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STUDY GUIDE
Fifth Edition
FOR THE
PROFESSIONAL ENGINEERING
LICENSING EXAMINATION
The information presented in this publication is for the general education of the
reader. Because neither the author nor the publisher has any control over the use of
the information by the reader, both the author and the publisher disclaim any and all
liability of any kind arising out of such use. The reader is expected to exercise sound
professional judgment in using any of the information presented in a particular
application.
Additionally, neither the author nor the publisher have investigated or considered the
effect of any patents on the ability of the reader to use any of the information in a
particular application. The reader is responsible for reviewing any possible patents
that may affect any particular use of the information presented.
Any references to commercial products in the work are cited as examples only.
Neither the author nor the publisher endorses any referenced commercial product.
Any trademarks or trade names referenced belong to the respective owner of the
mark or name. Neither the author nor the publisher make any representation
regarding the availability of any referenced commercial product at any time. The
manufacturer's instructions on use of any commercial product must be followed at all
times, even if in conflict with the information in this publication.
ISBN: 978-1937560-03-4
For information on corporate or group discounts for this book, e-mail: info@isa.org.
TABLE OF CONTENTS
PREFACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
GENERAL INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
STATE LICENSING REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Eligibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Examination Schedule. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Application Procedures and Deadlines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Format. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Content . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Validity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Specifications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Preparation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
MINIMUM COMPETENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
SCORING PROCEDURES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
EXAMINATION PROCEDURES AND INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Reference Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Exam Materials. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Starting and Completing the Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Special Accommodations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
APPENDIX B
SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
APPENDIX C
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 71
APPENDIX D
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 89
PREFACE
Control Systems Engineering (CSE) was recognized by a vote of the National
Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) at its annual
meeting in Nashua, New Hampshire, on August 10, 1991. Recognition means
that an examination will be developed by NCEES, with help from a
professional society, and offered for use by boards for engineering licensing in
the United States.
By April 2010, forty-six state boards had agreed to offer the CSE exam. The
other boards (Alaska, Hawaii, New York and Rhode Island) have asked for a
showing of need and interest in their states before they will recognize CSE.
1
GENERAL INFORMATION
INTRODUCTION
This study guide is published by ISA – The International Society of
Automation, to assist candidates who are preparing for the Principles-and-
Practice of Engineering examination in Control Systems Engineering (CSE),
one of the requirements for licensure as a professional engineer.
To develop reliable and valid exams, NCEES employs procedures using the
guidelines established in the Standards for Educational and Psychological
Testing (1985), published by the American Psychological Association. These
procedures are intended to maximize the fairness and quality of the exams.
The procedures require the involvement of experienced testing specialists
having the necessary expertise to develop examinations using current testing
techniques.
3
Prior to 1998, most states did not have citizenship or residence requirements.
Now, as a result of the Welfare Reform Act passed by the U.S. Congress in
1996, states cannot confer a “benefit” (including a professional or commercial
license) on a person who is not a US citizen or legal resident. However,
licenses can be issued to holders of certain types of visas for entry into the
United States. Because the rules are complex, candidates affected by this
regulation should discuss their situation with one of the state boards.
Examination Schedule
The CSE exam is offered once per year, on the last weekend in October.
Application deadlines vary from state to state, but typically are about 3 or 4
months ahead of the exam date.
Applicants for the CSE exam must have taken and passed the Fundamentals-
of-Engineering (FE) exam, also called the Engineer-in-Training (EIT) exam, or
have received a waiver of this exam. Many state boards will waive the FE/EIT
exam for persons with sufficient approved engineering experience, usually at
least 8 years. This exam is given in April and October.
DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION
Exam Format
Questions are stated in a standardized form. Questions start with a stem that
describes a situation an engineer might encounter in practice. Any
information or data that the examinee needs appears in the stem. Each
4
question has a correct answer and three incorrect answers. More than one
question may be based on a common stem.
All the questions are compulsory; applicants are expected to answer all the
questions. Each correct answer receives one point. If a question is omitted or
answered incorrectly, it will receive a score of zero. There is no penalty for
guessing.
Exam Content
The subject areas of the CSE exam are described by the exam specification
given in Appendix A.
EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT
Exam Validity
Similar studies are performed for all the disciplines in which NCEES provides
exams. The studies are repeated periodically to reflect changes in technology.
In 2002-3 and in 2009-11, following NCEEs policy, the CSE exam specification
was revised.
Exam Specifications
5
Exam Preparation
MINIMUM COMPETENCE
One of the most critical considerations in developing and administering
exams for professional engineering registration or licensing is establishing
passing scores that reflect a standard of minimum competence. Minimum
competence, as measured by the exam component of the licensing process, is
defined by NCEES as follows:
SCORING PROCEDURES
Each question is worth 0 or 1 point, so the entire 8-hour exam has a maximum
score of 80 points.
However, candidates should understand that NCEES exams are NOT graded
“by the curve” so that pre-specified percentages of examinees will pass and
fail. Instead, they are graded by an “item-specific, criterion-referenced”
method, that is, answers are evaluated in terms of what a minimally
competent candidate is expected to know. With this procedure, each
candidate is judged separately and without regard to the performance of
other examinees.
6
At a passing-score workshop, a panel of engineers who have not been
involved with preparation of the exams is asked to study the questions and
independently estimate the fraction of minimally-competent candidates who
would answer each question correctly. These estimates are averaged for the
panel and then summed to obtain a passing score.
Legal authority for licensing decisions rests with the individual registration
boards and not with NCEES or ISA. Consequently, each board has the
authority to fix its own passing score for the exam. NCEES provides each
board with a recommended passing score developed by the methods
described above; the recommended score is generally adopted by the boards.
Candidates may appeal a board decision, subject to rules established by the
board.
Note: In some states, licensing exams must — by law — have a passing score
of 70. For these states, NCEES scales the raw scores so the maximum score
becomes 100 and the passing score becomes 70. Where this occurs, scores are
not directly comparable from state to state, but the same group of applicants
will pass on either basis.
Writing tablets, unbound notes or tables, and devices that could compromise
the security of the exam are NOT permitted. In the exam booklets, questions
are printed on the right-hand pages; the left-hand pages are blank and can be
used for calculations or scratch work. Examinees are prohibited from copying
questions for future use.
State boards differ in their rules regarding references and calculators, so you
should contact your board for its specific instructions.
7
Exam Materials
Before each session, proctors will distribute exam booklets and answer sheets
to be used in responding to the questions.
The exam booklet should not be opened until you are instructed to do so by
the proctor. Read the instructions and information given on the front and back
covers. Enter your name in the upper right corner of the front cover. Listen
carefully to all instructions read by the proctor.
The answer sheets for the multiple-choice questions are machine scored. For
proper scoring, the answer spaces should be blackened completely. Use only
#2 pencils or mechanical pencils with HB lead. Marks in ink or felt-tip pens
may not be scanned accurately. If you decide to change an answer, the first
answer must be erased completely. Incomplete erasures and stray marks may
be read as intended answers.
One side of the answer sheet is used to collect identification and biographical
data. Proctors will guide you through this part of the answer sheet prior to
your taking the test. The process will take about 15 minutes.
Copies of the answer sheets described above are given in the following pages.
It will be wise to become familiar with them before the exam.
You are not to open the exam booklet until instructed to do so by the proctor.
Inside the front cover is additional important information. If you should
complete the exam with more than 30 minutes remaining, you are free to
leave. Within 30 minutes of the end of the exam, you are required to remain
until the end to avoid disrupting those still working and to permit orderly
collection of all exam materials.
Regardless of when you complete the exam, you are responsible for returning
the numbered exam booklet assigned to you. Cooperate with the proctors
collecting the exam materials. Nobody will be allowed to leave until the
proctor has verified that all materials have been collected.
Special Accommodations
8
TIPS ON TAKING PE EXAMINATIONS
Plan to arrive early at the exam site, allowing for delays in travel and
parking.
Before starting to answer any questions, read all of them. Rank them by
the apparent degree of difficulty for you. Tackle the easiest questions first,
then the next easiest, and so on, until you have answered all the questions
in the morning or afternoon half of the exam. This approach will leave
more time for the tougher questions at the end of the session.
Because the morning and afternoon sessions are each four hours, you will
have approximately six minutes per question, not counting the time spent
reviewing the entire exam before starting.
If you finish the exam ahead of time, check your calculations or try
answering a question by an alternate method.
If you are running short of time or are uncertain about the correct
answer, try to eliminate clearly incorrect answers and make a guess
among the remaining answers (since there is no penalty for guessing).
9
REFERENCES FOR THE CSE EXAMINATION
The following pages list reference books that may be useful in preparing for
and taking the PE examination in CSE. The list has been organized into the
same topic areas as the exam. Where possible, several books have been listed
for each topic, and excerpts from the tables of contents are included to assist
candidates in comparing these books with other similar references.
It is NOT suggested that candidates should be familiar with or own all the
following books, because there are substantial overlaps in coverage of the
exam content in the listed books. Instead, candidates should review these
books and other similar books, select a limited number of references covering
the major areas of the CSE exam, and study the selected references to learn
where particular topics are covered.
GENERAL REFERENCES
Author/Editor/
ISBN Title
Publisher
0-8493-1083-0 Instrument Engineers’ Handbook, Fourth Béla G. Lipták
Edition, Vol. 1: Process Measurement and
Analysis
0-8493-1081-4 Instrument Engineers’ Handbook, Fourth Béla G. Lipták
Edition, Vol. 2: Process Control and
Optimization
11
0-87201-382-0 Applied Instrumentation in the Process W. G. Andrew and
Industries, Second Edition, Volume I: A Survey H. B. Williams
0-87201-047-3 Applied Instrumentation in the Process W. G. Andrew and
Industries, Third Edition, Volume III: H. B. Williams
Engineering Data and Resource Material
0-8019-6766-x Instrumentation for Process Measurement and Norman A. Anderson
Control, Third Edition
0-07-012445-0 Process/Industrial Instruments and Controls Douglas M. Considine
Handbook, Fourth Edition
0-932276-31-8 EIT Review Manual, Professional Publications, Michael R. Lindeburg,
Inc. PE, Professional
Engineering Institute
Flow of Fluids Through Valves, Fittings, and The Crane Company
Pipe, Technical Paper No. 410
Flow Meter Engineering Handbook, Fifth Edition C. F. Cusick –
Honeywell
951-95409-9-7 Flow Control Manual Lasse Kamppari –
Neles-Jamesbury
Engineering Handbook For Neles-Jamesbury Neles-Jamesbury
Control Valves, Technical Bulletin T150-1
Engineering Data Gorman-Rupp Pumps
Programmable Controllers Practices and R. A. Gilbert and J. A.
Concepts Llewellyn
Control Valve Handbook, Second Edition Fisher Controls
Company http://
www.emersonprocess
.com/fisher/
products/
documentation.html
Cameron Hydraulic Data, Third Edition C. C. Heald – Ingersoll
Rand
978-1-55617- The Condensed Handbook of Measurement and N. E. Battikha, PE
995-2 Control, Third Edition
Consolidated Safety Relief Valves SRV-1 Dresser Industrial
Valves
978-193756- Control Systems Engineering Study Guide, Fifth ISA
0034 Edition
The following references cover more than one of the areas included in the CSE
exam:
12
distributed control systems; programmable controllers; ergonomics,
human factors and safety; applications; engineering practices.)
I. Measurement
13
G. K. McMillan, Advanced pH Measurement and Control (3rd ed.), ISA,
2005. (pH chemistry; titration curves; pH measurement; mixing
equipment; control valves; control systems; controller tuning;
checkout and troubleshooting.)
Guy Borden (Ed.), Control Valves, ISA, 1998. (Control valves, body
assemblies, actuators and accessories; design and construction;
applications; safety; troubleshooting; maintenance; testing; standards;
valve-related computer programs; regulators.)
14
H. D. Baumann, Control Valve Primer (4th ed.), ISA, 2009. (Control
valves and control loops; selection and sizing; fail safety; flow
characteristics; positioners; actuators; stem forces; installation;
materials; environmental concerns; electric versus pneumatic
actuators.)
W. S. Levine, The Control Handbook, CRC Press, Boca Raton, FL, 1996.
(Mathematical foundations; dynamic models; analysis and design
methods for continuous systems; digital control; nonlinear systems;
analysis and design software; advanced control methods;
identification; applications.)
15
S. M. Herb, Understanding Distributed Process Systems for Control, ISA,
1999. (Introduction; evolution of plant-wide process control;
computing devices; controller hardware and software structures;
controller redundancy; user interfaces; alarms; networks, physical and
logical structures; open communications standards; plant information;
continuous and batch processes; system security; reliability, failures
and faults; safety systems; control system implementation,
justification, specification, vendor selection, testing and installation;
importance of distributed control; future trends; glossary of terms and
acronyms.)
V. Safety Systems
16
P. Gruhn and H. L. Cheddie, Safety Instrumented Systems: Design,
Analysis and Justification, ISA, 2005. (Design life cycle; risk; process
versus safety control; protection layers; developing requirement
specifications per ISA-84.01; safety integrity level; choosing a
technology; initial system evaluation; field device issues; hardware
and management considerations; installation; testing; changes;
justification; design checklist; case study.)
The following material lists codes and standards relevant to the practice of
CSE. The source, number and title of the codes or standards are given.
Because there are so many applicable codes and standards, it is not expected
that CSEs will memorize all their provisions, or bring copies of all of them to
the exam. When feasible, if exam problems call for details of a code or
standard, the needed information will be supplied as part of the problem
statement.
17
ISA-51.1-1979 (R1993), Process Instrumentation Terminology
18
API RP 500 (R2002), Recommended Practice for Classification of Locations
for Electrical Installations at Petroleum Facilities Classified as Class I,
Division I and Division 2, 2nd Edition
ASME Section I 2010, ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section I:
Rules for Construction of Power Boilers
ASME Section IV 2010, ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section
IV: Heating Boilers
ASME Section VIII SET 2010, ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code -
Section VIII - Pressure Vessels
19
IEC 60079-10-2 Edition 1.0 (2009-04), Explosive Atmospheres - Part 10-2:
Classification of Areas - Combustible Dust Atmospheres
No. 496, Standard for Purged and Pressurized Enclosures for Electrical
Equipment
20
OSHA Occupational Safety & Health Administration
200 Constitution Avenue NW
Washington, DC 20210 (202) 693-2000
21
APPENDIX A
23
NCEES Principles and Practice of Engineering Examination
CONTROL SYSTEMS Exam Specifications
• The exam uses both the International System of Units (SI) and the U.S.
customary system (USCS).
Approximate
Percentage of
Examination
20% I. Measurement
A. Sensor technologies applicable to the desired type of measurement
(e.g., flow, pressure, level, temperature, analytical, counters, motion,
vision)
B. Sensor characteristics (e.g., rangeability, accuracy and precision,
temperature effects, response times, reliability, repeatability)
C. Material compatibility
D. Calculations involved in pressure drop
E. Calculations involved in flow element sizing
F. Calculations involved in level, differential pressure
G. Calculations involved in unit conversions
H. Calculations involved in velocity
I. Calculations involved in linearization
J. Installation details (e.g., process, pneumatic, electrical, location)
24
4. Grounding, shielding, segregation, AC coupling
5. Basic signal circuit design (e.g., two-wire, four-wire, isolated
outputs, loop powering, buses)
6. Circuit calculations (voltage, current, impedance)
7. Unit conversion calculations
5% B. Transmission
1. Different communications systems architecture and protocols (e.g.,
fiber optics, coaxial cable, wireless, paired conductors, buses,
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol [TCP/IP], OPC)
2. Distance considerations versus transmission medium (e.g., data
rates, sample rates)
5% C. Networking (e.g., routers, bridges, switches, firewalls, gateways,
network loading, error checking, bandwidth, crosstalk, parity)
25
4. Pressure relieving device material selections based on process
characteristics
5. Pressure relieving valve installation practices (e.g., linking valves,
sparing the valves, accessibility for testing, car sealing inlet valves,
piping installation)
6. Rupture discs (e.g., types, characteristics, application, calculations)
5% C. Motor Controls
1. Types (e.g., motor starters, variable speed drives)
2. Applications (e.g., speed control, soft starters, valve actuators)
3. Calculations (e.g., sizing, tuning, location)
4. Accessories (e.g., encoders, positioners, relays, limit switches)
5. Troubleshooting (e.g., root cause failure analysis and correction)
2.5% D. Other Final Control Elements
1. Solenoid valves (e.g., types, sizing)
2. On-off devices/relays (e.g., types, applications)
3. Self-regulating devices (e.g., types, sizing, pressure, temperature,
level, and flow regulators)
26
3. System comparisons and compatibilities (e.g., advantages and
disadvantages of system architecture, distributed architecture,
remote I/O, buses)
4. Installation requirements (e.g., shielding, constructability, input/
output termination, environmental, heat load calculations, power
load requirements, purging, lighting)
5. Network security (e.g., firewalls, routers, switches, protocols)
6. System testing (e.g., factory acceptance test, integrated system test,
site acceptance test)
7. Commissioning (e.g., performance tuning, loop checkout)
8. Troubleshooting (e.g., root cause failure analysis and correction)
27
APPENDIX B
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This is the fifth study guide published for the CSE exam. The following
questions have been assembled from various sources, including past exams in
CSE and other disciplines, and some have been written specifically for this
publication.
The following questions are intended to illustrate the types of questions that
may be encountered in the CSE exam. Questions in this study guide will NOT
appear in future exams.
Candidates should understand that any one CSE exam can cover only some of
the areas of activity and knowledge listed in the exam specification. Thus, the
following questions do not necessarily deal with all the possible sub-areas of
CSE activity or knowledge that may appear in future CSE exams.
Likewise, while an effort was made to match the level of difficulty of actual
exams, the match may not be exact. Variations in difficulty from exam to exam
are considered in setting the passing scores. For this reason, candidates
should view their ability to answer the sample questions as an indication of
where to focus their preparatory efforts, not as a prediction of their success on
the actual exams.
29
Morning Session
31
101. The flow rate of a clean, low-viscosity liquid is to be measured as the process input to a
flow control loop. The loop has a 4:1 turndown ratio, and the accuracy requirement is 2%.
The flow rate is best measured using a(n):
(A) Thermal
(B) Positive displacement meter
(C) Pitot tube
(D) Orifice plate
102. On-line measurement of the 90% point of a gasoline-blending component is best done
using a:
32
Morning Session
103. A differential pressure transmitter (LT-100) is used to monitor the level in a horizontal
storage vessel (V-100) that contains hot water. The vessel is manually filled and drained
by valves V-1 and V-2. The pressure taps on the vessel for LT-100 are 60 inches apart and
the transmitter is mounted 10 inches below the bottom process tap. The transmitter’s
process tubing is routed 10 feet horizontally before dropping vertically to the transmitter.
(A) 19.2
(B) 37.2
(C) 55.7
(D) 60.0
33
104. You must provide a tank gaging system for a liquefied natural gas (LNG) tank. LNG is a
cryogenic liquid and is stored at near atmospheric pressure. Under certain conditions, the
LNG can stratify and potentially lead to unsafe conditions. The best choice to provide
reliable, safe operation of the LNG tank would be:
(A) Radar type with independent multi-point temperature indication that provides a
temperature profile of the tank
(B) Differential pressure with multiple temperature indicators located at low liquid
level around the diameter of the tank
(C) Servo-type that provides liquid level plus temperature and density profiles
(D) Float type with an independent multi-point temperature for tank temperature
profile and hydrostatic density indication
105. A liquid with an S.G. of 0.8 flows to a pump at 100 psig. The viscosity of the liquid is 3 cP,
the molecular weight is 94, and the temperature is 15°C. The pump supplies 100 ft. of
head. Piping losses are insignificant. The pressure (psig) at the inlet to the control valve
will be most nearly:
(A) 35
(B) 44
(C) 135
(D) 154
106. TK-1 has a capacity of 30,000 barrels (US). It is required to fill TK-1 in 6 hours. FV-1 will
need to be sized for a flow rate (gpm) of most nearly:
(A) 3,500
(B) 5,000
(C) 7,143
(D) 21,000
34
Morning Session
107. Which of the following Gas Chromatograph (GC) detector types is most appropriate for
measuring low concentrations of sulfur in hydrocarbon fuels?
108. Which pair of devices listed below are most likely to be hazardous gas/gas environment
detectors?
109. A safety barrier limits the energy transfer to a hazardous location by limiting the
maximum current (using a fuse) and shunting any high-voltage faults in the safe area to a
safety ground (through Zener diodes).
Which of the following considerations does NOT apply to a shunt Zener Diode barrier?
110. A control loop of a DCS consists of an isolated 4–20 mA output and a grounded control
element. A remote indicating device must be installed between the DCS and the control
element. The indicating device has an input range of 1-5 V and is referenced to ground.
Which of the following components (I/I is a current-to-current converter) is/are required
to give a full-scale reading of the indicating device without affecting the control element?
35
111. Which of the following statements about wireless (radio) data transmission systems for
use in plantwide data collection and control applications is false?
112. Which of the following practices is important in routing fiber optic cable?
(A) Laying cable in trays with high-horsepower motor wiring should be avoided
(B) Conduit fittings that required small-radius bends should be avoided
(C) Overhead runs on messenger wires should be limited to 75 feet
(D) Underground fiber optic runs must be covered with concrete
113. What is the principle advantage of a fieldbus installation over traditional 4–20 mA with
HART protocol?
I Ring
II Star
III Bus
IV Mesh
(A) I * IV
(B) I * II
(C) II * IV
(D) All of these
36
Morning Session
115. A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, is now being considered for a
liquid service application.
The valve coefficient Cv for the original service conditions is approximately equal to:
(A) 4.8
(B) 6.9
(C) 8.5
(D) 10.4
116. Which of the following statements about control-valve installation practices is false?
(A) At least 10-20 pipe diameters of straight run inlet piping should be provided
upstream of control valves.
(B) At least 3-5 pipe diameters of straight run piping should be provided
downstream of control valves.
(C) Diaphragm-actuated control valves must be installed with the stem in a vertical
(upward) position.
(D) Valves must be installed with the flow arrow in the correct direction.
37
117. Which of the following statements about control-valve installation practices is false?
(A) If the material is not hazardous, vent lines are not needed for fluid trapped
between stop valves.
(B) Valves must be located where an operator can see indicators or gages needed for
manual control.
(C) Lines should be flushed or blown out before valve installation.
(D) Higher flow velocities are allowed in gas lines than in liquid or steam lines.
118. A suggestion is made that a rising stem globe valve should be replaced with a rotary stem
ball valve. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The ball valve Cv would likely be too large for the application.
(B) The piping would need to be changed because the ball valve will likely be longer
than the globe valve.
(C) Using a ball valve would not allow use of a diaphragm-type actuator.
(D) Ball valves are not used for modulating control.
119. The applicable ASME (American Society of Mechanical Engineers) code limits the
maximum superimposed constant backpressure on pressure relief devices to what value?
38
Morning Session
120. What is the maximum vessel pressure (in psig) allowed by ASME Code Section VIII
when only PSV-1 is in service and relieving?
FLARE HEADER
PSV PSV
1 2
PCV
CSO CSO
GAS FLOW
OUT
GAS FLOW
IN
NLL LC
10 FT.
4 FT.
LV
LIQUID OUT
Vessel Data:
Max Allowable Working Pressure (MAWP): 200 psig
Dimensions: 4’ OD, 10’ cylinder, elliptical heads
Normal liquid level: 3.5’
Operating pressure: 150 psig
Operating temperature: 100°F
Process Data:
Inlet gas flow: 80,000 lb/hr Liquid flow: 60 gpm
Molecular weight: 19 SG: 0.590
(A) 200
(B) 210
(C) 220
(D) 230
39
121. What is the most acceptable, cost-effective method for protecting a safety relief valve in
corrosive service?
40
Morning Session
122. How would you insert a DCS RUN/STOP using a single DO into a motor control that
uses a local momentary START/STOP where the local stop can shut down the motor?
M
MX MX
RUN STOP
STATUS
M
MX MX
RUN/STOP
STATUS
RUN/STOP
STATUS
M
MX MX
STOP RUN
STATUS
41
123. An HVAC blower has a shutdown from a building fire detection/protection panel for
Confirmed Fire. Which of the following motor controls is the most correct?
LCL HVAC
EMER EMER HOA PANEL FIRE
STOP STOP DETECTED
H RUN/STOP N
A)
LCL SIS OFF STOP
AUTO
M
HAND
MX
EOL
STATUS
LCL HVAC
EMER EMER HOA PANEL FIRE
STOP STOP DETECTED
H RUN/STOP N
B)
LCL SIS OFF STOP
AUTO
M
HAND
MX
STATUS
LCL HVAC
EMER EMER HOA PANEL FIRE
STOP STOP DETECTED
H RUN/STOP N
C)
LCL SIS OFF STOP
AUTO
M
HAND
MX
EOL
STATUS
LCL HVAC
EMER EMER HOA PANEL FIRE
STOP STOP DETECTED
H RUN/STOP N
D)
LCL SIS OFF STOP
AUTO
M
HAND
MX
STATUS
42
Morning Session
124. According to ANSI/ISA-5.1-2009, which of the following is the symbol for a pressure-
reducing regulator with an external pressure tap:
125. The logic diagram on the next page depicts the control scheme for an acid injection pump
used to control the pH in a plant water system. The control of the pump is performed
exclusively by a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC). The HOA local hand switch is
spring return to OFF from the HAND position.
The combination of OR-gate “C” with AND-gate “D” is commonly referred to as:
43
44
Morning Session
126. Refer to the sketch shown below, where two liquid feed streams are combined for a
certain mixing operation to produce a single stream (product).
INPUT STREAM #1
PRODUCT OUT
INPUT STREAM #2
Based on the conservation requirements, what are the degrees of freedom of this system?
(A) One degree of freedom
(B) Two degrees of freedom
(C) Three degrees of freedom
(D) None of the above
45
127. The response of a system to a 1-unit step input is shown below.
Assuming that the system can be described by a second-order differential equation, the
damping ratio is most nearly:
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.7
46
Morning Session
128. Estimate the integral time setting and period of the resulting damped oscillation that
minimizes the Integrated Absolute Error (IAE) from a load disturbance for a process with
the following dynamics:
129. According to ISA-5.5-1985 concerning graphic symbols for use on Visual Display Units
(VDUs), the generic term for cathode-ray tube or solid-state display devices, which of the
following statements is true?
47
130. Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is installing for
personnel protection.
The maximum permissible level of H2S for an 8-hour (weighted average) exposure is 20
ppm (parts per million). A dose of 150 ppm or more for a short time can cause permanent
injury or possibly death. The human nose can detect 1 ppm levels but is desensitized
quickly with continuing exposure.
The range of the H2S analyzer is 0-20 ppm. The most appropriate setting for the alarm
point (in ppm) would be:
(A) 0 - 4.9
(B) 5.0 - 9.9
(C) 10.0 - 14.9
(D) 15.0 or higher
131. A poorly tuned PID control loop has consistently responded too slowly to load
disturbances because of a noise-free, but slow measurement device. An appropriate
action to accelerate the disturbance response would be to:
132. A poorly tuned PID control loop has consistently overcompensated for low humidity
conditions in a humidity-controlled room by injecting too much steam into the air supply
duct. An appropriate action to reduce the overshoot problem would be to:
48
Morning Session
(A) A percentage (between 0 and 100) used to define the availability requirements of a
safety instrumented function.
(B) A discrete number (one through four) used to define the performance
requirements of a safety instrumented function.
(C) A probability (between 0 and 1) used to define the likelihood of a dangerous
failure of a safety instrumented function.
(D) A percentage (between 0 and 100) used to define the ratio of the safe failure rate
and the total failure rate.
136. What are the best factors to base safety system test intervals on?
49
137. Which is the best reason for performing Management of Change?
138. According to ISA-5.2-1976 (R1992)-Binary Logic Diagrams for Process Operations, which
of the following statements about this standard is false?
(A) The symbols defined in this standard can be used to implement logic functions in
any type of hardware — electronic, electric, fluidic, pneumatic, mechanical, etc.
(B) Symbols from different standards cannot be used in the same logic diagram.
(C) The flow of intelligence in a logic diagram is normally left to right, top to bottom.
(D) The term “valve closed” is not the same as “valve not open.”
140. Coal grinding areas in a coal-fired steam power plant would be classified under
hazardous area provisions of the National Electric Code (NEC) as:
50
Afternoon Session
51
501. A differential pressure transmitter (LT-100) is used to monitor the level in a horizontal
storage vessel (V-100) that contains hot water. The vessel is manually filled and drained
by valves V-1 and V-2. The pressure taps on the vessel for LT-100 are 60 inches apart and
the transmitter is mounted 10 inches below the bottom process tap. The transmitter’s
process tubing is routed 10 feet horizontally before dropping vertically to the transmitter.
If LI-100 initially reads 50 percent and the pressure increases by 10 percent, the new
reading of LI-100 at steady-state conditions would be (in percent):
(A) 0
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60
52
Afternoon Session
503. The flow of water in a 4-inch steel pipe is measured with an orifice plate and a differential
pressure transmitter. At a flow rate of 120 gallons per minute (GPM), the differential
pressure is 27 inches of water. At a flow rate of 176 GPM, the differential pressure will be
most nearly equal to
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 39
(D) 58
504. For measuring the flow of raw sewage in a 4-inch steel pipe at a flow rate of 150 gpm,
which of the following sensing devices will provide the most reliable and maintenance-
free installation?
53
505. A tank level is measured using a differential pressure transmitter and a bubbler tube. The
tank is vented to the atmosphere. The bubbler tube bottom is 1 foot above the tank
bottom; the tank wall is 20 feet high. A 0-10 psi differential pressure gauge, accurate to
0.25 percent of full scale, is connected to the bubbler tube connection at the high-pressure
side of the transmitter. The low-pressure side of the transmitter is connected to the tank
top.
When the water level in the tank is 14 feet, the gauge reading in pounds per square inch
(psi) is most nearly equal to
(A) 5.6
(B) 6.1
(C) 6.5
(D) 13.0
507. For a gas-fired heater, the best choice for flame detection is a:
54
Afternoon Session
508. Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is installing for
personnel protection.
Assuming no mechanical problems or other limitations at the site, where should a field
sensor be placed to provide the earliest possible warning of an excessive concentration of
H2S?
511. Comparing unshielded twisted pairs (UTP) with shielded twisted pairs (STP) for data
transmission in a control system, which of the following statements is false?
55
512. According to IEEE Standard 802.3, CSMA/CD Networks, a data transmission medium
labeled “10BASE5” can be used up to:
56
Afternoon Session
515. A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a
liquid service application.
In the new service, assuming the maximum Cv = 12, the maximum flow in gallons per
minute (gpm) is:
(A) 30.7
(B) 34.2
(C) 37.9
(D) 42.2
57
516. Consider a gas flow control loop in manual, with the initial process conditions (A =
upstream and B = downstream) as given in the figure below. All conditions remain
constant other than the changes specified in each question. Subscripts 1 and 2 refer to the
old and new conditions, respectively.
If only the open flow area (X) of the valve increased, which of the following best
describes how the mass flow (F) would change?
(A) F2 = F1(X1/X2)0.5
(B) F2 = F1(X2/X1)0.5
(C) F2 = F1(X2/X1)
(D) F2 = F1(X2/X1)2
517. Which of the following statements about control-valve installation practices is false?
58
Afternoon Session
518. You are to engineer a motor control system in a relay-based motor controller in the DCS
with the following requirements:
How are the I/O to be configured and wired into the motor control circuit?
H
STOP STOP STOP STOP START
LCL SIS STARTER
N
M
STATUS- DI LATCHED MX
START- DO MOMENTARY MX
STOP- DO MOMENTARY
STATUS
DCS
START
B. H
EMER
STOP
EMER
STOP
LCL
STOP
DCS
STOP
LCL
START N
LCL SIS STARTER
M
STATUS- DI LATCHED MX
START- DO LATCHED MX
STOP- DO MOMENTARY
STATUS
DCS
START
C. H
EMER
STOP
EMER
STOP
LCL
STOP
LCL
START
DCS
STOP
STARTER N
LCL SIS
M
STATUS-LATCHED
START/STOP LATCHED MX MX
STATUS
DCS
START
D. H
EMER
STOP
EMER
STOP
HOA LCL
OFF STARTER N
LCL SIS
RUN
M
STATUS-LATCHED AUTO
START
START/STOP LATCHED STOP STATUS
59
519. A new pump was installed with the motor control, shown in the figure below, with a low
flow shutdown. The wiring and pump rotation was confirmed during checkout. When
operation went to place the pump in service, the pump will not start. What is the most
likely cause?
M
MX
MX
DCS
START
STATUS
(A) The low flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay on
relay.
(B) The flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay off
relay.
(C) The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay off
relay.
(D) The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay on
relay.
60
Afternoon Session
521. Which of the following diagrams shows the best scheme for double-acting, fail-last-
position actuation of the process valve?
KEY:
I.A.
I.A. INSTRUMENT AIR
SOLENOID VALVE
C O PISTON ACTUATOR
PISTON ACTUATOR
(B)
(with spring return)
I.A.
FC FC
O C O VENT C O VENT
FC FC
61
522. According to ISA-5.1-1984(R1992), which of the following is the symbol for a discrete
instrument, not accessible to an operator, in an auxiliary location?
523. Which of the following Boolean statements (using the notation “+” means “OR” and “ • ”
means “AND”) describes the operation of the logic circuit shown in the following
diagram?
(A) M = A + (B • C • D)
(B) M = A + B + (C • D)
(C) M = A • (B + (C • D))
(D) M = A + (B • (C + D))
A
M
B D
62
Afternoon Session
Data List:
s+4
1. Gs(s) = system transfer function = -----------------------------
2
s + 6s + 13
K(s + 3)
2. Gc(s) = controller transfer function = --------------------
s(s + 1)
For which values of K is the system stable?
I The two data items obtained from a closed-loop test and used in tuning parameter
calculation are the period and amplitude of oscillation.
II The tuning parameters obtained from a closed-loop test are likely to be more accurate
than those determined from an open-loop test.
III It is necessary to observe the process for many cycles (say, 10 or more) to be sure that
the oscillation is neither decaying nor increasing.
IV The engineer conducting a closed-loop test has no control over the amplitude of the
oscillation.
(A) I and III
(B) I, II, and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV
63
526. Compared to a control loop with no dead time (pure time delay), a control loop with an
appreciable dead time tends to require:
528. Which of the following tuning criteria would be most appropriate for designing a
controller to regulate the temperature in the room where you are now sitting?
64
Afternoon Session
529. A Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) is used to start a motor using the circuit shown
below.
OUT 1
IN 1 IN 2 IN 3
M M
MOTOR
IN 4 STARTER
Which of the following logic statements will cause the motor to start running and
continue running after the start contact closes and then reopens?
65
530. What effect does timer “A” have on the pump control?
66
Afternoon Session
531. Which ISA standard gives requirements for the specification, design, installation,
operation and maintenance of safety instrumented systems?
(A) 5.1
(B) 50
(C) 84
(D) 88
532. What is the objective of factory acceptance testing of a safety instrumented system?
(A) To test that the hardware and software satisfy the requirements defined in the
safety requirements specification.
(B) To test and document that the facility fabricating the system is qualified to
perform the required work.
(C) To test that field devices are operational before placing them in service.
(D) To create test procedures that will be used during the life of the system to verify
functionality.
533. The fundamental goal of any Safety Integrity Level selection study is to ensure that
534. A control system employs three sensors, each having a failure probability of 0.02 in 6
months of operation. The system can function properly when any two or more of the
sensors are working, but it must shut down if two or three of the sensors fail.
The probability that the system can operate for 6 months without a shutdown is most
nearly equal to:
(A) 0.9412
(B) 0.9600
(C) 0.9800
(D) 0.9988
67
535. According to ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Application of Safety Instrumented Systems for the
Process Industries, which of the following statements is false?
(A) The logic solver shall be separated from the Basic Process Control Systems except
where some applications have combined control and safety functions in one logic
solver.
(B) The sensors for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the sensors
for the Basic Process Control System.
(C) The final elements for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the
final elements for the Basic Process Control System.
(D) Changes for the Safety Instrumented System shall not be allowed from the SIS
operator interface.
536. What is the primary reason for visually inspecting safety systems?
538. The OSHA Process Safety Management Directive, 29CFR, Part 1910, addresses all the
following EXCEPT:
68
Afternoon Session
The system design shall upgrade the burner management functions on a 50,000,000 Btu/hr,
two-burner, gas-fired boiler to current NFPA standards. Igniters will be interrupted
(turned off) when the timed trial for ignition of the main burner expires. PLC inputs and
outputs will de-energize to shut off (trip) fuel to the boiler.
540. Loop drawings for a petrochemical process plant should be signed by:
69
APPENDIX C
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This appendix contains solutions and/or answers to the questions contained
in Appendix B.
Comments about the questions and answers will be appreciated. They should
be sent to the Director of Credentialing Services, ISA, P.O. Box 12277,
Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 for forwarding to the CSE examination
committee.
71
ANSWERS
QUESTION
QUESTION
QUESTION
QUESTION
CORRECT
CORRECT
CORRECT
CORRECT
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
101 D 121 C 501 C 521 D
102 C 122 B 502 D 522 A
103 C 123 A 503 D 523 D
104 C 124 B 504 B 524 A
105 C 125 C 505 A 525 D
106 A 126 B 506 D 526 A
107 C 127 B 507 D 527 C
108 C 128 D 508 A 528 D
109 C 129 C 509 A 529 B
110 D 130 B 510 D 530 B
111 A 131 D 511 C 531 C
112 B 132 A 512 C 532 A
113 D 133 B 513 D 533 C
114 C 134 D 514 B 534 D
115 D 135 D 515 D 535 C
116 C 136 B 516 C 536 C
117 A 137 D 517 B 537 B
118 A 138 B 518 A 538 A
119 A 139 D 519 C 539 D
120 C 140 D 520 D 540 B
72
Answers - Morning Session
101. For this control application, the best choice is an orifice plate. The correct answer is (D).
102. The “90% point” is a boiling characteristic of a hydrocarbon liquid. Thus, the only
suitable analyzer is a boiling point analyzer. The other instruments measure different
characteristics of materials. The correct answer is (C).
109. The correct answer is (C). Zener diode barriers are inexpensive and easy to use. The other
statements are true.
73
110. The correct answer is (D).
The 4–20 mA signal will require a 250-ohm resistor to provide a 1- to 5-volt input to the
indicator. To ensure no adverse effects to the control signal, based on the input
impedance, an I:I repeater should be used.
CONTROL
DCS
ELEMENT
I/I
250 ohm
INDIC.
111. The correct answer is (A). Wireless systems with a large number of links or channels in a
limited radio frequency spectrum can interfere with each other; there is no limit on the
possible number of wired or cable channels.
(B) is true. Wireless systems do not require conduit or cable trays to be routed through
the plant in order to connect a multitude of inputs to controllers and central processors;
many functions are built into the wireless system components.
(C) is true. Sensors and controllers in a wireless system still need power to perform their
functions.
(D) is true. By means of channel hopping, encryption, resending data packets, etc.,
wireless systems can be given a high degree of immunity to electrical noise.
112. The correct answer is (B) since the fiber can be broken by a small-radius bend.
74
Answers - Morning Session
QG GTZ-
C V = ---------------------- ----------
1360P 1 Y X
Where
ΔP
X = Pressure Drop Ratio X = ------- = 50 ⁄ 315 = .16
P1
2
X T = .85F L (FL depends on valve style) = .85(.85)2 = .61 (.85 for globe valve and
.6 for ball valves)
P1 = Inlet pressure (psia) = 315 psia
The gas sizing equation may be simplified when a certain condition exists:
When: X is less than .1 and in this case, the X value is only .16, so a simplified
solution may be obtained.
QG GT
C V = --------- -------------------------------- = ( 60,000 ⁄ 963 ) × sq.rt. [ ( 1.52 × 580 ) ⁄ 50 × ( 315 + 265 ) ]
963 ΔP ( P 1 + P 2 )
Where
ΔP = P 1 – P 2 = 50 psi
P2 = Outlet Pressure (psia) = 265 psia
G = Specific Gravity (If the molecular weight of the gas is known, the SG
may be calculated by dividing by the molecular weight of Air – 29)
= 44/29 = 1.52
75
116. The correct answer is (C); putting valve stems in a vertical position is a common practice
but is not an absolute requirement for all situations. (See J.W. Hutchison, ISA Handbook
of Control Valves, 2nd Ed., 1976, p. 353.)
117. The correct answer is (A); vent lines should be provided so that personnel or equipment
will not be inadvertently sprayed, even with harmless material, when a vent valve is
opened. (See J. W. Hutchison, pp. 336-337.)
118. (A) is the correct answer. Ball valves usually have larger Cv for the same size body than
globe valves.
(B) – Piping might need to be revised, but ball valves are usually shorter than the same
size globe valve.
(C) – Ball valves often use piston actuators, but can use diaphragm-type actuators as well.
(D) – Ball valves are often used for on/off control, but are also used for modulating
control.
119. The correct answer is (A). AMSE Section VIII – Division 1, UG-134, Pressure Setting of
Pressure Relief Devices, (d) says: The pressure at which any device is set to operate shall
include the effects of static head and constant backpressure.
120. The correct answer is (C). The maximum vessel pressure with one valve in service is 110
percent of MAWP (10 percent accumulation) or 1.1 * 200 = 220 psig.
122. The correct answer is (B). A single maintained contact is to be placed between the
Emergency STOP SIS and the local STOP and after the local START.
123. The correct answer is (A). The typical fire detection/protection panel outputs are
normally closed and supervised. See NFPA-74. Therefore, motor control A is the only
correct answer.
76
Answers - Morning Session
124. The correct answer is (B). (A) is a pressure-reducing regulator, self-contained; (C) is a
backpressure regulator, self-contained, and (D) is a backpressure regulator with an
external tap.
*Material balance: F3 = F1 + F2
Any two of the flows can be specified; the third flow must satisfy the material balance.
0.5815 – 0.500
127. The overshoot is ------------------------------------ × 100 = 16.3%
0.500
From standard response curves, the damping ratio is approximately 0.5, one-half of
critical damping. Alternately, the damping ratio (ξ) can be calculated from this equation:
2
– πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ
16.3 = 100e
2
πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ 100
e = ---------- = 6.135
16.3
2
πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ = ln 6.135 = 1.814
2 2 2 2
π ξ = 3.29 ( 1 – ξ ) ; ξ ( 9.87 + 3.29 ) = 3.29;
2
ξ = 0.25 ; ξ = 0.5
77
128. The correct answer is (D). The equation for the integral time setting for integral-only
control is in the book Feedback Controllers for the Process Industries (F. G. Shinskey) on page
158, CASE I, “Integral Alone with T1 = 0 (primary time constant is zero).”
Kp = 28/20 = 1.4
129. The correct answer is (C); statements II and III are true. Statement I is false because flows
can be in any direction; recycle flows will be right-to-left if the main flows are left-to-
right, and some flows are vertical, up or down. Statement IV is a common but not
universal convention; the convention can vary from company to company or industry to
industry.
130. The alarm point should be set above the noise or background level, perhaps caused by
small, intermittent releases of H2S, and well below the prescribed maximum permissible
level. Of the choices given, the best is 5-9.9 ppm. The correct answer is (B).
131. The correct answer is (D) since derivative action in a relatively noise-free system allows
the controller to anticipate the effects of a load disturbance and take pre-emptive action.
Action I might also work, but there is nothing to indicate that action III is required as
well.
132. The correct answer is (A) since all the other tuning objectives would require overshoot,
which is stated to be undesirable. This question deals with important tuning criteria other
than the classical ¼-wave decay criteria favored by Ziegler and Nichols.
133. The correct answer is (B). Based on clause 3.2.74 of ISA 84.
134. The correct answer is (D). Based on clauses 3.2.74, 9.2.2, 10.3.1 (and more) of ISA 84.
135. The correct answer is (D). Based on clause 3.2.76 of ISA 84.
136. The correct answer is (B). Based on clauses 16.3.1.3 and 11.9.2 of ISA 84.
78
Answers - Morning Session
137. The correct answer is (D). Based on clause 17.1.1 of ISA 84.
138. The correct answer is (B), which is a false statement. Symbols from different standards
can be used in the same diagram IF they are clearly defined.
139. Because water hoses may be used for house cleaning purposes, watertight (NEMA 4)
enclosures are desirable. General-purpose (1), drip tight (2), weatherproof (3), and dust
tight (5) enclosures are not indicated. The correct answer is (D).
140. Class II, Group F is for areas where coal dust is present. The correct answer is (D).
79
501. Since the differential pressure measurement provides for pressure fluctuation and water
is an incompressible fluid, the level measurement remains unchanged. The correct
answer is (C).
502. If a single differential pressure transmitter was used, mounted at one of the platforms,
the connecting lines would be significantly different in length. Extraneous effects, e.g.,
temperature or gravity head, could adversely affect the accuracy. Therefore, two pressure
transmitters should be used. The correct answer is (D).
2
ΔP 2 F 2
---------- = ------
ΔP 1 F 1
176 2
or ΔP 2 = ( 27 ) --------- = 58.1 in. of H 2 O
120
504. For a stream containing solids, the best choice is a flow sensor that offers a minimum
obstruction to the flowing stream, that is, a magnetic flowmeter. The correct answer is
(B).
62.4
505. The pressure reading is ( 14 – 1 ) ---------- = 5.6 psi . The correct answer is (A).
144
506. The correct answer is (D). All the listed factors influence the accuracy of measurements
made with orifice-type elements.
508. Hydrogen sulfide (MW = 44) is heavier than air (MW ≅ 29), therefore its concentration is
highest close to the ground. For early detection, the field sensor (analyzer inlet) should be
as close to the ground as possible, that is, one foot. The correct answer is (A).
509. Fiber optic data transmissions is immune to electromagnetic disturbances. The other
media listed are electrical and, therefore, subject in varying degrees to electromagnetic
disturbances. The correct answer is (A).
80
Answers - Afternoon Session
511. Answer (C) is false and is, therefore, the correct answer. Some LAN vendors insist on
STP.
512. According to IEEE 802.3, the designation “10BASE5” refers to millions of bits per second
and distances in hundreds of meters. The correct answer is (C).
515. For the new service conditions, using the maximum CV = 12, the maximum flow can be
calculated using this equation (Eq. 1, ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-1985):
G
C V = Q -------
ΔP
ΔP 10
q = C v ------- = 12 ---------- = 42.2 gpm
G 0.81
81
516. The mass flow is directly proportional to open area of valve, the density and the fluid
velocity.
M1 = ρ1 A1 V1: Mass Flow is equal to the density times the area times the velocity.
M2 = ρ2 A2 V2: Same for condition 2.
Use F for M and X for A and get a ratio with no changes in density or velocity.
F2 /F1 = ρ2 X2 V2/ρ1 X1 V1
Since ρ2 = ρ1 and V2 = V1
F2 = F1 * X2/X1
517. The correct answer is (B). In some cases, the best action is to hold the previous position, at
least in the short term.
518. The correct answer is (A). On loss of power, the MX contact opens and the motor will
remain off until either the local or DCS start is activated and the motor starter pulls in
sealing in the circuit.
82
Answers - Afternoon Session
ON
POWER
OFF
CLOSED
NO
OPEN
CLOSED
NC
OPEN
TIMER
Off Delay
ON
POWER
OFF
CLOSED
NO
OPEN
CLOSED
NC
OPEN
TIMER
Flow Switch
Bypass active
POWER ON
The startup bypass could be either an On Delay Relay with a Normally Open contact or
an Off Delay Relay with a Normally Closed contact. The Off Delay Relay with a
Normally Closed contact is not fail-safe because the normally closed contact will bypass
the Low Flow shutdown. The On Delay Relay typically requires a 0.5 second power pulse
to start the timer, which in turn energizes the relay and the contacts change state (i.e., the
normally open contact closes). Therefore, the On Delay Relay is a fail-safe design and the
only solution.
83
520. The correct answer is (D). A double-acting actuator must be given power to open and
again to shut. A fail-safe device, if not already in safe mode, will go into safe mode on its
own when it loses signal/control power.
521. The correct answer is (D). Blocks in the pressure on solenoid failure. If momentarily
actuated, is immune to loss of instrument air as well.
Distracters:
(A) – Fails closed.
(B) – Fails closed if solenoid fails. Unpredictable on loss of air. Also, will not actuate in
both directions.
(C) – Almost works, but it may move when failed if the process exerts force on the valve.
84
Answers - Afternoon Session
s4 1 19 + K 12K
s3 7 13 + 7K
s2 a b 7 ( 19 + K ) – ( 13 + 7K )
a = -------------------------------------------------------
7
133 + 7K – 13 – 7K
= ------------------------------------------------
7
120
= ---------
7
s1 c b = 12K
0
s d a ( 13 + 7K ) – 7b
c = ----------------------------------------
a
7
= 13 + 7K – 7 ( 12K ) ---------
120
= 13 + 7K – 4.9K
= 13 + 2.1K
d = b = 12K
The first column will be positive when c > 0 and d > 0. The first condition requires
K > – 6.2; the second requires K > 0.
525.
I False – The parameters are the period of the oscillation and the gain needed to
produce the oscillation.
II True
III False – 3 or 4 cycles are sufficient.
IV True
85
526. The correct answer is (A).
Pure time delay requires a reduction in both proportional gain and integral action.
(See D. R. Coughanowr and L. B. Koppel, Process Systems Analysis and Control, McGraw-
Hill, 1965, pp. 312–314, where the Cohen-Coon tuning formulas are discussed. The
equations show Kc varying inversely with dead time, which means that the integral
action decreases with dead time.)
528. The correct answer is (D) because a room’s temperature is to be maintained in spite of
load disturbances. This question deals with the difference between tuning for set-point
tracking or disturbance rejection.
530. The correct answer is (B). Note that the “NOT” element at the input to the following
“AND” element.
533. The correct answer is (C). Based on clauses 3.4 and 3.5 of Part 3 of ANSI/ISA-84.00.01
(IEC 61511-3 Mod).
86
Answers - Afternoon Session
535. The correct answer is (C). ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Section 7.4.3.1 only mandates separate
valves for SIL 3 (Safety Integrity Level 3). The other statements are true.
537. The correct answer is (B). Based on OSHA PSM regulation (29 CFR 1910.119), not
specifically referenced in ISA-84.
538. The correct answer is (A). Transportation of hazardous chemicals is covered by 49CFR,
Parts 100-185, and is a concern of the Department of Transportation (DOT), not OSHA.
Distracters: (B), (C) and (D) are covered by 29CFR, Part 1910, and are concerns of OSHA.
539. The correct answer is (D). This is required by NFPA Standard 85C and precludes the
selection of (A), (B), or (C). In addition, most PLC manufacturers recommend an external
master relay to remove all power from field devices in an emergency.
540. The correct answer is (B); the over-riding principle in this area is that the person
responsible for engineering designs should sign the drawings. Signatures by other people
will not hurt, but they are not required.
87
APPENDIX D
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS
89
SERIAL
NAME:_________________________________
Last First Middle
Initial
DISCIPLINE
Control Systems
91
NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EXAMINERS FOR ENGINEERING AND SURVEYING
YOU ARE PROHIBITED FROM COPYING THE PROBLEMS FOR FUTURE REFERENCE;
93
NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EXAMINERS FOR ENGINEERING & SURVEYING
TEST DATE 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Month Day Year
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
LOCATION 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
City State
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
3 LAST NAME 4 DATE OF BIRTH 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
First 5 letters MONTH DAY 19 YEAR 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Jan 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Feb 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Mar 0 0 0 0
A A A A A Apr 1 1 1 1
B B B B B May 2 2 2 2 5 I am taking 6 Board from which
C C C C C Jun 3 3 3 3 the test in the registration is sought
D D D D D Jul 4 4 4 4 following discipline:
E E E E E Aug 5 5 5 5 (mark one) Ala. La. Ohio
F F F F F Sep 6 6 6 6 Combined Alaska Maine Okla.
G G G G G Oct 7 7 7 7 Chemical Ariz. Mass. Oreg.
H H H H H Nov 8 8 8 8 Civil Ark. Md. Pa.
I I I I I Dec 9 9 9 9 Electrical Calif. Mich. P.R.
J J J J J Mechanical Colo. Minn. R.I.
K K K K K Sanitary Conn. Miss. S.C.
L L L L L 7 If you are a graduate of Structural D.C. Mo. S. Dak
M M M M M an engineering or science Del. Mont. Tenn.
related curriculum Aeronautical/
N N N N N Fla. MP Tex.
O O O O O Aerospace
19 Ga. N.C. Utah
P P P P P Indicate Agricultural Guam N. Dak Va.
Q Q Q Q Q
0 0 the last Control Systems Hawaii Nebr. V.I.
1 1 2 digits
R R R R R Fire Protection Idaho Nev. Vt.
of the
S S S S S 2 2 Industrial
year you Illinois N.H. Wash.
T T T T T 3 3 graduated Manufacturing Ind. N.J. W. Va
U U U U U 4 4 Metallurgical Iowa N. Mex. Wis.
V V V V V 5 5 Mining Kans. N.Y. Wyo.
W W W W W 6 6 Nuclear Ky.
X X X X X 7 7 Petroleum
Y Y Y Y Y 8 8 Special Struct. 1
Z Z Z Z Z 9 9 Other
8 Blacken the circle that best describes 9 I am taking the 10 PRINT INSIDE BOXED AREA
your Baccalaureate Degree test for the:
I AM A GRADUATE OF:
4 year Engineering First time
(ABET accredited) TEST BOOKLET SERIAL NUMBER
(from top right corner of book)
4 year Engineering Technology
(ABET accredited) Second time
USE NO. 2 PENCIL ONLY
4 year Engineering
(not accredited) Third time
PRINCIPLES & PRACTICE
4 year Engineering Technology OF ENGINEERING
(not accredited)
Fourth time EXAMINATION ANSWER SHEET
(or more)
None of the above
Do not know
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