Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
MANDAUE CITY SCIENCE HIGH SCHOOL

FINAL EXAMINATION IN GENERAL BIOLOGY 2

Name: _________________________Section:_____________Date: _____________ Score: ________

Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

1. What is the main function of DNA?

A. Can be mutated. C. Direct the process of protein synthesis.
B. Provides energy to the cell. D. Stores information for protein synthesis.

2. What is a gene?
A. Can exist in many forms.
B. Affects trait in a cellular level.
C. Can be described as a unit of heredity.
D. Contains information to produce a particular protein.

3. Which describes haploid cells in the human body?

A. Caused by allelic variation.
B. Contain 46 chromosomes.
C. Typical example of human cells.
D. Are gametes, which allow sexual reproduction.

4. Which of these might be a valid reason for creating mice that glow?
A. Use as a pet.
B. Could be easily distinguished from unmanipulated animals.
C. Might be effective “flashlights” in search and rescue applications.
D. It served as an effective demonstration that an extra gene could be incorporated into and
expressed in most tissues of a model organism.

5. Which technique is most likely to be used by a molecular geneticist?

A. Establishing crosses between genetic variants.
B. Identification of a previously unknown species.
C. Production of a new mutant allele of an interesting gene.
D. Analysis of the amount of genetic variation in a population of individuals.

6. Which statement about nucleic acids is NOT correct?

A. They are macromolecules. C. Typically long, linear molecules.
B. They are organic molecules. D. None of the above.
7. To sum it up, which of the statement below is NOT included in the advantage of using garden
pea in Mendel’s experiment?
A. True-breeding varieties were scarce.
B. They have relatively short generation time.
C. Sex organs with the pea are enclosed with the flower.
D. He could expect to observe segregation of traits among the offsprings.

8. What were the early ideas on heredity?

A. Traits are transmitted directly.
B. Alleles do not influence each other.
C. Not all copies of a factor are identical.
D. Traits can be masked in some generations.

9. Why are there so many possible combinations of maternal and paternal traits in each generation
of offspring?
A. High frequency of viral invasion.
B. Same number of chromosomes in each cell.
C. Biological components that chromosomes are made of.
D. Random grabbing of chromosomes by microtubules during metaphase 1.

10. Which of the following most contributes to a large variation of traits inherited by an offspring?
A. Gene pool
B. Homozygous dominance.
C. Production of polar bodies.
D. Random shuffling of homologous chromosomes in gamete production.

11. Which counteract the effect of natural selection?

A. Gene flow B. Genetic drift C. Mutation D. Inbreeding

12. For a Filipino woman, which genotype would be advantageous to have?

A. Homozygous for the anemia allele.
B. Heterozygous for the anemia allele.
C. Homozygous for the normal hemoglobin allele.
D. It doesn’t matter, all are equally advantageous.

13. Which term is used in mating with relatives?

A. Inbreeding B. Outcrossing C. Random mating D. Clines

14. Which theory of Kimura that opposed natural selection?

A. Natural B. Neutral C. Nearly neutral D. Adaptive

15. In which area an organism least likely to experience extinction over the long term?
A. Desert B. Savanna C. Stable habitats D. Inhabited by humans
16. Which statement most accurately reflects what population geneticists refer to a “fitness”?
A. Relative health of each individual in the population.
B. Measure of an organism’s adaptability to various habitats.
C. Reflects the number of mates each individual of the population selects.
D. Measure of the contribution of a genotype to the gene pool of the next generation.

17. Which type of population genetic drift operates?

A. Small B. Large C. Island D. Mendelian

18. Which is the correct order?

A. Paleozoic -> Mesozoic -> Cenozoic C. Cenozoic -> Paleozoic -> Archaeozoic
B. Archaeozoic -> Cenezoic -> Paleozoic D. Mesozoic -> Archaeozoic -> Cenezoic

19. Lamarck’s theory of organic evolution is known as?

A. Natural selection C. Descent with change
B. Inheritance of acquired characters D. Continuity of fermplasm

20. What was Darwin’s major contribution to the theory of evolution?

A. Mechanism of natural selection C. Inheritance of acquired characteristics

B. Importance of sexual selection D. Pangenesis

21. How many bones are there in the average human body?
A. 33 B. 206 C. 639 D. It varies by individual

22. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about bones?

A. Where most blood cells are made.
B. Serves as storehouse for various minerals.
C. Dry and non-living supporting structure.
D. Protects and supports the body and its organs.

23. What is the difference between cartilage and bone?

A. Bone is rubbery, and cartilage is firm.
B. Cartilage is rubbery, and bone is firm.
C. Bone is more primitive tissue than cartilage.
D. Bone is inside the body, and cartilage is outside.

24. What makes bones strong?

A. Silica C. Blood and marrow
 B. Cartilage D. Calcium and phosphorous

25. Which of the following is NOT performed by muscles?

A. Motion C. Maintenance of posture
B. Excretion D. Heat production

26. What are the actin and myosin filaments in muscle composed of?
A. Nucleic acids B. Fatty acids C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates

27. Approximately how many skeletal muscles are there in the human body?
A. 60 B. 100 C. 600 D. 1000

28. What is the excretory system in charge of?

A. Giving the body support and strength.
B. Removing wastes and excess fluid from the body.
C. Breaking down food so it can be used by the body.
D. None of the above.

29. Which is the largest organ in the body that gives off bodily sweat and perspiration?
A. Kidney B. Bladder C. Skin D. Liver

30. What is the basic functional unit of human kidney?

A. Nephron B. Nephridia C. Henle’s loop D. None of these

31. What is the biological definition of a species?

A. States that members of a species interbreed.
B. Says that members of a species share the same gene pool.
C. Recognizes that distinctive characteristics that are passed from parent to offspring.
D. All of the above.

32. Which of the following statements about fossil record is TRUE?

A. Fossils can be dated.
B. It may be possible to tell which group of fossil is related.
C. The fossil record is incomplete since soft parts are eaten or decayed before they can be
buried.
D. All of the above.
33. Which of the following pairs is MOST closely related?

A. Dog and tapeworm C. Mushroom and tree

 B. Tapeworm and bacteria D. Amoeba and bacteria

34. Which of the following groups would contain the largest number of organisms?
A. Kingdom B. Phylum C. Class D. Order

35. What inform is found in a scientific name?

A. Family and species C. Phylum and order
B. Genus and species D. Class and family

For numbers 36-38, refer to the choices below:

A. Vascular B. Dermal C. Meristem D. Ground

36. Which plant tissue continues to divide that makes plant grow throughout their entire life? D.
37. Which tissue forms the outer, protective covering of a plant? B.
38. Which tissue system conducts water and nutrients in plants? A.

39. Which portion of the flowering plant anchors the plant in the soil?
A. Root system B. Shoot system C. Leaves D. Stem

40. Which portion of the flowering plant absorbs water and minerals?
A. Flower B. Blade C. Stem D. Root

41. Which of the following statements describes the function of veins?

A. Veins allow gas exchange to occur between cells and blood.
B. Veins carry blood from the heart to the lungs.
C. Veins carry blood away from the heart to the body.
D. Veins carry blood to the heart back from the rest of the body.

42. Which of the following is the main function of the large intestine?
A. storing bile
B. absorbing nutrients from chyme
C. compacting and eliminating waste materials
D. making hormones that regulate blood sugar

43. What is the function of the testes in the male reproductive system?
A. The testes produce sperm and testosterone.
B. The testes regulate the development of female characteristics.
C. The testes transfer sperm to the female’s body.
D. The testes transfer sperm to the urethra.

44. Identify the feedback mechanism that maintains your body temperature when your surroundings
are very hot.
A. The brain sends a message to the skin. The muscles in the skin contract, or shiver, to cool the body.
B. The muscles in the skin contract, which sends a message to the brain that you feel hot. The brain
sends a message to the skin’s heat receptors.
C. Heat receptors in the skin send a message to the brain. The brain sends a response to start
sweating, which cools the body.
D. The skin starts sweating. The sweat sends a message to the brain, which sends a response
to stop sweating.

45. Which of the following statements about muscles and the muscular system is true?
A. All muscle action is voluntary, or able to be consciously controlled.
B. The three types of muscle tissue are skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, and involuntary
muscle.
C. Muscles always work independently to move parts of the body.
D. Smooth muscle moves food through the digestive system.

46. Which of the following correctly lists parts of the reproductive systems of males and females?
A. Male: penis, fallopian tubes, prostate gland
Female: ovaries, uterus, vagina
B. Male: testes, epididymis, penis
Female: vas deferens, vagina, fallopian tubes
C. Male: prostate gland, penis, testes
Female: uterus, vagina, fallopian tubes
D. Male: vas deferens, cervix, penis
Female: vagina, epididymis, ovaries

47. Which of the following best describes how an organ system serves the needs of cells?
A. The cardiovascular system pumps blood, which carries nutrients and oxygen, to cells in the
body.

B. The muscular system works with the skeletal system to move the body.
C. The integumentary system absorbs oxygen that is carried to cells.
D. The small intestine absorbs nutrients that are used in cell functions.

48. How does the digestive system break down small proteins into amino acids?

A. mechanical digestion in the mouth.

B. chemical digestion using enzymes

C. mechanical digestion of chyme

D. chemical digestion in the esophagus

Ἰωάννης 3:16 €•p@’20