IIFT2

IIFT SAMPLE PAPER
INSTRUCTIONS – Please read these carefully before attempting the test.
1. This test is based on the pattern of previous years’ IIFT papers.
2. There are four sections. Each section contains 50 questions.

Section 1- Quantitative Ability
Section 2- Logical Reasoning
Section 3- General Awareness
Section 4- English and Reading Comprehension
3. The total time allotted is 2 hours exactly. Please note your start time and end time
on the answer sheet. Do not take more than 2 hours, or you will get a wrong
assessment.
4. There is negative marking of ¼ per question.
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SECTION I
Number of Questions:
50
DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to For the following questions, choose the correct option.
50:
1. A pole is broken and the upper part of the pole falls down on the earth inclining at an angle of 30°. If the
distance between the top and foot of the pole is 10 feet, then the height of the unbroken pole was:
C
30 o
A
B
10 feet
[1] 10 + 20v3 [2] 20 + 10v3 [3] 5 + 10v3 [4] None of the above
2. What will be the ratio of the area of a square and another square drawn by taking the diagonal of the first as
its side?
[1] 1: 2 [2] 1: 3 [3] 1: 4 [4] 1: 5
1 3 1
3. of of of (a number) = 8. The number is
3 5 7
[1] 280 [2] 250 [3] 300 [4] 150
2 + cosec 2 :
4. Value of sin
[1] Less than 1 [2] More than 1 [3] Between 1 and 2 [4] None of the above
x
5. f(x) = and f[h(x)] = x then the value of h(x) is equal to:
1 x
1 x 1 x x
[1] [2] [3] [4] None of the above
x x 1 x
6. Manju and Anju solved a quadratic equation. While solving, Manju made a mistake in the constant term
and got the roots as 6 and 2, whereas Anju made a mistake in the coefficient of x only and got the roots as –
7 and –1. The correct roots of the equation are
[1] 6, –1 [2] 7, 1 [3] –7, –2 [4] –6, 2
7. The height of a cone is 30 m. A new cone has been cut from it by a plane parallel to the base of big cone;
the volume of the small cone is 1/27th of the big one. What is the height of the small cone?
8 9 10
[1] [2] [3] [4] None of the above
7 10 9
8. There are 20 singers and 60 dancers. 25% of the singers are below 25 years of age and 25% of the whole
group is below 25 years of age. What per cent of dancers are below 25 years of age?
[1] 15% [2] 20% [3] 30% [4] 25%
9. To get 33% profit after allowing 5% discount, what should be the marked price?
[1] 10% more than cost price [2] 40% more than cost price
[3] 20% more than cost price [4] 30% more than cost price
10. Rs. 120 is to distributed among X, Y, and Z. X has Rs. 20 less than Y and Rs. 20 more than Z.
What amount does Y have?
[1] 20 [2] 40 [3] 60 [4] None of the above
11. Ravi ranks 10th from the front, Rahim is 25th from the back, Reena lies exactly in middle of the two. What
is Reena’s rank from the front?
[1] 34th [2] 45 th
[3] 28 th
[4] Cannot be determined
12. A man travels from A to B at the speed of 50 kmph. While returning from B to A, he increases his speed by
20%. What is his approximate average speed for the entire trip?
[1] 37.5 kmph [2] 55 kmph [3] 40 kmph [4] 54.5 kmph
13. There are 4 bells ringing after every 6, 7, 8 and 10 seconds. If they have just rung together, how many more
times will they ring together in the next one hour?
[1] 2 times [2] 4 times [3] 5 times [4] None of the above
14. A person reduces his speed to 3/4th and reaches 20 minutes late. What is the total time he takes at his usual
speed?
[1] 1 hour [2] 2 hours [3] 3 hours [4] None of the above
15. Four horses are tied to four corners of a square garden with ropes of equal length such that they are free
only to reach each other. What is the area ungrazed if one side of the garden has length x?
2
x2 x (4[3] p)4 x2 (8 [4]p)4 x2 (4 p)
[1] 8 [2] 8
16. Tina’s salary is 20% more than Tito’s and 40% less than Tony’s. If the sum of their salaries is 6300, then
Tony’s salary is?
[1] Rs. 3000 [2] Rs. 2200 [3] Rs. 1500 [4] None of the above
17. Degrees traveled by the minute hand of a clock between 4 : 45 PM to 6: 15 PM is

[1] 540° [2] 270° [3] 360° [4] 720°
18. A person gets a telephone bill. The fixed amount of the bill is Rs. 380 and extra call amount is Rs. 125. A
person has to pay only 5% of extra call amount in the total bill. What amount does the person pay in the
total bill?
[1] Rs. 385.125 [2] Rs. 268.75 [3] Rs. 555.25 [4] Rs. 480.625
19. Five bells begin to toll together at intervals of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 12 seconds, respectively. How many times will
they toll together in the next one hour, excluding the one at the start?
[1] 7 [2] 9 [3] 3 [4] 5
20. The radius of a circle is increased by 100%. The area of the circle increases by
[1] 100% [2] 200% [3] 300% [4] 400%
21. What is the least integral value of P for a positive value of the expression 4P3 – 7P2 + 5
[1] 2 [2] 4 [3] 5 [4] 1
22. The average of 3 numbers is 410, one of the number is 185. If the difference between the two other
numbers is 25, then the smallest number is?
[1] 185 [2] 150 [3] 163 [4] None of the above
23. The ratio of the arithmetic mean and the second number of two numbers is 3 : 5, what is the ratio of the two
numbers?
[1] 1/5 [2] 1/8 [3] 1/8 [4] 1/10
24. A sum of Rs. 1,683 is divided among A, B and C so that for every rupee that A has, B has 50 paise and for
every rupee that B has, C has 40 paise. What is B’s share?
[1] Rs. 495 [2] Rs. 990 [3] Rs. 594 [4] Rs.
198
25. Prahlad takes a cube of 1 m edge-length, and meticulously cuts smaller cubes, each of edge-length 1mm, from
the parent cube. He joins these small cubes end-to-end. Thus, the total length of this ‘cube- rope’ will be
[1] 100 km [2] 1 km [3] 1,000 km [4] 10 km
26. The length of a rectangle is increased by 10% and its breadth is decreased by 10%. What is the percentage
change in its area?
[1] 21% increase [2] 1% increase [3] 1% decrease [4] No change.
27. There were two candidates in an election for the post of president. 350 of the total votes polled were
invalid. The winner got 72% of the valid votes and was elected by a margin of 440 votes. What was the
total number of votes cast?
[1] 1,000 [2] 1,350 [3] 1,500 [4] 2,000
28. If the length of each edge of a rectangular solid is an integer, the sum of the lengths of all the edges of the
solid is necessarily divisible by which of the following?
[1] 3 [2] 4 [3] 5 [4] 7
29. What is 5% of 10% discount on Rs. 500?

[1] Re. 0.25 [2] Re. 0.125 [3] Rs. 1.25 [4] Rs.
2.5 1
3
30. A tank has a leak that can empty it in 6 hours. A tap is turned on which admits 2 liters per minute into
the tank and it is now emptied in 10 hours. What is the capacity (volume) of the tank?
[1] 1,075 L [2] 2,700 L [3] 3,150 L [4] 6,300 L
31. The smallest integer that is both the square root of a number and the cube root of a number is
[1] 8 [2] 64 [3] 32 [4] None of these
32. The ratio of the ages of Anna and Beena is 2 : 3. After 4 years, their ages will be in the ratio 3 : 4. Find
their present ages.
[1] 6 and 9 [2] 12 and 18 [3] 8 and 12 [4] 4 and 6
33. Raghu invests a sum of m oney in the bank at a certain rate of simple interest. He receives a sum of Rs. 645
at the end of the fourth year or Rs.690 at the end of the fifth year. Find the principal amount.
[1] Rs. 465 [2] Rs. 500 [3] Rs. 555 [4] Rs.
180
34. If 2x + 3y + 4z = 27 and 3x + 2y + z = 33, then what is the average of x, y and z?
[1] 3 [2] 4 [3] 6 [4] 12
35. A starts from a place at 11.00 a.m. and travels at the speed of 4 km/hr. B starts from the same place at 1.00
p.m. and travels at speeds of 1 km/hr for 1 hr, 2 km/hr for the next 1 hr, 3 km/hr for the next 1 hr and so on.
At what time will B catch up with A?
[1] 9.24 p.m. [2] 9.32 p.m. [3] 9.48 p.m. [4] None of
these
36. Your horses are tethered at four corners of a square-plot of side 63 m so that they just cannot reach one
another. The area left ungrazed is
[1] 675.5 m2 [2] 780.6 m2 [3] 785.8 m2 [4] 850.5 m2
37. Two trains start at the same time, one from A to B and the other from B to A. If they arrive at
their destinations in 1 hr and 4 hrs respectively, after passing one another, how much faster is one train running
than the other?
[1] Two times [2] Four times [3] Eight times [4] None of these
2
x 5
38. 1 + 1 , find the value of x.
12 2
12
[1] 5 [2] 1 [3] 4 [4] 2
39. Find the value of x, in the expression – 25 x2 + 50 R 2x 50 0 x

[1] 2 [2] 2 [3] 1 [4] None of these
40. If f(x, y) = xy and g(x) = x3 + 2, then what is the value of f[ 3, g(2)]?

[1] 30 [2] 20 [3] 15 [4] 18
41. There are 150 members in a table tennis club. They play a tournament. A member is out of the tournament
if he loses a game. If we know that there were no ties, then the number of games it took to determine the
champion will be?
[1] 150 [2] 149 [3] 148 [4] 151
42. What is the remainder when 328 is divided by 80?

[1] 0 [2] 1 [3] 3 [4] 4
7 5 7 5
43. is equal to
7 5 7 5
[1] 25 7 [2]3 5 2 7[3]312 [4] 2
44. A cylindrical pole is 3 ft in circumference and is 16 ft high. An insect climbs the pole such that its motion is
a spiral, and one complete spiral helps it cover 4 ft in height. Thus, when the insect reaches the top, it has
covered a total distance of
[1] 25 ft [2] 16 ft [3] 20 ft [4] 18 ft
45. The diameter of a wheel is 63 cm. The distance traveled by the wheel in 100 revolutions is approximately
[1] 99 m [2] 198 m [3] 63 m [4] 136
m
46 If 2x– 1 + 2x+1 = 1280, then the value of x is
[1] 8 [2] 9 [3] 5 [4] None of these
47. Six cups of sugar are required to make one batch of biscuits. How many cups of sugar are needed to make
enough biscuits to fill 12 cookie jars, if each cookie jar can hold 1.5 batches of bis cuits?
[1] 108 [2] 90 [3] 81 [4] 78
48. A dinner party is to be arranged for a group consisting of 100 persons. In this party, 50 persons do not
prefer fish, 60 prefer chicken and 10 do not prefer either chicken or fish. The number of persons who prefer
both fish and chicken is:
[1] 10 [2] 20 [3] 30 [4] 50
49. Anil goes to work from his home at an average speed of 5 km an hour. He reaches office at the correct
time. If his average speed is 4 km an hour he reaches office 15 minutes late. Find the distance between his
office and home.
[1] 3.0 km [2] 4.0 km [3] 4.5 km [4] 5.0
km
50. If x - (1/x) = 2 then the value of x4 + (1/x4) is:
[1] 4 [2] 8 [3] 12 [4] 34
SECTION
II
50
DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 to For each question, choose the best answer from the four choices given.
53:
51. Ram: It is likely that the US will be humiliated in the Osama affair. In case the US fights the Taliban, it will
be defeated in the battle; if it doesn’t fight and lets the Taliban win, it will be humiliated, as it would then
seem impotent.
Sita: In that case the US could always call the British to their aid.
Sita attacks Ram’s argument by:
[1] Attacking Ram’s method of reasoning
[2] Siding with the US
[3] Advocating passive resistance
[4] Citing an alternative that was overlooked by Ram.
52. Which of the following sentences best completes the passage below?
In a survey of college students, nearly half of them admitted to being at least a little dishonest. However,
the survey might have underestimated the proportion of students who are dishonest, because________
[1] Some dishonest people taking the survey might have claimed to be honest on the survey
[2] Some generally honest people taking the survey might have claimed to be dishonest on the survey
[3] Some people who claimed, on the survey, to be at least a little dishonest may be very dishonest
[4] Some people who claimed on the survey to be dishonest may have been answering honestly
53. Answer the following question based on the following statements:

I. In case we assume that Jatin was insane, then Lalit was insane and vice versa.
II. But in case neither Jatin nor Lalit were insane, then you can’t believe Anu Malik.
III. You can believe Anu Malik.
Taking the above statements into consideration, which among the following cannot be true?
I. Both Jatin and Lalit were insane
II. Jatin was insane, but not Lalit
III. Lalit was insane, but not Jatin.
[1] I only [2] II only [3] III only [4] I and II
DIRECTIONS for Questions 54 to The questions are based on the following statement:
An
56: increasing number of people prefer to retain their own individuality and their own identity. Consequently, this
has led to a decline in the marriage rate.
54. Which among the following assumptions are used in the above premises?
I. When a person is married, he or she loses his or her own identity and is no longer accountable to himself
or herself.
II. Married persons do not find contentment as opposed to unmarried people.
III. There has been a steady increase in the divorce rate.
[1] I only [2] II only [3] III only [4] I and II only
55. Which of the following statements would weaken the above argument?
[1] Most people are not mature enough to be married.
[2] Among most married couples, the wife wants to have children.
[3] The stability resulting from marriage offsets the negative aspects of the dual responsibilities of husband
and wife.
[4] Men and women have different sets of values.
56. Which of the following statements would strengthen the above argument?
[1] Very few people prefer to bring up a family.
[2] Emotionally, divorce is not an easy procedure.
[3] Married people have to make a considerable effort to make the marriage last.
[4] 500 out of 600 surveyed couples complained that they were losing their identity.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 57 to Mrs. Varma wishes to renovate her house. She tries the services of a
plumber,
59: a carpenter, a painter, an electrician, and an interior decorator. The renovation is to be completed in a
period of one working week, i.e., Monday to Friday. Every worker will be taking one complete day to do his job.
Mrs. Varma will allow just one person to work per day.
I. The painter can do his work only after the plumber and the carpenter have completed their jobs.
II. The interior decorator has to complete his job before that of the electrician.
III. The carpenter cannot work on Monday or Tuesday.
57. In case the painter works on Thursday, which among the following alternatives is possible?
[1] The electrician works on Tuesday.
[2] The interior decorator does his work after the painter.
[3] The electrician works on Friday.
[4] The plumber and the painter work on consecutive days.
58. In case the painter works on Friday, which among the following statements must not be true?
[1] The carpenter may work on Wednesday.
[2] The plumber may work before the electrician does.
[3] The electrician may work on Tuesday.
[4] In case the carpenter works on Thursday, the electrician has to work on the previous day.
59. Which arrangement among the following is possible?

[1] The carpenter will work on Wednesday and the plumber on Thursday.
[2] The electrician will work on Tuesday and the interior decorator on Friday.
[3] The painter will work on Wednesday and the plumber on Thursday.
[4] The carpenter will work on Tuesday and the painter on Friday.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 60 to In a row of four houses, a different man owns each and each of the men has
a62:
car. Amarnath, Trinath, Dinesh and Bala own the houses. The colors of the cars are grey, violet, mauve and
orange:
I. Bala owns the grey car.
II. Trinath doesn’t stay in any of the end houses.
III. The second house from the left is owned by Amarnath.
IV. Dinesh owns the mauve car.
60. Which among the following statements cannot be true?

[1] The house at the right end belongs to Dinesh.
[2] The house at the left end belongs to Dinesh.
[3] The house at the left end belongs to Bala.
[4] One of the owners of the houses at the two ends has an orange car.
61. In case Amarnath owns the violet car, which car can Trinath own?
I. The orange car II. The mauve car III. The grey car
[1] I only [2] II only [3] III only [4] I or III only
62. Which among the following statements is not necessarily true?

[1] Trinath occupies the third house from the left.
[2] There is one house between Bala and Trinath.
[3] Dinesh and Bala are the ends of the block.
[4] Bala is at the end house.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 63 to Atul has been assigned the task of allotting offices to six faculty members.
The
66: offices are numbered 1-6 and arranged in a row. Only a six-foot high divider separates them. So voices, sounds
and cigarette smoke flow easily from one office to another:
I. Sandhya needs to use the telephone quite often through the day.
II. Vikas and Kunal need adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often while working.
III. Aditi is a senior employee and has to be allotted office number 5, having the biggest window.
IV. Mahipal requires silence in the offices next to his.
V. Tejash, Vikas, and Mahipal are all smokers.
VI. Aditi finds tobacco smoke allergic and the offices next to hers have to be occupied by non-smokers.
Unless specifically stated, all the employees maintain an atmosphere of silence during office hours.
63. The ideal candidate to occupy the office number adjacent to Sandhya would be
[1] Aditi [2] Vikas [3] Tejash [4] Mahipal
64. The three employees who are smokers should be seated in the offices
[1] 1, 2 and 4 [2] 2, 3 and 6 [3] 1, 2 and 3 [4] 1, 2 and 6
65. The ideal office for Vikas would be

[1] 1 [2] 2 [3] 3 [4] 4
66. In the event of what occurrence, within a period of one month since the assignment of the offices, would a
request for a change in office be put forth by one or more employees?
[1] Mahipal quitting smoking.
[2] Tejesh taking over the duties formerly taken care of by Sandhya.
[3] The installation of a noisy teletype machine by Aditi in her office.
[4] Sandhya’s needing silence in the office(s) next to her own.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 67 to A bus has exactly six stops on its route. The bus first stops at stop one and
69:
then at stops two, three, four, five and six respectivel y. After the bus leaves stop six, the bus turns and returns to stop
one and repeats the cycle. The stops are at six buildings that are, in alphabetical order: L, M, N, O, P, and Q.
P is the third stop.
M is the sixth stop.
The stop O is the stop immediately before Q.
N is the stop immediately before L.
67. In case N is the fourth stop, which among the following must be the stop immediately before P?
[1] O [2] Q [3] N [4]
L
68. In case L is the second stop, which among the following must be the stop immediately before M?
[1] N [2] L [3] P [4]
Q
69. In case a passenger boards the bus at O, rides past one of the stops, and gets off at P, which of the following
must be true?
[1] O is stop one [2] Q is stop three [3] P is stop four [4] N is stop five
DIRECTIONS for Questions 70 to

73:
Six geologists - A, B, C, D, E, and F - are to present a paper each at a one-day conference. Three of them will
present their papers in the morning session before the lunch break, whereas the other three will present them in the
afternoon session. The lectures have to be scheduled in such a way that they comply with the following instructions:
B should present his paper immediately before C’s presentation.
Their presentations cannot be separated by the lunch break.
D must be either the first or the last geologist to present his paper.
70. In case C is to be the fifth geologist to present his paper, then B must be
[1] First [2] Second [3] Third [4] Fourth
71. B could occupy any of the following places in the order of presenters EXCEPT
[1] First [2] Second [3] Third [4] Fourth
72. In case F is to present his paper immediately after D presents his paper, C could be scheduled for which of
the following places in order of presenters?
[1] First [2] Second [3] Third [4] Fifth
73. In case F and E are the fifth and sixth presenters respectively, then which of the following must be true?
[1] A is first in the order of presenters [2] A is third in the order of presenters
[3] A is fourth in the order or presenters [4] B is first in the order of presenters

Three men (Amar, Akbar and Anthony) and three women (Hema, Parveen, Zeenat) are spending a few months at a
76:
hill town resort. They are to stay in a row of nine cottages, each one living in his or her own cottage. There are no
other persons staying in the same row of cottages:
I. Parveen, Amar and Anthony do not want to stay in any cottage which is at the end of the row.
II. Hema and Parveen are unwilling to stay next to any occupied cottage.
III. Zeenat is next to Akbar and Anthony.
IV. Between Parveen’s and Anthony’s cottages, there is just one vacant cottage.
V. None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages.
VI. The house occupied by Amar is next to an end cottage.
74. Which of the above statements can be said to have been derived from two other statements?
[1] Statement I [2] Statement II [3] Statement III [4] Statement V
75. How many of them occupy cottages next to a vacant cottage?
[1] 2 [2] 3 [3] 4 [4] 5
76. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

I. Parveen stays between Hema and Anthony.
II. At the most, four persons could have occupied cottages on either side of them.
III. Amar stays beside Akbar.
[1] I only [2] II only [3] I and III only [4] II and III only

Six different runners - Vikas, Tejash, Bharin, Siba, Kunal, and Som - compete in a race. The following statements
80:
are all true about the race results:
Tejash finished either immediately before or immediately after Siba.
Kunal finished third.
Vikas did not finish last.
There were no ties.
77. Which of the following is a possible order of the racers at the finish, from first to last?
[1] Vikas, Kunal, Tejash, Siba, Som, Bharin [2] Bharin, Vikas, Kunal, Som, Siba,
[3] Tejash, Siba, Kunal, Som, Bharin, Vikas [4] Siba, Vikas, Kunal, Tejash, Bharin,
Tejash
Som
78. All of the following are possible orders of the racers at the finish, from first to last, EXCEPT:
[1] Bharin, Som, Kunal, Vikas, Siba, Tejash [2] Som, Vikas, Kunal, Tejash, Siba,
[3] Siba, Tejash, Kunal, Som, Vikas, Bharin [4] Vikas, Tejash, Siba, Kunal, Bharin,
Bharin
Som
79. If Vikas finishes fifth, which of the following must be true?
[1] Siba must finish either first or second. [2] Som must finish either first or last.
[3] Bharin must finish either second or fourth. [4] Tejash must finish either first or fourth.
80. If Kunal finishes before Tejash, which of the following must be false?
[1] Vikas finishes first [2] Bharin finishes second [3] Som finishes second [4] Vikas finishes fifth
DIRECTIONS for Questions 81 to Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each
question
85: using the following instructions. Mark the answer as
[1] if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using
the other statement alone.
[2] if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
[3] if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by
using either statement alone.
[4] if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
81. How many eggs did Mr. Henley lay everyday?

I. Mr. Henley lays a one-digit odd number of eggs.
II. Mr. Henley lays in the multiples of 3.
82. What is the value of angle A in triangle ABC?

I. B = 60 o , AC = 10 cm II. BC = 5
cm
1
83. Is x > ?
2
1
I. x2 > II. x 3
>0
4
84. Who stole the necklace if only one of them speaks the truth?
I. “Raju stole the necklace. I always tell the truth,” says Ravi.
II. “Ravi always lies,” says Raju.
85. Who won the race?

I. Raju’s speed is 20% faster than Ravi’s. II. Raju starts 15 min after Ravi starts.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 86 to Answer the questions based on the following information.
Priya
88: has agreed to feed a friend’s dog for a full week, running from Monday to Sunday. A total of seven brands of
dog food are available, of which exactly five, M, N, O, P and Q are protein-enriched, and exactly two, R and S, are
vitamin-enriched. Priya must adhere to the following feeding instructions.
On each of the seven days, a different brand of dog food must be fed.
Protein-enriched dog food cannot be fed for more than two consecutive days.
R must be fed earlier in the week than S.
M must be fed earlier in the week than R.
M must be fed earlier in the week than Q and exactly four of the other brands must be fed between N and Q.
86. Which of the following brands must be scheduled to be fed on Wednesday?

[1] M [2] O [3] P [4]
R
87. If Q is scheduled to be fed on Sunday, which of the following could also be true?
[1] R and O are scheduled to be fed on consecutive days.
[2] N is scheduled to be fed earlier than M.
[3] Two days intervene between the day O is fed and the day P is fed.
[4] P is scheduled to be fed on Tuesday.
88. Which of the following pair of brands could be scheduled to be fed on consecutive days?
[1] M and O [2] N and P [3] O and S [4] Q and
R
Direction for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions based on the data presented below.
There are 100 students in a class. They play three games. Not all of them necessarily play a game. The number of
people playing A, B and C are 40, 50 and 30, respectively.
A
B
C
The number of people playing exactly 2 games is 20.
The number of people playing no game is 20.
89. The number of people playing at least 2 games is

[1] 30 [2] 50 [3] 40 [4] Data insufficient
90 The number of people playing exactly 1 game is

91. The number of people playing at least 1 game is

92. The number of people playing all the 3 games is

DIRECTIONS for Questions 93 to Answer the questions based on the following information.
97: they hold a meeting, seven company executives — T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z — sit around a rectangular table.
When
Three executives sit along one side of the table, and three sit along the other side, each directly opposite one of the
other three. The seventh sits at the head of the table. There is no seat at the foot of the table.
U always sits in one of the two seats farthest from the head of the table.
Y and V always sit next to each other.
V never sits next to Z.
If Z does not sit at the head of the table, W sits there.
93. Which of the following is an acceptable seating arrangement of the executives, starting with U, moving
toward the head of the table, and continuing around the table?
[1] U, X, T, Z, V, Y, W [2] U, T, X, Z, Y, V,
[3] U, X, Z, Y, V, W, T
W [4] U, Z, S, X, V,
Y, T
94. If W sits directly opposite T, X must sit next to which of the following executives?
[1] T [2] U [3] V [4]
Y
95. If T sits directly opposite Z and next to V, which executive must sit directly opposite U?
[1] Y [2] W [3] X [4]
V
96. If W sits directly opposite U and next to T, the two executives immediately on either side of X must be
[1] Y and V [2] Y and W [3] T and Z [4] T and
V
97. If Z sits at the head of the table, Y directly opposite U, and V immediately on X’s left, what is the total
number of possible seating arrangements of the executives?
[1] 1 [2] 2 [3] 3 [4] 4
DIRECTIONS for Questions 98 to Answer the questions based on the diagram given below.
100: Boys
6
2
7 1
5 3
Girls
Doctors
98. Which of the following represents the girls who are doctors?
[1] 3 [2] 2 [3] 1 [4] 4
99. Which of the following represents the boys who are doctors?
[1] 5 [2] 4 [3] 7 [4] 6
100. Which of the following represents the boys who are girls and are doctors as well?
[1] 3 [2] 5 [3] 1 [4] 4
Section III
50
DIRECTIONS for Questions 101 to : For the following questions, choose the correct option.
150
101. NASSCOM once carried an ad saying, “Copy software. You get this hardware absolutely free”. What was
the hardware?
[1] A Computer [2] A free modem! [3] A Mouse [4]
Handcuffs
102. In the 2nd century, Greek writer Julius Pollux described a game - apoiddraskinda. What is the modern day
equivalent of this game?
[1] Hide and Seek [2] 7 stones [3] Polo [4] Housie
103. Which games were funded by a gift, from a wealthy architect called Georgios Averoff, of one million
drachmas, and by the sale of souvenir stamps and medals?
[1] 1904 St. Louis [2] 1896 Athens [3] 1900 Paris [4] None
104. Inspired by the original Ancient Olympics, a certain Frenchman conceived the idea of the modern Olympic
Games, proposing the idea publicly in 1892, and spending the next three and a half years drumming up
support. Who?
[1] Louis XVI [2] Napoleon
[3] Baron Pierre de Coubertin [4] None of these
105. Who was referred to as "The Milwaukee Meter"?

[1] Milkha Singh [2] Carl Lewis [3] Archie Hahn [4] Ben Johnson
106. The world's largest archipelago is?

[1] The Cyclades Islands, Greece [2] Hawaii
[3] Indonesia [4] None of these
107. Which capital city in Europe straddles the Danube and is named after the two sections of the city - one on
either bank of the river?
[1] Budapest, Hungary [2] Vienna, Austria [3] Bratislava, Slovakia [4] None of these
108. This island in the Indian Ocean was named for the day on which it was first discovered in 1643. An
Australian territory, it is famous for the annual migration of millions of red crabs which go right across the
island. Which is it?
[1] Easter Island [2] Christmas Island [3] Tromelin Island [4] None
109. Which two countries lie completely within the borders of Italy?
[1] The Vatican and San Narino [2] Andorra and Liechtenstein
[3] The Vatican and Andorra [4] None of these
110. 'The City of Dreaming Spires'- which is it?

[1] Hong Kong [2] Vienna [3] Oxford [4]
London
111. Their first LP featured the full frontal nude of a duo, resulting in it being sold in a brown paper bag. Which
duo?
[1] Simon and Garfunkel [2] Bob Dylan and Joan Baez
[3] Lennon and Yoko Ono [4] None of
these
112. What is the latest estimate of food grains in million tones in 2002-2003?
[1] 183.17 [2] 186.43 [3] 189.4 [4] 184.06
113. This band was named after the first synthesizer that Liam Hewlett from the band had. Which band?
[1] Pearl Jam [2] Prodigy [3] Alice in Chains [4] Rolling stone
114. Which group were named after a popular fifties hairdo?

[1] Vee Zees [2] B-52s [3] Iron Maiden [4] Spice
Girls
115. Roberta Flack wrote the song "Killing Me Softly" about which singer?
[1] Don Henley [2] Elvis Presley [3] Don McLean [4] Julio Iglesias
116. Which structure got its name from the old French word meaning "to build"?
[1] Buttress [2] Bastion [3] Bastille [4]
None
117. What was built by General Motors executive John Raskob, in the teeth of the Depression, as a sign of
rebirth?
[1] White House [2] Empire State Building [3] Twin Towers [4] Statue of
Liberty
118. A famous painting by Rubens depicts the birth of a goddess? Which one?
[1] Venus [2] Cassandra [3] Aphrodite [4]
None
119. According to legend, what was erected at the point where Muhammed Quli Shah first set eyes on Queen
Baghmati?
[1] Red Fort [2] Charminar [3] Shalimar Bagh [4] Qutb
Minar
120. The statue, "The Thinker", by Auguste Rodin, is a portrait of which poet?
[1] Homer [2] Dante [3] Virgil [4]
None
121. Which country's National Anthem begins with lines that translate as "Thou art the ruler of minds"?
[1] India [2] Sri Lanka [3] Bangladesh [4]
Russia
122. Which English word is derived from the Latin for "teach"?
[1] Doctor [2] Mentor [3] Engineer [4]
Father
123. Which actor lives in a New Jersey mansion called "Bubble Hill"?
[1] Michael Douglas [2] Julia Roberts [3] Eddie Murphy [4] Denzel Washington
124. Who wrote a collection of poems called "Beejak"?

[1] Surdas [2] Kalidas [3] Ravidas [4]
Kabir
125. Trishala was the name of whose mother?
[1] Buddha [2] Mahavira [3] Ashoka [4]
Devadutta
126. Who has been named India's new ambassador to China?
[1] K. Kasturirangan [2] S.S. Menon [3] Nalin Surie [4] Anna
Hazare
127. The smallest newspaper in the world is ?
[1] Birmingham News [2] Vossa Senhoria [3] Voice of the hill [4] Challenge
128. Which country won the women’s World Cup hockey championship in 2002?
[1] Argentina [2] Netherlands [3] India [4] Australia
129. Which country is planning to open a mobile phone station at the Everest base camp?
[1] US [2] China [3] India [4]
Nepal
130. Who is the editor of "The Hindu"?
[1] N. Ravi [2] Vinod Mehta [3] Aveek Sarkar [4] Sanjay Narayan
131. Angel, the highest waterfall in the world, is situated in which of the following countries?
[1] Norway [2] USA [3] Venezuela [4] Canada
132. Kanha National Park is in
[1] Uttar Pradesh [2] Maharashtra [3] Madhya Pradesh [4] Karnataka
133. Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed in which of the following years?

[1] 1916 [2] 1923 [3] 1929 [4] 1931
134. Which of the following personalities has/have authored ‘Straight from the Gut’?
[1] Bill Gates [2] Richard Branson
[3] Jack Welch and John A. Byrne [4] Louis Gerstner Jr.
135. Charak and Sushruta are the famous names in the field of
[1] Astrology [2] Medicine [3] Literature [4] Dance and Drama
136. Who among the following was appointed as the first Governor of Bengal by the East India Company in
1758?
[1] Warren Hastings [2] Lord Cornwallis [3] Lord William Bentick [4] Robert Clive
137. Which of the following days is celebrated as International Women’s Day?

[1] February 28 [2] March 8 [3] April 3 [4] June 5
138. Who among the following is also called the ‘Light of Asia’?
[1] Swami Vivekananda [2] Mahavira [3] Buddha [4] Confucius
139. The first Asian Games were held at

[1] Bangkok [2] Tokyo [3] New Delhi [4] Jakarta
140. The former name of the now famous ‘Idea Cellular’ is

[1] BATATA [2] BT & T [3] Idea AT & T [4]
CTAL
141. Where is the headquarters of World Trade Organization (WTO)?
[1] London [2] Washington [3] Geneva [4] Paris
142. Which of the following is NOT a kharif crop?

[1] Mustard [2] Rice [3] Cotton [4] Bajra
143. Which of the following is the capital of Belgium?

[1] Berne [2] Sofia [3] Brussels [4] Vienna
144. How many members are nominated by the President for the Rajya Sabha?
[1] 2 [2] 8 [3] 10 [4] 12
145. Who of the following cricketers has been selected as Wisden’s Indian Cricketer of the Century recently?
[1] Sachin Tendulkar [2] Kapil Dev [3] Sunil Gavaskar [4] G. Vishwanath
146. EI AI is the airlines of

[1] Qatar [2] Israel [3] Saudi Arabia [4] Algeria
147. ‘N.K. Ranga’, who died in the month of July 2002, was a famous
[1] cricketer [2] actor [3] cartoonist [4] politician
148. Sir Thomas Roe visited the court of which of the following Indian rulers?
[1] Shah Jahan [2] Aurangzeb [3] Akbar [4] Jehangir
149. Which of the following is NOT a watch company?
[1] Roche [2] Tissot [3] Cartier [4] Omega
150. ‘Fi h’, is a best selling book authored by
[1]
s Tom Peters [2] Stephen C Lundin, Harry Paul and John Christ
[3] John Humphries [4] Jack Welch and Louis Gerstner
SECTION
IV
50
DIRECTIONS for Questions 151 to Read each of the following passages carefully and answer the questions
that
170:follow.
PASSAGE
I
“I see you’re admiring my little box,” the Knight said in a friendly tone. “It’s my own invention -- to keep clothes
and sandwiches in. You see, I carry it upside down, so that the rain can’t get in.”
“But the things can get out,” Alice gently remarked. “Do you know that the lid’s open?”
“I didn’t know it,” the Knight said, a shade of vexation passing over his face. “Then all the things must have fallen
out! And the box is of no use without them.”
“I was wondering what the mousetrap was for,” said Alice. “It isn’t very likely there would be any m ice on the
horse’s back.”
“Not very likely, perhaps,” said the Knight; “but, if they do come, I don’t choose to have them running all about.”
“You see,” he went on after a pause, “It’s as well to be provided for everything.”
“The great art of riding, as I was saying, is to keep your balance properly. Like this, you know…..”
He let go of the bridle, and stretched out both his arms to show Alice what he meant, and this time, fell flat on his
back, right under the horse’s feet.
“Plenty of practice!” he went on repeating, all the time that Alice was getting him on his feet again. “Plenty of
practice!”
“It’s too ridiculous!” cried Alice, losing all her patience this time.
Lewis Carroll’s “Through the Looking-Glass” here takes a shot at Victorian technology and the Victorian
fascination for new things. (Queen Victoria was born in 1819, shortly after the Industrial Revolution, and was the
crowned Queen of England until 1901). He mentions in his book, “In science and technology, the Victorians
invented the modern idea of invention, the notion that one could create solutions to problems, that man can create
new means of bettering himself and his environment.” Alice exposes the futility of the White Knight’s inventions
when she notices the mousetrap on the Knight’s horse and remarks, “It isn’t very likely there would be any mice on
the horse’s back.” One can say that because Alice’s adventures take place in a fantastic world; there may well be
mice on horses’ backs. However, the Knight’s agreement with Alice, “Not very likely, perhaps,” indicates to the
reader that Alice’s logic prevails in the Knight’s and Alice’s world. Instead of facilitating life, the Knight’s
inventions pose problems; he loses the things he had placed in his own invention, the box, “Then all the things must
have fallen out.”
However, the flaw lies in the Knight’s lack of logic in using his inventions rather than in the inventions themselves.
For example, placing mousetraps on the horse may have been useful if mice did approach horses. However, the
Knight did not consider that in the world he lived such an event was unlikely. Likewise, putting the box upside
down may have protected its contents from the rain, if the Knight had thought of closing the lid. At this point it
seems that perhaps Carroll cautions against invention getting out of hand and losing its original purpose: inventing
for the sake of inventing, rather than facilitating life.
The White Knight’s concern with the art rather than the basics and function of riding parallels his craze for
inventing; he loses touch with the original purpose of riding, which was a means of transportation. Alice finally says
in exasperation: “It’s too ridiculous!,” as the Knight falls off his horse. Alice’s cry can apply to the Knight’s entire
mentality concerning inventions, riding, and the impractical way in which he thinks in general. The Knight’s
numerous plans and inventions may reflect Victorian England’s “new technical epoch.” A learned reader and friend
of Lewis Carroll lightheartedly comments, “If invention was a sign of modernization and industrialization in
Victorian England, perhaps Carroll, through the passage, suggests that the surge of modernization is not the key to
bettering oneself and the environment.”
151. What is the central theme of the passage?
[1] Commentary on the modern idea of inventions.
[2] Parody of Victorian technology and the Victorian fascination with inventions.
[3] The surge of modernization is not the key to bettering oneself and the environment.
[4] All of the above.
152. What do you think the author would like you to believe in?
[1] Art can override the utility of an invention.
[2] Utility can override the art of an invention.
[3] Invention can create solutions.
[4] Invention can create problems.
153. From your reading of the narrative, whose judgment do you think triumphs?
[1] Alice [2] The Knight
[3] Lewis Carroll [4] Both Alice and the Knight
154. What is your understanding of England’s “new technical epoch?”

[1] Modernization of the world [2] Industrialization in England
[3] An era of inventions in England [4] The Knight was an idealist
155. Alice showed her level headedness with her opinion that
[1] Utility outweighs form in an invention.
[2] Form outweighs utility in an invention.
[3] Utility and form are equally important in an invention.
[4] Utility and form were not at all important for a success ful invention.
156. Which of the following describes the “Victorian Era” best?

[1] Dogmatic [2] Informal [3] Prevailing [4] Lithe
157. From the passage, it can be inferred that “The Victorian Era” lasted from
[1] 1819-1901 [2] 1837-1901 [3] 1819-1861 [4] 19th to 20th century
158. Which of the following statements do you think is the most plausible?
[1] The Victorian era had the remnants of the Industrial Revolution of Britain.
[2] The Industrial Revolution of Britain was a result of the shortcomings of the Victorian era.
[3] The Industrial Revolution in no way effected the Victorian era.
[4] Lewis Carroll is strongly against the highhandedness of the aristocracy.
159. Adam Smith’s ‘The Wealth of Nations’ proposed that the only legitimate goal of national government and
human activity is a steady increase in the overall wealth of the nation. His theory would be more congruous
with:
[1] The Victorian era
[2] The era of industrial revolution
[3] Neither the Victorian era nor the period of the revolution
[4] Post modernization era
160. Suggest an appropriate title for the passage:

[1] Inventions for the sake of inventions
[2] Art and Utility of Inventions: a Victorian view
[3] Technical epoch in Victorian England
[4] The invention of problems in England
PASSAGE
II
Advertising agencies across the world have found a pot of gold. Millions of rupees are being spent on creating
advertisements for dotcoms springing up by the day. The big question is whether this money is going down the drain
or being well spent. The primary and immediate objective of advertising by most dotcoms is to make sure that their
site name is top-of-mind. For a familiarity with the site name is what determines whether a person goes straight to a
particular site or uses the search engines, where the probability of someone clicking on a particular site is much
lower.
What should the name of the site be? The craze seems to be getting a name that is as close to the generic name of the
category/need as possible. So in the process, every site belonging to a certain category seems to have similar
sounding names. For example, some of the sites that deal with the Indian stock market are Equitymaster.com,
Sharekhan.com, Investsmartindia.com, Rrfinance.com and so on -- all generic, similar-sounding names.
Every site that has missed out on getting the exact category name as the domain name should resist the temptation of
‘at least trying to be clos e to’ the category name. The dotcoms should choose names that are distinct, and make
effort to popularize it. All the dotcoms, at the core, are providing a service, an intangible entity, to the consumer. So,
as in the marketing of all successful service brands, providing a tangible cue about the service always helps. So
instead of spending large sums of money to make people remember a domain name, a tangible image of the site can
be engraved in consumer mind space with a much lesser amount.
How should one choose a tangible image for a site? The site marketer should identify the single most important
benefit that is sought by a consumer for coming to the site. This benefit should ideally translate into the tangible
image of the site, as the bull logo of Merrill Lynch epitomizes the core benefit from a financial services company.
Today a surfer expects certain services from every site. For example, a site offering a chat service is an expected
level of service. So it does not excite anyone. A site offering only expected or even augmented level services won’t
have any competitive advantage. A site can attract new traffic and build loyalty among the existing users of the site
only by offering services from the Unexpected Positive level. Care should be taken to advertise a si te on its UPS
(Unexpected Positive Service).
In Internet business, there is absolutely no personal interaction between the buyer and the seller. This, no doubt,
increases the buyers’ anxiety during the buying transaction. This might be the most important factor that influences
the very future of e-commerce.
The dotcoms have to compensate for their lack of personal interaction. One way to compensate for thi s lack of
personal interaction is through an ideal advertising strategy. The advertisements for any dotcom are possibly the
only piece of communication that the buyer gets from the seller before she signs her cheque. So it should be in spirit,
seen as a letter of contract that the seller sends to the buyer for her signature.
Having created visibility in the online world, companies should make sure they pay due diligence to the traditional
media as well. In India, while ad spending is reportedly being slashed across all categories, outdoors has always
remained a cheaper option compared to other media. But suddenly billboards, hitherto filled largely with dotcom
and public issue ads, also seem to be going blank across metros. While the dotcom bust and the stock market crash
may be responsible for billboard sites appearing vacant, there could be a demand-supply mismatch, which has
resulted in blank sites.
With no fixed rules for owning and setting up such sites, sanctions are usually obtained from the municipal
corporations and collectorates, which give permission for hoardings to be put up without any fixed limit, mostly in a
bid to fill empty coffers. This has resulted in an overcrowded marketplace where supply is more than demand.
According to J C Giri, Managing Consultant, Outdoor, a division of Ogilvy & Mather, “Although the slump in the
market is temporary, now there is excess supply compared to the demand in the market. Prices are already coming
down by almost 20 percent from the days of the dotcoms when the rates did go up.”
While it is doubtful whether prices will actually go down since strategically located sites will continue to command
a premium, there might just be some elasticity built over a period of time to get prices down. Estimated at Rs. 650
crore, the outdoor media business now comprises about 10 percent of the total revenue spent on advertising. With
the rate of growth hovering between 15 percent and 20 percent, it is mainly industries such as media, FMCG,
textiles and private insurance companies, which continue to use hoardings extensively in spite of the existing
slowdown in their business.
The dotcoms, too, were responsible for hiking the hoarding rates when they wanted more visibility. Today, site
owners do not want to compromise on clients who want to slash their budgets. Although they know they cannot hold
on to unrealistic rates and that prices are bound to fall, some of the site owners may be just holding on to these
‘unrealistic’ rates hoping to get business at the earlier rates.
Besides, most corporates realize that today television is the best medium to get visibility considering its increasing
penetration. The clutter of channels has led to increased airtime inventory, with prices dropping drastically in spite
of what is printed in rate cards. This obviously would not apply to the leading premium channels such as Star and
Sony, which can command steep rates, but smaller channels with lesser revenues have emerged as an option for
advertisers looking for quicker and cheaper visibility with hoardings taking a back seat in their media strategy.
At the same time, corporates prefer more options within outdoors itself. As S Yesudas, Vice-President, Initiative
Media, says, “The market is not particularly down. It is just that clients are looking beyond billboards at other
options.” Considering there has been advancement in technology to facilitate some innovation in this medium, the
big moon floating on Marine Drive may just be an indication of things to come within this industry.
For instance, Initiative Media, the media buying division of AP Lintas, is exploring more options within outdoors
such as ‘street furniture’ which includes public utilities, dustbins and kiosks, to give outdoor advertising a new
dimension. Meanwhile, the pioneers of the outdoor medium since 1945, Selvel Publicity & Consultants Ltd., are not
too pleased about the present condition of their industry. States Nitin A Kshirsagar, Manager-Sales, Selvel Publicity
& Consultants Ltd., “At the moment we are holding on to goodwill. Profits are just about average.”
If the dotcoms truly raised the hopes of the outdoor industry last year, today it is just a matter of supply surpassing
demand. Summing up the present situation, Mike Khanna, Chief Executive Officer, Hindustan Thompson
Associates, says, “It was the dotcoms who strongly believed in this medium. Today it is just a case of excess supply
in the market.”
161. What is the immediate objective of advertising for dotcoms?

[1] To create awareness of the site [2] To increase sales through e-commerce
[3] To increase click-through [4] To educate customers
162. How should companies choose a site name?

[1] Choose a name similar to the product category.
[2] Choose a name that is similar to the competitors’.
[3] Choose a distinct name with a cue to the service provided.
[4] Use the company’s name.
163. How should one choose an image for the site?

[1] The image should be based on the most important benefit sought by a consumer.
[2] The image should be based on the company’s goals.
[3] Image should be based on the intangible services provided.
[4] Image is based on the advertisements.
164. A site can attract and retain customers

[1] By offering the commonly expected services.
[2] By advertising the site name.
[3] By offering not only augmented but also unexpected positive services.
[4] By giving customers freebies.
165. Why are ad spends on billboards going down?
[1] Stock market crash [2] Demand-supply mismatch
[3] All of the above [4] None of the above
166. What are the factors responsible for increase in the number of hoardings?
[1] Municipal Corporations are giving permission to set up more hoardings
[2] Dot-com boom
[3] Increasing ad budgets of FMCGs
[4] Hoarding owners demand higher profits
167. How have the outdoor advertising companies fared?

[1] These are growing very fast [2] They are making average profits
[3] They are making losses [4] Not enough information given in the passage
168. What other advertising media are commonly used?

[1] Radio [2] Television [3] Street furniture [4] All of the above
169. The article suggests that

[1] Prices of hoardings will go up drastically [2] Prices of hoardings will come down sharply
[3] Prices of hoardings will be stable [4] None of the above
170. The most suitable title for this passage is

[1] Advertising for dotcoms [2] Attracting customers
[3] Building an online brand [4] www.online&offline.com
DIRECTIONS for Questions 171 to From the list of given alternatives choose the one that best describes the
meaning
175: of the given word:
171. Antipode
[1] Ancient [2] Head [3] An exact opposite [4] Irony
172. Moribund
[1] Pessimistic [2] Malingering [3] Delaying [4] Dying
173. Pristine
[1] Unspoilt [2] Delicate [3] Unforgettable [4] Antiquated
174. Insidious
[1] Objectionable [2] Unsettled [3] Frightening [4] Wily
175. Ingenuity
[1] Naiveté [2] Inventiveness [3] Scheme [4] Natural wisdom
DIRECTIONS for Questions 176 to From the list of given alternatives, select the one that is the “opposite” of
the
178:given word:
176. Bacchanalian
[1] Orgiastic [2] Carnivalesque [3] Epicurean [4] Intemperate
177. Genuflection
[1] Submission [2] Subjection [3] Subordination [4] Servitude
178. Exacerbate
[1] To incite [2] To eject [3] To assuage [4] To stimulate
DIRECTIONS for Questions 179 to Each of the questions below consists of two words that have a certain
relationship
183: to each other, followed by four pairs of related words. Select the lettered pair of words that has the same
relationship as the given pair.
179. Lurk : Wait
[1] Boost : damage [2] Replenish : drain [3] Abscond : depart [4] Balk : cheat
180. Exhort : Suggest

[1] Conspire : plan [2] Tamper : adjust [3] Crave : accept [4] Goad : direct
181. Angle : Degree

[1] Area : square inch [2] Milk : quart [3] Society : classes [4] Letter : alphabet
182. Needle : Knit

[1] Bait : fish [2] Match : fire [3] Loom : weave [4] Soap : wash
183. Zoology : Animals

[1] Archeology : earth [2] Botany : plants [3] Chemistry : atoms [4] Geology : people
DIRECTIONS for Questions 184 to Replace the underlined portion of the sentence by substituting the right
alternative
188: from among the given choices.
184. The rude shock unhinged him and upset his state of perfect balance.
[1] peace [2] rest [3] equilibrium [4] mentality
185. I told them to prepare a summary of the general view of the subject.
[1] paraphrase [2] synopsis [3] education [4] comment
186. The taking sides attitude of the police in the communal disturbances is under scrutiny.
[1] strong [2] partisan [3] wrong [4] clear-cut
187. The complete transformation of the Indian industry is quite an interesting phenomenon to observe – a result
of liberalization and globalization.
[1] change [2] death [3] metamorphosis [4] coalition
188. The role of childhood experiences in shaping the personality has been the fundamental tendency to seem
opposite in nature of Freudian psychoanalysis.
[1] cornerstone [2] tenet [3] controversy [4] hypothesis
DIRECTIONS for Questions 189 to Each of the sentences below has one or two blank spaces indicating that
something
200: has been omitted. Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
189. Geneticist Olivia M. Pereira-Smith has published her findings on “immortal” cells, that is, cells that
reproduce by dividing ………..
[1] indefinitely [2] occasionally [3] conclusively [4] periodically
190. Ironically, the same executives who brought bankruptcy to the coalfields were ……. by their
contemporaries, who …….. the notion that these people were industrial heroes.
[1] celebrated…cherished [2] respected…doubted [3] ignored…belied [4] condemned…rejected
191. Even though some people feel historians have an exclusive right to act as the interpreters of bygone eras,
most historians insist their profession has no………..interpreting the past.
[1] interest in [2] responsibility in [3] consensus for [4] monopoly on
192. Fenster schemed and plotted for weeks and these……..were rewarded when Griswold was fired and
Fenster was promoted.
[1] circumlocutions [2] affiliations [3] gibberings [4] machinations
193. The success of the project was attributed to team effort rather than any individual………..
[1] Compendium [2] Perfidy [3] Felicity [4] Accomplishment
194. He believes in getting value for money, and it would be inappropriate to interpret his …………. as penury.
[1] Lassitude [2] Diffidence 3] Frugality [4] Indolence
195. She is certain to alienate her colleagues in a short period of time because of her overall ……. attitude.
[1] Amiable [2] Gregarious [3] Amicable [4] Munificent
196. A person should not be ………… as being either very shy or over aggressive.
[1] Categorized [2] Instructed [3] Intoned [4] Distracted
197. After having ……….. arguments virtually every other day, the couple agreed that it was best for them to
separate.
[1] Acerbic [2] Astringent [3] Effulgent [4] Saturnine
198. Although there was hardly any scope to find fault with the minister’s cautiously worded response, several
members of the opposition took …… it.
[1] Liking for [2] Pleasure in [3] Exception to [4] Liberties with
199. Though the region was prone to hurricanes, the ferocit y of the tornado last year was ……… .
[1] Unprecedented [2] Poignant [3] Mercurial [4] Portentous
200. Having obtained definite information about drugs being smuggled in, the customs officials decided to
switch from a …… checking of the passenger baggage to a rigorous inspection.
[1] Specious [2] Cursory [3] Mellifluous [4] Meticulous
IIFT SAMPLE PAPER
(EXPLANATION)
ANSWER
KEY
SECTION
1. [2] 2. [1] 3. [1] 4. I[2] 5.
[3][2]
6. 7. [3] 8. [4] 9. [2] 10.
11. [4]
[3] 12. [4] 13. [2] 14. [1] 15.
[4]
16. [1] 17. [1] 18. [1] 19. [1] 20.
21. [4]
[3] 22. [1] 23. [1] 24. [1] 25.
[3]
26. [3] 27. [2] 28. [2] 29. [4] 30.
31. [4]
[3] 32. [3] 33. [1] 34. [2] 35.
[3]
36. [4] 37. [1] 38. [2] 39. [2] 40.
41. [2]
[1] 42. [2] 43. [3] 44. [3] 45.
[2]
46. [2] 47. [1] 48. [2] 49. [4] 50.
[4]
SECTION
51. [4] 52. [1] 53. [1] II54. [1] 55.
[3]
56. [4] 57. [3] 58. [4] 59. [1] 60.
61. [1] 62. [2] 63. [1]
[4] 64. [3] 65.
[3]
66. [2] 67. [2] 68. [4] 69. [1] 70.
71. [3] 72. [4] 73. [3]
[4] 74. [4] 75.
[3]
76. [3] 77. [2] 78. [4] 79. [1] 80.
81. [4] 82. [3] 83. [3]
[4] 84. [4] 85.
[4]
86. [3] 87. [1] 88. [3] 89. [1] 90.
91.
[1] [1] 92. [1] 93. [2] 94. [1] 95.
[3] [3] 97. [2] 98. [1]
96. 99. [3] 100.
[3]
SECTION
101. [4] 102. [1] 103. [2]III104. [3] 105. [3]
106. [3] 107. [1] 108. [2] 109. [1] 110. [3]
111. [3] 112. [1] 113. [2] 114. [2] 115. [3]
116. [3] 117. [2] 118. [3] 119. [4] 120. [2]
121. [1] 122. [1] 123. [3] 124. [4] 125. [2]
126. [3] 127. [2] 128. [1] 129. [2] 130. [1]
131. [3] 132. [3] 133. [4] 134. [3] 135. [2]
136. [4] 137. [2] 138. [3] 139. [3] 140. [1]
141. [3] 142. [1] 143. [3] 144. [4] 145. [2]
146. [2] 147. [3] 148. [4] 149. [1] 150. [2]
SECTION
151. [2] 152. [2] 153. [3] IV154. [3] 155. [1]
156. [1] 157. [1] 158. [2] 159. [2] 160. [2]
161. [1] 162. [3] 163. [1] 164. [3] 165. [4]
166. [1] 167. [2] 168. [2] 169. [4] 170. [4]
171. [3] 172. [4] 173. [1] 174. [4] 175. [2]
176. [3] 177. [1] 178. [3] 179. [3] 180. [4]
181. [1] 182. [3] 183. [2] 184. [3] 185. [2]
186. [2] 187. [3] 188. [3] 189. [1] 190. [1]
191. [4] 192. [4] 193. [4] 194. [3] 195. [4]
196. [1] 197. [1] 198. [3] 199. [1] 200. [2]
SOULUTION
S
SECTION
I
1. We know that the height of the pole = AC + BC. Let BC = x, then in right triangle
x
ABC tan 60° = x 10 3.
10
10 y = 20. The height of the pole = 20 + 10v3.
Now let AC = y, then cos 60° =
y
Ans. [2]
2. Let the side of the square = a units. Then the diagonal of the square = v2a units.
2
a
Hence, the ratio of the areas of both the squares = =1:2
2
( 2a)
Ans [1]
3. Let the number be x. Then,

1 3 1
x 8
3 5 7
x = 8 35 = 280
4. Ans. [2]
x h ( x)
. x
5. Given f(x) = . Therefore, f[h(x)] = x x h( x)
1 x 1 1 h(x) x
Ans. [3]
6. x 2+ ax + b = 0
For Manju, x 2 + ax + b 1 = 0
Sum of roots = –a
6 + 2 = –a a = –8
For Anju, x 2 + a 1 x + b = 0
Multiplication of roots = b
(– 7) × (– 1) = b b=7
Equation is x – 8x + 7 = 0
2
x2 – 7x – x + 7 = 0
or (x – 7) (x – 1) = 0
x = 7 or 1
7. Let the height of the small cone = h units. Then by the condition given in the question :
1 2 1 1 2 30 10
pr h pr 30 h units.
3 27 3 27 9
Ans [3]
8. Given 5 singers are below the age of 25 years and total 20 members are below the age of 25 years. So, the
number of dancers below 25 years = 20 – 5 = 15. Required Percentage = 15 × 100/60 = 25 %. Ans. [4]
9. Let the cost price = Rs. x and marked price = Rs. y. Then by the condition given in question:
x 95 5 c7 5h 100
1.33x = 0.95y . Hence, the marked price should be = 40% more than the
y 133 7 5
cost price. Ans [2]
10. Let Y get Rs. y and Z get Rs. z. Then by the condition given in the question y – 20 = z + 20 = x...(1)
Again x + y + z = 120...(2) by equation (1) and (2) we get x = 40, y = 60, z = 20. Ans [3]
11. Since it is not given how many students are between Ravi and Reena we cannot determine Reena’s rank
from the front. Ans. [4]
12. While returning, the speed of the traveler = 50 × 120/100 = 60 kmph. Average speed during the whole
journey = 2 × 50 × 60/(50 + 60) = 54.5 kmph. Ans. [4]
60 =604.28 = 4 times. Ans [2]

13. In an hour, the bells ring = 10
LC of 6, 7, 8,
M
14. Let the usual speed of the person = x kmph and the distance = d km. Then time = d/x hours.
Again by the condition given in question 4d/3x = d/x + 1/3 d/x = 1 hour. Ans. [1]
15. B
C
Ungrazed Area
A
D x
Let, the side of the square garden = x units. Then the length of the rope = units. Then, the area ungrazed
2
x2 x2 (4 x)
= x2 - x units.
4 4
Ans. [4]
0.6
16. Let the Tony’s salary = Rs. x. Then, Tina’s salary = 0.6x and the salary of Tito = x = 0.5x. Now by the
1.2
condition given in the question : x + 0.6x + 0.5x = 6300 2.1x = 6300 x = 3000. Hence Tony’s salary
= Rs. 3000. Ans. [1]
17. Degrees traveled by the minute hand between 4 : 45 to 5 : 45 = 360° and degrees traveled by the minute
hand between 5 : 45 and 6 : 15 = 180°. Hence, total degrees traveled = 540°. Ans. [1]
18. Total amount of bill = 380 + 5% of 125 = 380 + 5.125 = Rs. 385.125. Ans. [1]
19. 1 hr = 3,600 s
LCM of 6, 7, 8, 9 and
12 2 6, 7, 8, 9, 12
2 3, 7, 4, 9,
6
3 3, 7, 2, 9,
31, 7, 2, 3,1
= 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 2 × 3 = 504
3600
Number of times = 7
504
20. Let the radius of the circle be R 1

= r.
Area of circle A 1 = r 2
Radius is increased by 100%
R 2
= 2r
A 2
= (2r) 2
A A
Area of the circle increased = 2 1 100
A
1
2 2
4pp pr
= 100
pr 2
= 300%
21. For P = 1, the value of equation 4 – 7 + 5 = 2, i.e., the positive value. Ans. [4]
22. Since the average of the three numbers is 410, hence the total of the three numbers = 410 × 3 = 1230. Let
the other two number are x and x + 25. Then, by the condition given in the question :
2x + 25 = 1230 – 185 x = 510. Hence the smallest number = 185. Ans. [1]
23. Let the numbers be x and y. Then by the condition given in the question x + y/ 2y = 3/5 x/y = 1/5. Ans.
[1]
24. 104. Ratio of shares = A : B :

C A : B = 100 : 50
B : C = 100 : 40
A : B : C = 200 : 100 :
= 10
40: 5 : 2
5
B’s share = 1683 = Rs. 495
17
25. Length of the smaller cube = 1 mm

Length of the bigger cube = 1 m = 1,000 mm
Volume of the bigger cube
So number of cubes =
Volume of the smaller cube
1000 1000 1000
= 1,00,00,00,000
1 1 1
Since each smaller cube is having a side of 1 mm, while joining these small cubes end-to-end, total length
of this cube-rope will be 1 × 1,00,00,00,000 mm = 1,000 km.
ab
26. Use a + b +
100
10 10
10 10 1%
100
27. Total number of valid votes

Difference
= 100
Percentage difference
440
= 100
72 28
440
= 100
44
= 1,000
Total number of voters = 1000 + 350 = 1,350
28. A rectangular solid has 12 sides in which 4 sides represent length, 4 represent breadth and 4 represent
height.
Sum of all sides = 4l + 4b + 4h = 4 x (l + b + h) a multiple of 4.
29. 10% of Rs. 500 = Rs. 50 and 5% of Rs. 50 = Rs.

2.5
1
30. 1 hour work of the leak =
6
1
1 hour work of the tap =
10
1 6 10
The tap can fill the tank in = 15 hr
1 1 10 6
6 10
1
Capacity of the tank = 15 × 60 × 3 = 3,150 L
2
31. The smallest such number is 1.
32. Work with choices
33. Simple interest on Rs. 645 for 1 year = 690 – 645

= Rs. 45
Simple interest for 4 years = 45 × 4 = Rs. 180
Principal = 645 – 180 = Rs. 465
34. 2x + 3y + 4z = 27 … (i)
and 3x + 2y + z = 33 … (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get 5(x + y + z) = 60
(x + y + z) = 12
x y z 12
Average = =4
3 3
35. Time Relative speed Distance between A and B

1 p.m. 0 km/hr 8
2 p.m.
km –3 km/hr 11
km
3 p.m. –2 km/hr 13
4kmp.m. –1 km/hr 14
km
5 p.m. 0 km/hr 14
6 p.m.
km +1 km/hr 13
km
7 p.m. +2 km/hr 11
8 p.m.
km +3 km/hr 8
km
9 p.m. +4 km/hr 4
km
Hence, between 9 p.m. and 10 p.m. the relative speed is 5 km/hr. As distance between them is 4 km, the
4
time required is 60 = 48 min.
5
pr 2
36. Area grazed by one horse = 4
DC
AB
a
| |
|
a2 a |
2
Area grazed by four horses = r 2
63
Here, r = .
2
When a is side of square ABCD.
Area left ungrazed = a 2 – r 2
2
63
= 63 –
2
2
22 1
1
= 63 2
7 4
28 22 6
= 63 2 632
28 28
3
= 63 2
14
63 9 3
= = 850.5 m 2
37. A | |
BSpeed of A
Speed of B
Time taken by Bto complet the remainin dis. afte meetin
Time taken by A to ecomplet the gremainin dis. rafte gmeetin
e g r g
4
2
1
Speed of A = 2 × Speed of B.
So, the first train is twice as fast as the second train.
x 169 13
38. 12 1
12 144
x 13
1
12 12
x 1
12 12
x 1
39. -25 (x 2 – 2 2 x + 2) 0
x 2 -22x+2 0
(x - 2 ) =0 2
As the square of a real number cannot be negative.

(x - 2 ) = 0 x = 2
40. g(x) = x 3 + 2 g(2) = 23 + 2 = 10

f(x, y) = xy f(3, 10) = 3 × 10 = 30
41. To calculate the number of games, it will be (n –1), i.e. 150 – 1 = 149.
Alternative method:
As there are 150 members, so in order to decide the champion there has to be one less than the total number
of members, i.e., 149 games.
42. 3 = (3 4 )7 = (81) 7 = (80 + 1) 7

28
When divided by 80, remainder is 1.
2 2
7 5 7 5 7 5 7 5
43.
7 5 7 5 7 5
7 5 2 7 5 7 5 2 7 5
= 5
7
24
= 12
2
44. In A BC, BC is the circumference of a cylindrical pole.

2 2
When the insect climbs the pole in spirals, it will be covering AC = 3 4 = 5ft.
A
B C
For every 5 ft of spiral distance, effective height covered by the insect = 4 ft
5
Hence, if the height of this pole is 16 ft, the insect will travel = 16 = 20 ft
4
45. Circumference of wheel = d
Distance traveled by wheel in n revolutions = n d
22
= 100 × 63
7
= 19,800 cm = 198 m
x
2 x
46. 2 = 1280
2
2
x 5
2 1280
2
x 1280 2
2 512
5
x x 9
2 512 2 2
x 9
47. [1] No of batches = 12 symbol 180 \f "Symbol" \s 8 1.5 = 18; no. of sugar cups = 18 symbol 180 \f "Symbol"
\s 8 6 = 108.
48. [2] No. of people who do not prefer chicken or fish = 50 + 60 - 90 = 20.
49. [4] We get x/4 - x/5 = ¼; solving we get x = 5. [x is the distance].
50. [4] Squaring, (x - 1/x)² = x² + 1/x² - 2 = 4. Squaring once again, (x² + 1/x²) = x 4
+ 1/x 4 + 2 = 36 Hence x 4 + 1/x
= 34.
SECTION
II
51. [4] Ram says that only 2 alternatives are possible but Sita gives a third one.
52. [1] The survey could have underestimated dishonest students if they admitted that they were honest.
53. [1] If you believe Anu Malik, then J or L are insane. But from statement I, both must be insane together.
54. [1] It is assumed that a married person loses his identity. Statements II & III are not in the statement.
55. [3] If some other benefit is obtained, then the disadvantage of marriage can be overcome, hence [3].
56. [4] If a majority of people complained about losing their identity, then the statement would be strengthened.
57. [3] If the painter works on Thursday, then the carpenter and the plumber have come before him and D must
also be before E. This leaves E for Friday.
58. [4] If the painter works on Friday, all others are before him. but E can work on Wednesday or Tuesday, hence
e) is wrong.
59. [1] We get : I, E, PL, C, P, hence

a).
60. [4] T and A do not live in any of the end houses, hence B and D live there. They own grey and mauve cars,
hence e) is wrong.
61. [1] If A owns the violet car, only one color (orange) is left for T.
62. [2] B is at the extreme, so T can be adjacent to him, hence b) is not necessarily true.
63. [1] Since A is at 5, places 4 and 6 must not have smokers. Hence TVM can occupy 1, 2 or 3 places only and S
and K can occupy 4 or 6. As K is not an answer choice, we can say that A must be next to S.
64. [3] From Q.

135.
65. [3] V and K must be together, hence V must be at 3 and K at 4.
66. [2] If T takes over the duties of S, then he must talk on the phone and therefore he cannot be next to M, who
requires silence. Thus T or M must ask for a change in seating plan.
67. [2] We get OQPNLM. Hence Q is before

P.
68. [4] NLPOWM. Then Q is immediately before
M.
69. [1] From Q. 127
70. [4] B must precede C, hence must be at 4.
71. [3] B cannot be at 3 because it would mean then C must come after lunch, whi ch is not allowed.
72. [4] D must be at 1, F at 2; then B and C must come after lunch, which means that C must be at 5.
73. [3] We get DBCAFE from this condition.
74. [4] Zeenat is between Akbar and Anthony while Parveen is unwilling to stay next to any occupied cottage,
hence statement V can be derived.
75. [3] We get - Amar Akbar Zeenat Anthony - Parveen - Hema. There are 4 people next to vacant cottages.
76. [3] From Q.

149.
77. [2] It is given that S and T must be together and K is at 3. Only b) satisfies all the conditions.
78. [4] In this choice, K is not at 3, which is a required condition.
79. [1] If V is at 5 and K is at 3 then the only positions for S and T are 1 and 2 since they have to be together.
80. [4] KTS are at positions 3, 4 and 5. Hence V cannot be at 5.
81. From statement I, we get 1, 3, 5, 7,

9. From statement II, all numbers which are multiples of 3.
Combining both, we get the numbers 3 and 9.
Hence, we cannot decide.
82. Both the statements are needed.

a b
Apply
sinA sinB
83. Both the statements are needed.

1 1
First statement says x > or x < ;
2 2
Second statement indicates x > 0.
84. Cannot be determined. The second statement indicates that Raju can be a liar or can be truthful.
85. Cannot be determined. The length of the race has to be known.
For questions 86 to 88: The possible combinations that meet all the conditions
Mon Tue Wed Thurs Fri Sat

a) N M Sun R O/P S Q
P/O
b) M N R O/P S P/O
On the basis of these possibilities, we can solve the questions easily.
Q
86. [3]
87. [1]
88. [3]
For questions 89 to 92: For solving these questions, we use the diagram given below:
A x
B b
a
y d z
C
c
A = 40, B = 50 and C =
30
A + B + C =
120
n(A B C) = 100 – 20 = 80
Number that play exactly two games
(x + y + z = 20)
Thus, we get the following equations
(a + b + c) + d = 80 – 20 = 60
(a + b + c) + 3d = 120 – 2 (20) = 80
d = 10 = n (A C)
89. Number of students playing at least 2 games = 20 + 10 = 30.
90. Number of students playing exactly one game = 80 – 30 = 50.
91. Number of students playing exactly one game = 100 – 20 = 80
92. Number of students playing all 3 games =d = 10
93. In alternative [1], V and Z are not supposed to sit together.

Alternative [2], is correct.
In alternative [3], Y sits at the head of table.
In alternative [4], X sits at the head of table.
94. Since V and Y sit together, W and T sit near Z leaving X next to T.
95. U X
Z
W
Y V
T
96. U V
Y
Z
W T
X
97. U 1
2
Z
Y V
X
For questions 98 to 100: Use diagrams to arrive at the correct answers.
98. [1]
99. [3]
100. [3]
SECTION
IV
151. [2] The passage is about the Victorians’ idea of invention, which resulted in a number of useless inventions.
152. [2] It is stated that inventions should facilitate life, i.e., utility should over-ride the mere act of inventing.
153. [3] It is the author’s view of inventions that triumphs.
154. [3] “numerous plans and inventions.”
155. [1] The discussion about the mousetrap shows that Alice regards utility as more important.
156. [1] The knight wants to do things in a particular way even if they are useless and serve no purpose. Hence the
best choice to describe the Victorian era is a).
157. [1] a see brackets in the passage.
158. [2] From the Victorian era, when some inventions did not serve any purpose, it moved to the Industrial
Revolution, during which all inventions were put to commercial use.
159. [2] It was the Industrial era that produced wealth.
160. [2] The passage talks about the art and utility of inventions, hence the best choice is b).
161. [1] “is to make sure that their site name is top-of-mind”, i.e., awareness.
162. [3] Third paragraph: “providing a tangible cue about the service always helps.”
163. [1] Fourth paragraph: “single most important benefit that is sought by a consumer.”
164. [3] Fifth paragraph: unexpected positive service
165. [4] Spends on billboards are going down because advertisers are looking at other options, according to the
passage.
166. [1] In a bid to fill up empty coffers, municipal corporations are giving permissions to put up hoardings without
any limit.
167. [2] The companies are holding out and are making average profits, as stated.
168. [2] Only television is mentioned in the passage.
169. [4] The article does not make any future predictions.
170. [4] The article is about dotcom advertising but later talks of hoardings and outdoor advertising. Only e) reflects
both these themes.
171. [3] Antipode: an exact opposite.
172. [4] Moribund: dying, stagnant, obsolescent
173. [1] Pristine: immaculate, unspoiled, original state.
174. [4]Insidious: gradual and harmful
175. [2] Ingenuity: inventiveness
176. [3]
177. [1]
178. [3]
179. [3] Lurk and wait are synonyms, so are abscond and depart.
180. [4] Exhort is to urge; goad is to prod.
181. [1] Look for units of measurement
182. [3] We use needle to knit, loom to weave.
183. [2] Zoology is the study of animals, botany is the study of plants.
184. ‘Equilibrium’ means a state of composure.
185. Synopsis is a brief review of a subject.
186. Partisan is to take parts or sides.
187. Metamorphosis is to change form completely.
188. Controversy is a dispute, argument or debate.
189. [1]
190. [1]
191. [4]
192. [4]
193. [4] success….. accomplishment
194. [3] frugal: economical in manner
195. [4] truculent - fierce or cruel. A ferocious manner will alienate her colleagues
196. [1] A person should not be categorized, or labeled as……
197. [1] acerbic - bitter
198. [3] to take exception to - were in opposition to
199. [1] unprecedented - without precedence
200. [2] cursory- careless or without details

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IIFT SAMPLE PAPER

INSTRUCTIONS – Please read these carefully before attempting the test.

1. This test is based on the pattern of previous years’ IIFT papers.

2. There are four sections. Each section contains 50 questions.

17. Degrees traveled by the minute hand of a clock between 4 : 45 PM to 6: 15 PM is

29. What is 5% of 10% discount on Rs. 500?

39. Find the value of x, in the expression – 25 x2 + 50 R 2x 50 0 x

40. If f(x, y) = xy and g(x) = x3 + 2, then what is the value of f[ 3, g(2)]?

42. What is the remainder when 328 is divided by 80?

[1] 25 7 [2]3 5 2 7[3]312 [4] 2

53. Answer the following question based on the following statements:

59. Which arrangement among the following is possible?

60. Which among the following statements cannot be true?

62. Which among the following statements is not necessarily true?

65. The ideal office for Vikas would be

DIRECTIONS for Questions 70 to

DIRECTIONS for Questions 74 to

76. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

DIRECTIONS for Questions 77 to

81. How many eggs did Mr. Henley lay everyday?

82. What is the value of angle A in triangle ABC?

85. Who won the race?

86. Which of the following brands must be scheduled to be fed on Wednesday?

89. The number of people playing at least 2 games is

90 The number of people playing exactly 1 game is

91. The number of people playing at least 1 game is

92. The number of people playing all the 3 games is

105. Who was referred to as "The Milwaukee Meter"?

106. The world's largest archipelago is?

110. 'The City of Dreaming Spires'- which is it?

114. Which group were named after a popular fifties hairdo?

124. Who wrote a collection of poems called "Beejak"?

133. Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed in which of the following years?

137. Which of the following days is celebrated as International Women’s Day?

139. The first Asian Games were held at

140. The former name of the now famous ‘Idea Cellular’ is

142. Which of the following is NOT a kharif crop?

143. Which of the following is the capital of Belgium?

146. EI AI is the airlines of

154. What is your understanding of England’s “new technical epoch?”

156. Which of the following describes the “Victorian Era” best?

160. Suggest an appropriate title for the passage:

161. What is the immediate objective of advertising for dotcoms?

162. How should companies choose a site name?

163. How should one choose an image for the site?

164. A site can attract and retain customers

167. How have the outdoor advertising companies fared?

168. What other advertising media are commonly used?

169. The article suggests that

170. The most suitable title for this passage is

179. Lurk : Wait

180. Exhort : Suggest

181. Angle : Degree

182. Needle : Knit

183. Zoology : Animals

3. Let the number be x. Then,

60 =604.28 = 4 times. Ans [2]

20. Let the radius of the circle be R 1

24. 104. Ratio of shares = A : B :

25. Length of the smaller cube = 1 mm

27. Total number of valid votes

29. 10% of Rs. 500 = Rs. 50 and 5% of Rs. 50 = Rs.

31. The smallest such number is 1.