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TOPIC 5: ENERGY FLOW, ECOSYSTEMS AND THE ENVIRONMENT

Chapter 5A: Photosynthesis

1 In 1906, the biologist Frederick Blackman at the University of Cambridge investigated


the effect of limiting factors on the rate of photosynthesis. The graph summarises
some of the results of his investigation.

(a) Explain what is meant by the limiting factors of photosynthesis.


(4)

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(b) At low light intensity, the increase in the rate of photosynthesis is the same at
15 °C and 25 °C.
Explain why.
(3)

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(c) The increase in the rate of photosynthesis as light intensity increases is greater at
25 °C than 15 °C.
Explain why.
(3)

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The normal concentration of 0.035% carbon dioxide in the atmosphere limits the rate of
growth of plants.
(d) Explain why Blackman maintained the plants used in his investigation in an
atmosphere consisting of 0.40% carbon dioxide.
(2)

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(Total for Question 1 = 12 marks)

2 This question explores the chemistry of why limiting factors affect the rate of
photosynthesis. Answer using your knowledge of the light-dependent and
light-independent reactions.
(a) Explain what happens when the concentration of carbon dioxide is the limiting
factor.
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(b) The rate of production of ATP and NADP decreases as light intensity decreases
and becomes a limiting factor.
Explain the consequences of this.
(3)

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(c) Explain the effects of decreasing temperature on the rate of the


light-independent reactions.
(2)

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(Total for Question 2 = 8 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 5: ENERGY FLOW, ECOSYSTEMS AND THE ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 5B: Ecology

1 Two groups of students, A and B, planned fieldwork to investigate the numbers


of grass plants in a field and the numbers of insects and spiders living on the
plants. Initial investigations showed that the spiders were carnivores, while most
of the insects were herbivores.
The students soon realised that the field was too large to count all of the grass
plants and all of the insects and spiders living on the plants. Therefore, the
students decided to take random samples. Both groups used the same method
to randomly sample the numbers of grass plants. Both groups used sweep nets
to collect random samples of insects and spiders. However, each group used a
different method of sampling using the sweep nets. The tables record the
sampling methods and the numbers of insects and spiders collected. Group A
sampled a different strip of grass each time.

Group A

Number Number
Sampling method of of
insects spiders
10 sweeps while walking in a
straight line covering a strip of 135 5
grass 1 m wide by 10 m long
as above but in a different strip 150 10
as above but in a different strip 110 10
as above but in a different strip 115 5
as above but in a different strip 120 15
as above but in a different strip 118 14
as above but in a different strip 112 6
as above but in a different strip 143 9
as above but in a different strip 129 12
as above but in a different strip 122 11

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Group B

Number Number
Sampling method of of
insects spiders
1 sweep 4 0
10 sweeps standing still 10 0
10 sweeps while walking
130 10
10 paces
6 sweeps walking back and forth
9 1
over the same ground
15 sweeps while walking
175 14
20 paces

(a) State what is meant by the term sample.


(1)

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(b) The students in group A took random samples.


Explain why they did this and how they could make sure they chose the strip
at random.
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(c) Describe one method students could use to count the number of grass
plants in a given area.
(1)

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(d) Explain how the data obtained by both groups supported the initial finding
that, in grassland, spiders are carnivores and most insects are herbivores.
(2)

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(e) Explain why the results of group A are a more reliable record of the
numbers of insects and spiders in the grassland community sampled than
those of group B.
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(Total for Question 1 = 11 marks)

2 Ecology uses a number of very specific terms.


(a) Which statements describe some of the characteristics of a population?
(1)

1 A population is a group of individuals of the same species living in a


particular place at the same time.
2 A population is a group of individuals able to interbreed and which usually
produce fertile offspring.
3 A community consists of all the populations living in a habitat as part of a
particular ecosystem.

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer

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(b) The biosphere is divided into smaller biomes.
Name one biome that has low or very low biodiversity.
(1)

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(c) Biotic, abiotic and edaphic factors can influence the biodiversity of a biome.
Edaphic factors refer to soil types.
Suggest why sandy soil in a biome/ecosystem reduces the biodiversity of
that area.
(3)

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(Total for Question 2 = 5 marks)

3 The graph shows the standard deviation of the mean number of insects per unit
area sampled from two grass fields X and Y.

(a) Define the term standard deviation.


(1)

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(b) Discuss how well the data indicates a significant difference between the
mean numbers of insects in the two fields.
(3)

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(Total for Question 3 = 4 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 5: ENERGY FLOW, ECOSYSTEMS AND THE ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 5C: Environment and climate change

1 Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(1)

1 The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased greatly


since 1850.
2 As more carbon dioxide is stored in the oceans, their pH drops and this
reduces the ability of some marine organisms to make shells.
3 Methane, carbon dioxide, water vapour and nitrogen are all greenhouse
gases.

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 The graph shows temperature changes on the Earth’s surface and in the
atmosphere across the world over a period of time.

Based on the data shown in the graph, the IPCC concluded that there is a
greater than 90% probability that anthropogenic greenhouse gas increases have
caused most of the observed increase in global average temperatures since the
mid-20th century.
Comment, with reference to the data in the graph and using your own
knowledge, on the validity of the IPCC conclusion.
(5)

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(Total for Question 2 = 5 marks)

3 Since 1850, sea levels have increased and are now 3 mm higher.
(a) What is the immediate source of the extra water in the oceans?
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(b) An increase in the water temperature will increase the volume of the
oceans. Explain why.
(1)

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(c) Discuss the possible effects of rising sea levels on human populations.
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(Total for Question 3 = 7 marks)

4 The graph shows the gross primary production (GPP) of a plant crop when
grown at different ambient temperatures at a horticultural research station.

(a) Define the term gross primary productivity.


(1)

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(b) If the surrounding temperature increases by 10 °C, then the rate of biological
reactions is expected to double. This relationship is known as the
temperature coefficient, Q10.
Explain the trend shown in the graph with reference to Q10.
(4)

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(c) What are the implications of the data shown in the graph for food production
if the average global temperature continues to rise?
(2)

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(Total for Question 4 = 7 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 6: MICROBIOLOGY, IMMUNITY AND FORENSICS
Chapter 6A: Microbiology

1 Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(1)
1 All bacterial cells have a cellulose cell wall.
2 Bacterial cells contain DNA that is not associated with histone proteins.
3 Bacterial ribosomes are the same size as the ribosomes in eukaryotic cells.

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 Influenza viruses consist of a protein coat surrounding 7 strands of RNA.


Outside the protein coat is a lipid envelope, derived from host cells, with
protruding glycoprotein spikes called antigens. There are two main types of
antigen: haemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N). Mutations in the viral RNA
and recombinations of duck and human virus RNA, while in the same host, can
lead to changes in the shape of the H and N glycoproteins. Hence, strains of flu
virus may be described as H1N1 or H3N2, etc.
Influenza viruses can infect humans, poultry and pigs. Wild ducks migrate in an
east-west direction and may interbreed with wild or domesticated ducks en
route.
In the UK, people aged over 65, healthcare workers and people susceptible to
respiratory conditions, such as asthma, are offered a flu vaccination every year
at the beginning of the winter.
(a) State and explain two reasons why the influenza virus has a high rate of
changes to its virus attachment particles.
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(b) Suggest why people eligible to receive the flu vaccine in the UK are
advised to be vaccinated every year.
(3)

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(c) Both the influenza virus and HIV contain RNA. Explain how HIV, but not the
flu virus, is a retrovirus.
(2)

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(Total for Question 2 = 9 marks)

3 Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholera. Researchers have found a


link between El Niño and cholera outbreaks – there are many more cholera
outbreaks during El Niño years.
El Niño occurs every 7–10 years and the surface temperature of the waters of
the Eastern Pacific, near to South America, increases. This can lead to surface
flooding, which can lead to contamination of drinking water with human faeces.
In rural areas, this may be due to faeces from areas of open defecation being
washed into drinking water supplies; in urban areas, it may be due to
overflowing sewerage systems.
V. cholerae, when inside the human intestine, produces an exotoxin known as
choleragen. Choleragen breaks down the barrier between the intestine wall and
blood. This leads to less water being absorbed from the intestine into the blood;
it also causes electrolytes, such as sodium ions, potassium ions and chloride
ions, to leave the blood and enter the intestines.
(a) Describe one way in which exotoxins differ from endotoxins.
(1)

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(b) Explain why the symptoms of cholera include very watery diarrhoea.
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Without treatment, the mortality rate for cholera is about 50%. Rehydration
therapy can cure many people, but bacteria can remain in their faeces for up to
3 months after they have recovered. The bacteria can also survive outside the
body, in water, for a few weeks.
(c) Explain why contamination of drinking water with sewage may lead to an
outbreak of cholera.
(3)

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(d) Explain why, without treatment, patients with cholera may die.
(2)

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(e) There is a low-cost vaccine available for cholera. Suggest two types of
locations that should be given priority for vaccinating people against
cholera.
(2)

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(Total for Question 3 = 10 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 6: MICROBIOLOGY, IMMUNITY AND FORENSICS
Chapter 6B: Immunity

1 Which of the following statements about antibodies are true?


(1)
1 Antibodies bind to antigens.
2 Antibodies are produced by T cells.
3 Antibodies provide humoral immunity.

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 The diagram shows a neutrophil engulfing a clump of bacteria. This process


depends on the flexibility of the cell surface membrane of the neutrophil.

(a) Name the process used by neutrophils to engulf bacteria.


(1)

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(b) Explain how the structure of the cell surface membrane of the neutrophil
enables it to engulf the clump of bacteria.
(2)

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(c) Explain what has caused the bacteria to clump together.
(2)

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(d) State the term that refers to the process of bacteria clumping together.
(1)

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(e) Explain the role of opsonins and cytokines in the process of engulfing
bacteria.
(3)

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(Total for Question 2 = 9 marks)

3 In the 1940s, the antibiotic drug penicillin first became available to treat
diseases caused by bacteria. At the time, some types of bacteria were naturally
resistant to penicillin. Other types of bacteria previously sensitive to penicillin
soon acquired resistance to the drug. By the 1960s, bacterial resistance to
penicillin had spread, making it difficult to treat some diseases caused by
bacteria.
(a) (i) Some types of bacterial cell are surrounded by a structure that makes
the bacteria naturally resistant to penicillin and other types of
antibiotics.
State the name of this structure.
(1)

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(ii) State how bacteria acquire resistance to penicillin and other


antibiotics.
(1)

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(iii) Explain why acquired resistance to penicillin and other antibiotics
spreads rapidly from generation to generation of bacterial cells.
(2)

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(b) Today some types of disease-causing bacteria are not only resistant to
penicillin but also to most other types of antibiotic.
(i) Describe the mechanisms used by bacteria to resist antibiotics.
(2)

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(ii) Explain how bacteria have developed resistance to several different


antibiotics.
(4)

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(Total for Question 3 = 10 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 6: MICROBIOLOGY, IMMUNITY AND FORENSICS
Chapter 6C: Decomposition and forensics

1 Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(1)
1 Dead bodies decay faster in a warm environment.
2 Muscle cells in a dead body can respire anaerobically for several hours.
3 Rigor mortis begins about 8 hours after death.

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 Rigor mortis begins more quickly in a victim who was chased before being
killed. Explain why.
(4)

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(Total for Question 2 = 4 marks)

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3 Describe the stages of succession during the process of decay of a dead body.
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(Total for Question 3 = 8 marks)

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4 On chromosome 13, in a non-coding region of DNA, there is a repeat sequence
of two nucleotide bases, CA. The number of repeat sequences can vary, for
example from 3 to 150.
Individuals have a different number of CA repeats on each chromosome 13.

(a) What name is given to this repeat sequence of CA nucleotides?


(1)
A microsatellite
B minisatellite
C expanding triple nucleotide repeat
D long tandem repeat

Your answer

The graph shows the profiles of members of a family with respect to the CA
repeat sequences on chromosome 13. The DNA used for testing was extracted
from their cheek cells.

(b) Comment on the relationships between the parents and each of the three
children.
(3)

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(c) Explain why exons are not used for DNA profiling but are used for DNA
barcoding.
(3)

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(Total for Question 4 = 7 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 7: RESPIRATION, MUSCLES AND THE INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 7A: Cellular respiration

1 Which of the following statements describe some features of a mitochondrion?


(1)
1 Cristae are an extension of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
2 Electrons accumulate in the intermembrane space.
3 Proteins of the electron transport chain are components of the inner
mitochondrial membrane.

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 Which category of enzymes catalyses the formation of ATP molecules?


(1)
A Proteases
B Dehydrogenases
C Synthases
D Decarboxylases

Your answer
(Total for Question 2 = 1 mark)

3 The diagram below summarises the sequence of initial reactions of glycolysis.

(a) State which categories of substances ‘hexose molecules’ refer to in the


diagram.
(1)

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(b) State the type of reaction that converts ATP to ADP + Pi.
(1)

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(c) Explain why the conversion of hexose molecules to glycerate 3-phosphate


requires the conversion of molecules of ATP to ADP + Pi.
(2)

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(Total for Question 3 = 4 marks)

4 Later in glycolysis, different reactions break down each molecule of


glycerate 3-phosphate to two molecules of pyruvate.
(a) State the net yield of ATP molecules from one molecule of glucose.
Show how you worked out your answer.
(2)

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(b) In anaerobic conditions, glycolysis is the only source of ATP. Explain why
so much more ATP can be produced in aerobic conditions.
(3)

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(c) During the reactions of glycolysis, molecules of reduced NAD (NADH) are
produced. Explain how.
(2)

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(d) NAD is regenerated by muscle tissue during vigorous exercise. Explain
how.
(2)

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(Total for Question 4 = 9 marks)

5 Glycerate 3-phosphate is involved in the light-independent reactions of


photosynthesis as well as in glycolysis.
(a) Compare and contrast the role of glycerate 3-phosphate in the
light-independent reactions of photosynthesis with its role in glycolysis.
(4)

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(b) Suggest an explanation for the importance to the cell of glycerate


3-phosphate being present in each process.
(1)

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(Total for Question 5 = 5 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 7: RESPIRATION, MUSCLES AND THE INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 7B: Muscles, movement and the heart

1 Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(1)
1 Bone can resist strong compression forces.
2 Intervertebral discs are made of hyaline cartilage.
3 Tendons contain collagen and join muscles to bones.

A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 (a) Identify two places in the body where you would find white fibrous cartilage.
(2)

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(b) Describe how the biceps and triceps muscles work to bend and straighten
the forearm.
(3)

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(c) Explain why muscles need a good blood supply.
(2)

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(Total for Question 2 = 7 marks)

3 Describe the roles of calcium ions and the sarcoplasmic reticulum during
contraction of skeletal muscles.
(5)

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(Total for Question 3 = 5 marks)

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4 The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves for myoglobin and
haemoglobin.

(a) Explain the differences in the shape of the curves for myoglobin and
haemoglobin.
(5)

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(b) After a run, athletes continue to breathe faster and deeper to repay their
oxygen debt. This involves reoxygenating the myoglobin.
Explain, using information from the graph, how the myoglobin is
reoxygenated.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for Question 4 = 7 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 7: RESPIRATION, MUSCLES AND THE INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 7C: Control of the internal environment

1 Which of the following statements describe some characteristics of hormones?


(1)
1 Hormones are produced by different exocrine glands.
2 Hormones are secreted into the blood.
3 Each hormone only affects its particular type of receptor.

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 Which row of the table correctly describes the chemical nature of the
hormones?
(1)

ADH Insulin Oestrogen Testosterone


A steroid protein steroid steroid
B steroid steroid protein protein
C protein protein steroid steroid
D protein protein protein steroid

Your answer
(Total for Question 2 = 1 mark)

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3 ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is a short peptide made in the hypothalamus and
stored in the pituitary gland. Its main target tissue is cells making up the walls of
collecting ducts in the kidney.
The diagram shows how ADH causes these cells to reabsorb more water from
the filtrate in the collecting duct.

(a) State from which part of the pituitary gland the ADH is released into the
bloodstream.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

(b) Explain why only target cells respond to ADH.


(2)

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............................................................................................................................................

(c) Name the second messenger involved in the series of events shown in the
diagram.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

(d) Name the enzyme that catalyses the production of the second messenger.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................
(e) Explain the importance of osmoregulation in animals. (2)

..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................

(f) ADH, like insulin, does not pass into its target cells. Steroid hormones, for
example oestrogen, can pass into their target cells.
Explain why.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(g) Desert rats have very long loops of Henle in their kidney nephrons. Suggest
why. (2)

..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................

(Total for Question 3 = 11 marks)

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4 Explain the physiological mechanisms that prevent a human athlete from
becoming overheated when running a race. (7)

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(Total for Question 4 = 7 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 8: COORDINATION, RESPONSE AND GENE TECHNOLOGY
Chapter 8A: The nervous system and neurones

1 Which of the following statements are correct?


(1)
1 An increase in temperature speeds up the conduction of nerve impulses.
2 The presence of a myelin sheath surrounding an axon speeds up the
conduction of nerve impulses.
3 An increase in the diameter of an axon speeds up the conduction of nerve
impulses.

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 State what is meant by action potentials and nerve impulses.


(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for Question 2 = 2 marks)

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3 The graph shows the changes in potential difference across the membrane of
the axon of a stimulated neurone (nerve cell).
Use the graph to answer the following questions.

(a) (i) Determine the length of time that an action potential lasts.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(ii) State which ion channels are open and which are closed at time X and
time Y.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(iii) Name the type of ion channel that opens only when the potential
difference across a cell membrane changes.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

(iv) Name the period of time labelled Z.


(1)

............................................................................................................................................

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(v) Explain the events that take place during the time labelled Z.
(3)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(vi) Explain how events that take place during the time labelled Z affect the
transmission of nerve impulses.
(4)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(b) Explain why the generation of an action potential is described as an


all-or-nothing response.
(4)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for Question 3 = 17 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 8: COORDINATION, RESPONSE AND GENE TECHNOLOGY
Chapter 8B: Coordination in animals and plants

1 Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(1)
1 The central nervous system (CNS) of vertebrates consist of the brain and
spinal cord.
2 Sensory neurones carry impulses from receptors to the CNS.
3 Peripheral nerves contain both sensory and motor neurones.

A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 Vertebrate sensory and motor neurones are each covered by a myelin sheath.
(a) Describe the structure of the myelin sheath.
(4)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease. The body’s immune system


attacks and breaks down the myelin sheath. This reduces the speed of
conduction of nerve impulses. Symptoms may include loss of the ability to walk
or loss of vision.
(b) Explain why loss of myelin leads to a reduction in the speed of transmission
of nerve impulses.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for Question 2 = 6 marks)

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3 (a) Which of the following statements are true?
(1)
1 Phytochrome is a red pigment found in plants.
2 Phytochrome exists in two forms and both are biologically active.
3 Phytochrome influences seed germination and flowering in adult plants.

A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer

(b) Describe the role of gibberellins in seed germination.


(7)

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............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(c) State what is meant by a tropism.


(1)

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for Question 3 = 9 marks)

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4 Sometimes marathon runners drink too much water. This, together with
inappropriate release of the hormone ADH, may lead to exercise-related
hyponatremia (EAH). This is overhydration leading to a potentially lethal low
concentration of sodium ions in the blood. EAH can also occur when users of
the drug ecstasy (MDMA) feel thirsty and drink too much water.
(a) Explain why having too much water in the blood leads to low concentrations
of sodium ions.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(b) Explain why a low concentration of sodium ions in body fluids can disrupt
nerve conduction.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(c) Leading up to an episode of EAH, suggest whether ADH is underproduced


or overproduced.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for question 4 = 4 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 8: COORDINATION, RESPONSE AND GENE TECHNOLOGY
Chapter 8C: Gene technology

1 Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(1)
1 Restriction endonuclease enzymes and ligase enzymes are used in the
production of recombinant DNA.
2 Liposome wrapping, gene guns and microinjection may be used to
introduce foreign DNA into bacterial cells.
3 Plasmids may be used as vectors to introduce foreign DNA into plant cells.

A 1 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

2 The diagram shows how a genetically modified bacterium, able to produce the
human hormone insulin, can be selected with the use of tetracycline and
streptomycin.
Tetracycline and streptomycin are antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis in
bacteria, preventing their growth.

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(a) The gene for human insulin is obtained by taking mRNA from beta cells in
the islets of Langerhans in the human pancreas and treated with an enzyme
to make cDNA.
(i) Name the enzyme that is used to produce cDNA from mRNA.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

(ii) Suggest why mRNA is taken from beta cells of the islets of
Langerhans in the pancreas.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(iii) Scientists know that the gene for insulin is on chromosome 11.
However, mRNA is used to make the gene needed to produce
recombinant plasmids, instead of obtaining the gene from
chromosome 11.
Suggest why.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(b) (i) In this procedure, any E. coli bacteria that do not take up a
plasmid will not grow on plate 1.
Explain why.
(2)

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(ii) In this procedure any E. coli bacteria that have taken up a non-
transformed plasmid will grow on both plate 1 and plate 2.
Explain why.
(4)

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............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(iii) Bacteria that have taken up a recombinant plasmid will grow on


plate 1 but not on plate 2.
Explain why.
(3)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(c) Which colonies, from plate 1, should be taken and cultured to produce
human insulin to treat people with diabetes?
(1)
A colonies A, B and D
B colonies A, B, C and E
C colonies E, C and F
D colonies D and F

Your answer

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(d) (i) State one possible risk from using antibiotic resistance genes
as markers for identifying transformed bacteria.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(ii) Identify a type of gene that is now used, instead of an antibiotic


resistance gene, to identify recombinant bacteria.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for Question 2 = 16 marks)

3 Some types of fish contain omega 3 oils, also known as fish oils, which humans
need in their diet for brain development and function. Due to overfishing, these
types of fish are now in short supply.
These fish can be farmed but they do not synthesise omega 3 oils themselves;
they have to be fed on fish caught from the wild, to add the omega 3 oils to their
diet. The wild fish on which the farmed fish are fed obtain omega 3 oils from the
algae that they eat.
Scientists are developing genetically modified cereal crops, such as wheat, that
contain the gene for omega 3 oils.
(a) Suggest where the gene for the omega 3 oils is obtained by the scientists, in
order to genetically modify the cereal crops to produce omega 3 oils.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

(b) Describe one potential advantage and one potential disadvantage of


genetically modifying wheat to produce omega 3 oils.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for Question 2 = 3 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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Whole course assessment 1

1 Thrushes are predators of the snail Cepaea nemoralis. They break open the
shell and feed on the snail. Snails can have shells which are differently
coloured. Colours include pink, brown and yellow.
A fieldwork investigation was carried out, in which empty unbroken and broken
shells were collected. The number of each type of shell provided data about the
number of snails of each colour in a particular habitat. The number of broken
shells indicated the number of snails of each type that had been eaten by
thrushes. The chi squared ( χ 2 ) test can be used to assess which colour of snail
is more likely to be eaten.
(a) State what is meant by the term fieldwork.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(b) State the null hypothesis for the investigation.


(1)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

The table below records the results for broken shells. These are the observed
(O) results. The expected (E) results have been calculated based on the
number of each type of snail living in the area.

Shell colour O E
brown 12 6
pink 35 25
yellow 250 266
Using the formula
(O − E )2
2 = 
E
where  stands for ‘sum of’:
(c) Complete the table below.

(O − E )2
Shell colour O − E (O − E)2
E
brown
pink
yellow

(3)

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(d) Calculate the value of χ 2 . Show your working.
(2)

Answer ................................................................................................................................

(e) Using the following extract from a probability table with the appropriate
degrees of freedom, deduce whether the value of χ 2 allows the null
hypothesis to be accepted or rejected. Explain your answer.

Probability, p 0.99 0.95 0.90 0.50 0.10 0.05 0.01 0.001

χ2 0.02 0.1 0.21 1.39 4.60 5.99 9.21 13.82

(4)

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............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(f) If the investigation showed that thrushes ate fewer snails with yellow shells,
explain how the frequency of the characteristic might change in future
generations of snails. Use ideas about alleles and natural selection in your
answer.
(5)

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............................................................................................................................................

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(g) The study was repeated on a population of snails living in leaf litter in a
forest. Predict how the results might differ.
(3)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for Question 1 = 20 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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Whole course assessment 2

1 Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(1)
1 Ligaments join muscle to bone and stretch when a muscle contracts.
2 The cytoplasm of muscle cells is called sarcoplasm.
3 Myoglobin transports oxygen to muscles for aerobic respiration.

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3

Your answer
(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

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2 Approximately 8 million tonnes of plastic waste each year ends up in the
oceans. Plastics are polymers; one polymer is polyethylene terephthalate (PET),
which is used to make plastic bottles.
Plastic rubbish, in the oceans, collects into large floating rafts, which can be
colonised by bacteria. These microorganisms can degrade the plastic, but it
takes a very long time.
Some bacteria, for example Ideonella sakaienus, produce the extracellular
enzyme PETase. PETase breaks down PET to its monomers. These are then
absorbed by the bacteria and used as a source of carbon and energy. The
monomers are broken down to carbon dioxide and water, producing ATP. The
total breakdown of plastics requires many different enzymes and therefore
needs a community of bacteria.
PETase has an optimum temperature above 60 C. The temperature in the
oceans varies from −3 oC, at a depth of 3500 m, to an average global surface
temperature of 16 C.
Scientists have engineered PETase enzyme and chitinase enzymes to increase
their efficiencies. They are also selecting plastic-degrading communities of
microorganisms as follows.

Microorganisms that colonise


plastics in coastal waters are
selected for testing.

The microorganisms are grown in


the lab with PET as their only
source of carbon.

The level of activity of PETase


enzymes made by the
microorganisms is tested.

Communities of microorganisms
with the most efficient PETase
enzymes are mixed and cultured.
This is repeated many times.

The species in the most efficient


communities are identified using
DNA sequencing.

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(a) State the meaning of each of the following terms that are used in the above
information.

(i) Community:
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

(ii) DNA sequencing:


(1)

............................................................................................................................................

(b) (i) Explain why the ocean temperature at a depth of 3500 m is so low.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(ii) State, with reasons, a suitable optimum temperature for the


engineered PETase enzyme that scientists are trying to produce.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(iii) Much of the ATP produced, when I. sakaienus breaks down PET, is
made by the process of chemiosmosis.
Describe how ATP is made during chemiosmosis.
(3)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

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(c) The selection process shown in the flow diagram takes several weeks but
may involve about 1500 generations of bacteria.
(i) Explain why so many generations of bacteria are involved in this
process.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(ii) Suggest why PETase enzymes produced by these bacteria are


extracellular enzymes.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(d) PET and other plastics that end up in the ocean bioaccumulate. Animals
ingest plastics because the microorganisms colonising the plastic produce
chemicals that smell like food
Which organism is most at risk of dying from ingesting plastic?
(1)
A black-footed albatross
B herring
C squid
D zooplankton

Your answer

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The graph shows the rates of activity of the enzyme chitinase obtained from a
bacterium. Chitinase breaks down chitin, which is found in cell walls of fungi and
in some animal (crustacean) shells.

(e) How much more efficient is the genetically modified chitinase than the
unmodified chitinase?
(1)
A 3 times more efficient
B 30 times more efficient
C 90 times more efficient
D 900 times more efficient

Your answer

(Total for Question 2 = 15 marks)

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3 The graph shows the results of an investigation. In eight soil samples, each
taken from a different area, the ATP concentration and the number of bacteria
were determined.

(a) Describe the relationship between number of bacteria per gram of soil and
ATP concentration.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

(b) In another investigation, a sample taken from some cold waterlogged soil
was found to have 2.0 nmol g−1 of ATP.
(i) Predict, using information from the graph, the number of bacteria in
this soil sample.
(1)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

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(ii) When other methods of determining the number of bacteria in the
cold waterlogged soil sample was carried out the numbers were
estimated to be 3.7 × 107 per gram of soil.
There were more bacteria in this soil sample than predicted by
inferring from the data on ATP concentration. Suggest why.
(2)

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................
(Total for Question 3 = 4 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 5: ENERGY FLOW, ECOSYSTEMS AND THE ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 5A: Photosynthesis

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1(a) ● Limiting factors are carbon dioxide/CO2, water/H2O, temperature and (4)
light intensity. (1)
● If any one falls to a low level (1)
● the rate of photosynthesis slows/stops (1)
● even if other factors are abundant/not limiting. (1)
1(b) ● Light-dependent reactions are taking place. (1) (3)
● Photochemical reactions (1)
● are rate-insensitive/independent of temperature/change. (1)
1(c) An explanation that includes any three of the following points: (3)
● Light-independent reactions (1)
● Catalysed by enzyme/RUBISCO (1)
● Increase in temperature, more collisions between active site and
substrate molecules (1)
● There is an increase in the rate of reactions (of photosynthesis) (1)
● because of the increase in motion of molecules (kinetic energy). (1)
1(d) ● Variable kept constant (1) (2)
● At 0.4%, CO2/carbon dioxide concentration is not limiting. (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 12 marks)

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number
2(a) An explanation that includes any three of the following points: (3)
● The rate of conversion of ribulose bisphosphate/RuBP (1)
● is reduced. (1)
● The concentration of RuBP increases. (1)
● Triose sugar/glyceraldehyde (3-phosphate)/triose sugar is not
produced. (1)
2(b) An explanation that includes any three of the following points: (3)
● GP/glycerate (3-phosphate) (1)
● is not converted to triose sugar/glyceraldehyde (3-phosphate). (1)
● Concentration of glycerate (3-phosphate) increases/builds up. (1)
● RuBP is used up. (1)
2(c) An explanation that includes any two of the following points: (2)
● Light-independent reactions are catalysed by enzymes. (1)
● At decreasing temperatures, collisions between substrate molecules
and active site of enzyme decrease. (1)
● Reduced rate of reaction (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 8 marks)

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TOPIC 5: ENERGY FLOW, ECOSYSTEMS AND THE ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 5B: Ecology

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1(a) A small part/selection taken to be representative of a larger area/thing (1) (1)
1(b) ● Any area of grass field has an equal chance of being sampled. (1) (3)
● Avoids bias. (1)
● Choose coordinates to use by generating random numbers. (1)
1(c) Quadrat that covers a known area (1) (1)
1(d) ● Greater number of insects/more insects/fewer spiders (1) (2)
● Greater number of herbivores are needed to support a smaller number of
carnivores. (1)
1(e) ● Consistent sampling method (1) Accept equivalent wording. (4)
● More samples taken (1)
● Only sampled each area once (not more than once) (1)
● Data samples from group A are less variable. (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 11 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2(a) C 1 and 3 only (1) (1)
2(b) One from: taiga/desert/tundra/high mountain/polar ice (1) (1)
3(c) An explanation that includes any three of the following points: (3)
• (Sandy soil) drains easily (1)
• so minerals are leached (1)
• which reduces number of plant/producer species (that can
survive). (1)

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• Which in turn reduces number of consumer/animal species
(that depend on plants/producers). (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 5 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
3(a) Measure of the extent to which data is spread out around the mean (1) (1)
3(b) ● Different because the mean of X is less than the mean of Y (1) (3)
● Different because the mean in each area lies outside the standard
deviation of the other area (1)
● Not significantly different because the standard deviation of each mean
overlaps the other (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 4 marks)

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TOPIC 5: ENERGY FLOW, ECOSYSTEMS AND THE ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 5C: Environment and climate change

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 D 1, 2 and 3 (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2 Indicative content: Levels marked. (5)
• Top line shows change due to both natural and anthropogenic activity. Level 1: 1–2 marks
• Bottom line shows very little change in temperature due to natural Some knowledge illustrated.
events, such as volcanic eruptions and solar activity.
• Therefore, most of the temperature rise is due to anthropogenic Level 2: 3–4 marks
activities.
Good knowledge and account well
• Since 1900, there has been an increase in: organised.
o motor vehicles and their emissions, including carbon dioxide – a
greenhouse gas
Level 3: 5 marks
o population, so more farming, which has become more mechanised
and uses vehicles (instead of horses) and machinery, all powered by Comprehensive knowledge. Account well
fossil fuels synthesised and organised. Clear and
coherent communication.
o cattle farming, and cattle digestion leads to methane (generated by
bacteria in their stomachs) that is released
o rice growing and, under the anaerobic conditions of the paddy fields, Top marks may be achieved without
bacteria produce methane, a powerful greenhouse gas mentioning all of the points given in the
indicative content.
o use of nitrous oxide in dentistry and use of fertilisers.
Other valid points not shown should be
• Description of how greenhouse gases increase atmospheric credited.
temperatures.

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• Significant rise in temperatures since 1970s – even greater increase in
fossil fuel use and vehicles, and more heating used in homes and
offices.

(Total for Question 2 = 5 marks)

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number
3(a) Melting ice from land masses, e.g. Greenland/Antarctica (1) Not Arctic ice (1)
3(b) Warm water expands as molecules have more kinetic energy. (1) (1)
3(c) Indicative content: Levels marked. (5)
• Coastal areas will flood. Level 1: 1–2 marks
• Low-lying islands/countries will disappear. Some knowledge illustrated.
• Less space for people to live.
• Adaptations necessary, e.g. stilt houses and more people depending on Level 2: 3–4 marks
fishing for food. Good knowledge and account well
• Less land for producing food. organised.
• Famines
• Outbreaks of infectious diseases as malnourished people have reduced Level 3: 5 marks
immunity. Comprehensive knowledge. Account well
• More deficiency diseases linked to malnutrition. synthesised and organised. Clear and
coherent communication.
• Poverty leading to lack of education and more poverty.
• Migrations/wars
Top marks may be achieved without
mentioning all of the points given in the
indicative content.
Other valid points not shown should be
credited.

(Total for Question 3 = 7 marks)

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number
4(a) Biomass produced by photosynthesis, before any losses due to respiration (1)
(1)
4(b) • Between temperatures 0 and 20 C there is a doubling of the rate of (4)
reaction for each 10 C rise in temperature. (1)
• 20–30 °C/20–40 °C the rate of reaction does not double/increases by
×1.5 for a 10 °C rise in temperature/75% increase. (1)
• Above 30 °C oxygen competes for active site of Rubisco
enzyme/reference to photorespiration, so reduced carbon fixation
(during light independent stage of photosynthesis). (1)
• Above 40/50 °C enzymes involved in photosynthesis may be
denatured/becoming denatured. (1)
4(c) ● More regions where temperatures may rise above 30/40/50 °C, where Credit other valid points (2)
crop growth will slow/reduce so less food produced. (1)
● Need for GM/selectively bred crops, modified to withstand higher
temperatures (and accompanying lack of water). (1)

(Total for Question 4 = 7 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 6: MICROBIOLOGY, IMMUNITY AND FORENSICS
Chapter 6A: Microbiology

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 B 2 only (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2(a) • (Its genetic material is) RNA which is more reactive/less stable than (4)
DNA (1)
• so high rate of mutation. (1)
• Virus can infect other hosts besides humans (1)
• which leads to recombinations of the genetic material. (1)
2(b) Three from: (3)
• Different strains of flu each year (1)
• Antibodies to last year’s strains will not be effective against this year’s
different antigens (on flu virus) (1)
• As shape of antigens has changed (1)
• So no longer complementary in shape to (variable region of) antibodies
(1)
2(c) • HIV (and not flu virus) has enzyme reverse transcriptase (1) (2)
• that can make DNA, using RNA as template/from RNA. (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 9 marks)

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number
3(a) A description that includes one point from each group. Credit other valid response (1)

Exotoxins:
• soluble proteins made and released by bacteria (1)
• made by Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria (1)
• may poison cells, disrupt host metabolism, inhibit neurotransmission. (1)

Endotoxins:
• lipoplysaccharides, which are part of bacterial cell wall (1)
• made of Gram-negative bacteria (1)
• cause vomiting and diarrhoea. (1)
3(b) • (The toxin) prevents absorption of water from the intestine into blood (so (2)
more water passes out with faeces). (1)
• Ions pass from blood to intestine and water will follow by osmosis. (1)
3(c) Three from: (3)
• Bacteria can survive in faeces/sewage for up to 3 months/can survive in
water for a few weeks. (1)
• By drinking contaminated water, bacteria enter the intestine. (1)
• They survive the low pH of stomach and live in intestine. (1)
• Many people drinking from same contaminated water supply. (1)
• People may directly infect others by touching with bacteria on hands. (1)
• People may indirectly infect others by poor hygiene when preparing
food/food not properly cooked. (1)
(d) Two from: (2)
• Dehydration disrupts metabolism/named example. (1)
• Loss of electrolytes disrupts nerve conduction/muscle contraction. (1)
• Bacteria in the gut are out of reach of immune system. (1)

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(e) Two from: Accept other valid examples (2)
• Areas in path of oncoming El Niño (1)
• Areas at risk of flooding (1)
• Refugee camps (1)
• Areas at risk of earthquakes (1)
• Areas where sanitation is poor/drinking water not treated (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 10 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 6: MICROBIOLOGY, IMMUNITY AND FORENSICS
Chapter 6B: Immunity

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 C 1 and 3 only (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2(a) Phagocytosis (1) (1)
2(b) An explanation that includes two of the following points: (2)
● Fluid mosaic model (1)
● Phospholipid bilayer flexible (1)
● The loose packing of phospholipid molecules forming the bilayer (1)
● provides flexibility. (1)
● Double bonds/unsaturated hydrocarbon chains of fatty acid are
components (1)
● of the phospholipid bilayer. (1)
● This promotes looser packing. (1)
2(c) ● Antibodies attach to bacterial antigens. (1) (2)
● Each antibody has two binding sites. (1)
2(d) Agglutination/agglutinate (1) (1)

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2(e) An explanation that includes three of the following points: (3)
● Opsonins are chemicals in the blood that attach to bacteria. (1)
● Phagocytes have receptors that will bind to opsonins. (1)
● Antibodies can act as opsonins. (1)
● Cytokines are chemicals released by phagocytes when bacteria are
engulfed. (1)
● Cytokines attract other phagocytes to the area. (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 9 marks)

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number
3(a)(i) Capsule (1) Do not accept cell wall/surface membrane. (1)
3(a)(ii) Mutation(s)/change(s) in genetic material/receiving plasmids from resistant (1)
bacteria (1)
3(a)(iii) ● Bacteria reproduce quickly. (1) (2)
● Resistance to mutation/change in genetic material is inherited by
offspring. (1)
3(b)(i) A description that includes two of the following points: (2)
● Remove antibiotics from cell (1)
● Alter antibiotic (making it ineffective) (1)
● Break down antibiotic (1)

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3(b)(ii) An explanation that makes reference to four of the following: Answers should convey the idea that the (4)
● Individuals with resistance genes (in bacterial populations) (1) process is repeated when bacteria are
exposed to a succession of different
● survive antibiotic treatment. (1) antibiotics.
● These individuals reproduce (quickly). (1)
● The antibiotic first used is ineffective. (1)
● A second-choice antibiotic is used. (1)
● Some bacteria are resistant to the second choice. (1)
● They survive. (1)
● They reproduce. (1)
● The second-choice antibiotic is ineffective. (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 10 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 6: MICROBIOLOGY, IMMUNITY AND FORENSICS
Chapter 6C: Decomposition and forensics

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 A 1 and 2 only (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2 Four from: (4)
• Running requires muscle contraction (1)
• which uses ATP and glycogen (1)
• so muscle stores of ATP are soon depleted (1)
• so myosin heads cannot detach from actin binding sites. (1)
• Muscle cells are permanently contracted. (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 4 marks)

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number
3 Eight from: (8)
• Colonisers – the body’s own anaerobic bacteria (1)
• Grow quickly in high concentrations of lactic acid (1)
• That have been produced by anaerobic respiration of muscle cells (after
death) (1)
• Begins in gut but (hydrolytic/digestive) enzymes break down cells/
connective tissue (1)
• Bacteria spread throughout body (1)

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• Fly species attracted to body for food/moisture (1)
• Lay eggs in orifices/wounds (1)
• Larvae/maggots hatch and feed on tissues (1)
• Penetrate deeper into tissues (1)
• Larvae pupate and new adults lay more eggs so cycle repeats (1)
• Beetles lay eggs and their larvae feed on fly maggots (1)
• Parasitic wasps lay eggs in/on fly and beetle larvae (1)
• As body dries, cheese/coffin/carcass beetles arrive (1)
• Moths and mites feed on hair (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 8 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
4(a) A microsatellite (1) (1)
4(b) Three from: (3)
• Each individual has two copies of chromosome 13 (in their somatic
cells)/each person/child inherits one copy chr 13 from their mother and
one from their father. (1)
• Child 1 has inherited chromosome 13 with 6 repeats from father and chr
13 with 98 repeats from mother. (1)
• Child 2 has inherited chr 13 with 142 repeats from each parent. (1)
• Child 3 has inherited chr 13 with 98 repeats form mother and a
chromosome 13 with 50 repeats from a different father. (1)
4(c) Three from: (3)
• Exons are coding regions. (1)
• Therefore little/no difference between (most) individuals. (1)
• But mutations occur during evolution. (1)
• So can identify species by distinct sequences within a particular exon.
(1)

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(Total for Question 4 = 7 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 7: RESPIRATION, MUSCLES AND THE INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 7A: Cellular respiration

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 C 1 and 3 only (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2 C Synthases (1) (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
3(a) 6-carbon/a sugar containing six atoms of carbon/6C (1) (1)
3(b) Hydrolysis (1) (1)
3(c) An explanation that includes two of the following points: (2)
● Commits hexose molecules to glycolytic pathway (1)
● Makes hexose molecules more reactive (1)
● Prevents hexose molecules leaving the cell (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 4 marks)

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number
4(a) ● 2 ATP (1) (2)
● 4 ATP produced but 2 used up (1)
4(b) An explanation that includes three of the following points: (3)
● Pyruvate cannot enter the Krebs cycle. (1)
● ATP is not generated by oxidative phosphorylation. (1)
● Oxygen is the final acceptor of hydrogen atoms. (1)
● Energy is still trapped in pyruvate. (1)
4(c) An explanation that includes two of the following points: (2)
● Molecules of triose sugar (accept glycerate 3-phosphate) are
oxidised. (1)
● Dehydrogenation (1)
● Pairs of hydrogen/H atoms (accept electrons/e−) from each molecule (1)
● Transferred to NAD (1)
4(d) An explanation that includes two of the following points: (2)
● Pyruvate/pyruvic acid converted to lactate/lactic acid (1)
● Reduction (reaction) (1)
● Since electrons/H atoms transferred from reduced NAD/NADH (1)

(Total for Question 4 = 9 marks)

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number
5(a) ● In light-independent reactions, glycerate 3-phosphate is formed from (4)
RuBP. (1)
● In glycolysis, it is made from hexose sugars. (1)
● In light-independent reactions, glycerate 3-phosphate is used to make
hexose sugars/triose phosphate/regenerate RuBP. (1)
● In glycolysis, it is converted into pyruvate. (1)
5(b) ● Forms a link between photosynthesis and respiration/allows glycerate (1)
phosphate to be moved between the two sets of reactions (1)

(Total for Question 5 = 5 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 7: RESPIRATION, MUSCLES AND THE INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 7B: Muscles, movement and the heart

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 B 1 and 3 only (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2(a) • In joints/between bones (1) (2)
• Intervertebral discs (1)
2(b) Three from: (3)
• Work in antagonistic pairs (1)
• Biceps is flexor and contracts to bend arm. (1)
• Triceps is extensor and contracts to straighten arm. (1)
• When one muscle (of antagonistic pair) contracts, the other relaxes and Mark point 4 including the words in
is pulled back to original position. (1) parentheses = 2 marks as it subsumes mark
point 1
2(c) • To bring oxygen and glucose (1) (2)
• To remove carbon dioxide, lactic acid and (excess) heat (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 7 marks)

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number
3 Five from: (5)
• Sarcoplasmic reticulum is modified ER and stores calcium ions. (1)
• Calcium ions released when impulse/action potential reaches SR (via T
tubules/from neuromuscular junction). (1)
• Calcium ions bind to sites on troponin molecules. (1)
• This changes shape of troponin molecules, which then pull/move
tropomyosin molecules. (1)
• This exposes myosin binding sites on actin. (1)
• So myosin heads can bind to actin/form cross bridges/form actomyosin.
(1)
• After contraction, calcium ions released and actively transported back
into SR (for storage). (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 5 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
4(a) Five from: (5)
• Myoglobin consists of one polypeptide strand (1)
• so is either fully/100% oxygenated or not oxygenated. (1)
• Haemoglobin consists of four polypeptide strands (1)
• so curve is sigmoid/S shaped. (1)
• First polypeptide/haem loads slowly (to 25%) (1)
• which causes change of shape so haem 2 and 3 load quickly (to 75%).
(1)
• Final/4th haem loads slowly (then 100% loaded). (1)
(b) • Myoglobin has higher affinity for oxygen/ORA. (1) Look for the idea here and accept alternative (2)
wording, e.g. at respiring tissues, the pp

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• So at low partial pressures of oxygen at respiring tissues it will accept oxygen is low and Hb gives up its oxygen but
oxygen, whereas at low pp oxygen, haemoglobin gives up its oxygen. (1) myoglobin can accept oxygen.

(Total for Question 4 = 7 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 7: RESPIRATION, MUSCLES AND THE INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT
Chapter 7C: Control of the internal environment

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 B 2 and 3 only (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2 C (1) (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
3(a) posterior (pituitary) (1) (1)
3(b) • Receptor molecule on surface membrane of target cell has (2)
complementary shape (1)
• to ADH molecule. (1)
3(c) cAMP/cyclic adenosine monophosphate (1) (1)
3(d) adenyl cyclise (1) (1)
3(e) Two from: (2)
• Important to have correct concentration of electrolytes for
nerve and muscle function (1)
• Important to have correct water potential to prevent cells
absorbing too much water and rupturing, or shrinking due to
loss of water (by osmosis) (1)

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• Enzyme-controlled reactions/metabolic reactions cannot
take place if not enough water in cell cytoplasm (1)
• Too little/too much water will alter blood pressure (1)

3(f) • Steroid hormones are lipid soluble/are lipids (1) (2)


• so can dissolve in lipid (bi)layer of cell surface membrane. (1)
3(g) • to reabsorb more water from the filtrate back into the blood (1) (2)
• and conserve water/reference to water being scarce in their
environment (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 11 marks)

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number
4 Seven from: (7)
• Hypothalamus detects increased temperature of blood flowing through it
(1)
• Blood is warmer due to excess heat generated by extra respiration in
muscles (1)
• Triggers physiological responses (1)
• Increased sweating (1)
• More heat lost from body/blood/skin by evaporation (1)
• Increased vasodilation (1)
• In arteriole/shunt vessel (1)
• More blood flows through skin capillaries (1)
• More heat lost by radiation (1)

(Total for Question 4 = 7 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 8: COORDINATION, RESPONSE AND GENE TECHNOLOGY
Chapter 8A: The nervous system and neurones

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 D 1, 2 and 3 (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2 ● Action potential: change in potential difference across membrane of (2)
axon (1)
And one of these points:
● Nerve impulses: conduction of an action potential (1)
● along axon/neurone/nerve cell (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 2 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
3(a)(i) ● 1.5 (1) (2)
● milliseconds/ms (1)
3(a)(ii) ● At X, sodium channels are open and potassium channels are open. (1) Award 1 mark if the answer is correct for one (2)
● At Y, potassium channels stay open, sodium channels are closed. (1) of the channels at both X and Y but incorrect
for the other channel.
3(a)(iii) Voltage-gated (1) (1)
3(a)(iv) Refractory period (1) Do not allow hyperpolarisation. (1)

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3(a)(v) An explanation that includes three of the following points: (3)
● Some K+ voltage gates remain open/gates are slow to close. (1)
● K+ continues to diffuse back into axon. (1)
● Hyperpolarisation (1)
● K+ channels close. (1)
● Potential difference returns to resting/65 mV. (1)
3(a)(vi) An explanation that includes four of the following points: (4)
● Determine frequency of transmission of nerve impulses along
axon/neurone/nerve cell (1)
● Direction of transmission of nerve impulses (1)
● From cell body to end of axon (1)
● Another impulse cannot be generated. (1)
● Refractory period limits frequency of action potential (1)
● Ensures action potential only goes in one direction/is unidirectional (1)
3(b) ● Once initiated/started, the amplitude of the action potential remains the (4)
same/at +40 mV. (1)
● As it travels/is conducted along axon/neurone/nerve cell (1)
● Regardless/independent of strength of stimulus (1)
● Above threshold value (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 17 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 8: COORDINATION, RESPONSE AND GENE TECHNOLOGY
Chapter 8b: Coordination in animals and plants

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 D 1, 2 and 3 (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2(a) Four from: (4)
• Made of Schwann cells (1)
• Flattened with little cytoplasm (1)
• Lots of cell membrane (1)
• Wrapped around axon (1)
• High lipid content (1)
• Gaps/nodes of Ranvier between the Schwann cells (1)
2(b) • Loss of nodes, which is where action potentials occur (1) (2)
• Impulse cannot jump/not saltatory (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 6 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
3(a) C 3 only (1) (1)
3(b) Seven from: (7)
• Seed absorbs water which activates embryo. (1)
• Embryo produces gibberellins. (1)
• This causes aleurone layer to produce amylase. (1)

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• which digests/hydrolyses starch to maltose (1) Allow glucose
• used for respiration/make ATP. (1)
• More enzymes produced which digest proteins/lipids in endosperm. (1)
• Amino acids used to make new proteins/protein synthesis/translation. (1)
• Named example of a protein use, e.g. channel in cell
membranes/enzymes. (1)
• Fatty acids used to make cell membranes. (1)
3(c) Directional growth in response to a specific environmental stimulus. (1)
(1)

(Total for Question 3 = 9 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
4(a) Dilution effect/relatively more water and fewer sodium ions (1) (1)
4(b) • Resting potential relies on higher concentration of sodium ions outside of (2)
neurones (1)
• so when a neurone is stimulated, sodium ions enter down their
concentration gradient to set up an action potential/depolarise the
membrane. (1)
4(c) Overproduced (1) (1)

(Total for Question 4 = 4 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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TOPIC 8: COORDINATION, RESPONSE AND GENE TECHNOLOGY
Chapter 8C: Gene technology

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 C 1 and 3 only (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 mark)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2(a)(i) Reverse transcriptase (1) (1)
2(a)(ii) Two from: (2)
• This is where insulin is made. (1)
• Therefore, the gene (for insulin) will be being expressed/switched on. (1)
• So there will be a lot of mRNA transcribed/present (for synthesis of insulin
(a peptide). (1)
2(a)(iii) Gene contains introns which would have to be removed (as they are not Credit other valid response (1)
transcribed). (1)
Or
More difficult to cut out a gene from a chromosome. (1)
Or
Because this is where insulin is made, the gene will be being expressed and
there will be a lot of mRNA available. (1)
2(b)(i) • Because they will not be resistant to streptomycin (1) (2)
• as the resistance gene is on the plasmid. (1)

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2(b)(ii) • The gene for tetracycline resistance (on the plasmid) (1) (4)
• is still intact. (1)
• Therefore these bacteria are resistant to tetracycline (and can grow on
this plate as there is tetracycline in the agar) (1)
• and the plasmid also has a gene for resistance to streptomycin. (1)
2(b)(iii) • They have a plasmid with a gene for resistance to streptomycin. (1) (3)
• But the gene for resistance to tetracycline is disrupted by the insulin gene
(1)
• so cannot be expressed/not transcribed/no {enzyme/protein} made to
break down the tetracycline. (1)
2(c) D colonies D and F (1) (1)
2(d)(i) The bacteria could (escape and) pass their plasmids/antibiotic resistance (1)
genes to bacteria in the wild/outside the lab. (1)
2(d)(ii) Gene for fluorescence/jellyfish gene/pGlo (1) (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 16 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
3(a) (From the) alga/algae (that the wild fish feed on) (1) (1)
(b) Advantage (2)
One from:
e.g. Credit other valid responses
• Improve access to omega 3 oils in human diet/improve brain or nervous
system development in children. (1)
• Reduce need for fish farming (which is bad for the fish and the
environment). (1)
• No need to catch wild fish to feed to farmed fish. (1)
• Increases access to omega 3 oils for vegans/vegetarians. (1)
Disadvantage

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One from:
e.g.
• In some countries, wheat is not the staple crop. (1)
• Some people are wheat intolerant/gluten intolerant. (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 3 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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Whole course assessment 1

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1(a) ● Collecting data outside of laboratory (1) (2)
● Without harming organisms observed/collected (1)
1(b) Colour of shells of snails does not affect feeding preferences of thrushes. (1) (1)
1(c) Award 1 mark for each correct (3)
2 (O − E )2 column.
Shell colour O − E (O − E)
E

brown 6 36 6
pink 10 100 4
yellow −16 256 0.96
(3)
1(d) χ 2 = 6 + 4 + 0.96 (1) (2)

= 10.96 (1)
1(e) ● The null hypothesis is rejected (1) (4)
● because the χ 2 value is greater than the critical value. (1)
● 5.99 (1)
● Reference to null hypothesis being rejected at 5% level (1)
1(f) An answer that includes five of the following points: (5)
● Proportionately fewer snails with yellow shells are eaten. (1)
● More snails with yellow shells are able to reproduce. (1)
● The frequency of alleles controlling yellow colouring increases. (1)
● Proportionately fewer individuals with brown or pink shells survive. (1)
● The frequency of alleles controlling brown and pink colouring decreases. (1)

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● In time, snails with brown and pink shells are eliminated/become
rare. (1)

1(g) ● On leaf litter, brown shelled snails better camouflaged (1) (3)
● Less likely to be eaten (1)
● Numbers would be higher (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 20 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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Whole course assessment 2

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
1 B 2 only (1) (1)

(Total for Question 1 = 1 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
2(a)(i) (Community:) all the populations of all the different species of organisms in a Allow alternative wording (1)
habitat at one time (1)
2(a)(ii) (DNA sequencing:) determining the sequence of base pairs on a length of (1)
DNA (1)
2(b)(i) • Sunlight (cannot penetrate this far/only penetrates about 200 m) (1) (2)
• So no energy to heat water (1)
2(b)(ii) • 16 C (1) Accept lower than 16 C if linked to an (2)
• because this is average global temperature of the oceans at the surface explanation that some plastics are below
(which is where most of the plastics are) (1) the surface of the ocean.

2(b)(iii) Three from: (3)


• Electrons (from respiratory substrate/PET/other named substrate) pass
along (chain of) electron carriers. (1)
• Energy released used to pump hydrogen ions (across membrane/into a
space). (1)
• Proton/electrochemical gradient produced. (1)
• Hydrogen ions/protons flow down their gradient via
ATPsynthase/ATPase enzyme and the flow/pmf produces ATP. (1)

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2(c)(i) • Because the (generation time/time to grow to full size and divide) in (2)
bacteria is (very short/example such as 60–90 minutes) (1)
• Reference to need for many generations so that (many) mutations occur
(1)
2(c)(ii) • PET is a large molecule (1) (2)
• (therefore PET) cannot enter the bacteria (1)
2(d) A black-footed albatross (1) (1)
2(e) C 90 times more efficient (1) (1)

(Total for Question 2 = 15 marks)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark


number
3(a) Positive correlation/as number of bacteria increase so does concentration of Not just ‘directly proportional.’ (1)
ATP (1)
3(b)(i) 2.25  107/ 22 500 000/22.5 million (1) Allow 2.0–2.3 (1)
3(b)(ii) Two from: (2)
• Cold waterlogged soil (lacks oxygen/ is anaerobic environment) (1)
• So less ATP produced (1)
• Fewer (aerobic) bacteria/more anaerobic bacteria (1)

(Total for Question 3 = 4 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

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