CN-235 All Questions

AIRCRAFT GENERAL
1. The Cn-235 aircraft has_________ wings

a. Sweep back
b. Cantilever
c. Angular rearward set back
d. None of the above
2. The CN-235 aircraft fuselage is divided into _______ parts
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
3. The C-235 aircraft is designed for _______ troop not equipped with an average weight of
________ kg.
a. 34,90
b. 49,90
c. 49,110
d. 34,110
4. The Cn-235 aircraft is used to provide ________
a. Rapid transportation of personnel and cargo
b. For aerial delivery mission
c. As an air ambulance
d. All of the above
5. The Cn-235 aircraft is designed for _______ troop equipped with an average weight of
________ kg.
a. 34,90
b. 49,90
c. 49,110
d. 34,110
6. For aerial delivery mission the aircraft may carry________ KG with _______crew on board.
a. 3000,5
b. 4000,5
c. 5000,5
d. 4000,3
7. The flight compartment of cn-235 is designed according to an all light on concept. True/False
8. Any illumination other then the cockpit lighting or instrument lighting indicate______ situation
a. normal
b. abnormal
c. acceptable
d. none of the above
9. Sliding window of the flight compartment is a function to provide
a. exit for flight crew on ground
b. exit for flight crew in air
c. emergency ventilation source
d. both a & c
10. The vertical position of the seat is adjusted to achieve consistent eye reference before every
flight. True/False
11. CM1 uses eye reference indicators on
a. LH
b. RH
c. can use both
d. not for vertical adjustment
12. CM3 seat is hinged to RH avionic rack True/False
13. The essential control and instrument are accessible from both side allowing the aircraft be
flown from either position. True/False
14. Wing span of the aircraft is _____ ft

a. 84.68
b. 70.21
c. 26.83
d. 22.70
15. Length of the aircraft is_____ ft
a. 84.68
b. 70.21
c. 26.83
d. 22.70
16. Height of the aircraft is______ ft
a. 84.68
b. 70.21
c. 26.83
d. 22.70
17. Wheel base of the aircraft is______ ft
a. 84.68
b. 70.21
c. 26.83
d. 22.70
18. Wheel track of the aircraft is______ ft
a. 12.79
b. 11
c. 3.97.
d. 5
19. Prop diameter is ______ ft
a. 12.79
b. 11
c. 3.97.
d. 5
20. Ramp and door distance from ground is______ ft
a. 12.79
b. 11
c. 3.97.
d. 5
21. Minimum turning radius width 180° turn is________ M
a. 4.34
b. 18.36
c. 16.11
22. JP-4 minimum fuel temperature is ______ °C and maximum fuel temperature is______ °C
a. -54,+57
b. -57,+54
c. -40,+57
d. -57,+40
23. JP-8 minimum fuel temperature is _____ °C and maximum fuel temperature is______ °C
a. -54,+57
b. -57,+54
c. -40,+57
d. -57,+40
24. Minimum oil temperature for MIL-l 7808 for engine start is______ °C
a. -54
b. -40
c. -57
d. -49
25. Minimum oil temperature for MIL-lI-23699 for engine start is______ °C
a. -54
b. -40
c. -57
d. -49
26. Minimum hydraulic oil temperature for start is______ °C
a. -54
b. -40
c. -57
d. -49
27. Fire extinguisher used for engine fire is
a. HALON 1311
b. BCF (Bromochloro Difluormethane)- 3 ext
c. HALON 1312
d. Both a & b
28. Total number of RWR antennas
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 1
29. The aircraft is having a ______ wings.
a. High cantilever
b. Low cantilever
c. High shoulder mounted
d. High dihedral
30. Effective steering angle is ______ °
a. 50
b. 46
c. 40
d. 44
31. Design steering angle is ______°
a. 30
b. 40
c. 46
d. 50
32. Minimum turning width 180° turn ______ M
a. 17.53
b. 16.32
c. 18.36
d. 70.21
33. When used as a medevac, the airplane can carry _____ stretchers and ______ paramedics.
a. 21, 04
b. 19, 03
c. 18, 04
d. 22, 03
34. For air drop or cargo drops the aircraft may carry ______ kg with _____ crew on board.
a. 4000, 04
b. 5000,04
c. 4000,05
d. 4000,03
35. Engine Extinguisher ______.
a. Hallon 1311
b. BCF
c. Hallon 3133
d. BCE
36. Engine Extinguisher ______.
a. Hallon 1311
b. BCF (Bromochloro Difluormethane) - 3 ext
c. Hallon 3133
d. BCE- 3 ext
POWER PLANT
1. The air craft has two power plants installed symmetrically about the
a. wing center line
b. aircraft center line
c. longitudinal axis
d. vertical axis
2. The engine is designed to produce power out put of _______ SHP for maximum take off
power and __________ SHP for one engine in operative.
a. 1570,1780
b. 1750,1870
c. 1870,1750
d. 1859,1770
3. APR Stand for Automatic power reserve true/ false
4. The purpose of the PGB is
a. To provided shaft for prop installation
b. To retain the prop brake
c. To provide gear reduction between power plant and prop.
d. All of the above
5. Free power turbine is directly coupled to
a. propeller
b. AGB
c. PGB
d. PCU
6. The air inlet duct is equipped with
a. FOD catcher
b. Bird catcher
c. Oil cooler
d. All of the above
7. The gas generator has ________ stage axial flow compressor and ______ stage centrifugal
compressor.
a. 5,2
b. 5,1
c. 1,5
d. 2,5
8. The compressor stator vanes for the 1st & 2nd stage are variable in pitch. TRUE /FALSE
9. The air inlet of the compressor is designed to prevent ingestion of foreign objects by
a. FOD catcher
b. Bird catcher
c. Inertial action
d. All of the above
10. The combustion chamber of the engine is of ________type
a. annular
b. cannular
c. can annular
11. Gas generator has _____ stage turbine
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
12. power turbine has air cooled blades true/ false
13. AGB is located on ________ of the engine
a. Top
b. Bottom
c. Front
d. Rear
14. power turbine has _____ stage
a. 1t
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
15. There is mechanical connection between the power turbine and gas generator mechanical
parts true/false
16. The PGB drives a propeller with an overall gear ratio of _______
a. 15:1
b. 19:1
c. 15.9:1
d. 15.4:1
17. The engine fuel system is equipped with _______ to satisfy the engine operation during
various condition
a. HMU
b. DECU
c. Fuel governor
d. Bottoming governor
18. The engine and PGB are equipped with an independent oil system true /false
19. The PGB oil system serves for
a. lubrication of PGB
b. prop pitch control
c. fuel heating
d. all of the above
20. Electrical power for the various engine function is supplied by the alternator installed on
the___
a. PGB
b. AGB
c. None of the above
d. Both a and b
21. In icing condition the engine inlet splitter lip and inlet guide vanes are supplied________
a. air trapped from compressor
b. electrical heating mats
c. air trapped from turbine
d. oil from AGB
22. Inlet struts are warmed by hot oil true/false
23. Built in electrical heating mats are installed in the
a. splitter lips
b. nacelle air intake
c. inlet struts
d. all of the above
24. Initial torque to run the engine is provided by
a. generator
b. alternator
c. starter generator
d. pneumatic starter
25. The automatic shifting of the starter to generator is through a
a. GCU
b. speed sensor
c. produces current directly
d. both a and b
26. Generator is disconnected from the load when
a. over speed condition occur
b. under speed condition occur
c. overheating occur
d. both a &c
27. Each engine has a starter generator which draws power from the
a. internal batteries
b. GPU
c. Does not require power it is self contained
d. Both a and b
28. In the x-start mode power for starting the generator is supplied from the operative generative
only True/false
29. While starting with the GPU there is no requirement for the parallel and series switching of
the batteries True /false
30. (During X start) Battery start is assisted by the generator True /false
31. In X-start mode batteries are in parallel up to____ RPM
a. 1100
b. 1300
c. 1500
d. 1700
32. During battery start batteries are connected to series from_______ RPM to _______ RPM.
a. 1100,6100
b. 1300,6500
c. 1500,6800
d. 1700,7100
33. Battery is always an encouraged method for starting True/false
34. When using GPU, GPU voltage should be checked ,if they are less
a. engine will not start
b. time to start is more
c. batteries will discharge
d. all of the above
35. During battery start batteries are initially connected to ________ and then to _______.
a. Parallel, series
b. series, Parallel
c. series, series
d. Parallel, Parallel
36. Ignition spark is normally called as
a. light out
b. light off
c. firing speed
d. both b & c
37. During x-start operating generator start assisting the batteries from _____ %Ng.
a. 0
b. 13
c. 57
d. 35
38. Ignition automatically de energizes when
a. after initial spark
b. at 13 % rpm
c. at 57% rpm
39. Anti Icing and start bleed valve is available when engine RPM reaches __________ % at ISA
a. 82
b. 90
c. 91.5
d. 72
40. AC power for the ignition system is supplied by the ___________
a. Generator
b. Alternator
c. GPU
d. It is a DC system
41. Ignition system is a DC capacitor discharge system TRUE/FALSE
42. Auto Ignition system is included in the ______.
a. HMU
b. AUTO FEATHER
c. DECU
43. In case of engine flame out the auto ignition is energized for ____ to ____ sec
a. 4,8
b. 5,7
c. 6,7
d. 7,8
44. During auto relight the ignition will not occur if Ng has dropped below _______%
a. 57
b. 72
c. 62
d. 82
45. All components except the fuel manifold and injectors are mounted on the AGB.
TRUE/FALSE
46. Engine fuel filter caution light illuminates at pressure differential of_________ PSI.
a. 7+ 1
b. 9+ 1
c. 11+ 1
d. 20+ 1
47. Illumination of the fuel filter light indicates that the filter differential pressure has increased to
approximately _______% of the value at which bypass will occur.
a. 70
b. 50
c. 25
d. 90
48. There are total of _____ fuel injectors in the combustion chamber.
a. 10
b. 06
c. 14
d. 12
49. During over speed condition DECU send fuel to _______ through ODV.
a. Atmosphere
b. Drain tank
c. HMU
d. Fuel pump
50. During Engine shut down the ODV drain engine fuel to _______ through lower engine
nacelle.
a. Atmosphere
b. Drain tank
c. HMU
d. Fuel pump
51. Fuel cold indication is provided by
a. fuel temp sensor in the lh main fuel tank
b. sensor located adjacent to fuel heater assy
c. sensor in the oil cooler
52. A fuel temperature indication is shown on an indicated located on the LH instrument panel,
TRUE/FALSE
53. The fuel temperature indicator receives a signal from a sensor installed in the LH AUX fuel
tank. TRUE/FALSE
54. The oil system for the gas generator is a self-contained, recirculating dry sump system
TRUE/FALSE
55. If the pressure across the filter drops to ________ differential psi, an impending bypass
sensor switch will cause the #1 or #2 ENGOIL FLTR caution light illuminate on the Central
Warning Panel.
a. 70+ 10
b. 90+ 1
c. 9 + 1
d. 20+ 1
56. Oil from the AGB is scavenged by gravity drain. TRUE/FALSE
57. The scavenged oil of Gas Generator is cooled by a fuel oil cooler TRUE/FALSE
58. The oil temperature is detected by a sensor located in the oil return line. TRUE/FALSE
59. The oil pressure indication is provided by a variable impedance transmitter, which senses the
differences between_______ pressure and _________ pressure.
a. B sump scavenge, pump output
b. B sump scavenge, A sump scavenge
c. A sump scavenge, pump output
60. Loss of engine oil is indicated
a. fluctuating oil pressure
b. a gradual loss of pressure
c. steady or decreasing oil temperature
d. all of the above
61. During motoring maximum NG limit should not exceed_______ %
a. 20
b. 22
c. 25
d. 30
62. During motoring maximum time limit should not exceed_______ sec.
a. 20
b. 22
c. 25
d. 30
63. After start when prop is feathered Np should be_______ % approximately
a. 20
b. 22
c. 25
d. 30
64. During ground run up when engine is stabilized at ground idle the fuel flow should be less
then _______PPH.
a. 200
b. 225
c. 220
d. 250
65. During take off the approximate blade angel would be _______°
a. 40
b. 30
c. 50
d. 55
66. TQ remains steady when TQ set by PL is greater than TQ selected by CTHS. TRUE/FALSE
67. During descend minimum Np should be________.
a. 90
b. 92
c. 85
d. 96
68. The torque indicator pointer indicates the torque of the free turbine TRUE/FALSE
69. The torque sensor is located on the Gas Generator turbine TRUE/FALSE
70. ITT signal is generated by the _______
a. Temp bulb
b. Thermocouples
c. Temp Sensor
71. Ng signal is generated by the _______
a. Sensor on AGB
b. Engine alternator
c. Sensor on gas generator turbine
72. The zeroing of the fuel consumed indication is not possible during the engine start. T/F
73. Engine oil filter caution light illuminates a pressure differential pressure of _______ PSI.
a. 22+ 2
b. 32+2
c. 70 +10
d. 9+ 1
74. Fuel cold light illuminates when fuel temp is below 5 Deg C. TRUE/FALSE
75. ENG CHIP Caution Light Illuminates when detect the existence of metal particles in the
engine scavenge oil. T/F
76. Eng oil pressure warning light illuminates a pressure differential pressure of _______ PSI.
a. 22+ 2
b. 32+2
c. 70 +10
d. 9+ 1
77. Engine fuel filter caution light illuminates a pressure differential pressure of _______ PSI.
a. 22 +2
b. 32+2
c. 70+10
d. 9+ 1
78. Condition lever serves the following functions
a. Shut or opens the fuel to the engine in the HMU.
b. Enables the NP. Bottoming Governor
c. Controls Np, from MIN RPM to MAX RPM
d. All of the above
79. Condition lever serves the following functions
a. Locks the Torque Motor
b. unlocks in the Torque Motor
c. Feathers the propeller
d. All of the above
80. Power lever directly control the propeller pitch from FI to maximum reverse (REV) T/F
81. For motoring the maximum Ng is _____ %
a. 20
b. 25
c. 26
d. 30
82. Maximum cruise power setting
a. 1630SHP (404 ft-lb)
b. 1870SHP (454 ft-lb)
c. 1700SHP (412 ft-lb)
d. 1750SHP (424 ft-lb)
PROPELLER
1. The propeller is a constant speed four-bladed H.S.14 RF-21 type,

a. H.S.14 RF-21
b. CT7-9C
c. T-56-A-15
d. 54-H-60-91
2. Materials used for the construction of prop blade are ________, ________, and __________
fill with erosion coating.
a. Fiberglass
b. Aluminum
c. polyurethane foam
d. all of the above
3. The propeller blades are electrically de-iced. T/F
4. Transmission of electrical power to the propeller is done ________
a. barrel assy
b. dome assy
c. slip rings
d. hub assy
5. Oil transfer tube connects the propeller barrel and the PCU T/F
6. The PCU is a hydro-mechanical control using high-pressure AGB lubrication oil. T/F
7. A propeller over speed governor is mounted on the _______.
a. AGB
b. PGB
c. PROP HUB ASSY
8. Reverse operation is the function of _______.
a. PCU
b. DECU
c. OSG
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
9. Beta operation and indication is provided by______
a. PCU
b. DECU
c. OSG
10. Manufacturer of the 14 RF -21 propeller are
a. General electric
b. Hamilton standard
c. Hercules
d. Casa
11. Ground idle blade angel is ________
a. -3.7° + 1.0°
b. -12.38° + 1.28°
c. 80.8° + 0.5°
d. 16.7° + 0.8°
12. Max reverse blade angel is_______

a. -3.7° + 1.0°
b. -12.38° + 1.28°
c. 80.8° + 0.5°
d. 16.7° + 0.8°
13. Max Feather blade angel is_______
a. -3.7° + 1.0°
b. -12.38° + 1.28°
c. 80.8° + 0.5°
d. 16.7° + 0.8°
14. Max Flight idle blade angel is_______
a. -3.7° + 1.0°
b. -12.38° + 1.28°
c. 80.8° + 0.5°
d. 16.7° + 0.8°
15. Aerodynamic and centrifugal forces on the propeller continuously try to drive the blades to
high pitch. T/F
16. When oil is lost the prop blade angel will decrease approximately_________°
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
17. When oil is lost the prop RPM will increase approximately_________ %
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Supply oil is maintained at all the times during operation on the increase pitch side of the
servo piston. T/F
19. The servo piston is actuated by varying the _________ pressure.
a. Metered
b. Direct
c. From OSG
20. To compensate for the temperature changes for the speeder spring Compensation disks are
provided T/F
21. __________valve, which serves as a hydraulic discriminator between the speed sensitive
governor and the over speed governor
a. least selector
b. governor
c. beta valve
d. feather valve
22. As the blade angle increases the RPM increases T/F
23. The flight idle back up system provides protection against pitch failure to_____ blade angles
a. Low.
b. High
c. Prevent change
24. In the beta mode the blade angel is controlled by the
a. PL
b. BETA VALVE
c. Beta schedule cam
d. All of the above
25. There is a schedule blade angle for all PL positions. T/F
26. During flight power lever can be retarded below flight idle T/F
27. The beta back up system increases blade angel to
a. -3.7°
b. -12.38°
c. 80.8°
d. 16.7°
28. Manual feather motor is energized by the
a. auto feather system
b. manual feather switch at auto feather control panel
c. test switch of the auto feather system
d. All of the above
29. When condition lever is placed to feather position it open the________ to feather the
propeller
a. feather valve
b. feather solenoid valve
c. both a & b
d. position the governor pilot valve
30. Over speed governor installed on the PGB limit propeller RPM to _____%
a. 100.9
b. 103.1
c. 113
d. 114.5
31. Synchrophasing system has the following functions
a. To match the RPM (Np) between LH engine and RH engine.
b. Vary the phase angle relationship of the slave propeller.
c. To provide co-ordinated throttle movement
d. Only a & b are correct
32. For proper operation, it is recommended that the master and slave propeller speeds be
matched to within ______ Np
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
33. During normal operation, the synchrophaser control output to the torque motor will be limited
to a maximum authority of ± ______%of the governing speed setting of the slave propeller
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
34. The aircraft RH engine is provided with a propeller brake system so RH engine cannot be
installed on LH side T/F
35. To operate the system, the following conditions must be required :

a. PL set to Ground Idle position. CL set to Feather Position (at start).
b. Gust Lock Engaged
c. Weight on Wheels (WOW) micro switch in Ground Mode position.
d. All of the above.
36. The minimum hydraulic pressure to lock the brake is _______ psi
a. 3000
b. 2700
c. 3400
d. 2800
37. Two thermal relief valves in the prop brake system operate when the trapped fluid pressure
exceeds ______psi and relieve pressure
a. 3000
b. 2700
c. 3400
d. 3500
38. Maximum permissible ITT for “APU Mode” operation is _______°C.
a. 944
b. 921
c. 899
39. When the propeller brake is released, wait for ____ minutes in feather mode before un
feathering or shutting down the engine.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
40. Np sensor is located on the front side of free turbine T/F
41. PROP OIL PRESS Warning Light Illuminate when propeller oil pressure drops below
_______ psi
a. 7+2
b. 22+ 2
c. 70+ 10
d. 9 +1
42. Condition lever control Np from minimum Np_____ % to maximum of _____%
a. 85-100
b. 88-100
c. 90-102
d. 88-102
43. Auto feather system armed, LH/RH (Green) light illuminates at Approximately ____ft-lb. and
PL above auto feather enable position
a. 230
b. 250
c. 275
d. 300
44. Auto feather warning light illuminates to indicate that

a. Prop is auto feathered
b. auto feather Computer has detected a failure in its circuits
c. engine on APR
d. all of the above
45. Un-safe take off warning horn can not be silenced T/F
46. Un-safe take off warning horn can not be silenced if initiated by
a. Pitch trim
b. Flaps
c. Auto feather
d. Parking brake
47. For prop brake application following condition must be met
a. CL at START , PL at GND IDLE
b. GUST LOCK vertical
c. Aircraft on the ground
d. All of the above
FUEL SYSTEM
1. Fuel is stored in four---------------, two in the center wing assembly and one in each outer
wing.
a. integral wing tanks
b. fuselage tanks
c. auxiliary tanks
d. a&b
2. The center wing tanks are the main tanks and receive fuel from the outer --------------, for
delivery to the engines.
a. integral wing tanks
b. fuselage tanks
c. auxiliary tanks
d. a&b
3. Normally, aux tanks, feed their respective engines. true/false
4. Provision is made to cross feed fuel from one side to the other engine, as required. true/false
5. Refueling of the tanks is normally done using the pressure refueling system. Gravity refueling
is possible using the four over wing filling points located on the bottom surface of each tank.
true/false
6. Venting of all tanks is done through a system of pipelines and vent valves connected to an
outlet installed on the top surface of each outer wing. . true/false
7. Each Main tank ,capacity is
a. 1810 Ib
b. 814 kg
c. 1020 liters
d. all of the above
8. Each auxiliary tank capacity is
a. 2821lb
b. 1269 kg
c. 1590 liters
d. all of the above
9. Total unusable fuel capacity is
a. 78 lb
b. 35 kg
c. 44 liters
d. all of the above
10. The tank capacity can be filled more than the usable by using gravity over wing refueling
true/false
11. Do not exceed --------- liters in main tanks to accommodate fuel expansion to allow fuel
expansion due to temperature change.
a. 1020
b. 1590
c. 1248
d. Non of the above
12. The sub merged pump is used as a redundant supply pressure source during takeoff and
xlanding, but its main purpose is to transfer of fuel to the main tank from the adjacent
auxiliary tank. true/false
13. Gravity filler points are provided at the top of each tank. Filler adapters are designed to
leave the required airspace when.
a. the tank is full
b. the tank is partially full
c. the tank is empty
14. During fueling, the auxiliary tank is always filled first, additional requirements are then put
equally into the main tank. true/false
15. Gravity defueling is carried out via the overpressure relief valve in each main tank using a
defueling adapter, which incorporates a manual drain valve. The auxiliary tank is defueled
through the same valve, by opening the gravity transfer valve (push in the GRAVITY XFR
switch). true/false
16. The pressure refueling point located in the -------------- gear fairing consists of a standard fuel
adapter assembly and a control panel.
a. RH main landing
b. LH main landing
c. Nose landing
d. Left of nose
17. While refueling----------------selection isolates the motorized valves in the tank interconnection
line, the auxiliary tank level control valve and the auxiliary tank overfill float switch.
a. MAIN
b. FULL
c. TEST
d. Aux
18. Partial filling of the tank is done by operating the --------------- switch to de energize the level
control valve, when the required fuel quantity has been loaded
a. MAIN
b. FULL
c. TEST
d. Aux
19. While refueling----------------selection open the gravity transfer valve, restores the normal
operation of level control valve and overfills float switch.
a. MAIN
b. FULL
c. TEST
d. Aux
20. For refueling the control unit is connected to a Weight On Wheels (WOW) switch in the RH
landing gear to isolate the system after take-off. true/false
21. For defueling when the --------------------valves are opened, fuel will transfer to the main tank
from the auxiliary tank, as the main tank fuel level decreases.
a. gravity transfer
b. level control
c. defueling of aux tank is not possible
d. a & b
22. Magnetic Fuel Level Indicator are installed in the bottom of each main tanks. true/false
23. Indication of pressure fuel transfer from AUX to MAIN tanks is shown by ------- and a
-------------- on PRESS XFR push button switch incorporated in the PUMP annunciator
switches, which are installed on the FUEL SYSTEM control unit.
a. an ON white caption
b. horizontal white bar
c. vertical white bar
d. a&b
24. Indication of gravity fuel transfer from AUX to MAIN tanks is shown by--------on GRAVITY
XFR push button switch incorporated in the annunciator switches, which control the
motorized valve (gravity transfer valve) in the interconnecting line between the two tanks.
a. an ON white caption
b. a horizontal bar
c. vertical white bar
d. a&b
25. Indication of fuel low level in the main tank is done by a -------------
a. Float switch
b. Pressure switch
c. Low level pump
d. a&b
26. Indication of fuel low level in the main tank is done by a float switch. As the level of fuel drops
less than------------, it activates the switch, which completes a circuit to the amber FUEL
LEVEL warning annunciatoron the Central Warning Panel.
a. 480 + 50 lb
b. 840+ 50 lb
c. + 50 lb
d. Non of the above
27. In case of fuel low level ,the minimum (low level) fuel pump delivers all remaining usable fuel
to the--------------.
a. collector tank in aux tank
b. collector tank in main tank
c. both ,aux and main tanks
d. Non of the above
28. When fuel level in aux tank drops below ------ the float switch completes a circuit to the AUX
EMPTY magnetic indicators, installed on the FUEL SYSTEM overhead control panel.
a. 480+ 50 lb
b. 50 lb
c. 150 lb
29. Indication of engine fuel low pressure is sensed by a pressure switch located upstream of the
engine driven fuel booster pump. true/false
30. USABLE FUEL in each Main Tank is-------------

a. 1805 Lb
b. 2810 lb
c. 480 + 50 lb
d. 810 lb
31. USABLE FUEL in each aux Tank is ----------------
a. 1805 Lb
b. 2814 lb
c. 480 + 50 lb
d. 810 lb
32. The red ENG FUEL PRESS annunciator, on the Central Warning Panel comes on when the
pressure drops below.
a. 5.3± 0.5 psi
b. 5.5± 0.3psi
c. 3.5 ± 0.5 psi
33. Total usable fuel in each aux Tank is ----------------
a. 9240 Lb
b. 4240 lb
c. 5940 lb
d. 2810 lb
34. To transfer fuel from LH tank to RH engine,.
a. push LH PRESS XFR button
b. and X-FEED button
c. Flow bar on RH PRESS XFR button should illuminate.
d. All of above
35. To transfer fuel from RH tank to LH engine,
a. push RH PRESS XFR button
b. and X-FEED button
c. Flow bar on LH PRESS XFR button should illuminate.
d. All of above
36. When level control valve test switch is held in test position
a. it simulates full tank signal to the automatic refueling system
b. refuel valve closes
c. fuel flow stop
d. All of above
37. Fuel density used
a. 6.7 lb per 1kg
b. 6.7 lb per 1 liter
c. 6.7 lb per 1 U.S.Gallon
ELECTRICAL
1. The primary electrical power source of the aircraft is,

a. Two DC starter generators
b. Two alternators
c. Two batteries.
d. All of above
2. DC system is generated by:
a. Two DC starter generators
b. Two 37 A-H 24 V DC Nickel Cadmium Batteries
c. One Transformer Rectifier unit (TR)
d. All of above
3. Each Generator is rated at _________ driven by each engine, which also functions as starter
generator.
a. 400 A 28 V DC
b. 300 A 28 V DC
c. 600 A 28 V DC
d. 200 A 28 V DC
4. Transformer Rectifier unit (TR) is rated at______which can be connected to the alternator
(AC Generating System).
a. 400 A 28 V DC
b. 300 A 28 V DC
c. 600 A 28 V DC
d. 200 A 28 V DC
5. Each main battery is of
a. 5 A-H 24 V DC
b. 37 A-H 24 V DC
c. Nickel Cadmium Battery
d. B &C
6. Two Back up Batteries each rated at________ are independent sources of DC power, which
serve as back up power for avionics equipment during engine start and/or hydraulic pump
operation
a. 5 A-H 24 V DC
b. 37 A-H 24 V DC
c. Nickel Cadmium Battery
d. B &C
7. With engine running (Both Engines) there is no connection between Bat Bus 1 and Bat Bus
2, Gen Bus 1 and Gen Bus 2 when the system is operating normally. True / False
8. Ground Bus is introduced for operational reasons allowing services essential for aircraft
comfort and safety, which power is supplied by the BAT BUS 1 when the aircraft is on
ground. In flight, these services are supplied by the______
a. GEN BUS 1
b. GEN BUS 2
c. BAT BUS 1
d. B &C
9. Two Back-up batteries are required to support the Avionics loads when the BAT BUS
voltages to supply the loads drop below
a. 23.9 Volts
b. 29.3 Volts
c. 28.9 Volts
d. 28.0 Volts
10. In generator mode (OEI), the OPTIONAL BUS supplies power to the winch motor only True /
False
11. In the GPU mode, the OPTIONAL BUS supplies to all services; winch motor, galley system
True / False
12. In Flight the OPTIONAL BUS power is supplied from the TR and the OPTIONAL BUS
supplies to all services; winch motor and galley system True / False
13. In case one generator failure, the TR will automatically supply the first failed GEN BUS and
the OPTIONAL BUS will be de-energized True / False
14. The FAIL indicator on the OPTIONAL BUS panel CM-1 side console illuminate when the
Optional Bus is de energized and extinguished when the Optional Bus is energized True /
False
15. In OEI ,If required, the OPTIONAL BUS can be manually activated by ____ and activate the
OPTIONAL BUS by setting the______
a. Selecting TR selector to OFF position
b. Toggle switch to ON position.
c. Toggle switch to OFF position
d. a & b
16. AC system is generated by:
a. Two Alternators
b. Three Inverter (one stand by)
c. Two TR units
d. a & b
17. Each Alternator is rated at--------- driven by each engine.
a. 26 KVA 115/200 V AC
b. 62 KVA 115/200 V AC
c. 26 VA 115/200 V AC
d. 62 VA 115/200 V AC
18. It produces AC wild frequency 26 KVA 115/200 V AC.
a. Alternator
b. TR Unit
c. Inverter
d. A & D
19. Three Inverter (one stand by) each rated at 1200 VA are fed by the 28 V DC generating
system to produce ___
a. 26 KVA 115/200 V AC at 400 Hz
b. 62 KVA 115/200 V AC at 400 Hz
c. 26 VAC 115/200 V AC at 400 Hz
d. 62 VA 115/200 V AC at 400 Hz
20. The STBY INV can be selected to supply either # 1 or # 2 system as required. True / False
21. 115V AC SHED BUS 1 and 115V AC SHED BUS 2 supply those equipments, which are
essential for aircraft safety True / False
22. The 115V AC SHED busses are controlled by both 28V DC SHED BUSSES and
automatically disconnect both 115V AC SHED BUSSES when both 28 V DC SHED BUSSES
connected. True / False
23. The losses of both AC SHED BUSSES are caused by the loss of Both DC SHED BUSSES.
This occurs when
a. Both generators fail (both DC GEN fail)
b. One generator and the TR fail
c. Both batteries fail
d. a & b
24. After engine starting and resetting any GEN RESET switch to RESET and ON,
a. it removes the GPU power source automatically
b. but the GPU caption still illuminates
c. ON caption extinguish
d. All of above
25. Failure of the GEN 1 will cause the TR to supply the GEN BUS 1. It removes the supply from
the OPTIONAL BUS and de-energizes the------------
a. DC SHED BUS 1
b. DC SHED BUS 2
c. Hot BUS 1
d. Hot BUS 2
26. Failure of the GEN 2 will cause the TR to supply the GEN BUS 2. It removes the supply from
the OPTIONAL BUS and de-energizes the -------------.
a. DC SHED BUS 1
b. DC SHED BUS 2
c. Hot BUS 1
d. Hot BUS 2
27. Failure of both generators will cause the TR to supply the GEN BUS associated with the
generator that failed first. True / False
28. For Both Generators failure TR will take over the generator that failed first and BAT BUS TIE
(in auto) magnetic indication bar is ---------.
a. In line
b. cross line
c. off line
d. b &c
29. The failure of both generators and the TR i.e. all normal generated power will result in the
one battery supporting all services necessary for continued safe flight. True / False
30. As emergency power, battery power can stand up to more than-------------.
a. 30 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 10 minutes
31. The under voltage protection offered by the GCU (Generator Control Unit) operates at----.
a. 20 V DC
b. 21 V DC
c. 22 V DC
d. 23 V DC
32. Two under voltage detectors trigger the #1 DC GEN or #2 DC GEN warning captions on the
central warning panel when the generator voltage is below---------.
a. 24.5 V DC
b. 25.5 V DC
c. 26.5 V DC
d. 27.5 V DC
33. In case both GEN BUS need to be tied, the crew can isolate the both BAT BUS from the both
GEN BUS and tie the two GEN BUS. It is done by setting the BAT BUS TIE toggle switch to
----- position than pushing the GEN BUS TIE switch to connect both generator indicated by
ON caption on the switch illuminates.
a. OFF
b. On
c. Auto
d. Any position
34. Alternator (wild frequency AC system) is directly connected to------------- .
a. engine air inlet anti-ice
b. TR
c. Winch motor
d. a & b
35. Battery warm CAUTION light comes on above ----------------------
a. 48°C (120°F)
b. 48°C (130°F)
c. 48°C (150°F)
d. 65°C (150°F)
36. Battery hot WARNING light on above-------------------.
a. 48°C (120°F)
b. 48°C (130°F)
c. 48°C (150°F)
d. 65°C (150°F)
37. Generator control switch has got -------positions.
a. 02
b. 03
c. 04
d. 05
38. TR control switch has got -------positions.
a. 02
b. 03
c. 04
d. 05
39. BAT BUS TIE Switch has got -------positions.
a. 02
b. 03
c. 04
d. 05
40. With Batt Master switch in off position Batteries are controlled by BAT No. 1and BAT No. 2
switches True / False
41. With Batt Master switch in off position both battery switches are overridden to disconnect
both batteries True / False
42. With Master Elect Gen Switch ON, Generators are controlled by GEN 1 and GEN 2 switches
True / False
43. With Master Elect Gen Switch Off, Both generator switches are overridden to disconnect
both generators. True / False
44. If Optional Bus is required in one generator failure, select TR to---------
a. OFF
b. On
c. Auto
d. Any position
45. DC GEN HOT Warning Light (Red) Illuminate when No. 1 or No. 2 DC GEN temperature
rises above preset value------------.
a. 65 + 5°C (330 + 8°F)
b. 165 + 5°C (330 + 8°F)
c. 48°C (150°F)
d. 65°C (150°F)
46. #1 and #2 DC GEN Warning Light (Red) Illuminate when No. 1 or No. 2 DC generator is
inoperative due to failure and the generator supply line magnetic indicator is in cross line
position. True / False
47. When an under voltage is detected the generator warning light is also illuminated but the
generator supply line magnetic indicator remains in line position. True / False
48. #1 and #2 AC GEN Caution Light (Amber)Illuminate when----------
a. No. 1 or No. 2 alternator system fails
b. When Np<82%.
c. When Np˃82%.
d. a &b
49. #1 INVERTER Caution Light (Amber) Illuminate when No. 1 AC inverter fails together with
the red FAIL light
a. On cwp
b. In No. 1 inverter button.
c. Pilot side consol
d. Co-Pilot side consol
50. When STBY inverter fail it is indicated by_______
a. ON light in STBY INVERTER button is extinguish
b. Amber fail warning light on CWP
c. Red stand by inverter light on CWP
d. Amber fail warning light on STBY INVERTER button
51. BAT GEN UNTIE Warning Light (Red) Illuminate when ---------------- BAT to GEN busses are
not connected.
a. either left
b. right
c. (or both)
d. All of above
52. BAT HOT Warning Light (Red) Illuminate if either one (or both) battery temperatures
above---------------- together with the red warning light in battery temperature indicator.
a. 65°C (150°F)
b. 68°C (150°F)
c. 69°C (150°F)
d. 76°C (150°F)
53. BAT HOT Warning Light (Red) Light goes off when temperature drops below
----------------------------.
a. 65°C (150°F)
b. 68°C (150°F)
c. 69°C (150°F)
d. 64°C (148°F)
HYDRAULIC
1. The hydraulic power system supplies fluid pressure to operate the following services :
a. Flaps- Landing gear.
b. Normal brakes- Emergency and Parking brakes.
c. Nose wheel steering.- Propeller brake.
d. All of the above
2. The power generation system is closed, airless system designed to operate pressure of ------ psi.
a. 3000
b. 1500
c. 1800
d. 2800
3. A reservoir, with a maximum working fluid capacity of ------- liters, provides a reserve of fluid
during system operation.
a. 8.2
b. 7.2
c. 6.2
d. 9.2
4. The system uses hydraulic fluid of specification
a. MIL-H-83282
b. MIL-H-5606 (alternative).
c. MIL-H-83133
d. A&B
5. Two electrically driven pumps are used to supply the necessary fluid flow to provide a system
operating pressure of 3000 psi and up to ______ liters per minute of flow.
a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15
6. The reservoir pressure is maintained by an internal piston (with a differential piston surface area)
to provide a constant reservoir pressure of _______ psi.
a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80
7. The main components of the hydraulic system are located in the ------
a. RH sponson
b. LH sponson
c. Nose area
d. Compartment Cargo
8. The reservoir has a maximum capacity of ________ liters. With landing gear extended and cargo
doors closed,
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16
9. The reservoir fluid volume must be between ___________ on HYD QTY indicator located on
HYDRAULIC SYST overhead panel.
a. 7 and 8.2 liters at 21°C
b. 70 - 80%
c. 80-90%
d. a & b
10. Each hydraulic pump assembly consists of ___________ sub-assemblies :
a. Electric Motor Assembly.
b. Hydraulic Pump Assembly.
c. Oil Cooler Assembly.
d. All of the above
11. The electric motor assembly is an explosion proof with powered 26V D.C., _____Amps it is
designed to drive the hydraulic pump.
a. 135
b. 145
c. 155
d. 165
12. An internal thermostat provides protection against motor over heating by cutting off the
electrical power to the hyd motor. The thermostat actives at a temperature above _______, at the
same time sends an electrical signal to the O/TEMP-ON annunciator/switch to operate the amber
warning caption. If temperature drop below____, it will restart the pump.
a. 180 °C-170°C
b. 170 °C-160°C
c. 160 °C-150°C
d. 150 °C-140°C
13. The pump has a rated outlet pressure of _________per minute (1.54 Imp Gallons)
a. 3000 psi and rated flow of 7 liters
b. 3000 psi and rated flow of 8 liters
c. 2700 psi and rated flow of 7 liters
d. 2700 psi and rated flow of 8 liters
14. The oil cooler assembly provides the means of controlling the temperature of the reservoir fluid
through a by pass valve. The by pass valve limits the fluid temperature to a maximum of ______
a. 50°C.
b. 60°C.
c. 70°C.
d. 80°C.
15. If either pump delivery pressure drops below the ________ a pressure switch (in each pump
delivery line) operates and sends an electrical signal to the #1 or #2 HYD PRESS warning caption
on the amber Central Warning Panel.
a. 800 psi,
b. 1800 psi,
c. 2800 psi,
d. 3800 psi,
16. Main system pressure is sensed by a transmitter installed in the module unit, which sends an
electrical signal to the main hydraulic pressure indicator, installed on the HYDRAULIC SYST
Overhead Control Panel. To protect the hydraulic system from over pressure, a pressure relief valve
(in the module unit) opens at _____ and bleeds fluid pressure back to the common return line.
a. 3450 psi,
b. 3550 psi,
c. 3650 psi,
d. 3750 psi,
17. Hyd qty indicator Normal range is______(green arc).
a. 70-80%
b. 70-90%
c. 80-90%
d. 70-100%
18. Amber O/TEMP light illuminate when the pump temp is above preset value and motor is
automatically deactivated. If the temp drops below preset value the motor automatically restarts.
True/False
19. #1 and #2 HYD PRESS Caution Light (Amber) Illuminate when hydraulic pump output pressure
drops below ______and goes out above ________ psi
a. 1800 psi 2300 psi.
b. 1600 psi 2300 psi.
c. 1800 psi 2700 psi.
d. 1600 psi 2700 psi.
20. HOT HYD OIL Caution Light (Amber) Light illuminate when hydraulic oil temperature in the
reservoir reaches ______or above.
a. 100°C
b. 110°C
c. 120°C
d. 130°C
21. HOT HYD OIL Caution Light extinguish when the oil temperature drops
below ___________
a. 100°C
b. 110°C
c. 120°C
d. 130°C
FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. The aircraft is equipped with dual mechanical primary flight control system T/F
2. Primary flight control system consist of
a. Aileron control system
b. Elevator control system
c. Rudder control system
d. All of the above
3. Secondary flight control system consists of.
a. Flap control system,- Aileron trim system
b. Elevator trim system,- Rudder trim system
c. Gust lock system
d. All of the above
4. The secondary flight control system is mechanically operated and electrically controlled T/F
5. The flight control that are electrically controlled, hydraulically powered and mechanically
actuated are
a. Trim tabs
b. Flaps
c. Gust lock
d. Elevator
6. The _____system is electrically controlled and mechanically actuated
a. Trim tabs
b. Flaps
c. Gust lock
d. Elevator
7. Servo tabs are installed to
a. to assist the pilot input in overcoming aerodynamic loads
b. to avoid un necessary use of trim tabs
c. to avoid control fluttering
d. all of the above
8. in aileron control system there are _______ EDRS
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1
9. When using aileron trim ,pilot uses the trim on the LH side and co-pilot use the trim on the
RH side T/F
10. flaps are ____________
a. electrically controlled, hydraulically powered and mechanically actuated
b. hydraulically operated and electrically controlled,
c. Mechanically operated and electrically controlled.
d. mechanically operated and mechanically actuated
11. primary controls are ____________

12. Control jammed condition is considered if the jam cannot be broken by force T/F
13. In the disconnect configuration, the LH aileron can be trimmed from the CM-1 ROLL trim
switch (operates the normal trim tab) and the RH aileron can be trimmed from the CM-2
ROLL trim switch (operates the emergency trim tab). T/F
14. A servo tab is installed on the LH elevator to assist the pilot input in overcoming
aerodynamic loads during control moment T/F
15. The elevators are dynamically balanced T/F
16. The purpose of the tension regulator in the flight control system is to
a. Provide force to the control column
b. absorb any tension differences which may occur due to thermal expansion or
contraction
c. to reduce load of mechanical controls
17. the elevator control system has ------------ trim motor
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. the rudder control system has ------------ trim motor
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19. Normal aileron trim is installed on the LH aileron. T/F
20. While using aileron trim CM1 control has the priority over the CM2 control during normal
operation. T/F
21. Normal aileron trim is operated by______________ bus
a. Bat bus 1
b. Bat bus 2
c. gen bus 1
d. gen bus 2
22. Emergency aileron trim is operated by______________ bus
a. Bat bus 1
b. Bat bus 2
c. gen bus 1
d. gen bus 2
23. when aileron emergency trim guard is raised normal trim control become in effective T/F
24. in the un tie position RH aileron emergency trim is operated from the CM2 control switch
and is isolated from the RH aileron emergency switch T/F
25. If the RH aileron is floating, the emergency roll trim switch is used to trim the control
surface T/F
26. Elevator trim system has three trim motor actuators, two motors installed on the RH
elevator and one motor installed on the LH elevator T/F
27. Normal elevator trim is operated by______________ bus
a. Bat bus 1
b. Bat bus 2
c. gen bus 1
d. gen bus 2
28. Emergency elevator trim is operated by______________ bus
a. Bat bus 1
b. Bat bus 2
c. gen bus 1
d. gen bus 2
29. While using RH elevator emergency trim guard is raised LH elevator emergency trim
become in effective T/F
30. Normal rudder trim is operated by______________ bus
a. Bat bus 1
b. Bat bus 2
c. gen bus 1
d. gen bus 2
31. Emergency rudder trim is operated by______________ bus
a. Bat bus 1
b. Bat bus 2
c. gen bus 1
d. gen bus 2
32. Type of flaps used in CN-235 aircraft is
a. extension flaps
b. fowler flaps
c. plain flaps
33. flaps are used to
a. increase lift
b. increase drag
c. reduce stalling speed
d. all of the above
34. There are two flap panels installed on each wing T/F
35. Flap rest button cannot be used if warning is initiated by flap asymmetry T/F
36. Flap BITE test can be initiated any time to check the integrity of the flaps either on ground
or in air T/F
37. During icing condition flaps are inhibited to 23% to
a. avoid stall
b. to increase drag
c. to increase stalling speed
d. all of the above
38. The FLAP/23 DIS lighted switch cannot be operated manually incase the aircrew intend to
land the aircraft with flap approach T/F
39. The gust lock system locks all control surfaces in the neutral position preventing
movement due to external forces T/F
40. The air conditioning system function which cannot be operated without gust lock actuation
is
a. hp valve operation
b. prop brake operation
c. airplane x-bleed
d. both a & b
41. Take off configuration warning horn will not sound if flaps are selected to 15 deg T/F
42. Landing configuration warning horn cannot be muted if______________ without gear down
a. flaps are at 23 deg
b. flaps are at 15 deg
c. flaps are at 10deg
d. flaps are at 0 deg
43. Flap approach landing is made on the following condition
a. single engine approach
b. icing condition
c. heavy weight
d. all of the above
44. If flaps are lowered to approach without gear handle down the warning is controlled by
radio altimeter and activated below ________ AGL
a. 300
b. 400
c. 500
d. 1000
45. The flap selector lever has ____ positions
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
46. Flap fail caution light illuminates when
a. Invalid flaps command signal.
b. Invalid feedback signal.
c. Comparison circuit error.
d. All of the above
47. Flap fail caution light illuminates when
a. Power supply failure.
b. Potentiometer reference voltage failure.
c. Flap selected with no hydraulic pressure available.
d. All of the above
48. Flap assy warning light illuminates when
a. Flap asymmetry
b. Gearbox failure, No flap movement
c. Shaft overspeed ,Flap counter rotating
d. All of the above
Landing gears
1. Landing gears are ____________
2. MLG and NLG (Nose Landing Gear) are retracted and extended one by one T/F
3. When retracted, the NLG is fully enclosed by double doors and the MLG is partially enclosed
by a side fairing. T/F
4. All gear bays are pressurized. T/F
5. A mechanically operated emergency landing gear extension system is provided to allow the
MLG only to be lowered by gravity T/F
6. NLG also has a wheel brake to stop the gear in the up and lock position T/F
7. During emergency brake operation anti skid is not available T/F
8. A continuous visual and aural warning active when any of the following conditions occurs:
a. Landing gear is not down and locked.
b. The aircraft is below 500 ft with either of the following event occurs A landing flap
configuration has been achieved.
c. The aircraft is below 500 ft with either of the following event occurs Either of the power
levers have been retarded to the flight idle positions
d. All of the above
9. Control micro switches at NLG and MLG are also used by the LG (Landing Gear) command
system to provide a red flashing warning light in the selector lever after ______seconds does
not agree with actual position.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30
10. Main landing gear tyre pressure range is ______ psi
a. 59-65
b. 80-90
c. 55-65
d. 75-85
11. Nose landing gear tyre pressure range is ______ psi
a. 59-65
b. 80-90
c. 55-65
d. 75-85
12. All tyres have a nominal deflection of ______% and they are ribbed tread pattern
a. 39
b. 30
c. 35
13. The MLG is installed on the LH/RH lower sides of the aircraft fuselage, ______ the aircraft
center of gravity
a. slightly aft of
b. slightly fwd of
c. on
14. the MLG are locked in the up position
a. geometrically
b. by the mechanical up lock
c. held by the MLG actuator
15. NLG doors are ____________ operated.
a. Mechanically
b. Hydraulically
c. Electrically
d. Geometrically
16. The maximum normal landing gear extension and retraction is _________ seconds
a. 12
b. 18
c. 15
d. 20
17. The warning (flashing red light in landing gear lever) is activated if the landing gear is not
UP/DOWN and locking after _____ seconds
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
18. Fluid pressure is directed to the brake units to stop main wheel rotation when landing gear is
selected to up position T/F
19. In exceptional and dangerous occasion on ground, if it is necessary to retract the landing
gear, in this condition the ________ must push on override button and move up the landing
gear lever at the same time
a. CM1
b. CM2
c. PF
d. PNF
20. the NLG is locked in the down position
a. by an integral locking claw within the actuator
b. Geometrically
c. Mechanical lock
21. Landing gears cannot be extended by any method if failed
a. Hydraulically
b. Mechanically
c. Electrically
d. Can be lowered any way
22. lifting the emergency landing gear extension cover handle allows displaced hydraulic fluid
a. To be dumped overboard.
b. Return to reservoir
c. Remain in the return line
23. After operating of the EMERGENCY EXTENSION system, DO NOT CLOSE the control valve
cover, otherwise
a. LG will become un safe
b. LG may retract if LG selector lever is in UP position.
c. You can put cover down forl NLG stering
d. Both a & c
24. The Nose wheel Steering System (NWS) can be mechanically disengaged for ground
handling operations T/F
25. The nose wheel steering deflection design is_____ deg
a. 46
b. 50
c. 60
d. 45
26. Nose wheel can be deflected effectively _____° of LH/RH of the center line
a. 46
b. 50
c. 60
d. 45
27. When landing without nose wheel steering the nose wheel is held in position by spring to
avoid
a. Nose wheel being cocked
b. Nose wheel shimmy
c. Prevent retracting of nose wheel
d. All of the above
28. Anti skid facility is not avail able while using emergency brakes T/F
29. Purpose of the accumulator is
a. Store press for brake incase of loss of hydraulic pressure
b. Absorb pressure surges
c. Avoid power fluctuations
d. Both a & b
30. For system maintenance purposes in the accumulator system , manual operation of a
discharge valve on the servicing panel will release all system pressure back to the common
main hydraulic power
a. return line
b. pressure line
c. case drain
d. over board drain
31. If one brake unit fails, the companion brake unit will operate normally and providing a
reduced braking capability. T/F
32. In case of loss of hydraulic pressure the component which block the residual fluid in the
brake system is
a. Accumulator
b. Shuttle valve
c. Restrictor
33. The antiskid system becomes inoperative when the aircraft speed decelerate below ___
knots
a. 15
b. 30
c. 20
d. 40
34. The antiskid system becomes operative at speeds above _____ knots
a. 15
b. 30
c. 20
d. 40
35. the accumulator has a pressure reserve to give a minimum of _____ full emergency braking
applications
a. 7
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
36. There are_______ micro switch installed ____ main landing gear legs and _____ on the
nose landing gear leg.
a. 7,3, 4
b. 7,4, 3
c. 12,7,5
d. 12,5,7
37. There are ______ landing gear up lock micro switches and the _____ down lock switches
allow the indication and operating sequence of the gear described in normal Extension and
Retraction.
a. 4,3
b. 4,6
c. 6,4
d. 3,4
38. Red bar on the landing gear position induicator shows that
a. Gear are down and lock
b. Gears are up & lock
c. Gears are in transient
39. The landing gear warning signals are activated
a. when LANDING flaps position is selected
b. the power lever is retarded below the landing gear warning micro switch position
c. landing gear is not down
d. all of the above
40. mute button for the landing gear warning is located on the
a. CM1 console
b. CM1 console
c. center console
41. During normal operation, only red landing gear lever light flashes after _______ seconds if
selected position does not agree with actual position
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
42. Emergency brake pressure indicator normal range is
a. 2800,3200
b. 2900,3300
c. 2800.3100
d. 2900,3100
43. Normal brake pressure indicator normal range is
a. 2800,3200
b. 2900,3300
c. 2800.3100
d. 2900,3100
44. Over heat light on the brake temp indicate Some brake set has exceeded the maximum
allowable temperature T/F
45. landing gear warning that the gears are not in the down lock position are signaled by
a. GEAR UP warning lights illuminate.
b. Master warning light flashing.
c. Landing gear horn sounds.
d. All of the above
46. Landing gear down and lock indication are not available when gears are lowered by
emergency method T/F
47. When parking brake handle is released ,it should not be gently released to avoid
a. Un commanded brake application
b. Air craft will move with a jerk
c. To avoid hydraulic pressure be trapped in the hydraulic lines
d. All of the above
48. Brake temperature indicator green band correspond to the temperature range of _____ to
_____
a. 50 to 220 °C
b. 50 to 220°F
c. 220 to 600°C
d. 220 to 600°F
49. Brake temperature indicator yellow band correspond to the temperature range of _____ to
_____
a. 220 to 600 °F
b. 220 to 600 °C
c. 220 to 620 °F
d. 220 to 620 °C
50. Brake temperature indicator red band correspond to the temperature range of _____ to
_____
a. 600 to 950 °C
b. 600 to 950 °F
c. 625 to 975 °C
d. 625 to 975 °F
51. When the brake temperature indicator test is imitated it gives signal for over heat light and
gives signal to temperature indicator simulating temperature of _______ °C
a. 950
b. 600
c. 775
d. 850
52. When anti skid test is initiated after 6 seconds Master CAUTION, FRONT ANTISKID and
REAR illuminate ANTISKID caution lights illuminate for 4 seconds, indicating antiskid system
self-test satisfactory T/F
FIRE PROTECTION
1. Fire protection facility consist of
a. Engine fire detection. Engine fire extinguishing.
b. Hand fire extinguisher. Center wing overheat detection.
c. Cargo compartment smoke detection.- Lavatory compartment smoke detection
d. All of the above
2. Fire detection system detects the presence of an overheat or fire condition in the engine
a. prop area
b. turbine area
c. Nacelle.
d. All of the above
3. The detector consists of ______ loops of flexible heat sensitive wire type elements
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4. The fire sensing loop not only gives warning for the overheat but also cancels when the
overheat condition is over T/F
5. When the ENG FIRE DET caution light illuminates it shows that the
a. Loop has malfunctioned
b. Fire control unit has failed
c. Fire warning circuit is deactivated
d. All of the above
6. When the warning relay is energized
a. The relevant #1 or #2 ENG FIRE WARNING illuminate
b. The master WARNING annunciators start flashing
c. The aural warning sounds on and off continuously and
d. All of the above
7. The fire warning tone is cancelled by
a. Resetting the master warning light
b. By putting the CL to Fuel Off
c. By pulling the fire handle
d. By the audio inhibit switch
8. Putting the fire warning test switch in the test position checks the system integrity T/F
9. Pulling out the relevant FIRE handle does the following
a. Bleed valve closed/PRSOV closed. The engine fuel shut-off valve closes
b. Engine (RH only) propeller brake is released
c. power to the relevant READY caption light , power is supplied to the DISCHARGE
switch
d. all of the above
10. The center wing overheat detection system consists of _________ thermo switches
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
11. The center wing over heat warning light illuminates when the temperature in the area
exceeds ____°C
a. 87
b. 100
c. 224
d. 385
12. Illumination of the wing over heat light indicates that
a. Fire on the wing
b. Wing anti icing failed
c. Wing anti icing duct failure
d. All of the above
13. When the wing over heat switch activates it causes
a. The high pressure shut off valve of the air conditioning system is de-energized, and
closed.
b. The pressure regulator of the air conditioning system is energized, and closed.
c. The warning light is illuminated
d. All of the above
14. Cargo compartment smoke detector is ------------ sensitive device
a. Thermo electric
b. Photo electric
c. electronic
d. all of the above
15. Normal charge pressure of fire extinguisher is approximately ________ psi
a. 780
b. 800
c. 600
d. 700
16. The over pressure relief valve for the fire extinguisher bottle operates when the temperature
of the bay increase to___ to _____ deg C
a. 85 , 90
b. 90,95
c. 88,95
d. 88,90
17. The fire extinguisher agent discharged indicator shows ________ when a cylinder has
discharged through over pressure
a. Green
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Amber
18. The ”Two Shot” facility of the fire extinguishing cylinder is available for either engine T/F
19. To push fire handle, the relevant fire handle override button must be pressed. T/F
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
1. Maximum pressure of oxygen is ______ psi its indicator is located at _______
a. 1850, co pilot console
b. 1800, co pilot console
c. 1850, pilot console
d. 1800, pilot console
2. Write down the condition in which emergency light will come on if the switch is at arm
position
a. Any door open
b. Elect power is removed
c. Emergency light switch is placed at armed position
d. All of the above
3. With cabin and emer light sw in off position. Emer lts (caution) illuminates if the battery
voltage drops below ______ volts
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 22
4. There are _____ fire extinguishers in the aircraft. ______ contains BCF ( bromo chloro di
floromethane and ______ contain water
a. 3,2,1
b. 3,1,2
c. 4,2,2
d. 4,3,1
5. There are _____ PBE in the aircraft. Each can supply oxygen for one person up to______
minutes
a. 3,10
b. 3,15
c. 4,15
d. 4,10
6. ELT will automatically transmit if subjected to_____ to ____ acceleration Gs is

encountered.
a. 5,7
b. 11,16
c. 6,8
d. 5,8
7. Amber caution light of FIRE DET illuminates to indicate that

a. Fire protection is not available
b. Fire detection is not available
c. Test failure of indication system
d. All of the above
8. What all happens when a right hand engine fire handle is pulled
a. Fuel sov is closed
b. Prop brake released
c. Ready disch light come on
d. All of the above
9. How the service ability of fire extinguisher is checked?
a. By checking the pressure of the fire extinguisher
b. By the rupture of green disk in the right wing root
c. By the rupture of red disk in the right wing root
d. All of the above
10. Cargo smoke warning has ____ detector
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
11. The emergency equipment is the equipment and systems which are essential for crew
safety
a. after an emergency condition
b. During an emergency condition.
c. Provided only for crew comfort
d. Both a & b are correct
12. The oxygen system has two different installations; of a fixed installation for the passenger,
and a portable installation for flight crew. T/F
PNUMETICS
1. System which uses bleed for their operation are

a. air conditioning
b. pressurization
c. anti icing system
d. all of the above
2. Lp bleed air is taken from the ______ stage of the axial flow compressor
a. 4th
b. 3rd
c. 5th
d. 2nd
3. HP bleed air is taken from the ______
a. 4th stage of the axial flow compressor
b. 5th stage of the axial flow compressor
c. From the centrifugal compressor
d. After the centrifugal compressor
4. The LP bleed is protected against the entry of air at higher pressure, from the HP bleed T/F
5. the HP bleed is automatically cut at a pressure of __________ Psi
a. 77 + 3.5
b. 87+ 3.5
c. 67+ 3.5
6. The two HP bleeds can also be cut manually T/F
7. Pressure regulator and shut off valve closes automatically in case of
a. Over pressure
b. Over temperature
c. Leak in the critical zone
d. All of the above
8. There are total of four detector for the over temperature sensing and one switches for the
over pressure detection in the pneumatic system T/F
9. The automatic closure of the corresponding HP Valve and Pressure Regulator, and also puts
the visual indicator not-in-line if any of the following situation occurs
a. An overpressure at the cross feed branch.
b. An over temperature at the Pack outlet.
c. A hot air leak in the HP bleed area.
d. All of the above
10. The package bleed light illuminate to indicate that
a. overpressure downstream PRSOV
b. over temperature in the compressor outlet
c. over temperature occurs immediately on downstream PRSOV
d. both a &b
11. BLEED HOT light in CWP illuminates to indicates that

d. both a &b
12. Wing over heat light illuminates to indicate that
d. hot air leak in the HP bleed area
13. To prevent the engine reaching a too-high ITT (Inter Stage Turbine Temperature) during
starting because of an excess of bleed, the corresponding pneumatic sub-system will
automatically close its PRSOV during this phase T/F
14. For high altitude operation above _________ ft operating with idle power descend, press HP
valve switch manually ( CLSD light illuminate ), air conditioning bleed source is taken from
low part
a. 15000
b. 17000
c. 18000
d. 19000
15. BLEED O/TEMP illuminate - When the system automatically shut off due to bleed temp
exceed _______°C
a. 224 + 6
b. 288 + 6
c. 275 + 10
d. 287 +5
16. Wing over heat light illuminates to indicate that
a. overheat condition in the center wing fairing
b. engine nacelle area
c. overheat condition in the outer wing fairing
d. both a & b
AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM
1. The air conditioning system consists of two dependent units T/F
2. The normal control range covers temperatures from ____°C to____°C
a. 65,85
b. 18,29
c. 17,32
d. 20,30
3. The RH system provides air conditioning temperature control for the cockpit while the LH
system provides air conditioning temperature control for the cabin T/F
4. The pressurization system is capable of maintaining a positive differential pressure of
_______Psi
a. 3.80
b. 3.5
c. 3.64
5. The HP bleed valve closes when the engine bleed pressure rises above a preset schedule
psi and opens when the HP bleed pressure falls below the schedule
a. 87 + 3.5
b. 97 + 3.5
c. 77 + 3.5
6. One _______Valve is used to isolate the bleed air from the two engines during normal
operation
a. bleed Cross over
b. check valve
c. pressure regulating valve
d. isolation check valve
7. The _________ valve (APU X BLEED) can be used on ground to supply two packs from one
engine with gust lock engaged.
a. bleed Cross over
b. check valve
c. pressure regulating valve
d. isolation check valve
8. if during x-bleed operation gust lock is disengaged x-bleed function will be disable but
x-bleed light will remain on T/F
9. condensation from the air in the ECS is removed by
a. water separator
b. condenser
c. turbine
d. all of the above
10. first stage cooling of the air in ECS is done by the
a. condenser
b. primary heat exchanger
c. secondary heat exchanger
d. ACM turbine
11. During automatic operation the temperature of the supply air is kept to a minimum of____°C
a. 6
b. 0
c. 2
d. 4
12. During automatic operation the temperature of the supply air is kept to a minimum of 2°C
(37°F) and maximum of _____°C
a. 70
b. 75
c. 80
d. 85
13. The conditioned air from both air conditioning pack joined together in the plenum (Mixing
box) before supplied to the cabin and cockpit compartment T/F
14. There are total of _____ fans including avionic fan
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
15. When PRSOV outlet pressure higher than ______psi, the pack over pressure switch will
activate and close the PRSOV and shut off the delivery of bleed air to the pack
a. 49 + 1
b. 39 + 1
c. 87+7
d. 77+7
16. When PRSOV outlet temperature higher than _________°C the pack over temperature
switch will activate and close the PRSOV-and shut off the delivery of bleed air to the pack
a. 224 + 6
b. 288 + 6
c. 275 + 10
d. 77+7
17. When the Compressor outlet temperature exceeds _______C the compressor over
temperature Switch is actuates and will close the Pressure Regulating and Shut-off Valve.
a. 224 + 6
b. 288 + 6
c. 275 + 10
d. 87+7
18. When the temperature in the supply duct exceed ______°C , the supply (duct) over
temperature switch actuates and will close the pressure regulator and shut-off valve
a. 224 + 6
b. 288 + 6
c. 275 + 10
d. 87+7
19. Micro switches are installed on, that are electrically linked to the cabin pressure controller to
prevent operation of the pressurization system if any door is not secured and locked.
a. crew doors,
b. paratroop doors
c. ramp doors and ventral doors
d. all of the above
20. Micro switches are installed on crew doors, paratroop doors, emergency exit, ramp doors
and ventral doors that are electrically linked to the cabin pressure controller to prevent
operation of the pressurization system if any door is not secured and locked. T/F
21. Positive and negative pressure relief is an automatic function of the outflow/safety valves and
is independent of other modes of operation T/F
22. When the cabin to outside pressure differential reaches_______ psi, the outflow valves open
as necessary to keep the pressure differential
a. 3.9± 0.1
b. 3.765± 0.1
c. 3.64 ± 0.1
d. 3.8 ± 0.1
23. As the aircraft descends and negative pressure differentials develops, the out flow valve will
open to limit the negative pressure differential to ________ psi
a. -0.76
b. -0.36
c. -1.36
d. -1.76
24. During the pre pressurization when throttle are advanced to the position it bring cabin altitude
to_____ feet lower than the selected elevation
a. 300
b. 200
c. 140
d. 330
25. During the pre pressurization both put flow and safety valve are kept closed even with the
ECS switch in the off position T/F
26. The nominal rate selector setting will correspond to a cabin climb rate of 400 fpm and a cabin
descend rate of 600 fpm T/F
27. If the selected field elevation varies with the landing field elevation the aircraft will de
pressurize after landing within _________sec
a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90
28. Pressing to the MAN mode will produce a descent of about _______ ft in the cabin altitude.
a. 350
b. 300
c. 270
d. 250
29. At full CCW position of the compartment temperature is automatically maintained at
______°C and at full CW position the temperature is automatically maintained at ____°C
a. 17,30
b. 29,18
c. 18,29
d. 30,17
30. FAULT caption in the air conditioning control illuminates when the AUTO mode fails T/F
31. When pressure dump switch is placed to the dump position

a. Both out flow valve opens
b. Both safety valve opens
c. Only primary out flow and safety valve opens
d. Both a & b
32. CABIN ALTITUDE Pressure warning light (Red) Warning light illuminate if the cabin altitude
exceeds10000 +250 ft. T/F
ICE & RAIN PROTECTION
1. Wings and tail system is anti- icing system T/F

2. Windshield anti-ice is done by integral electrical heating elements and defogging air
conditioning system. T/F
3. Engine anti-ice is provided to avoid ice formation on the
a. nacelle intake surface,
b. splitter lips,
c. Guide vanes and intake fins.
d. All of the above
4. The regulator valves in the wing and tail de-icing system maintain a pressure of _____ psi in
each inflatable boot system.
a. 30
b. 18
c. 20
d. 28
5. The system is designed to ensure that the LH and RH section operate simultaneously to keep
a. Asymmetric disturbance of airflow to a minimum.
b. For correct functioning of the system
c. For easy scanning
d. All of the above
6. When the MON/TEST LAMPS switch is set to the MON position, the ON caption lights of the
OW, INR and TAIL indicator/switches are disconnected T/F
7. The MODE SELECT switch set to the LT ICE position, the control unit is pre selected to
operate a relevant 180 seconds cycle. T/F
8. The MODE SELECT switch set to the HVY ICE position, the control unit is pre selected to
operate a relevant 180 seconds cycle T/F
9. Once the wing and tail de icing boots are inflated they are deflated by the
a. The closing action of the valves creates a vacuum effect which rapidly deflates
the boot.
b. Deflation valve installed in each section
c. Release of air to the atmosphere
d. All of the above
10. In the light ice position the timer is selected for the ______ seconds ON, ______ seconds OFF
sequence
a. 6,174
b. 6,180
c. 6,54
d. 6,60
11. in the HEAVY ice position the timer is selected for the ______ seconds ON, ______ seconds
OFF sequence
a. 6,174
b. 6,180
c. 6,54
d. 6,60
12. Monitor light for the wing and tail de icing system are not available when the system is
operated in manual mode. T/F
13. The AOA sensors (LH/RH) are protected from ice formation by
a. By coming air flow
b. Integral heating elements.
c. External heating element
14. Wind shield wiper motor are cut off automatically when they over heat T/F
15. The sandwich construction of the wind shield provides for the
a. removal of ice formation,
b. prevents misting/fogging of the inner glass surface
c. improves the capability of the windshield to withstand an external impact,
d. all of the above
16. Each wind shield anti icing system is independent and operates within a temperature range
governed by an individual temperature regulator .T/F
17. If one wind shield anti icing system regulator fails, the opposite unit automatically switches in to
control both systems when the faulty switch is in the off position T/F
18. In normal mode Stall warning light on both instrument panel and stick shaker are activated
when angle of attack reach
a. 28.5
b. 28
c. 32
d. 32.5
19. In icing mode Stall warning light on both instrument panel and stick shaker are activated when
angle of attack reach
a. 28.5
b. 28
c. 32
d. 32.5
20. Icing mode stall warning will be armed only when
a. the aircraft is not on ground,
b. the speed is above 60 kts
c. Either the CTHS or APR have been switch off.
d. All of the above
21. Icing mode stall warning will be armed only when the speed is above ______ kts
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
22. When CTHS or APR is selected the ice mode is deactivated T/F
23. When engine anti icing is selected the flaps 23 position is disabled automatically T/F
24. Illumination of the #1 and #2 INLET ANTI-ICE on the central warning panel indicates that
a. INLET ANTI-ICE is inoperative by short circuit or other fault
b. Over temp condition has occurred
c. Switch is in the off position
25. for the engine anti icing system operation the Np should be minimum of _____ %
a. 72
b. 82
c. 92
d. 96
26. In the FAST position, each pair of opposed blades receives heating for _____ sec. and, once
the last pair have been heated, there is a rest period of ____sec.
a. 20 ,30
b. 20,60
c. 10,30
d. 10,60
27. In the SLOW position, the heating period of each pair of opposed blades is _____ sec. and will
proceed to other 3 pairs of blade until the fourth cycle ____ sec and return to the firs pair of
blades.
a. 20 ,30
b. 20,60
c. 10,30
d. 10,60
28. When prop anti icing cycle is interrupted in between for the next start of cycle it will continue
from the same position where it was interrupted T/F
29. If it is necessary to operate the engine anti icing system on the ground, there is a GND OPR
pushbutton (guarded) to bypass the landing gear micro switches, which prevent normal
operation on the ground. T/F
30. Each engine has an anti-ice system which avoids the formation of ice in:
a. The Nacelle Intake surfaces
b. The Splitter Lip, The Guide Vanes
c. Intake Support Fins
d. All of the above
31. The Nacelle Intake surfaces are heated by electric mats which keeps its temperature
between____ to ____ deg C
a. 70,80
b. 80,100
c. 60,80
d. 65,95
32. The splitter lip and the engine Guide Vanes are heated by hot bleed air from the last stage of
the axial compressor. T/F
33. The HMU signal keeps splitter lip and the engine Guide vanes valve open during the start and
operation at low power NG<_____% independently of the position of the ENG ANTI-ICE
pushbutton.
a. 82
b. 80
c. 75
d. 85
34. The HMU signal keeps splitter lip and the engine Guide vanes valve open during the start and
operation at low power NG<80% independently of the position of the ENG ANTI-ICE
pushbutton to avoid.
a. Inadvertent operation
b. Compressor stall
c. To increase air flow in intake
d. All of the above
35. When wing anti icing cycle begins it cannot be interrupted until the completion of the one cycle
T/F
36. When propeller de-icing system is operating normally the ammeter should read ____ to ___
amps
a. 30,40
b. 35,50
c. 45,60
d. 55,65
DOORS
1. The crew door to be opened downwards to the outside of the aircraft T/F
2. Ramp Door is locked in the vertical position by the
a. Mechanical actuators
b. hand locking mechanism
c. hydraulically operated mechanical locks
d. all of the above
3. Before operating the cargo door, make sure that cabin is unpressurized and the hydraulic
system is active with pressure indicate _______ psi
a. 2700
b. 2900
c. 3000
d. 3100
4. When the ramp and ventral are opened ramp door opens first and then the ventral door T/F
5. When the ramp and ventral are closed ramp door closes first and then the ventral door T/F
6. The nylon rope installed near each sliding window has a length of approximately_____ ft
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
7. Ramp and ventral door can be operated from the ________ positions
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
8. RAMP CYL light ON caption illuminates when ramp door actuating cylinder hand lock are
engaged to limit maximum ramp door opening to horizontal T/F
9. Crew entrance door has ______ switches to activate the door warning light .
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
10. Ramp door has ______ switches to activate the door warning light .
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
11. Ventral door has ______ switches to activate the door warning light .
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
AIRCRAFT LIGHTING SYSTEM
INSTRUMENTS
NORMAL PROCEDURE
Q 1.It is the duty of -------------------- to check the technical status of aircraft for certification validity &
failure acceptability
(a) Pilot (b) co-pilot (c) flt engr (d) engg officer
Q 2.Exterior safety inspection is the responsibility of
(a) CM 3 (b) CM 2 (c) CM 1 (c) all of the above
Q 3. Cockpit safety inspection is performed before the ------------------
(a) Exterior safety inspection (b) after exterior safety inspection (c) before preliminary cockpit interior
safety inspection (d) after preliminary cockpit interior safety inspection
Q 4. After cockpit safety inspection flaps should be at down position T/F
Q 5. It is the duty of ---------------- to verify that ops manual is on board
(a) CM 3 (b) CC (c) CM 2 (d) all of the above
Q 6. Indiscriminate pulling of or resetting of CB may cause un anticipated result due to system-----------
(a) Inter relation ship (b) control power is + ve (c) control power is – ve (d) both a & c
Q 7. If gen switch is at on position before start up it will override GPU after start T/F
Q 8. When GPU is connected bat 1 & bat 2 magnetic indicator are inline T/F
Q 9.formation lights are powered by
(a) Bat (b) Gen (c) inverter (d) none of the above
Q 10.If during brake temporary indicator test brake temperature does not reach in red range
(a) Indicator fault (b) it is normal (c) check all in red (d) both a& c are correct
Q 11. If during brake, temp test indicator reads higher than red it indicates that the system is at fault T/F
Q 12. While putting brake selector to on from test wait for ------------------ sec at off position
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) none of the above
Q 13. During exterior inspection, AOA should be check for free rotation angle up to---------- deg
(a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90
Q 14.If hydraulic fluid level drop to---------------% contact ground personnel for investigation
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
Q 15. While checking anti icing system check----------- cycles in slow and ---------- cycles in fast
(a) 2, 2 (b) 3, 3 (c) 4, 4 (d) 2, 4
Q 16. Illumination of # 1 or # 2 windshield heating caution light indicates
(a) Sys is failed (b) Other sensor is operating (c) Turn off anti icing (d) Both a & b
Q 17. Maximum NP for engine inlet anti icing are
(a) 90 (b) 85 (c) 82 (d) 96
Q 18. When avionic master switch is on for more than --------- min activate the avionic fan
Q 19. When air conditioning & pressurization switch is placed from manual to auto the fault light illuminate
for------------- sec
(a)5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Q 20. When fuel flow indicator is press to test it reads----------------------- pph
Q 21. Oxygen system test is to be conducted if flight is to be conducted at or above FL---------
(a) 180 (b) 190 (c) 210 (d) 230
Q 22. AOA indicator should be at--------------- for CM 2 cockpit preparation
(a) 22.5 (b) 23.5 (c) 01 (d) any position
Q 23. Comparator warning light illuminates when compass are out synchronization up to ----------- deg
Q 24. During starting NG indication should be within -------------- sec
(a) 6 (b) 3-4 (c) 8 (d) none of the above
Q 25. Fuel flow roughly occurs at -------------- % NG
(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 20
Q 26. ITT can increase during start too rapidly if
(a) ITT was high due to previous start (b) Low power on batter if start at bat
(c) Low power on GPU (d) all of the above
Q 27. If aborted for ITT over shot engine should be motored when NG has dropped below
-----------------
Q 28. Under low ambient temperature time limit for ITT indication during start is ---------
Q 29. At about ------------- % NG prop oil pressure needle starts moving
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40
Q 30. If no engine oil press is indicated within ---------- sec it should be aborted
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) none is correct
Q 31. Ignition is de activated automatically when NG reaches at ------------- %
Q 32. If NG continues to increase above grd idle during start, action requires is
(a) Check PL (b) abort the start (c) continue start note max NG (d) both a & b
Q 33. If prop oil press is not indicated till ----------- abort the start
(a) 40% NG (b) 55% NG (c) grd idle NG (d) none of the above
Q 34. If flap fail light illuminate during starting action required is
(a) Make entry in f-781 (b) it is normal cond (c) reset flaps using reset button (d) all of the above
Q 35. Propeller rotation is checked at ------------- % NG during starting
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) normal grd idle
Q 36. If prop brake light remain on release for more than ----------- sec stop the engine
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 30
Q 37. When condition lever is placed to min RPM crew should check
(a) beta light illuminate (b) NP approx 72% (c) after 72% advance to max RPM (d) all of the above
Q 38. If bottoming governor is malfunctioning, it can be checked by
(a) monitoring beta light (b) by placing CL to max RPM (c) by putting throttle to T/OFF
(d) By putting throttle to reverse
Q 39.To check the auto feather sys torque must be set above
(a) 25 ft lbs (b) 30 ft lbs (c) 225 ft lbs (d) none of the above
Q 40. Before the grd idle engine oil temp should be in green arc T/F
Q 41. If the parking brake is gently released
(a) it is normal procedure (b) brake o/temp can occur due to trapped oil press
(c) do not apply brake during taxi (d) all of the above
Q 42. Illumination of flap fail light after test and reset indicate failure T/F
Q 43. Pushing down the gust lock can cause air-condition x- bleed off T/F
Q 44. The use of anti collision light allow operation with landing light disconnected T/F
Q 45. Auto feather arm light illuminate when torque is above
(a) 200 (b) 225 (c) 250 (d) 265
Q 46. If auto feather arm light does not come on before T/OFF continue T/OFF and reset after
T/OFF T/F
Q 47. During T/OFF ET is pressed for
(a) Account of flight time (b) for T/OFF power in single engine (c) not required (d) both a& b
Q 48. For T/OFF rotate the aircraft smoothly to achieve --- to ----deg pitch on ADI
(a) 6, 8 (b) 6, 7 (c) 5, 7 (d) 5, 8
Q 49. The use of CTHS during climb is recommended T/F
Q 50. If the CL retarded to min RPM position without retarded PL from max position ity will cause
(a) NP over speed (b) NG over speed (c) over torque (d) ITT may exceed
Q 51. Adjustment in TQ is required during climb after----------
(a) 15000 ft (b) each 5000 ft ` (c) 1000 ft (d) both a & b
Q 52. For accurate reading of fuel wait for -------------- and --------------
(a) Level flight & cruise speed (b) check fuel during climb
(c) check fuel when nose down (d) none of the above
Q 53. Alt light extinguishes while reaching within -------------- feet of selected altitude
Q 54. Below ------------- power extracted for wing de icing is negligible
(a) 5000 (b) 300 0 (c) 4000 (d) 6000
Q 55. Illumination of auto feather fail light at low power does not imply autofeatrher computer failure
T/F
Q 56. It is necessary to shutdown the ECS before landing for
(a) Having max reverse (b) for possible go around (c) for smooth power (d) all of the above
Q 57. After landing HP valve should be closed before shutting down engine to wait -------no cooling
time with high bleed
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Q 58. Highest brake temperature reading is observed
(a) After using brake (b) after clearing the runway (c) after releasing parking brake at park (d) none
of the above
Q 59. If during shut down bottoming governor is not enabled NP will, increase action required is
(a) Immediate shut down (b) advance CL to min RPM (c) put PL to reverse (d) all of the above
Q 60. GPU voltage should be below
(a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 29 (d) 31.5
Q 61. If during APU mode no2 ITT increase to ----------- °c disconnect air condition
(a) 800 (b) 50 (c) 825 (d) 875
Q 62. When starting engine 1 it is connected to disconnect any pack and prop brake if x-start made
in applied T/F
Q 63. If artificial horizon is not de energized for ----------- to ---------- battery, one will be fully
discharge
(a) 2, 3 (b) 1, 2 (c) 3, 4 (d) 2, 4
Q 64.To prevent discharge of batteries pull hot bus CB T/F
Q 65. Engine acceleration is poor in battery start T/F
Q 66. During battery start while starting 2nd engine the charge should be under ------------- amp
Q 67. During battery start if bat gen untie light illuminate initiate stop start T/F
Q 68. Charge limit 600 amp is allowed for -----------
(a) 60 sec (b) 120 sec (c) 30 sec (d) none of the above
Q 69. Batteries are connected in parallel during x- start T/F
Q 70. When using no 2 engine as APU and starting other engine may cause its DC GEN HOT light
illuminate T/F
Q 71. Main reason for fuel deffuelling is
(a) Asymmetry (b) take off weight limitation (c) both a & b (d) fuel leak
Q 72. Transfer from one tank of one wing is possible T/F
Q 73. Gravity deffuelling is carried out by
(a) Disconnecting coupling in engine nacelle (b) zeineth adopter (c) from refueling panel
(d) all of the above
Q 74. while refueling if refueling switch is placed to test fuel will stop after ----------- sec
(a) 5 (a) 10 (c) 15 (d) 30
Q 75. Gravity transfer cannot be accomplished if refueling power switch is ON T/F
Q 76. In order to engage auto pilot it is necessary for aircraft to have a roll angle less than ----------
and pitch angle less than -------------
(a) 45, 27 (b) 27, 45 (d) 47, 45 (d) 25, 47
Q 77. If electric engine anti icing is put on below 82% NP it will cause
(a) No power to sys will go (b) AC gen continue to on (c) over load then AC gen
(d) both a & b
Q 78. at 88% NG if engine anti icing is put to on it will cause increase in ITT by --------- and torque
reduction --------- to -------- ft lbs
(a) 10, 20, 30(b) 10, 20, 40(c) 20, 10, 30 (d) 20, 40, 10
Q 79. Before disconnection of anti icing, reduce torque to -------------- ft-lbs from maximum to prevent
to over torque
(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 100
Q 80. For operation in APU mode one CM should be on aircraft for supervision of no 2 engine
parameters T/F
Q 81. for operation of the engine with prop feathered prop oil press should not be lower than 5 psi
and engine oil press not less than 20 psi T/F
Q 82. When moving condition lever to min rpm NG should not start to accelerate until 60% NP if NG
increases it can cause
(a) Over speed (b) over torque (c) RPM hang (d) all of the above
Q 83. Before auto feather check prop oil press must be in green arc T/F
Q 84. Min time between successive prop brake engagement is ----------- min
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 5 (d) 30
Q 85. Max allowable ITT for ECS operation in APU mode is ---------°c
Q 86. When EFIS test switch is pressed EADI shows 10 deg pitch up/down 10deg Rt /Lt roll and
EHS +20/-20 deg heading change T/F
EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
1. What is the principle of application for an emergency?

Read and do concept except bold face items
2. Define immediate steps
These action are performed without reference the checklist
3. sequence to handle typical emergency procedure is
a. identification/verification
b. task sharing
c. immediate steps
d. master warning light reset
e. read/act
f. termination of procedure
4. before an emergency procedure is initiated the affected system shall be rechecked for
normal setup and cb are in.
5. enlist the engine shut down condition
6. during engine shut down procedure on ground CL is placed to fuel off by CM1
7. during engine shut down procedure on flight CL is placed to fuel off by CM3 and fire handle
is pulled by not pulled
8. if engine flame out due to icing condition engine should be restarted after descending to
lower altitude
9. for single engine go around the airspeed to maintain is V2
10. IF both engine torque or ITT is above red radial check CTHS setting or PL position
11. Torque or ITT values in the monitor zone are permissible for 5 minutes
12. In case of excessive torque or ITT when throttle is retarded it should be retarded one ball
with roughly.
13. if torque or ITT is out of limit /excessive during take off disconnect the CTHS T/F
14. When condition lever is placed to TM Lock out it disable the master torque in the HMU and
can not be recovered until CL is placed to fuel off.
15. if torque or ITT stays abnormal after placing the condition lever to fuel off then action required
is Cl to fuel off
16. If condition lever is placed to TM LK out the reverse thrust is not available. T/F
17. If prop brake light illuminate on ground action required is cl to fuel off.
18. if prop brake light illuminate during flight switch off the engine T/F
19. If prop brake light illuminate in flight with pump off monitor fire light and rt nacelle.
20. fuel low level light comes on when fuel qty in the main tank has dropped to 480 + 50
21. minimum fuel level pump sw come on with pressure transfer pump sw T/F
22. if any tank has less then 480 Lbs of fuel avoid large attitude changes in aircraft pitch & roll
23. before x-feed due to low fuel level ensure that there is no leak in the wing.
24. if fuel leak is present in the wing or engine turn off the fuel pump and switch off the engine
25. when fire handle is pulled make sure that ready light is on.
26. in case of fire or severe damage always proceed with the ground evacuation on ground
T/F
27. in ground evacuation procedure why both fire handle are pulled and rotated to opposite side
to close the valves and discharge one bottle to either engine
28. if Auto feather light illuminate before V1 action are abort take off.
29. if auto feather fails APR is not available T/F
30. intermittent illumination of the red light in the fire handle indicates that gear are not in down
position.
31. light in the gear handle may remain extinguish even if the one or more magnetic indicator are
still abnormal. T/F
32. the location of the landing gear that is not in the correct position is shown by the magnetic
indicator .
33. during abort do not cycle the brakes if distance is marginal.
34. during abort reverse thrust should not be used if engine is on fire T/F
35. on ground with gear up wheel brakes are available. T/F
36. when during abort the gear handle should be put to up position fairing and fuselage will aid to
stop the aircraft quickly if distance is marginal.
37. minimum volts to raise the flaps with battery are 15v
38. before attempting re start procedure , procedure for the engine shut down must be
completed.
39. during air start relight time is 30sec.
40. air start is accomplished with condition lever at start position
41. in case of fire handle should be rotated after 30 sec to discharge the second bottle.
42. why itt and engine instruments are monitored when FIRE DET light is on fire
indication is not available and fire is indicated by excessive ITT or oil temp & pressure.
43. if engine oil temperature is above green arc this is an indication of
a. restricted oil supply to the bearing
b. low engine oil
c.
d. indicator malfunction
44. Engine shut down is accomplished when engine oil temp is in excess of 130 deg c.
45. Engine oil pressure is considered high if it is greater then 100 psi.
46. Engine oil pressure can reach 200 psi during start and stay there for 5minutes.
47. in case of high engine oil pressure engine will not be switched off until
a. oil temp is 130 deg c
b. engine vibration
c. engine chip light illuminate
d. all of the above
48. illumination of the engine low oil pressure light with pressure more than 30 psi indicate light
circuit malfunction
49. illumination of engine oil filter light during cold start is normal T/F
50. Illumination of engine oil filter light during cold start is normal it will go off when temperature
reaches40deg c .
51. if engine chip light illuminates engine should be switched off when engine parameter are
abnormal
52. compressor stall is indicated by
a. increase iin ITT
b. Ng fluctuation
c. Vibration
d. Possible increase in engine parameters
53. all compressor stalls are considered as system failure
54. why engine anti icing is put to on during compressor stall? To off load the compressor
55. illumination of of fuel cold light on ground should not be considered normal T/F
56. in case of fuel cold light illumination in flight action should be taken when fuel temperature is
less than 3 deg c
57. if fuel cold light remains illuminated after taking all action be prepare for a possible both
engine flameout
58. in case of engine fuel low pressure light x0feed should not be attempted until assured that
a. no fuel in the wing
b. fuel in the other wing
c. situation was due to initial fuel asymmetry
d. no fuel leak
59. u if torque indication is inoperative and CTHS is not working this is an indication os torque
assy failure
60. in case of failure of the torque assembly CTHS and 113% over speed protection is not
available
61. if Np assy fails CTHS AND BOTTOMING GOVERNOR is not available.
62. if ITT sensor fails it is indicated by ITT at 600deg c
63. if ITT is zero it indicates indicator failure
64. if ITT indicator is in operative CTHS ITT limiter is available T/F
65. failure of both torque and Np indication is caused by alternator failure
66. mechanical failure of the alternator is indicated by
a. Tq indicator failure
b. Np indicator failure
c. Ng indicator failure
d. All of the above
67. illumination of prop low oil light is abnormal with prop feathered T/F
68. Prop low oil pressure can be caused by leak or system fault.
69. high prop oil temperature can be caused by
a. poor lubrication supply of gears
b. low prop oil
c. heat exchanger blocked
d. all of the above
70. prop oil [pressure fluctuation is allowed from in 25 to 45 psi zone +5 and 46 to 140 psi zone
is + 10
71. Prop over speed is considered when Np is above 100.9 %.
72. Prop can be operated n 101 to 103.3 % Np for a maximum of 1 hour
73. Fuel transfer can be expedited while using gravity transfer by side slipping aircraft.
74. Illumination of the bleed hot light can cause affected pack automatically T/F
75. In case of bleed hot warning light if light illuminate again after system re adjustment follow
the same procedure from starting. T/F
76. In wing over heat condition affected wing will be determined by monitoring the affected side
bleed indicator x-line
77. Shifting of bleed from LP to HP is monitored by increase in ITT.
78. First action in case of supply duct O/TEMP is recirculation fan on .
79. In case of supply duct O/TEMP light should went off in45 sec after putting HOT,OFF,COLD
sw to manual
80. Abnormal rate of change of cabin pressure will be indicated by any non programmed
change in the cabin altitude.
81. Abnormal rate of change of cabin pressure could caused by any door micro switch
malfunctioning with or without door warning light.
82. why to put off recirculation fans in case of smoke evacuation they will re circulate the
smoke also through the ducts
83. if package bleed light illuminates it will go off when
a. compressor output temperature decreases
b. when the overpressure upstream of the pack
c. corresponding pack switch off
d. all off the above
84. if package bleed light illuminate after the system has been reset ,reset the the system agin
and
a. temperature selection of the associated pack has been increased
b. with the corresponding PL slightly retarded
c. 2nd time reset is not allowed
d. both a & b are correct
85. total lost of electrical power will be indicated by
a. bell &master warning light
b. both dc gen light and ampere to zero
c. services of the generators fails
d. all off the above
86. why it is required to land and soon as possible incase of total lost of power
a. battery will discharge in30 minutes
b. not required if TR supplying one generator
c. not required in any case of in total power lost
d. both a & c are correct
.
87. In addition of DC SHED BUS, when both DC SHED BUSSES are lost, both of AC SHED
BUS BAR will also lose. True/False
88. if battery to gen untie they can be reset but only one reset is allowed
.
89. It is a normal condition that bat to gen untie light illuminate during a cross start of battery start
True/False
90. when bat gen untie light Illuminate and battery magnetic indicator stay cross line after reset it
indicate
a. BAT-GEN magnetic indicator can not be reset
b. Short circuit on the battery bus
c. BAT BUS on the affected side has been lost
d. All of the above
91. if No1 battery bus is lost we can use hydraulic pumps normally True/False
92. if No1 battery bus is lost
a. gears can not be lowered normally
b. flaps can not be lowered
c. normal trim can not be used
d. all of the above
93. in case of any battery bus failure gears are to be lowered by emergency method. True/False
94. when battery warm light illuminate put battery off and wait for the light to go off for battery to
on True/False
95. If battery charge rate less than 400 Amps, take off may continue but Monitor charge rate
every ______ minutes.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
96. optional bus failure will be indicated by FAIL caption light on OPTIONAL BUS panel
True/False
97. if hydraulic quantity is decreasing let flap go to the position if selected . True/False
98. When hot hydraulic light illuminate on ground put the pump off, then put in on after _____
minutes of light off.
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 30
99. when on ground ,hot hyd light illuminates and and then off use pump alternately by switching
them off for ___ minutes
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
100. if both hot hydraulic light remains illuminated after a;; the corrective actions it can be
assumed that
a. Contamination of the hydraulic fluid arriving to the reservoir.
b. Already heated by any actuating system.
c. Both a & b are correct
101. in case of jammed elevator the speed to maintain is
a. 150
b. 160
c. 170
.
102. If elevator jam OCCURS immediately after take off, do not
a. change flap setting
b. engage autopilot
c. lower the gears
d. all of the above
103. if LH elevator is jammed control column will move towards backward position after
disconnect. True/False
104. if emergency tim and normal trim are operated simultaneously normal trim will override
True/False
105. in case of jammed elevator flaps will lowerd to ______% for landing
a. 10
b. 15
c. 23
d. no flap landing
106. in case of jammed elevator the speed to maintain is
a. 150
b. 160
c. 170
107. in case of jammed aileron bank angel is limited to ______ deg.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 45
108. If LH elevator is floating control column will move towards backward position
True/False
109. If RH elevator is floating control column will move towards backward position. True/False
110. if Rh elevator rise floating the aircraft will have nose _______ tendancy
a. up
b. down
c. no effect
d. turn to the LT due to aileron effect
111. if LH elevator rise floating the aircraft will have nose _______ tendancy
a. up
b. down
c. no effect
d. turn to the lt due to aileron effect
112. in case of elevator flotation flaps will lowerd to ______% for landing
a. 10
b. 15
c. 23
d. no flap landing
113. in case of jammed aileron the speed to maintain is
a. 150
b. 160
c. 170
114. in case of aileron flotation the speed to maintain is
a. 150
b. 160
c. 170
115. In aileron flotation trim should not be used. true/false
116. if wing and tail de icing light illuminate incease speed by_____ kts.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
117. when using wing and tail de-icing manually hold each switch for_____ sec
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
118. if there is ice on the wing and wing de icing is inoperative increase stalling speed by______
kts
a. 15
b. 20
c. 22
d. 30
119. if propeller anti icing is inoperative and cruise with 100% Np limit maximum torque to
___________ ft lbs.
a. 225
b. 300
c. 350
d. 375
120. if propeller anti icing is inoperative cycle the condition lever after every _________ minutes.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
121. if one windshield anti icing light illuminates the other regulator will control the the anti icing
of both wind shields TRUE/FALSE
122. What should be the maximum air speed if cockpit window are opened due to windshield
anti icing inoperative ______________.
a. 200
b. 150
c. 160
d. 140
LIMITATION
1. Minimum crew required to operate the aircraft are
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
2. minimum emergency crew required to operate the aircraft are
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
3. for assault mission up m to 14100 kg load factor with flap retracted is
a. +3.00 to -1.00
b. +2.64 to -1.00
c. +2.00 to -0.00
4. for normal transport and cargo mission up to 15800 kg load factor with flaps extended is
a. +3.00 to -1.00
b. +2.64 to -1.00
c. +2.00 to -0.00
5. maximum normal take off weight is
a. 16500
b. 16100
c. 16000
d. 15800
6. maximum normal taxi weight is
a. 16500
b. 16100
c. 16000
d. 15800
7. maximum logistic weight is
a. 16500
b. 16100
c. 16000
d. 15800
8. max forward and aft CG limit for weight up to 16500 kg is
a. 16 to 30
b. 23.0 to 24.0
c. 19 to 27
d. 13 to 18
9. maximum load allowed on the ramp and door is ________ kg
a. 500
b. 900
c. 1100
d. 1000
10. above 15800 kg turning is allowed without braking T/F
11. VMO at sea level is
a. 232
b. 203
c. 178
d. 250
12. maximum design maneuvering speed is
a. 232
b. 23
c. 178
d. 160
13. maximum turbulence penetration up to 15000ft is
a. 160
b. 175
c. 180
d. 185
14. minimum airspeed above 25000 is
a. 120
b. 100
c. 130
d. 150
15. flap can be extended from sea level to __________ ft
a. 19000
b. 18000
c. 17000
d. 25000
16. maximum flap approach speed is 150 kts T/F
17. landing gear can be extended from sea level to_______
a. 19000
b. 18000
c. 17000
d. 25000
18. maximum allowable speed for Para trooping through ramp and door is
a. 190
b. 165
c. 140
d. 130
19. opening of both ramp and door and para troop door is prohibited T/F
20. maximum cockpit window opening speed is
a. 150
b. 1120
c. 180
d. 200
21. maximum tyre rotation speed is
a. 174
b. 139
c. 150
d. 165
22. maximum full reverse torque is
a. 200
b. 250
c. 248
d. 230
23. maximum full reverse speed is
a. 139
b. 174
c. 120
d. 115
24. maximum demonstrated cross wind is
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
25. if x-wind is in excess of _________ Kts flap position for landing is__________.
a. 30,15
b. 20, 23
c. 20 ,15
d. 30 ,23
26. maximum and minimum limit on instrument marking is shown by
a. yellow arc
b. green arc
c. red radial
27. Max permissible transient torque for 12 sec is ____________ FPS.
a. 424
b. 454
c. 500
28. Max permissible transient ITT for 12 sec is ____________ C
a. 950
b. 975
c. 921
d. 944
29. Max transient limits are allowed for 5 minutes. T/F
30. ground idle Ng limit is ________
a. 60 to 70
b. 65 to 75
c. 75 to 80
d. 70 to 75
31. maximum allowable fluctuation in torque is _________ Fps
a. + 4
b. + 3
c. + 2
d. + 5
32. take off power with APR is not available if temperature is
a. 41
b. 35
c. 45
d. 31
33. maximum allowable fluctuation in ITT is _________ C
a. + 4
b. + 3
c. + 2
d. + 5
34. maximum allowable fluctuation in Np is _________ %
a. + 4
b. + 3
c. + 2
35. minimum oil temperature for MIL-L – 7808 is
a. -54
b. -40
c. -35
d. -15
36. maximum transient eng oil temperature is _________C for sec_________
a. 122 15
b. 132 30
c. 132 15
d. 122 30
37. operation above ground idle at oil pressure in excess of ________ Psi is not allowed.
a. 100
b. 110
c. 120
d. 130
38. maximum continuous Np is ___________
a. 114.7
b. 100.9
c. 101
d. 100
39. maximum torque with prop feathered is ___________ Fps
a. 175
b. 165
c. 160
d. 150
40. manual feather pump duty cycle is 30 sec On 30 sec Off,30sec On and 10 min off T/F
41. minimum hydraulic pressure for prop brake operation is ______ Psi
a. 2900
b. 2700
c. 2800
d. 3000
42. maximum time between successive prop brake engagement is _______ min
a. 15
b. 20
c. 30
d. 10
43. no fluctuation is allowed in engine oil pressure T/F
44. fluctuation allowed in PGB oil pressure between 46 and 140 psi is
a. + 20
b. + 15
c. + 10
d. + 5
45. the minimum fueling pressure is ______psi
a. 45
b. 50
c. 55
d. 60
46. minimum internal battery voltage are________
a. 24
b. 22
c. 26
d. 28
47. minimum GPU voltage are________
a. 24
b. 22
c. 26
d. 28
48. maximum time with starter engaged is_______ sec
a. 50
b. 60
c. 30
d. 57
49. maximum generator load of 500 amp is allowed for _______sec
a. 180
b. 60
c. 30
50. maximum generator load of 600 amp is allowed for _______sec
a. 180
b. 60
c. 30
51. maximum continuous TR load is_________ amp
a. 300
b. 400
c. 450
d. 600
52. minimum operating temperature for the hydraulic used is______
a. -40
b. -54
c. -35
d. -58
53. maximum sink rate on touch down is_________ fpm
a. 500
b. 540
c. 300
d. 600
54. max pitch attitude when tail in contact with ground at MTOW is _________degree
a. 15
b. 13
c. 14
d. 12
55. Minimum speed for auto pilot operation is _______ Vs.
a. 1.1
b. 1.2
c. 1.3
d. 1.5
56. If auto pilot remain engage in turbulence the horizontal mode must be disengaged. T/F
57. Minimum oxygen pressure for flight is ______ Psi.
a. 600
b. 700
c. 500
d. 800

CN-235 All Questions

Încărcat de

Informații document

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

CN-235 All Questions

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

AIRCRAFT GENERAL

1. The Cn-235 aircraft has_________ wings

12. CM3 seat is hinged to RH avionic rack True/False

14. Wing span of the aircraft is _____ ft

1. The propeller is a constant speed four-bladed H.S.14 RF-21 type,

12. Max reverse blade angel is_______

35. To operate the system, the following conditions must be required :

44. Auto feather warning light illuminates to indicate that

30. USABLE FUEL in each Main Tank is-------------

1. The primary electrical power source of the aircraft is,

11. primary controls are ____________

6. ELT will automatically transmit if subjected to_ to acceleration Gs is

7. Amber caution light of FIRE DET illuminates to indicate that

1. System which uses bleed for their operation are

11. BLEED HOT light in CWP illuminates to indicates that

31. When pressure dump switch is placed to the dump position

1. Wings and tail system is anti- icing system T/F

1. What is the principle of application for an emergency?

S-ar putea să vă placă și