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1. What makes (iii) an invalid solution? I interpreted it as a superposition of two (i) functions.
No provided answer in the answer key (Bonus?). I answered E, but I am not sure about statements
(ii) and (iii).
1. Are all three statements incorrect? Statement (i) seems correct, since the imaginary portion
of particle B’s wavefunction is eliminated by its conjugate in the probability density integral.
2. For statement (ii), the range where the sine wavefunction is applicable wasn’t limited to a
certain region only. Will this make the probability of finding the particle at any given x zero
(thus making statement (ii) trivial)? The wavefunction extends from negative to positive
infinity and cannot be normalized.
3. For statement (iii), is E1 ≠ E2 a strict requirement? Does E1 = E2 imply that the 2 solutions are
identical?
Items are from Physics 73 3rd long problem set B, 2nd semester, AY 2011-2012.
2. Besides the elimination of the imaginary component in the probability density integral
(which will lead to infinitely many parent wavefunctions), are there other reasons why choice
D is false?
(62 − 12 )π2 ℏ2
E6 − E1 = = 3.749 × 10−22 J = 2.340 × 10−3 eV
2me L2
Correct answer based on answer key is A. I answered E.
1. Is the 3D energy equation above (shown in #37) also applicable here? I was thinking of only
considering 2 components (x and y), since the electron should not be bounded in the z-
direction (along the height of the well).
𝟔π2 ℏ2 hc
E3→1 = ; λ=
2me L2 E3→1
However, I could not determine where the 6 in the numerator came from.
Correct answer based on answer key is B. I have no answer.
2 hc
ΔE1→0 = ℏω = (0.490 eV); λ=
3 E1→0
The 2/3 in the ΔE equation would only show up if I used E1 = (1 + 0 + 0 + 3/2)ℏ ω. Is this
correct?