Osi Les

A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four
remote sites.
What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a
shared
Frame Relay solution?
lower cost
lower latency and jitter
variable bandwidth capacity
fewer physical router interfaces
2
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a
part
of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco
IOS
software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts
unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done
next to
isolate this problem?
From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.
From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.
From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco
IOS
software.
From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP
server resides.
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3 Which device encodes data for transmission across the WAN service provider
transmission link?
CPE
DTE
DCE
UART
4Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has added the exhibited commands to routers A
and B,
but no routing updates are exchanged between the two routers. Based on the information
that is
given, what is the likely cause of the problem?
Router A is advertising the wrong network.
The authentication key strings do not match.
The serial interfaces of routers A and B are not on the same network.
The authentication key numbers do not match the EIGRP process number for both
routers.
5 What are two characteristics of DSL technology? (Choose two.)
Uploads typically offer larger transfer rates than downloads.
Service providers deploy DSL in the local loop of the telephone network.
DSL download rates are reduced by large volumes of POTS voice traffic.
Filters and splitters allow POTS and DSL traffic to share the same medium.
DSL is a shared medium that allows many users to share bandwidth available from the
DSLAM.
6 An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the
administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote
network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of
the
nslookup command. At what layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be
found?
application
transport
network
data link
7 While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that
the
switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot
ping the
server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
8
Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What
happens if the
network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.
9
Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.
10 A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer
rates
between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service
provider,
and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports
higher download speeds than Company B?
Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.
Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.
Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.
Company A is closer to the service provider.
11Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside
network. HostA
has sent a packet to Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet
from
Web Server when it is received at the NIC on HostA?
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
172.30.20.1:3333
192.168.1.2:80
12 Which protocol is implicitly denied at the end of an IPv4 access list?
IP
TCP
UDP
HTTP
13 A network administrator is analyzing the data from a network performance baseline.
Which
condition will not be indicated in the baseline data?
the IP addressing scheme of the network
the most heavily used parts of the network
congested areas of the network
error rates in different parts of the network
14
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to connect Router1, a Cisco router, to a
non-Cisco router using a serial connection. Why is the connection failing?
A loopback is not set.
The interface has been shut down.The wrong encapsulation is being used.
Queuing cannot be used when connecting to non-Cisco devices.
15
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the WAN switch device?
It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM or
X.25 over the WAN.
It provides internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to
the service
provider network.
It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through
error
correction and line monitoring.
It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be
transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.
16
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the status of the Frame Relay
connection?
The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
Only packets with control bit DE set are sent over the PVC. No data traffic traverses the
link.
Packets marked as FECN and BECN indicate that a congestion control mechanism is
enabled
on the Frame Relay PVC.
The “DLCI USAGE = LOCAL” status indicates that the PVC link is not established
between the
interface S0/0/0.1 and the Frame Relay switch.17
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts in network A all have static addresses that are assigned in
the
192.168.2.0./24 network. The hosts in network B are DHCP clients in the 192.168.1.0/24
network. After router R1 has been configured with the statements as shown in the exhibit,
the
DHCP clients are reporting that they cannot access any network resources. The hosts with
static
addresses cannot access any resources outside network A. What is the problem?
The DHCP scope has the wrong address pool.
The interfaces on R1 are incorrectly addressed.
The assignable DCHP addresses are all excluded.
The DCHP clients are receiving the wrong default router address.
18
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 each support separate areas of a data center,
and are
connected via a crossover cable. Resources attached to Router1 are unable to connect to
resources attached to Router2. What is the likely cause?The crossover cable is faulty.
The IP addressing is incorrect.
There is a Layer 2 problem with the router connection.
The upper layers are experiencing an unspecified problem.
One or both of the Ethernet interfaces are not working correctly.
19 At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change from
the service
provider to the user?
DMZ
local loop
CSU/DSU
demarcation point
20 Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server.
At what
layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
application layer
21 Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is
used in
Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)
flow control
error notification
congestion notification
the mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
the sending of keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC
22
Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN
tunnel
between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and
destination IP
addresses of the packet?
Source 192.168.1.2 – Destination 192.168.4.2
23 Which protocol is used to authenticate connections over serial links securely?
CHAP
HDLC
SLIP
PAP
24Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router and Branch B has a non-Cisco router
that is
using IETF encapsulation . After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 and R3
fail to
establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is
successfully
established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.
LMI types cannot be different on each end of a PVC.
A single port can only support one encapsulation type.
The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.3 203 command.
25
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM,
but
the network administrator cannot access the SDM interface of the router. What is the
cause of
the problem?
The VTY lines are misconfigured.
The HTTP timeout policy is misconfigured.
The authentication method is misconfigured.
The username and password are misconfigured.26
Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are
failing.
The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the
problem?
SSH is unable to pass through NAT.
There are incorrect access control list entries.
The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.
The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.
27 What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any
eq www
command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?
All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.
The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.
All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.
Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.
28 While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map
be used?
the remote router is a non-Cisco router
the local router is configured with subinterfaces
broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
29 Where will a router operating system image be copied after the copy flash: tftp
command is
issued?
flash
DRAM
NVRAM
remote server
30Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with
completing the
Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point
subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
31
Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from
the
DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is
no
address pool for 10.1.1.1″. What is the problem?
The 10.1.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
The default router for the 10Network pool is incorrect.
The ip helper-address must be added to Fa0/0 interface.The pool of addresses for the
10Network pool is incorrect.
32
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to
this
interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
improper LMI type
encapsulation failure
local cable unplugged
33 What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1
172.16.4.5
to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1
and
172.16.4.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses
172.16.4.1 and
172.16.4.5.
34Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer?
all DHCP requests that R1 receives
requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255
DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3
requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface
requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded
35 A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host.
What two
methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose
two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the
reply
frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
36 An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng.
The
administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng.
What
is the cause of the problem?
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.
RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut
down in
favor of the newer technology.
37 What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an
operational
CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point
link has
not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial
down,
line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial
up, line
protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial
up,
line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial
down,
line protocol down.38 What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN?
(Choose three.)
A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
39
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are both configured for single area OSPF. Users
who are
connected to switch S1 are unable to access database applications that run on servers that
are
connected to S2. The network engineer is working remotely and only has the information
that is
shown in the exhibit to direct initial troubleshooting efforts. Based on the exhibit, which
OSI
layer is the most appropriate to start with for a divide-and-conquer approach?
network layer
application layer
data-link layer
physical layer
40Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-list and show ip interface
fastethernet 0/1
commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable
to telnet to
host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the
two
networks?
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .
Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
41
Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will
travel
from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
DLCI 200
42 When configuring remote access to a router, what is the significance of the no
password
command on a VTY line?
Logins are prevented on that line.
No password is required to log in to that line.
The remote user is not allowed to change the password for that line.
The remote user is prompted to change the line password after connecting to the router.43
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on
Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the
172.16.2.0/24
network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface
and
in which direction should it be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
interface Fa0/1, outbound
44Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with EIGRP in the same
autonomous system. Computers PC1 and PC2 are not able to ping each other. Further
investigation has revealed that the route to 192.168.10.0 is missing from the routing table
on R2.
What is the cause of the problem?
The networks are not correctly summarized.
The FastEthernet interfaces on R1 are configured as passive.
The network statements on R2 are incorrectly configured.
EIGRP on R1 does not recognize the 192.168.10.0 network.
45 Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose
three.)
It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
It defines a process for managing security violations.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
46 What is a major characteristic of a worm?
malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
tricks users into running the infected software
a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
47Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly describe how Router1 processes
an FTP
request that enters interface S0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address
192.168.1.5?
(Choose two.)
The packet does not match an access list condition.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created from the access-
list 201
permit ip any any command.
list
101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command.
list 201
deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command.
The packet is allowed into Router1.
48 A technician has been asked to run the Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of
a
customer. What will be the result of this process?
The router will download the latest security patches from the specified FTP server.
All security configurations that are offered by the Cisco AutoSecure feature will be
automatically
implemented.
All traffic that enters the router is quarantined and checked against the possible security
problems
before being forwarded.
The existing router configurations will be examined and all potential security-related
configuration changes will be automatically implemented.
49 Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
A wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit by using a “1″.
The same function is performed by both a wildcard mask and a subnet mask.
When a “0″ is encountered in a wildcard mask, the IP address bit must be checked.
50 What type of ACL can be used to force a user to authenticate to the router before
accessing a
network?standard
dynamic
reflexive
time-based
CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (B)
1. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the
correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C
2. Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct
answer from the list below.
• 156
• 158
• 160
• 162
• 164
• 166
3. Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it
would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
• file size
• data format
• network in use
• type of medium
• bandwidth of the link
4. Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be
sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
• 52.2 seconds
• 21.3 seconds
• 6.4 seconds
• 2 seconds
• 0.075 seconds
• 0.0375 seconds
5. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)

• path determination
• handles representation, encoding and dialog control
• uses TCP and UDP protocols
• packet switching
• reliability, flow control and error correction
6. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)

• neutral and neutral
• neutral and positive
• neutral and negative
• positive and positive
• positive and negative
• negative and negative
7. Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data
network communications? (Choose three.)
• glass fibers
• copper
• gold
• plastic
• silicon
• silver
8. During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information
carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
• bit speed
• attenuation
• wire map
• saturation limit
• analog bandwidth
9. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a

network? (Choose three.)
• between workstation and backbone switch
• between individual workstations
• between backbone switches
• between enterprise server and switch
• on aggregate access links
10. What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media
to which it is being connected?
• a transducer
• a transmitter
• a transceiver
• a transponder
• a port replicator
11. An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
•1
•2
•3
•4
12. Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose
three.)
• frame format
• media
• connectors
• timing
• multi-part encoding
13. Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat
5e cable?
• the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
• the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
• the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error
correction
• the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously
14. For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
• inter-building connection
• mid-length voice
• video conferencing
• vertical wiring
• horizontal wiring
• diagonal wiring
15. John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided
to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been
caused by John's inexperience?
• collision domain extended
• an increased number of collision domains
• increased network performance
• increased bandwidth
• extended bandwidth
16. "CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which
of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?
• MAC request
• ARP request
• ping
• Telnet
• proxy ARP
17. Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to
increase the number of collision domains?
• encapsulation
• latency
• segmentation
• layered model
• broadcast domain
• extended
18. The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network
condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
• anonymous FTP servers
• telnet sessions
• video over IP applications
• NAS services
• ARP requests
• RIP updates
19. Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• resolve routing loops
• eliminate Split Horizon errors
• limit collisions
• resolve switching loops
20. Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Proxy RARP
21. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?

• session
• transport
• network
• data link
22. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?

• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
• session
23. Which of the following are Cisco proprietary routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• RIPv2
• IGRP
• OSPF
• BGP
• RIPv1
• EIGRP
24. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with
each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate
one?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
25. A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable
subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following
is the appropriate subnet mask?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
26. When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A
address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to
devices?
• 1022
• 510
• 254
• 126
• 30
•6
27. If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which
protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
• NFS
• ASCII
• TFTP
• IMAP
• FTP
• UDP
28. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers?

(Choose two.)
• a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
• a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
• a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
• a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the
remote server system
• a control connection between the client and server
29. Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and
servers? (Choose three.)
• TFTP
• SNMP
• POP3
• SMTP
• IMAP4
• postoffice
30. What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
• a fault
• a short
• an open
• a split
• a good map
31. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?

• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 6
32. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable
33. What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
• The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
• The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
• Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
• The maximum frame length is 10 octets.
34. How is a MAC address represented?

• four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
• four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
• six hexadecimal digits
• twelve hexadecimal digits
• twenty-four Base10 digits
35. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps
Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule
36. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11

Mbps?
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11c
• 802.11d
37. Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
• File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
• Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
• Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
• Internet Protocol (IP)
• User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
• Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)
38. Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network
access layer functions? (Choose two.)
• configuring the e-mail client
• installing NIC drivers
• configuring IP network settings
• connecting the network cable
• using FTP to download application software updates
39. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?

• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet
40. Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
• It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
• It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
• It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
• It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.
41. In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium
that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
• coaxial
• screened twisted pair
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair
• fiber optic
42. What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-
peer network?
• 25
• 15
• 10
•5
•2
43. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal
attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters
44. Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
• government
• education
• network
• non-profit
45. Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
• DNS
• WINS
• DHCP
• Telnet
46. Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
• www
• http://
• /teacher
• awsb.ca
47. Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
• ping 10.10.10.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ping 127.0.0.1
• ping 223.223.223.223
• ping 255.255.255.255
48. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?

• bit
• frame
• packet
• segment
49. Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal
computer? (Choose three.)
• transistor
• microprocessor
• power supply
• capacitor
• light emitting diode
• hard disk
50. What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when
considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
• It links data to the transport layer.
• It encapsulates frames into packets.
• It provides a service to the network layer.
• It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
• Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link
functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the
medium.
51. Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask?
(Choose three.)
• 127.0.39.1
• 111.9.28.30
• 123.1.2.132
• 128.50.38.2
• 105.1.34.1
• 0.23.92.3
Posted by CuEiHzO at 1:01 AM 0 comments
Labels: CCNA1-Version 3.1, Networking Basics
CCNA 1 - Module Final Exam Answers(B) Version 3.1
CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (B)
1. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the
correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C
2. Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct
answer from the list below.
• 156
• 158
• 160
• 162
• 164
• 166
3. Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it
would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
• file size
• data format
• network in use
• type of medium
• bandwidth of the link
4. Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be
sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
• 52.2 seconds
• 21.3 seconds
• 6.4 seconds
• 2 seconds
• 0.075 seconds
• 0.0375 seconds
5. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)

• path determination
• handles representation, encoding and dialog control
• uses TCP and UDP protocols
• packet switching
• reliability, flow control and error correction
6. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)

• neutral and neutral
• neutral and positive
• neutral and negative
• positive and positive
• positive and negative
• negative and negative
7. Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data
network communications? (Choose three.)
• glass fibers
• copper
• gold
• plastic
• silicon
• silver
8. During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information
carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
• bit speed
• attenuation
• wire map
• saturation limit
• analog bandwidth
9. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a

network? (Choose three.)
• between workstation and backbone switch
• between individual workstations
• between backbone switches
• between enterprise server and switch
• on aggregate access links
10. What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media
to which it is being connected?
• a transducer
• a transmitter
• a transceiver
• a transponder
• a port replicator
11. An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
•1
•2
•3
•4
12. Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose
three.)
• frame format
• media
• connectors
• timing
• multi-part encoding
13. Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat
5e cable?
• the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
• the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
• the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error
correction
• the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously
14. For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
• inter-building connection
• mid-length voice
• video conferencing
• vertical wiring
• horizontal wiring
• diagonal wiring
15. John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided
to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been
caused by John's inexperience?
• collision domain extended
• an increased number of collision domains
• increased network performance
• increased bandwidth
• extended bandwidth
16. "CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which
of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?
• MAC request
• ARP request
• ping
• Telnet
• proxy ARP
17. Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to
increase the number of collision domains?
• encapsulation
• latency
• segmentation
• layered model
• broadcast domain
• extended
18. The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network
condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
• anonymous FTP servers
• telnet sessions
• video over IP applications
• NAS services
• ARP requests
• RIP updates
19. Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• resolve routing loops
• eliminate Split Horizon errors
• limit collisions
• resolve switching loops
20. Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Proxy RARP
21. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?

• session
• transport
• network
• data link
22. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?

• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
• session
23. Which of the following are Cisco proprietary routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• RIPv2
• IGRP
• OSPF
• BGP
• RIPv1
• EIGRP
24. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with
each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate
one?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
25. A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable
subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following
is the appropriate subnet mask?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
26. When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A
address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to
devices?
• 1022
• 510
• 254
• 126
• 30
•6
27. If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which
protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
• NFS
• ASCII
• TFTP
• IMAP
• FTP
• UDP
28. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers?

(Choose two.)
• a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
• a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
• a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
• a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the
remote server system
• a control connection between the client and server
29. Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and
servers? (Choose three.)
• TFTP
• SNMP
• POP3
• SMTP
• IMAP4
• postoffice
30. What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
• a fault
• a short
• an open
• a split
• a good map
31. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?

• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 6
32. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• rollover
• patch cable
33. What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
• The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
• The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
• Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
• The maximum frame length is 10 octets.
34. How is a MAC address represented?

• four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
• four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
• six hexadecimal digits
• twelve hexadecimal digits
• twenty-four Base10 digits
35. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps
Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule
36. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11

Mbps?
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11c
• 802.11d
37. Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
• File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
• Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
• Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
• Internet Protocol (IP)
• User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
• Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)
38. Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network
access layer functions? (Choose two.)
• configuring the e-mail client
• installing NIC drivers
• configuring IP network settings
• connecting the network cable
• using FTP to download application software updates
39. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?

• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet
40. Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
• It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
• It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
• It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
• It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.
41. In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium
that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
• coaxial
• screened twisted pair
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair
• fiber optic
42. What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-

peer network?
• 25
• 15
• 10
•5
•2
43. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal
attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters
44. Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
• government
• education
• network
• non-profit
45. Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
• DNS
• WINS
• DHCP
• Telnet
46. Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
• www
• http://
• /teacher
• awsb.ca
47. Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
• ping 10.10.10.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ping 127.0.0.1
• ping 223.223.223.223
• ping 255.255.255.255
48. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?

• bit
• frame
• packet
• segment
49. Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal
computer? (Choose three.)
• transistor
• microprocessor
• power supply
• capacitor
• light emitting diode
• hard disk
50. What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when
considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
• It links data to the transport layer.
• It encapsulates frames into packets.
• It provides a service to the network layer.
• It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
• Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link
functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the
medium.
51. Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask?
(Choose three.)
• 127.0.39.1
• 111.9.28.30
• 123.1.2.132
• 128.50.38.2
• 105.1.34.1
• 0.23.92.3
CCNA 1 - Module Final Exam Answers(A) Version 3.1
CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (A)
1. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data

communication services?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network
2. Router interface Ethernet 0 has been assigned the IP address 10.172.192.168

255.255.255.240. What is the network IP address of this interface?
• 10.0.0.0
• 10.172.0.0
• 10.172.192.0
• 10.172.192.160
• 10.172.192.168
• 10.172.192.175
3. Examine the graphic with current configurations. The New York Offices of ABC
Company recently upgraded the computers in the administrative office. Shortly after the
upgrade, Host A in the clerical office failed and was replaced with one of the retired
administrative office computers. However, the computer can not access the company
network in the new location. What is the likely cause of this network access issue for
Host A?
• MAC address incorrectly entered
• default gateway incorrectly entered
• subnet mask incorrectly entered
• IP address incorrectly entered
4. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?

• the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
• the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
• a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
• an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub •
5. What is attenuation?
• opposition to the flow of current
• measurement of electrical signals relative to time
• degradation of a signal as it travels along the medium
• amount or volume of traffic that is flowing on the medium
6. Two peer hosts are running applications that exchange data using UDP. During the
current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. What is true concerning the
retransmission of the datagram?
• Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the source
host.
• Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the
destination host.
• Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application layer protocol.
• Datagram retransmission involves only the data with sequence numbers equal to or
higher than the sequence number of the current datagram.
7. What is significant about the ping 127.0.0.1 command?

• It verifies the operation of the TCP/IP protocol stack on a host and is called an internal
loopback test.
• It verifies connection to the remote host with the IP address 127.0.0.1.
• It verifies whether the router that connects the local network to other networks can be
reached.
• It verifies the route packets take between the local host and the host with the IP address
127.0.0.1.
8. Which LAN switching mode has the highest latency?

• fast forward
• fragment-free
• latency forwarding
• store-and-forward
9. Which of the following application layer protocols use UDP segments? (Choose two.)
• DNS
• FTP
• Telnet
• TFTP
• SMTP
10. Which cable specifications are indicated by 100BASE-T?

• 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, coaxial cable
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, broadband signal, twisted-pair cable
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
• Equal to 10-Gbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
11. When is a crossover cable used in a network?

• when connecting a host to the router console port
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a host to a host
• when connecting a switch to a router
12. Refer to the graphic. What must be configured on Host A to allow it communicate
with the e-mail server? (Choose three.)
• IP address •
• subnet mask •
• default gateway •
• router name
• switch name
• NetBIOS name address
13. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with
Cisco devices?
• Cable A
• Cable B
• Cable C
• Cable D
14. Which type of address is 192.168.17.134/29?

• host address
• network address
• broadcast address
• multicast address
15. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?

• three
• four
• five
• six
• seven
• eight
16. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a router to another router
17. How does network cable length affect attenuation?

• Category 5 cable that is run in metal conduit has the highest attenuation in the shortest
distance.
• Shorter cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
• Longer cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
• The length of the cable has no effect on signal attenuation.
18. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It is a media access method used in LANs. •
• It is a media access method used in FDDI WANs.
• When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available. •
• A device sends data without checking media availability because all devices have equal
access.
• Multiple devices can successfully transmit simultaneously.
• Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.
19. Which of the following must be present for current to flow? (Choose three.)
• closed loop
• bit-generating device
• insulating material
• source of voltage
• load
• switch
20. If Host A pings Host B through a newly installed switch with no entries in the MAC
address table, which stations will receive the ping packet?
• B only
• A and B
• B and switch
• A, B, and switch
• B, C, D, and switch •
• A, B, C, D, and switch
21. Which devices shown in the graphic must have a MAC address?
• only PC
• only router
• PC and router
• PC, hub, and router
• PC, printer, and router
22. What kind of connection is represented in the graphic?

• console connection
• Ethernet connection
• ISDN connection
• leased line connection
23. Which of the following is the decimal representation of the binary number 11010011?
• 203
• 204
• 211
• 212
24. Which type of cable is required to make a connection between a router console port
and a PC COM port?
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• rollover cable
• DB-9 cable
• coaxial cable
25. Determine the number of useable networks and hosts for the IP address
192.168.50.0/27
• 4 networks / 62 hosts
26. A network administrator is placing an older router back in to service. The

administrator discovered that the IOS and configuration files need to be updated to meet
the LAN specifications. Which application layer protocol is used to transfer the new
configuration files into the router memory?
• SNMP
• SMTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
27. Which of the following best describes Spanning Tree Protocol?

• It enables a network to span across multiple physical segments.
• It enables a switch to eliminate switching loops.
• It enables a switch to dynamically choose the best switch mode.
• It enables a switch to perform as a router.
28. Which of the following subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP
address? (Choose two.)
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.192.255.0
• 255.224.0.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.255.128
29. How is data encapsulated as it is moved down the OSI model?

• data, segments, frames, packets, bits
• data, packets, segments, frames, bits
• data, segments, packets, frames, bits
• data, packets, frames, segments, bits
30. Which of the following describes latency?

• the noise generated from outside a cable
• the degradation of a signal as it travels along the media
• the time required for a NIC to place a frame on the network media
• the delay between the time a frame leaves its source device and reaches its destination
31. Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal number 111?
• 01101111
• 01111101
• 11110111
• 11101101
32. Which LAN switching mode begins switching after reading only the first 64 bytes of
the frame?
• fast forward
• fragment-free
33. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data
between hosts on an Ethernet network?
• 1 and 2; 4 and 5
• 1 and 2; 3 and 6 •
• 3 and 6; 7 and 8
• 4 and 5; 7 and 8
34. Which of the following commands could be used on a Windows-based computer to

view the current IP configuration of the system? (Choose two.)
• configip
• ifconfig
• ipconfig
• winipcfg
• winipconfig

• host address
• network address
36. Which of the following networking devices increase the number of collision
domains? (Choose three.)
• switch
• hub
• router
repeater
• bridge
37. What information can be determined from the MAC addresses of PC1, PC2, and PC3,
as shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• PC1 and PC2 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same OUI identifier.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have different OUI identifiers.
• PC1 and PC2 NICs are from the same vendor.
• PC1 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same vendor-assigned
address.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs are from different vendors.
38. Which of the following are considered WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
• DSL
• Ethernet
• Wireless Ethernet
• T1-Carrier
• Token Ring
39. which one of the router connectors shown in the graphic would be used for a LAN
connection?
• Connector A
• Connector B
• Connector C
• Connector D
40. How is full-duplex capability typically achieved in fiber-optic cable?

• Two fibers are encased in separate sheaths.
• Light is bounced at different rates in opposite directions.
• Transmit speeds are so high that half-duplex is acceptable.
• Colors of the light spectrum are separated into transmit and receive streams.
41. Which of the following are characteristics of IP? (Choose three.)

• connection-oriented protocol
• connectionless protocol•
• reliable protocol
• unreliable protocol •
• routed protocol •
• routing protocol
42. Which of the following describe the token-passing logical topology? (Choose two.)
• FDDI is an example of a token-passing network.
• Token-passing logical topologies must also be physical ring topologies.
• One of the disadvantages of the token-passing logical topology is the high collision rate.
• Computers transmit data after "listening" to the wire to detect other traffic.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
43. What is the maximum length of a media segment used for 100BASE-TX?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 400 meters
• 500 meters
44. which of the following networking devices divide a network into separate collision
domains? (Choose two.)
• repeater
• bridge
• switch
• AUI
• hub
45. Which of the following are characteristics of UTP cable? (Choose three.)
• Each wire is covered by insulating material.
• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• It is a four-pair wire medium.•
• It is difficult to terminate the cable.
• It relies on the cancellation effect produced by the twisted wire pairs.
• It is more expensive than any other type of LAN cabling.
46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed
and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer
can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
network card failure
47. Which of the following describes a physical full-mesh topology?

• It requires termination at both ends of the cable.
• It uses a hub or a switch as a central point to connect all wires.
• It provides maximum connectivity between all network systems.
• It links all computers to a main computer that controls all traffic on the network.
48. Which two statements describe the TFTP protocol? (Choose two.)
• uses authenticated file transfer procedure
• provides connection-oriented service
• provides connectionless service
• provides more features that FTP
• lacks most of the features of FTP
49. Which of the following are transport layer protocols of the TCP/IP model? (Choose
two.)
• FTP
• UDP
• SMTP
• TFTP
• TCP
50. Which type of UTP network cable connects two Cisco switches?
• crossover
• rollover
• patch
51. How will the MAIN router dynamically learn a route to the 10.16.10.48/28
subnetwork in the diagram?
• with a routed protocol
• with a routing protocol
• with a static route
• with a directly connected route
52. Which of the following describes the RIP version 1 routing protocol?
• Cisco proprietary hybrid protocol
• distance vector protocol that uses hop count as the only metric •
• link state protocol supporting multiple routed protocols
• distance vector protocol that uses delay, bandwidth, load, and reliability metrics
53. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?

• three
• four
• five
• six
• seven
• eight
54. Which of the following are advantages of UTP cable? (Choose three.)
• less expensive than fiber optic
• flexible and easy to run in a building
• distance between signal boosts is longer than it is for coaxial
• transmits data at a faster rate than any copper-based media
• receives less RMF and EMI interference than other types
Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (choose 2)

• -hub
• -repeater
CCNA 1 - Module Final Exam Answers(A) Version 3.1
CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (A)
1. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data

communication services?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network
2. Router interface Ethernet 0 has been assigned the IP address 10.172.192.168

255.255.255.240. What is the network IP address of this interface?
• 10.0.0.0
• 10.172.0.0
• 10.172.192.0
• 10.172.192.160
• 10.172.192.168
• 10.172.192.175
3. Examine the graphic with current configurations. The New York Offices of ABC
Company recently upgraded the computers in the administrative office. Shortly after the
upgrade, Host A in the clerical office failed and was replaced with one of the retired
administrative office computers. However, the computer can not access the company
network in the new location. What is the likely cause of this network access issue for
Host A?
• MAC address incorrectly entered
• default gateway incorrectly entered
• IP address incorrectly entered
4. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?

• the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
• the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
• a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
• an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub •
5. What is attenuation?
• opposition to the flow of current
• measurement of electrical signals relative to time
• degradation of a signal as it travels along the medium
• amount or volume of traffic that is flowing on the medium
6. Two peer hosts are running applications that exchange data using UDP. During the
current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. What is true concerning the
retransmission of the datagram?
• Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the source
host.
• Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the
destination host.
• Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application layer protocol.
• Datagram retransmission involves only the data with sequence numbers equal to or
higher than the sequence number of the current datagram.
7. What is significant about the ping 127.0.0.1 command?

• It verifies the operation of the TCP/IP protocol stack on a host and is called an internal
loopback test.
• It verifies connection to the remote host with the IP address 127.0.0.1.
• It verifies whether the router that connects the local network to other networks can be
reached.
• It verifies the route packets take between the local host and the host with the IP address
127.0.0.1.
8. Which LAN switching mode has the highest latency?

• fast forward
• fragment-free
9. Which of the following application layer protocols use UDP segments? (Choose two.)
• DNS
• FTP
• Telnet
• TFTP
• SMTP
10. Which cable specifications are indicated by 100BASE-T?

• 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, coaxial cable
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, broadband signal, twisted-pair cable
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
• Equal to 10-Gbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
11. When is a crossover cable used in a network?

• when connecting a host to the router console port
• when connecting a host to a host
• when connecting a switch to a router
12. Refer to the graphic. What must be configured on Host A to allow it communicate
with the e-mail server? (Choose three.)
• IP address •
• subnet mask •
• default gateway •
• router name
• switch name
• NetBIOS name address
13. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with
Cisco devices?
• Cable A
• Cable B
• Cable C
• Cable D

• host address
• network address
15. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?

• three
• four
• five
• six
• seven
• eight
16. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a router to another router
17. How does network cable length affect attenuation?

• Category 5 cable that is run in metal conduit has the highest attenuation in the shortest
distance.
• Shorter cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
• Longer cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
• The length of the cable has no effect on signal attenuation.
18. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It is a media access method used in LANs. •
• It is a media access method used in FDDI WANs.
• When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available. •
• A device sends data without checking media availability because all devices have equal
access.
• Multiple devices can successfully transmit simultaneously.
• Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.
19. Which of the following must be present for current to flow? (Choose three.)
• closed loop
• bit-generating device
• insulating material
• source of voltage
• load
• switch
20. If Host A pings Host B through a newly installed switch with no entries in the MAC
address table, which stations will receive the ping packet?
• B only
• A and B
• B and switch
• A, B, and switch
• B, C, D, and switch •
• A, B, C, D, and switch
21. Which devices shown in the graphic must have a MAC address?
• only PC
• only router
• PC and router
• PC, hub, and router
• PC, printer, and router
22. What kind of connection is represented in the graphic?

• console connection
• Ethernet connection
• ISDN connection
• leased line connection
23. Which of the following is the decimal representation of the binary number 11010011?
• 203
• 204
• 211
• 212
24. Which type of cable is required to make a connection between a router console port
and a PC COM port?
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• rollover cable
• DB-9 cable
• coaxial cable
25. Determine the number of useable networks and hosts for the IP address
192.168.50.0/27
26. A network administrator is placing an older router back in to service. The

administrator discovered that the IOS and configuration files need to be updated to meet
the LAN specifications. Which application layer protocol is used to transfer the new
configuration files into the router memory?
• SNMP
• SMTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
27. Which of the following best describes Spanning Tree Protocol?

• It enables a network to span across multiple physical segments.
• It enables a switch to eliminate switching loops.
• It enables a switch to dynamically choose the best switch mode.
• It enables a switch to perform as a router.
28. Which of the following subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP
address? (Choose two.)
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.192.255.0
• 255.224.0.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.255.128
29. How is data encapsulated as it is moved down the OSI model?

• data, segments, frames, packets, bits
• data, packets, segments, frames, bits
• data, segments, packets, frames, bits
• data, packets, frames, segments, bits
30. Which of the following describes latency?

• the noise generated from outside a cable
• the degradation of a signal as it travels along the media
• the time required for a NIC to place a frame on the network media
• the delay between the time a frame leaves its source device and reaches its destination
31. Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal number 111?
• 01101111
• 01111101
• 11110111
• 11101101
32. Which LAN switching mode begins switching after reading only the first 64 bytes of
the frame?
• fast forward
• fragment-free
33. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data
between hosts on an Ethernet network?
• 1 and 2; 4 and 5
• 1 and 2; 3 and 6 •
• 3 and 6; 7 and 8
• 4 and 5; 7 and 8
34. Which of the following commands could be used on a Windows-based computer to

view the current IP configuration of the system? (Choose two.)
• configip
• ifconfig
• ipconfig
• winipcfg
• winipconfig

• host address
• network address
36. Which of the following networking devices increase the number of collision
domains? (Choose three.)
• switch
• hub
• router
repeater
• bridge
37. What information can be determined from the MAC addresses of PC1, PC2, and PC3,
as shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• PC1 and PC2 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same OUI identifier.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have different OUI identifiers.
• PC1 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same vendor-assigned
address.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs are from different vendors.
38. Which of the following are considered WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
• DSL
• Ethernet
• Wireless Ethernet
• T1-Carrier
• Token Ring
39. which one of the router connectors shown in the graphic would be used for a LAN
connection?
• Connector A
• Connector B
• Connector C
• Connector D
40. How is full-duplex capability typically achieved in fiber-optic cable?

• Two fibers are encased in separate sheaths.
• Light is bounced at different rates in opposite directions.
• Transmit speeds are so high that half-duplex is acceptable.
• Colors of the light spectrum are separated into transmit and receive streams.
41. Which of the following are characteristics of IP? (Choose three.)

• connection-oriented protocol
• connectionless protocol•
• reliable protocol
• unreliable protocol •
• routed protocol •
• routing protocol
42. Which of the following describe the token-passing logical topology? (Choose two.)
• FDDI is an example of a token-passing network.
• Token-passing logical topologies must also be physical ring topologies.
• One of the disadvantages of the token-passing logical topology is the high collision rate.
• Computers transmit data after "listening" to the wire to detect other traffic.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
43. What is the maximum length of a media segment used for 100BASE-TX?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 400 meters
• 500 meters
44. which of the following networking devices divide a network into separate collision
domains? (Choose two.)
• repeater
• bridge
• switch
• AUI
• hub
45. Which of the following are characteristics of UTP cable? (Choose three.)
• Each wire is covered by insulating material.
• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• It is a four-pair wire medium.•
• It is difficult to terminate the cable.
• It relies on the cancellation effect produced by the twisted wire pairs.
• It is more expensive than any other type of LAN cabling.
46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed
and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer
can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
network card failure
47. Which of the following describes a physical full-mesh topology?

• It requires termination at both ends of the cable.
• It uses a hub or a switch as a central point to connect all wires.
• It provides maximum connectivity between all network systems.
• It links all computers to a main computer that controls all traffic on the network.
48. Which two statements describe the TFTP protocol? (Choose two.)
• uses authenticated file transfer procedure
• provides connection-oriented service
• provides connectionless service
• provides more features that FTP
• lacks most of the features of FTP
49. Which of the following are transport layer protocols of the TCP/IP model? (Choose
two.)
• FTP
• UDP
• SMTP
• TFTP
• TCP
50. Which type of UTP network cable connects two Cisco switches?
• crossover
• rollover
• patch
51. How will the MAIN router dynamically learn a route to the 10.16.10.48/28
subnetwork in the diagram?
• with a routed protocol
• with a routing protocol
• with a static route
• with a directly connected route
52. Which of the following describes the RIP version 1 routing protocol?
• Cisco proprietary hybrid protocol
• distance vector protocol that uses hop count as the only metric •
• link state protocol supporting multiple routed protocols
• distance vector protocol that uses delay, bandwidth, load, and reliability metrics
53. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?

• three
• four
• five
• six
• seven
• eight
54. Which of the following are advantages of UTP cable? (Choose three.)
• less expensive than fiber optic
• flexible and easy to run in a building
• distance between signal boosts is longer than it is for coaxial
• transmits data at a faster rate than any copper-based media
• receives less RMF and EMI interference than other types
Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (choose 2)

• -hub
• -repeater
Tuesday, December 16, 2008

CCNA Discovery 4 - Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?

• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface
2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?

• application
• network
• datalink
• transport
3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?

• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI
type.
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame
Relay switch.
4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured
for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to
be in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to
be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router
to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each
router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each
router.
5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework?
(Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES
• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA
6. Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that
congestion was experienced?
• BECN
• DE
• FECN
• FCS
7. Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the
Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to
the IP address of the remote router?
• DE
• CIR
• FECN
• Inverse ARP
8. What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update
came
• prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as
inaccessible before the timer expires
• limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be
discarded
9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its
interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the
DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• active
• deleted
• inactive
• idle
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address
with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
11. A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response
from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.
12. What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?

• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
• Simulation software packages are quickly updated to support new network technologies
and devices.
• Simulated devices have the same features as actual devices, allowing for detection of all
potential problems.
• Software packages can simulate all possible network traffic conditions, giving an
accurate prediction of network performance.
13. What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN?
(Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel
• switching technology to optimize VPN WAN throughput
• tunneling technology for guarding against data corruption
• routing protocol on the gateway for optimum performance
14. When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to
protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that the user has VPN client software that allows access to all internal resources.
• Ensure that the VPN user traffic does not slow down internally sourced traffic on the
network.
• Ensure that there are no obstacles to hamper the users from accessing all internal
resources.
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their
job function.
15. Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
• concentration
• encryption
• prioritization
• compression
• encapsulation
16. What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
• PIX Firewall
• Cisco VPN Concentrator
• Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
17. What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay
network?
• CIR
• DLCI
• FECN
• BECN
18. Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users may only establish a VPN connection from secure locations and never from
public areas.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN do not have to log in to resources on the
network.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the
network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and
hotel lobbies.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN should have access to all the resources
on the network.
19. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel
from the Orlando office to the DC office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200
20. Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0
interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and
the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the
show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
21. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
22. A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices
through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use
PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration
requirement of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
• Neither the username nor the password is case sensitive.
• The username is case sensitive but the password is not case sensitive.
• The password is case sensitive but the username is not case sensitive.
23. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.
24. An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The
administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an
adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol
will be used for this test?
• PPP
• Frame Relay
• DSL
• HDLC
• ATM
25. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.
Posted by CuEiHzO at 12:35 PM 0 comments
Labels: CCNA Discovery 4 Version 4.0, Designing, Supporting Computer Networks
CCNA Discovery 4 - Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather
than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a
design concept?(Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.
2. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial
and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains
this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
3. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the
specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
4. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when
prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer
5. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype
test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.
6. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity
must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all
devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3
7. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based
on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been
implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree
topology.
8. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port
elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• designated
9. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is

being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief
10. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to
connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch
port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlan vlan number command from interface configuration
mode
• to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the
routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.
12. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows

efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a
design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator
• a physical topology ma
13. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing
14. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed
Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and
tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on S0/0 of R2
15. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of
weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core
switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and
the DMZ.
16. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the
designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase
processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a
design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded
school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher
PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of
the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router
configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet
mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to
reach the teacher PC subnet.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this
switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics
19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a

new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the
connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the
network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator
at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection
fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.
20. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree
state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• forwarding
• learning
• listening

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A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four

www.ccna4u.biz www.ccna4u.net www.ccna4u.info www.ccna4u.org

5. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)

6. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)

9. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a

21. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?

22. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?

28. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers?

31. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?

34. How is a MAC address represented?

36. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11

39. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?

48. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?

Posted by CuEiHzO at 1:01 AM 0 comments

Labels: CCNA1-Version 3.1, Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module Final Exam Answers(B) Version 3.1

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (B)

5. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)

6. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)

9. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a

21. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?

22. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?

28. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers?

31. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?

34. How is a MAC address represented?

36. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11

39. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?

42. What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-

48. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?

Posted by CuEiHzO at 1:01 AM 0 comments

Labels: CCNA1-Version 3.1, Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module Final Exam Answers(A) Version 3.1

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (A)

1. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data

2. Router interface Ethernet 0 has been assigned the IP address 10.172.192.168

4. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?

7. What is significant about the ping 127.0.0.1 command?

8. Which LAN switching mode has the highest latency?

10. Which cable specifications are indicated by 100BASE-T?

11. When is a crossover cable used in a network?

14. Which type of address is 192.168.17.134/29?

15. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?

16. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

17. How does network cable length affect attenuation?

22. What kind of connection is represented in the graphic?

26. A network administrator is placing an older router back in to service. The

27. Which of the following best describes Spanning Tree Protocol?

29. How is data encapsulated as it is moved down the OSI model?

30. Which of the following describes latency?

34. Which of the following commands could be used on a Windows-based computer to

35. Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?

40. How is full-duplex capability typically achieved in fiber-optic cable?

41. Which of the following are characteristics of IP? (Choose three.)

47. Which of the following describes a physical full-mesh topology?

53. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?

Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (choose 2)

Posted by CuEiHzO at 1:00 AM 0 comments

Labels: CCNA1-Version 3.1, Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module Final Exam Answers(A) Version 3.1

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (A)

1. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data

2. Router interface Ethernet 0 has been assigned the IP address 10.172.192.168