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1. LH peak precedes ovulation by :


(1) 12 hours
(2) 24 hours
(3) 36 hours
(4) 48 hours

2. In PCOS, which of the following will increase ovulation rates ?


(1) Estradiol
(2) Prednisolone
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Metformin

3. Ovulation occurs because of a surge of :


(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Estradiol
(4) Prolactin

4. The best time of the menstrual cycle to sample LH and FSH levels in a case of PCOS are :
(1) Days 2 to 4
(2) Days 12 to 14
(3) Days 6 to 8
(4) Days 24 to 26

5. A 28 year old married woman with PCOS is anxious for conception. Her hormonal assays
are within normal limits. The treatment of choice is :
(1) Laparoscopic ovarian drilling
(2) Ovulation induction with Clomiphene citrate
(3) Ovarian Wedge resection
(4) IUI

6. All of the following are increased in PCOS, EXCEPT :


(1) Insulin resistance
(2) Testesterone
(3) Progesterone
(4) LH

7. Which of the following drugs is not used for ovulation induction?


(1) Clomiphene citrate
(2) Letrazole
(3) HMG
(4) Danazol

8. The most common side effect of metformin is:


(1) lactic acidosis
(2) hypoglycemia
(3) GI upset
(4) weight gain

9. All can be used for treatment of endometriosis, EXCEPT :


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(1) OCP’s
(2) Danazol
(3) GnRH analogues
(4) Misoprostol

10. Oligospermia is defined as a sperm count less than :


(1) 40 million/ml
(2) 50 million/ml
(3) 10 million/ml
(4) 20 million/ml

11. High levels of FSH with azospermia in an infertile male indicates :


(1) Obstruction of vasa
(2) Testicular failure
(3) Hypothalamic failure
4) all of the above

12. IUI is indicated in all, EXCEPT :


(1) Male factor infertility
(2) Unexplained infertility
(3) Endometriosis
(4) Cervical factor infertility

13. In IVF, the embryos are usually transferred back to the uterine cavity on _________ day
after oocyte retrival.
(1) Day 1
(2) Day 2
(3) Day 5
(4) Day 7

14 Following is true about condom :


(1) Interceptive
(2) Only contraception use
(3) Gives 99% contraception efficacy
(4) Protects against STD’s

15. 30 yrs old P1L1 wants contraception for 6 months. She has dysmenorrhoea & is a k/c/o
complicated migraine. On USG, uterus has multiple fibroids. Contraception of choice is :
(1) Cu-T 200
(2) OC pills
(3) Vaginal diaphragm
(4) Tubal sterilisation

16. The Category IV for IUCD is :


(1) Heart disease
(2) Nulliparity
(3) Polymenorrhoea
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(4) Acute PID

17. All are true for LNG-20, EXCEPT :


(1) Contains levonorgestrel
(2) Causes endometrial hyperplasia
(3) Prevents ectopic pregnancy
(4) Called MIRENA

18. 30 yrs old P1L1 had Cu-T inserted 2 years back. O/E-Cu-T threads not seen. USG shows
CuT partly in abdominal cavity. Method of removal is :
(1) Hysteroscopy
(2) No need to remove it(wait and watch)
(3) IUCD hook
(4) Laparoscopy

19. Combined OC pills reduces all, EXCEPT :


(1) Simple ovarian cyst
(2) Menorrhagia
(3) Premenstrual syndrome
(4) Hepatic adenoma

20 Norgestimate in OC pills has the following advantage :


(1) Reduces venous thrombosis
(2) Is cheaper than standard OC pills
(3) Reduces acne & hirsutism
(4) Useful in heart disease

21. CATEGORY IV for OC pill is :


(1) Smoking
(2) Age > 35 years
(3) Active liver disease
(4) Diabetes Mellitus

22. Minimum effective dose of ethinyl estradiol in combined oral pills is :


a. 20 g
b. 35 g
c. 10 g
d. 5 g

23 All are true of Depot MPA, EXCEPT :


(1) Given every 3 months
(2) Causes amenorrhoea
(3) Causes dysmenorrhoea
(4) Useful in sickle cell disease

24. Emergency contraception is used in :


(1) Failure of MTP
(2) When pregnancy is confirmed
(3) After rape
(4) After age of 50 years
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25. All of the following are the mechanisms of action of emergency contraception, EXCEPT:
(1) Delaying ovulation
(2) Inhibiting fertilisation
(3) Preventing implantation of fertilised egg
(4) Interrupting an early pregnancy

26. Sterilisation procedure with maximum chances of reversal is :


(1) Pomeroy’s tubal ligation
(2) Irwing’s technique
(3) Laparoscopic TL with silastic bands
(4) Laparoscopic TL with clips

27. The intra-abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between :


(1) 5-8 mm Hg
(2) 10-15 mm Hg
(3) 20-25 mm Hg
(4) 30-35 mm Hg

28. A couple is advised to use barrier methods after vasectomy till :


(1) 3 months
(2) No sperms in ejaculate
(3) Next 15 ejaculations
(4) None of the above

29. Primary ammenorrhoea is when menarche does not occur by :


(1) 8 years
(2) 12 years
(3) 16 years
(4) 18 years

30. The commonest cause of primary ammenorrhoea is :


(1) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
(2) Ovarian dysgenesis
(3) Mullerian agenesis(RMKH syndrome)
(4) Hypothyrodism

31. The investigation of choice to differentiate Mullerian Agenesis from Testicular


femmisation syndrome in a case of primary ammennorrhoea is :
(1) USG
(2) Laparoscopy
(3) Karyotype
(4) Hormonal assays
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32. 16 years old girl presents as primary amenorrhoea. O/E-Breast well developed .
Laparoscopy reveals absence of uterus with normal ovaries. All of follow investigations to
be done, EXCEPT :
(1) USG kidneys
(2) Xray spine
(3) Audiogram
(4) None of the above

33. 16 years old presents with primary amenorrhea. O/E breasts are well developed,
absence of axillary & pubic hair. Lump felt in the inguinal region. USG reveals absent
uterus. The diagnosis is :
1) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
2) RMKH syndrome
3) Turner’s syndrome
4) Kallman’s syndrome

34. The differentiation of the gonad into testes is dependant on :


(1) Presence of SRY gene
(2) Lack of SRY gene
(3) Presence of AMH
(4) Presence of testosterone

35. Withdrawal bleeding with progesterone is seen in ammenorrhoea women with :


(1) Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
(2) Anovulation
(3) Ovarian failure
(4) TB endometritis

36. 35 years old Radha aborted 5 months back at 17 weeks of a gestation. She has not got
her periods yet. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Estrogen + progesterone withdrawl test
negative. The likely diagnosis is :
(1) Pituitary failure
(2) Ovarian failure
(3) Anorexia nervosa
(4) Asherman’s syndrome

37. 15 years old Ritu c/o heavy periods . O/E : wt 40 kg & BP – 120/80 mm Hg. All of the
following investigations are indicated, EXCEPT :
(1) S.TSH
(2) platelet count
(3) Bleeding & clotting time
(4) None of the above

38. 46 years Rinku complains of menorrhagia for 3 months. Next line of management is :
(1) D&C
(2) Progesterone x 6 months
(3) OC pills x 6 months
(4) Hysterectomy

39. All of the following are included in Hormone replacement therapy, EXCEPT :
(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
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(3) Tibolone
(4) Alendronate

40. All are causes of Genital prolapse, EXCEPT :


(1) Marfan’s syndrome
(2) Previous 2 LSCS
(3) Precipitate labor
(4) Menopause

41. All are true supports of the uterus, EXCEPT :


(1) Uterosacral ligament
(2) Transverse cervical ligament
(3) Round ligament
(4) Levator ani

42. Prolapse of the upper one third of the posterior vaginal wall is called as :
(1) Rectocele
(2) Enterocele
(3) Lax Perineum
(4) Ureterocele

43. 26 years old, P1L1, with third degree uterine prolapse is best treated with :
(1) Conization of cervix
(2) Fothergill’s operation
(3) A-P repair
(4) Vaginal hysterectomy

44. A 28 years old, no living issue with second degree uterine propalse and cervical elongation
with good anterior abdominal wall tone, is treated with :
(1) Le fort’s colpoclesis
(2) Fothergill’s repair
(3) Cervicopexy
(4) hysterectomy

45. Fothergill’s repair is associated with all the following complications, EXCEPT :
st
(1) 1 trimester abortions
(2) Cervical dystocia
(3) Preterm labor
(4) Cervical factor of infertility
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46. 84 year old lady, with history of MI and on therapy for severe hypertension & cardiac
failure is also having procidentia. The ideal surgery for her is :
(1) Theirsch’s stitch
(2) Vaginal hysterectomy
(3) Le forte’s repair
(4) Cervicopexy

47. All of the following are the risk factors for CIN & Ca cervix, EXCEPT :
(1) Early age at intercourse
(2) HPV infection
(3) Smoking
(4) Monogamy

48. 38 years old Mala has Pap smear with HSIL. Colposcopy directed biopsy can reveal all,
EXCEPT :
(1) CIN-1
(2) CIN-2
(3) CIN-3
(4) Ca insitu

49. 50 yrs. Nagdevi has Pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopic directed biopsy normal.
Next line of management is :
(1) Repeat punch biopsy
(2) Wait & watch
(3) Cone biopsy
(4) Hysterectomy

50. 30 Years old nulliparous lady with Pap showing HSIL, underwent colposcopy with
biopsy. It revealed CIN-III. Next line of management is :
(1) Repeat Pap & Colposcopy > 6 months
(2) diagnostic conization
(3) hysterectomy
(4) LEEP
51. Advantages of surgery over Radiotherapy in Ca Cervix treatment are all, EXCEPT :
(1) Preservation of vaginal function
(2) Conservation of ovaries
(3) Lesser surgical mortality
(4) None of the above

52. Therapeutic conisation is indicated in :


(1) Micro invasive carcinoma 1A1
(2) mismatch between PAP smear report & cervical biopsy report
(3) Cervical metaplasia
4) all of the above

53. Endometrial carcinoma is seen in all, EXCEPT :


(1) Nulliparous women
(2) Only estrogen HRT
(3) Diabetes mellitus & Hypertension
(4) prolonged use of DMPA

54. Ca endometrium ,stage II is treated with :


(1) surgery followed by RT
(2) surgery + chemotherapy
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(3) RT followed by surgery
(4) RT + progesterone

55. All of the following predispose to Ca ovary, EXCEPT :


(1) Lynch II syndrome
(2) Early menarche
(3) prolonged use of Gonadotropins for ovulation induction
(4) BRCA-2 mutation in genes

56. All are true of germ cell tumours of ovary, EXCEPT :


(1) Rapidly growing
(2) Extremely chemosensitive
(3) Seen in perimeno pausal age
(4) Conservative surgery advocated

57. 35 yrs old Lata, P2L2 with Rt sided ovarian mass c/o bleeding PV. Her FBS 72mg%. and
S. inhibin levels raised. On histopathology, likely picture is :
(1) Call Exner bodies
(2) Crystalloids of Reinke
(3) Psammoma bodies
(4) Hobnail cells

58. Following are the ultrasound characteristics of malignancy (ovarian), EXCEPT :


(1) Solid tumour with ascitis
(2) Pedunculated tumour
(3) Thick/multiple Septations
(4) Papillary growth on capsule

59. 38 yrs old Nilofer, on USG shows 34 cm, clear ovarian cyst on right side. She c/o low
backache. Next best line of management is :
(1) Laparoscopy
(2) O.C pills
(3) Wait & watch
(4) CA-125 estimation

60. 56 yrs old Kruti c/o pain in abdomen with USG showing 4 cm bilateral ovarian mass with
increased vascularity, Next line of management is :
(1) USG guided ovarian tapping
(2) Wait & watch
(3) Surgery
(4) OC pills  3 cycles

61. True and false broad ligaments fibroids differentiated by anatomic position of :
(1) Ureter
(2) Internal iliac vein
(3) External iliac artery
(4) Descending cervical artery.

62. Myomectomy is not indicated in :


(1) Sub mucosal fibroid uterus
(2) Fundal fibroid
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(3) Sarcomatous degeneration
(4) Hyaline degeneration

63. 30 years old Kamla, P2L2 with 3.2  4.1 cm fibroid uterus c/o menorrhagia & is on
hormonal therapy since 6 months. Pt refuses surgery. Next line of management
is :
(1) Hysterectomy
(2) Danazol
(3) Myomectomy
(4) Uterine artery embolisation

64. All are risk factors for recurrent candidiasis, EXCEPT :


(1) HIV
(2) Menses
(3) Diabetes
(4) Prolonged steroid therapy

65. The drug of choice for trichomoniasis is :


(1) Ketoconazole
(2) Metronidazole
(3) Gentamicin
(4) Penicillin

66. Positive Whiff test is characterised by :


(1) Gardenella
(2) Candida
(3) Treponema
(4) Actinomyces

67. All are features of genital TB, on HSG, EXCEPT :


(1) ‘Lead pipe’ tubes
(2) Hydrosalphinx
(3) ‘Pseudo unicornuate’ uterus
(4) Cornual spasm

68. In Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome, adhesions are noted in :


(1) Omental adhesions
(2) Tubal region
(3) Perihepatic region
(4) Intrauterine adhesions

69. A patient of infertility with severe genital Koch’s, best treatment is :


(1) Ovulation induction with IUI
(2) Ovum donation
(3) IVF + ET
(4) Tubal microsurgery

70. Bonney’s test is used to demonstrate :


(1) Stress incontinence
(2) endometriosis
(3) Fibroids
(4) True incontinence
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71. SUI is best corrected by :


(1) Colporraphy
(2) Hysterectomy
(3) Bladder neck suspension
(4) medical management

72. Menuria is clinical sign seen in :


(1) VVF
(2) Uterovesical fistula
(3) Rectovaginal fistula
(4) Urethrovaginal fistula

73. In a ureterovginal fistula, the ‘three swab’ test shows the following result :
(1) Upper swab wet with methylene blue
(2) Upper swab wet with urine
(3) Lower swab wet with urine
(4) Lower & mid swab wet with methylene blue

74. The commonest site of injury to ureter is :


(1) Intramural portion in the bladder wall
(2) Infundibulopelvic ligament
(3) Where it crosses below the uterine arteries
(4) Ureteric tunnel

75. The drug of choice for galactorrhoea is :


(1) Bromocriptine
(2) Metformin
(3) Cabergoline
(4) Oxytocin

76. 24 year old married lady with galactorrhea, visual defects and headache. The most likely
diagnosis is :
(1) Microadenoma of pituitary
(2) Macroadenoma with extrasellar extension
(3) hypothyroidism
(4) Chronic renal failure
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77. Branches of internal iliac artery include all of the following, EXCEPT :
(1) Uterine Artery
(2) Middle rectal artery
(3) Obturator artery
(4) Inferior epigastric artery

78 Bartholin’s duct opens into :


(1) Labia minora
(2) Labia majora
(3) Groove between labia minora & hymen
(4) Vagina

79 Weight of normal placenta is :


(1) 250gm
(2) 500gm
(3) 100gm
(4) 350gm

80 Oxygenated blood reaches the fetal heart in utero via:


(1) Umblical arteries
(2) Umblical vein
(3) Ductus venosus
(4) Ductus arteriosus

81. The earliest USG sign of possible pregnancy is :


(1) Free fluid in POD
(2) Gestational sac.
(3) Yolk sac
(4) Fetal pole

82. Osiander’s sign means :


(1) Pulsations in lateral fornix
(2) Bluish vaginal discoloration
(3) Cervical softening
(4) On bimanual examination, approximation of fingers

83. The following remains unchanged in pregnancy :


(1) Factor II
(2) Platelet count
(3) Factor XI
(4) Clotting time

84. All are true about hCG, EXCEPT :


(1) Has 2 subunits
(2) Secreted by synctiotrophoblast
rd
(3) Maximum levels in 3 trimester
(4) Doubles every 2 days
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85. AFP is raised in all, EXCEPT :


(1) Polycystic kidney
(2) Trisomies
(3) IUFD
(4) Esophageal atresia

86 All are features of Down’s Syndrome on USG , EXCEPT :


(1) Duodenal atresia
(2) Sandle gap
(3) Cystic hygroma
(4) Echogenic intra cardiac foci

87. A 16 weeks pregnant lady with previous history of Down’s syndrome should be best
evaluated by:
(1) CVS
(2) Triple marker test
(3) Amniocentesis
(4) Color Doppler

88. The drop in FHR associated with placental insufficiency is :


(1) Early deceleration
(2) Late deceleration
(3) Variable deceleration
(4) Prolonged deceleration

89. Sinusoidal pattern on CTG is seen in all, EXCEPT :


(1) Fetal anemia
(2) Severe fetal asphyxia
(3) -blockers
(4) Chorioamniotoitis

90. All are components of Manning’s Biophysical profile, EXCEPT :


(1) NST
(2) fetal movements
(3) Fetal Breathing movements
(4) Placental maturity

91. In asymmetric IUGR, color doppler shows the following findings, EXCEPT :
(1) S/D Ratio in umbilical artery
(2) MCA flow
(3) Notching of uterine artery
(4) Reversed flow in Ductus Venosus

92. The main cause of maternal mortality in the developing countries is :


(1) Unsafe abortions
(2) Hypertensive disorders
(3) Hemorrhage
(4) Obstructed labor
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93. Cervical ripening is mainly due to action of :


(1) PGE2 (2) PGF2
(3) PGI2 (4) methergin

94. Methylergometrine is contra indicated in :


(1) Multiparty
(2) Bicornuate uterus
(3) PPH
(4) Eclampsia

95. Which drugs does not affect the fetus?


(1) Isotretinion
(2) MgSo4
(3) Phenytoin
(4) Warfarin

96 The most common fetal presentation in platypelloid pelvis is :


(1) Face presentation
(2) Occipitoposterior position
(3) Brow presentation
(4) Vertex presentation

97 Management of second stage of normal labour includes all, EXCEPT :


(1) Bladder catheterisation
(2) Cleaning of external genitalia
(3) Ritzen manoevre
(4) Brandt Andrews manoevre

98. The disadvantage of active management of third stage of labour is :


(1) Increased blood loss
(2) Increased time interval
(3) Increased incidence of retained placenta
(4) Regular prostaglandin usage

99. All of the following are outcomes of occipito posterior position, EXCEPT :
(1) Deep transverse arrest
(2) Occipito sacral arrest
(3) Face to pubis delivery
(4) None of the above

100. Assisted breech delivery involves active delivery of breech after :


(1) Delivery of hands
(2) Delivery of umbilicus
(3) Delivery of neck
(4) Delivery of legs

101. All of the following are involved in complicated vaginal breech delivery, EXCEPT :
(1) Loveset manoevre
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(2) Pinard’s manoevre
(3) Prague method
(4) Burns Marshall method

102 Conduplicato corpore is seen in :


(1) Brow presentation
(2) Face presentation
(3) Transverse lie
(4) Compound presentation

103. Treatment of cord prolapse is based on all of the following factors, EXCEPT :
(1) Fetal viability
(2) Fetal maturity
(3) Fetal weight
(4) Cervical dilatation

104 Shoulder dystocia is not treated with :-


(1) Mac Robert’s manoevre
(2) Wood’s manoevre
(3) Zavanelli’s manoevre
(4) Elliot’s manoevre

105 Management of obstructed labour includes all, EXCEPT :


(1) IV fluids
(2) Oxytocin use
(3) Antibiotics
(4) Caesarean section

106. Post partum haemorrhage is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT :
(1) Abruption
(2) Multiple pregnancy
(3) HELLP syndrome
(4) Methergin use

107. Postpartum haemorrhage is treated with all of the following, EXCEPT :


(1) Prostaglandins
(2) Intrauterine packing
(3) B-Lynch sutures
(4) Internal iliac (posterior division) ligation

108. 29 years Radha is in labour since 12 hours & c/o frequent blood stained urine passage.
She is a c/o previous LSCS. O/E = P-130b/m, BP-100/60, P/A - Uterus tender, FHR
feeble, fresh bleeding PV. Diagnosis is:
is :
(1) Abruptio placentae
(2) Placenta praevia
(3) rupture uterus
(4) None
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109 Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS is ____%
(1) 2.5-3 (2) 0.5-1.5
(3) 3.5-4.5 (4) 4-5

110 Pre-requisites of outlet forceps application includes all, EXCEPT :


(1) membranes ruptured
(2) Uterine contractions
(3) Full cervical dilatation
(4) Station 0 to +1

111 Vacuum application is contra indicated in


all of the following, EXCEPT :
(1) Face presentation
(2) Preterm fetus
(3) IUFD
(4) Maternal heart disease

112 Trial of scar is not attempted in :


(1) Previous LSCS
(2) CPD
(3) Polyhydramnios
(4) IUGR

113 A 28 year old, primigrarida with 34 weeks of pregnancy suddenly complains of headache
and blurred vision& oliguria. Her BP is 180/110 and urine albumin is +4 The Bishop’s
score is 10 :
The line of further management is :
(1) wait & watch
(2) LSCS
(3) Induction of labor
(4) Anticonvulsant + Antihypertensive therapy

114 Following are known factors in the etiology of preeclampsia, EXCEPT :


(1) Thromboxane A2 decrease
(2) Prostocyclin decrease
(3) Endothelial damage
(4) Improper trophoblastic invasion

115 In the Pritchard’s regime the therapeutic level of serum MgSO4 to be achieved is :
(1) 1 – 2 meq/L
(2) 4 – 7 meq/L
(3) 12 – 15 meq/L
(4) 30 – 35 meq/L

116 A pregnant women developed obstetric Hepatosis, all of the following are associated,
EXCEPT :
(1) SGOT can be raised to 100 IU
(2) S. Bilirubin > 7 mg/dL
(3) Meconium stained amniotic fluid
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(4) Intense pruritus

117. 20 years old,G4 P3 L3 with MS is in labor, all of the following are indicated, EXCEPT :
(1) proped up position
(2) Prophylactic forceps
(3) i.m. methergin after placental delivery
rd
(4) IV frusemide after 3 stage of labor

118. Which heart disease has the worst prognosis in pregnancy?


(1) MS
(2) AS
(3) PDA
(4) Eisenmenger’s syndrome

119 According to WHO, anemia in pregnancy is diagnosed when Hb is less than :


(1) 10 gm%
(2) 11 gm%
(3) 7 gm%
(4) 9 gm%

120 The ideal time to perform the O’Sullivans Blood sugar screening test in the ante natal
period :
(1) 8 – 10 weeks
(2) 16-20 weeks
(3) 24 – 28 weeks
(4) 32 – 36 weeks

121 G2P1L1, Diabetic pregnant lady with 32 weeks pregnancy,blood sugars are well
controlled and the on USG the fetal weight is 3.11 kg. The previous pregnancy was
terminated by emergency LSCS for fetal distress. The best plan of action is :
(1) Induce at 38 weeks
(2) Elective LSCS at 36 weeks
(3) Elective LSCS at 38 weeks
(4) Elective LSCS at 40 weeks
st
122 The congenital anomaly specifically associated with uncontrolled DM in 1 trimester is :
(1) Edward’s syndrome
(2) NTD
(3) sacral agenesis
(4) Conradi syndrome

123 All are true about Thyroid Storm in pregnancy, EXCEPT :


(1) Carbimazole is the drug of choice
(2) Is precipitated by LSCS
(3) -Blockers provide symptomatic reliefs
(4) Commonest cause is Grave’s disease

124 In a patient of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome who is pregnant and is receiving


heparin therapy all of the following are known complications, of heparin EXCEPT :
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(1) IUFD
(2) Osteopenia
(3) Thrombocytopenia
(4) Skin reactions

125 37 weeks primigravida in labor, with uterine contractions. Pv= 3 cm dilated. Transverse lie,
with IUFD. BEST plan of action is

1) LSCS
2) Internal podalic version
3) Evisceration
4) Craniotomy,Decapitation

126 G6P5L5, all home deliveries, is 8 weeks pregnant and has procedentia, treatment is :
(1) AP prepair
(2) Pessary
(3) Cerclage
(4) Bed rest
127 G2P1 with 11 weeks pregnancy on USG shows a right sided ovarian cyst measuring 12
cm  10 cm. Best management is :
(1) Immediate cystectomy
nd
(2) Cystectomy in 2 trimester
(3) Cystectomy after delivery
(4) MTP

128. All are true about red degeneration of fibroid in pregnancy, EXCEPT :
(1) Leucocytosis
(2) Vomitting
(3) Myomectomy
(4) Micronecrothrombosis

129. All of the following are known complications of fibroid in pregnancy, EXCEPT :
(1) Abortion
(2) Preterm labor
(3) PROM
(4) PPH

130. 32 years old patient with 36weeks pregnancy comes to OPD as profuse painless PV bleeding
since 1 hour. O/E patient is pale & BP-110/70mmHg. P/A uterus relaxed . All of the followng
can be done to diagnose the condition, EXCEPT :
(1) USG
(2) MRI
(3) Internal examinations in OT
(4) None of the above

131 35 weeks pregnant lady is admitted I/V/O first episode of painless bout of bleeding yesterday.
O/E=Hb10gm%, BP-120/70mmHg, uterus relaxed, cephalic floating. FHS regular. Next line of
management is :
(1) Caesarean section
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(2) Induction of labour
(3) Wait and watch
(4) Blood transfusion

132. 37 weeks pregnant lady is admitted with pain in abdomen since 2 hours. O/E : Hb= 11gm%,
BP-150/90mmHg, urine albumin +. P/A – 36 weeks, fetal heart rate good with minimal
contraction of uterus. P/V-7cm dilated. ARM reveals blood stained liquor. Next line of
management is :
(1) Caesarean section
(2) Wait and watch
(3) oxytocin augmentation
4) blood transfusion

133 36 weeks pregnant lady C/O bleeding PV since 4 hours. O/E=Hb 6gm%, BP-90/60, P/A-
uterus tonically contracted, FHR absent. BT=7min & CT= 14min. The likely diagnosis as per
Page’s classification is :
(1) Grade I Abruptio
(2) Grade II Abruptio
(3) Grade III Abruptio
(4) Grade IV Abruptio

134 Simi with 34 weeks pregnancy is in labour with 3cm dilatation & minimal uterine contraction.
On ARM, fresh bleeding noted with late fetal decceleration upto 50 b/m. The patient was
taken for CS but fetus could no be saved. NO abruptio or placenta praevia seen. The likely
diagnosis is :
(1) Placenta praevia
(2) Revealed abruptio
(3) Circumvallate placenta
(4) Vasa previa

135 24 years Mala C/O 4 & half weeks amenorrhoea & PV spotting 15 days back. O/E=P-96b/m,
BP-120/80, beta HCG is positive but transabdominal sonography reveals empty uterine cavity.
Likely diagnosis could be :
(1) Ectopic pregnancy
(2) Abortion
(3) Early intrauterine pregnancy
(4) All of the above

136 19 years old Neeta presents to emergency ward as 2 months amenorrhoea with pain in
abdomen & shock. BP – 90/60mm Hg & Hb 6gm%. Urine pregnancy test is found positive.
Next immediate line of treatment is :
(1) Laparotomy
(2) Blood transfusion
(3) Medical management
(4) Laparoscopy

137 All of the following are risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, EXCEPT :
(1) PID
(2) LNG-20 IUCD
(3) Tubal surgery
(4) IVF
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138 Neelu with 3 months amenorrhoea c/o hyperemesis and vaginal bleeding since one month.
O/E=uterus 16 weeks with absent fetal heart sound. USG shows snowstorm appearance The
diagnosis is :
(1) Vesicular mole
(2) Ectopic pregnancy
(3) IUFD
(4) Abruptio placentae

139. 34 years old Lalti with H/O previous two first trimester abortions comes for evalution. All of the
following are implicated in cause, EXCEPT :
(1) DM
(2) chromosomal abnormality
(3) thyroid disorder
(4) Cervical incompetence

140. 30 years Radha is 14 weeks pregnant. She had 2 painless deliveries at 16 weeks earlier. Next
line of management is :
(1) Cervical encirclage
(2) Progesterone supplementation
(3) Cervical length assessment
(4) Tocolytics

141. All of the following are legal grounds for Medical Termination of pregnancy, EXCEPT :
(1) Rape
(2) Failure of contraception
(3) Eugenic causes
(4) Financial causes

142. Malti with 32 weeks pregnancy C/O leaking since pervaginum 1hour. O/E=uterus relaxed with
regular FHS. All of the following can be done to establish PROM, EXCEPT :
(1) Nitrazine paper test
(2) Fetal Fibronectin levels
(3) AFP
(4) Sugar levels
143 Sandhya with 33 weeks pregnancy was admitted in preterm labour. O/E=Minimal uterine
contraction felt & fetal heart regular. P/V-1cm dilated with poor effacement. No leaking of
liquor seen. Management includes all, EXCEPT :
(1) Tocolytics
(2) Steroid therapy
(3) Immediate delivery
(4) Bedrest

144 29 years old Neeta comes to the OPD with c/o postdatism by 4 days. All of the following are
advocated in the management,
EXCEPT :
(1) Confirm postdatism
(2) Modified BPP
(3) PV examination
(4) Fetal lung maturity

145 G2P1L1 comes to OPD as a case of twin pregnancy. All of the following details elicited in her
history can be etiological factors for her twin pregnancy, EXCEPT :
(1) She is 39 years old
(2) Her mother had twin pregnancy
(3) She is a Mongol by race
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(4) She was treated for infertility

146 The following sign on USG indicate monozygotic twin pregnancy :


(1) 2 separate placenta
(2) Twin peak sign
(3) Siamese twins
(4) Different fetal sex

147 All of the following predispose to polyhydramnios, EXCEPT :


(1) Chorangioma of placenta
(2) Anencephaly
(3) Occult spina bifida
(4) Alpha thalassemia

148 Shilu with 18 weeks of pregnancy is diagnosed as severe oligohydramnios. The most likely
fetal consequence expected is :
(1) Cord compression
(2) PPROM
(3) Fetal limb deformities
(4) Fetal cardiac anamolies

149 33 weeks pregnant Rhima is diagnosed as mild IUGR on USG. All of the following can be
done in treatment of IUGR ,EXCEPT :
(1) Bed rest
(2) BPP
(3) Colour Doppler
(4) Delivery immediately

150 Malti with 36 weeks pregnancy is diagnosed with IUFD on USG. She is bleeding PV since 2
hours. O/E - Hb 7gm%, BT = 9min, CT = 16min, platelets = 40,000/cu.mm. All of the following
are treatment, EXCEPT :
(1) Blood transfusion
(2) Induction of labour
(3) FFP transfusion
(4) Immediate Caesarean section