MOCK TEST Time: 3 Hrs.

PHYSICS

1. 1.2 kg ice at 0°C is mixed with 1 kg water at 24°C in 3. Two coaxial cylinders of radius r and 3r are made of
a closed calorimeter. The fraction of ice that melts is material of thermal conductivity K1 and K2
(Lf = 80 cal/g) respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of

2 1 Substance for axial heat flow may be

(1) (2)
3 3 K2 3r
1 1
(4) K1
(3)
4 2
2. Four identical rods are arranged as shown in the
figure. The temperature of the junction O in steady 4(K1  K2 ) K1  6K2
state is (1) (2)
9 9
0°C
(1) 25°C K1  8K2 K1  K2
(3) (4)
9 2
(2) 20°C 4. Two metal spheres of same material have diameter
10°C 30°C in the ratio of 1 : 2. The ratio of their rates of
(3) 35°C cooling is
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(4) 40°C 40°C (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
5. A body is allowed to cool. It takes 15 minutes to 11. The internal energy of the gas remains constant
cool from 80°C to 60°C. The temperature of body in during
next 15 minutes would be (temperature of
surrounding is 20°C) (1) Adiabatic expansion

(1) 41.6°C (2) 46.7°C (2) Adiabatic compression

(3) 49.2°C (4) 52°C (3) Isobaric expansion

6. Spectral emissive power of a body is plotted against (4) Isothermal compression
wavelength at two different temperatures T1 and T2
respectively as shown 12. The amount of heat energy needed to convert 2g of
ice at 0°C into steam at 100°C
e 
(1) 860 cal
(2) 1440 cal
(3) 320 cal
T1 (4) 160 cal
T2
1 2  13. A liquid is heated in a container of coefficient of linear
expansion  = 10–5/°C. The level of liquid in
(1) T1 > T2 (2) T1 = T2
container remains at same height. The coefficient of
(3) T1 < T2 (4) T1 T2 volume expansion of the liquid is

7. The rotational kinetic energy of two moles of (1) 1.5 × 10–5/°C

monatomic gas at 27°C is equal to
(2) 1 × 10–5/°C
4 RT
(1) RT (2) (3) 2 × 10–5/°C
3 3
(4) 2.5 × 10–5/°C
3
(3) RT (4) Zero 14. Coefficient of volume expansion of water is
2
(1) Negative
8. The mean free path of an ideal gas in a closed
container remains same if (2) Positive
(1) Temperature increases (3) Zero
(2) Temperature decreases (4) Positive or negative depending on temperature
(3) Temperature remains constant range
(4) All of these 15. Two rods of identical dimensions having thermal
conductivities 2K and 3K are connected in series. If
9. In Maxwell’s speed distribution curve, on increasing
Q is the rate of flow of heat in first rod, then the rate
temperature the number of gas molecules having
most probable speed of flow of heat in second rod is

(1) Decreases Q
(1) (2) Q
(2) Increases 2

(3) May increase or decrease 3

(3) Q (4) 2Q
(4) Remains constant 2
10. Which one of the following is not an assumption of 16. A small cavity of diameter 3 cm is made in a metal
kinetic theory of gases?
piece. On heating the metal piece, the diameter of
(1) The volume of a gas molecule is negligible the cavity would
(2) The gravitational attraction between the gas (1) Increase
molecules is negligible
(2) Decrease
(3) The density of gas is same at all points
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) The change in momentum of gas molecules is
negligible (4) First decreases then increases
17. A hot body is allowed to cool so that its temperature 21. The PV diagram for an ideal gas is shown in the
falls with time (Newton’s law of cooling holds true). figure. The corresponding PT diagram is
The temperature versus time graph is P

Q Q

(1) (2) V
° P P

Q Q
(1) (2)

T
(3) (4)
P P
° °
t

18. Four moles of a gas enclosed in a container is (3) (4)

heated at constant pressure. The temperature of the
gas increases by 3°C. The work done by the gas is T T
(R = gas constant).
22. An ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process follow
(1) 4 R
the relation P  V. The molar heat capacity of the
(2) 6 R gas is

(3) 8 R R
(1) (2) R
2
(4) 12 R

19. A monatomic gas (ideal) is supplied 80 joule heat at 5

(3) 2R (4) R
constant pressure. The internal energy of gas, 3
increases by
23. A refrigerator, whose coefficient of performance is 4,
(1) 58 J extracts heat from the water inside it at the rate of
200 J/cycle. The amount of the heat exhausted to
(2) 48 J
the room, per cycle is
(3) 44 J (1) 250 J
(4) 32 J (2) 400 J
20. Two heat engines A and B are operating at 700 K, (3) 680 J
300 K and 800 K, 400 K respectively. If A and B
are their efficiencies then (4) 180 J
24. How much maximum amount of ice at °C can be
(1) A = B
melted by 1 g of steam at 100°C?

2 (1) 1.75 g (2) 8.00 g

(2) A  B
(3) 5.15 g (4) 6.75 g
25. A Carnot’s engine takes 300 cal of heat at 500 K
8
(3) A  B and rejects 150 cal of heat to the sink. The
7 temperature of sink is

4 (1) 80 K (2) 120 K

(4) A  B
(3) 212 K (4) 250 K
26. Work done by thermodynamic system during 32. A pendulum clock (made of metal) gives correct time
process AB as shown in the figure, is at 30°C. If the room temperature rises to 40°C then
error in the clock per 10 hours would be ( = 10–3/°C)
P (1) 40 s (2) 120 s

3P0 B (3) 180 s (4) 240 s

33. If pressure of an ideal gas is increased by 60% at
constant temperature, then percentage decrease in
P0 A the volume would be
V
V0 (1) 22.5% (2) 29.5%
(3) 37.5% (4) 49.5%
(1) P0V0 (2) 2P0V0
34. A monatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic
(3) 3P0V0 (4) Zero
process as shown in the figure. The molar specific
27. The temperature of a body on Fahrenheit scale is 32 heat of the process is
degree. The temperature of the body on Kelvin scale
is V
(1) 216 K (2) 240 K
(3) 273 K (4) 208 K
28. The average velocity of gas molecules is proportional
to
T
1 3
(1) (2) 3 5
T2 T2 (1) R (2) R
2 2
(3) T (4) T0
29. A calorimeter A contains 100 g water at 50°C and 7
(3) R (4) 2R
another calorimeter B contains 150 g water at 20°C. 5
If water of both the calorimeters is mixed together,
then the temperature of the mixture would be 35. If masses of all gas molecules of a gas are halved
and their speeds are doubled then the ratio of initial
(1) 27°C (2) 32°C and final pressure will be
(3) 41°C (4) 53°C (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
30. 200 cal/minute heat energy is supplied to a solid of (3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 4
100 g. The temperature of solid Q varies with time
as shown. The latent heat of fusion of the substance 36. P-T graph for same amount of an ideal gas is
is allowed to expands as shown

Q P
V2
(0°C)
V1
Q2
Q1
T
t
(0, 0) 5 20 30 40 (1) V1 < V2
(Minute)
(2) V1 > V2
(1) 6 cal/g (2) 18 cal/g (3) V1 = V2
(3) 24 cal/g (4) 30 cal/g (4) There is no relation between V1 and V2
31. Walls of a room are made up of double layer, having 37. The mean free path for a gas is equal to (where n
thermal conductivities of inner and outer layer in is number of gas molecules per unit volume, d is
ratio of 1 : 3. The thickness of the layers is the same, diameter of gas molecules).
the temperature inside the room is 20°C and that of
outside the room is –10°C in the steady state. The 1 1
(1) (2)
temperature at the junction of the two layers is 2n 2nd 2
(1) – 0.5°C (2) – 1°C 1 1
(3) 3 (4)
(3) – 2.5°C (4) 2°C 2nd 2d 3/2
38. First law of thermodynamics is based on the 42. A gas (ideal) is allowed to expand according to
principle of conservation of dP dV
 . Select correct relation
(1) Mass (2) Momentum P V
(3) Energy (4) Pressure (1) du < 0 (2) du > 0

39. The diagram is showing two isotherms at (3) dQ = 0 (4) du = 0

temperatures T1 and T2 for an ideal gas. Select 43. The given indicator diagram shows variation of
correct relation pressure with volume, when a thermodynamical
system is taken from state A to state B. During the
P process
P
T2
T1

O V
V
(0, 0)
(1) T1 = T2 (2) T1 > T2
(1) The system is cooled
(3) T1 < T2 (4) None of these (2) The system is heated
40. H2 gas kept in vessel at 27°C is heated so that root (3) The system heated first and then cooled
mean square velocity of its molecules increases by (4) The system cooled first and then heated
41.4%. The final temperature of the gas is
44. The temperature of a body is changed by 20°C, then
(1) 87°C (2) 127°C this temperature change is equal to
(3) 227°C (4) 327°C (1) 293 K (2) 24°F
(3) 20 K (4) 20°R
41. First 1cm thick layer of ice is formed in 10 minutes
on a lake. Time taken to form next 1 cm thick layer 45. 21 J of heat energy is supplied to a diatomic ideal
of ice is gas at constant pressure, then change in internal
energy of the gas is
(1) 40 minutes (2) 30 minutes
(1) 10 J (2) 12 J
(3) 25 minutes (4) 36 minutes (3) 15 J (4) 18 J

CHEMISTRY
46. Arrange the following carbanion in the order of 48. Which of the following is an aromatic carbocation?
stability

O O O
(1) (2)
|| || ||
 

(A) (B) (C)

(3) (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) A > B > C (2) B > A > C 

(3) C > A > B (4) A > C > B 49. Which of the following is antiaromatic carbanion?

47. Which of the following is the most stable free

radical?
(1) (2)
( ) ( )

(1) CH  CH  CH 
(2) (CH3 )3 C
2 2

(3) CH2 – CH2 (4) H 3C (3) (4)

( ) ( )
50. Identify the most stable carbocation 59. Which of the following is an incorrect IUPAC name
of a compound?

(1)  (2)
NMe2 (1) 1-Aminoethanal (2) Cyclohexanoic acid
NMe2
(3) 2-Ethylpentan-2-ol (4) All are incorrect

(3) (4) NMe 60. The compound is aromatic because it has
NMe2 

::
51. The carbocation which is stabilized by mesomeric
effect is completely delocalised
 (1) 4-electrons (2) 8-electrons
(1) PhCH=CHCH (2) CH3–CH–CH3
(3) 6-electrons (4) 2-electrons
CH3 61. The group which is most activating in electrophilic
aromatic substitution is

(3) (4) All of these O
||
52. Which of the following has maximum number of 3°H (1) –NO2 (2) –C–OH
atom? (3) –NH2 (4) –CF3
(1) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane (2) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane 62. Identify the planar molecule.
(3) 2-Methylpentane (4) 3-Methylpentane
53. The number of metamers possible for the molecular H3C H
formula C4H10O is C=C=C
H CH3
(1) 3 (2) 2
(I) (II) (III)
(3) 4 (4) 1
54. The cyclic structural isomers possible for C3H6O is (1) (I) & (II) (2) (I) & (III)
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) Only (I) (4) (I), (II) & (III)
(3) 4 (4) 1 63. Which of the following is the most reactive towards
55. The compound which will not show geometrical electrophilic reagent?
isomerism is
NO2 CH3
(1) Propene (2) But-1-ene
(1) (2)
(3) (4) All of these

56. The number of geometrical isomers possible in hexa-

2, 4-diene is 
F NH3
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) (4)
57. Among the following, the incorrect resonance
structure is
– + O – +O Cl
+ N N 64. DMF CN
(1) (2) +
– –
NaCN
O O
I
+ O + O
N N
(3) (4) The reaction is an example of
O– O–
(1) Electrophilic substitution
58. The pair of geometrical isomers for the molecular
formula C2HClBrI is (2) Nucleophilic substitution
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) Free radical substitution
(3) 2 (4) 6 (4) Electrophilic addition
 65. Consider the following statements about the 70. Match the column-I to column-II
following two structures Column-I Column-II
a. Carius method (i) (NH4)SO4
b. Duma’s method (ii) Sodium fusion extract
c. Kjeldahl’s method (iii) N2-gas
(A) (B)
d. Lassaigne’s test (iv) AgNO3
I. (A) and (B) are equally stable (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
II. (A) and (B) are resonating structures of a (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
compound 71. 0.756 g of chloroderivative of organic compound gave
III. (A) is more stable than (B) 1.148 g of AgCl. What is the percentage of chlorine
in the compound?
IV. (A) is aromatic but (B) is non-aromatic
(1) 66.85% (2) 34.14%
Choose the correct statements.
(3) 49.5% (4) 37.59%
(1) I, II & IV only (2) II & IV only
72. On complete combustion of 0.492 g of an organic
(3) I, III & IV only (4) II & III only compound gave 0.396 g of CO2 and 2.028 g of H2O.
What is the percentage of oxygen in the compound?
66. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of N fails in
the case of (1) 22% (2) 32.25%

(1) NH2–NH2 (2) NH2CONH2 (3) 51.5% (4) 78%

(3) CH CH NO (4) All of these 73. In which case functional group isomerism is not
3 2 2
possible?
67. The pair of compounds which are isomers to each
(1) Cyanides (2) Alcohols
other are
(3) Amines (4) Halides
O OH O OH 74. In which of the following all carbon atoms are sp2-
|| | || | hybridised?
(1) & (2) &
|| | (1) (2)
O OH

O (3) (4)
||
OCH3 C–H 75. Identify the group which is m-directing?
| |
(1) –COOH (2) –CHO
(3) & (4) All of these
(3) –NO2 (4) All of these
76. The heterocyclic aromatic compound is
68. Identify the Z-form

H C2H5 H5C6 CH3 (1) (2)

(1) C=C (2) C=C
H3C CH3 H3C H

H Br Cl H
(3) C=C (4) C=C (3) (4) Both (1) & (3)
Cl H F I
69. In the Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen in an organic H
compound, the prussian blue colour is obtained due 77. The compound which is non-planar is
to formation of
COOH
(1) Fe [Fe(CN) ] NO2
4 63

(2) [Fe(CNS)3] (1) (2)

(3) [Fe(CN)5NOS]2
COOH NO2
(4) [Fe(CN)5NO]2 (3) CF4 (4) All of these
78. Which of the following is the strongest acid? COOH
(1) CH3COOH (2) ClCH2COOH |
(3) Cl2CHCOOH (4) Cl3CCOOH 84. IUPAC name of is
79. The stability of a cyclic alkane depends on CHO
(1) Angle strain (1) 5-Formylcyclohex-2-enoic acid
(2) Torsional strain (2) 5-Formylcyclohex-2-ene carboxylic acid
(3) van der Waals repulsion (3) 3-Formylcyclohex-5-enoic acid
(4) All of these (4) 3-Formylcyclohex-5-ene carboxylic acid
80. Identify the most stable conformer of ethane-1, 2-diol 85. Number of cyclic structural forms possible for
molecular formula C4H6 is
OH OH (1) 2 (2) 3
H OH H H (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) (2)
H H H H O
||
H OH 86. IUPAC name of NC–CH2–CH–CH2–C–H is
|
C=O
OH OH |
H H H H

(3) (4) H (1) 3-Formyl-5-oxopentanenitrile

H OH H H (2) 4-Cyano-3-formylbutanal
H OH
(3) (2-Cyanomethyl)butane-1, 4-dial
81. The number of  and  bonds present in (4) (2-Cyanomethyl)butane-1,4-dicarbaldehyde
87. Identify the antiaromatic system
is respectively
(1) (2)
(1) 26 and 6 (2) 24 and 7 (–)

:
(3) 26 and 7 (4) 24 and 6
82. The correct order of stability of alkene is
(3) (4) Both (1) & (2)
CH3 CH3 CH3 H H H (+)
C=C C=C C=C
H3C CH3 H CH3 H H
(I) (II) (III) 
88. + || , is an example of
(1) (I) > (II) > (III) (2) (II) > (III) > (I)
(3) (III) > (II) > (I) (4) (II) > (I) > (III) (1) Pericyclic reaction (2) Rearrangement

83. The compound which will not show tautomerism is (3) Electrophilic addition (4) Nucleophilic addition
89. W hich of the following sets contains only
O nucleophile?
|| O
|| 
:

(1) CN, CH3, NH3 (2) NH3, H2O, CN

(1) (2)
||
O (3) RMgX, CO2, BF3 (4) NH–,OH–

90. Acetanilide (C6H5NHCOCH3) is sparingly soluble in

O O cold water but highly soluble in boiling water. It is
|| ||
usually purified by
(3) (3) (4) (4) (1) Chromatography (2) Crystallization
O O (3) Sublimation (4) Distillation
91.9
1
BOTANY 99. Potassium mineral deficiency causes
. _ _____ demonstrated for the first time, that plants
could be grown to maturity in a defined nutrient (A) Chlorosis
solution in complete absence of soil. (B) Necrosis
(1) Joseph Priestly (2) Julius von Sachs
(C) Inhibition of cell division
(3) Liebig (4) Arnon and Stout
92. Which of the following is not the criteria for (D) Delay in flowering
essentiality of a mineral element? (1) (A), (B) & (D) (2) (B), (C) & (D)
(1) The element must not be absolutely necessary (3) (A), (B) & (C) (4) (A), (C) & (D)
for normal plant growth and development
100. The first phase of mineral uptake during influx
(2) The element should not be replaceable
(I) Involves apoplast
(3) The element should be directly involved in
metabolism (II) Occurs through ion-channels
(4) In the absence of the element, the plant does (III) Rapid process
not complete its life cycle or set seeds (1) (I) & (II) are correct (2) (I) & (III) are correct
93. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. macronutrients.
(3) (II) & (III) are correct (4) All are correct
(1) Potassium (2) Calcium
101. The prominent symptom for Mn toxicity is
(3) Manganese (4) Phosphorus
(1) Whiptail of cauliflower
94. Which of the following is a beneficial element?
(2) Lodging of cereals
(1) Na (2) C
(3) Brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins
(3) Ni (4) O
(4) Dieback
95. Choose the correct match.
102. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option.
Nutrient element Absorbed as
– (A) (i) act as a matrix that stabilises the
(1) Phosphorus – HPO
plant.
(2) Boron – BO 3–
(B) Plants compete with (ii) for the limited
(3) Molybdenum – MoO 2–
nitrogen present in soil.
(4) Sulphur – SO 2–
(C) The movement of ions is usually called (iii) .
96. The element which is a constituent of the ring (1) (i) Soil
structure of chlorophyll and the element involved in
opening and closing of stomata are, respectively (ii) Microbes
(1) Mn; Cl (2) Mg; P (2) (ii) Animals
(3) Fe; S (4) Mg; K (iii) Absorption
97. Which of the following is not related to mineral (3) (i) Air
element - Zn?
(iii) Flux
(1) Activates enzyme carboxylase
(4) (i) Air
(2) Responsible for carbohydrate translocation
(ii) Earthworm
(3) Causes little leaf disease in plants
103. Which of the following is an autotrophic bacteria?
(4) Needed in the synthesis of auxin
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Nitrobacter
98. How many of the following are related with iron and
molybdenum function? (respectively) (3) Rhizobium (4) Bacillus vulgaris
104. Reductive amination does not require
(1) -ketoglutaric acid
(2) NADPH
(1) One, One (2) Two, Two (3) Transaminase
(3) Three, Two (4) Three, One (4) NH +
105. Heterotrophic, filamentous prokaryote which fixes 113. Which of the following was not used in Priestley's
nitrogen in root nodules of bell jar experiment?
(1) Alfalfa (2) Alnus (1) Mint plant
(3) Lentil (4) Pisum (2) Candle
106. The first stable product of nitrogen fixation is (3) Mouse
(1) Dimide (2) Hydrazine (4) Aquatic plants
(3) Ammonia (4) Amino acids 114. How many of the given statements is/are correct for
107. Choose the correct match. site of photosynthesis?

(1) Nitrogenase – Sensitive to molecular O2 A. Shows division of labour

(2) Leghaemoglobin – Synthesised by host only B. Cannot arrange themselves according to incident
light
(3) Azotobacter – Free living anaerobic microbe
C. Has membrane system for trapping sunlight
(4) Anabaena – Free living nitrifying bacteria
D. Has light independent, non-enzymatic reactions
108. How many electrons and protons are required for
for CO2 assimilation
reduction of one molecule of nitrogen?
(1) Four (2) Three
(1) 6e– & 6H+ (2) 8e– & 8H+
(3) Two (4) One
(3) 12e– & 12H+ (4) 16e– & 16H+
115. Following is the absorption spectrum of
109. Arrange the following events of nodule formation
photosynthesis. Identify X, Y and Z.
according to the correct sequence.
a. Root hair curl and bacteria invade them
b. Rhizobia multiply and colonise surrounding of
roots
c. Formation of nodule
d. Infection thread is produced carrying the bacteria
into the cortex of the root
(1) b  d  c  a (2) a  c  b  d
(3) b  a  d  c (4) a  b  d  c
110. Soyabean root nodules export fixed nitrogen as X Y Z
(1) Ureides (2) Amides (1) Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids Chlorophyll-a

(3) Ammonia (4) Amino acids (2) Chlorophyll-a Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids

111. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was (3) Chlorophyll-b Phycobillins Carotenes
described by (4) Chlorophyll-a Carotenes Xanthophyll
(1) T.W. Engelmann (2) J.V. Sachs
(3) J. Ingenhousz (4) J. Priestley 116. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. LHC.

112. The experiment performed by Jan Ingenhousz
concludes that
(1) Plant restores to air whatever breathing animals
and burning candles remove
(2) Sunlight is essential to the plant process that
somehow purifies the air fouled by burning
candles
(3) Glucose is produced when plants grow and
glucose is usually stored as starch
(4) Oxygen evolved by the green plants comes from
H2O, not from carbon dioxide
(1) Made up of hundreds of pigment molecules
(2) Pigment molecules are bound to lipids
(3) Harvest different wavelengths of light
(4) Help to make photosynthesis more efficient
117. LHC
(1) Enables wider wavelength of incoming radiation
(2) Consists of accessory pigments
(3) Has hundreds of pigment molecules
(4) More than one option is correct
118. Statement-I – PS II absorbs 680 nm of light. 124. Which of the following (labelled as A, B, C, D)
shows conformational change for the synthesis of
Statement-II – PS I is located on non-appressed
energy packed molecule during chemiosmosis?
region of grana thylakoid.
Choose the correct statement.
(1) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect
NADPH
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect; statement-II is correct
119.In non-cyclic photophosphorylation the last electron
acceptor is membrane

(1) H2O (2) ADP

(3) NADP (4) Fd
120. Which of the following represents uphill movement of
electrons in Z-scheme? (1) A (2) C

(1) Movement of electron from phaeophytin to (3) D (4) B

plastoquinone 125. Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis involves
synthesis of food, more accurately, _______ and
(2) Movement of electrons within cytochromes
occurs in .
(3) Movement of electrons from ferridoxin to NADP+ (1) Lipid, Thylakoids
(4) Movement of electrons from reaction center of (2) Sugars, Stroma
PS-I to Fe-S complex (3) ATP & NADPH, Thylakoids
121. How many light quanta are required for release of one (4) Glucose, Matrix
oxygen molecule?
126. The number of ATP consumed for fixation of one CO2
(1) 4 (2) 1 by maize and rice plants is respectively
(1) 3, 2 (2) 2, 3
1
(3) 8 (4) (3) 5, 3 (4) 5, 5
8
127. CO2 is released in mitochondria of A plants
122. How many of the given statements is/are correct for during B .
cyclic photophosphorylation?
(1) A – C3
I. Only PS-II is functional B – Calvin cycle
II. Occurs in stroma lamellae (2) A – C3
III. Occurs during low light intensity B – Photorespiration
(3) A – C4
IV. Synthesis of both ATP and NADPH occurs
B – Photorespiration
V. Electrons are circulated within the photosystem
(4) A – C4
(1) Two (2) Three
B – Hatch and Slack pathway
(3) One (4) Four 128. Kranz anatomy is present in plants which shows
123. During chemiosmosis the proton gradient breaks (1) High productivity
when (2) Chloroplast monomorphism
(1) Proton moves across membrane through (3) Sensitivity to high temperature
plastoquinone
(4) Succulent behaviour
(2) Movement of proton occurs from stroma to 129. How many turns of Calvin cycle are required to form
lumen one molecule of sucrose?
(3) pH of lumen increases (1) Six (2) Twelve
(4) Movement of proton occurs from lumen to stroma (3) Two (4) Four
130. Scotoactive stomata are associated with 133. C4 plants are adapted to saline conditions due to
(1) C3 plants (2) C4 plants (1) Occurrance of OAA and Malic acid
(3) CAM plants (4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Kranz anatomy
131. Which of the following is not a plant factor affecting (3) Dimorphic chloroplast
photosynthesis?
(4) More than one option is correct
(1) Internal CO2 concentration
134. Law of limiting factor was proposed by
(2) Amount of chlorophyll
(3) Orientation of leaves (1) Sachs (2) Blackmann

(4) Duration of exposure to light (3) Hans Kreb (4) Kortschak

132. The major limiting factor for photosynthesis is 135. In majority of plants, the light saturation occurs at
(1) Light (2) CO2 (1) 70% of sunlight (2) 10% of sunlight
(3) Temperature (4) H2O (3) 50% of sunlight (4) 25% of sunlight

136. Which of the following animal has capillaries? 142. Pulmonary vein can be best defined as the blood
vessels which
(1) Arthropods (2) Leech
(3) Tunicates (4) Frog (1) Transport blood to lungs
137. Which structure do you think, would prevent the (2) Carry deoxygenated blood
pushing of muscular flaps into atrium during the
ventricular contraction? (3) Carries oxygenated blood to the heart

(1) Mitral valve (2) Columnae carinae (4) Carry blood away from the heart
(3) Musculi pectineti (4) Chordae tendinae 143. The product of stroke volume and heart rate is
138. At the end of joint diastole, right ventricle is (1) The volume of blood pumped by each ventricle
1 per beat
(1) rd filled by blood
3 (2) The volume of blood pumped by both ventricles
(2) Completely filled by blood per minute
2 (3) 70 ml/minute
(3) rd filled by blood
3
(4) The volume of blood pumped by each ventricle
(4) Fully empty per minute
139. All of the following valves are in contact with
144. A red blood cell is located in the artery supplying to
deoxygenated blood only, except
right leg, how many capillary beds must this cell
(1) Bicuspid valve (2) Tricuspid valve pass through before it is returned to the left atria?
(3) Eustachian valve (4) Thebasian valve (1) One
140. In cardiac cycle, the duration between the closure of
(2) Two
semilunar valve and AV valves is
(1) 0.3 seconds (2) 0.4 seconds (3) Three

(3) 0.5 seconds (4) 0.8 seconds (4) Four

141. All of the following conditions lead to tachycardia,
except
(1) When cardiac branch of vagus nerve is cut
(2) When sympathetic nerve is stimulated
(3) When Ca2+ ion concentration is increased
(4) Increase in concentration of extra-cellular Na+
and K+
145. The characteristic common to both blood capillary
and lymph capillary is
(1) Presence of valves to prevent backflow of blood
(2) Presence of RBCs and WBCs
(3) Lined by one cell thick wall
(4) They have a structure similar to artery
146. Four chambered heart with single left systemic arch 151. Read the following statements
is the characteristic of how many of the given
(a) GFR in a healthy individual is about 180 litre/min
animals?
(b) The normal level of urea in the blood ranges from
25–40 gm per 100 ml of blood
(c) Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four
times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed
(1) Six (2) Four (d) A comparison of the volume of filtrate formed per
(3) Five (4) Three day with that of urine released, suggest that
85–90% of the filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal
147. An ECG can record the electrical activity of heart. If tubules
in an ECG of a patient has elevated ST segment it
How many statement/s is/are correct?
indicates
(1) One
(1) Myocardial ischaemia
(2) Two
(2) Ventricular escape
(3) Three
(3) Myocardial infarction
(4) Four
(4) More than one option is correct
152. Krebs Hanseleit cycle takes place in
148. All of the following anticoagulants prevents clotting by
(1) Liver
preventing the availability of factor-IV, except
(2) Muscles
(1) Sodium citrate
(3) Kidney
(2) Dicumoural
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) EDTA
153. Symptoms of a disease include
(4) Acid citrate dextrose
(a) Dehydration
149. Identify the given blood cell
(b) Thirst
(c) Diuresis
This disease results due to
(1) Hyposecretion of aldosterone
(2) Hypersecretion of aldosterone
(3) Hypersecretion of ADH
Choose the correct option.
(4) Hyposecretion of ADH
(1) Phagocytic in nature and engulf bacteria and
154. Carpals are the bones present in wrist. Pisciform
cellular debris
carpal is formed by the ossification of tendon and is a
(2) Increases in people with allergic conditions
(1) Replacing bone
(3) Their toxins reject grafts and kill tumour cells (2) Investing bone
(4) Destruction of parasitic forms by liberating (3) Membranous bone
lysosomal enzymes on their surface
(4) Sesamoid bone
150. If a person has antigen A and Rh on the surface of
RBC, then the appropriate donor blood group for this 155. Mark the odd one w.r.t. the type of joint between the
person is following articulating bones

(1) A+ (1) The joint between vertebrae of vertebral column

(2) Joint between glenoid cavity of scapula and head
(2) B+
of humerus
(3) AB+ (3) Joint between ribs and sternum
(4) B– (4) Pubic symphysis
156. Malfunctioning of kidney can lead to uremia. All of 162. Consider the following
the following statements are correct about the
(a) H-zone disappears
treatment of uremia by dialysis, except
(1) Cleared blood is pumped back the body through (b) A-band shorten
a vein after adding antiheparin (c) O-band increases
(2) The porous cellophane membrane of the tube (d) Z-lines move apart
allows the passage molecules against the
concentration gradient (e) M-line disappears
(3) Blood drained from radial artery is pumped into Which of the following options includes changes in
a dialysis unit after adding heparin muscle fibre during muscle contraction?
(4) Dialysis unit contains a coiled cellophane tube, (1) (a), (b) & (c)
surrounded by a dialysis fluid having the same
composition as that of plasma except (2) (a), (c) & (e)
nitrogenous waste (3) (a), (c) & (d)
157. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. bone and its (4) (a), (c), (d) & (e)
number in the hindlimb of a man.
163. Blood enters into liver through two sources, which
(1) Femur – 1
source supplies nutrient rich but deoxygenated blood
(2) Tarsal – 8 from intestine to liver before it is delivered to the
(3) Metatarsal – 5 systemic circulation?

(4) Phalanges – 14 digits/bones (1) Superior mesenteric artery

158. All of the following are present in anisotropic band in (2) Hepatic artery
myofibrils of skeletal muscle, except
(3) Hepatic vein
(1) Henson zone (2) Myosin
(4) Hepatic portal vein
(3) Krause’s membrane (4) M-line
164. Complete the reaction
159. Following are the characteristics of red and white
muscle fibres. Mark the incorrect one A B
Prothrombin Thrombin Fibrine
(1) Red muscle fibre performs fastest rate of
Choose the correct option w.r.t. A and B.
contraction
(2) White muscle fibres have more number of (1) A – Calcium B – Thrombokinase
sarcoplasmic reticulum (2) A – Thromboplastin B – Fibrinogen
(3) Red muscle fibres are rich in mitochondria (3) A – Thrombokinase B – Fibrinogen
(4) White muscle fibres contract for short duration
(4) A – Fibrinogen B – Thrombokinase
160. Select the incorrect match.
165. Thoracic duct pours lymph into the
(1) Isotonic contraction – When tension remains
same whereas change (1) Right subclavian vein
occurs in the length of (2) Left subclavian vein
muscle fibres
(3) Right subclavian artery
(2) Muscle fatigue – Accumulation of lactic
acid in the muscle (4) Left subclavian artery
(3) Hypertrophy – Increase in muscle 166. Read the given statement
mass due to increase in
number of myofilaments Statement – Progressive degeneration of skeletal
mitochondria and muscle mostly due to genetic disorder.
amount of sarcoplasm Given statement is correct for
(4) Single muscle twitch – Sustained contraction (1) Myaesthenia gravis
of a muscle fibre
(2) Muscular dystrophy
161. Which of the following is an unpaired and movable
bone of human body? (3) Tetany
(1) Frontal (2) Mandible (4) More than one option is correct
(3) Ethmoid (4) Parietal 167. Each kidney of an adult human measures
 (1) Length = 10–12 cm function of a specific part of human kidney?
Width = 5–7 cm (1) Distal convoluted – Obligatory reabsorption
Weight = 40–50 gm tubule of water

(2) Width = 5–7 cm (2) Henle’s loop – Reabsorption in this

segment is maximum
Thickness = 2–3 cm
(3) Afferent arteriole – Carries blood away
Weight = 120–170 gm from the glomerulus
(3) Length = 10–12 cm (4) Collecting duct – It plays a role in the
Width = 2–3 cm maintenance of pH
and ionic balance of
Thickness = 5–7 cm
blood by selective
(4) Weight = 40–50 gm secretion of H+ and K+
Width = 2–3 cm ions
Length = 10–12 cm 176. Generally aquatic animals excrete ammonia, except
168. In Descending limb of loop of Henle urine becomes (1) Salamander and axolotl larva
. Choose the option which correctly fills up (2) Whale and shark
the given blanks.
(3) Catla and Rohu
(1) Hypotonic (2) Hypertonic
(4) Flying fish and Hydra
(3) Isotonic (4) All of these
177. The most common kidney stones are
169. Structural and functional unit of a myofibril
(1) Uric acid
(1) Myosin (2) Actin
(2) Calcium oxalate
(3) Sarcomere (4) H-zone
(3) Magnesium stones
170. Sudorific glands produce sweat, its principal function
(4) Calcium carbonate
is thermoregulation. It also releases many contents
apart from water, except 178. In the following ducts, the moving fluid is urine,
however one of them is an exception. Choose the
(1) NaCl (2) Lactic acid
exception.
(3) Urea (4) Uric acid (1) Major calyx (2) Renal pelvis
171. Increase in blood volume and blood pressure (3) Collecting duct (4) Loop of Henle
stimulates certain specific cells of cardiac atria to
secrete a peptide hormone called 179. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes
place in A in the presence of B .
(1) Renin (2) Atrial natriuretic factor
(1) A – PCT
(3) Angiotensin (4) Aldosterone
B – Aldosterone
172. Choose the triunit protein which masks the active
sites for myosin on actin filament. (2) A – DCT

(1) Calmodulin (2) Calsequestrin B – Aldosterone

(3) Troponin (4) Tropomyosin (3) A – Collecting duct

173. The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity ‘Sella B – ADH

turcica of bone. (4) A – Loop of Henle
(1) Nasal bone (2) Sphenoid bone B – Vasopressin
(3) Frontal bone (4) Ethmoid bone 180. Which of the following is the excretory product of
largest gland digestive gland of human body?
174. In a normal kidney, a substance A is completely
filtered, neither reabsorbed nor secreted and passes (1) CO2 and H2O vapours
completely in urine. The substance A is (2) NaCl and lactic acid
(1) Insulin (2) Glucose (3) Urea and uric acid
(3) Uric acid (4) Inulin (4) Bilirubin and Biliverdin
175. Which of the following correctly explains the
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