdiction in fixing wages. The act is legally non-
binding, but statutory. Payment of wages below the minimum wage rate
amounts to forced labour. Wage Boards are set up to review the
industry’s capacity to pay and fix minimum wages such that they at least
cover a family of four’s requirements of calories, shelter, clothing,
education, medical assistance, and entertainment. Under the law, wage
rates in scheduled employments differ across states, sectors, skills,
regions and occupations owing to difference in costs of living, regional
industries' capacity to pay, consumption patterns, etc. Hence, there is no
single uniform minimum wage rate across the country and the structure
has become overly complex. The highest minimum wage rate as updated
in 2012 is Rs. 322/day in Andaman and Nicobar to Rs. 38/day in
Tripura.
Q.75 Which among the following is/are included in Article 341 ?

1. It empowers the President to specify castes as Scheduled Castes
through a notification.
2. It also empowers Parliament to include or exclude castes from the list
of Scheduled Castes in the notification
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A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
The Bill adds the following communities to the list of Scheduled Castes:
Haryana: Kabirpanthi, Julaha.
Karnataka: Bhovi, od, odde, Vaddar, Waddar.
Odisha: Dhoba, Dhobi, Dom, Dombo, Duria Dom, Katia, Kela, Nalua
Kela, Khadala and Turi.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli: Chamar.
Q.76 What is the range of Prithvi-II missile ?
A) 350 km
B) 300 km
C) 320 km
D) More than 500 km
Ans. A
It is Surface to surface ballistic missile.
Q.77 With reference to the Lok Adalats, consider the following
statements :
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1. It is also known as People’s court which settle disputes through
concilation & compromise
2. It accept the cases pending in the regular courts within their
jurisdiction
3. The decision of the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties to the dispute
4. No appeal lies against the order of the Lok Adalat
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans.D
Q.78 With reference to the Sustainable Livelihoods and Adaption to
Climate change (SLACC) Project, consider the following statements :
1. It focuses on improving the adaptive capacity of women farmers
2. National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) & MNREGA are the
implementing agencies of SLACC
3. It provides assistance in climatic hazards
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
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EXPLANATIONS
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3,
Ans.A
National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) is the implementing
agency of SLACC
SLACC project will be implemented in collaboration with government
programs such as Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP) and
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(MGNREGS).
Q.79 With reference to the Global fund, consider the following
statements :
1. It was established in 2002 that was aimed at accelerating the end of
diseases
2. Private sector is restricted to operate in a partnership model
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
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It operates in a partnership model between governments, civil society,
private sector and people to accelerate the end of diseases such as AIDS,
tuberculosis and malaria.
Q.80 With reference to the Indian Coast Guard, consider the following
statements :
1. It is India’s statutory multi-mission organization that protects
country’s maritime interests
2. It also plays an important role in enforcing maritime law
3. It has jurisdiction over the territorial waters of India, including its
contiguous zone and exclusive economic zone(EEE)
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
It was established on 18 August, 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, 1978 and
operates under the aegis Ministry of Defence.
Q.81 Which among the following are the characteristics of the Algal
species ?
1. They can be used as biofuels & have excellent carbon capture
properties
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2. They can reduce global warming
3. They have bloom forming properties as there is no need of any
cultivation system & extensive use of fertilizers
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in its monetary policy review has
enhanced the limit for foreign exchange (FOREX) remittances under
Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS)
2. Under the LRS, Indians can open, maintain and hold foreign currency
accounts with banks outside India for carrying out transactions, without
permission from the RBI
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
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Ans. C
Q.83 Which among the following are included in the African Union ?
1. Morocco
2. France
3. Portugal
4. United kingdom
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. B
The African Union (AU) is a continental union consisting of
54 countries in Africa. The only African state that is not a member is
Morocco, due to the status of the Western Sahara, although Burkina
Faso and the Central African Republic have had their memberships
suspended due to the recent coup d'état and ongoing civil war,
respectively. The AU was established on 26 May 2001 in Addis
Ababa and launched on 9 July 2002 in South Africa, with the aim of
replacing the Organisation of African Unity(OAU).
The objectives of the AU are:
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1. To achieve greater unity and solidarity between the African
countries and Africans.
2. To defend the sovereignty, territorial integrity and independence of
its Member States.
3. To accelerate the political and social-economic integration of the
continent.
4. To promote and defend African common positions on issues of
interest to the continent and its peoples.
5. To encourage international cooperation, taking due account of
the Charter of the United Nations and the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights.
6. To promote peace, security, and stability on the continent.
7. To promote democratic principles and institutions, popular
participation and good governance.
8. To promote and protect human and peoples' rights in accordance
with the African Charter on Human and Peoples' Rightsand other
relevant human rights instruments.
9. To establish the necessary conditions which enable the continent to
play its rightful role in the global economy and in international
negotiations.
10. To promote sustainable development at the economic, social
and cultural levels as well as the integration of African economies.
11. To promote co-operation in all fields of human activity to
raise the living standards of African peoples.
12. To coordinate and harmonize the policies between the
existing and future Regional Economic Communities for the
gradual attainment of the objectives of the Union.
13. To advance the development of the continent by promoting
research in all fields, in particular in science and technology.
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14. To work with relevant international partners in the
eradication of preventable diseases and the promotion of good
health on the continent.
Q.84 Which among the following are the Genetically Engineered Crops
?
1. Rice
2. Chana
3. Maize
4. Brinzal
5. Cotton
A) Only 4 & 5
B) 3,4,5
C) 1,4,5
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
Q.85 What is the strike range if Agni-V missile ?
A) 5500- 5800 km
B) 5000-6000 km
C) 4500-5000 km
D) None of the above
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Ans. A
Q.86 With reference to the Central Board of Film Certification , consider
the following statements :
1. It is a non- statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting
2. Non-official members & Chairman are appointed by Central
Government recommended by Prime Minister of India
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. D
It is a statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of Information
and Broadcasting
Location : Mumbai
Non-official members & Chairman are appointed by Union Government
Its function is to regulate the public exhibition of films in India under the
provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 by granting them certificate
under 4 categories. They are
U: Unrestricted Public Exhibition.
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UA: Unrestricted Public Exhibition- but with a word of caution that
Parental discretion required for children below 12 years.
A: Restricted to adults.
S: Restricted to any special class of persons.
Film Certification Appellate Tribunal (FCAT) : Located in Delhi, It
hears the appeals filed as per provisions of Cinematograph Act. Any
applicant can file an appeal before the tribunal for a certificate in respect
of a film who is aggrieved by an order of the Central Board of Film
Certification (CBFC).
Q.87 With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency
(IRENA), consider the following statements :
1. It is an intergovernmental organization to promote adoption and
sustainable use of renewable energy.
2. It was founded in 2009
3. India is one of the 33 Permanent members of IRENA.
A) Only 2 & 3
B) 1 & 2
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
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Q.88 Which of the following countries were declared polio free by the
WHO ?
1. Bangladesh
2. Bhutan
3. North Korea
4. Indonesia
5. Thailand
6. Maldives
7. Myanmar
A) Only 1,4,5
B) 2,3,5,7
C) 1,3,4,5,6,7
D) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
Ans.D
It should be noted that WHO declares any country polio free if no case is
reported for three consecutive years.
Q.89 With reference to the Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Castes
Scheme, consider the following statements :
1. It provides finance to the SCs who are oriented towards innovation &
technological growth
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2. It enhances direct & indirect employment for SC population
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
1. In FY14 external commercial borrowing increased as compared to
FY13
2. Foreign Institutional Investment declined in 2014 as compared to the
2012-13
3. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) increased in FY14 as compared to
FY13.
A) 1 & 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
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EXPLANATIONS
The current account balance in the FY 14 reduced to $32.4 billion
compared to $ 88.2 billion last fiscal.
Capital account balance decreased by half to $47.9 billion in FY14 from
$92 billion in FY13, mainly due to sharp drop in portfolio investment.
Q.91 Which among the following are the members of the Central Asian
Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) Treaty ?
1. Kazakhstan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan
A) 1 & 2
B) 1,3,5
C) 1,4,5
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans.D
The CANWFZ Treaty was inked on September 8, 2006 in Semipalatinsk
by the five Central Asian nations – Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan,
Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan. It came into force on March 21, 2009. As
chair of the CANWFZ Treaty, Kazakhstan has steered the negotiations
with the five nuclear states on behalf of its Central Asian neighbors.
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EXPLANATIONS
Central-Asian parties to the CANWFZ treaty aim to make the region a
nuclear-weapon free zone. For the zone to be recognized internationally,
it also requires to get the so-called negative guarantees from the five
nuclear weapon countries, meaning legally-binding assurances not to use
nuclear weapons against the parties of the treaty and not to use the threat
of the use of nuclear weapons against them. The Protocol signed on May
6, 2014 in New York provides all these guarantees. The Protocol awaits
ratification by the parliaments of the signing states enter into effect.
Apart from the newly created Central-Asian zone, there are four other
nuclear weapons free zones in the world, including in Africa, Latin
America and the Caribbean, South-East Asia and the South Pacific.
Q.92 Which of the following are the purposes for which the National
Renewal Fund has been set up ?
1. To restructure sick small scale industries
2. To help workers likely to be displaced due to retrenchment in the
process of industrial restructuring
3. To modernize existing industrial units
4. To help refugees from Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, etc.
A) 1 & 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 4
D) 2 & 4
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Ans.A
Q.93 The main function of IMF is :
A) Arrange international deposits from banks
B) Help to solve balance of payments problems of member countries
C) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World bank
D) Finance investment loans to developing countries
Ans.B
Q.94 To know whether the rich are getting richer & poor getting poorer,
it is necessary to compare the :
A) Wholesale price index over different periods of time for different
regions
B) Distribution of income of an identical sets of income recipients in
different periods of time
C) Distribution of income of different sets of income recipients at a
point of time
D) Availability of food grains among two sets of people on rich & the
other poor, over different periods of time
Ans. B
Q.95 Principal reason why national economic planning is still being
pursued inspite of embracing a market economy since 1991 is that :
A) It is constitutional requirement
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B) The vast quantity of capital already deployed in the public sector
needs to be nurture
C) Five year plans can continue to provide a long term perspective to the
economy in market friendly fashions
D) The market economy is mainly confined to industry & commerce, &
central planning in agriculture is necessary
Ans. C
Q.96 Which of the following is/are among the functions of election
commission of India ?
1. Conduct of election for the posts of speaker & deputy speaker ,Lok
Sabha & Deputy chairman , Rajya Sabha
2. Conduct of elections to the corporations & municipalities
3. Deciding on all doubts & disputes arising out of elections
A) 1 & 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
Ans.D
Q.97 Which of the following fish are bred exclusively in the cold
regions of India ?
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1. Catla
2. Tinca
3. Bhekti
4. Trout
A) 1 & 2
B) 1 & 4
C) 2 & 4
D) 3 & 4
Ans.D
Q.98 With reference to Wavel plan, Consider the following statements:
1. As per the plan, The commander – in – Chief of the armed forces
would be Indian
2. The department of external affairs would be in the hands of British
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) neither 1 nor 2
Ans. D
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The department of external affairs would be in the hands of Indians
In October 1943 the British Government decided to replace Lord
Linlithgow with Lord Wavell as the Viceroy of India. Before assuming
the charge, Wavell worked as the Chief of Indian army and thus had quit
an understanding of the Indian situation. Right after assuming charge as
Viceroy, Wavell’s most important task was to present a formula for the
solution of the Indian problem which was acceptable for both the
Congress and the Muslim League. After doing his basic homework, in
May 1945 he visited London and discussed his suggestions with the
British Government. The London talks resulted in the formulation of a
definite plan of action which was officially made public simultaneously
on June 14, 1945 by L.S. Amery, the Secretary of State for India in the
House of Commons and by Wavell in a broadcast speech delivered from
Delhi. The plan, commonly known as Wavell Plan presented the
following proposals:
1. If all the Indian political parties would help the British in the war
then the British Government would introduce Constitutional Reforms in
India after the war.
2. Viceroy’s Executive Council would be immediately reconstituted
and the number of its members would be increased.
3. In that Council there would be equal representation of high class
Hindus and the Muslims.
4. Other minorities including low-caste Hindus, Shudders and Sikhs
would be given representation in the Council.
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5. All the members of the Council, except the Viceroy and the
Commander-in-Chief would be Indians.
6. An Indian would be appointed as the member of Foreign Affairs in
the Council. However, a British Commissioner would be appointed to
look after the matters relating to the trade.
7. Defence of India was to be in the hands of a British authority till
Power was transferred to the Indian hands.
8. Viceroy would convene a meeting of the Indian politician
including the leaders of Congress and the Muslim League so that they
could nominate the names of the members of the new Council.
9. If this plan is approved for the Central Government then same type
of popular ministries comprising of the political leaders would be
formed in all the provinces.
Q.99 Warren Hastings appointed the Amini Commission in1776 to?
A) Gather information about the Indian Judicial system
B) Work out the administrative structure suitable to govern Indian
territories
C) Workout the modalities of setting up judicial structure suitable to new
colony
D) gather systematic information about the Indian agrarian system
Ans. D
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EXPLANATIONS
When the decision to convene the first session of the Constituent
Assembly was announced
1. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha became the provisional president of the
Assembly.
2. The invitation letters to attend the Assembly were issued by the
Viceroy, Lord Wavell.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.1 Which one of the following statements regarding the Association of
South East Asian National (ASEAN) is not correct?
A) ASEAN was established in the year 1967 in Bangkok by the five
original member countries
B) Myanmar is one of the original members of ASEAN
C) India is a sectoral dialogue partner of ASEAN
D) There are ten members of ASEAN
Ans. C
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a regional
organisation comprising ten Southeast Asian states which promotes
intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic integration
amongst its members. Since its formation on August 8, 1967
by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, the
organisation's membership has expanded to
include Brunei, Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar (Burma), and Vietnam. Its
principal aims include accelerating economic growth, social progress,
and socio cultural evolution among its members, alongside the
protection of regional stability and the provision of a mechanism for
member countries to resolve differences peacefully.
ASEAN covers a land area of 4.4 million square kilometres, 3% of the
total land area of Earth. ASEAN territorial waters cover an area about
three times larger than its land counterpart. Member countries have a
combined population of approximately 625 million people, 8.8% of the
world's population. In 2015, the organisation's combined nominal
GDP had grown to more than US$2.8 trillion. If ASEAN were a single
entity, it would rank as the seventh largest economy in the world, behind
the USA, China, Japan, Germany, the United Kingdom and
France. ASEAN shares land borders with India, China, Bangladesh, East
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Timor, and Papua New Guinea, and maritime borders with India, China,
and Australia. Both East Timor and Papua New Guinea are backed by
certain ASEAN members for their membership in the organization.
Q.2 The ageing index in India has increased from 14% to >21 %. With
respect to this which of the following effects is/are correct ?
1. Decline in the proportion of child population
2. Increase in the proportion of old population
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
The ageing index is calculated as the number of persons 60 years old or
over per hundred persons under age 15. The total dependency ratio is the
number of persons under age 15 plus persons aged 65 or older per one
hundred persons 15 to 64.
Q.3 Which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of
India ?
A) Operation of current account & savings bank accounts
B) Regulation & control of foreign exchange
C) Overseeing the commissions & omissions of the various units of
banking sector
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D) Initiating steps to stabilize & control money supply & rate of
inflation
Ans.A
Q.4 Which one of the following is not a member of European union ?
A) France
B) Greece
C) Portugal
D) Switzerland
Ans.D
Founders: France, Belgium, Luxembourg, Italy, Netherlands, Germany
1. United Kingdom comprises England, Wales & Scotland only
2. Great Britain comprises United Kingdom & Northern Ireland
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans.C
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EXPLANATIONS
1. Income tax permanent accountant number is a 8 digit alphanumeric
number
2. India is divided into 10 zones for postal pin code classification
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans.D
1. In India the share of different sectors in installed electricity generation
capacity is central sector > state sector > private sector
2. The percentage of thermal power out of the total installed electricity
generation capacity is about 40 %
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
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EXPLANATIONS
1. BSE sensex is a value weighted index consisting of 50 most actively
traded stocks on the BSE
2. The depository system enables paperless trading & transfer of shares
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Q.9 Consider the following vitamins :
1. Vitamin B1
2. Vitamin B2
3. Vitamin B12
Milk is a source of which of the above ?
A) Only 1
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Q.10 Pnademic severe acute respiratory syndrome is caused by which of
the following ?
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A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Viruses
Ans. D
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory
disease of zoonotic origin caused by the SARS corona virus(SARS-
CoV). Between November 2002 and July 2003, an outbreak of SARS in
southern China caused an eventual 8,096 cases and 774 deaths reported
in 37 countries, with the majority of cases in Hong
Kong (9.6% fatality rate) according to the World Health
Organization (WHO). No cases of SARS have been reported worldwide
since 2004
Q.11 Which of the following is not a member of ASEAN
?
A) Brunei Darussalam
B) East Timor
C) Laos
D) Myanmar
Ans. B
Q.12 Consider the following statements regarding the fundamental
duties:
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EXPLANATIONS
1. There is no provision in the Constitution for direct enforcement of any
of the duties
2. Duties are obligatory for a citizen and that the state should also strive
to achieve the same
3. The fundamental duties in article 51 A is confined to all the persons
and not to citizens only
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 2
C) 3 only
D) 1,2 & 3
Ans. C
The Fundamental Duties noted in the constitution are as follows:
It shall be the duty of every citizen of India —
 To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions,

the National Flag and the National Anthem;
 To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national
struggle for freedom;
 To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
 To defend the country and render national service when called upon
to do so;
 To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst
all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional
or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the
dignity of women;
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 To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
 To protect and improve the natural environment including forests,
lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living
creatures;
 To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry
and reform;
 To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
 To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and
collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels
of endeavour and achievement;
 Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to
his child or ward, as the case may be, between the age of six to
fourteen years

1. Non-resident Indians (NRIs) can not maintain both rupee and foreign
currency accounts in India
2. The National Commission for Women has recommended that
registration for marriages of NRIs be made mandatory
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
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EXPLANATIONS
What is NRE Account ?
An NRE account is a savings or current account held in India that allows
the account holder to repatriate funds that come from outside earnings
and transfer earnings to India conveniently and securely. Money
transferred to an NRE account from any foreign currency is converted to
INR. It permits an NRI to hold and maintain foreign currency earnings
in INR. The account holder may repatriate all the funds along with the
interest earned at any point of time without having to pay tax on the
interest amount. Any NRI can open an NRE account.
What is NRO Account ?
An NRO account is a savings or current account held in India that helps
NRIs manage income earned in India such as rent, dividends, or pension
from abroad. The account holder can deposit and manage accumulated
rupee funds conveniently through an NRO account. Foreign currency
deposited into the NRO account is converted into Indian Rupees. Any
NRI can open a NRO account.
NRIs may also convert their existing resident savings account into an
NRO account when their status changes from resident to non-resident. A
minimum amount of Rs.10,000 must be maintained in an NRO account
on a daily basis. Any repatriation done through this account should be
reported to RBI.
The differences between NRE and NRO accounts are outlined below
in the following account features.
 Repatriation: Repatriation is defined as sending or bringing

money back to the foreign country. You can easily repatriate funds
from an NRE account including the interest earned in that account.
However, RBI has made some restrictions on NRO accounts. You
can remit only up to USD 1 million in a financial year (April to
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March). In addition, you will need a chartered accountant to
complete the paperwork for you.
 Taxation Laws: NRE accounts are tax exempted. Therefore,
income taxes, wealth taxes, and gift taxes do not apply in India.
Interest earned from these accounts is also exempt from taxes. But
as per Indian Income tax laws, NRO accounts are taxable; income
taxes, wealth taxes, and gift taxes do apply. Interest earned on an
NRO account as also subject to taxation. However, reduced tax
benefit is availed under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
(DTAA).
 Deposit and Withdrawal of Funds: You can deposit funds from a
foreign country (in foreign currency) in both NRE and NRO
accounts, but funds originating from India (in Indian rupees) can
only be deposited in an NRO account and cannot be deposited in
an NRE account. Withdrawals from both NRE and NRO accounts
can only be made in INR.
 Flow of Funds: In an NRE account, repatriation is allowed outside
India in any currency.
 Transfer: An NRE account allows you to transfer funds to another
NRE account as well as to an NRO account. You can transfer
funds from an NRO to another NRO account, but you cannot
transfer funds from an NRO account to an NRE account.
 Joint Accounts: Two NRIs can open both an NRE joint account or
an NRO joint account. However, you cannot open an NRE joint
account with a resident Indian. This facility is available only with
an NRO joint account.
 Motive or Purpose: An NRE account helps you transfer funds to
India earned abroad and maintain them. While NRO accounts
helps maintain regular flow of income earned in the form of rent,
pensions, or dividends from India.
 Effect of Exchange Rate Fluctuations: NRE accounts are
exposed to two kinds of exchange loss, namely day-to-day
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fluctuations in the value of INR and conversion loss. NRO
accounts are not at such risk.
Q.14 A transgenic organism

A) has a foreign gene inserted in its genome
B) is a bacterial strain used for transferring genes
C) is a bacteria of extra terrestrial origin
Ans.A
Transgenic means that one or more DNA sequences from another
species have been introduced by artificial means. Animals usually are
made transgenic by having a small sequence of foreign DNA injected
into a fertilized egg or developing embryo. Transgenic plants can be
made by introducing foreign DNA into a variety of different tissues.
Q.15 Which of the following algae is a wonder crop with about 70%
protein even surpassing famous soyabean in food value ?
A) Chlorella
B) Dunaliella
C) Scenedesmus
D) Spirulina
Ans.D
Q.16 Which of the following is responsible for water blooms ?

A) Small fish
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B) Blue-Green Algae
C) Fishing trawlers
D) Oil Tankers
Ans.D
Water bloom , dense aquatic population of microscopic photosynthetic
organisms produced by an abundance of nutrient salts in surface water,
coupled with adequate sunlight for photosynthesis. The microorganisms
or the toxic substances that they release may discolour the water, deplete
its oxygen content, poison aquatic animals and waterfowl, and irritate
the skin and respiratory tract of humans. Single species of algae,
diatoms, or dinoflagellates, reproducing every few hours, may dominate
a blooming population; the number of individuals per litre (quart) of
water may range from 1,000 to 60 million.
In the oceans, annual blooms occur during the early spring in middle to
high latitudes, especially in subpolar regions. In such
localities phytoplankton do not flourish during the winter because of the
short duration and low intensity of sunlight, and because they are preyed
upon by grazing zooplankton. During the winter, upwelling restores the
nutrient content near the surface, providing support for rapid growth as
increased insolation in the spring promotes photosynthesis. In the
Northern Hemisphere such a bloom reaches its peak about April. By
midsummer the surface waters are depleted of nutrients, and the
population of phytoplankton declines. A secondary bloom may occur in
autumn, when storms destroy the summer stratification of the water and
bring up fresh nutrients; photosynthesis and cell multiplication diminish,
however, as solar radiation decreases with winter’s approach.
Sometimes, blooms of the dinoflagellate genus Gymnodinium occur

along the U.S. Gulf Coast when abnormally heavy rains increase the
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runoff of agricultural and industrial wastes. The enormous numbers of
these organisms impart a distinct red colour to the water, a phenomenon
known as red tide. The Red Sea is supposed to have been named for the
occasional blooms of the alga Trichodesmium erythraeum.
Q.17 The slurry from biogas plants is an enriched manure as it is very

rich in oxygen,
A) Phosphorus & potassium
B) Sulphur & Nitrogen
C) Zinc & Potash
D) Boron & Potash
Ans.B
Biogas systems produce a nutrient-rich fertilizer, called “biogas-slurry”.
Biogas-slurry is a safe, organic, liquid fertilizer that can be applied to
crops, flowers, and trees.
Biogas-slurry increases agricultural productivity and long-term soil
fertility. It is estimated that using slurry on land can boost crop yields by
as much as 25% when compared to the application of manure directly to
fields. Unlike chemical fertilizers, biogas-slurry is organic and does not
have negative environmental effects.
Slurry can be collected at the outlet of SimGas biogas digester using a
bucket and applied directly to plants.
The effectiveness of biogas plant slurry in combination with chemical
fertilizers studied for the production of various crops. Replacement of
nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry decreased the yields of major crops, i.e.
wheat, bajra, jawar and mustard. Application of slurry to replace half the
nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in vegetable crops while
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replacement of the total nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in
fodder crops.
Q.18 Consider the following statements about Comprehensive Test Ban
Treaty (CTBT)
1. The treaty comes into force only if and when all nuclear capable
countries sign it
2. Iraq and India have not signed the treaty
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral
treaty by which states agree to ban all nuclear explosions in all
environments, for military or civilian purposes. It was adopted by
the United Nations General Assembly on 10 September 1996 but has not
entered into force as eight specific states have not ratified the treaty yet.
A major step towards non-proliferation of nuclear weapons came with
the signing of the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) in 1968.
Under the NPT, non-nuclear weapon states were prohibited from, among
other things, possessing, manufacturing or acquiring nuclear weapons or
other nuclear explosive devices. All signatories, including nuclear
weapon states, were committed to the goal of total nuclear disarmament.
However, India, Pakistan and Israel have declined to sign the NPT on
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grounds that such a treaty is fundamentally discriminatory as it places
limitations on states that do not have nuclear weapons while making no
efforts to curb weapons development by declared nuclear weapons
states.
As of March 2015, 164 states have ratified the CTBT and another 19
states have signed but not ratified it.
The treaty will enter into force 180 days after the 44 states listed in
Annex 2 of the treaty have ratified it. These "Annex 2 states" are states
that participated in the CTBT’s negotiations between 1994 and 1996 and
possessed nuclear power reactors or research reactors at that time. As of
2015, eight Annex 2 states have not ratified the treaty:
China, Egypt, Iran, Israel and the United States have signed but not
ratified the Treaty; India, North Korea and Pakistan have not signed it.
Q.19 Consider the following statements with regard to Statutory
Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
1. To meet SLR, commercial banks can use cash only
2. SLR is maintained by the banks with themselves
3. SLR restsicts the banks leverage in pumping more money into
economy
A) 1,2 & 3
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 2 only
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Ans. C
Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the Indian government term for reserve
requirement that the commercial banks in India require to maintain in
the form of gold, government approved securities before providing
credit to the customers. Statutory Liquidity Ratio is determined by
Reserve Bank of India maintained by banks in order to control the
expansion of bank credit.
The SLR is determined by a percentage of total demand and time
liabilities. Time Liabilities refer to the liabilities which the commercial
banks are liable to pay to the customers after a certain period mutually
agreed upon, and demand liabilities are such deposits of the customers
which are payable on demand. An example of time liability is a six
month fixed deposit which is not payable on demand but only after six
months. An example of demand liability is a deposit maintained
in saving account or current account that is payable on demand through
a withdrawal form such as a cheque.
The SLR is commonly used to control inflation and fuel growth, by
increasing or decreasing it respectively. This counter acts by decreasing
or increasing the money supply in the system respectively. Indian banks’
holdings of government securities are now close to the statutory
minimum that banks are required to hold to comply with existing
regulation. When measured in rupees, such holdings decreased for the
first time in a little less than 40 years (since the nationalisation of banks
in 1969) in 2005–06.currently it is 21.00 percent.
As most banks currently keep an SLR higher than required (>26%) due
to lack of credible lending options, near term reductions are unlikely to
increase liquidity and are more symbolic.
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 to control the expansion of bank credit. By changing the level of
SLR, the Reserve Bank of India can increase or decrease bank credit
expansion.
 to ensure the solvency of commercial banks.
 to compel the commercial banks to invest in government securities
like government bonds.

UNESCO’s World Heritage mission is to
1. Take over the management, maintenance and preservation of World
heritage sites
2. Encourage State parties to the Convention concerning the Protection
of the World cultural and Natural Heritage to nominate sites within their
national territory for inclusion on the World heritage List
3. Provide emergency assistance for World Heritage sites in immediate
danger
A) 1,2 & 3
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 2 only
Ans. A
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UNESCO's World Heritage mission is to:
Encourage countries to sign the World Heritage Convention and to
ensure the protection of their natural and cultural heritage;
Encourage States Parties to the Convention to nominate sites within their
national territory for inclusion on the World Heritage List;
Encourage States Parties to establish management plans and set up
reporting systems on the state of conservation of their World Heritage
sites;
Help States Parties safeguard World Heritage properties by providing
technical assistance and professional training;
Provide emergency assistance for World Heritage sites in immediate
danger;
Support States Parties' public awareness-building activities for World
Heritage conservation;
Encourage participation of the local population in the preservation of
their cultural and natural heritage;
Encourage international cooperation in the conservation of our world's
cultural and natural heritage.

1. India is a founder member of both GATT and WTO
2. The Ministerial conference of the WTO is mandated to be held at least
once in two years
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A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental
organization which regulates international trade.
The WTO officially commenced on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh
Agreement, signed by 123 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing
the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which
commenced in 1948.
The WTO deals with regulation of trade between participating countries
by providing a framework for negotiating trade agreements and a dispute
resolution process aimed at enforcing participants' adherence to WTO
agreements, which are signed by representatives of member
governments and ratified by their parliaments.
Most of the issues that the WTO focuses on derive from previous trade
negotiations, especially from the Uruguay Round (1986–1994).
Uruguay round :
The agreements fall into a structure with six main parts:
 The Agreement Establishing the WTO

 Goods and investment – the Multilateral Agreements on Trade in
Goods including the GATT 1994 and the Trade Related Investment
Measures (TRIMS)
 Services — the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS)
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 Intellectual property – the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of
Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
 Dispute settlement (DSU)
 Reviews of governments' trade policies (TPRM
Q.22 What is the use of small particles of silica gel often found in the
packages of medicine?
A) It destroys fungal spores
B) It kills bacteria
C) It prevents oxidation of medicines
D) It absorbs moisture in the package
Ans. D
1. Unlike blood, lymph flows only in one direction
2. Lymph carries digested fat
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
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1. Until the Parliament by-law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the
Supreme Court and every High Court are to be in English
2. The authoritative texts of all bills, amendments, acts, ordinances,
orders, rules, regulations and by-laws at the Union and State levels have
to be in English only
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
Q.25 How can the Legislative Council in a State in India be created or
abolished?
A) By the President of India on the recommendation of the Governor of
the concerned state
B) By the Union Home Ministry on the advice of the State Government
C) By the Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a
resolution to that effect
D) By the Governor on the advice of the State Government
Ans. C
Q.26 Consider the following statements with regard to Government of
India Act,1919
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1. Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims
2. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces
3. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures
A) 3 only
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 2 only
Ans. D
The Government of India Act 1919 was an Act of the Parliament of the
United Kingdom. It was passed to expand participation of Indians in the
government of India. The Act embodied the reforms recommended in
the report of the Secretary of State for India, Edwin Montagu, and
the Viceroy, Frederic Thesiger. The Act covered ten years, from 1919 to
1929. This Act represented the end of benevolent despotism and began
genesis of responsible government in India.
The Act provided a dual form of government (a "dyarchy") for the major
provinces. In each such province, control of some areas of government,
the "transferred list", were given to a Government of ministers
answerable to the Provincial Council. The 'transferred list' included
Agriculture, supervision of local government, Health and Education. The
Provincial Councils were enlarged.
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At the same time, all other areas of government (the 'reserved list')
remained under the control of the Viceroy. The 'reserved list' included
Defence (the military), Foreign Affairs, and Communications.
The Imperial Legislative Council was enlarged and reformed. It became
a bicameral legislature for all India. The lower house was the Legislative
Assembly of 144 members, of which 104 were elected and 40 were
nominated and tenure of three years. The upper house was the Council
of States consisting of 34 elected and 26 nominated members and tenure
of five years.
Salient features of the Act were as follows:
1. This Act had a separate Preamble which declared that Objective of

the British Government is the gradual introduction of responsible
Government in India.
2. Diarchy was introduced as Provincial Level. Diarchy means a dual
set of governments one is accountable another is not accountable.
The provincial subjects were divided into two groups: One was
reserved and another was transferred. The reserved subjects were
kept with the Governor and transferred subjects were kept with the
Indian Ministers. This division of subjects was basically what they
meant by introducing the Diarchy.
3. The Government of India Act of 1919, made a provision for
classification of the central and provincial subjects. The Act kept
the Income Tax as source of revenue to the Central Government.
However, for Bengal and Bombay for which, to meet their
objections, a provision to assign them 25% of the Income tax was
made.
4. No bill of the legislature could be deemed to have been passed
unless assented to by the governor general. The later could
however enact a Bill without the assent of the legislature.
5. This Act made the central legislature bicameral. The first house
which was central legislature, with 145 members ( model of
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today's Lok Sabha) was called central Legislative Assembly and
second called with 60 members (model of today's Rajya Sabha)
was called Council of States. The term of the assembly was fixed
3 years and council 5 years.
6. The Act provided for the establishment of a Public Service
Commission in India for the first time.
7. This act also made a provision that a statutory commission would
be set up at the end of 10 years after the act was passed which
shall inquire into the working into the system of the government.
The Simon commission of 1927 was an outcome of this provision.
8. The communal representation was extended and Sikhs, Europeans
and Anglo Indians were included. The Franchise (Right of voting)
was granted to the limited number of only those who paid certain
minimum “Tax” to the government.
9. The seats were distributed among the provinces not upon the basis
of the population but upon the basis of their importance in the eyes
of the government, on the basis of communities, and property was
one of the main basis to determine a franchisee. Those people who
had a property, taxable income & paid land revenue of Rs. 3000
were entitled to vote.
10. The financial powers of the central legislature were also very
much limited. The budget was to be divided into two categories,
votable and non-votable. The votable items covered only one third
of the total expenditure. Even in this sphere the Governor-General
was empowered to restore any grant refused or reduced by the
legislature, if in his opinion the demand was essential for the
discharge of his responsibilities. Thus the Government of India
Act provided for partial transfer of Power to the electorate through
the system of diarchy. It also prepared the ground for the Indian
Federalism, as it identified the provinces as units of fiscal and
general administration.
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th
Q.27 26 October 1947 is an important date in the Indian history,
because of
A) Maharaja Hari Singh’s signing of Instrument of Accession
B) Ceasefire with Pakistan
C) Merger of Sind
D) Declaration of war over India by Pakistan
Ans. A
Q.28 Which one of the following is associated with the formation of
brown air in traffic congested cities?
A) Sulphur dioxide
B) Nitrogen oxide
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Carbon monoxide
Ans. B
Q.29 Bryophytes are photosynthetic but do not have vascular tissue and
true roots. This feature enables them to resemble with which of the
following?
A) Fungi
B) Algae
C) Pteridophytes
D) Angiosperms
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Ans. B
Bryophyte is a traditional name used to refer to all embryophytes that
are "non-vascular plants", such as mosses, hornworts, and liverworts.
The defining feature of bryophytes is that they do not have true vascular
tissue.
1. Chickenpox is caused by a bacterium
2. Japanese Encephalitis is caused by Virus & spread by mosquitoes
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
Chickenpox is caused by a Virus.
Q.31 Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
A) Sweating at night & weight loss are symptoms of AIDS
B) There is no vaccination against Cholera
C) Typhoid is caused by bacterium
D) Oral Vaccine is available to prevent Typhoid
Ans.B
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Q.32 Which one of the following is not identified by Central Pollution
Control Board as heavily polluting industry?
A) Pulp and paper
B) Sugar
C) Tea
D) Fertilizer
Ans. C
Q.33 Who among the following was not a member of Royal
Commission on the public services in India, 1912 ?
A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B) Valentine Chirol
C) Abdur Rahim
D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans. D
The Royal Commission on Public Services in India, also known as
the Islington Commission was carried out under the Chairmanship
of Lord Islington.
It made the following recommendations in its report submitted in 1915:
1. Recruitment to the superior posts should be made partly

in England and partly in India. However, it did not favour holding
competitive exams simultaneously in England and India, which was the
prime demand of the Indian Nationalists.
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2. 25% of the superior posts should be filled by Indians partly by direct
recruitment and partly by promotion.
3. The services under the Government of India should be categorised

into Class I and Class II.
4. The principle of maintenance of efficiency should be adopted while

fixing the salaries of civil servants.
5. There should be a probationary period of 2 years for direct recruits.

For the ICS, it should be 3 years.
Q.34 Pesticides are used to destroy
A) Microorganisms
B) Poisonous substances in soil
C) Poisonous substances
D) Insects
Ans. B
The term pesticide includes all of the following: herbicide, insecticide,
insect growth regulator, nematicide, termiticide, molluscicide,
piscicide, avicide, rodenticide, predacide, bactericide, insect repellent,
animal repellent, antimicrobial, fungicide, disinfectant (antimicrobial),
and sanitizer.
In general, a pesticide is a chemical or biological agent (such as
a virus, bacterium, antimicrobial, or disinfectant) that deters,
incapacitates, kills, or otherwise discourages pests. Target pests can
include insects, plant pathogens, weeds, mollusks, birds, mammals,
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fish, nematodes (roundworms), and microbes that destroy property,
cause nuisance, or spread disease, or are disease vectors. Although
pesticides have benefits, some also have drawbacks, such as potential
toxicity to humans and other species. According to the Stockholm
Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants, 9 of the 12 most dangerous
and persistent organic chemicals are organochlorine pesticides.
Q.35 Lord Curzon is best known for which of the following :
A) Universities Act 1904
B) Partition of Bengal 1905
C) Indian Council Act 1892
D) Government of India Act 1909
Ans. B
The decision to effect the Partition of Bengal was announced in July
1905 by the Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon. The partition took place on
16 October 1905 and separated the largely Muslim eastern areas from
the largely Hindu western areas. The Hindus of West Bengal who
dominated Bengal's business and rural life complained that the division
would make them a minority in a province that would incorporate the
province of Bihar and Orissa. Hindus were outraged at what they
recognised as a "divide and rule" policy, where the colonisers turned the
native population against itself in order to rule, even though Curzon
stressed it would produce administrative efficiency. The partition
animated the Hindus and led the Muslims to form their own national
organisation on communal lines. Bengal was reunited in 1911 in an
effort to both appease the Bengali sentiment and have easier
administration.
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The provincial state of Bengal had an area of 189,000 miles2 and a
population of nearly 8 crores (80 million). It included the Hindi-
speaking regions of Bihar, the Odia-speaking regions of Odisha as well
as the Assamese-speaking region of Assam, making it a huge
administrative entity. Moreover, the capital Calcutta was the capital of
the entire British India. With the growing efforts of theIndian National
Congress to secure the independence of India, Lord Curzon decided to
address both these problems by partitioning Bengal into two entities,
which would result in a Muslim-majority in the eastern half, and a
Hindu-majority in the western half. This he hoped would reduce the
administrative pressures as well divide the population on religious
grounds, quelling theIndian Independence Movement.
The government announced the idea for partition in January 1904. The
idea was opposed by Henry John Stedman Cotton, Chief Commissioner
of Assam 1896–1902.
The Partition of Bengal in 1905 was made on October 16 by Viceroy
Curzon. The former province of Bengal was divided into two new
provinces "Bengal" (comprising western Bengal as well as the province
of Bihar and Orissa) and Eastern Bengal and Assam with Dacca as the
capital of the latter.Partition was promoted for administrative reasons:
Bengal was geographically as large as France and had a significantly
larger population. Curzon stated the eastern region was neglected and
under-governed. By splitting the province, an improved administration
could be established in the east, where subsequently, the population
would benefit from new schools and employment opportunities.
The partition was generally supported by the Muslims of East Bengal.
Their support was motivated by both their poor economic conditions in
East Bengal, as well as the perceived dominance of the Hindu
businessmen and landlords in West Bengal over the governance of
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Bengal. Most of the factories and mills in Bengal were established in
and around Calcutta, while many sources of raw materials for these
factories were in East Bengal. Furthermore, most of the educational
institutions of the Province were situated in Calcutta – including the lone
university in Bengal. As a result of the partition, Dacca, the capital of
East Bengal, saw an increase in investment in infrastructure. This
included the construction of administrative buildings like the Curzon
Hall and High court, as well as the foundation of educational institutions
in East Bengal and Assam.
The opposition to the partition was led by the educated middle class of
western Bengal. Bengali Hindus were at the forefront of political
agitation for greater participation in the governance under British rule,
and many suspected that the partition was designed to curtail Hindu
demands for political representation. Following the partition, an anti-
British movement formed in opposition to the Partition. This involved
non-violent and violent protests, boycotts and even an assassination
attempt against the Governor of the new province of West Bengal.
Q.36 The total number of members in the legislative council of a state
shall not exceed :
A) One-fourth of the total members in the legislative assembly
B) Two-third of the total members in the legislative assembly
C) Half of the total members in the legislative assembly
D) One third of the total members in the legislative assembly
Ans. D
Q.37 Which one among the following disputes is not incuded in the
‘original jurisdiction’ of the Supreme Court of India?
A) Between the Government of India and one or more states
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B) Between the Government of India and one or more citizens of India
C) Between the Government of India and any state or states on one side
and one or more states on the other side
D) Between two or more states
Ans. B
1. A chief metropolitan magistrate can pass a sentence of death
2. A metropolitan magistrate can pass a sentence of imprisonment for
life
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans.C
Q.39 A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total
number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is
Rs. 75, then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively
A) 15 and 35
B) 35 and 15
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EXPLANATIONS
C) 30 and 20
D) 25 and 25
Ans. D
25 and 25
Assume no. of Rs 1 coins = x and no. of Rs 1 coins = y
x + y = 50 (given)
x + 2y = 75 (total money)
hence x = 25 and y = 25
Q.40 Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40
cm, 42 cm and 45cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each
should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps?
A) 25 m 20 cm
B) 50 m 40 cm
C) 75 m 60 cm
D) 100 m 80 cm
Ans. A
25 m 20 cm
LCM of 40, 42 and 45 is 2520
Q.41 If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5
hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled
by them in one hour?
A) 8 : 5
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EXPLANATIONS
B) 5 : 8
C) 4 : 5
D) 1 : 2
Ans. B
Required ratio= Distance travelled by bus in 1 hr/ Distance travelled by

train in 1 hr
= 160/4 / 320/5 =
40/64 =5/8= 5:8
Q.42 What will come at X in the following series?

3, 10, 21, 35, 53, 74, X
A) 90
B) 98
C) 99
D) 100
Ans. C
10-3=7, 21-10=11,35-21=14,53-35=18,74-53=21
11-7=4, 14-11=3, 18-14=4, 21-18=3
21+4=25
74+25
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EXPLANATIONS
=99
Q.43 200 logs are stacked in the following manner: 20 logs in the
bottom row, 19 in the next row, 18 in the row next to it and so on .How
many logs are in the top row?
A) 5 logs
B) 6 logs
C) 7 logs
D) 8 logs
Ans. A
20 + 19 + 18 + 17 + 16 + 15 + 14 + 13 + 12 + 11 + 10 + 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 +
5 = 200
There are 16 layers and the top layer has 5 logs
Or
20, 19, 18, ...., 5
20+ 19+ 18+ .... + 5 = 200
Sum = n(a1 + an)/2
200 = 16(a1 + 20)/2
a1 = 5
Q.44 By selling an article at a profit of 10 percent, a man got Rs. 340

more than one fourth its price. What is the price of the article ?
A) Rs. 200
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EXPLANATIONS
B) Rs. 300
C) Rs. 400
D) Rs. 500
Ans. C
100 ------110
¼
25
But 110-25 = 85% = 34 %
85% = 340
100% = 400
Q.45 What is the average of first 20 numbers of multiples of 2 and 3 ?
A) 60
B) 63
C) 66
D) 69
Ans. B
2&3 >6
So, 6,12,18,---6*20
a+1/2 = 6+120/2 =63
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.46 What is the number of sets, whose elements are consecutive
numbers, such that sum of elements is 60 ?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 2
D) 4
Ans. B
a= [4, 5, 6, ……..10,11 ]
6= [10, 11, 12, 13, 14 ]
Q.47 If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are
not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are possible?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 24
Ans. B
4! = 4*3*2*1 = 24
24/2 = 12 (Girls are not next to each other)
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.48 Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then
Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal’s
position if he agreed?
A) Gain 1 %
B) Neither loss nor Gain
C) Gain 2%
D) Loss 1%
Ans. A
x-y / y * 100 = 10 – 10 / 10 * 100 = 10 %
Q.49 When Manish alone can do a piece of work , he takes 16 days more
than the time taken by Manish & Anuj together to complete the work
while Anuj takes 9 days more than the time taken by Manish & Anuj
together to complete the work. What time Manish & Anuj together will
take to complete the work ?
A) 10 days
B) 11 days
C) 12 days
D) 13 days
Ans. C
Shortcut:
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EXPLANATIONS
√ab
i.e. √ 16 * 9 = 12 days
Q.50 Because of a hole in a bottom of a tank , a tank becomes empty in
6 min. after opening a tap which fills the tank at the rate of 8 lit/min the
tank is emptied in 10 min. Find the capacity of the tank ?
A) 117 litre
B) 118 litre
C) 119 litre
D) 120 litre
Ans. D
Shortcut :
abc / c-a
i.e. 6*8*10 / 10-6 = 120 litre
Q.51 Number of men can do a piece of work in 24 days. If there were 5
men less the work could be finished in 8 days more. How many men
were initially present at the work ?
A) 20
B) 21
C) 22
D) 23
Ans. A
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EXPLANATIONS
Shortcut :
a(D + d) / d
i.e. 5 (24 + 10) / 8 = 5*32 / 8 = 20
Q.52 Sunil completes a work in 4 days where Dinesh completes the
work in 6 days. Ramesh works 1 ½ times as fast as sunil. Three together
can complete the work in:
A) 1 5/12
B) 1 5/7
C) 1 3/8
D) 1 5/19
Ans. D
Number of days taken by Ramesh = 4*2/3 = 8/3
Thus, x=4, y=6, z=8/3
Therefore, xyz / xy + yz +zx
On Solving, we will get
1 5/19
Q.53 A cube of the side 4 cm is painted on all 6 faces with the same
colour. It is then broken up into smaller cubes, each of side 1 cm. What
is the proportion of the number of cubes with no paint to the number of
cubes with exactly one face painted and to those with exactly two sides
painted?
A) 1 : 2 : 3
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B) 3 : 6 : 8
C) 1 : 3 : 4
D) 1 : 3 : 3
Ans. C
Total = 64 cubes
No paint = Only inner cubes =8
One face painted = 4 on each face
Or 4 * 6 = 24
Two face painted = 64-8-24= 32
Therefore, 8:24:32
1:3:4
Q.54 A train which travels at the uniform rate of 10m a second leaves
Madras for Arconum at 7:00 am. At what distance from Madras will it
meet a train which leaves Arconum for Madras at 7:20 am & travels
1/3rd faster than the former does, the distance from Madras to Arconum
being 68 km ?
A) 36 km
B) 47 km
C) 38 km
D) 42 km
Ans. A
S1= 10*18/5 = 36km/hr
S2 = 36+36/3 = 48 km/hr
Thus, Difference in time = T1 – T2 = 7 am – 7:20 am = -1/3 hr
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EXPLANATIONS
Therefore distance of meeting point from Madras,
= 36+ [68-48 ( -1/3 ) / 36+48 ]
=36 [68+16 / 36+48 ]
= 36km/hr
Q.55 URL stands for-
A) Unique Representation Location
B) Unique Resource Locator
C) Uniform Resource Locator
D) Uniform Resource Location
Ans. C
Q.56 The formal set of rules through which computers communicate are
called
A) Patterns
B) Algorithms
C) Controller
D) Protocols
Ans. D
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EXPLANATIONS
given below :
List-I
Persons
A) Bhakti Sharma
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EXPLANATIONS
B) Stephen Constantine
C) Dhruv Sitwala
D) AB de Villiers
List-II
Field
1. Swimming
2. Football
3. Billiards
4. Cricket
Codes:
A) a-1, b-2,c-3,d-4
B) a-2,b-1,c-3,d-4
C) a-3,b-1,c-2,d-4
D) a-1,b-3,c-2,d-4
Ans. A
Pankaj Advani-Biliards
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.58 A portable computer
A) Has low memory
B) The computer that is used by business people
C) Is compact & lightweight enough to be transported from place to

place
Ans. C
Q.59 With reference to the Indian National Congress consider the

1. A.O. Hume was the founder of the congress but he never became its
President
2. Sarojini Naidu was the second women to be the Presidet of Congress
3. C.R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of the

Congress
4. Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894
A) Only 1 & 2
B) 1,2,3
C) 2,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
Q.60 With reference to the corporation tax, consider the following

statements :
1. It is a direct tax that is levied on the profit of the companies
2. It is the revenue that is shared by the states
3. It is levied by the union & belongs to it exclusively
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) 1 & 2
Ans. A
It is the revenue that is not shared by the states.
A country's corporate tax may apply to:
 corporations incorporated in the country,

 corporations doing business in the country on income from that
country,
 foreign corporations who have a permanent establishment in the
country, or
 corporations deemed to be resident for tax purposes in the country.
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Q.61 Which of the following constitutes World Bank ?
1. International Bank for Reconstruction & Development
2. International Finance Corporation
3. International Development Association
4. International Monetary Fund
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. C
The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides

loans to developing countries for capital programs. It comprises two
institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD), and the International Development
Association (IDA). The World Bank is a component of the World Bank
Group, which is part of the United Nations system.
The World Bank's official goal is the reduction of poverty. However,
according to its Articles of Agreement, all its decisions must be guided
by a commitment to the promotion of foreign investment and
international trade and to the facilitation of Capital investment.
The World Bank is different from the World Bank Group, an extended
family of five international organizations:
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 International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
 International Development Association (IDA)
 International Finance Corporation (IFC)
 Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
 International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
Criteria :
Various developments have brought the Millennium Development
Goals targets for 2015 within reach in some cases. For the goals to be
realized, six criteria must be met: stronger and more inclusive growth in
Africa and fragile states, more effort in health and education, integration
of the development and environment agendas, more as well as better aid,
movement on trade negotiations, and stronger and more focused support
from multilateral institutions like the World Bank.
1. Eradicate Extreme Poverty and Hunger: From 1990 through

2004, the proportion of people living in extreme poverty fell from
almost a third to less than a fifth. Although results vary widely
within regions and countries, the trend indicates that the world as a
whole can meet the goal of halving the percentage of people living
in poverty. Africa's poverty, however, is expected to rise, and most
of the 36 countries where 90% of the world's undernourished
children live are in Africa. Less than a quarter of countries are on
track for achieving the goal of halving under-nutrition.
2. Achieve Universal Primary Education: The percentage of
children in school in developing countries increased from 80% in
1991 to 88% in 2005. Still, about 72 million children of primary
school age, 57% of them girls, were not being educated as of
2005.
3. Promote Gender Equality: The tide is turning slowly for women
in the labor market, yet far more women than men- worldwide
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EXPLANATIONS
more than 60% – are contributing but unpaid family workers. The
World Bank Group Gender Action Plan was created to advance
women's economic empowerment and promote shared growth.
4. Reduce Child Mortality: There is some improvement in survival
rates globally; accelerated improvements are needed most urgently
in South Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa. An estimated 10 million-
plus children under five died in 2005; most of their deaths were
from preventable causes.
5. Improve Maternal Health: Almost all of the half million women
who die during pregnancy or childbirth every year live in Sub-
Saharan Africa and Asia. There are numerous causes of maternal
death that require a variety of health care interventions to be made
widely accessible.
6. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria, and Other Diseases: Annual
numbers of new HIV infections and AIDS deaths have fallen, but
the number of people living with HIV continues to grow. In the
eight worst-hit southern African countries, prevalence is above 15
percent. Treatment has increased globally, but still meets only 30
percent of needs (with wide variations across countries). AIDS
remains the leading cause of death in Sub-Saharan Africa
(1.6 million deaths in 2007). There are 300 to 500 million cases of
malaria each year, leading to more than 1 million deaths. Nearly
all the cases and more than 95 percent of the deaths occur in Sub-
Saharan Africa.
7. Ensure Environmental Sustainability: Deforestation remains a
critical problem, particularly in regions of biological diversity,
which continues to decline. Greenhouse gas emissions are
increasing faster than energy technology advancement.
8. Develop a Global Partnership for Development: Donor
countries have renewed their commitment. Donors have to fulfill
their pledges to match the current rate of core program
development. Emphasis is being placed on the Bank Group's
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collaboration with multilateral and local partners to quicken
progress toward the MDGs' realization.
Q.62 Narsimhan committee for financial sector reforms was constituted

under the M. Narsimhan in 1991, Which of the following were the
suggestions :
1. Reduction in liquidity ratio & Cash reserve ratio
2. Statutory liquidity ratio should be reduced upto 25 %
3. Lending to priority sector should be also reduced
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) 1 & 2
Ans. C
1. Largest source of financing the public sector outlay of the Eighth five
year plan comes from Deficit Financing
2. Deficit financing is a policy of bridging a deficit between government

expenditure & revenue
A) Only 1
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EXPLANATIONS
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Deficit financing, practice in which a government spends more money

than it receives as revenue, the difference being made up by borrowing
or minting new funds. Although budget deficits may occur for numerous
reasons, the term usually refers to a conscious attempt to stimulate
the economy by lowering tax rates or increasing government
expenditures. The influence of government deficits upon a national
economy may be very great. It is widely believed that a budget balanced
over the span of a business cycle should replace the old ideal of an
annually balanced budget. Some economists have abandoned the
balanced budget concept entirely, considering it inadequate as a criterion
of public policy.
Deficit financing, however, may also result from government
inefficiency, reflecting widespread tax evasion or wasteful spending
rather than the operation of a planned countercyclical policy.
Where capital markets are undeveloped, deficit financing may place the
government in debt to foreign creditors. In addition, in many less-
developed countries, budget surpluses may be desirable in themselves as
a way of encouraging private saving.
1. High capital/output ratio is the main reason for the low growth rate in
India
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EXPLANATIONS
2. Capital Output ratio is the ratio that shows the units of capital required
to produce a net of output over a given period of time
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
High capital/output ratio is the main reason for the low growth rate in
India inspite of high rate of saving & capital formation
Q.65 With reference to the World Trade Organisation, consider the

1. India’s share in the world trade is likely to triple by the year 2000
A.D.
2. World Trade Organisation helps to boost the exports of agriculture

commodities from India
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct

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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. C
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental

organization which regulates international trade. The WTO officially
commenced on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement, signed
by 123 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on
Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which commenced in 1948. The WTO deals
with regulation of trade between participating countries by providing a
framework for negotiating trade agreements and a dispute resolution
process aimed at enforcing participants' adherence to WTO agreements,
which are signed by representatives of member governments and ratified
by their parliaments. Most of the issues that the WTO focuses on derive
from previous trade negotiations, especially from the Uruguay
Round (1986–1994).
The WTO's predecessor, the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

(GATT), was established after World War II in the wake of other new
multilateral institutions dedicated to international economic cooperation
– notably the Bretton Woods institutions known as the World Bank and
the International Monetary Fund. A comparable international institution
for trade, named the International Trade Organization was successfully
negotiated. The ITO was to be a United Nations specialized agency and
would address not only trade barriers but other issues indirectly related
to trade, including employment, investment, restrictive business
practices, and commodity agreements. But the ITO treaty was not
approved by the U.S. and a few other signatories and never went into
effect.
Q.66 With reference to the Jawahar Rojgar Yojana, consider the

1. Under the scheme 32% employment is reserved for women
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EXPLANATIONS
2. It was developed for employment opportunities & to develop basic
infrastructure of rural areas
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
Under the scheme 30% employment is reserved for women
Q.67 As part of the liberalization programme & with a view to attract

foreign exchange the government & RBI have devised two schemes
known as FCNR A & FCNR B.
Which of the following is true regarding these two schemes ?
1. Under scheme A RBI bears exchange rate fluctuations
2. Under scheme B other banks are to meet out the difference in

exchange rate fluctuations
3. Both the schemes stand withdrawn now
4. Only scheme A has been withdrawn
Options :
A) Only 3
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EXPLANATIONS
B) 1 & 2
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,4
Ans.D
Q.68 With reference to the New Economic Policy 1991, consider the
1. Stabilisation & structural adjustment was the prime objective of new

economic policy
2. Stabilisation is a gradual & multi step process
3. Structural adjustment is a quick adaptation process
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
1. An important policy instrument of economic liberalisation is

reduction in import duties on capital goods
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EXPLANATIONS
2. Reduction in import duties would help the local entrepreneurs to
improve technology to face the global markets
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Q.70 What was the proposal made by Lokmanya Tilak at the Lucknow
session of the Congress in 1916 to transform the Congress from a
deliberative body into one capable of leading a sustainable movement?
A) Transfer of leadership of the National Movement to the Home Rule

League
B) Acceptance of all the proposals of the Muslim League
C) Formation of the Working Committee
D) Appointment of Annie Besant as the President of the Congress
Ans. D
1. The maximum number of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India is

prescribed in the Constitution of India
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EXPLANATIONS
2. The maximum number of the Members of the Union Public Service
Commission is prescribed in the Constitution of India
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
Q.72 Consider the statements about the Attorney General of India :
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Parliament
3. He has the right of audience in all courts of India
A) 1 & 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
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EXPLANATIONS
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal
advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is
appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of
the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President. He
must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme
Court , also must have been a judge of some high court for five years or
an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the
opinion of the President and must be a citizen of India.
The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all

cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme
Court in which Government of India is concerned. He also represents the
Government of India in any reference made by the President to the
Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
Unlike the Attorney General of the United States, the Attorney General
of India does not have any executive authority. Those functions are
performed by the Law Minister of India.
The Attorney General can accept briefs but cannot appear against the
Government. He cannot defend an accused in the criminal proceedings
and accept the directorship of a company without the permission of the
Government.
The Attorney General is assisted by a Solicitor General and four
Additional Solicitor Generals.The Attorney General is to be consulted
only in legal matters of real importance and only after the Ministry of
Law has been consulted. All references to the Attorney General are
made by the Law Ministry.
1. Annual Appropriation bill is passed by the Lok Sabha in the same

manner as any other bill
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EXPLANATIONS
2. An amendment of the constitution of India can b initiated by
introduction of a bill in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
An appropriation bill or running bill or supply bill is a legislative bill

that authorizes the government to spend money. It is a bill that sets
money aside for specific spending.
Q.74 Which one of the following countries is not a member of OPEC ?
A) Algeria
B) Indonesia
C) Malaysia
D) Nigeria
Ans. C
OPEC is an intergovernmental organization of 14 nations, founded in

1960 in Baghdad by the first five members, and headquartered since
1965 in Vienna. As of 2015, the 14 countries accounted for 43 percent
of global oil production and 73 percent of the world's "proven" oil
reserves, giving OPEC a major influence on global oil prices.
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EXPLANATIONS
OPEC's stated mission is "to coordinate and unify the petroleum policies
of its member countries and ensure the stabilization of oil markets, in
order to secure an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to
consumers, a steady income to producers, and a fair return on capital for
those investing in the petroleum industry." As of July 2016, OPEC's
members are Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Gabon, Indonesia, Iran,
Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi Arabia (the de
facto leader), United Arab Emirates, and Venezuela. Two-thirds of
OPEC's oil production and reserves are in its six Middle
Eastern countries that surround the oil-rich Persian Gulf.
Q.75 Which of the following diseases are preventable by vaccine?
1. Tetanus
2. Polio
3. Leprosy
4. Pertussis
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 4
C) 1,2,4
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. C
Q.76 What is operation Kolleru that was recently in news ?
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EXPLANATIONS
A) Masive river linkage project
B) Project to improve wetland
C) Project to supply drinking water to mega city
D) Rural drinking water supply scheme of southern state
Ans. B
A wetland is a land area that is saturated with water, either permanently

or seasonally, such that it takes on the characteristics of a
distinct ecosystem.
The primary factor that distinguishes wetlands from other land forms or
water bodies is the characteristic vegetation of aquatic plants, adapted to
the unique hydric soil.
Wetlands play a number of roles in the environment, principally water
purification, flood control, carbon sink and shoreline stability.
Wetlands are also considered the most biologically diverse of all
ecosystems, serving as home to a wide range of plant and animal life.
Wetlands occur naturally on every continent except Antarctica, the
largest including the Amazon River basin, the West Siberian Plain, and
the Pantanal in South America.
The water found in wetlands can be freshwater, brackish, or saltwater.
The main wetland types include swamps, marshes, bogs, and fens; and
sub-types include mangrove, carr, pocosin, and varzea.
The UN Millennium Ecosystem Assessment determined
that environmental degradation is more prominent within wetland
systems than any other ecosystem on Earth.
International conservation efforts are being used in conjunction with the
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EXPLANATIONS
development of rapid assessment tools to inform people about wetland
issues.
Constructed wetlands can be used to treat municipal and
industrial wastewater as well as storm water runoff. They may also play
a role in water-sensitive urban design.
Q.77 What is Bison, that was in news ?
A) Unmanned low flying aircraft for reconnaissance
B) Indigenously developed all weather multipurpose helicopter
C) Indigenously developed air borne early warning system
D) Fighter aircraft with powerful radar & missiles
Ans. D
Q.78 Recently as a geopolitical strategic relationship, India has been

active in creating a quadrilateral coalition. Which of the following is not
in the proposed coalition ?
A) Australia
B) Indonesia
C) Japan
D) USA
Ans. B
The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD) was an informal strategic

dialogue between the United States, Japan, Australia and India that was
maintained by talks between member countries. The dialogue was
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EXPLANATIONS
initiated in 2007 by Prime Minister Shinzo Abe of Japan, with the
support of Vice President Dick Cheney of the US, Prime Minister John
Howard of Australia and Prime Minister Manmohan Singh of India. The
dialogue was paralleled by joint military exercises of an unprecedented
scale, titled Exercise Malabar. The diplomatic and military arrangement
was widely viewed as a response to increased Chinese economic and
military power, and the Chinese government responded to the
Quadrilateral dialogue by issuing formal diplomatic protests to its
members.
Q.79 Which one of the following industries is not recommended by

Investment Commission as National Thrust Area?
A) Tourism
B) Information Technology
C) Agro-processing
D) Textiles
Ans. B
Q.80 Kyoto protocol commits the developed nations including

economies in transition to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases by
which of the following ?
A) An average of four percent below 1990 levels
B) An average of five percent below 2000 levels
C) An average of 4.2 percent below 2000 levels
D) An average of 5.2 percent below 1990 levels
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
Q.81 Consider the following statements about National Security Guard :
1. NSG was set up in 1984
2. Hostage rescue missions & counter hijack operations are its primary
tasks
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
The National Security Guard (NSG) is a special forces unit under

the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It was raised in 1984,
following Operation Blue Star and the assassination of Indira Gandhi,
"for combating terrorist activities with a view to protect States against
internal disturbances.
The NSG is trained to conduct counter terrorist task to including counter

hijacking tasks on land, sea, and air; Bomb disposal (search, detection
and neutralization of IEDs); PBI (Post Blast Investigation) and Hostage
Rescue missions.
Q.82 Which of the following statements is not correct ?
A) Vice President of India holds office for the period of 5 years
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B) Vice President can be removed by a simple majority of votes passed
in the Rajya Sabha only
C) Vice President continues to b in office even after the expiry of his

term till his successor takes over
D) Supreme Court of India has to look into the disputes with regard to
the election of the Vice President of India
Ans. B
The Constitution states that the Vice President can be removed by a

resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (more than
50% of effective membership(total membership - Vacant seats)) and
agreed to by a simple majority (50% of present and voting members) of
the Lok Sabha (Article 67(b)).
Q.83 The objective of the Eklavya Model residentioal scool is to provide

quality education to which of the following ?
A) Scheduled caste students
B) Tribal students
C) Orphan girl students
D) Unorganised women labour
Ans. B
Q.84 Which of the following disease are water borne ?
1. Typhoid
2. Hepatitis B
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3. Tuberculosis
4. Hepatitis A
Which of the given above is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 4
D) 2 & 4
Ans. C
Q.85 Which of the following is/are the criteria that should meet for the
Dwarf planet ?
1. A planet should orbit around the sun
2. A planet should have sufficient mass, so that it assumes a nearly

round shape
3. A planet must have cleared its neighbourhood around its orbit
A) 1,2,3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 2
D) Only 3
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Ans. D
A dwarf planet is a planetary-mass object that is neither a planet nor

a natural satellite. That is, it is in direct orbit of the Sun, and is massive
enough for its gravity to crush it into a hydrostatic equilibrium shape
(usually a spheroid), but has notcleared the neighborhood of other
material around its orbit.
The International Astronomical Union (IAU) currently recognizes five

dwarf planets: Ceres, Pluto, Haumea, Makemake, andEris.
Q.86 Bamboo flowering is known to be associated with a subsequent

famine. Which of the following is caused by bamboo flowering ?
A) Rainfall decreases
B) Pests & insect increase
C) Land becomes infertile
D) Population of rats increases
Ans. C
Q.87 Which one of the following is not a member of Greater Mekong

Subregion (GMS) grouping?
A) China
B) Malaysia
C) Myanmar
D) Thailand
Ans. A
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The Greater Mekong Subregion, or just Greater Mekong, is an
international region of the Mekong River basin in Southeast Asia. The
region is home to more than 300 million people and was designated with
the launch of a development project formed in 1992 by the Asian
Development Bank, that brought together the six states
of Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, and Yunnan
Province, China.
Q.88 Which one of the following is not an official language of the

United Nations?
A) Arabic
B) Chinese
C) Portuguese
D) Spanish
Ans. C
Q.89 The concept of ‘Minimum Needs’ was an innovation of which one

of the following Five-Year Plans?
A) Third
B) Fourth
C) Fifth
D) Sixth
Ans. C
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1. Fast track courts are being set up on the recommendations of 11th
Finance commission
2. Fast track courts take up sessions cases pending for two years or more
& the cases of undertrials in jails
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
1. India is the permanent member of the board of Governors of

International Atomic Energy Agency
2. On the issue of Iran’s nuclear pogramme , India voted against the

resolution of IAEA’s board of Governors
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
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Ans. A
The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an international

organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy,
and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear
weapons.
The IAEA was established as an autonomous organization on 29 July
1957. Though established independently of the United Nations through
its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both
the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
The IAEA has its headquarters in Vienna.
The IAEA serves as an intergovernmental forum for scientific and
technical cooperation in the peaceful use of nuclear technology
and nuclear power worldwide.
The programs of the IAEA encourage the development of the peaceful
applications of nuclear technology, provide international safeguards
against misuse of nuclear technology and nuclear materials, and
promote nuclear safety (including radiation protection) and nuclear
security standards and their implementation.
The IAEA and its former Director General, Mohamed ElBaradei, were
jointly awarded the Nobel Peace Prize on 7 October 2005. The IAEA's
current Director General is Yukiya Amano.
Q.92 What are the schemes called Gram Suraksha, Gram Suvidha, Gram
Santosh, Gram Sumangal & Gram priya ?
A) Plans introduced by rural postal life insurance
B) Grameen Sanchar Sewak Scheme
C) United Nations’s habitat & human settlement schemes for rural India
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D) Poverty alleviation & employment generation programmes sponsored
by the Government of India
Ans. A
Q.93 Which of the following diseases is caused by the wound or injury

or surfaces of unsterilized surgical instruments ?
A) Kala Azar
B) Chancroid
C) Diphtheria
D) Tetanus
Ans. D
Q.94 In nature how is nitrogen of the atmosphere made available for the
plant growth ?
A) Through the activity of fungi
B) Through the activity of virus
C) Through the activity of earthworms
D) Through the activity of bacteria
Ans. D
1. President of India cannot return money bill to the Lok Sabha for
reconsideration
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2. During the period of national emergency , President can make
ordinances even when Parliament is in session
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Q.96 Which of the following statement is not correct ?
A) All the members of the state legislative assembly takes part in the
electoral college for electing President of India
B) Some of the laws passed by the state legislative assembly require the
assent of the President of India
C) In the national interest Parliament can legislate on subjects in the

state list
D) Legislative council in the state has no financial powers
Ans. A
Q.97 With reference to the union government which one of the

following does undertake the country wide economic census ?
A) Department of Expenditure
B) National Sample Survey Organisation

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C) Planning commission
D) Central Statistical Organisation
Ans. B
1. When Vice president acts as a president of India, he ceases to perform

the function of Chairman of Rajya Sabha
2. President of India can promulgate ordinances at any time except when

both the houses of Parliament are in session
A) 1 Only
B) 2 Only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 & 2
Ans. C
1. Within half a century of the Battle of Plassey, the phenomenal

Prosperity of Bengal suffered a serious setback
2. The manufacture of cotton goods, the most important item of export

from India, enormously increased in other parts of India, while it
declined in Bengal
Codes:
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A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. A
1. The Government of India Act, 1935 and the Constitution of India are
both lengthy documents
2. The Government of India Act, 1935 was taken as a model and

substantially incorporated in the Constitution of India
Codes:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C
The most significant aspects of the Act were :
 the grant of a large measure of autonomy to the provinces of British

India (ending the system of dyarchy introduced by the Government of
India Act 1919)
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 provision for the establishment of a "Federation of India", to be made
up of both British India and some or all of the "princely states"
 the introduction of direct elections, thus increasing the franchise from
seven million to thirty-five million people
 a partial reorganisation of the provinces:
 Sindh was separated from Bombay
 Bihar and Orissa was split into separate provinces
of Bihar and Orissa
 Burma was completely separated from India
 Aden was also detached from India, and established as a separate
Crown colony
 membership of the provincial assemblies was altered so as to include
more elected Indian representatives, who were now able to form
majorities and be appointed to form governments
 the establishment of a Federal Court
However, the degree of autonomy introduced at the provincial level was
subject to important limitations: the provincial Governors retained
important reserve powers, and the British authorities also retained a right
to suspend responsible government.
The parts of the Act intended to establish the Federation of India never
came into operation, due to opposition from rulers of the princely states.
The remaining parts of the Act came into force in 1937, when the first
elections under the act were also held.
In this act The federal type of Government was selected but when the
Act was given then the Indian National Congress opposed it because
they wanted the unitary Government.
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Q.1 With reference to the International Monetary Fund, consider the
1. India’s voting right in IMF has been increased from 2.3 to 2.6 %
2. Doubling of quotas depicts share of European & Gulf countries has
been increased
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
*Doubling of quotas depicts share of European & Gulf countries has
been decreased.
*China will have the 3rd largest IMF quota and voting share after the US
and Japan. While, India, Russia and Brazil will also be among the top 10
members of the IMF.
*Currently, US, Japan, France, Germany, Italy, United Kingdom,
Canada and Saudi Arabia are among the top ten members of the IMF.
While, the member countries with the 5 largest quotas appoint an
Executive Director.
*The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organization
headquartered in Washington, D.C., of "189 countries working to foster
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global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate
international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic
growth, and reduce poverty around the world." Formed in 1944 at
the Bretton Woods Conference, it came into formal existence in 1945
with 29 member countries and the goal of reconstructing
the international payment system. It now plays a central role in the
management of balance of payments difficulties and international
financial crises. Countries contribute funds to a pool through a quota
system from which countries experiencing balance of
payments problems can borrow money. As of 2010, the fund
had SDR476.8 billion, about US$755.7 billion at then exchange rates.
Upon the founding of the IMF, its three primary functions were: to
oversee the fixed exchange rate arrangements between countries, thus
helping national governments manage their exchange rates and allowing
these governments to prioritise economic growth, and to provide short-
term capital to aid balance of payments. This assistance was meant to
prevent the spread of international economic crises.
*It provide capital investments for economic growth and projects such
as infrastructure.
* The IMF negotiates conditions on lending and loans under their policy
of conditionality, which was established in the 1950s. Low-income
countries can borrow onconcessional terms, which means there is a
period of time with no interest rates, through the Extended Credit
Facility (ECF), the Standby Credit Facility (SCF) and the Rapid Credit
Facility (RCF). Non-concessional loans, which include interest rates, are
provided mainly through Stand-By Arrangements (SBA), the Flexible
Credit Line (FCL), the Precautionary and Liquidity Line (PLL), and the
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Extended Fund Facility. The IMF provides emergency assistance via the
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) to members facing urgent balance-of-
payments needs.
*The IMF is mandated to oversee the international monetary and
financial system and monitor the economic and financial policies of its
member countries. This activity is known as surveillance and facilitates
international cooperation. Since the demise of the Bretton Woods
system of fixed exchange rates in the early 1970s, surveillance has
evolved largely by way of changes in procedures rather than through the
adoption of new obligations. The responsibilities changed from those of
guardian to those of overseer of members’ policies.
Some of the conditions for structural adjustment can include:
 Cutting expenditures, also known as austerity.

 Focusing economic output on direct export and resource extraction,
 Devaluation of currencies,
 Trade liberalisation, or lifting import and export restrictions,
 Increasing the stability of investment (by supplementing foreign
direct investment with the opening of domestic stock markets),
 Balancing budgets and not overspending,
 Removing price controls and state subsidies,
 Privatization, or divestiture of all or part of state-owned enterprises,
 Enhancing the rights of foreign investors vis-a-vis national laws,
 Improving governance and fighting corruption.
These conditions are known as the Washington Consensus.
Not all member countries of the IMF are sovereign states, and therefore
not all "member countries" of the IMF are members of the United
Nations.
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Member countries of the IMF have access to information on the
economic policies of all member countries, the opportunity to influence
other members’ economic policies,technical assistance in banking, fiscal
affairs, and exchange matters, financial support in times of payment
difficulties, and increased opportunities for trade and investment
Q.2 With reference to the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD), consider the following statements :
1. It is an international economic organisation of 34 countries to
stimulate economic progress and world trade
2.Under the new agreement signatory members have to share
information on tax issues of MNCs
3. OECD is a group of deceloped & developing countries
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans.C
*The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD) is an intergovernmental economic
organisation with 35 member countries, founded in 1961 to stimulate
economic progress and world trade. It is a forum of countries describing
themselves as committed to democracy and themarket economy,
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providing a platform to compare policy experiences, seeking answers to
common problems, identify good practices and coordinate domestic and
international policies of its members.
* Most OECD members are high-income economies with a very high
Human Development Index (HDI) and are regarded as developed
countries.
* The OECD's headquarters are at the Château de la
Muette in Paris, France.
* Following the 1957 Rome Treaties to launch the European Economic
Community, the Convention on the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development was drawn up to reform the OEEC. The
Convention was signed in December 1960 and the OECD officially
superseded the OEEC in September 1961. It consisted of the European
founder countries of the OEEC plus the United States and Canada, with
Japan joining three years later.
The official founding members are:
 Austria  West Germany  Luxembourg
 Belgium  Greece  The Netherlands
 Canada  Iceland  Norway
 Denmark  Ireland  Portugal
 France  Italy  Spain
The OECD promotes policies designed:
 to achieve the highest sustainable economic

growth and employment and a rising standard of living in Member
countries, while maintaining financial stability, and thus to contribute
to the development of the world economy;
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 to contribute to sound economic expansion in Member as well as
nonmember countries in the process of economic development; and
 to contribute to the expansion of world trade on a multilateral,
nondiscriminatory basis in accordance with international obligations.
Between 1995 and 1998, the OECD designed the Multilateral

Agreement on Investment, which was abandoned because of a
widespread criticism from civil society groups and developing countries.
In 1976, the OECD adopted the Declaration on International Investment
and Multinational Enterprises, which was rewritten and annexed by
the OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises in 2000.
Among other areas, the OECD has taken a role in co-ordinating
international action on corruption and bribery, creating the OECD Anti-
Bribery Convention, which came into effect in February 1999. It has
been ratified by thirty-eight countries
*The OECD publishes the Programme for International Student
Assessment (PISA), which is an assessment that allows educational
performances to be examined on a common measure across countries.
 The OECD Economic Outlook, published twice a year. It contains

forecast and analysis of the economic situation of the OECD member
countries.
 The Main Economic Indicators, published monthly. It contains a
large selection of timely statistical indicators.
*The OECD is known as a statistical agency, as it publishes comparable

statistics on a wide number of subjects.
*Founded in 1961 & head quartered in paris , France
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Q.3 In which among the following countries Zika virus is prevalent ?
1. Colombia
2. Equador
3. El Salvador
4. Jamaica
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans.D
Zika virus is not contagious but it is mainly transmitted by daytime-
active Aedes aegypti mosquitoes after it bites someone infected with the
virus and transmit it by biting another human.
Its name comes from the Zika Forest of Uganda, where the virus was
first isolated in 1947. Zika virus is related to the dengue, yellow
fever, Japanese encephalitis, and West Nile viruses. Since the 1950s, it
has been known to occur within a narrow equatorial belt from Africa to
Asia. From 2007 to 2016, the virus spread eastward, across the Pacific
Ocean to the Americas, leading to the 2015–16 Zika virus epidemic.
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Zika can also spread from a pregnant woman to her fetus. This can result
inmicrocephaly, severe brain malformations, and other birth defects.
Zika infections in adults may result rarely in Guillain–Barré syndrome
A positive-sense RNA genome can be directly translated into viral
proteins. In other flaviviruses, such as the similarly sized West Nile
virus, the RNA genome genes encode seven nonstructural proteins and
three structural proteins. The structural proteins encapsulate the virus.
The replicated RNA strand is held within a nucleocapsid formed from
12-kDa protein blocks; the capsid is contained within a host-derived
membrane modified with two viral glycoproteins. Replication of the
viral genome would first require creation of an anti-sense nucleotide
strand.
*There are two lineages of Zika: the African lineage and the Asian
lineage.
*The vertebrate hosts of the virus were primarily monkeys in a so-
called enzootic mosquito-monkey-mosquito cycle, with only occasional
transmission to humans.
The countries and territories that have been identified by the Pan
American Health Organisation as having experienced "local Zika virus
transmission" are Barbados, Bolivia, Brazil, Colombia, the Dominican
Republic, Ecuador, El Salvador, French Guiana, Guadeloupe,
Guatemala, Guyana, Haiti, Honduras, Martinique, Mexico, Panama,
Paraguay, Puerto Rico, Saint Martin, Suriname, and Venezuela.
*Zika virus replicates in the mosquito's midgut epithelial cells and then
its salivary gland cells.
Q.4 With reference to the period of Indian Freedom Struggle, Indian
Statutory commission is popularly known as
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A) Cabinet mission
B) Hunter Mission
C) Sadlar commission
D) Simon commission
Ans. D
*The Indian Statutory Commission was a group of seven
British Members of Parliament that had been dispatched to India in 1928
to study constitutional reform in Britain's most important colonial
dependency.
* It was commonly referred to as the Simon Commission after its
chairman, Sir John Simon. One of its members was Clement Attlee, who
subsequently became the British Prime Minister and eventually oversaw
the granting of independence to India in 1947.
*At the time of introducing the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms the British
Government declared that a commission would be sent to India after ten
years to examine the effects and operations of the constitutional reforms
and to suggest more reforms for India .
*In November 1927 the British government appointed a commission
under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon to report on India's
constitutional progress for introducing constitutional reforms as had
been promised.
*Some people in India were outraged and insulted that the Simon
Commission, which was to determine the future of India, did not include
a single Indian member. The Indian National Congress, at its December
1927 meeting in Madras (now Chennai), resolved to boycott the
Commission and challenged Lord Birkenhead, the Secretary of State for
India, to draft a constitution that would be acceptable to the Indian
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populace. A faction of the Muslim League also decided to boycott the
Commission.
However, opinion was divided, with support for co-operation coming
from some members of the Muslim League and also both Hindus and
members of the Central Sikh League.
*An All-India Committee for Cooperation with the Simon Commission
was established by the Council of India and by selection of the
Viceroy, Lord Irwin.
The members of the committee were: C. Sankaran Nair (Chairman),
Arthur Froom, Nawab Ali Khan, Shivdev Singh Uberoi, Zulfiqar Ali
Khan, Hari Singh Gour, Abdullah Al-Mamun Suhrawardy, Kikabhai
Premchand and M. C. Rajah.
It proposed the abolition of dyarchy and the establishment of
representative government in the provinces.
*It also recommended that separate communal electorates be retained,
but only until tensions between Hindus and Muslims had died down. In
September 1928, ahead of the Commission's release, Motilal
Nehru presented his Nehru Report to counter its charges that Indians
could not find a constitutional consensus among themselves. This report
advocated that India be given dominion status of complete internal self-
government.
The outcome of the Simon Commission was the Government of India
Act 1935, which established representative government at the provincial
level in India and is the basis of many parts of the Indian Constitution. In
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1937 the first elections were held in the Provinces, resulting in Congress
Governments being returned in almost all Provinces.
Q.5 Consider the following great personalities
1. B.R.Ambedkhar
2. T.Prakasam
3. Madan mohan Malaviya
Who of the above is/are associated with Poona pact?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
*The Poona Pact refers to an agreement between Babasaheb
Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi signed on 24 September 1932
at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune (now inMaharashtra), India.
*It was signed by Pt Madan Mohan Malviya and B.R. Ambedkar and
some Dalit leaders to break the fast unto death undertaken by Gandhi in
Yerwada prison to annul the Macdonald Award giving separate
electorates to Dalits for electing members of state legislative assemblies
in British India.
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*To draft a new Constitution involving self-rule for the native Indians,
the British invited leaders of different parties in the Round Table
Conferences in 1930-32.
Mahatma Gandhi did not attend the first and last but attended the second
of the Conferences. The concept of separate electorates for the
Untouchables was raised by Ambedkar. Similar provisions were already
available for other minorities, including Muslims, Christians, Anglo-
Indians and Sikhs. The British government agreed with Ambedkar's
contention, and British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald's Communal
Award to the depressed classes was to be incorporated into the
constitution in the governance of British India. Gandhi strongly opposed
the Communal Award on the grounds that it would disintegrate Hindu
society.
He began an indefinite hunger strike at Yerwada Central Jail from 20
September 1932 to protest against this Award. A compromise was
reached on 24 September 1932.
Terms of Poona Act :
 There shall be seats reserved for the Depressed Classes out of
general electorate.
 Election to these seats shall be by joint electorates subject
 The representation of the Depressed Classes in the Central
Legislature shall likewise be on the principle of joint electorates
and reserved seats by the method of primary election in the manner
provided for in clause above for their representation in the
provincial legislatures.
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 In the Central Legislature 19 per cent of the seats allotted to the
general electorate for British India in the said legislature shall be
reserved for the Depressed Classes.
 The system of primary election to a panel of candidates for
election to the Central and Provincial Legislatures as herein-before
mentioned shall come to an end after the first ten years, unless
terminated sooner by mutual agreement under the provision of
clause 6 below.
 The system of representation of Depressed Classes by reserved
seats in the Provincial and Central Legislatures as provided for in
clauses (1) and (4) shall continue until determined otherwise by
mutual agreement between the communities concerned in this
settlement.
 The Franchise for the Central and Provincial Legislatures of the
Depressed Classes shall be as indicated, in the Lothian
Committee Report.
 There shall be no disabilities attached to any one on the ground of
his being a member of the Depressed Classes in regard to any
election to local bodies or appointment to the public services.
Every endeavour shall be made to secure a fair representation of
the Depressed Classes in these respects, subject to such educational
qualifications as may be laid down for appointment to the Public
Services.
 In every province out of the educational grant an adequate sum
shall be ear-marked for providing educational facilities to the
members of Depressed Classes.
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Q.6 With reference to the Quantitative easing, which among the
following statements is/are correct ?
1) It is monetary as well as fiscal policy used by the Central bank to
stimulate the economy
2) It can be implemented by buying specified amounts of financial assets
from commercial banks
Codes :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
*Quantitative easing (QE) is a type of monetary policy used by central
banks to stimulate the economy when standard monetary policy has
become ineffective. and other private institutions, thus raising the prices
of those financial assets and lowering their yield, while simultaneously
increasing the monetary base.
Expansionary monetary policy to stimulate the economy typically
involves the central bank buying short-term government bonds in order
to lower short-term market interest rates.
However, when short-term interest rates reach or approach zero, this
method can no longer work. In such circumstances monetary authorities
may then use quantitative easing to further stimulate the economy by
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buying assets of longer maturity than short-term government bonds,
thereby lowering longer-term interest rates further out on the yield
curve.
Quantitative easing can help ensure that inflation does not fall below a
target.
Q.7 Vaccines are :
A) Same as monoclonal antibodies
B) treated bacteria or viruses or one of their proteins
C) mhc proteins
D) Strands of nucleic acids
Ans.B
A vaccine is a biological preparation that provides active acquired
immunity to a particular disease. A vaccine typically contains an agent
that resembles a disease-causing micro-organism and is often made from
weakened or killed forms of the microbe, its toxins or one of its surface
proteins.
The agent stimulates the body's immune system to recognize the agent
as a threat, destroy it, and keep a record of it, so that the immune system
can more easily recognize and destroy any of these micro-organisms that
it later encounters.
*Vaccines can be prophylactic(example: to prevent or ameliorate the
effects of a future infection by any natural or "wild" pathogen),
or therapeutic (e.g., vaccines against cancer are also being investigated).
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* Adjuvants commonly are used to boost immune response, particularly
for older people (50–75 years and up), whose immune response to a
simple vaccine may have weakened.
*Protein subunit – rather than introducing an inactivated or attenuated
micro-organism to an immune system, a fragment of it can create an
immune response.
Examples include the subunit vaccine against Hepatitis B virus that is
composed of only the surface proteins of the virus (previously extracted
from the blood serum of chronically infected patients, but now produced
by recombination of the viral genes into yeast), the virus-like
particle (VLP) vaccine against human papillomavirus (HPV) that is
composed of the viral major capsid protein, and the hemagglutinin and
neuraminidase subunits of the influenza virus. Subunit vaccine is being
used for plague immunization.
*Toxoid vaccines are made from inactivated toxic compounds that cause
illness rather than the micro-organism.
Examples of toxoid-based vaccines include tetanus and diphtheria.
Toxoid vaccines are known for their efficacy. Not all toxoids are for
micro-organisms; for example, Crotalus atrox toxoid is used to
vaccinate dogs against rattlesnake bites.
Conjugate – certain bacteria have polysaccharide outer coats that are
poorly immunogenic. By linking these outer coats to proteins (e.g.,
toxins), the immune system can be led to recognize the polysaccharide
as if it were a protein antigen. This approach is used in the Haemophilus
influenzae type B vaccine.
Vaccines have contributed to the eradication of smallpox, one of the
most contagious and deadly diseases in humans. Other diseases such as
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rubella, polio, measles, mumps,chickenpox, and typhoid are nowhere
near as common as they were a hundred years ago.
Polio, which is transmitted only between humans, is targeted by an
extensive eradication campaign that has seen endemic polio restricted to
only parts of three countries (Afghanistan, Nigeria, and Pakistan).
Vaccine production has several stages. First, the antigen itself is
generated. Viruses are grown either on primary cells such as chicken
eggs (e.g., for influenza) or on continuous cell lines such as cultured
human cells (e.g., for hepatitis A). Bacteria are grown in
bioreactors (e.g., Haemophilus influenzae type.)
DNA VACCINES :
DIVA (Differentiating Infected from Vaccinated Animals) vaccines
make it possible to differentiate between infected and vaccinated
animals.
DIVA vaccines carry at least one epitope less than the microorganisms
circulating in the field. An accompanying diagnostic test that detects
antibody against that epitope allows us to actually make that
differentiation.
Transgenic plants have been identified as promising expression
systems for vaccine production. Complex plants such as tobacco, potato,
tomato, and banana can have genes inserted that cause them to produce
vaccines usable for humans. Bananas have been developed that produce
a human vaccine against Hepatitis B.
Another example is the expression of a fusion protein in alfalfa
transgenic plants for the selective directioning to antigen presenting
cells, therefore increasing vaccine potency against Bovine Viral
Diarrhea Virus (BVDV).
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.8 Animal flesh is a good source of high quality proteins because
animals proteins are
A) Directly taken up by the muscle tissues & add to their strength
B) Animal proteins have all amino acids
C) Animal proteins carry the right proportion of amino acids needed by
the humans
D) Animal proteins are digested easily
Ans.C
Proteins are large biomolecules, or macromolecules, consisting of one
or more long chains of amino acid residues.
*Proteins perform a vast array of functions within organisms,
including catalysing metabolic reactions, DNA replication,responding to
stimuli, and transporting molecules from one location to another.
*Proteins differ from one another primarily in their sequence of amino
acids, which is dictated by the nucleotide sequence of their genes, and
which usually results in protein folding into a specific three-dimensional
structure that determines its activity.
*The sequence of amino acid residues in a protein is defined by
the sequence of a gene, which is encoded in the genetic code.
In general, the genetic code specifies 20 standard amino acids; however,
in certain organisms the genetic code can include selenocysteine and—in
certain archaea—pyrrolysine. Shortly after or even during synthesis, the
residues in a protein are often chemically modified by post-translational
modification, which alters the physical and chemical properties, folding,
stability, activity, and ultimately, the function of the proteins. Sometimes
proteins have non-peptide groups attached, which can be
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
called prosthetic groups or cofactors. Proteins can also work together to
achieve a particular function, and they often associate to form
stable protein complexes.
*It has been estimated that average-sized bacteria contain about 2
million proteins per cell (e.g. E. coli and Staphylococcus aureus).
Smaller bacteria, such as Mycoplasma orspirochetes contain fewer
molecules, namely on the order of 50,000 to 1 million.
*By contrast, eukaryotic cells are larger and thus contain much more
protein.
For instance, yeast cells were estimated to contain about 50 million
proteins and human cells on the order of 1 to 3 billion.
Bacterial genomes encode about 10 times fewer proteins than humans
(e.g. small bacteria ~1,000, E. coli: ~4,000, yeast: ~6,000, human:
~20,000).
The genetic code is a set of three-nucleotide sets called codonsand each
three-nucleotide combination designates an amino acid.
*Genes encoded in DNA are first transcribed into pre-messenger
RNA(mRNA) by proteins such as RNA polymerase.
-Most organisms then process the pre-mRNA (also known as a primary
transcript) using various forms of Post-transcriptional modification to
form the mature mRNA, which is then used as a template for protein
synthesis by the ribosome.
-In prokaryotes the mRNA may either be used as soon as it is produced,
or be bound by a ribosome after having moved away from the nucleoid.
In contrast, eukaryotes make mRNA in the cell nucleus and
then translocate it across the nuclear membrane into the cytoplasm,
where protein synthesis then takes place.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
-The rate of protein synthesis is higher in prokaryotes than eukaryotes
and can reach up to 20 amino acids per second.
*The process of synthesizing a protein from an mRNA template is
known as translation.
*Most proteins fold into unique 3-dimensional structures. The shape into
which a protein naturally folds is known as its native conformation.
*Proteins are not entirely rigid molecules. In addition to these levels of
structure, proteins may shift between several related structures while
they perform their functions.
*Enzymes carry out most of the reactions involved in metabolism, as
well as manipulating DNA in processes such as DNA replication, DNA
repair, and transcription
*The canonical example of a ligand-binding protein is haemoglobin,
which transports oxygen from the lungs to other organs and tissues in
all vertebrates and has close homologs in every biological kingdom.
* Lectins are sugar-binding proteins which are highly specific for their
sugar moieties.
*Lectins typically play a role in biological recognition phenomena
involving cells and proteins. Receptors and hormones are highly specific
binding proteins.
Q.9 Article 123 of the Indian constitution gives legislative powers.
Consider the following statements :
1. President can issue ordinances when Parliament is in recess
2. Every ordinance must be laid and approved by both houses of the
parliament within 6 weeks from the reassembling
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Every ordinance must be laid and approved by both houses of the
parliament within 6 weeks from the reassembling. If not placed and
approved by both houses of the parliament after reassembling it becomes
invalid.
Q.10 The stem of which of the following plants is usually underground ?
A) Banana
B) Sweet potato
C) Tapioca
D) Watermelon
Ans.B
Q.11 Which of the following responsible for bringing out the report of
National & per capita income in India ?
A) Ministry of Planning
B) Ministry of Human Resource Development
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation
Ans.D
Q.12 Which of the following was not a programme of the Non-
cooperation cell given in 1920 ?
A) Boycott of titles
B) Boycott of civil services
C) Boycott of English education
D) Boycott of Police & army
Ans.C
Q.13 At the time of Tripuri Congress Session in 1939 in which Subhash
Chandra Bose had defeated Sitaramayya, who among the following had
withdrawn his candidature from presidentship ?
A) Abdul Kalam Azad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Jayaprakash Narayan
D) Vallabhai Patel
Ans.A
Q.14 In context with the Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao, which among the
following statements is/are correct ?
1) It has been launched by the ministry of health & family welfare
2) It ensures survival & protection of the girl child
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
3) It has been implemented in all the states
Codes:
A) 1 & 2
B) Only 2
C) 1,2,3
D) Only 2 & 3
Ans. D
This is a joint initiative of Ministry of Women and Child Development,
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry of Human
Resource Development
Q.15 A person is eligible to vote in the general elections if he or she :
1. is a citizen of India
2. is not less than 21 years of age
3. does not hold any office of profit under the government
4. is not disqualified on grounds of unsound mind
A) 1 & 2
B) 1 & 4
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,2,3
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. B
Q.16 Which radioactive pollutant has recently drawn attention of the
public , due to its occurrence in the building material ?
A) Plutonium
B) Thorium
C) Radon
D) Radium
Ans. B
1. In India political parties which formed the governments represented
the majority of seat is secured in the elections to the house of the people
at the centre & legislative assemblies in states but not the majority of
votes
2. The elections based on the majority vote system decides the result on
the basis of relative majority of votes secured
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.18 With reference to the Organic farming, consider the following
statements :
1. It is a form of agriculture which is free from Pesticides & fertilizers
2. It relies on crop rotation only for sustainable increase in crop
production
Which among the above is/are correct /
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
It relies on fertilizers of organic origin such as compost, manure, green
manure, and bone meal and places emphasis on techniques such as crop
rotation and companion planting.
*Biological pest control, mixed cropping and the fostering of insect
predators are encouraged.
In general, organic standards are designed to allow the use of naturally
occurring substances while prohibiting or strictly limiting synthetic
substances.
For instance, naturally occurring pesticides such as pyrethrin and
rotenone are permitted, while synthetic fertilizers and pesticides are
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
generally prohibited. Synthetic substances that are allowed include, for
example, copper sulfate, elemental sulfur and Ivermectin.
*Genetically modified organisms, nanomaterials, human
sewage sludge, plant growth regulators, hormones, and antibiotic use in
livestock husbandry are prohibited.
* Reasons for advocation of organic farming include real or perceived
advantages in sustainability, openness, independence, health, food
security, and food safety, although the match between perception and
reality is continually challenged.
*Organic is fundamentally different from conventional because of the
use of carbon based fertilizers compared with highly soluble synthetic
based fertilizers and biological pest control instead of synthetic
pesticides, organic farming and large-scale conventional farming are not
entirely mutually exclusive.
*Many of the methods developed for organic agriculture have been
borrowed by more conventional agriculture.
For example, Integrated Pest Management is a multifaceted strategy that
uses various organic methods of pest control whenever possible, but in
conventional farming could include synthetic pesticides only as a last
resort.
Organic farming relies heavily on the natural breakdown of organic
matter, using techniques like green manure and composting, to replace
nutrients taken from the soil by previous crops. This biological process,
driven by microorganisms such as mycorrhiza, allows the natural
production of nutrients in the soil throughout the growing season, and
has been referred to as feeding the soil to feed the plant.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*Organic farming uses a variety of methods to improve soil fertility,
including crop rotation, cover cropping, reduced tillage, and application
of compost.
By reducing tillage, soil is not inverted and exposed to air; less carbon is
lost to the atmosphere resulting in more soil organic carbon. This has an
added benefit of carbon sequestration, which can reduce green house
gases and help reverse climate change.
*Plants need nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, as well
as micronutrients and symbiotic relationships with fungi and other
organisms to flourish, but getting enough nitrogen, and particularly
synchronization so that plants get enough nitrogen at the right time
(when plants need it most), is a challenge for organic farmers.
*Crop rotation and green manure ("cover crops") help to provide
nitrogen through legumes (more precisely, the Fabaceae family), which
fix nitrogen from the atmosphere through symbiosis
with rhizobialbacteria.
*Intercropping, which is sometimes used for insect and disease control,
can also increase soil nutrients, but the competition between the legume
and the crop can be problematic and wider spacing between crop rows is
required.
*Crop residues can be ploughed back into the soil, and different plants
leave different amounts of nitrogen, potentially aiding synchronization.
*Organic farmers also use animal manure, certain processed fertilizers
such as seed meal and various mineral powders such as rock
phosphate and green sand, a naturally occurring form of potash that
provides potassium. Together these methods help to control erosion. In
some cases pH may need to be amended.
*Natural pH amendments include lime and sulfur, but in the U.S. some
compounds such as iron sulfate, aluminum sulfate, magnesium sulfate,
and soluble boron products are allowed in organic farming.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*Mixed farms with both livestock and crops can operate as ley farms,
whereby the land gathers fertility through growing nitrogen-
fixing forage grasses such as white clover or alfalfa and grows cash
crops or cereals when fertility is established.
Mechanical and physical weed control practices used on organic

farms can be broadly grouped as:
 Tillage - Turning the soil between crops to incorporate crop residues

and soil amendments; remove existing weed growth and prepare a
seedbed for planting; turning soil after seeding to kill weeds,
including cultivation of row crops;
 Mowing and cutting - Removing top growth of weeds;
 Flame weeding and thermal weeding - Using heat to kill weeds; and
 Mulching - Blocking weed emergence with organic materials, plastic
films, or landscape fabric.
*Naturally derived insecticides allowed for use on organic farms use

include Bacillus thuringiensis (a bacterial toxin), pyrethrum (a
chrysanthemum extract), spinosad (a bacterial metabolite), neem (a tree
extract) and rotenone (a legume root extract).
* According to the meta-analysis of 71 studies, nitrogen leaching,
nitrous oxide emissions, ammonia emissions, eutrophication potential
and acidification potential were higher for organic products.
* Excess nutrients in lakes, rivers, and groundwater can cause algal
blooms, eutrophication, and subsequent dead zones. In
addition, nitrates are harmful to aquatic organisms by themselves.
Q.19 Which among the following are the features of the Start-up India ?
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
1. Start –up profits to be tax free for 3 years
2. Tax exemption to be provided on capital gains if money is invested in
another start up
3. To set up fast track mechanism for start up patent applications
4. Sector specific incubators & seed funds under the Atal Innovation
Mission
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 1
C) 2,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
*Startup India campaign is based on an action plan aimed at promoting
bank financing for start-up ventures to boost entrepreneurship and
encourage start ups with jobs creation.
* It is focused on to restrict role of States in policy domain and to get rid
of "license raj" and hindrances like in land permissions, foreign
investment proposal, environmental clearances.
*A startup is an entity that is headquartered in India which was opened
less than five years ago and has an annual turnover less than ₹25
crore (US$3.7 million).
The government has already launched iMADE, an app development
platform aimed at producing 1,000,000 apps and PMMY, the MUDRA
Bank, a new institution set up for development and refinancing activities
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
relating to micro units with a refinance Fund of ₹200 billion
(US$3.0 billion).
*The Standup India initiative is also aimed at promoting
entrepreneurship among SCs/STs, women communities. Rural India's
version of Startup India was named the Deen Dayal Upadhyay
Swaniyojan Yojana
Key points :
 Single Window Clearance even with the help of a mobile application

 10,000 crore fund of funds
 80% reduction in patent registration fee
 Modified and more friendly Bankruptcy Code to ensure 90-day exit
window
 Freedom from mystifying inspections for 3 years
 Freedom from Capital Gain Tax for 3 years
 Freedom from tax in profits for 3 years
 Eliminating red tape
 Self-certification compliance
 Innovation hub under Atal Innovation Mission
 Starting with 5 lakh schools to target 10 lakh children for innovation
programme
 new schemes to provide IPR protection to start-ups and new firms
 encourage entrepreneurship.
 Stand India across the world as a start-up hub
*The Ministry of Human Resource Development and the Department of
Science and Technology have agreed to partner in an initiative to set up
over 75 such startup support hubs in the National Institutes of
Technology (NITs), the Indian Institutes of Information
Technology (IIITs), the Indian Institutes of Science Education and
Research (IISERs) and National Institutes of Pharmaceutical Education
and Research (NIPERs).
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.20 With reference to the Asia Infrastructure Investment Bank,
consider the following statements :
1. Initial subscribed capital is 50 billion US dollar
2. Allocation of capital share will be on capital basis
3. Each member country has equal voting share
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 1
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
* The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is an international
financial institution that aims to support the building of infrastructure in
the Asia-Pacific region.
*The bank has 37 member states (all "Founding Members") and was
proposed as an initiative by the government of China.
*The initiative gained support from 37 regional and 20 non-regional
Prospective Founding Members (PFM), all of which have signed the
Articles of Agreement that form the legal basis for the bank.
*The bank started operation after the agreement entered into force on 25
December 2015, after ratifications were received from 10 member states
holding a total number of 50% of the initial subscriptions of the
Authorized Capital Stock.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*Major economies that did not become PFM include the G7/G8
members Canada, Japan and the United States.
*The United Nations has addressed the launch of AIIB as having
potential for "scaling up financing for sustainable development"for the
concern of global economic governance.
*The capital of the bank is $100 billion, equivalent to 2⁄3 of the capital of
the Asian Development Bank and about half that of the World Bank.
*The bank was proposed by China in 2013 and the initiative was
launched at a ceremony in Beijing in October 2014.
Q.21 For which among the following purpose Neeranchal National
Watershed Project has been implemented ?
1. Water management
2. Capacity building
3. Monitoring & evaluation
4. Agriculture production
A) 1 & 4
B) 1,2,3
C) 2,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
The project is implemented by the Union Ministry of Rural
Development over a six-year period (2016-21) to achieve objectives
PMKSY.
World Bank will provide loan of US$ 178.50 million with a maturity of
25 years, including a 5 year grace period.
Q.22 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana , consider
the following statements :
1. Farmers will pay uniform premium of 2 per cent for all Kharif crops
and 1.5 percent for all Rabi crops
2. provision of capping the premium rate has been removed
3. Encouragement of use of technology such as use of smart phones &
remote sensing satellite
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3,
Ans. D
*The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (Prime Minister's Crop
Insurance Scheme) was launched on 18 February 2016.
*It envisages a uniform premium of only 2 per cent to be paid by
farmers for Kharif crops, and 1.5 per cent for Rabi crops.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*The premium for annual commercial and horticultural crops will be 5
per cent.
The new Crop Insurance Scheme has been formulated in line with One
Nation–One Scheme theme. It replaces existing two schemes viz.
National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS) and Modified
National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS) by removing their
inherent drawbacks (shortcomings).
There will be no upper limit subsidy given by Government even if
balance premium is 90 percent.
Q.23 How many of the two digit numbers that can be formed by using
the digits 1,2,3…….,9 without repeating any digit , are divisible by 4 ?
A) 36
B) 20
C) 16
Ans. C
Since each desired number is divisible by 5, so we must have 5 at the

unit place. So, there is 1 way of doing it.
The tens place can now be filled by any of the remaining 5 digits (2, 3,
6, 7, 9). So, there are 5 ways of filling the tens place.
The hundreds place can now be filled by any of the remaining 4 digits.
So, there are 4 ways of filling it.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Required number of numbers = (1 x 5 x 4) = 20.
Q.24 In the series 52,61, 97,118,166,193 which term does not belong to
the series ?
A) 97
B) 166
C) 52
D) 118
Ans. C
After taking difference all are of 2 digit gap but only 52 is of 1 digit gap
Q.25 What is X in the table ?
21 19 16
9 7 14
10 14 X
A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) 11
Ans. C
Q.26 A stairway is 8 ft high such that each step accounts for half a foot
upward & one-foot forward. An ant begins from ground level, What
distance will it travel to reach the top of the stairway ?
A) 24
B) 23
C) 22
D) 25
Ans. B
Ant will travel 16 times upwards half a foot,
So upward distance travelled=16*0.5= 8ft
Also, the ant will travel 15 times a foot steps, so forward distance
travelled= 15*1= 15ft
Total distance travelled 8+15 = 23 ft
Q.27 A man invests Rs. 100 for 3 years at the compound interest rate of
4% per annum for the first year and 5% per annum for the second and
third years. How much money will he get after 3 years ?
A) Rs. 114.00
B) Rs. 114.66
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
C) Rs. 114.20
D) Rs. 114.40
Ans. B
100 * (1+ 4/100 ) (1+5/100)2
= 114.66
Q.28 Distance from point A to point B is 20 km. A person is driving a

car at the rate of 40 km per hour. Each wheel of the car is rotated 10,000
times by the time it reaches from point A to point B. If the person drives
the car at the rate of 60 km per hour, then to reach from point A to point
B, each wheel of the car rotates:
A) 10,000 times
B) 15,000 times
C) 25,000 times
D) 40,000 times
Ans. A
The perimeter of wheel is same and distance to travel is also same ....so
distance/wheel perimeter is a fixed ratio here so it is independent of
wheel speed.... so same number of rotations.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.29 A fan in a shop is offered at a discount of 10%. It is sold during
clearance sale at 6% discount over the already discounted price at Rs.
846/- . The original marked price of the fan is:
A) Rs. 850/-
B) Rs. 896/-
C) Rs. 900/-
D) Rs. 1000/-
Ans. D
SP before 6% discount = 846 * 100/94

So, original MP = 846 x 100/94 * 100/90 = 1000
Q.30 Tarun bought a T.V. with 20% discount on the labeled price. Had
he bought it with 25% discount, he would have saved Rs. 500/-. At what
price did he buy the T.V.?
A) Rs. 8, 000/-
B) Rs. 7, 400/-
C) Rs. 7, 500/-
D) Rs. 8, 500/-
Ans. A
Given 5% = 500
1% = 100
100% = 10000
Required price = 10000 * 80/100 = 8000
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.31 Two vessels contain milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2 and 7 : 3. Find
the ratio in which the contents of the two vessels have to be mixed to get
a new mixture in which he ratio of milk and water is 2:1.
A) 4:1
B) 1:4
C) 2:1
D) 1:2
Ans. D
1:2
Q.32 The students in three classes are in the ratio 4 : 6 : 9. If 12 students

are increased in each class, the ratio changes to 7 : 9 : 12. Then the total
number of students in the three classes before the increase is:
A)100
B)114
C) 95
D) 76
Ans. D
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Since 3 = 12
1=4
(4+6+3) = 19 * 4 = 76
Q.33 Of the adult population in a certain city, 45% of men and 25% of
women are married. Assuming that no man marries more than one
woman, and vice versa, the percentage of total population of adults who
are married, is:
A) 31.1
B) 30
C) 33.33
D) 32.14
Ans. D
Let no 9 men = x & total population be 100

Total women = (100-x)
Married man = 45x /100 … (i)
& married women = 25/100 (100-x) … (ii)
From (i) & (ii)
x = 500/14
So, married man = 225 /14
Married woman = 225/14
Total married population = men + women = 450/14
Required % = (450/14)/100 *100 = 450/14% = 32.14%
Q.34 A garrison is provided with ration for 72 soldiers to last for 54

days. Find how long would the same amount of food last for 90 soldiers,
if he individual ration is reduced by 10 ?
A) 54 days
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
B) 126 days
C) 48 days
D) 72 days
Ans. C
Let required day = x
54 x 72 = 90 * x * 90/100
x = 48
Q.35 In an examination paper of five question, 5% of the conditions

answered all of them and 5% answered none. Of the rest, 25%
candidates answered only one question and 20% answered 4 questions.
If 396 candidates answered either 2 questions or 3 questions, the number
of candidates that appeared for the examination was:
A) 850
B) 900
C) 800
D) 1,000
Ans. C
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Let total no of candidates = 1000
So, 1000 – (50 +50+900*1/4+900*1/5) = 396
495 = 396
1000 = 396/495 * 1000 = 800
Q.36 The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill, 2016 that was passed by
Rajya Sabha seeks to amend the Maternity Benefit Act of the year?
A) 1957
B) 1961
C) 1978
D) 1991
Ans. B
Q.37 The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill, 2016 that was passed by
Rajya Sabha increases the availability of the maternity benefit by how
many weeks from the date of expected delivery?
A) Six weeks
B) Seven weeks
C) Eight weeks
D) Ten weeks
Ans. C
Following the Cabinet approving the amendment made to the Maternity

Benefit Act, which aims to raise maternity leave for women from 12 to
26 weeks, the Rajya Sabha has passed the amendment .
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
* The Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 10 gave its ex-post
facto approval for amendments to the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 by
introducing the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill 2016.
*The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, protects the employment of women

during the time of maternity and entitles them of a full paid absence
from work to take care for the child.
*The amendment bill seeks to increase maternity leave to 26 weeks in

all establishments, including private sector.
*The act is applicable to all establishments employing 10 or more

persons.
*The bill also provides 12 weeks leave for commissioning and adopting
mothers and makes it mandatory to provide creche facility for
establishment where the number of workers is 50 and above.
*While there is already a provision of 26-week or 6-month maternity

leave for the government employees, most private sector firms offer
maximum three months of such leave. Besides, these benefits are not
provided at all in many smaller establishments. The bill may also have
an enabling provisions to allow working mothers to exercise work-from-
home option. However, this enabling provision will not be mandatory.
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
The letter of that part is the answer.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.38 Raghu’s father told him (A) / how proudy he was to (B) / have
such a fine son and (C) / how much he loved him. (D)
Ans. B
Q.39 Before he could make arrangements, (A) / he received a telegram

(B) / tell him his (C) / mother had passed away. (D)
Ans. C
Q.40 His mother looked at him (A) / standing there, and the boy (B) /
could see the memories (C) / flashing through her mind. (D)
Ans. C
Q.41 AFFLUENT- (rich)
A) poor
B) ordinary
C) infamous
D) backward
Ans. A
Q.42 DARKEN
A) brighten
B) please
C) enlighten
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) glamorize
Ans. A
Q.43 ICY
A) hostile
B) warm
C) pleasing
D) strange
Ans. B
Q.44 ENERGETIC
A) inactive
B) dull
C) gloomy
D) lethargic
Ans. D
Q.45 SECURE
A) rigid
B) precarious- अनिष्चित
C) static
D) secondary
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. B
Q.46 The issue whether a commitment made by a minister on the floor
of the house has been fulfilled or not is decided by the :
A) Concerned departmentally related committee
B) Business Advisory Committee
C) Committee on Public Assurance
D) Political Affairs Committee of the Union Cabinet
Ans.C
1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among
the States on basis of the population and the area of the State
2. The 84th amendment Act of the Constitution of India lifted the freeze
on the delimitation of constituencies imposed by the 42nd amendment
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C
Q.48 Which one of the following plants is popularly grown along the
road for absorbing vehicular pollutants?
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) Nerium
B) Neem
C) Bourgainvillea
D) Callotropis
Ans. C
Q.49 Which one of the following is commonly used as a flavouring
agent during the preparation of noodles?
A) Saffron
B) Cinnamon
C) Olive oil
D) Ajinomoto
Ans. D
Q.50 The cleaning of dirty clothes by soaps and detergents is due to a
type of molecules called surfactants, which are present in soaps and
detergents. The surfactant molecules remove the dirt by
A) Making the cloth slippery
B) Producing some gases between the dirt and the cloth
C) Dissolving the dirt
D) Forming some aggregates of themselves and take away the dirt in the
core of the aggregates
Ans. D
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.51 Bluetooth technology allows
A) Wireless communication between equipments
B) Signal transmission on mobile phones only
C) Landline to mobile phone communication
D) Satellite television communication
Ans. A
Q.52 If excess fertilizer is applied to a plant without water, the plant will
A) Be stunted in growth
B) Develop modifications
C) Die due to plasmolysis
D) Remain unaffected
Ans. D
Q.53 Between the 15th August 1947 when India became free & the 26th
January 1950 when she declared herself a democratic sovereign republic
, the government of India functioned under the provision of :
A) Government of India act 1935
B) Indian Independence Act 1947
C) Indian (Provisional Constitution) order 1947
Ans. B
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EXPLANATIONS
*The Indian Independence Act 1947 was an Act of the Parliament of the
United Kingdom that partitioned British India into the two new
independent dominions of India and Pakistan.
*The Act received the royal assent on 18 July 1947, and Pakistan came
into being on 15 August at the same time as Indian independence.
However, due to Mountbatten's need to be in New Delhi for the transfer
of power, Pakistan celebrated its formation a day ahead on 14 August
1947 to enable the viceroy Lord Mountbatten to attend both events.
*The legislation was formulated by the government of Prime
Minister Clement Attlee and the Governor General of India Lord
Mountbatten, after representatives of the Indian National Congress,
the Muslim League, and the Sikh community came to an agreement with
the Viceroy of India, Lord Mountbatten of Burma, on what has come to
be known as the 3 June Plan or Mountbatten Plan. This plan was the last
plan for independence.
Attle’s announcement :
The Prime Minister of the United Kingdom announced on 20 February
1947 that:
1. British Government would grant full self-government to British

India by June 1948 at the latest,
2. The future of Princely States would be decided after the date of
final transfer is decided.
3 June plan :
This was also known as the Mountbatten Plan. The British government
proposed a plan announced on 3 June 1947 that included these
principles:
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EXPLANATIONS
1. Principle of Partition of India was accepted by the British
Government
2. Successor governments would be given dominion status
3. Implicit right to secede from the British Commonwealth
The Indian Independence Act 1947 was the implementation of 3 June
Plan..
Provisions :
The Act's most important provisions were:
 division of British India into the two new and fully sovereign
dominions of India and Pakistan, with effect from 15 August 1947;
 partition of the provinces of Bengal and Punjab between the two new
countries;
 establishment of the office of Governor-General in each of the two
new countries, as representatives of the Crown;
 conferral of complete legislative authority upon the
respective Constituent Assemblies of the two new countries;
 termination of British suzerainty over the princely states, with effect
from 15 August 1947, and recognised the right of states to accede to
either dominion
 abolition of the use of the title "Emperor of India" by the British
monarch (this was subsequently executed by King George
VI by royal proclamation on 22 June 1948).
 the Dominion of India may be regarded as an expression of the desire
for self-government of the Hindus in India, and the Dominion of
Pakistan as the expression of the demand for self-government by the
Muslims.
The Act also made provision for the division of joint property, etc.
between the two new countries, including in particular the division of
the armed forces.
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EXPLANATIONS
1.Kali age reflects the presence of deep social crisis characterized by the
Varbasankara i.e. intermixture of varnas or social orders
2.The vaisyas & Sudras either refused to perform producing functions or
pay taxes or supply necessary labour for economic production resulting
in weakening of Brahminical social order & social tension
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
Kali age is the last of the four stages the world goes through as part of
the cycle of yugas described in the Sanskrit scriptures, within the
present Mahayuga. The other ages are called Satya Yuga, Treta
Yuga, and Dvapara Yuga.
Kali Yuga is associated with the demon Kali (not to be confused with
the goddess Kālī). The "Kali" of Kali Yuga means "strife", "discord",
"quarrel" or "contention".
Q.55 Anjuman-e-Khawatin-e-Islam founded in 1914 was :
A) All India muslim ladies conference
B) A radical wing of all india muslim league
C) All India Muslim Student’s Conference
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EXPLANATIONS
D) All India Islamic Conference
Ans.A
Q.56 Consider the following statements about Non-cooperation
Movements:
1. The movement was a mixture of nationalism, middle class politics,
religion, feudalism, agrarian discontent and working class agitation
2.The movement was much greater in intensity than any other political
agitation which came before it
3. The movement helped to foster Hindu-Muslim unity
A) 3 only
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 2 only
Ans. B
Q.57 Which among the following was started first during the freedom
struggle ?
A) Bombay presidency association
B) Indian association
C) Madras Native Association
D) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. C
Lakshminarasu established Madras Native Association as a platform for
educated Indians to protest against any injustice on the part of the
British.
*It was the first Indian political organization in the Madras Presidency.
Lakshminarasu, the founder, served as its first President.
*In 1852, the Madras Native Association presented a detailed list of
grievances to the British Parliament.
*It was read out at the House of Lords on February 25, 1853 by the Earl
of Ellenborough along with a petition from the inhabitants
of Manchester that a minister and council for India be appointed and that
they be made responsible directly to the British monarch.
*Lakshminarasu Chetty followed it up with another petition in 1855.
This petition signed by over 14,000 beseached the British Crown to take
the administration of India directly under its control. These petitions
resulted in the curtailment of the powers of the British East India
Company eventually culminating in the transfer of sovereignty over
India to the British Crown.
* As President of the Madras Native Association, Chetty also petitioned
the Government of the United Kingdom praying for religious neutrality
and tolerance. The organization did not fare well and gradually, faded
from the limelight.
1. Burma & India were separated under the Government of India Act
1919
2. Government of India Act 1935 provided for the abolition of Indian
council
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EXPLANATIONS
3. The Government of India Act 1935 granted limited franchise to Indian
women
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans.B
Burma & India were separated under the Government of India Act 1935
Q.59 The rate at which the consumer is willing to substitute one good
for another without changing the level of satisfaction is known as :
A) Marginal rate of substitution
B) Marginal rate of technical substitution
C) Diminishing marginal rate
D) Equi-marginal utility
Ans. A
Q.60 In a perfectly competitive economy production & consumption
will both the pareto optimal if the economy operates at a point where :
A) there is a general equilibrium
B) output levels are below equilibrium
C) output levels are above equilibrium
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EXPLANATIONS
D) consumption is less than output
Ans. A
Q.61 The average fixed cost curve will always be :
A) a rectangular hyperbola
B) a downward sloping convex to the origin curve
C) a downward sloping straight line
D) a U-shaped curve
Ans.A
Q.62 The income stability of demand for inferior goods :
A) less than one
B) less than zero
C) equal to one
D) greater than one
Ans. B
An inferior good is a good that decreases in demand when consumer
income rises (or rises in demand when consumer income decreases),
unlike normal goods, for which the opposite is observed.
Normal goods are those for which consumers' demand increases when
their income increases. This would be the opposite of a superior good,
one that is often associated with wealth and the wealthy, whereas an
inferior good is often associated with lower socio-economic groups.
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EXPLANATIONS
Examples of Inferior goods : Inter-city bus service, Certain financial
services, including payday lending, Inexpensive foods like bologna,
hamburger, mass-market beer, frozen dinners, and canned goods.
A special type of inferior good may exist known as the Giffen good,
which would disobey the "law of demand". Quite simply, when the price
of a Giffen good increases, the demand for that good increases. This
would have to be a good that is such a large proportion of a person or
market's consumption that the income effect of a price increase would
produce, effectively, more demand. The observed demand curve would
slope upward, indicating positive elasticity.
Q.63 Consider the following statements relating to Non-alignment
movement
1. Non-alignment came to symbolize the struggle of India and other
newly independent nations to retain and strengthen their independence
from colonialism and imperialism
2. Non-alignment advanced the process of democratization of
international relations
3. Military alliances formed a major part of Non-alignment
A) 1 & 2
B) 1 only
C) 2 & 3
D) 3 only
Ans. A
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EXPLANATIONS
The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) is a group of states which are not
formally aligned with or against any major power bloc. As of 2012, the
movement has 120 members.
The organization was founded in Belgrade in 1961.
The five principles were:
 Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty

 Mutual non-aggression
 Mutual non-interference in domestic affairs
 Equality and mutual benefit
 Peaceful co-existence
Q.64 The National river conservation Directorate is under :

A) Ministry of Agriculture
B) Ministry of Environment & Forests
C) Ministry of Earth sciences
D) Ministry of Water resources
Ans. B
Q.65 Virus is made up of which of the following :
1. Nucleic acids
2. Carbohydrates
3. Proteins
Options:
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EXPLANATIONS
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
A virus is a small infectious agent that replicates only inside the
living cells of other organisms. Viruses can infect all types of life forms,
from animals and plants to microorganisms, including
bacteria and archaea.
*While not inside an infected cell or in the process of infecting a cell,
viruses exist in the form of independent particles.
*These viral particles, also known as virions, consist of two or three
parts: (i) the genetic material made from either DNA or RNA,
long molecules that carry genetic information; (ii) a protein coat, called
the capsid, which surrounds and protects the genetic material; and in
some cases (iii) an envelope of lipids that surrounds the protein coat
when they are outside a cell.
*The shapes of these virus particles range from simple
helical and icosahedral forms for some virus species to more complex
structures for others.
*Most virus species have virions that are too small to be seen with
an optical microscope. The average virion is about one one-hundredth
the size of the average bacterium.
*Viruses are considered by some to be a life form, because they carry
genetic material, reproduce, and evolve through natural selection.
However they lack key characteristics (such as cell structure) that are
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EXPLANATIONS
generally considered necessary to count as life. Because they possess
some but not all such qualities, viruses have been described as
"organisms at the edge of life", and as replicators.
*Opinions differ on whether viruses are a form of life, or organic
structures that interact with living organisms. They have been described
as "organisms at the edge of life",since they resemble organisms in that
they possess genes, evolve by natural selection, and reproduce by
creating multiple copies of themselves through self-assembly. Although
they have genes, they do not have a cellular structure, which is often
seen as the basic unit of life.
*Viruses do not have their own metabolism, and require a host cell to
make new products. They therefore cannot naturally reproduce outside a
host cell – although bacterial species such as rickettsia and
chlamydia are considered living organisms despite the same limitation.
*Accepted forms of life use cell division to reproduce, whereas viruses
spontaneously assemble within cells. They differ from autonomous
growth of crystals as they inherit genetic mutations while being subject
to natural selection. Virus self-assembly within host cells has
implications for the study of the origin of life, as it lends further
credence to the hypothesis that life could have started as self-assembling
organic molecules.
*A complete virus particle, known as a virion, consists of nucleic acid
surrounded by a protective coat of protein called a capsid. These are
formed from identical protein subunits called capsomeres. Viruses can
have a lipid "envelope" derived from the host cell membrane.
*A virus has either a DNA or an RNA genome and is called a DNA
virus or an RNA virus, respectively.
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EXPLANATIONS
*The vast majority of viruses have RNA genomes. Plant viruses tend to
have single-stranded RNA genomes and bacteriophages tend to have
double-stranded DNA genomes.
*For most viruses with RNA genomes and some with single-stranded
DNA genomes, the single strands are said to be either positive-
sense (called the plus-strand) or negative-sense (called the minus-
strand), depending on if they are complementary to the viralmessenger
RNA (mRNA).
*Positive-sense viral RNA is in the same sense as viral mRNA and thus
at least a part of it can be immediately translated by the host cell.
Negative-sense viral RNA is complementary to mRNA and thus must be
converted to positive-sense RNA by an RNA-dependent RNA
polymerase before translation.
*Viruses undergo genetic change by several mechanisms. These include
a process called antigenic drift where individual bases in the DNA or
RNA mutate to other bases. Most of these point mutations are "silent" –
they do not change the protein that the gene encodes – but others can
confer evolutionary advantages such as resistance to antiviral drugs.
Antigenic shift occurs when there is a major change in the genome of the
virus. This can be a result of recombination or reassortment.
*Viral populations do not grow through cell division, because they are
acellular. Instead, they use the machinery and metabolism of a host cell
to produce multiple copies of themselves, and they assemble in the cell.
*Examples of common human diseases caused by viruses include
the common cold, influenza, chickenpox, and cold sores. Many serious
diseases such as Ebola virus disease, AIDS, avian influenza,
and SARS are caused by viruses.
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EXPLANATIONS
Defence system :
*The body's first line of defence against viruses is the innate immune
system. This comprises cells and other mechanisms that defend the host
from infection in a non-specific manner. This means that the cells of the
innate system recognise, and respond to, pathogens in a generic way,
but, unlike the adaptive immune system, it does not confer long-lasting
or protective immunity to the host.
*RNA interference is an important innate defence against viruses.
*When the adaptive immune system of a vertebrate encounters a virus, it
produces specific antibodies that bind to the virus and often render it
non-infectious. This is called humoral immunity.
Anti-viral drugs mechanism in short :
*Antiviral drugs are often nucleoside analogues (fake DNA building-
blocks), which viruses mistakenly incorporate into their genomes during
replication.
*The life-cycle of the virus is then halted because the newly synthesised
DNA is inactive. This is because these analogues lack the hydroxyl
groups, which, along with phosphorus atoms, link together to form the
strong "backbone" of the DNA molecule. This is called DNA chain
termination.
*Hepatitis C is caused by an RNA virus.
*Microorganisms constitute more than 90% of the biomass in the sea.
*Viruses are the main agents responsible for the rapid destruction of
harmful algal blooms.
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EXPLANATIONS
1. In India, the power to promulgate Ordinances lies with the President
only
2. The power to declare emergency in a State in India lies with the

President only
Codes:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. B
Q.67 With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following

statements
1. The council of Ministers of the Union are responsible to both the

Houses of Parliament
2. The President of India cannot appoint any one as Union Minister not
recommended by Prime Minister
Codes:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. B
The council of Ministers of the Union are responsible to Lok Sabha.
Q.68 Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed by a resolution passed by
A) A majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha
B) A majority of the then members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
C) Two-thirds majority of the total members of the Lok Sabha
D) Two-thirds majority of the Lok Sabha members present and voting
Ans. A

1. Prime minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Planning
commission
2. Union Finance Minister is the ex-officio chairman of the Finance
commission
A) 1 Only
B) 2 Only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 & 2
Ans. A
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EXPLANATIONS
1. During India’s freedom struggle, C.R. Das formed Congress-Khilafat

Swaraj Party within the congress which was later known a the Swarajist
Party
2. At special Calcutta Session of 1920, C.R. Das opposed gandhiji
Codes:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C
Q.71 Nivi, Paridhan and Adhivasa were the

A) Different types of garments of the Aryans
B) Government officials of the Aryan kings
C) Tribal people of ancient India
D) Musical instruments of ancient Idia
Ans. A
Q.72 During India freedom struggle which one of the following led the
first All India Hartal ?
A) Protest against Rowlatt act
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EXPLANATIONS
B) Protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
C) Trial of Mahatma Gandhi
D) Arrival of Simon Commission
Ans. D
Q.73 Simon Commission was appointed to look into the working of :
A) Indian councils act 1892
B) Government of India act 1909
C) Government of India act 1919
D) Government of India act 1935
Ans. C
Q.74 Who among the following established the Calcutta Unitarian
Committee?
A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
C) Keshab Chandra Sen
D) Rabindarnath Tagore
Ans. A
1. United States –India peaceful Atomic Energy cooperation Act 2006
was named in honour of chairman of the house committee on
International relations
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EXPLANATIONS
2. About 25 % of the world’s total thorium reserves are in India
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
1. The Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of
Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head
2. The President may, be writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-
President, resign his office
3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister
Options:
A) 1,2,3
B) 2 & 3
C) 2 only
D) 1 & 3
Ans. C
The Union Executive consists of the President, Vice President,Council
of Ministers, Attorney General of India.
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EXPLANATIONS
Executive power of the Union is vested in the President.
Q.77 Which of the following statements regarding the ‘doctrine of cold

start’ of the Indian Army is/are correct?
1. It involves joint operations between India’s three services and
integrated battle groups
2. It is a defensive doctrine to respond to Pakistani attack on Indian
territory
3. The doctrine was launched in the year 2004
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A) 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 1 & 3
D) 2 & 3
Ans. B
Cold Start is a military doctrine developed by the Indian Armed Forces
to put to use in case of a war with Pakistan.
 The main objective of the Cold Start Doctrine is to launch a
retaliatory conventional strike against Pakistan inflicting
significant harm on the Pakistan Army before any international
community could intercede, but not in way Pakistan would be
provoked to make a nuclear attack.
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EXPLANATIONS
 Cold Start Doctrine deviated from India's defence strategy since
1947 - "a non-aggressive, non-provocative defense policy," - and
will involve limited, rapid armoured thrusts, with infantry and
necessary air support.
Q.78 Which one of the following statements about the ‘Sir Creek’ is
correct?
A) It forms the boundary between Gujarat and Sind province of Pakistan
B) It is an imaginary line dividing the river Jhelum between India and
Pakistan
C) It is a narrow stream forming the boundary between India and
Myanmar
D) It is a tiny island and a reputed tourist spot in the Bay of Bengal
Ans. A
Q.79 Before the permanent settlement the peasants enjoyed
A) Customary occupancy rights
B) Only Tenency rights
C) High rent demands
D) Revenue collecting rights
Ans. B
Q.80 The 73rd amendment provided for a finance commission to review
the financial position of the Panchayats. This commission is appointed
by the :
A) CAG
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EXPLANATIONS
B) President of India
C) Governor of State
D) Union Finance Minister
Ans.C
Q.81 Which of the following factors are responsible for high
concentration of jute mills in Hugli basin ?
1. Nearness to the coal fields
2. Convenient dry climate for spinning & weaving
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
Q.82 The crop in which Bt gene has been used for genetic
transformation & which has given rise to a controversy in India is :
A) Cotton
B) Wheat
C) Groundnut
D) Tomatto
Ans.A
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EXPLANATIONS
1. A money bill can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
2. If the President resigns or dies a new President must be elected within
6 months
3. The President causes the budget to be laid before the Lok Sabha
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 2
B) Only 2
C) 2 & 3
D) Only 3
Ans.B
The President causes the budget to be laid before the both the houses
Procedure for a Money Bill:
1. Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha (the directly
elected 'people's house' of the Indian Parliament).
2. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya
Sabha (the upper house of parliament, elected by the state and
territorial legislatures or appointed by thepresident). The Rajya
Sabha may not amend money bills but can recommend
amendments. To make sure that Rajya Sabha doesn't amend the
bill by adding some non-money matters (known as Financial Bill),
the Lok Sabha Speaker certifies the bill as a money bill before
sending it to the upper house, and the decision of the Speaker is
binding on both the Houses. A money bill must be returned to the
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EXPLANATIONS
Lok Sabha within 14 days or the bill is deemed to have passed
both houses in the form it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha.
3. When a Money Bill is returned to the Lok Sabha with the
recommended amendments of the Rajya Sabha it is open to Lok
Sabha to accept or reject any or all of the recommendations.
4. A money bill is deemed to have passed both houses with any
recommended amendments the Lok Sabha chooses to accept, (and
without any that it chooses to decline).
5. The definition of "Money Bill" is given in the Article 110 of the
Constitution of India. A financial bill is not a Money Bill unless it
fulfills the requirements of the Article 110.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies if a Finance bill is a Money
Bill or not.
7. Policy cut motion - Disapproval of the given policy. Symbolically,
the members demand that the amount of the demand be reduced to
1 INR. They may also suggest an alternative policy.
8. Economy cut motion - It is demanded that the amount of the policy
be reduced by specified amount.
9. Token cut motion - Used to show specific grievance against the
government. Also states that the amount of the demand be reduced
by Rs. 100.
10. Finance bill is supposed to be enacted within 75
days(including the Parliament voting and the President assenting).
11. A money bill can only be introduced in parliament with prior
permission by the President of India.
12. Money bill cannot be returned by the President to the
parliament for its reconsideration, as it is presented in the Lok
Sabha with his permission.
Q.84 Hyde act which has been frequently in news is related to which of
the following ?
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EXPLANATIONS
A) Agreement between India & Israel for supply of defence equipment
B) Agreement between India & Canada for supply of Uranium
C) Agreement between India & USA for civil nuclear cooperation
D) Agreement between India & China for flood control
Ans. C
Q.85 Who appoints District judge ?
A) Chief justice of High court of the concerned state
B) Governor of the concerned state
C) Public service commission of the concerned state
D) Chief justice of the Supreme court
Ans. B
Q.86 Consider the following statements about environmental concerns in
history :
1. In Indian ocean region early French & British scientists pondered over
possible linkages of deforestation the wholesale denuding of the native
tree cover & the cycles of water replenishment
2. In the USA there were similar fears by the late 19th century
3. There was hardly any environmental concerns in the past about wider
global impacts of the way, resources were used
A) Only 1 & 2
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EXPLANATIONS
B) Only 1
C) Only 3
D) Only 2
Ans. C
Q.87 Through which of the following states Vamsadhara river flows ?
A) Andhra Pradesh & Chhattisgarh only
B) Chhattisgarh & Orissa only
C) Andhra Pradesh & Orissa only
D) Andhra Pradesh , Chhattisgarh & Orissa
Ans. C
River Vamsadhara is an important east flowing river between
Rushikulya and Godavari, in Southern Odisha and North Eastern Andhra
Pradesh states in India.
Q.88 Which one of the following causes the infectious disease Anthrax?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Virus
Ans. A
Q.89 Which one of the following is not an alloy?
A) 18 carat gold
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EXPLANATIONS
B) Soldering metal
C) Steel
D) Graphite
Ans. D
Examples of alloys are steel, solder, brass, pewter, duralumin, phosphor
bronze and amalgams.
Pig iron, a very hard but brittle alloy of iron and carbon,
Q.90 Which one of the following is not among the G-4 countries which
seek a permanent membership in the Security Council of the UNO?
A) Brazil
B) Germany
C) Italy
D) Japan
Ans. C
The G4 nations comprising Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan are four
countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on
the United Nations Security Council.
*The G4 nations are regularly elected to two-year terms on the Security
Council as non-permanent members by their respective regional groups:
*In the 24-year period from 1987 to 2010, Brazil and Japan were elected
for five terms each, Germany for four terms (one term as West Germany
and three terms as unified Germany) and India for two terms.
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.91 Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental
Duties contained in the Constitution of India are correct?
1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction
2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since its
adoption
3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance
with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee
4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India
Codes:
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 4
C) 2 & 3
D) 3 & 4
Ans. D
It shall be the duty of every citizen of India —
 To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions,

the National Flag and the National Anthem;
 To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national
struggle for freedom;
 To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
 To defend the country and render national service when called upon
to do so;
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EXPLANATIONS
 To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst
all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional
or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the
dignity of women;
 To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
 To protect and improve the natural environment including forests,
lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living
creatures;
 To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry
and reform;
 To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
 To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and
collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels
of endeavour and achievement;
 Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to
his child or ward, as the case may be, between the age of six to
fourteen years
Q.92 In the context of the defence equipment, what are MANPADS ?
A) Shoulder launched surface to air missiles
B) Infra red based night vision devices
C) Unmanned aircraft
D) Nuclear powered submarines
Ans. A
Q.93 Consider the following statements about Cripps Proposals of 1942

:
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1) Provision was to be made for participation of Indian States in the
Constitution-making body.
2) British Government undertook to accept and implement the
Constitution
3) All provinces of British India were to give an undertaking about the
acceptance of the Constitution.
4) In the ongoing World War, no resources of British India would be
used.
Which of th e statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 1, 2 and 4
D) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. A
*The Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British
government to secure full Indian cooperation and support for their
efforts in World War II.
*The mission was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps, a senior left-wing
politician and government minister in the War Cabinet of Prime
Minister Winston Churchill.
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*Cripps was sent to negotiate an agreement with the nationalist leaders,
speaking for the majority Indians, and Muhammad Ali Jinnah, speaking
for the small number of Muslims population.
*Cripps worked to keep India loyal to the British war effort in exchange
for a promise of full self-government after the war.
*Cripps promised to give dominion status after the war as well as
elections to be held after the war. Cripps discussed the proposals with
the Indian leaders and published them.
*Both the major parties, the Congress and the League rejected his
proposals and the mission proved a failure.
*Cripps had designed the proposals himself, but they were too radical
for Churchill and the Viceroy, and too conservative for the Indians; no
middle way was found. Congress moved toward the Quit India
movement whereby it refused to cooperate in the war effort, while the
British imprisoned practically the entire Congress leadership for the
duration of the war.Jinnah was pleased to see that the right to opt out of
a future Union was included.
Q.94 Which one among the following statements regarding the
Government of India Act, 1935 is not correct?
A) Provincial Autonomy came into existence
B) Bicameral legislature were provided in six provinces
C)The principles of communal electorates and weightage were further
extended
D) The States were compelled to enter the Federation
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
*Indians had increasingly been demanding a greater role in the
government of their country since the late 19th century.
*The Indian contribution to the British war effort during the First World
War meant that even the more conservative elements in the British
political establishment felt the necessity of constitutional change,
resulting in the Government of India Act 1919.
* That Act introduced a novel system of government known as
provincial "diarchy", i.e., certain areas of government (such as
education) were placed in the hands of ministers responsible to the
provincial even for those areas over which they had gained nominal
control, the "purse strings" were still in the hands of British officialdom.
*The intention had been that a review of India's constitutional
arrangements and those princely states that were willing to accede to it.
However, division between Congress and Muslim representatives
proved to be a major factor in preventing agreement as to much of the
important detail of how federation would work in practice.
*Against this practice, the new Conservative-dominated National
Government in London decided to go ahead with drafting its own
proposals (the white paper).
*A joint parliamentary select committee, chaired by Lord Linlithgow,
reviewed the white paper proposals at great length. On the basis of this
white paper, the Government of India Bill was framed.
*At the committee stage and later, to appease the diehards, the
"safeguards" were strengthened, and indirect elections were reinstated
for the Central Legislative Assembly (the central legislature's lower
house). The bill duly passed into law in August 1935.
*The “Government of India Act 1935” was originally passed in August
1935 and is said to have been the longest (British) Act of Parliament
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ever enacted by that time. Because of its length, the Act was
retroactively split by the Government of India (Reprinting) Act 1935
into two separate Acts:
 The Government of India Act 1935
 The Government of Burma Act 1935
References in literature on Indian political and constitutional history are
usually to the shortened Government of India Act 1935, rather than to
the text of the Act as originally enacted.
The most significant aspects of the Act were:
 The grant of a large measure of autonomy to the provinces of British
India (ending the system of dyarchy introduced by the Government of
India Act 1919).
 Provision for the establishment of a “Federation of India”, to be made up
of both British India and some or all of the “princely states”.
 The introduction of direct elections, thus increasing the franchise from
seven million to thirty-five million people.
 A partial reorganization of the provinces:
o Sindh was separated from Bombay.
o Bihar and Orissa were split into separate provinces of Bihar and Orissa.
o Burma was completely separated from India.
o Aden was also detached from India, and established as a separate
colony.
o Membership of the provincial assemblies was altered so as to include
more elected Indian representatives, who were now able to form
majorities and be appointed to form governments.
o The establishment of a Federal Court.
However, the degree of autonomy introduced at the provincial level was
subject to important limitations:
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 The Provincial Governors retained important reserve powers, and
 The British authorities also retained a right to suspend responsible
government.
The parts of the Act intended to establish the Federation of India never
came into operation, due to opposition from rulers of the princely states.
The remaining parts of the Act came into force in 1937, when the first
elections under the Act were also held.
*The diarchy system included a list of subjects reserved by the British
Government and a list of subjects transferred to the Indians. The British
had complete control over the reserved subjects and could exert "special
powers"(they could change any act or project proposed by the Indians)
into the transferred subjects.
The Reserved subjects were: Taxation, Revenue, Foreign
Relations/Policies, Justice department, Police, Power Resources and
Publications/Press.
The Transferred Subjects included: Forest Department, Local
Government, Education, Public Health and Social Welfare.
Q.95 Which of the following are the part of the Public money ?
1) Money held by the Central Government
2) Money held by commercial banks as Cash Reserve ratio & Statutory
Liquidity Ratio
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
Government spending or expenditure includes all government
consumption, investment, and transfer payments.
Government spending can be financed by government borrowing,
seigniorage, or taxes. Changes in government spending is a major
component of fiscal policy used to stabilize the macroeconomic business
cycle.
For fiscal policy, increases in government spending are
expansionary, while decreases are contractionary.
*Government acquisition of goods and services for current use to
directly satisfy individual or collective needs of the members of the
community is called government final consumption expenditure
(GFCE.). It consists of the value of the goods and services produced by
the government itself other than own-account capital formation and sales
and of purchases by the government of goods and services produced by
market producers that are supplied to households - without any
transformation – as "social transfers" in kind.
Transfer payments :
*Government expenditures that are not acquisition of goods and
services, and instead just represent transfers of money, such as social
security payments, are called transfer payments.
*These payments are considered to be exhaustive because they do not
directly absorb resources or create output. In other words, the transfer is
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made without any exchange of goods or services. Examples of certain
transfer payments include welfare (financial aid), social security, and
government giving subsidies to certain businesses(firms).
Q.96 In context with the debentures, consider the following statements:
1) These represent credit to the company
2) It is a form of certificate issued under the seal of the company
3) These are issued against the assets of company
4) Theses are not secured
Codes:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,4
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
*In corporate finance, a debenture is a medium to long-term
debt instrument used by large companies to borrow money, at a fixed
rate of interest.
The legal term "debenture" originally referred to a document that either
creates a debt or acknowledges it, but in some countries the term is now
used interchangeably with bond, loan stock or note.
*A debenture is thus like a certificate of loan or a loan bond evidencing
the fact that the company is liable to pay a specified amount with interest
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EXPLANATIONS
and although the money raised by the debentures becomes a part of the
company's capital structure, it does not become share capital.
*Debentures are generally freely transferable by the debenture holder.
Debenture holders have no rights to vote in the company's general
meetings of shareholders, but they may have separate meetings or
votes e.g. on changes to the rights attached to the debentures. The
interest paid to them is a charge against profit in the company's financial
statements.
 A movable property.
 Issued by the company in the form of a certificate of indebtedness.
 It generally specifies the date of redemption, repayment of principal
and interest on specified dates.
 May or may not create a charge on the assets of the company
There are two types of debentures:
1. Convertible debentures, which are convertible bonds or bonds that

can be converted into equity shares of the issuing company after a
predetermined period of time. "Convertibility" is a feature that
corporations may add to the bonds they issue to make them more
attractive to buyers. In other words, it is a special feature that a
corporate bond may carry. As a result of the advantage a buyer
gets from the ability to convert, convertible bonds typically have
lower interest rates than non-convertible corporate bonds.
2. Non-convertible debentures, which are simply regular debentures,
cannot be converted into equity shares of the liable company.
They are debentures without the convertibility feature attached to
them. As a result, they usually carry higher interest rates than their
convertible counterparts.
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Q.97 Statements:
1) DICGC insures all the deposit accounts of the foreign governments
2) Primary Agriculture cooperative Societies are secured by the DICGC
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. D
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation ( DICGC) is a
subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India. It was established on 1961 under
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961 for the
purpose of providing insurance of deposits and guaranteeing of credit
facilities. DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as saving, fixed,
current, recurring deposits for up to the limit of Rs. 100,000 of each
deposits in a bank.
Banks covered by Deposit Insurance Scheme
(I) All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks
functioning in India, Local Area Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
(II) Co-operative Banks - All eligible co-operative banks as defined in
Section 2(gg) of the DICGC Act are covered by the Deposit Insurance
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Scheme. All State, Central and Primary co-operative banks functioning
in the States/Union Territories which have amended their Co-operative
Societies Act as required under the DICGC Act, 1961, empowering RBI
to order the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of the respective
States/Union Territories to wind up a co-operative bank or to supersede
its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take any
action for winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative
bank without prior sanction in writing from the RBI, are treated as
eligible banks. At present all Co-operative banks are covered by the
Scheme. The Union Territories of Lakshadweep and Dadra and Nagar
Haveli do not have Co-operative Banks.
The management of the Corporation vests with its Board of Directors, of
which a Deputy Governor of the RBI is the Chairman. As per the
DICGC Act, the Board shall consist of, besides the Chairman, (i) one
Officer (normally in the rank of Executive Director) of the RBI, (ii) one
Officer from the Central Government, (iii) five Directors nominated by
the Central Government in consultation with the RBI, three of whom are
persons having special knowledge of commercial banking, insurance,
commerce, industry or finance and two of whom shall be persons having
special knowledge of, or experience in co-operative banking or co-
operative movement and none of the directors should be an employee of
the Central Government, or the RBI or the Corporation or a director or
an employee of a banking company or a co-operative bank, or otherwise
actively connected with a banking company or a co-operative bank, and
(iv) four Directors, nominated by the Central Government in
consultation with the RBI, having special knowledge or practical
experience in respect of accountancy, agriculture and rural economy,
banking, co-operation, economics, finance, law or small scale industry
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or any other matter which may be considered to be useful to the
Corporation.
Types of Deposits Covered DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as
saving, fixed, current, recurring, etc. except the following types of
deposits.
(i) Deposits of foreign Governments; (ii) Deposits of Central/State
Governments; (iii) Inter-bank deposits; (iv) Deposits of the State Land
Development Banks with the State co-operative banks; (v) Any amount
due on account of and deposit received outside India; (vi) Any amount
which has been specifically exempted by the corporation with the
previous approval of the RBI.
QUESTIONS ON DICGC:
1. Which banks are insured by the DICGC?
Commercial Banks: All commercial banks including branches of foreign
banks functioning in India, local area banks and regional rural banks are
insured by the DICGC.
Cooperative Banks: All State, Central and Primary cooperative banks,
also called urban cooperative banks, functioning in States / Union
Territories which have amended the local Cooperative Societies Act
empowering the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to order the Registrar of
Cooperative Societies of the State / Union Territory to wind up a
cooperative bank or to supersede its committee of management and
requiring the Registrar not to take any action regarding winding up,
amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank without prior
sanction in writing from the RBI are covered under the Deposit
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EXPLANATIONS
Insurance Scheme. At present all co-operative banks other than those
from the State of Meghalaya and the Union Territories of Chandigarh,
Lakshadweep and Dadra and Nagar Haveli are covered by the DICGC.
Primary cooperative societies are not insured by the DICGC.
2. What does the DICGC insure?
The DICGC insures all deposits such as savings, fixed, current,
recurring, etc. deposits except the following types of deposits
(i) Deposits of foreign Governments;
(ii) Deposits of Central/State Governments;
(iii) Inter-bank deposits;
(iv) Deposits of the State Land Development Banks with the State co-
operative bank;
(v) Any amount due on account of and deposit received outside India
(vi) Any amount, which has been specifically exempted by the
corporation with the previous approval of Reserve Bank of India
3. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by the DICGC?
Each depositor in a bank is insured up to a maximum of 1,00,000
(Rupees One Lakh) for both principal and interest amount held by him
in the same right and same capacity as on the date of
liquidation/cancellation of bank's licence or the date on which the
scheme of amalgamation/merger/reconstruction comes into force.
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4. How will you know whether your bank is insured by the DICGC or
not?
The DICGC while registering the banks as insured banks furnishes them
with printed leaflets for display giving information relating to the
protection afforded by the Corporation to the depositors of the insured
banks. In case of doubt, depositor should make specific enquiry from the
branch official in this regard.
5. What is the ceiling on amount of Insured deposits kept by one person
in different branches of a bank?
The deposits kept in different branches of a bank are aggregated for the
purpose of insurance cover and a maximum amount up to Rupees one
lakh is paid.
6. Does the DICGC insure just the principal on an account or both
principal and accrued interest?
The DICGC insures principal and interest up to a maximum amount of
One lakh. For example, if an individual had an account with a principal
amount of 95,000 plus accrued interest of 4,000, the total amount
insured by the DICGC would be 99,000. If, however, the principal
amount in that account was One lakh, the accrued interest would not be
insured, not because it was interest but because that was the amount over
the insurance limit.
7. Can deposit insurance be increased by depositing funds into several
different accounts all at the same bank?
All funds held in the same type of ownership at the same bank are added
together before deposit insurance is determined. If the funds are in
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EXPLANATIONS
different types of ownership or are deposited into separate banks they
would then be separately insured.
8. Are deposits in different banks separately insured?
Yes. If you have deposits with more than one bank, deposit insurance
coverage limit is applied separately to the deposits in each bank.
9. If I have my funds on deposit at two different banks, and those two
banks are closed on the same day, are my funds added together, or
insured separately?
Your funds from each bank would be insured separately, regardless of
the date of closure.
10. What is the meaning of deposits held in the same capacity and same
right; and deposits held in different capacity and different right?
If an individual opens more than one deposit account in one or more
branches of a bank for example, Shri S.K. Pandit opens one or more
savings/current account and one or more fixed/recurring deposit
accounts etc., all these are considered as accounts held in the same
capacity and in the same right. Therefore, the balances in all these
accounts are aggregated and insurance cover is available up to rupees
one lakh in maximum.
Q.98 Which of the following is/are the part of the Revenue expenditure ?
1) Interest paid by the Government on all the internal & External loans
2) Money spent for maintaining law & order of the country
3) Money spent on social services like Health & Education etc
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4) Purchase of the equipments for the Defence services
Codes:
A) 1,2,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. C
Capital expenditure or capital expense (CAPEX) is an expense where
the benefit continues over a long period, rather than being exhausted in a
short period. Such expenditure is of a non-recurring nature and results in
acquisition of permanent assets. It is thus distinct from a recurring
expense.
CAPEX are used by a company to acquire or upgrade physical
assets such as property, industrial buildings or equipment (PP&E).
A revenue expenditure is an amount that is expensed immediately—
thereby being matched with revenues of the current accounting period.
*Routine repairs are revenue expenditures because they are charged
directly to an account such as Repairs and Maintenance Expense. Even
significant repairs that do not extend the life of the asset or do not
improve the asset (the repairs merely return the asset back to its previous
condition) are revenue expenditures.
Q.99 Which of the following has been taken into account for the
financial assistance according to the Gadgil formula ?
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1) Per capita income
2) Problems of the state
3) Fiscal management
4) Female illiteracy
5) Population control
6) state’s Population
Codes:
A) 1,3,4,5,6
B) 1,2,4,5,6
C) 1,4,5,6
D) 1,2,3,4,5,6
Ans. D
*The Gadgil formula was formulated with the formulation of the fourth
five-year plan for the distribution of plan transfers amongst the states.
*It was named after the then deputy chairman of the Planning
Commission Dr. D R Gadgil.
*The central assistance provided for in the first three plans and annual
plans of 1966-1969 lacked objectivity in its formulation and did not lead
to equal and balanced growth in the states.The National Development
Council (NDC) approved the following formula:
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1. Special Category states like Assam, Jammu and
Kashmir and Nagaland were given preference. Their needs should first
be met out of the total pool of Central assistance.
2. The remaining balance of the Central assistance should be distributed
among the remaining States on the basis of the following criteria:
60 per cent on the basis of population;
10 per cent on the basis of tax effort, determined on the basis of
individual State's per capita tax receipts as percentage of the State's per
capita income;
10 per cent on the basis of per capita State income, assistance going only
to States whose per capita incomes are below the national average;
10 per cent on the basis of spill-over into the Fourth Plan of major
continuing irrigation and power projects;
10 per cent for special problems of individual States.
Reasoning behind the given weights:
i. Population
In a country like India population acts as an apt measure to represent the
requirements of the people because a major portion of the population
lives below the poverty line. This proposition was also supported by the
empirical data which showed a negative correlation between population
of states and their per capita income.
ii. Tax effort
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This is an important factor to measure the potential of the state as far as
its own resources are concerned. This relative measure incentivizes the
states to undertake measures to increase their own potential through
various tax measures.
iii. State per capita income
A problem regarding unequal development amongst the states was faced
in the earlier plans because of larger states with their large plans were
able to get a larger share of resources from the centre. This led to
increased inequalities amongst the states. Therefore, to make the
distribution fairer to the smaller states with a lesser than national per
capita average income were given extra share in the resources.
iv. Special Problems
This factor was introduced so as to provide enough resources to states to
overcome problems like droughts, famines etc. In the absence of this
share, such states would have suffered huge losses because of these
problems and the implementation of their plans could have been
hindered. This was a discretionary element in the formula which
required proper scrutiny of the states situation by the Finance
Commission.
v. Irrigation and power projects
These projects have been in the process of implementation before the
fourth plan was formulated. They needed extra resources for the
successful completion of these projects.
Q.100 Statements:
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EXPLANATIONS
1) Every form of money may be called as revenue if it increases
financial liability
2) Non tax revenue receipts are those that are received by taxing the
public
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. D
*Revenue is that income that does not increase the financial liability
*Non tax revenue receipts are those that are generated by taxing the
public
*Non-tax revenue or non-tax receipts are government revenue not
generated from taxes.
 Examples : Aid from another level of government (intragovernmental

aid): in the United States, federal grants may be considered non-tax
revenue to the receiving states, and equalization payments
 Aid from abroad (foreign aid)
 Tribute or indemnities paid by a weaker state to a stronger one, often
as a condition of peace after suffering military defeat. The war
reparations paid by the defeated Central Powers after the First World
War offer a well-known example.
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 Loans, or other borrowing, from monetary funds and/or
other governments
 Revenue from state-owned enterprises (for example, revenue
from Public Sector Unions)
 Revenue (including interest or profit) from investment
funds (collective investment schemes), sovereign wealth funds, or
endowments
 Revenues from sales of state assets
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Q.1 Who among the following are the members of the Eurasian
Economic Union (EEU) ?
1. Russia
2. Belarus
3. Kazakhstan
4. Armenia
5.Kyrgyzstan
Which among the following is/are correct ?
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
* A treaty aiming for the establishment of the EEU was signed on 29
May 2014 by the leaders of Belarus, Kazakhstan and Russia, and came
into force on 1 January 2015.
*Treaties aiming for Armenia's and Kyrgyzstan's accession to the
Eurasian Economic Union were signed on 9 October 2014 and 23
December, respectively.
*Armenia's accession treaty came into force on 2 January 2015.
Kyrgyzstan's accession treaty came into effect on 6 August 2015. It
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EXPLANATIONS
participated in the EEU from the day of its establishment as an acceding
state.
*Two EAEU member states—Belarus and Russia—form a political
union: the Union State; and all EAEU member states participate in
the Collective Security Treaty Organization, an intergovernmental
mutual defense alliance.
*The Eurasian Economic Union has an integrated single market of 183
million people and a gross domestic product of over 4 trillion U.S.
dollars (PPP).
*The EEU introduces the free movement of goods, capital, services and
people and provides for common transport, agriculture and energy
policies, with provisions for a single currency and greater integration in
the future.
*The union operates through supranational and intergovernmental
institutions. The Supreme Eurasian Economic Council is the "Supreme
Body" of the Union, consisting of the Heads of the Member States. The
other supranational institutions are the Eurasian Commission(the
executive body), the Eurasian Intergovernmental Council (consisting of
the Prime Ministers of member states) and the Court of the EEU (the
judicial body).
*A Treaty on a Single Economic Space by Belarus, Kazakhstan, Russia
and Ukraine was signed in 2003 and ratified in 2004, but the process
was stalled after the Orange revolution.
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EXPLANATIONS
*In May 2015 an integration agreement was signed between the Russian
Federation and South Ossetia, if South Ossetia were to join it would be
by acceding to the Russian Federation.
*Uzbekistan remains hesitant to join the Economic Union, with Uzbek
officials making opposing claims on the prospect of integration.
* The council is composed of the Vice Prime Ministers of the member
states. The council of the Commission oversees the integration processes
in the Union, and is responsible for the overall management of the
Eurasian Commission.
*It monitors the commission by approving the draft budget of the union,
the maximum number of personnel, and the qualification requirements
for the commission's employees. The council convenes once every
quarter.
*The Court of the Eurasian Economic Union replaced the Court of
the Eurasian Economic Community (EurAsEC Court) in 2015.
*It is in charge of dispute resolution and the interpretation of the legal
order within the Eurasian Economic Union. Its headquarters is in Minsk.
The court is composed of two judges from each member state, appointed
by the heads of government of the member states. Their term of office is
nine years.
* The most renowned railway in the union is the Trans-Siberian
Railway which links the Russian Far East to Moscow. The Southern
route also travels via Kazakhstan.
*A number of other regional organisations also provide the basis for
further integration: the Union State of Russia and Belarus; the Collective
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EXPLANATIONS
Security Treaty Organisation, consisting of Armenia, Belarus,
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan; and the Commonwealth
of Independent States comprising most of the post-Soviet countries.
Q.2 Which among the following diseases are covered under the Mission
Indradhanush ?
1. Diphtheria
2. Whooping Cough
3. Tetanus
4. Polio
5. Tuberculosis
6. Measles
7. Hepatitis B
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4,5
C) Only 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
Ans. D
*It aims to immunize all children against seven vaccine preventable
diseases namely diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio,
tuberculosis, measles and hepatitis B by 2020.
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EXPLANATIONS
*In addition to this, vaccines for Japanese Encephalitis (JE), rotavac and
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HIB) are also being provided in
selected states.
Q.3 Which among the following are the ratified countries of Global
Arms Trade Treaty ?
1. France
2. Germany
3. Italy
4. Spain
5. UK
6. India
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4,5,6
C) 1,2,3,4,5
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. C
*The Arms Trade Treaty (ATT) is a multilateral treaty that regulates the
international trade in conventional weapons.
*It entered into force on 24 December 2014. Eighty-seven states
have ratified the treaty, and a further 46 states have signed but not
ratified it.
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EXPLANATIONS
*The ATT is an attempt to regulate the international trade of
conventional weapons for the purpose of contributing to international
and regional peace, reducing human suffering, and promoting co-
operation, transparency and responsible action by and among states.
* In 2001, the process continued with the adoption of a non-legally
binding program of action at the United Nations Conference on the Illicit
Trade in Small Arms. This program was formally called the
"Programme of Action to Prevent, Combat and Eradicate the Illicit
Trade in Small Arms and Light Weapons in All Its Aspects" (PoA).
*The UN General Assembly of 2 April 2013 (71st Plenary
Meeting) adopted the Arms Trade Treaty as a resolution by a 154-to-3
vote with 23 abstentions. North Korea, Iran, and Syria voted in
opposition.
*China and Russia, among the world's leaders in weapon exports, were
among the 23 nations that abstained.
*Cuba, India, Indonesia, Myanmar, Nicaragua, Saudi Arabia,
and Sudan also abstained. Armenia, Dominican Republic, Venezuela
and Vietnam did not vote.
*Advocates of the treaty say that it only pertains to international arms
trade, and would have no effect on current domestic laws. These
advocates point to the UN General Assembly resolution starting the
process on the Arms Trade Treaty. The resolution explicitly states that it
is “the exclusive right of States to regulate internal transfers of arms and
national ownership, including through constitutional protections on
private ownership.”
*International non-government and human rights organizations
including Amnesty International, Oxfam, the Arias Foundation for Peace
and Human Progress, Safer world and the International Action Network
on Small Arms (who lead the Control Arms Campaign) have developed
analysis on what an effective Arms Trade Treaty would look like.
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.4 What does the term Test Tube baby means ?
A) Fertilisation of ovum takes place in the test tub but it develops in
uterus
B) Fertilisation of ovum takes place in the test tube & develops in the
test tube itself
C) Fertilisation of ovum takes place in uterus but develops in the test
tube
D) Fertilisation of ovum takes place in uterus & embryo develops in
uterus
Ans. A
Biomarkers that affect the pregnancy chances of IVF(In-Vitro
Fertiisation) include:
 Antral follicle count, with higher count giving higher success rates.
 Anti-Müllerian hormone levels, with higher levels indicating higher
chances of pregnancy, as well as of live birth after IVF, even after
adjusting for age.
 Factors of semen quality for the sperm provider.
 Level of DNA fragmentation as measured e.g. by Comet
assay, advanced maternal age and semen quality.
 Women with ovary-specific FMR1 genotypes including het-
norm/low have significantly decreased pregnancy chances in IVF.
 Progesterone elevation (PE) on the day of induction of final
maturation is associated with lower pregnancy rates in IVF cycles in
women undergoing ovarian stimulation using GnRH analogues and
gonadotrophins.
Other determinants of outcome of IVF include:
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EXPLANATIONS
 Tobacco smoking reduces the chances of IVF producing a live birth
by 34% and increases the risk of an IVF pregnancy miscarrying by
30%.
 A body mass index (BMI) over 27 causes a 33% decrease in
likelihood to have a live birth after the first cycle of IVF. Ideal body
mass index is 19–30.
 Salpingectomy or laparoscopic tubal occlusion before IVF treatment
increases chances for women with hydrosalpinges
 Success with previous pregnancy and/or live birth increases chances
 Low alcohol/caffeine intake increases success rate
 The number of embryos transferred in the treatment cycle.
 Embryo quality

1. Policy of pray & petition of the congress was criticized by the only
Lala Lajpat Rai
2. This policy came to an end under the guidance of the Bal Gangadhar
Tilak
Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. B
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Policy of pray & petition of the congress was criticized by the Lala
Lajpat Rai & Aurobindo Ghosh.
Q.6 With reference to the August movement consider the following
statements :
1. Involvement of peasants made the struggle more fierce
2. There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas
3. Lord Linlithgow described this movement as the most serious
rebellion since sepoy mutiny
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
1. Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he should invite to form the
government as an alternative to the partition of India
2. This move was welcomed by the Congress members
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
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EXPLANATIONS
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
This move was criticised by the Congress members
Q.8 With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following
statements is/are correct?
A) The resignation letter of the Lok Sabha Speaker, when he resigns
from his office, is addressed to the President of India
B) The quorum to constitute a meeting of the Lok Sabha shall be one-
tenth of the total members of the House, while the quorum to constitute
a meeting of the Rajya Sabha shall be one-twentieth of the total
members of the House
C) If a person sits or votes as a Member of either House of Parliament
before he makes oath or affirmation under Article 99, he shall be liable
in respect of each day on which he sits or votes to a penalty of five
hundred rupees as a debt due to the union
D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a
resolution of the House passed by a two-thirds majority of the House by
giving him at least one month’s notice of the intention to move the
resolution
Ans. B
Q.9 With reference to the presidential election in India, consider the
following statements:
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EXPLANATIONS
1. The nomination paper of a candidate for the presidential election
should be signed by at least 50 electors as proposers and another 50 as
seconders
2. The prescribed security deposit in the presidential election is Rs.
25,000
Codes:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C
* The President is indirectly elected by the people through elected
members of both the houses of Parliament, the Legislative Assemblies of
all the states of India and the Legislative Assemblies of the union
territories of New Delhi and Puducherry and serves for a renewable term
of five years.
*The oath of the President is taken in the presence of the Chief Justice of
India, and in his/her absence, by the most senior judge of the Supreme
Court.
*Although Article 53 of the Constitution of India states that the
President can exercise his powers directly or by subordinate
authority, with few exceptions, all of the executive authority vested in
the President are, in practice, exercised by the Prime Minister with the
help of the Council of Ministers.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.10 Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the
appointments of a commission to investigate the conditions for the
improvement of
A) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
B) Socially and educationally backward classes
C) Socially and economically backward classes
D) Educationally and economically backward classes
Ans. B
Q.11 Why did Dutch East India company fail to maintain its influence in
India?
A) Portuguese did not allow them to trade in India
B There was a growing interference of Dutch Government in the
company’s internal affairs
C) Dutch indulged in forcible religious conversion of the people and
thus were expelled by local kings
D) The English forces made them to leave India
Ans. D
Q.12 Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the
Supreme Court of India shall be in English language ?
A) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966
B) A Legislation made by the Parliament
C) Article 145 of the Constitution of India
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EXPLANATIONS
D) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
Ans. D
Q.13 Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the
FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t
article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of
any of the FR.
Which among the following are correct ?
A) 1 only.
B) 2 only.
C) Both are correct
Ans. D
Only President can suspend this right during national emergency. HC

can also issue writs for enforcement of FR.
Q.14 Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative

authorities ?
A) Prohibition, Certiorari & Mandamus.
B) Certiorari & Mandamus.
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EXPLANATIONS
C) Prohibition & Mandamus.
D) Prohibition & Certiorari.
Ans. B
Mandamus :
*Mandamus ("We command") is a judicial remedy in the form of an

order from a superior court, to any government subordinate
court, corporation, or public authority—to do (or forbear from doing)
some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do (or refrain
from doing)—and which is in the nature of public duty, and in certain
cases one of a statutory duty.
*It cannot be issued to compel an authority to do something against

statutory provision. For example, it cannot be used to force a lower
court to reject or authorize applications that have been made, but if the
court refuses to rule one way or the other then a mandamus can be used
to order the court to rule on the applications.
Mandamus may be a command to do an administrative action or not to

take a particular action, and it is supplemented by legal rights.
Writ of prohibition :
*A writ of prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate to stop doing

something the law prohibits.
* This writ is often issued by a superior court to the lower court asking it
not to proceed with a case which does not fall under its jurisdiction.
* A writ of prohibition may be directed by any court of record (i.e.,

higher than a misdemeanor court) toward any official body, whether a
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
court or a county, city or town government, that is within the court's
jurisdiction.
*A writ of prohibition is issued primarily to prevent an inferior court

or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction in cases pending before it or
acting contrary to the rules of natural justice.
*It is issued by a superior court to inferior courts from usurping a

jurisdiction with which it was not legally vested, or in other words to
compel inferior courts to keep within the limits of their jurisdiction.
Thus the writ is issued in both cases where there is excess of jurisdiction
and where there is absence of jurisdiction (S. Govind Menon vs. union
of India, AIR 1967 SC 1274).
*Prohibition is not a continuation of the proceedings to be prohibited.
*Its object is on the contrary to arrest the inferior tribunal's proceedings.
*It is a collateral matter progress essentially between the two tribunals,

an inferior one and other superior one by which the latter, by virtue its
power of superintendence over the former, restrains it within its rightful
competence.
*Its nature is held to depend upon the nature of proceeding to be

prohibited.
*The writ can be issued only when the proceedings are pending in a
court if the proceeding has matured into decision, writ will not lie.
When the court, before whom the matter is pending, has ceased to exist,
in that condition too, the writ of prohibition will not lie because there
can be no proceedings upon which it can operate but on the other hand,
if the court is functioning, the writ can be issued at any stage of the
proceeding before the inferior court or tribunal.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*It can be issued only against a judicial and quasi-judicial bodyand not
against a legislative or administrative body.
Ceritorari :
It is issued by a superior court, directing an inferior court, tribunal, or

other public authority to send the record of a proceeding for review.
Q.15 Which among the following statements regarding Durand line are
correct ?
1) It is known to have established the Great Game buffer zone between
British & Russian interests
2) It carved out new province called North-West Frontier Province
3) It defines the territories of Afghanistan & Pakistan
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Durand Line : international border between Pakistan and Afghanistan.
*It was established in 1893 between Sir Mortimer Durand, a British
diplomat and civil servant of British India, and Abdur Rahman Khan,
the Afghan Amir, to fix the limit of their respective spheres of
influence and improve diplomatic relations and trade.
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EXPLANATIONS
*Afghanistan was considered by the British as an independent princely
state at the time, although the British controlled its foreign
affairs and diplomatic relations.
*The Durand Line cuts through the Pashtun tribal areas and further south
through the Balochistan region, politically dividing ethnic Pashtuns, as
well as the Baloch and other ethnic groups, who live on both sides of the
border.
*It demarcates Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, the Federally Administered Tribal
Areas, Balochistan and Gilgit-Baltistan of northern and western Pakistan
from the northeastern and southern provinces of Afghanistan.
Q.16 Which among the following demands were placed by the INC in
Indian Council Act 1892 ?
1) Opposition to the annexation of the upper Burma
2) Reduction in the military expenditure
3) Reforms of the legislative council & adoption of the principle of
election
4) Right to the discussion on budget matters
Codes:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
The Indian Councils Act 1892 was an Act of the Parliament of the
United Kingdom that authorized an increase in the size of the
various legislative councils in British India.
*Enacted due to the demand of the Indian National Congress to expand
legislative council, the number of non-official members was increased
both in central and provincial legislative councils.
*The non official members of Indian legislative councils were
henceforth to be nominated by Bengal chamber of commerce and
provincial legislative council.
*The universities, district board, municipalities, zamindars and
chambers of commerce were empowered to recommend members to
provincial councils. Thus was introduced the principle of representation.
It also relaxed restrictions imposed by the Indian Councils Act 1861,
thus allowing the councils to discuss each year's annual financial
statement.
Q.17 Which of the following resolutions took place during the Lord
Minto era ?
1) Resolution of partition of Bengal
2) Resolution on Swadeshi
3) Resolution on swaraj
4) Resolution on boycott
Codes:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
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EXPLANATIONS
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
1. Press Council of India provides accreditation to media representatives
including foreign media
2. Chairman of the Press Council of Indi, by convention, is retired judge
of the Supreme Court of India
Codes:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. B
Q.19 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Election Commissioners cannot be removed from their office except
on recommendations by the Chief Election Commissioner
B) In case of difference of opinion among the Chief Election
Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, the matter is decided
by the Law Commission
C) The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioner
enjoy equal powers
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EXPLANATIONS
D) The term of office of an Election Commissioner is six years from the
date he assumes office or till the day he attains the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier
Ans. B
Q.20 Consider the statements relating to the Social Audit:
1) It contains Financial & non-financial resources that could be used by
the public agencies.
2) For awarenes generation under MNREGA every state govt is
required to undertake the exercise to publicise the key provisions of the
schemes.
3) It facilitate verification of the records with stakeholders/beneficiaries.
4) The Village resource persons are deployed for social audit.
Options:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,4
D) All are correct
Ans. D
*Social audit is a process of reviewing official records and determining
whether state reported expenditures reflect the actual money spent on the
ground.
*Civil society organisations (CSOs), non-governmental organisations
(NGOs), political representatives, civil servants and workers of
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Dungarpur district of Rajasthan and Anantapur district of Andhra
Pradesh collectively organise such social audits to prevent mass
corruption under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).
Q.21 Consider the following events in cellular respiration in higher
plants :
1. Citric acid cycle
2.Electron Transport System
3. Glycolysis
Correct sequence of these events is :
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,3,2
C) 3,2,1
D) 3,1,2
Ans.B
Q.22 Amnesty International is a
A) Human rights group
B) UN agency to fight global terrorism
C) Refugee camp in Croatia
D) Wing of the World Bank
Ans. A
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.23 In an inflorescence the main axis forms a cup shaped receptacle
with a small opening at the top & the flowers are enclosed within the
cup in cymose groups. The type of inflorescense in question is :
A) Cyathium
B) Hyoanthodium
C) Umbel
D) Verticilaster
Ans.B
Q.24 With reference to the Indian economy , consider the following
statements :
1. Share of agriculture in GDP has diminished by more than half sonce
independence of the country
2. At present the share of service sector accounts for around half of GDP
3. The GDP geowth average was higher in 1990s as compared to that of
1980s
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
Q.25 Which is not the feature of Mauryan dynasty in India ?
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EXPLANATIONS
1. Widespread education
2. Provincial administration
3. Biggest empire during that period in India
4. Use of gold, silver & copper coins
Options :
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 2
C) Only 4
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. A
Q.26 What do you understand by the term Stock Farming ?
A) Concentration on cattle & sheep rearing
B) Commercial farming which involves massive capital investment
C) Cooperative farming on equity basis
D) Boost up agricultural production to gain buffer stock
Ans. A
Q.27 South Pennai river flows in which of the following districts ?
A) Dharmapuri – Thiruvannamalai
B) Dharmapuri – Salem
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EXPLANATIONS
C) Thiruvanamalai – Cuddalore
D) Thiruvannamalai – Kanchipuram
Ans. C
Q.28 Khilafat movement subsided because of the :
A) Concessions & rights of Harijans
B) Civil disobedience movement
C) Maintaining the unity of Hindu society
D) Solving the problem of Indigo workers
Ans. C
*The Khilafat movement (1919–22) was a pan-Islamic, political protest
campaign launched by Muslims in British India to influence the British
government.
*The movement became the reason for separation from mainland India
of an Islamic Pakistan, in the process unleashing tremendous separation-
trauma, mainly upon ethnic Punjabis.
*The subsequent murder of Gandhi in India was also the indirect fallout
of the Khilafat Movement.
*The movement was a topic in Conference of London (February 1920);
however, Arabs saw it as threat of continuation of Turkish dominance of
Arab lands.
*The position of Caliph after the Armistice of Mudros of October 1918
with the military occupation of Istanbul and Treaty of Versailles(1919)
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
fell into a disambiguation along with the Ottoman Empire's existence.
The movement gained force after the Treaty of Sèvres(August 1920)
which imposed the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire and gave Greece
a powerful position in Anatolia, to the distress of the Turks.
*The movement collapsed by late 1922 when Turkey gained a more
favourable diplomatic position and moved toward secularism. By 1924
Turkey simply abolished the roles of Sultan and Caliph.
Q.29 The most essential factors among the following for developing
inbred lines in farm animals :
1. There should be a considerably large size of herd
2. The herds should not carry any detrimental genes
3. The animals should have been tested for progeny
4. The crossbreds should be of outstanding kind
Options :
A) 1 & 2
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,2,4
D) 2 & 4
Ans. A
*Inbreeding may result in a greater than expected phenotypic expression
of deleterious recessive alleles within a population. As a result, first-
generation inbred individuals are more likely to show physical and
health defects, including:
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EXPLANATIONS
 Reduced fertility both in litter size and sperm viability
 Increased genetic disorders
 Fluctuating facial asymmetry
 Lower birth rate
 Higher infant mortality
 Smaller adult size
 Loss of immune system function
Linebreeding is a form of inbreeding. There is no clear distinction

between the two terms, but line-breeding may encompass crosses
between individuals and their descendants or two cousins.
Outcrossing is where two unrelated individuals are crossed to produce
progeny. In outcrossing, unless there is verifiable genetic information,
one may find that all individuals are distantly related to an ancient
progenitor.
Q.30 Which among the following statement regarding No-Confidence
Motion is not correct ?
A) No confidence motion has no mention in our constitution
B) No confidence motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha only
C) To introduce a no-confidence motion in Parliament a minimum of
200 members must support it
D) Two successive no-confidence motions must have a minimum of six
months
Ans. C
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*No-confidence motion is a statement or vote that a person or persons in
a position of responsibility (government, managerial, etc.) is no longer
deemed fit to hold that position: perhaps because they are inadequate in
some respect, are failing to carry out obligations, or are making
decisions that other members feel are detrimental. As a parliamentary
motion, it demonstrates to the head of state that the elected parliament
no longer has confidence in (one or more members of) the
appointed government.
A censure motion is different from a no-confidence motion. Depending
on the constitution of the body concerned, "No Confidence" may lead to
compulsory resignation of the council of ministers or other position-
holder(s), whereas "Censure" is meant to show disapproval and does not
result in the resignation of ministers. The censure motion can be against
an individual minister or a group of ministers, but the no-confidence
motion is directed against the entire cabinet. Again, depending on the
applicable rules, censure motions may need to state the reasons for the
motion while no-confidence motions may not require reasons to be
specified.
In India, a Motion of No Confidence can be introduced only in the Lok

Sabha (the lower house of the Parliament of India). The motion is
admitted for discussion when a minimum of fifty members of the house
support the motion.[2] If the motion carries, the house debates and votes
on the motion. If a majority of the members of the house vote in favour
of the motion, the motion is passed and the Government is bound to
vacate the office. Acharya Kripalani moved the first-ever No confidence
motion on the floor of the Lok Sabha in August 1963, immediately after
the disastrous India-China War.
Q.31 Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Solid matter in human bones are mainly of cartilage
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
2. Human bones comprises 40 % water
3. Human bones gain hardness by impregation of salts including

carbonates & phosphates of lime
4. As human grows the proportion of lime increases & this makes the
bone becomes
Options :
A) 1 & 3
B) 1,3,4
C) 1 & 4
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. A
Q.32 What does the term G-7 signify ?
A) Developed countries within the world bank
B) Undeveloped countries within the UNDP
C) Undeveloped countries within EEC
D) Developed countries within IMF
Ans. D
*G7 (Group of Seven) is a group of seven industrialized nations of the
world, formed by Canada, USA, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, and the
UK. ("G6" refers to the same group minus Canada).
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EXPLANATIONS
G7 also currently refers to the former G8 forum, following the
suspension of Russia from the G8 in 2014.
Q.33 Gandhiji resorted to Champaran movement for :
A) Security & rights of Harijans
B) Civil disobedience movement
C) Maintaining unity of Hindu society
D) Solving the problem of Indigo workers
Ans. D
* The first Satyagraha movements inspired by Mahatma
Gandhi occurred in Champaran district of Bihar and the Kheda district
of Gujarat on 1917 to 1918.
*Champaran Satyagraha was the first to be started, but the word
Satyagraha was used for the first time in Anti Rowlatt Act agitation.
*Tens of thousands of landless serfs, indentured labourers and poor
farmers were forced to grow indigo and other cash crops instead of the
food crops which were necessary for their survival. These goods were
bought from them at a very low price. Suppressed by the ruthless
militias of the landlords (mostly British), they were given measly
compensation, leaving them in extreme poverty. Now in the throes of a
devastating famine, the British levied a harsh tax which they insisted on
increasing the rate. Without food and without money, the situation was
growing progressively unlivable and the peasants in Champaran revolted
against conditions in indigo plant cultivation in 1914 (at Pipra) and in
1916 at (Turkaulia).
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EXPLANATIONS
*Raj Kumar Shukla, an indigo cultivator, persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to
go to Champaran and thus, the Champaran Satyagraha began. Gandhi ji
arrived in Champaran 10 April 1917 with a team of eminent
lawyers: Brajkishore Prasad, Rajendra Prasad, Anugrah Narayan
Sinha and others including Acharya Kripalani.
Q.34 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
1. Yellow fever : Aedes Mosquito
2. Biharzia : Water Snail
3. Kalaazar : Sand Flies
Options :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Q.35 Temporary control of Inflation can be effected by ;
A) Increasing the prices
B) Restrain on the growth of money supply
C) Increasing the taxes
D) Reducing the prices
Ans. C
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.36 What would be the effect of the seismic wave created near the
centre of the earth & perpendicular to place ?
A) Propagate in the same direction
B) Propagate in all directions
C) Reflected back from the surface of the earth & will be destroyed at
the centre
D) Get refracted on a certain region on earth
Ans. B
Q.37 Which of the following is not immunized bt Triple Antigens ?
A) Typhoid
B) Whooping Cough
C) Tetanus
D) Diphtheria
Ans. A
Q.38 For purpose of International payment the Indian currency is linked
to :
A) Gold standard
B) Basket of currencies
C) American dollar
D) Patro dollar
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
Q.39 What is inter-cropping ?
A) Sowing two crops at a time
B) Sowing two crops one after the other
C) Sowing the crops with some gap of time in between
D) Sowing the crops in different fields
Ans. A
Q.40 Which among the following is the purpose of growing plants along
the river banks ?
A) To prevent heavy rainfall
B) To prevent seepage of water underground
C) To prevent siltage & floods
D) To prevent pollution
Ans. A
Q.41 Which one among the following not an institution of Indian Money
Market?
A) Reserve Bank of India
B) Bill Brokers
C) Merchant Bankers
D) Non-Banking Financial Intermediaries
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. A
Q.42 CENVAT is designed to reimburse the user manufacturer duty paid
on inputs excluding
1. capital goods
2. raw materials
3. motor spirit
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A) 1 Only
B) 2 Only
C) 3 Only
D) 1 and 3
Ans. A
The introduction of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 served to be
instrumental in codifying the credit mechanism into a single law for
availing and utilisation of credit of taxes paid on goods as well as
services for both the manufacturers and the service providers. An annual
service tax cenvat return shall be required to be filed by specified tax
payers.
Q.43 Gadgil formula was evolved to distribute
A) taxes between the Union and States
B) plan assistance among States
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
C) amount of loans to needy States
D) grants among special category States
Ans. B
* It was evolved in 1969 for determining the allocation of central
assistance for state plans in India.
*Gadgil formula was adopted for distribution of plan assistance
during Fourth and Fifth Five Year Plans.
*The Gadgil formula was formulated with the formulation of the fourth
five-year plan for the distribution of plan transfers amongst the states.
*The National Development Council (NDC) approved the following
formula:
1. Special Category states like Assam, Jammu and
Kashmir and Nagaland were given preference. Their needs should first
be met out of the total pool of Central assistance.
2. The remaining balance of the Central assistance should be distributed
among the remaining states on the basis of the following criteria:
 60 per cent on the basis of population;

 7.5 per cent on the basis of tax effort, determined on the basis of
individual State's per capita tax receipts as percentage of the State's
per capita income;
 25 per cent on the basis of per capita state income, assistance going
only to States whose per capita incomes are below the national
average;
 7.5 per cent for special problems of individual states.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*The modified Gadgil formula continued for the Sixth and the Seventh
Plans. Compared to the allocations in the Fourth and Fifth Plans, the
allocations during the Sixth and the Seventh Plans show a definite shift
in favour of the poorer states.
*All the low income states, except Tamil Nadu, received Plan assistance
higher than the average income of the 14 states taken into consideration
at the time.
*This can certainly be attributed to the higher weightage given to per
capita income as per the modification. Per capita income serves as a
suitable proxy for changes in the economy. If the states are ranked
according to their per capita income as well as their per capita Plan
assistance and the rank correlation coefficient is worked out, it should
give a fair idea of the effectiveness of the modified Gadgil Formula in
terms of progressivity.
*The remaining 5% weightage of Tax effort has been given to The
Special problems criterion due to which its weightage increased from
10% to 15%. The NDC has defined special problems under these seven
heads:
1. Coastal areas
2. Flood and drought prone areas
3. Desert problems
4. Special environmental issues
5. Exceptionally sparse and densely populated areas
6. Problem of slums in urban areas
7. Special financial difficulties for achieving minimum reasonable
plan size.
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.44 The trade-off between inflation and unemployment is known as
A) cost-push inflation
B) demand-pull inflation
C) Phillips curve approach to inflation
D) Stagflation
Ans. C
Q.45 Which one among the following agencies is known as soft credit
window of the World Bank ?
A) The International Finance Corporation
B)The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
C) The International Development Association
D)The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
Ans. C
*The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides

loans to developing countries for capital programs.
*It comprises two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction
and Development (IBRD), and the International Development
Association (IDA).
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EXPLANATIONS
*The World Bank is a component of the World Bank Group, which is
part of the United Nations system.
*The World Bank's official goal is the reduction of poverty. However,
according to its Articles of Agreement, all its decisions must be guided
by a commitment to the promotion of foreign investment and
international trade and to the facilitation of Capital investment.
*The World Bank is different from the World Bank Group, an extended
family of five international organizations:
 International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

 International Development Association (IDA)
 International Finance Corporation (IFC)
 Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
 International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
*Various developments have brought the Millennium Development

Goals targets for 2015 within reach in some cases.
*For the goals to be realized, six criteria must be met: stronger and
more inclusive growth in Africa and fragile states, more effort in health
and education, integration of the development and environment agendas,
more as well as better aid, movement on trade negotiations, and stronger
and more focused support from multilateral institutions like the World
Bank.
1. Eradicate Extreme Poverty and Hunger: From 1990 through

2004, the proportion of people living in extreme poverty fell from
almost a third to less than a fifth. Although results vary widely
within regions and countries, the trend indicates that the world as a
whole can meet the goal of halving the percentage of people living
in poverty. Africa's poverty, however, is expected to rise, and most
of the 36 countries where 90% of the world's undernourished
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children live are in Africa. Less than a quarter of countries are on
track for achieving the goal of halving under-nutrition.
2. Achieve Universal Primary Education: The percentage of
children in school in developing countries increased from 80% in
1991 to 88% in 2005. Still, about 72 million children of primary
school age, 57% of them girls, were not being educated as of
2005.
3. Promote Gender Equality: The tide is turning slowly for women
in the labor market, yet far more women than men- worldwide
more than 60% – are contributing but unpaid family workers. The
World Bank Group Gender Action Plan was created to advance
women's economic empowerment and promote shared growth.
4. Reduce Child Mortality: There is some improvement in survival
rates globally; accelerated improvements are needed most urgently
in South Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa. An estimated 10 million-
plus children under five died in 2005; most of their deaths were
from preventable causes.
5. Improve Maternal Health: Almost all of the half million women
who die during pregnancy or childbirth every year live in Sub-
Saharan Africa and Asia. There are numerous causes of maternal
death that require a variety of health care interventions to be made
widely accessible.
6. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria, and Other Diseases: Annual
numbers of new HIV infections and AIDS deaths have fallen, but
the number of people living with HIV continues to grow. In the
eight worst-hit southern African countries, prevalence is above 15
percent. Treatment has increased globally, but still meets only 30
percent of needs (with wide variations across countries). AIDS
remains the leading cause of death in Sub-Saharan Africa
(1.6 million deaths in 2007). There are 300 to 500 million cases of
malaria each year, leading to more than 1 million deaths. Nearly
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all the cases and more than 95 percent of the deaths occur in Sub-
Saharan Africa.
7. Ensure Environmental Sustainability: Deforestation remains a
critical problem, particularly in regions of biological diversity,
which continues to decline. Greenhouse gas emissions are
increasing faster than energy technology advancement.
8. Develop a Global Partnership for Development: Donor
countries have renewed their commitment. Donors have to fulfill
their pledges to match the current rate of core program
development. Emphasis is being placed on the Bank Group's
collaboration with multilateral and local partners to quicken
progress toward the MDGs' realization.
*The World Bank has been assigned temporary management
responsibility of the Clean Technology Fund (CTF), focused on
making renewable energy cost-competitive with coal-fired power as
quickly as possible, but this may not continue after UN's Copenhagen
climate change conference in December 2009, because of the Bank's
continued investment in coal-fired power plants.
World Bank President Jim Yong Kim said in 2012 that:
"A 4 degree warmer world can, and must be, avoided – we need to
hold warming below 2 degrees .... Lack of action on climate
change threatens to make the world our children inherit a
completely different world than we are living in today. Climate
change is one of the single biggest challenges facing development,
and we need to assume the moral responsibility to take action on
behalf of future generations, especially the poorest." A World
Bank report into Climate change in 2012 noted that (p. xiii): "Even
with the current mitigation commitments and pledges fully
implemented, there is roughly a 20 percent likelihood of exceeding
4 °C by 2100." This is despite the fact that the "global community
has committed itself to holding warming below 2 °C to prevent
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'dangerous' climate change". Furthermore: "A series of recent
extreme events worldwide highlight the vulnerability of all
countries.... No nation will be immune to the impacts of climate
change.
*The Global Development Learning Network (GDLN) is a
partnership of over 120 learning centers (GDLN Affiliates) in nearly 80
countries around the world. GDLN Affiliates collaborate in holding
events that connect people across countries and regions for learning and
dialogue on development issues.
*GDLN clients are typically NGOs, government, private sector and
development agencies who find that they work better together on
subregional, regional or global development issues using the facilities
and tools offered by GDLN Affiliates.
*Clients also benefit from the ability of Affiliates to help them choose
and apply these tools effectively, and to tap development practitioners
and experts worldwide.
*GDLN Affiliates facilitate around 1000 videoconference-based
activities a year on behalf of their clients, reaching some 90,000 people
worldwide. Most of these activities bring together participants in two or
more countries over a series of sessions. A majority of GDLN activities
are organized by small government agencies and NGOs.
*The GDLN in the East Asia and Pacific region has experienced rapid
growth and Distance Learning Centers now operate, or are planned in 20
countries: Australia, Mongolia, Cambodia, China, Indonesia, Singapore,
Philippines, Sri Lanka, Japan, Papua New Guinea, South Korea,
Thailand, Laos, Timor Leste, Fiji, Afghanistan, Bangladesh, India,
Nepal and New Zealand.
*A Justice Sector Peer-Assisted Learning (JUSTPAL) Network was
launched in April 2011 by the Poverty Reduction and Economic
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EXPLANATIONS
Management (PREM) Department of the World Bank's Europe and
Central Asia (ECA) Region.
*The JUSTPAL objective is to provide an online and offline platform
for justice professionals to exchange knowledge, good practices and
peer-driven improvements to justice systems and thereby support
countries to improve their justice sector performance, quality of justice
and service delivery to citizens and businesses.
* Clean Air Initiative (CAI) is a World Bank initiative to advance
innovative ways to improve air quality in cities through partnerships in
selected regions of the world by sharing knowledge and experiences. It
includes electric vehicles.
*In the 1990s, the World Bank and the IMF forged the Washington
Consensus, policies that included deregulation and liberalization of
markets, privatization and the downscaling of government.
*Though the Washington Consensus was conceived as a policy that
would best promote development, it was criticized for ignoring equity,
employment and how reforms like privatization were carried out. Joseph
Stiglitz argued that the Washington Consensus placed too much
emphasis on the growth of GDP, and not enough on the permanence of
growth or on whether growth contributed to better living standards.
Q.46 The consumer price index is designed to measure the degree to

which :
A) incomes are distributed among the poor and rich over time
B) The cost of purchasing a bundle of consumer goods has changed with

time
C) consumption patterns have changed with. time because of higher

prices
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EXPLANATIONS
D) consumer prices have risen, relative to wages
Ans. B
*A consumer price index (CPI) measures changes in the price level of

a market basket of consumer goods and services purchased by
households.
*A CPI can be used to index (i.e., adjust for the effect of inflation) the
real value of wages, salaries, pensions, for regulating prices and for
deflating monetary magnitudes to show changes in real values. In most
countries, the CPI is, along with the population census one of the
most closely watched national economic statistics.
*The index is usually computed monthly, or quarterly in some countries,

as a weighted average of sub-indices for different components of
consumer expenditure, such as food, housing, shoes, clothing, each of
which is in turn a weighted average of sub-sub-indices.
*The index reference period, usually called the base year, often
differs both from the weight-reference period and the price reference
period. This is just a matter of rescaling the whole time-series to make
the value for the index reference-period equal to 100.
*Annually revised weights are a desirable but expensive feature of an
index, for the older the weights the greater is the divergence between the
current expenditure pattern and that of the weight reference-period.
Calculating the CPI for a single item
Current item price ($) = (base year price) * [(Current CPI) / (Base year
CPI)]
or
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EXPLANATIONS
Where 1 is usually the comparison year and CPI1 is usually an

index of 100.
Alternatively, the CPI can be performed as . The "updated cost"

(i.e. the price of an item at a given year, e.g.: the price of bread in
2010) is divided by that of the initial year (the price of bread in
1970), then multiplied by one hundred
*All countries conduct periodical Household Expenditure surveys and

all produce breakdowns of Consumption Expenditure in their National
Accounts. The expenditure classifications used there may however be
different. In particular:
 Household Expenditure surveys do not cover the expenditures of

foreign visitors, though these may be within the scope of a Consumer
Price Index.
 National Accounts include imputed rents for owner-occupied
dwellings which may not be within the scope of a Consumer Price
Index.
Even with the necessary adjustments, the National Account estimates
and Household Expenditure Surveys usually diverge.
*Opportunity cost can be looked at in two ways, since there are two
alternatives to continuing to live in an owner-occupied dwelling. One —
supposing that it is one year's cost that is to be considered — is to sell it,
earn interest on the owner's capital thus released, and buy it back a year
later, making an allowance for its physical depreciation. This can be
called the "alternative cost" approach.
The other, the "rental equivalent" approach, is to let it to someone
else for the year, in which case the cost is the rent that could be obtained
for it.
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EXPLANATIONS
Transaction Prices :
*This approach simply treats the acquisition of owner-occupied
dwellings in the same way as acquisitions of other durable products are
treated. This means: Taking account of the transaction prices agreed;
 Ignoring whether payments are delayed or are partly financed by

borrowing;
 Leaving out second-hand transactions. Second-hand purchases
correspond to sales by other consumers. Thus only new dwellings
would be included.
Q.47 Which one among the following best explains Money.?
A) It is a medium for producing capital goods
B) It is a means for redistributing wealth among people
C) It is a common denominator for measuring value
D) It is a mechanism for resource allocation

Ans. C
*Money is any item or verifiable record that is generally accepted
as payment for goods and services and repayment of debts in a
particular country or socio-economic context, or is easily converted to
such a form.
*The main functions of money are distinguished as: a medium of
exchange; a unit of account; a store of value; and, sometimes, a standard
of deferred payment. Any item or verifiable record that fulfills these
functions can be considered as money.
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EXPLANATIONS
*Money is historically an emergent market phenomenon establishing
a commodity money, but nearly all contemporary money systems are
based on fiat money.
*Fiat money, like any check or note of debt, is without use value as a
physical commodity.
*The use of barter-like methods may date back to at least 100,000 years
ago, though there is no evidence of a society or economy that relied
primarily on barter. Instead, non-monetary societies operated largely
along the principles of gift economy and debt.
* According to proponents of modern money theory, fiat money is also
backed by taxes. By imposing taxes, states create demand for the
currency they issue.
Money Supply :
*It refers to any financial instrument that can fulfill the functions of
money.
*These financial instruments together are collectively referred to as
the money supply of an economy.
*In other words, the money supply is the amount of financial
instruments within a specific economy available for purchasing goods or
services.
*Since the money supply consists of various financial instruments
(usually currency, demand deposits and various other types of deposits),
the amount of money in an economy is measured by adding together
these financial instruments creating a monetary aggregate.
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EXPLANATIONS
*The most commonly used monetary aggregates (or types of money) are
conventionally designated M1, M2 and M3.
*These are successively larger aggregate categories: M1 is currency
(coins and bills) plus demand deposits (such as checking accounts); M2
is M1 plus savings accounts and time deposits under $100,000; and M3
is M2 plus larger time deposits and similar institutional accounts. M1
includes only the most liquid financial instruments, and M3 relatively
illiquid instruments. The precise definition of M1, M2 etc. may be
different in different countries.
*Liquid financial instruments are easily tradable and have
low transaction costs. There should be no (or minimal) spread between
the prices to buy and sell the instrument being used as money.
*Currently, most modern monetary systems are based on fiat money.
However, for most of history, almost all money was commodity
money, such as gold and silver coins.
Fiat Money :
*Fiat money or fiat currency is money whose value is not derived from
any intrinsic value or guarantee that it can be converted into a valuable
commodity (such as gold). Instead, it has value only by government
order (fiat).
*Usually, the government declares the fiat currency (typically notes and
coins from a central bank, such as the Federal Reserve System in the
U.S.) to be legal tender, making it unlawful not to accept the fiat
currency as a means of repayment for all debts, public and private.
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EXPLANATIONS
*Fiat money, if physically represented in the form of currency (paper or
coins) can be accidentally damaged or destroyed. However, fiat money
has an advantage over representative or commodity money, in that
the same laws that created the money can also define rules for its
replacement in case of damage or destruction.
Commercial Bank Money or demand Deposits :
*These are claims against financial institutions that can be used for the
purchase of goods and services.
*A demand deposit account is an account from which funds can be
withdrawn at any time by check or cash withdrawal without giving the
bank or financial institution any prior notice.
*Banks have the legal obligation to return funds held in demand deposits
immediately upon demand (or 'at call').
*Demand deposit withdrawals can be performed in person, via checks or
bank drafts, using automatic teller machines (ATMs), or through online
banking.
*Commercial bank money is created through fractional-reserve banking,
the banking practice where banks keep only a fraction of
their deposits in reserve (as cash and other highly liquid assets) and lend
out the remainder.
*Money multiplier) is determined by the reserve requirement or
other financial ratio requirements imposed by financial regulators.
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EXPLANATIONS
*The money supply of a country is usually held to be the total amount of
currency in circulation plus the total amount of checking and savings
deposits in the commercial banks in the country.
Monetary Policy :
* Modern day monetary systems are based on fiat money and are no
longer tied to the value of gold.
*The control of the amount of money in the economy is known as
monetary policy. Monetary policy is the process by which a government,
central bank, or monetary authority manages the money supply to
achieve specific goals.
*Usually the goal of monetary policy is to accommodate economic
growth in an environment of stable prices.
Tools used to control the money supply include:
 changing the interest rate at which the central bank loans money to
(or borrows money from) the commercial banks
 currency purchases or sales
 increasing or lowering government borrowing
 increasing or lowering government spending
 manipulation of exchange rates
 raising or lowering bank reserve requirements
 regulation or prohibition of private currencies
 taxation or tax breaks on imports or exports of capital into a country
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EXPLANATIONS
Q.48 ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations) Regional
Block consists of number of countries. Which one of the following
groups of countries is a part of this block?
A) India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Thailand, Myanmar
B) Brunei Darussalam, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Thailand,
Vietnam
C) Indonesia, Malaysia, New Zealand, Australia, Philippines, China
D) Indonesia, Maldives, Bhutan, Nepal, China, Myanmar
Ans. B
Q.49 Which one among the following statements regarding SAARC is
correct?
A) Myanmar is a member of SAARC
B) Headquarters of SAARC is located in Dhaka
C) The first SAARC award was posthumously conferred upon late
President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh
D) The Present Secretary General of SAARC is from India
Ans. C
*SAARC is regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical
union in South Asia.
*Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh,
Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC
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EXPLANATIONS
compromises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and
9.12% of the global economy, as of 2015.
*The organization promotes development of economical and regional
integration.
*It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006.
*SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the UN as an
observer and has developed links with multilateral entities, including
the EU. However, the organization continues to face many challenges.
Disputes between nuclear rivals India and Pakistan have often clouded
the union's potential and progress.
*States with observer status include Australia, China, the European
Union, Iran, Japan, Mauritius, Myanmar, South Korea and the United
States.
*Myanmar has expressed interest in upgrading its status from an
observer to a full member of SAARC.
*Russia has applied for observer status membership of SAARC.
*Turkey applied for observer status membership of SAARC in
2012.
*South Africa has participated in meetings.
Regional Centres :
*The SAARC Secretariat is supported by following Regional Centres
established in Member States to promote regional co-operation.
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EXPLANATIONS
*These Centres are managed by Governing Boards comprising
representatives from all the Member States, SAARC Secretary-General
and the Ministry of Foreign/External Affairs of the Host Government.
*The Director of the Centre acts as Member Secretary to the Governing
Board which reports to the Programming Committee.
*SAARC has six Apex Bodies, namely, SAARC Chamber of Commerce
& Industry (SCCI), SAARCLAW (South Asian Association For
Regional Cooperation In Law), South Asian Federation of Accountants
(SAFA), South Asia Foundation (SAF), South Asia Initiative to End
Violence Against Children (SAIEVAC), Foundation of SAARC Writers
and Literature (FOSWAL).
SAARC AWARD :
The main aims of the SAARC Award are:
 To encourage individuals and organisations based in South Asia to

undertake programmes and activities that complement the efforts of
SAARC
 To encourage individuals and organizations in South Asia
contributing to bettering the conditions of women and children
 To honour outstanding contributions and achievements of individuals
and organizations within the region in the fields of peace,
development, poverty alleviation, environment protection and
regional cooperation
 To honour any other contributions and achievement not covered
above of individuals and organisations in the region.
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EXPLANATIONS
SAARC does not have an official anthem like some other regional
organisations (e.g. ASEAN).
Q.50 Which one among the following is not a clause of World Trade
Organization?
A) Most favoured nation treatment
B) Lowering trade barriers with negotiations
C) Providing financial support to the countries having deficit balance of
payments
D) Discouraging unfair trade practices such as anti-dumping and export
subsides
Ans. C
1) Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within a
month after birth.
2) Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year
per 1000 live births during that year
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
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EXPLANATIONS
Ans. D
 Infant mortality is the death of a child less than one year of age. It
is measured as infant mortality rate (IMR), which is the number of
deaths of children under one year of age per 1000 live births.
 Child mortality is the death of a child before the child's fifth
birthday, measures as the Under-5 Child Mortality Rate (U5MR).
National statistics sometimes group these two mortality rates
together. Globally, ten million infants and children die each year
before their fifth birthday; 99% of these deaths occur in developing
nations. Infant mortality takes away society's potential physical,
social, and human capital.
 The infant mortality rate is one of three indicators used to monitor
achievements towards the Fourth Goal of the eight Millennium
Development Goals. This goal's target value is to "Reduce by two-
thirds, between 1990 and 2015, the under-five mortality rate".
*Perinatal mortality is late fetal death (22 weeks gestation to birth),

or death of a newborn up to one week postpartum.
* Neonatal mortality is newborn death occurring within 28 days

postpartum.
*Postneonatal mortality is the death of children aged 29 days to one

year.
*Thousands of infant deaths per year are classified as Sudden infant

death syndrome (SIDS). According to the Mayo Clinic, SIDS is the
unexplained death, usually during sleep, of a seemingly healthy
baby.The direct cause of SIDS remains unknown.
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Malnutrition :
* It is a primary factor contributing to the complications of both diarrhea
and pneumonia, although the causal links and mechanisms remain
unclear.
*Factors other nutrition also influence the incidence of diarrhea,
including socioeconomic status, disruption of traditional lifestyles,
access to clean water and sanitation facilities, age and breastfeeding
status.
*Protein energy malnutrition and micronutrient deficiency are two
reasons for stunted growth in children under five years old in the least
developed countries.
*Malnutrition leads to diarrhea and dehydration, and ultimately death.
Millions of women in developing countries are stunted due to a history
of childhood malnutrition.
*Women's bodies are thus underdeveloped, and their chances of
surviving childbirth decrease. Due to underdeveloped bodies, the
probability of an obstructed pregnancy increases.
*Protein-energy deficiency results in low-quality breastmilk that
provides less energy and other nutrition
Infectious disease :
*Bacterial infections of the bloodstream, lungs, and the brain's covering
(meningitis) are responsible for 25% of neonatal deaths.
*Newborns can acquire infections during birth from bacteria that are
present in their mother's reproductive tract. The mother may not be
aware of the infection, or she may have an untreated pelvic
inflammatory disease or sexually transmitted disease.
Q.52 Cartagena Protocol on biosafety deals with :
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EXPLANATIONS
A) establishing or promoting in situ conservation facilities for rare &
endangered organisms
B) Maintaining the world wide network of gene banks for all the known
flora & fauna
C) Monitoring & regulating development of living modified organisms
D) Ensuring safe handling , safe usage & safe trans-boundary movement
of living modified organisms
Ans. D
*The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological
Diversity is an international agreement on biosafety as a supplement to
the Convention on Biological Diversity effective since 2003.
*The Biosafety Protocol seeks to protect biological diversity from the
potential risks posed by genetically modified organisms resulting from
modern biotechnology.
*In accordance with the precautionary approach, contained in Principle
15 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, the
objective of the Protocol is to contribute to ensuring an adequate level of
protection in the field of the safe transfer, handling and use of 'living
modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology' that may have
adverse effects on the conservation and sustainable use of biological
diversity, taking also into account risks to human health, and specifically
focusing on transboundary movements (Article 1 of the Protocol, SCBD
2000).
Living Modified Organism :
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EXPLANATIONS
*Living modified organism' as any living organism that possesses a
novel combination of genetic material obtained through the use of
modern biotechnology, and 'living organism' means any biological entity
capable of transferring or replicating genetic material, including sterile
organisms, viruses and viroids.
*One of the outcomes of the United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (also known as the Earth Summit)
held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 1992, was the adoption of
the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, which
contains 27 principles to underpin sustainable development.
*Commonly known as the precautionary principle, Principle 15 states
that "In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach
shall be widely applied by States according to their capabilities. Where
there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific
certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective
measures to prevent environmental degradation."
*The Protocol applies to the transboundary movement, transit,
handling and use of all living modified organisms that may have
adverse effects on the conservation and sustainable use of biological
diversity, taking also into account risks to human health .
*The governing body of the Protocol is called the Conference of the
Parties to the Convention serving as the meeting of the Parties to the
Protocol (also the COP-MOP).
*The main function of this body is to review the implementation of the
Protocol and make decisions necessary to promote its effective
operation.
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EXPLANATIONS
*Decisions under the Protocol can only be taken by Parties to the
Protocol. Parties to the Convention that are not Parties to the Protocol
may only participate as observers in the proceedings of meetings of the
COP-MOP.
*The Protocol addresses the obligations of Parties in relation to the
transboundary movements of LMOs to and from non-Parties to the
Protocol.
*The transboundary movements between Parties and non-Parties must
be carried out in a manner that is consistent with the objective of the
Protocol. Parties are required to encourage non-Parties to adhere to the
Protocol and to contribute information to the Biosafety Clearing-House.
*A number of agreements under the World Trade
Organization (WTO), such as the Agreement on the Application of
Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement) and
the Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT Agreement),
and the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights (TRIPs), contain provisions that are relevant to the
Protocol.
*The Protocol established a Biosafety Clearing-House (BCH), in
order to facilitate the exchange of scientific, technical, environmental
and legal information on, and experience with, living modified
organisms; and to assist Parties to implement the Protocol .
Q.53 In context with Cost Inflation Index, consider the following

statements:
1) It is a measure of Inflation & finds application in tax law.
2) It reduces long-term as well as short term capital gains tax.
Codes:
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EXPLANATIONS
A) only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. A
*A cost inflation index helps reduce the inflationary gains, thereby
reducing the long-term capital gains tax payout for a taxpayer.
*The index is useful for income-tax assesses in the computation of tax

on long-term capital gains (for indexation purposes). In the previous
year (2011-12), the cost inflation index increased 8.5 per cent.
*Currently, the income-tax law allows long-term capital gains to be

computed after adjusting for inflation.
*The cost of acquisition as well as the cost of improvement is adjusted

for inflation between the date of purchase and date of sale (through the
cost inflation index) before the long-term capital gain is ascertained.
*The income-tax law requires the CBDT to specify the cost inflation
index for a financial year after factoring in 75 per cent of average rise in
consumer price index for urban non-manual employees for the
immediately preceding financial year.
Q.54 Statements:
1) Outsourcing jobs will contribute in the deficit in the current account
2) Difference between export & import comes in merchandise trade
balance
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EXPLANATIONS
3) Anything that affects the financial & accounting entries of a country
to the rest of the world will comes in the balance of payment
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
*In business, outsourcing is the contracting out of a business process to a
third-party. The term "outsourcing" became popular in the United
States near the turn of the 21st century.
*Outsourcing sometimes involves transferring employees and assets
from one firm to another, but not always. Outsourcing is also used to
describe the practice of handing over control of public services to for-
profit corporations.
*Outsourcing includes both foreign and domestic contracting, and
sometimes includes off-shoring or relocating a business function to
another country. Financial savings from lower international labor rates is
a big motivation for outsourcing/offshoring.
*The opposite of outsourcing is called insourcing, which entails bringing
processes handled by third-party firms in-house, and is sometimes
accomplished via vertical integration. However, a business can provide a
contract service to another business without necessarily insourcing that
business process.
Q.55 Balance of Payment disequilibrium can be controlled by which of
the following ways ?
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EXPLANATIONS
1) Monetary expansion
2) Import control
3) Export promotion
4) Tourism development
5) Devaluation
Codes:
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
Meaning of Disequilibrium in Balance of Payment :
*Though the credit and debit are written balanced in the balance of
payment account, it may not remain balanced always. Very often, debit
exceeds credit or the credit exceeds debit causing an imbalance in the
balance of payment account. Such an imbalance is called the
disequilibrium.
*Disequilibrium may take place either in the form of deficit or in the
form of surplus.
*Disequilibrium of Deficit arises when our receipts from the foreigners
fall below our payment to foreigners. It arises when the effective
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
demand for foreign exchange of the country exceeds its supply at a
given rate of exchange. This is called an 'unfavourable balance'.
*Disequilibrium of Surplus arises when the receipts of the country
exceed its payments. Such a situation arises when the effective demand
for foreign exchange is less than its supply. Such a surplus
disequilibrium is termed as 'favourable balance'.
Causes of Disequilibrium in Balance of Payment :
1. Population Growth
Most countries experience an increase in the population and in some
likeIndia and China the population is not only large but increases at a
faster rate. To meet their needs, imports become essential and the
quantity of imports may increase as population increases.
2. Development Programmes
Developing countries which have embarked upon planned development
programmes require to import capital goods, some raw materials which
are not available at home and highly skilled and specialized manpower.
Since development is a continuous process, imports of these items
continue for the long time landing these countries in a balance of
payment deficit.
3. Demonstration Effect
When the people in the less developed countries imitate the consumption
pattern of the people in the developed countries, their import will
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
increase. Their export may remain constant or decline causing
disequilibrium in the balance of payments.
4. Natural Factors
Natural calamities such as the failure of rains or the coming floods may
easily cause disequilibrium in the balance of payments by adversely
affecting agriculture and industrial production in the country. The
exports may decline while the imports may go up causing a discrepancy
in the country's balance of payments.
5. Cyclical Fluctuations
Business fluctuations introduced by the operations of the trade cycles
may also cause disequilibrium in the country's balance of payments. For
example, if there occurs a business recession in foreign countries, it may
easily cause a fall in the exports and exchange earning of the country
concerned, resulting in a disequilibrium in the balance of payments.
6. Inflation
An increase in income and price level owing to rapid economic
developmentin developing countries, will increase imports and reduce
exports causing a deficit in balance of payments.
7. Poor Marketing Strategies
The superior marketing of the developed countries have increased their
surplus. The poor marketing facilities of the developing countries have
pushed them into huge deficits.
8. Flight Of Capital
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Due to speculative reasons, countries may lose foreign exchange or gold
stocks People in developing countries may also shift their capital to
developed countries to safeguard against political uncertainties. These
capital movements adversely affect the balance of payments position.
9. Globalisation
Q.56 Which of the following are an example of the Invisible export
&Import ?
1) Insurance
2) Transportation records & receipts
3) Tution paid to the Universities by International students
4) Banking
Codes:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
Q.57 Which of the following were the measures taken for the Balance of
Payment crisis in 1990s ?
1) Import tariff was lowered
2) Import restriction was dismantled
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
3) Rupee was devaluated
4) Industries were delicensed
Codes:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
Q.58 Six faces of a cube numbered from 1 to 6, each face carrying one
different number.
1) Face 2 is opposite to the face 6
2) Face 1 is opposite to face 5
3) Face 3 is opposite to face 1 & face 5
4) face 4 is adjacent to face 2
Which of the following is correct ?
A) Face 6 is between face 2 & face 4
B) Face 2 is adjacent to face 3
C) face 1 is between the face 5 & face 6
Ans. B
3 & 4 are opposite to each other.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Since 2 is adjacent of 4, hence it must be adjacent of 3
Q.59 Five balls of different colours are to be placed in three different
boxes such that any box contains atleast one ball. What is the maximum
no. of different ways in which this can be done ?
A) 120
B) 180
C) 150
D) 90
Ans. C
n= 5
r=3
Therefore, no. of ways = rn – rC1 (r-1)n+rC2 (r-2)2 + …
35 – 3C1(3-1)5 + 3C2 (3-2)2
243-3*32 + 3*1
=243-96+3 = 150
Q.60 Amit has five friends 3 girls & 2 boys . Amit’s wife also has 5
friends: 3 boys & 2 girls. In how many maximum no. of different ways
can they invite 2 boys & 2 girls such that two of them are Amit’s friends
& two are his wife’s ?
A) 38
B) 24
C) 46
D) 58
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. C
AMIT’S FRIENDS AMIT’S WIFE FRIENDS
BOYS GIRLS BOYS GIRLS WAYS OF
(2) (3) (3) (2) SELECTION
2
CASE 2 0 0 2 C2*3C0*3C0*2C2
I =1*1*1*1=1
2
CASE 0 2 2 0 C0*3C2*3C2*2C0
II =1*3*3*1=9
2
CASE 1 1 1 1 C1*3C1*3C1*2C1
III =2*3*3*2=36
Total selection = 1+9+36 = 46

Q.61 The variable X varies directly as Y & varies inversely as Z. When
X=8 , Y=12 , then Z=8 . What is X when Z=6 & Y=24 ?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 12
Ans. C
Z y/x
z.x / y = k
3 * 8 / 12 = k
K=2
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Z=k . y/x
6 = 2 * 24 /x
X= 2 * 24/6 =8
Q.62 The following table gives the import and export (in million dollars)
of a country :
Year 2010 2011 2012 2013

Import 150 175 170 200
Export 140 183 170 210
The average trade balance is
A) 8/3
B) 7
C) 2
D) 28/3
Ans. B
Q.63 A number when divided by 17, leaves remainder 5. What
remainder would be obtained by dividing the same number by 357 ?
A) 42
B) 41
C) 39
D) 35
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. C
Q.64 If a carton containing one dozen eggs is dropped. Which one of the
following can not be the ratio of broken eggs to whole eggs ?
A) 5 : 7
B) 1 : 4
C) 1 : 2
D) 1 : 5
Ans. B
Just take ratio & see the value

On the basis of the following data.
The food values and the unit price of a number of food items are given
below :
Food % Protein Carbohy. Fats Cost per 100 gms

A 10 20 30 1.80
B 20 15 10 3.00
C 20 10 40 2.75
Q.65 Which of the following diets would supply maximum protein ?
A) 150 gm. of A and 200 gm. of B
B) 100 gm. of B and 200 gm. of C
C) 500 gm of A
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) 350 gm of C
Ans. D
On solving A option;
I.e. 150 gm of A = 150 * 10/100 =
& B = 200 * 20/100 =
Q.66 All the following diets would supply at least 75 gms of fats. Which
of these diets would cost the least ?
A) 200 gm of A and 150 gm of B
B) 500 gm of B and 100 gm of A
C) 300 gm of A
D) 200 gm of C
Ans. C
In this question just check the cost;
200 gm of A i.e. = 1.80 + 1.80 =
& 150 gm of B i.e. = 3 + 1.5 =
Q.67 If one’s diet has 100 gms each of A,B & C , what is the min.
amount of fat that is included in the diet ?
A) 50 gms
B) 80 gms
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
C) 65 gms
D) 45 gms
Ans. B
30+10+40 = 80 gms
Q.68 The number of integers between 1 and 100 (including both) which
are fully divisible by 3 or 5 is :
A) 47
B) 49
C) 51
D) 53
Ans. A
Take L.C.M of 3 & 5 = 15
90 / 15 = 6
Now, divide 100 / 3=33.3
& 100/ 5 = 20
Then Add both these nos.;
53.3
Now, 53.3 – 6 = 47
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.69 I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2,3 or 4 in pack, Iam
left with one sweet. If I keep 5 in a pack, Iam left with none. What is the
minimum number of sweets I have to pack and distribute?
A) 25
B) 35
C) 56
D) 65
Ans. A
Clearly, the required number would be such that it leaves a

remainder of 1 when divided by 2, 3 or 4 and no remainder when
divided by 5, Such a number is 25.
Q.70 A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is

travelling in a train. For every 15 soldiers there is one captain. The
number of captains in the group is
A) 70
B) 75
C) 80
D) 85
Ans. B
Clearly, out of every 16 persons, there is one captain.

So, number of captains = 1200 / 16 = 75.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.71 A person bought 110 glass bowls at a rate of Rs. 10 per bowl. He
sold 100 of them at Rs. 14 and the remaining broke. What is the
percentage gain for A?
A) 40
B) 300/11
C) 243/7
D) 279/11
Ans. B
C.P. = 110 *10 =1100
S.P. = 11*14 = 1400
Therefore, 1400 – 1100 / 1100
Q.72 In a party, there were a total of 45 hand shakes. If each person

shook the hand of every other person present, how many were present at
the party?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 25
D) 30
Ans. A
n
C2 = 45
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
n! / 2! (n-2) = 45
n! / n-2 = 90
n(n-1) =90
n2 – n = 90
n2-n-90 = 0
n2 – (10-9) n -90 = 0
n+9 = 0 & n-10 = 0
n= -9 & n = 10
Q.73 A man changes his car for a new one giving 20 % more km per
litre. Just then the fuel price is increased by 5 %. If he drives the same
distance in a given period, what happens to his fuel bill ?
A) The bill stays the same
B) The bill goes down by 12.5 %
C) The bill goes down by 15 %
D) The bill goes up by 5 %
Ans. B
1.20 * 1.05 = 1.26
i.e. 12.6
Q.74 Two vehicles were sold at the same price with 20 % & 25 %
profits. If the total cost price was 1,96,000. What was the difference
between the cost price of the two vehicles ?
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) Rs. 4000
B) Rs. 6000
C) Rs. 8000
D) Rs. 10000
Ans. A
S.P.=x S.p. = x
C.P.= X C.P.= 196000-x
S.p. S.P.
=(100+p/100) c.p. (100+p/100) c.p.
Now solve these equation
Q.75 Q. P has 20 % more money than Q & 10 % less money than R. If
their total capital is Rs. 5300, then which of the following statement
isnot correct ?
A) P & Q’s total capital is Rs. 3,300
B) Q & R’s total capital is Rs. 3500
C) Q has 25 % less money than R
D) R has 25 % more money than Q
Ans. D
Q.76 There are 6 points on the plane out of which 3 points are collinear.
How many triangles can be formed by joining them ?
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 27
Ans. C
6C3 = 6*5*4 / 3*2*1 = 20
Q.77 Average score of three boys in mathematics is 30. When the score
of fourth boy is added to the total score of the three boys, the average is
lowered to 25. What is the score of the fourth boy ?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
Ans. A
Score of fourth boy = 25*4-30*3 = 100-90 = 10
Q.78 A man is facing South. He turns 1350 in the anticlockwise direction
& then 1800 in the clockwise direction. The direction he is facing now is
:
A) North-East
B) North-West
C) South-East
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) South-West
Ans. D
Q.79 Sum of income of A & B is more than that of C & D taken
together. The sum of income of A & C is the same as that of B & D
taken together. Moreover A earns half as much of the income of B & D.
The highest income is of :
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Ans. B
Let income of A,B,C & D are w,x,y & z
According to the question,
(w+x) > (y+z)--i
& (w+y) = (x+z)---ii
W=1/2 (x+z)---iii
From ii & iii,
w+y = 2w
y=w
From I , when w=y
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
w+y = y+z
x>z
Hence income of B is highest
Q.80 In a 100 m race for children, A runs at 1.66 m/s. If A gives B a
start of 4 m & still beats him by 12 sec, What is the B’S speed ?
A) 0.75
B) 1 km/h
C) 1.11 m/s
D) 1.33 m/s
Ans. D
Time taken by A in 100 m race = 100/ 1.66 = 60 s

According to question , time Taken by B in covering 96m will be 60+12
= 72 s
Then speed of B = 96/72 = 4/3 = 1.33 m/sec
Q.81 Two nos. X & Y are respectively 20% & 28% less than third
number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X ?
A) 8 %
B) 9 %
C) 10 %
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
D) 12 %
Ans. C
Let Z be a
Then, X will be 80/100 * a = 4/5 a
& Y will be 72/100 * a = 18/25 a
Difference between X & Y = 4/5 a – 18/25 a = 2/25 a
Required percentage = 2/25 a / 4/5 a * 10
2/25a * 5/4a * 100 = 10%
Q.82 In a class of 60 students where the girls are twice that of boys.
Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of
Kamal , the number of boys in rank after him is :
A) 3
B) 7
C) 12
D) 13
Ans. C
Total students = 60; Girls = 40; Boys=20
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top & 9 girls ahead of Kamal
So, the number of boys ahead of Kamal = 7
Therefore, the number of boys after Kamal = 20 -7-1 = 12
Q.83 A walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour
while B runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. They start in the
same direction from the same point at 7:30 am. They shall first cross
each other at :
A) 8.30 am
B) 8.10 am
C) 7.48 am
D) 7.42 am
Ans. D
A’s rate = 1 round/hr
B’s rate = 6 rounds/hr
A’s 1 round rate = 60 min
B’s 1 round rate = 10 min
Q.84 Scowl
A) Scar
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
B) Frown
C) Pimple
D) Smile
Ans. D
Q.85 Arraign
A) Punish
B) Pardon
C) Summon
D) Indict
Ans. B
Spotting Errors:
Q.86 The young child singed a very sweet song No error
a b c d
Ans. B
Q.87 We worked very hard throughout the season No error.
a b c d
Ans. D
Q.88 Alacrity
A) Cleanliness
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
B) Cleverness
C) Eagerness
D) Reluctance
Ans. C
Q.89 Blemishes
A) Qualities
B) Faults
C) Bruises
D) Vices
Ans. B
Q.90 1 kilobyte is –
A) 1000 bits
B) 1024 bytes
C) 1020 bits
D) 1030 bits
Ans. B
given below :
List-I
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Acts
a. Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act
b. Employees’ State Insurance Act
c. Maternity Benefit Act
d. Employee’s Compensation Act
List-II
Year
1. 1952
2. 1948
3. 1961
4. 1923
Codes:
A) a-1, b-2, c-3 , d-4
B) a-1, b-2, c-4 , d-3
C) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
D) a-2 ,b-1, c-4, d-3
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. A
The Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act,

1952:
*The Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act,
1952 came into effect on 4 March 1952.
*The organisation is administered by a Central Board of Trustees,
composed of representatives of the Government of India, State
governments, Employers and Employees.
*The board is chaired by the Union Labour Minister of India.
*The Chief Executive of the EPFO, the Central Provident Fund
Commissioner, reports to the Union Labour Minister through the
Secretary of Labour and Employment in the ministry.
*The headquarters of the organisation is in New Delhi.
*The Constitution of India under "Directive Principles of State Policy"
provides that the State shall within the limits of its economic capacity
make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and
to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old-age, sickness &
disablement and undeserved want.
*The EPF & MP Act, 1952 was enacted by the Parliament of India and
came into force with effect from 4 March 1952 as part of a series of
legislative interventions made in this direction. Presently, the following
three schemes are in operation under the Act:
1. Employees' Provident Fund Scheme, 1952
2. Employees' Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme, 1976
3. Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
UAN is Universal Account Number:
*The UAN is a 12-digit number allotted to employee who is contributing
to EPF will be generated for each of the PF member by EPFO. For
example, 111222333444.
*The UAN will act as an umbrella for the multiple Member Ids allotted
to an individual by different establishments and also remains same
through the lifetime of an employee.
*It does not change with the change in jobs. The idea is to link multiple
Member Identification Numbers (Member Id) allotted to a single
member under single Universal Account Number. This will help the
member to view details of all the Member Identification Numbers
(Member Id) linked to it.
*EPFO has now started to provide refund of Administrative charges if
all the KYC details are updated for all employees. This incentive
program is announced for the Year 2016-2017.
EPF WITHDRWAL NEW RULES :

*The Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India, has
recently made few amendments in the Employees’ Provident Fund
Scheme, 1952 (PF Scheme). These guidelines are mainly related to
‘early withdrawals‘ from Provident Fund & provisions related to PF
withdrawals. These latest EPF withdrawal rules are effective from 10th
February, 2016.
Amendments are related to;
 Full EPF balance cannot be withdrawn before attaining the new
Retirement Age of 58 years.
 Continuity of EPF membership.
 Increase in Age limit to withdraw 90% of PF balance.
 Partial withdrawal of EPF amount on Resignation.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
 Increase of retirement age.
The member who is unable to withdraw PF for any reason can withdraw
without consent of employer. They can submit FORM 19 for EPF
(Employees Provident Fund) and FORM 10C for EPS (Employees’
Pension Scheme) with any of the following officials attestation to EPFO
office in which their EPF account is maintained.
 Any gazetted officer

 The Magistrate
 The Post/ Sub Post master
 President of the Village Union
 President of the Village Panchayat where there is no Union Board
 Chairman/ Secretary/ Member of the Municipal/ District Local Board
 Member of the Parliament or Legislative Assembly
 Manager of the Bank in which your savings Bank Account is
currently maintained
 Head of Educational Institution which is recognized by Government
 Any authorized official, as may be approved by the commissioner
The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act 1946 :
*The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act 1946 requires that

employers have terms including working hours, leave, productivity
goals, dismissal procedures or worker classifications, approved by a
government body
Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970:
*The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970 aims at

regulating employment of contract labour so as to place it at par with
labour employed directly.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*Women are now permitted to work night shifts too (10 pm to 6 am).
Payment of wage act 1936 :
*The Payment of Wages Act 1936 requires that employees receive

wages, on time, and without any unauthorised deductions.
*Section 6 requires that people are paid in money rather than in kind.
The law also provides the tax withholdings the employer must deduct
and pay to the central or state government before distributing the wages.
Minimum Wages Act 1948:

*The Minimum Wages Act 1948 sets wages for the different economic
sectors that it states it will cover.
*It leaves a large number of workers unregulated. Central and state
governments have discretion to set wages according to kind of work and
location, and they range between as much as ₹ 143 to 1120 per day for
work in the so-called central sphere. State governments have their own
minimum wage schedules
Payment of Gratuity Act 1972:
*The Payment of Gratuity Act 1972 applies to establishments with 10 or

more workers. Gratuity is payable to the employee if he or she resigns or
retires.
*The Indian government mandates that this payment be at the rate of 15

days salary of the employee for each completed year of service subject
to a maximum of ₹ 1000000.
Payment of Bonus Act 1965:

ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*The Payment of Bonus Act 1965, which applies only to enterprises

with over 20 people, requires bonuses are paid out of profits based on
productivity. The minimum bonus is currently 8.33 per cent of salary.
Maternity Benefit Act 1961:
*The Maternity Benefit Act 1961, creates rights to payments of

maternity benefits for any woman employee who worked in any
establishment for a period of at least 80 days during the 12 months
immediately preceding the date of her expected delivery
Industrial Disputes Act 1947 :
*The Industrial Disputes Act 1947 section 3 created a right of

participation in joint work councils to "provide measures for securing
amity and good relations between the employer and workmen and, to
that end to comment upon matters of their common interest or concern
and endeavour to compose any material difference of opinion in respect
of such matters". However, trade unions had not taken up these options
on a large scale.
*In National Textile Workers Union v Ramakrishnan the Supreme Court,

Bhagwati J giving the leading judgment, held that employees had a right
to be heard in a winding up petition of a company because their interests
were directly affected and their standing was not excluded by the
wording of the Companies Act 1956 section 398.
*The Industrial Disputes Act (1947) requires companies employing

more than 100 workers to seek government approval before they can fire
employees or close down.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
*In practice, permissions for firing employees are seldom
granted. Indian laws require a company to get permission for dismissing
workers with plant closing, even if it is necessary for economic reasons.
The government may grant or deny permission for closing, even if the
company is losing money on the operation
Equal Remuneration Act 1976 :

* Equal Remuneration Act 1976 implemented this principle in
legislation.
 Randhir Singh v Union of India Supreme Court of India held that

the principle of equal pay for equal work is a constitutional goal and
therefore capable of enforcement through constitutional remedies
under Article 32 of Constitution
 State of AP v G Sreenivasa Rao, equal pay for equal work does not
mean that all the members of the same cadre must receive the same
pay packet irrespective of their seniority, source of recruitment,
educational qualifications and various other incidents of service.
 State of MP v Pramod Baratiya, comparisons should focus on
similarity of skill, effort and responsibility when performed under
similar conditions
 Mackinnon Mackenzie & Co v Adurey D'Costa, a broad approach
is to be taken to decide whether duties to be performed are similar
Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act 1976:
*It abolishes bonded labour, but estimates suggest that between 2

million and 5 million workers still remain in debt bondage in India.
Child labour in India is prohibited by the Constitution, article 24, in
factories, mines and hazardous employment, and that under article 21
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
the state should provide free and compulsory education up to a child is
aged 14.
Industries (Regulation and Development) Act 1951:
*The Industries (Regulation and Development) Act 1951 declared that

manufacturing industries under its First Schedule were under common
central government regulations in addition to whatever laws state
government enact.
*It reserved over 600 products that can only be manufactured in small-
scale enterprises, thereby regulating who can enter in these businesses,
and above all placing a limit on the number of employees per company
for the listed products.
*The list included all key technology and industrial products in the early
1950s, including products ranging from certain iron and steel products,
fuel derivatives, motors, certain machinery, machine tools, to ceramics
and scientific equipment.
Q. 92 What is an email ?
A) An internet standard which allows users to upload & download files
B) An online area on which a user can converse in written form about

any special subject
C) Transmission of files & messages through computer network
D) A real time typed conversation
Ans. C
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Q.93 Which of the following are the factors that reduces the spending ?
1) Reduction in the govt expenses per medicare beneficiary
2) Expiration of an unemployment benefits
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
Ans. C
Q.94 In context with the financial action task force, which among the
following statements are correct
1) It is an inter govt body to combat money laundering
2) It monitors the progress of its members in implementing the necessary
measures
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Ans. C
Q.95 The Nehru-Liaqat Pact between India and Pakistan was signed in
1950 to resolve the issue of
A) Protection of minorities
B) The accession of the Princely States
C) The border disputes
D) Economic development of the borderland areas
Ans. A
The Liaquat–Nehru Pact or Delhi Pact was a bilateral treaty was
between the two South-Asian states, India and Pakistan, whereby
refugees were allowed to return unmolested to dispose of their property,
abducted women and looted property were to be returned, forced
conversions were unrecognized, and minority rights were confirmed.
The treaty was signed in New Delhi by the Prime Minister Jawahar Lal
Nehru and the Prime Minister Liaquat Ali Khan on April 8, 1950. The
treaty was the outcome of six days of talks sought to guarantee the rights
of minorities in both countries after the Partition of India and to avert
another war between them.
Minority commissions were set up in both countries. More than one
million refugees migrated from East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) to West
Bengal in India.
Q.96 With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the
following statements:
1. It actually aimed at providing a unitary structure to Indian polity.
(federal structure)
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
2. There was a reference to a Prime Minister who would be first in a
Council of Ministers.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. B
Q.97 The Gujarat Sabha under the presidentship of Mahatma Gandhi
played a leading role in the
A) Agitation of Ahmedabad mill workers
B) Agitation of the peasants of Kheda
C) Peasants movements in Bardoli
D) Salt satyagraha
Ans. B
The "Gujarat Sabha" was established in 1884 at Ahmedabad,
Gujarat. Gujarat Sabha was a public political organization formed and
based in the Indian state of Gujarat. Most of its membership were
Gujarati lawyers and civic leaders, including men like Vallabhbhai
Patel, Narhari Parikh, Ravi Shankar Vyas and Mohanlal Pandya, who
would become famous freedom fighters and political leaders. Indian
leader Mohandas Gandhi served as its president from 1918 to 1919. The
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
Sabha would play a pivotal role in organizing the peasant rebellion
in Kheda in 1918-19. It merged into the Indian National Congress in
1920 - becoming the Gujarat Pradesh Congress Committee.
Q.98 During the Indian freedom struggle, the Dutt-Bradley Thesis was
related to
A) Communist movement
B) Entry of Indians into Civil Services
C) System of agrarian taxation
D) Trade Union movement and industrial disputes
Ans. A
Q.99 In human body Angiotensin is a substance that stimulates the :
A) Pancreas to release digestive enzymes
B) adrenal gland to release aldosterone
C) lacrimal glands to release tears
D) pituitary to release antidiuretic hormone
Ans.B
Q.100 Which of the following enables your computer to connect to other
computers ?
A) Video card
B) Sound card
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
C) Network Interface card (NIC)
D) Controller card
Ans. C
Network Interface Card :

*It is a computer hardware component that connects a computer to
a computer network.
Early network interface controllers were commonly implemented
on expansion cards that plugged into a computer bus. The low cost and
ubiquity of the Ethernet standard means that most newer computers have
a network interface built into the motherboard.
Modern network interface controllers offer advanced features such as
interrupt and DMA interfaces to the host processors, support for multiple
receive and transmit queues, partitioning into multiple logical interfaces,
and on-controller network traffic processing such as the TCP offload
engine.
NIC may use one or more of the following techniques to indicate the
availability of packets to transfer:
 Polling is where the CPU examines the status of the peripheral under
program control.
 Interrupt-driven I/O is where the peripheral alerts the CPU that it is
ready to transfer data.
Also, NICs may use one or more of the following techniques to transfer
packet data:
 Programmed input/output is where the CPU moves the data to or

from the designated peripheral to memory.
ENFORCEMENT
EXPLANATIONS
 Direct memory access is where an intelligent peripheral assumes
control of the system bus to access memory directly. This removes
load from the CPU but requires more logic on the card. In addition, a
packet buffer on the NIC may not be required and latency can be
reduced.
*Ethernet network controllers typically support 10 Mbit/s Ethernet,

100 Mbit/s Ethernet, and 1000 Mbit/s Ethernet varieties.
*Such controllers are designated as "10/100/1000", meaning that they
can support a notional maximum transfer rate of 10, 100 or
1000 Mbit/s. 10 Gigabit Ethernet NICs are also available, and, as of
November 2014, are beginning to be available on computer
motherboards.

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ENFORCEMENT OFFICER – MOCK SERIES

Copyright © : 2014-2017 || ALL RIGHTS RESERVED

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No part of this publication may be re-produced , stored in a retrieval system or distributed in

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All disputes subject to Uttarakhand Jurisdiction only.

[DETAILS OF THE ASKED QUESTIONS WITH QUESTION NO. ARE MENTIONED ON

** IAS PRELIMS GENERAL STUDIES 2016-

50 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS

** IAS PRELIMS GENERAL STUDIES 2015-

48 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS

** IAS PRELIMS PAPER-2 2015-

30 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS (Excluding

** IAS PRELIMS GENERAL STUDIES 2014-

23 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS

** IAS PRELIMS PAPER-2 2015-

23 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS (Excluding

In this book we have made Mock papers of the Enforcement Officer.

NO. OF MOCK PAPERS IN THIS VOLUME :

5 MOCK PAPERS WITH 500 QUESTIONS

In some questions Explanations have not been covered because it has

Thus, kindly read all the three volumes carefully

In recent decades, Kurds have increasingly influenced regional

Physical Typically less than 10 m,

Q.19 Consider the following statements about Wholesale Price Index

 Destroy any arms dump, hide-outs, prepared or fortified position or

 To arrest without a warrant anyone who has committed cognizable

 To enter and search any premise in order to make such arrests, or to

 Stop and search any vehicle or vessel reasonably suspected to be

The flatworms, flat worms, Platyhelminthes, Plathelminthes,

Q.41 Which of the following organisms has a role in converting nitrates

B) Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata

D) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw

C) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

1. Central Board of Film Certification(CBFC)

2. National Institution for Transforming India(NITI) Aayog

A) a-4, b-3, c-2,d-1

B) a-3, b-4 ,c-2,d-1

C) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

D) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

Q.64 FTP stands for-

A) File transfer Protocol

B) File transaction process

C) Folder transfer protocol

D) Field transfer protocol

B) 20x2 sq.unit & 40x unit

C) 32x2 sq.unit & 64x unit

D) 64x2 sq.unit & 40x unit

Length = 4x(10025) = 16x

Area = 4x * 16x = 64x2 sq.unit

Perimeter = 2 (4x+16x) = 40x unit

Q.80 How many triangle are there in the given figure ?

Factors of 588 = 2*2*3*7*7

Q.82 If 20% of P = 30% of Q = 1/6 of R, then P:Q:R is:

(200 + 250 + 300 + ...10 terms

This is an Arithmetic Progression

first term (a) = 200

number of terms (n) = 10

sum = n/2 [2a+(n-1)d]

Q.86 Consider the following statements :

1. The President will constitute a Finance Commission within two

1. Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Center and the

Factors of 588 = 22377

Formula is - Last Wages 15No. of services/26