1. A network administrator is adding a new VLAN for testing.

The
company uses VTP and the VLAN is not directly attached to either
of the switches configured as VTP servers. What is the best
method to add this VLAN to the network?
 Change the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN
to be in VTP server mode.
 Configure a port on the VTP servers for the same VLAN as the
new VLAN.
 Manually add the VLAN to the VLAN database of the VTP
servers.*
 Configure interfaces on the switch that has connected hosts
in the new VLAN and reboot the switch.
2. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional
trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
 dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*
 dynamic auto – dynamic auto
 dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*
 dynamic desirable – trunk*
 access – trunk
 access – dynamic auto
3. Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?

 designated switch
 edge switch
 root bridge*
 enabled bridge
 local bridge
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the
bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which
 statement is correct based on the command output?

 The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a

predefined value to become the root bridge.*
 The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a
predefined value to become the backup root bridge.
 The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being
blocked and all switches believing they are the root.
 The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority
and the election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.
5. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers
to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
 The two routers must include the inter-router link network
in an OSPFv2 network command.*
 The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering
the ospf process area-id command.
 The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*
 The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
 The link interface subnet masks must match.*
 The link interface on each router must be configured with a
link-local address.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What are three resulting DR and DBR
elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)

 R4 is BDR for segment B.

 R4 is DR for segment B.
 R3 is DR for segment A.*
 R2 is DR for segment A.
 R3 is BDR for segment B.*
 R5 is DR for segment B.*
7. Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding
state? (Choose three.)
 listening*
 learning
 blocking*
 disabled*
 forwarding
8. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are
supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols.
Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?
 GLBP allows load balancing between routers.*
 It is nonproprietary.
 It uses a virtual router master.
 It works together with VRRP.
9. What are three features of EIGRP? (Choose three.)
 uses the Shortest Path First algorithm
 establishes neighbor adjacencies*
 uses the Reliable Transport Protocol*
 sends full routing table updates periodically
 broadcasts updates to all EIGRP routers
  supports equal and unequal cost load balancing*
10. Refer to the exhibit. What method can be used to enable an OSPF
router to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers?

 Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.

 Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.
 Use the redistribute static command on R0-A.
 Use the default-information originate command on ISP.
 Use the default-information originate command on R0-A.*
11. Refer to the exhibit.A network administrator has configured
OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. The routers are unable
to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the
problem?

 Implement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.

  Implement the command network 192.168.2.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
on router R2.
 Implement the command network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
on router R2.
 Change the router-id of router R2 to 2.2.2.2.
12. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
 when a router has less than five active interfaceswhen a
router has more than three active interfaces
 when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*
 when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three
minutes
 when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
13. What are the only two roles that permit an OSPF router to be
configured for summarization? (Choose two.)
 designated router
 backbone router
 internal router
 autonomous system boundary router*
 area border router*
14. A network engineer examining the operation of EIGRP on a router
notices that one particular route is in an active state. What can
the engineer determine about this route?
 Data packets to be sent to the specified network will be
forwarded on this route.
 The Diffusing Update Algorithm has determined a successor
and a feasible successor for this route.
 The EIGRP processes are still calculating the administrative
distance for this route.
 EIGRP query messages are being sent to other routers
requesting paths to this network.*
15. A network administrator is configuring EIGRP load balancing with
the commands:
Router(config)# router eigrp 1
Router(config-router)# variance 3
Router(config-router)# end
What is a direct result of entering these commands?
 Any feasible successor routes to the same destination
network with a metric, equal to or less than 3 times that of
the successor, will be installed in the routing table.*
 Up to three equal cost routes to the same destination can be
installed in the routing table.
 No matter whether the metric is equal or unequal, up to three
routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing
table.
  Up to three unequal cost routes to the same destination can
be installed in the routing table.
16. What is a key distinction between classful and classless routing
protocols?
 Classful routing protocols do not send subnet mask
information in their routing updates.*
 Classful routing protocols are better suited for implementation
in discontiguous networks.
 Classless routing protocols are not scalable.
 Classless routing protocols do not allow for route
summarization.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both
switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D
and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the
administrator take to enable this communication?

 Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

 Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.*
 Include a router in the topology.
 Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
 Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration
of SW2.
18. What is a characteristic of a fault tolerant network?
 a network that protects confidential information from
unauthorized access
 a network that can expand quickly to support new users and
applications without impacting the performance of the service
delivered to existing users
  a network that supports a mechanism for managing
congestion and ensuring reliable delivery of content to all
users
 a network that recovers quickly when a failure occurs and
depends on redundancy to limit the impact of a failure*
19. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a
switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of
using these keystrokes?
 to restart the ping process
 to interrupt the ping process*
 to exit to a different configuration mode
 to allow the user to complete the command
20. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of
segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged
between a web client and a web server?
 TCP*
 IP
 HTTP
 Ethernet
21. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by
an open standard?
 A company can monopolize the market.
 The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific
vendor.
 An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by
standards organizations.
 It encourages competition and promotes choices.*
22. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?
 cancellation*
 cladding
 immunity to electrical hazards
 woven copper braid or metallic foil
23. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2
data encapsulation? (Choose three.)
 error correction through a collision detection method
 session control using port numbers
 data link layer addressing*
 placement and removal of frames from the media
 detection of errors through CRC calculations *
 delimiting groups of bits into frames*
 conversion of bits into data signals
24. What are two examples of the cut-through switching
method? (Choose two.)
 store-and-forward switching
  fast-forward switching*
 CRC switching
 fragment-free switching*
 QOS switching
25. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B,
what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves
host A?

 DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
 172.168.10.99
 CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
 172.168.10.65
 BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB*
 AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
26. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a
destination IP address and subnet mask?
 to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
 to identify the host address of the destination host
 to identify faulty frames
 to identify the network address of the destination network*
27. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4
address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
 192.0.2.199
 198.51.100.201
 203.0.113.211*
 209.165.201.223
28. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved
for internal private use? (Choose three.)
 10.0.0.0/8*
 64.100.0.0/14
  127.16.0.0/12
 172.16.0.0/12*
 192.31.7.0/24
 192.168.0.0/16*
29. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6
address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
 2001:0:abcd::1
 2001:0:0:abcd::1*
 2001::abcd::1
 2001:0000:abcd::1
 2001::abcd:0:1
30. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an
IPv6-enabled interface?
 FEC0::/10
 FDEE::/7
 FE80::/10*
 FF00::/8
31. Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose
three.)
 198.133.219.17*
 192.168.1.245
 10.15.250.5
 128.107.12.117*
 192.15.301.240
 64.104.78.227 *
32. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
 UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer
functions.*
 UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at
Layer 3.
 UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
*
 UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide
sequencing or flow control mechanisms.*
 UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
 UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.
33. A network technician suspects that a particular network
connection between two Cisco switches is having a duplex
mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see the
Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?
 show mac-address-table
 show ip interface brief
 show interfaces*
 show running-config
34. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All
branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters
at all times. Which network technology is required to support this
requirement?
 LAN
 MAN
 WAN*
 WLAN
35. What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used
to create a default static route that will match any IPv6
destination?
 :/128
 FFFF:/128
 ::1/64
 ::/0*
36. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the
172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a
backup floating static route to this network?
 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
 ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*
 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
 ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance
value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16
network?

 1*
 0
  90
 20512256
38. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three
layer hierarchical model?
 provides access to the rest of the network through
switching, routing, and network access policies*
 distributes access to end users
 represents the network edge
 acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and
distributing network traffic throughout the campus
39. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is examining a
configuration implemented by a new intern who attached an IP
phone to a switch port and configured the switch. Identify the
issue, if any, with the configuration.

 The voice VLAN should be 150.

 The configuration is correct.*
 There must be a data VLAN added.
 The spanning-tree BPDU guard feature is missing.
 The switch port is not configured as a trunk.
40. Two employees in the Sales department work different
shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet
port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these
two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log
entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
 switchport mode access
switchport port-security
 switchport mode access*
switchport port-security*
switchport port-security maximum 2*
switchport port-security mac-address sticky*
switchport port-security violation restrict*
 switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
  switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect
41. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of
allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
 The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow
across the trunk
 Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
 Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk
 All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk*
42. The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in
the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate
network to access the sales data when they travel to meet
customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to
establish a remote VPN connection?
 VPN gateway
 VPN appliance
 VPN concentrator
 VPN client software*
43. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured
routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to
serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely
cause of the problem?

application
transport
network
data link*
physical
1. Refer to the exhibit. What is the network administrator verifying
when issuing the show ip interface brief command on R1 in respect
to the PPPoE connection to R2?

that the Dialer1 interface has been manually assigned an IP address

that the Dialer1 interface is up and up
that the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the
ISP router*
that the IP address on R1 G0/1 is in the same network range as the
DSL modem
2. Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the
ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255*
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255
3. Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block
has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and
public Internet from access to Records Server. All other users
within the school should have access to this server. The list
contains the following statements:
deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0

Which command sequence will place this list to meet these

requirements?
 Hera(config)# interface fa0/0
Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0

Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0

Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1

Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

Athena(config)# interface fa0/0

Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out*
4. A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web
server. The network administrator does not want any other host to
connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which
type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?
only a standard ACL
a standard or extended ACL
only an extended ACL
an extended, named, or numbered ACL
only a named ACL*
5. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA
communications? (Choose two.)
VTP
LLDP
HSRP
 RADIUS*
TACACS+*
6. What is the wildcard mask that is associated with the network
128.165.216.0/23?
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.254
0.0.1.255*
0.0.1.0
0.0.0.254
7. What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the
weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)
encryption*
authentication*
authorization with community string priority
ACL management filtering
bulk MIB objects retrieval