Cdi Lea Q and A

CABES, Kenneth E.
4A – BS.Criminology
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible

in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision

of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice
3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is

most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a

different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions

are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the

subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated

arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a

building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a

different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence

collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service
11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.

A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the

purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after

that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or

attempts to be present when they are committed, through the
use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping

or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
17.A police activity directed toward the identification and

apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their

alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose

of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation
20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably

discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur
21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,

date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae
23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where

crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.

A. opportunity denial
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence
24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty

fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling

short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering

of information regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
28.It means method of operation.

A. corpus delicti
B. parens patriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi
29.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be
shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their

application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the

investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled

evidence between the time of the commission of the alleged
offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to

a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence
33.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an

investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was

committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except

one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately

circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each

searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene

beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method
39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being

followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
40.Another term for tailing.

A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing
41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.

He may give the information openly and even offer to be a
witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly

conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a

crime,but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
44.An objective of criminal investigation.

A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the

development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of

a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapors varies from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can
begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum

in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to

cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to

A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is

either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic
fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not
poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially
when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the
behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain
metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,
textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
57.The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of
the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire
and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the
most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means
employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and
experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used
to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
66.These are description of materials or compounds that are
easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree
Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an
electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat
and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where
fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to

vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a
collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from
two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation
77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the
earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only
injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
79.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,
but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. D. traffic violation
83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course
or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
84.The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
85.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional
change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for
money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl
90.The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration
92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to
depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
93.The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
96.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the
seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine
97.Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or
dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs
99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature
alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information
to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects
101. America's most famous private investigator and founder of

Criminal Investigation.
A. Alec Nayhem
B. Allan Pinkerton
C. Thomas Byrnes
D. None of these
102. The first woman detective in the history of criminal investigation.

A. Kathleen Jacob
B. Candy Miles
C. Kate Wayne
D. Pines Hamilton
103. He was known to be the creator of the "bow street runners", a

group of police officers attached to the Bow Street Court, and not
in uniform, performing criminal investigative functions.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
104. The founder and chief organizer of the London Metropolitan Police,
the Scotland Yard, which became famous police organization
in the world.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
105. As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove anything at the crime
scene until the evidence has been processed through notes,
sketches and photographs, with proper measurements. This refers to
A. the golden rule in investigation
B. the number one SOP in investigation
C. the act of note taking
D. the act of crime scene preservation
106. An Englishman who published a handbook for Examining Magistrates

in Munich, Germany and advocated the use of scientific methods
in criminal investigation process.
A. Hans Gross
B. Thomas Byrnes
C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Francis Galton
107. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in

state criminal prosecutions in the famous case of
A. Miranda vs Arizona
B. Otit vs Jeff
C. Mapp vs Ohio
D. Milkey vs Wett
108. The continues accountability of persons handling evidences, and

having responsibility of taking care and preserving the evidences
from the time it was found until brought to court for presentation
is called
A. Chain of events
B. Key events
C. Chain of custody of evidence
D. Chain of command
109. In England, he was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a

master criminal who became London's most effective criminal
investigator. He was the most famous Thief-Catcher in 1720s.
A. Alexander Macanochie
B. Jonathan Wild
C. Billy Cook
D. John Howard
110. What is the Latin term for criminal intent?

A. Mens Rea
B. Magna Culpa
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Mala Vise
111. Combustion or burning in which substances combine chemically with

oxygen from the air and typically give out bright light,heat and
smoke.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
112. A hot glowing body of ignited gas that is generated by something

on fire.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
113. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of land or property.
A. Conflagration
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
114. Means on fire or very hot or bright.
A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
115. The rapid chemical combination of a substance with oxygen
involving the production of heat and light.
A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
116. The quality of being hot or high temperature at which fuel will
continue to burn for atleast 5 seconds after ignition by an open
flame.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
117. The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Light
D. Smoke
118. Is one of the 4 fundamental states of matter, the other being
solid,liquid and gas.
A. Flame
B. Plasma
C. Light
D. Smoke
119. The lowest temperature a which the vapor of a combustible liquid
can be ignited in air.
A. Flash point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
120. Is the temperature at which fuel will continue to burn for at least
five seconds after ignition by an open flame.
A. Flash point
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
121. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw
or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the
existing electrical system
A. self-closing door
B. jumper
C. overloading
D. oxidizing material
122. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor
to floor, as well as for the base to the top of the building is called
A. sprinkle evidence
B. vertical shaft
C. flash point
D. standpipe system
123. A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a fire

resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient
structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either
side collapses under the fire conditions.
A. Wood rack
B. Fire wall
C. Post wall
D. Fire trap
124. Any act that would remove or naturalized a fire hazard

A. Allotment
B. Combustion
C. Distillation
D. Abatement
125. The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant permits

and/or license by local governments or other government agencies.
A. Fire safety inspection
B. Fire protection assembly
C. Fire alerting system
D. Fire service
126. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated from
the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two hard
surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called.
A. static electricity
B. overheating of machine
C. friction heat
D. heat from arching
127. Method of heat transfer by direct contact

A. nuclear fission
B. conduction
C. convection
D. Radiation
128. Instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant

A. hydrant key
B. kilowatts
C. key board
D. bunch of key
129. Energy is transferred from one body to another by thermal

interactions.
A. Fire
B. Smoke
C. Heat
D. Ember
130.The transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement

of fluids.
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of the above
131. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to

traffic violation, the following procedures are followed except:
A. bring the suspended person before the court
B. detention of the arrested person may take place
C. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
132. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on

one of the following ground:
A. offense committed is serious
B. bringing the person to your custody
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of
violation
D. if the person is under the imminent danger
133. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the

following evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. hole on the road pavement
B. the driver under the influence of liquor
C. point of impact
D. vehicle has break failure
134. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is

A. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations

D. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive
measure for future violation
135. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to

A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than
as causes KVB
B. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors
as secondary causes
C. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to
the accident as a cause
D. look for the "key event" that cause the accident
136. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen

automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to
A. permit the promote issuance of new plate
B. prevent cards from being stolen
C. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
D. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of
these plates.
137. One of the following statements that best indicates the main
purpose of traffic law enforcement is
A. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
138. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with

accidents that involves one or both of the elements namely
A. motor vehicles and traffic way
B. motor vehicle and victim
C. victim and traffic way
D. victim and traffic unit
139. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officers
should be guided foremost by the consideration that
A. some traffic violation are intended
B. the aim is to discourage violations
C. same traffic violations are caused by negligence
D. violations must be punished
140. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces
in contract is known as:
A. coefficient of friction
B. traffic jam
C. attribute
D. contract damage
141. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision
course or otherwise avoid a hazard
A. state of evasive action
B. point of possible perception
C. point of no escape
D. final position
142. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal
to one or more persons.
A. non-fatal injury accident
B. fatal accident
C. traffic law enforcer
D. property damage accident
143. Which of the following types of accident is most decreased

by the installation of traffic light?
A. Cross traffic accidents
B. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officers
C. Accidents of confusion
D. Accidents of decision of right of way
144. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic

accidents than any other part in the area. The Police unit
assignment to the area should.
A. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators.
B. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to
caution motorist
C. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
D. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to
the intersection
145. Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which

is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley
wires, but not operated upon rails.
A. Skating
B. Bicycle
C. Tricycle
D. Motor vehicles
146. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights
are used on some intersection is that
A. motorist are discourage from "jumping signals"
B. traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
C. greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
D. an officer can stop and start as necessity demands
147. All lines, patterns, words, colors or other gadgets EXCEPT

signs set into the surface or applied upon or attached to the
pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of regulating
traffic is called _____
A. warning signs
B. traffic management
C. traffic engineering
D. pavement marking
148. Prohibitive traffic signs and restrictive traffic signs shall have
A. blue background and white symbols
B. a red background and white symbols and black border
C. white background with black symbols and red border
D. green background with white and black symbols
149. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine

shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor vehicle passes
through a street of any city, municipality or thickly populated
district or barrio.
A. wiper
B. light
C. muffler
D. windshield
150. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has been
ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route.
While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an
emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the
route while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances
the traffic police officer should.
A. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact
his superior and obtains decisions
B. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to
cross the street
C. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's order
D. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which
will add at least then minutes to run
151. The group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and
gives the general effect of mood distortion are generally called
A. Sedatives
B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
D. Tranquillizers
152. Drugs like glue, gasoline, kerosene, ether, paint, thinner, etc. are
called:
A. Solvents
B. Deliriants
C. Inhalants
D. All of these
153. Cocaine is a stimulant drug; LSD is a
A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic
C. Solvent
D. Depressant
154. What opium preparation is combined with camphor to produce a
household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain?
A. Tincture of opium
B. Raw opium
C. Paregoric
D. Granulated opium
155. The group of drugs that when introduced into the system of the
body can produce mental alertness and wakefulness
A. Stimulants
B. Uppers
C. Speeds
D. All of these
156. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used
by Mexican Indians to induce nausea and muscular relaxation is
called:
A. Psilocybin
B. STP
C. DMT
D. Ibogaine
157. What do you call the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Erythroxylon coca
B. Heroin
C. Beta Eucaine
D. Cocaine Hydrochloride
158. What is the most important constituent of opium?
A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
159. What drug is known as the "assassins of the youth"?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. Shabu
160. The presence of drug paraphernalia at the drug scene in the form
of syringe and needle, tourniquet, spoon or bottle top "cookies"
and tinfoil packet reveals that the drug being administered are:
A. tablet drugs
B. capsule drugs
C. liquid drugs
D. marijuana leaves
161. 64. From among the following, which is correct?
A. RA 6975, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on June 7, 2002
B. RA 9165, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on July 4, 2002
C. RA 6975, Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, took effect on
March 2, 1972
D. RA 6425, Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on
July 4, 2002
162.The drug that is obtained from the alkaloid of the leaves of the
Erythorxylon coca and the other species of Erthroxlon Linne, or by
synthesis from ecgoine and its derivatives is called:
A. Heroin
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
163. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication with out
smell of alcoholic breath is a sign that the suspected person is
under the influence of:
A. Amphetamine drug
B. Barbiturates
C. Hallucinogens
D. Narcotics
164. The burning of a small quantity of the suspected substance and
determining the odor or smell having similar to burnt banana leaves
or has a sweetish odor is a field test that can reveal the drug ___.
A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Coca leaves
D. Peyote Cactus
165. Bennies and dexies are for amphetamines; red devils and
double trouble are for ___.
A. Demerol
B. Sulfates
C. Barbiturates
D. Deliriants
166. It is defined as an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and
provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedings.
a. Criminal investigation
b. Interview and interrogation
c. Confession and admission
d. Criminal action
167. In sending out letters and relevant papers, the documents should be arranged in a
certain manner. What do you call the act of arranging the document?
a. Special mail handling
b. Filing
c. Assembling
d. Documentation
168. This provide a record of incidents requiring police response and includes criminal
offenses, arrest and general information.
a. Report
b. Narrative
c. Narration
d. Police Report
169. Several persons were injured as a result of a bus skidding on a wet pavement. In
preparing an accident report, the term “Apparently in good condition” should not be used in
reference to
a. The Muffler
b. The Brakes
c. The As injured persons
d. The operator
170. In testing a suspected intoxicated driver, which one of the ff. tests should be given
last?
a. Hand writing
b. Pupils of eyes
c. Balance
d. Walking and turning
171. Where 2 or more emergency vehicles, operating as such approach the same
intersection from different directions, creating a probability conflict, an officer directing
traffic at the intersection must give preference to one and cause the others to yield the right
of way. Of the following, the type of vehicle which should generally be given preferences
over any of the vehicle is the:
a. Ambulance
b. Police car
c. Fire truck
d. Wrecker
172. One of the qualities of a good investigation report states that it must short but concise,
meaning, the report must be:
a. Fair
b. Brief
C. Clear
D. Impartial
173. This is classification of the investigative report which is used as a way of determining if
the officer is working on his case or not.
A. Spot report
B. Progress report
C. Basic report
D. Final report
174. What factors are taken into consideration in the determination of the liability of the
person found guilty of arson?
A. the kind of building or property that was burned.
B. the location of the building
C. whether the building is inhabited or not
D. all of the above
175. It is the transfer of heat which requires physical contact between the bodies or
portions of bodies exchanging heat.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Heat transfer
176. The primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection is-
A. to see to it that the buildings are ensured
B. to safeguard life
C. to see to it that the buildings are fire hazard free.
D. to generate income for the government.
177. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts because -
A. it speaks for its self
B. it cannot lie
C. not affected by emotion
D. all of the forgoing
178. This is the tying up of all loose ends pertinent to the investigation so as to form a clear
and composite picture of the crime committed, to the mind of the reader, for prosecutorial
and judicial action.
A. spot report
B. progress report
C. basic report
D. final report
179. The effectiveness of a traffic law enforcement program is best measured by-
A. a reduction of a traffic accidents and delays.
B. an increase in traffic enforcement actions
C. a decrease in the ration of conviction to enforcement actions.
D. None of the Above
180. Physical or personal appearance is important when testifying in court because -
A. it will determine the quality of your testimony
B. it will determine the quantity of your testimony.
C. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by the court
D. it will reduce the chances of the defense attacking your testimony.
181. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights provided for by the law is
protection against self-incrimination and right is found on the grounds of-
A. public policy and morality
B. public policy and humanity
C. humanity kindness
D. humanity and conscience
182. This method or technique of criminal identification is more convenient than other
methods or techniques since the element of suggestion is avoided in the identification
process.
A. cartography
B. rogues gallery
C. police-line up
D. fingerprint
183. His methods made popular the logic of employing a thief to catch a thief
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Robert Peel
184. It is considered as a patient, step by step inquiry or observation, a careful
examination, a recording of evidence or legal inquiry
A. recording
B. investigation
C. collection
D. examination
185. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton.
A. role
B. shadowing
C. modus operandi
D. casing
186. Being an investigator able to solve cases, he must possess the ability to be patient to
obtain accurate and complete information, especially with uncooperative subjects is-
A. integrity
B. perseverance
C. alertness
D. logical mind
187. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the scene of the crime will most likely
mean that-
A. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived.
B. the suspect was professional
C. the suspect was juvenile
D. the police probably did not conduct a complete search for evidence.
188. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to
light is-
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. fire
189. There are 2 types of standards to be obtained in the investigation of a questioned
documents: 1 is collected and the other is -
A. photographed
B. replicated
C. dictated
D. all of the foregoing
190. The purpose of this is to provide a brief, informative summary of the nature and
important event in the case.
A. synopsis
B. details of the report
C. recommendation
D. conclusion
191. During an interview, planning is important and must follow the order of time and bring
out facts orderly as they happened, this technique is called-
A. chronological questioning
B. physical questioning
C. psychological questioning
D. None of these
192. A case decided in USA in the year 1920 that established the “Doctrine of the Fruit of
the Poisonous Tree”.
A. MAPP vs. USA
B. MAPP vs. Ohio
C. USA vs. Ohio
D. Silverthorne Lumber Co. vs. US
193. An English man who wrote a novel entitled “Tom Jones”, was appointed as Magistrate
for the areas of Westminster and Middlesex in London.
A. Patrick Colquhoun
B. Charles Dickens
C. Henry Fielding
D. Robert Peel
194. This report is one which is routinary act it is submitted daily by any duty inspector.
A. spot report
B. special report
C. beat inspection report
D. after patrol report
195. Police report which requires deals with ordinary, miscellaneous, day-to-day
memorandum, letter or form accomplished by any member of a unit.
A. basic report
B. formal report
C. spot report
D. special report
196. The first responsibility of a police officer assigned to investigate a reported homicide is-
A. arrest the offender
B. administer first aid to the victim
C. promptly respond to the assignment with reasonable and safe speed.
D. protect the crime scene.
197. The first female detective hired by the North-Western Police Agency.
A. Jane Doe
B. Kate Wayne
C. June Downey
D. Demi Moore
198. What Special Law punishes the crime of Arson which amends the provision of the
Revised Penal Code.
a. Presidential Decree 603
b. Presidential Decree 968
c. Presidential Decree 1612
d. Presidential Decree 1613
199. Known as the simplest and the most effective way of showing actual measurement and
of identifying significant items of evidence in their location at the scene is-
A. photograph
B. sketch
C. graphing
D. all of the above
200. Illegal acts committed by business and professional people while earning their living
are classified as-
A. Blue-collar crimes
B. crime mala in se
C. white-collar crimes
D. crime mala prohibita
201. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign Territory” such as the investigator room
at the police station because the place –
a. Is comfortable to the suspect
b. Is familiar to the suspect
c. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
d. Intimidates the suspect
202. The collection of photographs of criminals taken by the police for identification
purposes is technically called?
a. Cartographic files
b. Identification kit
c. Mug File
d. Criminal Record
203. Julia Roberts gives information to the police without waiting for reward or payment
because she considered herself as –
a. Ex-convict
b. Informant
c. Defendant
d. Accused
204. In essence, it is a chemical reaction in which the substance combines with oxygen,
heat is released and the form of substance is destroyed.
a. Fire
b. Fuel
c. Ignition
d. Oxygen
205. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin
and cause of fire.
a. Interviewing witness/es
b. Surveillance
c. Undercover work assignment
d. To investigate the insurance company and the owner of the insurance company
206. This is the lifeblood of investigation and hence to be considered seriously and also to
be followed up. Once it dries you have nowhere to go.
a. Information
b. Intelligence
c. Interview
d. Instrumentation
207. These are attached and distributed in the ceiling of rooms, activated by the increase of
temperature and water is delivered right where it is needed.
a. Fire pump
b. Fire hydrant
c. Automatic sprinklers
d. Fire extinguisher
208. Fernando Jose is testifying in court to disprove the criminal charge filed against him.
Thus, he is the –
a. Suspect
b. Accused
c. Criminal
d. Respondent
209. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene, he should first of all –
a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care not to jar
b. Wait until the crime scene has been sketched or photographed and
measurements taken before he collects the evidence
c. Immediately collect it and always send it to the Crime Laboratory for specific examination
d. Compare the following edge of the tool with impression to determine if this was the tool
used in crime.
210. Edralin is an alleged thief. He is being accused of stealing personal property but he is
not yet under the custody of the police. Therefore, he is legally addressed as –
a. Suspect
b. Accused
c. Accomplice
d. Accessory
211. This inquiry begins with a general re-examination of all facts, leads and other types of
information secured during the initial investigation.
a. Preliminary investigation
b. In Depth investigation
c. Follow-up investigation
d. In Depth investigation or Follow-up investigation
212. If proof is the outcome of evidence, what is evidence?
a. Measurement of guilt
b. Means of social control
c. Instrument of proof
d. All of the foregoing
213. He became the first detective in Chicago Police Department in 1849.
a. Henry Fielding
b. Allan Pinkerton
c. Jonathan Wild
d. Robert Peel
214. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy, however, examination of lungs and
blood showed no abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide. What will be your
interpretation under this circumstances?
a. The person is died because of burning
b. The person is died due to asphyxia
c. The person was killed before he was burned
d. The person died not of fire bur because of suffocation
215. This may be applicable to a crime scene which approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along a radii or spokes.
a. Wheel method
b. Zone method
c. Spiral method
d. Strip method
216. This signifies the ways and means device by a peace officer to apprehend a person
who has committed a crime; with or without the said device or means, the crime has
already been committed –
a. Entrapment
b. Treachery
c. Instigation
d. None of the foregoing
217. All of the following are generally accepted rules of behavior that should be followed by
police officer first arriving at the crime scene of
a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT –
a. Try to keep the witnesses separated
b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
c. Discuss the crime with persons who witness the incident
d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible but do not leave the scene unguarded
while doing so
218. The known case on personal identification that caused the total damaged of
Anthropometry is –
a. Best case
b. Dellinger case
c. USA vs. Jennings
d. West case
219. The “whom”, “where”, or “which” information are derived and developed refers to the–
a. Traces of information
b. Testimony
c. Evidence
d. Sources of information
220. The primary reason for conducting a search in the crime scene is to –
a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
c. Undercover hidden evidence
d. Determine the criminals method of operation
221. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be made on the item itself upon
collection, in a place least likely to affect the appearance of its –
a. Monetary value
b. Monetary and evidentiary
c. Evidentiary value
d. Integrity and identity
222. A powerful operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned of directed to take
some specific action is called ?
a. Object markings
b. Club markings
c. Reflectorized markings
d. Traffic light signal
223. Generally this drugs produces a relaxing state without impairment of high facilities or
the inducement of sleep is known as –
a. Stimulants
b. Narcotics
c. Tranquilizers
d. Barbiturates
224. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the pursuit is not possible, what
should you not do?
a. Better use your time and efforts to alert another unit
b. Forego the pursuit and continue what you are previously doing
c. Inform the dispatcher of the unit
d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in coordination with other police units
225. What do you think is the significant data for an arson investigator to gather from the
fire scene?
a. Odor
b. Rapidity of fire
c. Color of smokes and flames
226. It is the intentional deprivation of any body organ necessary for reproduction.
a. Abortion
b. Castration
c. Physical injuries
227. This crime is committed whenever a public officer does not account for what he collects
and he misappropriates the fees collected.
a. Estafa
b. Malversation
c. Corruption of public official
d. Bribery
228. This situation takes place when a police officer induce a person to commit a crime and
arrest him after the commission of the crime.
a. Instigation
b. Recidivism
c. Voluntary surrender
d. Entrapment
229. This refer to the immediate apprehension or cognition-quick and ready insight without
the conscious use of reasoning.
a. Imagination
b. Intuition
c. Curiosity
d. Opinion
230. It was the first natural stimulant that was discovered.
a. Nicotine
b. Epinedrine
c. Caffeine
d. Ephedrine
231. Criminal investigation is not a science, it is not governed by rigid rules, or laws, but
most often, it is governed by –
a. Intuition
b. To a minor extent by chance or luck
c. Felicity or inspiration
232. This is defined as a transition which occurs in the development of fire when, for
example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition
temperature at the same time.
a. Ignition
b. Starter
c. Flash-over
d. Intensity
233. Whether it be solid, liquid, or gas, is the minimum temperature that the substance
must be heated in order to sustain combustion.
a. Temperature
b. Flash point
c. Ignition temperature
d. Burning point
234. Which of the following types of accidents is most decreased by the installation of traffic
lights?
a. Accidents of confusion
b. Cross traffic accidents
c. Accidents of decisions of right of way
d. Misunderstanding between motorists
235. It is the accomplishment of the act, and which must be proved where it is an element
of the offense charged.
a. Motive
b. Intent
c. Modus operandi
d. Background interview
236. In 1877, even without his field police experience, he become the head of the Scotland
Yard organized investigators known as the Criminal Investigation Department.
a. Charles Dickens
b. Edward Rucker
c. Howard Vincent
d. Francis Turkey
237. The word investigate was derived from the Latin word ______ meaning to track
or trace, a derivation easily related to police investigation.
a. Investigare
b. Vestigare
c. Tracer
d. Tracker
238. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents than any other in
the area. The police unit assigned to the area should:
a. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators
b. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the intersection
c. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
d. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution motorists
239. It is a term used as anything used to enhance the quality of fire.
a. Accelerants
b. Arson
c. Trailers
d. Plants
240. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to the laboratory by
himself whenever this is possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each person to
whom he gives or receives evidence. This statement is applicable to –
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To established the guilt of the accused.
241. Can a child below 15 years old be employed?
a. Yes, provided that the employer shall ensure the protection, health safety and morals of
the child
b. Yes, provided that the employer shall secure the child a working permit from DOLE
c. No, he is a minor
d. A and B only
242. It is the duty of the officer who first arrive at the crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
243. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in an automobile which has
been stolen and abandoned is on –
a. Door handles
b. Steering wheel
c. Rear view mirror
d. Dashboard
244. It is defined as maybe a selfincriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an
acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Confession
b. Admission
c. Deposition
d. Information
245. Articles and materials found in connection with investigation and which aides in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
a. Corpus delicti
b. Fruits of the crime
c. Physical evidence
d. Chain of custody of evidence
246. The most effective way to reduce the number of traffic accidents is to –
a. Arrest and prosecute traffic violators
b. Increase the premium of insurance and decrease the car insurance liability to a minimum
c. Frequent checks on all cars for mechanical defects
247. The basic principle behind the selective enforcement in the traffic control is –
a. Selection of traffic areas for strict enforcement
b. Concentration of enforcement activities as peak traffic hours
c. A warning rather that a citation will act as preventive for future violation
d. Direction of enforcement activities to those points of greatest traffic danger
248. A former convict who became a Paris investigator and founder of the Brigade De la
Surete and the forerunner of our credit card system.
a. Henry Fielding
b. Jonathan Wild
c. Eugene Vidocq
d. Sir Robert Peel
249. In police stations, It is the record of all crimes and complaints.
a. Police Blotter
b. Police Arrest
c. Booking Report
250. It is the conveying of persons, goods, and things from one place to another.
a. Traffic
b. Transportation
c. Movement
d. Shipping
251. Excellent way of filling accidents report for urban areas is –
a. Street designation
b. Numerical route
c. Road safety
252. If the accident has resulted to serious physical injury, the most important thing for the
investigator to do in regard to the injured person if no doctor at hand is –
a. Move him to a place where he may be comfortable
b. Bring him to the hospital as quickly as possible
c. Give him first aid as necessary and call for an ambulance
d. Ignore him, because medical care is not part of the work of the investigator
253. It is the correct or proper choice of words to convey a meaning.
a. Vocabulary
b. Diction
c. Words
d. None of the above
254. It is a customary little marks that determines whether the sentence is clear or has a
doubtful meaning.
a. Words
b. Phrase
c. Punctuation marks
d. Numbers
255. If the fire is caused by flammable or combustible liquids, such as kerosene, gasoline,
benzene, alcohol etc., It is said to be classified as –
a. Class A fire
b. Class B fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire
256. These are personalities that do not exist in reality because they are only creations of
writers who focus inventing detectives stories that may help entertain and/or educate
readers.
a. Private detectives
b. Government Investigators
c. Fictitious Investigators
257. For competent investigator, it is the key to freedom from bondage of ignorance.
a. Training
b. Tools
c. Technique
d. Principle
258. In conducting an interview to a subject, the interviewer always ask the subject with a
question answerable by yes or no, this statement is –
a. Absolutely True
b. Absolutely False
c. Partly True
d. Partly false
259. This involves the process of allowing a witness to select the primary suspect from a
group of chosen persons (suspects and innocent persons).
a. Cartography
b. Portrait Parle
c. Rogues Gallery
d. Police line-up
260. An approach in reconstructing the crime which requires the process of collecting
information first, analyze and evaluate it before a theory is developed.
a. Deductive Approach
b. Inductive Approach
c. Analytical Approach
261. What is known as an “unimpeachable witness” because it is not clouded by faulty
memory, prejudice, poor eyesight and desire?
a. Ordinary witness
b. Expert witness
c. Physical evidence
d. Testimonial evidence
262. A kind of crime scene sketch which picture the immediate scene only.
a. Sketch of locality
b. Sketch of ground
c. Sketch of Details
d. Cross projection sketch
263. In the Philippine setting, the SOCO is composed of how many members?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
264. It is the tendency to increase the dose of the drugs to produce the same effect as to
that of the original effect.
a. Tolerance
b. Addiction
c. Physical dependence
d. Withdrawal syndrome
265. ________ is the skillful questioning of a person who is reluctant to divulge information
concerning the offense under investigation.
a. Instrumentation
b. Information
c. Interview
d. Interrogation
266. An evidence which links the suspects to the crime scene .
a. Corpus Delicti
b. Associative evidence
c. Tracing evidence
d. Documentary evidence
267. As the first officer to arrive at the crime scene, you must retain and identify for
interview the person who first notify the police, because you can gather investigative?
a. Investigation
b. Leads
c. Breakthrough
d. Modus operandi
268. Under the new drug law, the best defense for drug abuse is?
a. Comrades
b. Colleagues
c. Family
d. Gangs
269. The first to arrive at the crime scene and has the authority to preserve the crime scene
is the?
a. Beat patrol
b. SOCO
c. NBI
d. Chief PNP
270. Instead of using “proceed and utilize”, use the word/s?
a. Proceed and go
b. Go and use
c. Go and exploit
d. Proceed and use
271. The most advance in sending a report.
a. Fax
b. Courier
c. Text
d. Air mail
272. The penalty of ____________ shall be imposed upon any person who possesses 10
grams of Shabu.
a. 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
b. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
c. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
d. Life imprisonment
273. These are articles which assist the investigator in locating the suspect.
a. Tracing evidence
b. Associative evidence
c. Documentary evidence
d. Testimonial evidence
274. Instead of using “dead body” on your report, use the word/s?
a. Cadaver
b. Deceased
c. Departed
d. Corpse
275. In the year 2005, the Philippines was tagged by the USA as the number one producer
of?
a. Marijuana
b. Cocaine
c. Shabu
d. Opium
276. When was the Anti-drug summit which was attended by President Gloria M. Arroyo?
a. November 17, 2002
b. November 27, 2002
c. November 17, 2005
d. November 27, 2005
277. Is a phrase considered as a complete sentence?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Sometimes
d. Maybe
278. It is a sign of showing the point of origin of fire.
a. Alligator pattern
b. Charring
c. Product of incombustible materials
d. None of the above
279. In dental examination, location of teeth, position and ______ are the main
consideration.
a. Site
b. Spot
c. Direction
d. Place
280. A method of safe breaking by battering of the top, bottom or sides of a safe with a
chisel or other metal cutter.
a. Burning
b. Bursting
c. Ripping
d. Carrying away
281. This is the removing or transferring of people, livestock or property from fire scene or
those that are already directly affected by fire.
a. Evacuation
b. Rescue
c. Confinement
d. Ventilation
282. _______ smoke indicates that humid materials are burning, such as hay, vegetable
fibers, etc..
a. Biting smoke
b. Black smoke
c. White smoke
d. Reddish-brown smoke
283. The world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of prohibited drugs.
a. Marijuana
b. Coca plant
c. Opium poppy plant
d. Caffeine
284. The process of giving training and practice in the actual application of traffic safety
knowledge is called ___________.
a. Traffic Engineering
b. Traffic Education
c. Traffic Enforcement
d. Traffic Economy
285. It is the derivative of Morphine.
a. Cocaine
b. Heroin
c. Codeine
d. Caffeine
286. The primary course of action in case of a fire.
A. Pack up and flee
B. Run for your life
C. Call an ambulance
D. Raise the alarm
287. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxia
which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
288. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to
the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
289. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building
material in a fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
290. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided
forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
291. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other
carbonaceous materials. Extinguisher of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
292. The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
293. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of
origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
294. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
295. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish
an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
296. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples
are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
297. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect
flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
298. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and
satisfaction from it.
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
299. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
300. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
301. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
302. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree
Fahrenheit.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
303. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
304. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across
the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
305. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
306. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
307. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one
temperature and
density moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
308. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
309. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid
hazard.
D. final position
310. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
311. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more reference
points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
312. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
313. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more
persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
314. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
315. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury,
death or property damage.
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
316. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
317. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining
him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
318. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
319. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
320. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
321. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought
disruption and ego distortion. They are called psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
322. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with
delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
323. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
324. The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
325. The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
326. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
327. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
328. The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
329. It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
330 .A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
331. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
D. codeine
332. Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
333.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a
physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
334.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and
functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
335 .It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin
and cause of fire.
336. He founded the MNLF.
A. Hashim Salamat
B. Nur Misuari
C. Jose Maria Sison
D. Abu Sabaya
337. The compromise agreement to establish the Autonomous Region in
Bangsamoro land.
A. Tripoli Agreement
B. Treaty of Paris
C. Bangsa Moro Law Agreement
338. Jabidah Massacre took place in what island?
A. Aklan
B. Corregidor
C. Sulu
D. Basilan
339. It literally mean Islamic Congregation, It is a Southeast Asian
militant Islamist terrorist organization dedicated to the
establishment of a Daulah Islamiyah (regional Islamic caliphate)
in Southeast Asia.
A. Taliban
B. Abu Sayyaf
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah
340. It is an Islamic fundamentalist political movement in Afghanistan.
It is founded by Mullah Mohammed Omar Mujahid.
A. Taliban
B. Abu Sayyaf
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah
341. It literally means "father and swordsmith", is a militant Islamist
group based in and around Jolo and Basilan, Philippines.
A. MILF
B. MNLF
C. Abu Sayyaf
D. BIFF
342. It means "Western Education is Forbidden", is an Islamist terrorist
movement based in north-east Nigeria.
A. Taliban
B. Abu Sayyaf
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah
343. It means "The Base', is a global militant Islamist organization
founded by Osama bin Laden and Other militants.
A. Taliban
B. Al-Qaeda
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah
344. It is an Islamic extremist rebel group controlling territory in
Iraq and Syria, with operations in Lebanon, Libya, the Sinai
Peninsula of Egypt, and other areas of the Middle East.
A. ISIS
B. Al-Qaeda
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah
345. It literally means "The Youth", is a jihadist terrorist group
based in Somalia.
A. ISIS
B. Al-Qaeda
C. Buko Haram
D. Al-Shabaab
346. It is a a street gang and organized crime group with origins in
the Philippines. The gang was formed in the early 1940s among
Filipino inmates in large and dangerous Manila correctional
facilities. Member's value of fatalism is that it didn't really
matter what one did if fate was against you.
A. Akya-Bahay Gang
B. Bahala na Gang
C. Kuratong Baleleng
D. Martilyo Gang
347. It is an organized crime syndicate in the Philippines that once
was an anti-communist vigilante group.
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Bahala na Gang
D. Martilyo Gang
348. This gang is notoriously known for robbing jewelry shops and uses
wrench, hammer and other tools to smash store windows.
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Bahala na Gang
D. Martilyo Gang
349. The conman or woman suddenly hugs the victim like they’re old
friends. With a knife poked on his side, victim is ordered to
quietly turn over cash and other valuables. A Modus operandi
of what criminal gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ativan Gang
D. Martilyo Gang
350. Two cohorts falsely accuse victim of stealing. Naturally denying
it, victim is asked to show proof of character. Once he fishes
out an ID card from the wallet, the gang men grab the money and
scram. An MO of what criminal gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ativan Gang
D. Martilyo Gang
351. Three to four males and females befriend a lone tourist. After
gaining his confidence, they tour him around, then invite him to
dine in their shanty. Then a potent sleeping pill, is slipped into
the drink. The drugged victim is stripped of belongings, then
dumped in a secluded place. A Modus Operandi of what criminal gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ativan Gang
D. Martilyo Gang
352. A woman seducing the victim, then drugging him in the hotel room.
Most victims are knocked out for days learning later all of his/her
belongings are gone. Committed usually by what criminal gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ativan Gang
D. Martilyo Gang
353. This Gang operates in threes or fours. Victim is shoved into
distraction, while his pocket is picked or mobile snatched. The
usually operates in buses, trains and stations and crowded areas.
A. Tutok-Kalawit Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ipit Gang
D. Budol-Budol Gang
354. The conman or woman suddenly hugs the victim like they’re old
friends. With a knife poked on his side, victim is ordered to
quietly turn over cash and other valuables. This MO is committed
by what criminal gang?
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ipit Gang
D. Budol-Budol Gang
355. Perpetrators are courteous and well dressed, with props like
attaché case or jewelry to look businesslike and affluent. They
pick out a victim who is so engrossed in talk or texting to leave
belongings unattended. In swift motion they swipe the bag or
laptop, and casually leave. A Modus Operandi committed by what
criminal gang?
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ipit Gang
D. Budol-Budol Gang
356. A kind of modus operandi where the victim is shown a bundle of
fake money to gain trust and usually accompanied by hypnotism.
This is employed by what criminal gang?
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ipit Gang
D. Budol-Budol Gang
357. An adult or child, posing as a vendor or pretending to be lost,
distracts the victim. A cohort swiftly slashes the victim’s pocket
or bag to filch the wallet, a crime committed by what criminal
gang?
A. Dura Boys
B. Estribo Gang
C. Ipit Taxi Gang
D. Laslas Gang
358. A gang spray-paints the taxi with a different name and license
number. Not long after picking up a lone victim the cabbie stops
on pretense of engine trouble. Two cohorts jump into the rear and
sandwich the victim, demanding his valuables. This is the Modus
Operandi of what criminal gang?
A. Dura Boys
B. Estribo Gang
C. Ipit Taxi Gang
D. Laslas Gang
359. Robbers position themselves on the running board (estribo) of bus
or jeepney, then announce a holdup. A Modus Operandi of what
criminal gang?
A. Dura Boys
B. Estribo Gang
C. Ipit Taxi Gang
D. Laslas Gang
360. A pair of thieves, forcibly would open the car doors to rob the
motorist. Or they’d pick the locks to strip parked cars of
accessories or they will hijack the car. A Modus Operandi of
what criminal gang?
A. Dura Boys
B. Pitas Gang
C. Bukas Kotse Gang
D. Laslas Gang
361. A man would spit at a victim who, while wiping it off, is mugged.
A Modus Operandi of what criminal gang?
A. Dura Boys
B. Pitas Gang
C. Bukas Kotse Gang
D. Laslas Gang
362. A lone or gang of porch-climbers would invade homes left for the
holidays or disasters. Youngsters are employed to break into small,
unsecured windows. A Modus Operandi of what criminal gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Pitas Gang
C. Laslas Gang
D. Dura Boys
363. A thief picks out a victim seated by the window, to snatch the
wristwatch, necklace, or earring. A modus operandi of what
criminal gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Pitas Gang
C. Laslas Gang
D. Dura Boys
364. The gang operates in threes, with one, in bus conductor uniform,
asking the passenger, “(How many)?” Victim would reply how many
riders they are. He is given the equivalent number of juice drinks,
then charged a fortune for it. Burly cohorts menace him into
paying up. A Modus operandi employed by what criminal gang?
A. Zesto Gang
B. Dura Boys
C. Estribo Gang
D. Pitas Gang
365. Coins or bills are dropped. As victim helps pick them up, his
pocket or bag is picked. Usually employed by what criminal gang?
A. Zesto Gang
B. Laglag Barya Gang
C. Estribo Gang
D. Pitas Gang
366. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.
What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Qualified Homicide
367. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will
on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms
in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing
368. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They
live together with the children of Lea from her first husband.
Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of
Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed
by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape
369. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When
the two met the following day, Lito slapped
Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion
370. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1
million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting
Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public Officials
D. Qualified Bribery
371. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made
under the consciousness of an impending death?
A. Parol Evidence
B. Ante mortem statement
C. Suicide note
D. Dead man statute
372. Factum probans means __.
A. preponderance of evidence
B. ultimate fact
C. evidentiary fact
D. sufficiency of evidence
373. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one
generation to another.
A. inheritance
B. heritage
C. pedigree
D. culture
374. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the
first instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction
375.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.
A. Counsel de officio
B. Attorney on record
C. Attorney at law
D. Special counsel
376. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary
Procedure?
A. Violation of rental laws
B. Violation of traffic laws
C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment
377. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to
be exercised.
A. jurisdiction
B. jurisprudence
C. venue
D. bench
378.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.
A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353
C. BP.22
D. RA 6975
379. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to
gain, by means of force and intimidation.
A. qualified theft
B. robbery
C. theft
D. malicious mischief
380. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of
force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,

whether right or wrong.
A. grave threat
B. grave coercion
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed
381. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but
have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or
herself to lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants
382. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant
noises designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
C. sedition
D. scandal
383. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another
person to change his residence.
A. violation of domicile
B. arbitrary detention
C. expulsion
D. direct assault
384. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another
person without legal grounds.
A. illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
C. forcible abduction
D. forcible detention
385. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal
knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later declared void.
A. concubinage
B. bigamy
C. adultery
D. immorality
386. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.
A. 15-18 years old
B. 18-70 years old
C. 9 years old and below
D. between 9 and 15 years old
387. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of
the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories
388. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute
the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.

A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty
389. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty
is suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve
390. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a

more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes
391. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an
act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the
discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery
392. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of
affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander
393. Deliberate planning of act before execution.
A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty
394. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted
together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy
395. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act
396. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation
397. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes
398. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.
A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation
399. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,
what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender
400. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning
401. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible
in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
402. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision
of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice
403.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is
most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
404.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a
different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
405.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions
are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
406.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the
subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
407.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated
arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
408.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a
building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
409.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a
different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
410.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence
collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
C. crime prevention
D. public service
411.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
412.A special qualification for an undercover agent.
A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
413.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the
purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
414. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after
that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
415.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
416.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or
attempts to be present when they are committed, through the
use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping
or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
417.A police activity directed toward the identification and
apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
418.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose
of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation
420.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably
discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur
421.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
422.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,
date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae
423.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where
crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence
424.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
425.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty
fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
426.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling
short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
427.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering
of information regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
428.It means method of operation.
A. corpus delicti
B. parens patriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi
429.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be
shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
430.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their
application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
431.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the
investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
432.It involves a number of persons who might have handled
evidence between the time of the commission of the alleged
offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to
a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence
433.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
434.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an

investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
435.The following are different techniques in interrogation except

one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
436.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately
circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
437.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each
searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
438.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene
beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method
439.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being
followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
440.Another term for tailing.
A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing
441.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.
He may give the information openly and even offer to be a
witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
442.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
443.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a
crime,but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
444.An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
445.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the
development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
446.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of
a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapors varies from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can
begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
447.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum
in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
448.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to

cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
449.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene
450.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is
either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic
fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
451.The primary course of action in case of a fire.
A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
452.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not
poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
453.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially
when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
454.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the
behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
455.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain

metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
456.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,
textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
457.The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
458.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of
the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
459.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
460.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire
and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
461.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the
most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
462.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means
employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
463.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and
experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
464.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
465.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used
to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
466.These are description of materials or compounds that are
easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
467.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree
Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
468.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
469.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an
electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
470.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat
and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
471.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
472.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where

fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
473.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to

vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
474.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a
collision course or to avoid hazard.
D. final position
475.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
476.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from
two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
477.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the
earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
478.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only
injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
479.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
480.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended injury, death or property damage.
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
481.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
482.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,
but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
483.The first accidental touching of an object collision course
or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
484.The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
485.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
486.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional
change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
487.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
488.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for
money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
489.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
490.The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
491.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
492.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to
depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
493.The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
494.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
495.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
496.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the
seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
D. codeine
497.Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
498.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or
dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
499.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature
alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
500.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information
to determine the origin and cause of fire.
501. America's most famous private investigator and founder of

Criminal Investigation.
A. Alec Nayhem
B. Allan Pinkerton
C. Thomas Byrnes
D. None of these
502. The first woman detective in the history of criminal investigation.

A. Kathleen Jacob
B. Candy Miles
C. Kate Wayne
D. Pines Hamilton
503. He was known to be the creator of the "bow street runners", a

group of police officers attached to the Bow Street Court, and not
in uniform, performing criminal investigative functions.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
504. The founder and chief organizer of the London Metropolitan Police,
the Scotland Yard, which became famous police organization
in the world.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
505. As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove anything at the crime

scene until the evidence has been processed through notes,
sketches and photographs, with proper measurements. This refers to
A. the golden rule in investigation
B. the number one SOP in investigation
C. the act of note taking
D. the act of crime scene preservation
506. An Englishman who published a handbook for Examining Magistrates

in Munich, Germany and advocated the use of scientific methods
in criminal investigation process.
A. Hans Gross
B. Thomas Byrnes
C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Francis Galton
507. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in

state criminal prosecutions in the famous case of
A. Miranda vs Arizona
B. Otit vs Jeff
C. Mapp vs Ohio
D. Milkey vs Wett
508. The continues accountability of persons handling evidences, and

having responsibility of taking care and preserving the evidences
from the time it was found until brought to court for presentation
is called
A. Chain of events
B. Key events
C. Chain of custody of evidence
D. Chain of command
509. In England, he was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a

master criminal who became London's most effective criminal
investigator. He was the most famous Thief-Catcher in 1720s.
A. Alexander Macanochie
B. Jonathan Wild
C. Billy Cook
D. John Howard
510. What is the Latin term for criminal intent?

A. Mens Rea
B. Magna Culpa
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Mala Vise
511. Combustion or burning in which substances combine chemically with
oxygen from the air and typically give out bright light,heat and
smoke.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
512. A hot glowing body of ignited gas that is generated by something

on fire.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
513. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of land or property.
A. Conflagration
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
514. Means on fire or very hot or bright.
A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
515. The rapid chemical combination of a substance with oxygen
involving the production of heat and light.
A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
516. The quality of being hot or high temperature at which fuel will
continue to burn for atleast 5 seconds after ignition by an open
flame.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
517. The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Light
D. Smoke
518. Is one of the 4 fundamental states of matter, the other being
solid,liquid and gas.
A. Flame
B. Plasma
C. Light
D. Smoke
519. The lowest temperature a which the vapor of a combustible liquid
can be ignited in air.
A. Flash point
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
520. Is the temperature at which fuel will continue to burn for at least
five seconds after ignition by an open flame.
A. Flash point
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
521. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw
or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the
existing electrical system
A. self-closing door
B. jumper
C. overloading
D. oxidizing material
522. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor
to floor, as well as for the base to the top of the building is called
A. sprinkle evidence
B. vertical shaft
C. flash point
D. standpipe system
523. A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a fire
resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient
structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either
side collapses under the fire conditions.
A. Wood rack
B. Fire wall
C. Post wall
D. Fire trap
524. Any act that would remove or naturalized a fire hazard
A. Allotment
B. Combustion
C. Distillation
D. Abatement
525. The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant permits
and/or license by local governments or other government agencies.
A. Fire safety inspection
B. Fire protection assembly
C. Fire alerting system
D. Fire service
526. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated from
the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two hard
surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called.
A. static electricity
B. overheating of machine
C. friction heat
D. heat from arching
527. Method of heat transfer by direct contact
A. nuclear fission
B. conduction
C. convection
D. Radiation
528. Instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant
A. hydrant key
B. kilowatts
C. key board
D. bunch of key
529. Energy is transferred from one body to another by thermal
interactions.
A. Fire
B. Smoke
C. Heat
D. Ember
530.The transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement
of fluids.
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
531. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to
traffic violation, the following procedures are followed except:
A. bring the suspended person before the court
B. detention of the arrested person may take place
C. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
532. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on
one of the following ground:
A. offense committed is serious
B. bringing the person to your custody
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of
violation
D. if the person is under the imminent danger
533. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the
following evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. hole on the road pavement
B. the driver under the influence of liquor
C. point of impact
D. vehicle has break failure
534. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is
A. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
D. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive
measure for future violation
535. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to
A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than
as causes KVB
B. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors
as secondary causes
C. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to
the accident as a cause
D. look for the "key event" that cause the accident
536. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen
automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to
A. permit the promote issuance of new plate
B. prevent cards from being stolen
C. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
D. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of
these plates.
537. One of the following statements that best indicates the main
purpose of traffic law enforcement is
A. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
538. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with
accidents that involves one or both of the elements namely
A. motor vehicles and traffic way
B. motor vehicle and victim
C. victim and traffic way
D. victim and traffic unit
539. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officers
should be guided foremost by the consideration that
A. some traffic violation are intended
B. the aim is to discourage violations
C. same traffic violations are caused by negligence
D. violations must be punished
540. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces

in contract is known as:
A. coefficient of friction
B. traffic jam
C. attribute
D. contract damage
541. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision
course or otherwise avoid a hazard
A. state of evasive action
B. point of possible perception
C. point of no escape
D. final position
542. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal
to one or more persons.
A. non-fatal injury accident
B. fatal accident
C. traffic law enforcer
D. property damage accident
543. Which of the following types of accident is most decreased
by the installation of traffic light?
A. Cross traffic accidents
B. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officers
C. Accidents of confusion
D. Accidents of decision of right of way
544. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic
accidents than any other part in the area. The Police unit
assignment to the area should.
A. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators.
B. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to
caution motorist
C. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
D. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to
the intersection
545. Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which
is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley
wires, but not operated upon rails.
A. Skating
B. Bicycle
C. Tricycle
D. Motor vehicles
546. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights
are used on some intersection is that
A. motorist are discourage from "jumping signals"
B. traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
C. greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
D. an officer can stop and start as necessity demands
547. All lines, patterns, words, colors or other gadgets EXCEPT
signs set into the surface or applied upon or attached to the
pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of regulating
traffic is called _____
A. warning signs
B. traffic management
C. traffic engineering
D. pavement marking
548. Prohibitive traffic signs and restrictive traffic signs shall have
A. blue background and white symbols
B. a red background and white symbols and black border
C. white background with black symbols and red border
D. green background with white and black symbols
549. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine
shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor vehicle passes
through a street of any city, municipality or thickly populated
district or barrio.
A. wiper
B. light
C. muffler
D. windshield
550. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has been
ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route.
While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an
emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the
route while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances
the traffic police officer should.
A. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact
his superior and obtains decisions
B. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to
cross the street
C. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's order
D. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which
will add at least then minutes to run
551. The group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and
gives the general effect of mood distortion are generally called
A. Sedatives
B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
D. Tranquillizers
552. Drugs like glue, gasoline, kerosene, ether, paint, thinner, etc. are
called:
A. Solvents
B. Deliriants
C. Inhalants
D. All of these
553. Cocaine is a stimulant drug; LSD is a
A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic
C. Solvent
D. Depressant
554. What opium preparation is combined with camphor to produce a
household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain?
A. Tincture of opium
B. Raw opium
C. Paregoric
D. Granulated opium
555. The group of drugs that when introduced into the system of the
body can produce mental alertness and wakefulness
A. Stimulants
B. Uppers
C. Speeds
D. All of these
556. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used
by Mexican Indians to induce nausea and muscular relaxation is
called:
A. Psilocybin
B. STP
C. DMT
D. Ibogaine
557. What do you call the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Erythroxylon coca
B. Heroin
C. Beta Eucaine
D. Cocaine Hydrochloride
558. What is the most important constituent of opium?
A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
559. What drug is known as the "assassins of the youth"?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. Shabu
560. The presence of drug paraphernalia at the drug scene in the form
of syringe and needle, tourniquet, spoon or bottle top "cookies"
and tinfoil packet reveals that the drug being administered are:
A. tablet drugs
B. capsule drugs
C. liquid drugs
D. marijuana leaves
561. 64. From among the following, which is correct?
A. RA 6975, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on June 7, 2002
B. RA 9165, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on July 4, 2002
C. RA 6975, Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, took effect on
March 2, 1972
D. RA 6425, Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on
July 4, 2002
562.The drug that is obtained from the alkaloid of the leaves of the
Erythorxylon coca and the other species of Erthroxlon Linne, or by
synthesis from ecgoine and its derivatives is called:
A. Heroin
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
563. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication with out
smell of alcoholic breath is a sign that the suspected person is
under the influence of:
A. Amphetamine drug
B. Barbiturates
C. Hallucinogens
D. Narcotics
564. The burning of a small quantity of the suspected substance and
determining the odor or smell having similar to burnt banana leaves
or has a sweetish odor is a field test that can reveal the drug ___.
A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Coca leaves
D. Peyote Cactus
565. Bennies and dexies are for amphetamines; red devils and
double trouble are for ___.
A. Demerol
B. Sulfates
C. Barbiturates
D. Deliriants
566. It is defined as an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and
provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedings.
a. Criminal investigation
b. Interview and interrogation
c. Confession and admission
d. Criminal action
567. In sending out letters and relevant papers, the documents should be arranged in a
certain manner. What do you call the act of arranging the document?
a. Special mail handling
b. Filing
c. Assembling
d. Documentation
568. This provide a record of incidents requiring police response and includes criminal
offenses, arrest and general information.
a. Report
b. Narrative
c. Narration
d. Police Report
569. Several persons were injured as a result of a bus skidding on a wet pavement. In
preparing an accident report, the term “Apparently in good condition” should not be used in
reference to
a. The Muffler
b. The Brakes
c. The As injured persons
d. The operator
570. In testing a suspected intoxicated driver, which one of the ff. tests should be given
last?
a. Hand writing
b. Pupils of eyes
c. Balance
d. Walking and turning
571. Where 2 or more emergency vehicles, operating as such approach the same
intersection from different directions, creating a probability conflict, an officer directing
traffic at the intersection must give preference to one and cause the others to yield the right
of way. Of the following, the type of vehicle which should generally be given preferences
over any of the vehicle is the:
a. Ambulance
b. Police car
c. Fire truck
d. Wrecker
572. One of the qualities of a good investigation report states that it must short but concise,
meaning, the report must be:
a. Fair
b. Brief
C. Clear
D. Impartial
573. This is classification of the investigative report which is used as a way of determining if
the officer is working on his case or not.
A. Spot report
B. Progress report
C. Basic report
D. Final report
574. What factors are taken into consideration in the determination of the liability of the
person found guilty of arson?
A. the kind of building or property that was burned.
B. the location of the building
C. whether the building is inhabited or not
D. all of the above
575. It is the transfer of heat which requires physical contact between the bodies or
portions of bodies exchanging heat.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Heat transfer
576. The primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection is-
A. to see to it that the buildings are ensured
B. to safeguard life
C. to see to it that the buildings are fire hazard free.
D. to generate income for the government.
577. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts because -
A. it speaks for its self
B. it cannot lie
C. not affected by emotion
D. all of the forgoing
578. This is the tying up of all loose ends pertinent to the investigation so as to form a clear
and composite picture of the crime committed, to the mind of the reader, for prosecutorial
and judicial action.
A. spot report
B. progress report
C. basic report
D. final report
579. The effectiveness of a traffic law enforcement program is best measured by-
A. a reduction of a traffic accidents and delays.
B. an increase in traffic enforcement actions
C. a decrease in the ration of conviction to enforcement actions.
580. Physical or personal appearance is important when testifying in court because -
A. it will determine the quality of your testimony
B. it will determine the quantity of your testimony.
C. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by the court
D. it will reduce the chances of the defense attacking your testimony.
581. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights provided for by the law is
protection against self-incrimination and right is found on the grounds of-
A. public policy and morality
B. public policy and humanity
C. humanity kindness
D. humanity and conscience
582. This method or technique of criminal identification is more convenient than other
methods or techniques since the element of suggestion is avoided in the identification
process.
A. cartography
B. rogues gallery
C. police-line up
D. fingerprint
583. His methods made popular the logic of employing a thief to catch a thief
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Robert Peel
584. It is considered as a patient, step by step inquiry or observation, a careful
examination, a recording of evidence or legal inquiry
A. recording
B. investigation
C. collection
D. examination
585. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton.
A. role
B. shadowing
C. modus operandi
D. casing
586. Being an investigator able to solve cases, he must possess the ability to be patient to
obtain accurate and complete information, especially with uncooperative subjects is-
A. integrity
B. perseverance
C. alertness
D. logical mind
587. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the scene of the crime will most likely
mean that-
A. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived.
B. the suspect was professional
C. the suspect was juvenile
D. the police probably did not conduct a complete search for evidence.
588. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to
light is-
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. fire
589. There are 2 types of standards to be obtained in the investigation of a questioned
documents: 1 is collected and the other is -
A. photographed
B. replicated
C. dictated
D. all of the foregoing
590. The purpose of this is to provide a brief, informative summary of the nature and
important event in the case.
A. synopsis
B. details of the report
C. recommendation
D. conclusion
591. During an interview, planning is important and must follow the order of time and bring
out facts orderly as they happened, this technique is called-
A. chronological questioning
B. physical questioning
C. psychological questioning
D. None of these
592. A case decided in USA in the year 1920 that established the “Doctrine of the Fruit of
the Poisonous Tree”.
A. MAPP vs. USA
B. MAPP vs. Ohio
C. USA vs. Ohio
D. Silverthorne Lumber Co. vs. US
593. An English man who wrote a novel entitled “Tom Jones”, was appointed as Magistrate
for the areas of Westminster and Middlesex in London.
B. Charles Dickens
C. Henry Fielding
D. Robert Peel
594. This report is one which is routinary act it is submitted daily by any duty inspector.
A. spot report
B. special report
C. beat inspection report
D. after patrol report
595. Police report which requires deals with ordinary, miscellaneous, day-to-day
memorandum, letter or form accomplished by any member of a unit.
A. basic report
B. formal report
C. spot report
D. special report
596. The first responsibility of a police officer assigned to investigate a reported homicide is-
A. arrest the offender
B. administer first aid to the victim
C. promptly respond to the assignment with reasonable and safe speed.
D. protect the crime scene.
597. The first female detective hired by the North-Western Police Agency.
A. Jane Doe
B. Kate Wayne
C. June Downey
D. Demi Moore
598. What Special Law punishes the crime of Arson which amends the provision of the
Revised Penal Code.
a. Presidential Decree 603
b. Presidential Decree 968
c. Presidential Decree 1612
d. Presidential Decree 1613
599. Known as the simplest and the most effective way of showing actual measurement and
of identifying significant items of evidence in their location at the scene is-
A. photograph
B. sketch
C. graphing
D. all of the above
600. Illegal acts committed by business and professional people while earning their living
are classified as-
A. Blue-collar crimes
B. crime mala in se
C. white-collar crimes
D. crime mala prohibita
LAW ENFORCEMENT AND ADMINISTRATION
1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service
A.Clientele
B.Purpose
C.Time
D. Process
2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of
policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program
3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence
with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector
4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those
in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there
are several types of patrol, which of the following will you
recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of
all available information which concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which
is immediately or potentially significant to police planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information
C. Data
D. intelligence
6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the
workload and the availability
of resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan
7. It is the premier educational institution for the police,
fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology
D. Philippine Public Safety College
8. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor
9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of
physical defense. It must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers
10. All of the following are members of the People’s Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
Council from among the respected members of the
community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality
concerned chosen by the association of the
Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the
Philippines (IBP)
11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its
suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing
12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary
considerations in the
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system
13. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss
which of the following:
A. his educational profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religious
affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence
14. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which
is capable of restricting, determine, or delaying illegal access to
an installation.
A. alarm
B. wall
C. barrier
D. hazard
15. What form of intelligence is involved when information is
obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom
the information or documents may be used, or if the
information is clandestinely acquired?
A. covert
B. overt
C. active
D. underground
16. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director
from a list of ___________ eligible recommended by the

Regional Director, preferable from the same province, city,
municipality.
A. three (3)
B. five (5)
C. four (4)
D. Two (2)
17. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide,
the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in
accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700)
inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred
(1,500) C.inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500)
inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000)
inhabitants.
18. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a
______where telephones or any means of communication
shall
A.ensure open lines of communication.
B.command post
C.operations center
D.field room
19. Registration of a security agency must be done at the______.
A.Securities and Exchange Commission
B.National Police Commission
C.Department of National Defense
D.PNP Criminal Investigation Group
20. The cheapest form of police patrol.
A. Bicycle Patrol
B. Foot Patrol
C. Motorcycle Patrol
D. Helicopter Patrol
21. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure
requirements.
A.tactical plan
B.financial plan
C.work plan
D.control plan
22. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while
the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A.rabbit
B.surveillant
C.traffic enforcement
D.patrol
23. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the
police service. In all types of police stations, there is a specific
unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its
importance.
A.vice control
B.criminal investigation
C.traffic management
D.patrol
24. It is the weakest link in security chain.
A.managers
B.Barriers
C.Personnel
D.inspections
25. Which of the following is considered as the most important
factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A.training of station commander
B.adequacy of resources of the police station
C.rank of the patrol commander
D.salary rates of police personnel
26. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers
over errant police members?
A.District Director
B.Provincial Director
C.Chief of Police
D.Chief, PNP
27. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t
have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the
following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait
for calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats
but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which
are not covered by foot patrol
28. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar
B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan
D. Frederick the Great
29. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer
can give information to the police?
A.wants to be known to the policeman
B.monetary reward
C.as a good citizen
D.revenge
30. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
31. What administrative support unit conducts identification and
evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes, with
emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical
nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center
32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the
agency’s mission are ________.
A. staff
B. supervision
C. management
D. line
33. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the

investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
C. burnt out
D. get out
34. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be
best penetrated by the police through:
A. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol
D. helicopter patrol
35. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following,
EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps
36. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information

comes from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant
D. communications media
37. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and
graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as
officers through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
C. lateral entry
D. attrition
38. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a
municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to
the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which
of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Complan Pagbabago
39. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can
prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial
plan?
A. security conference
B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education
40. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait
rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high-visibility patrol
41. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety
of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit
B. Traffic Operations Center
C. Traffic Management Command
D. Aviation Security Command
42. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator
merely uses his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
D. interrogation
43. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed,
EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
44. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1
Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria.The thief’s
desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police
officer but the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity
45. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are
automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent
46. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of
the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine
Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
47. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get
information from persons within the vicinity.In the police work,
this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview
48. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their
utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A. smell
B. hearing
C. eating
D. drinking
49. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of
geographic information because law enforcement officials must
know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources
50. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and
search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle
51. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator
tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance
52. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or
commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial
guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the
government.
A. Secret Agent
B. “Tiktik”
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
53. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,
honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
54. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching
the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other
end of the road and again turning right until you completed
the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling.What
patrol pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling
55. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the
opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting
them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing
56. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large
park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol
57. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?
A. Intermediate
B. Strategic
C. Medium
D. short
58. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or
year round needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs
59. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
A. horse
B. foot
C. canine
D. police
60. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down
61. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?

A. Inspector
B. senior superintendent
C. asst. chief
D. chief superintendent
62. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the
word credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
D. vulnerability
63. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?
A. observation
B. crime prevention
C. called for service
D. criminal apprehension
64. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic
65. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so
element of surprise is lost which is one of the ________
of air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. import
66. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in
large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and
riots?
A. foot
B. horse
C. bicycle
D. dog .
67. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization
under the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975
68. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?
A. investigator
B. patrol officer
C. traffic officer
D. The Chief of Police
69. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
A. trumpet
B. horn
C. radio
D. siren
70. What type of cover uses actual or true background?
A. artificial
B. multiple cover
C. natural
D. cover within a 71. What is the principle of organization suggesting that
communication should ordinarily go upward and downward
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
72. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of
the police service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
73. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such,are automatically deputized as representatives
of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these
74. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and
control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA
75. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint
against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
76. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any
act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the
performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
77. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the
community in the maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS)
78. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for
accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all
the authority for making decisions.This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
79. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay
equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary
for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of
his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied
services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
80. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
81. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of
performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and
violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
82. The credential extended by the Civil Service
Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of
conferring status for permanent appointment in the police
service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
83. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
84. The premier educational institution for the training, human
resource development and continuing education of all the
personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
85. Under the law,the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank
of __.
A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
86. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
87. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Provincial Government
88. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
89. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal
jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government
90. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the
PNP
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
91. Which of the following administers and attends to cases
involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Women’s Desk
D. Homicide Division
92. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM
representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP
units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
93. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial
Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside
of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
94. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. judge
B. chief of police
C. mayor
D. governor
95. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the
purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of
laws and maintenance of peace and order.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
96. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or
units of the PNP.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
97. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the
PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombusdman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
98. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may
recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
99. Who is the current Chief of the PNP?
A. Nicanor Bartome
B. Nicanor Bartomeo
C. Nick Bartolome
D. Nicanor Bartolome
100. The current PNP deputy director General for Administration is
A. Arturo Cacdac Jr.
B. Emilito Sarmiento
C. Rommel Heredia
D. Alexander Roldan
101. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be
processed at what particular government agency.
A. PNP SAGSD
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DND
D. SEC
102. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of
a security agency.
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old
103. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to
security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. DILG Usec
C. NAPOLCOM chairman
D. DILG Secretary
104. Refers to a natural or man made structure which is capable of
delaying illegal access to facility.
A. Wall
B. Fence
C. Barriers
D. Beach fronts
105. It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees
making them security conscious.
A. Security Promotion
B. Security Education
C. Security Investigation
D. Security Seminar
106. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical
defense,it refers to
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself
C. Door,Locks,Window barriers
D. Entry points where security guards are located
107. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the
potential intruder and the object matter to be protected.As
criminologists,this is simply a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Opportunity to the object of protection
C. Access to the object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender
108. Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
109. Perimeter barriers,protective lighting and ______ system are
known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting
110. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually
barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase
physical protection from intruders of a certain area,this is
known as
A. Cellar Guard
B. Tower Guard
C. Top Guard
D. Top Tower
111. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter
barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation
and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
112. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of
electronic hardware,human guards and even animals.In
England,an owner to protect his compound used this and they
are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain.This
man is using
A. Doberman
B. Tame Tigers
C. Geese
D. Duck
113. The government agency that issues licenses for private and
government security guard is
A. PNP SOSIA
B. Mayors office
C. PNP FEO
D. PNP SAGSD
114. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel,this
particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area
115. First measure undertaking before a comprehensive security
program for an industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security education
B. Security check
C. Security survey
D. Security Inspection
116. A security of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other
terms except
A. Robbery evaluation
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Audit
117. Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to
the blue army.
A. Government security guards
B. Company guards
C. Agency guards
D. Body guards
118. Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm
or hire contractual agency guards have their individual merits
and disadvantages.To determine which type of guarding
system an industrial firm will require management must consult
A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a
security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
C. A police officer
D. A security agency owner
119. As a security officer,you can not prevent nor protect natural
hazards like storm,earthquakes,floods and the like.In order to
reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards you
will
A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
C. Not take any concern of such hazards
D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm
120. Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its
effectiveness is called
A. Sham drill
B. Fire drill
C. Dry run
D. Evacuation plan
121. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is
A. To weed out undesirable employees
B. To check loyalty of employees to the organization
C. To determine the character and reputation of certain
employees secretly tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those
who are security risks
122. In an industrial firm there is a need for document security.As
security officer,you can advice management on this aspect
although this is not totally your assigned work.Document
security is not a protection of vital records from
A. Authorized handlers
B. Theft or loss
C. Compromise or destruction
D. Unauthorized access
123. As a security chief of an industrial firm,inventory shows that
pilferage is rampant in the warehouses.What will be your
choice of action
A. To resign if you have failed your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to
catch the culprit
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer with
management for their immediate implementation
D. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of the
compound/complex
124. There are many types of electronic and electric protective
devices available for security buildings,storehouses and
compounds.One of the ff: is true
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection
for the place to be safeguarded
B. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the
dealers of said devices
C. Each building or compound requires particular
electronic/electrical protective devices
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards
125. The management of keys used in plant office or business
organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as
A. Security key control
B. Lock control
C. key control
D. Key management
126. It is defined as system of barriers placed between the matters
protected and the potential intruder
A. Computer security
B. Personnel security
C. Document security
D. Physical security
127. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside
the compound
A. Auxiliary system
B. Proprietary system
C. Central alarm system
D. Local alarm system
128. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000
cubic meters of essential items.At least 12 ft. in height with
enough ventilation and fire proof of at least one hour.
A. Protective cabinet
B. File room
C. Vault
D. Safe
129. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to
damage,loss or disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Relative vulnerability
D. Relative criticality
130. It refers to the importance of the establishment with
reference to the national economy and security.
A. Risk analysis
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Risk assessment
D. Relative criticality
131. The association of all licensed security agencies operators

A. POAPAD
B. PADPAO
C. PODPAO
D. PAOPAD
132.Who among below can own or operate security agency?
A. A Filipino citizen
B. Anyone provided he knows the job
C. An alien but living in the Philippines
D. All of them
133. A licensed issued to operate security agency or company
forces.
A. Business license
B. License to engage in business
C. License to operate
D. All of them
134. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation of
A. Private detective
B. Company security
C. Private security forces/agencies
D. All of them
135. A fact-finding prove to determine a plant adequacy and
deficiency all aspects of security with the corresponding
recommendation.
A. Security audit
B. Security survey
C. Security inquiry
D. Security operations
136. Barrier which includes but not limited to wall,fences,grill etc.
A. Structural barriers
B. Man made barriers
C. Physical barriers
D. Natural barriers
137. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected
opportunity and has little fear of detection.
A. Systematic
B. Outsider
C. Casual
D. Insider
138. A barrier which includes but not limited to mountains, cliffs,
ravines, cliffs, etc.
A. Energy
B. Human
C. Natural
D. Animals
139. Issued by the security guard for personnel to be admitted to

the company.
A. Duress code
B. Pass system
C. ID
D. Access list
140. In a close-in security formations, a one man security covers
A. 360 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
141. A mechanical device of supplying water which can be manual
or motor driven.
A. Stand pipe
B. Fire extinguisher
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire pump
142.Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not
prevent criminals from trespassing and should be used normally
as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the
human guard forces.
A. Detect
B. Deterred
C. Provide
D. Impeded
143. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing
entry to compound or installation or part thereof.
A. Pass system
B. ID
C. Access list
D. Duress code
144. The act or condition affecting the safe operation of the
facility caused by human action,accidental or intentional.It
includes sabotage,espionage,pilferage and
theft,disloyalty,disaffection and subversive activities.
A. Electronic hazard
B. natural hazard
C. Artificial hazard
D. Human hazard
145. Example of the Security Communication system.
A. Telephone
B. Paging system
C. Radio
D. All of them
146. The revised rules and regulations governing the organization

and operation of private detective and private security
agencies and company security forces throughout the
country.
A. Private security law
B. International law
C. Private law
D. Security law
147. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents
or small items in an office or installation.
A. Steel cabinet
B. Drawer
C. Basket
D. Safe
148. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container
usually a part of the building structure used to keep and
protect cash,document and negotiable instruments.
A. Basket
B. Vault
C. Steel cabinet
D. Concrete coffin
149. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest
to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of
fire.
A. Lowering pipe
B. Wet pipe
C. Top pipe
D. Stand pipe
150. Who among below are exempted from pre-licensing training?
A. AFP and PNP retirees
B. Graduate of ROTC basic or advance
C. AFP and PNP veterans
D. All of the above
151. Tenure of security personnel is based on
A. Can be extended by the client
B. The service contract between the agency and the
client
C. Labor only contracting between the agency and the
guard
D. Tenure provided by the labor code
152. Before private security agencies render security services to
its clients,there must be a contract that must bind them,it is
called
A. Contract service
B. Service contract
C. Security contract
D. Security service contract
153. Which below is a qualification for the operator or manager of
security agency.
A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP,inactive or retirees
B. At least 25 years of age
C. Filipino citizen
D. All of them
154. A security force maintained and operated by any private
company for its own security requirements only.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security unit
155. A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or
secure a residence or business establishment or both is
A. Watchman
B. Security guard
C. B only
D. B and A
156. Include all the security measures designed to prevent
unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the
government from gaining access to classified matter or to any
security facility and to prevent appointment or retention as
employees of such individuals.
A. Security personnel
B. Employee security
C. Personnel security
D. Both A and C
157. It is an inquiry into the character,reputation,discretion and

loyalty of individual in order to determine a persons suitability
to be given security clearance.
A. BI
B. LAC
C. NAC
D. PSI
158. Consist of the investigation of the background of an individual
but limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal
life which are deemed pertinent to the investigation.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
159. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the
circumstances or aspect of a persons life is conducted.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
160. Among the following,which is the least expensive and least
secure personnel control identification system?
A. Multiple pass system
B. Group pass and badge system
C. Spot magnetized identification pass
D. Single pass or badge system
161. Factors considered in background investigation except:
A. Integrity
B. Character
C. Personal prestige
D. Loyalty
162. Motives that cause people to be disloyal
A. Character
B. Revenge
C. Moral
D. Reputation
163. Weakness that makes people susceptible to pressure
A. Jealousy
B. Weakness of character
C. Close relative in foreign land
D. All of them
164. A security unit maintained and operated by any government
entity.
D. Private security agency
165. Cosnsist of the investigation of the background of a person
particularly all the circumstances of his personal life
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
166. Any person,association,partnership,firm or private
corporation,who contracts recruits,trains,furnishes or post
any security guards to do its functions.
D. Private security agency
167. Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as
his shift is concerned.
A. Officer in charge
B. Shift in charge
C. Security guard on duty
D. Assistant detachment commander
168. Before a security guard can practice his profession,he shall

possess a valid security license,What is this license?
A. Firearm license
B. License to operate
C. Drivers license
D. Security guard license
169. How many firearms issued for every two guards employed by
the security agency is allowed by law?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
170. Firearms of security agency should be covered with firearms
license issued by the PNP through its Firearm Explosive
Division under the civil security group renewable every
A. 4 years
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. 1 year
171. The aspect of security which involves the application of
security measures For the protection and safeguarding of
classified information
A. Top secret
B. Information security
C. Personnel security
D. Documents security
172. Refers to assigned information by one of the four classification
categories
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
173. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is
eligible for access to classified matter.
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
174. Means loss of security which results from an unauthorized
persons obtaining knowledge of classified matter.
A. Vulnerability
B. Criticality
C. probability
D. Compromise
175. These are information and material,the unauthorized disclosure
of which would cause exceptional grave damage to the
nation,politically,economically or from a security aspect,this
category is reserved for the nations closest secret and is to
be used with great reserve.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters
176. These information and material,the authorized disclosure of
which would endanger national security,cause serious injury to
the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental
activity or would be of great advantage to a foreign nation.
B. Secret matters
177. These information and material,the unauthorized disclosure of
which while not endangering the national security would be
prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any
government activity or would cause administrative
embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or
would be of the advantage to a foreign nation.
B. Secret matters
178. It is information that in some special way relates to the status

or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor
asserts ownership.
A. Transmission security
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
179. It maybe a formula for a chemical compound,a process of
manufacturing,treating or preserving materials,a pattern for
machine or device or a list of customers.
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
180. It is the protection resulting from the application of various
measures which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
persons in gaining information through communication.
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above
181. That component of communication security which results from

the provisions of technically sound crypto system and their
proper use.
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above
182. A system which uses words as the smallest element.
A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
183. A system that manipulate 1,2 or 3 characters at a time.
A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
184. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
185. It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
186. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the
business,government or industrial environment for which the
risk manager has responsibility.
A. Risk self-assumption
B. Risk spreading
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk avoidance
187. It is an act of spying.
A. Saboteur
B. Espionage
C. pilferer
D. Sabotage
188. It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards
which security has to deal with.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
189. One who steals with pre conceived plans and takes always
any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
190. What date is the Republic Act No. 5487 or the private security
agency law passed?
A. June 13, 1999
B. June 13, 1969
C. June 7, 2009
D. June 31, 1969
191. A natural hazards or acts of god.
A. Calamity
B. Phenomenon
C. Disaster
D. Force majeure
192. A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and
are usually escorted.
A. Exclusive area
B. Limited area
C. Restricted area
D. Protected area
193. A structure placed above a vertical fence to increase
protection from intruder.
A. Guard house
B. Clear zone
C. Tower guard
D. Top guard
194.A conference similar to entrance conference,this is only done after the completion of
security survey.
A. Entrance conference
B. Briefing
C. Debriefing
D. Exit conference
195. It is the lost that would be sustained if a given target or combination of target where
totally removed,destroyed or both.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
196. Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to sustain through theft and
robbery.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
197. A term used in England for lock pickers,safe crackers and penetrators of restricted
rooms or area.
A. Superman
B. Peterpan
C. Batman
D. Peterman
198. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas is issued to an
employee who keeps it in his possession until his authorization terminates.
A. Pass system
B. Pass exchange system
C. Single pass system
D. Multi pass system
199. Company owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police station so that in case
of need, direct call is possible.
A. Auxiliary alarm
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station station system
200. The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm system near the object to
be protected.
A. Auxiliary alarm
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station system
201.A primary subdivision of a bureau with a department wide

responsibility for providing a specific specialized functions.
A.Section
B.Sector
C.Squad
D.Detail
202.A subdivision of a squad
A.Section
B.Unit
C.Sector
D.Detail
203.A subdivision of a unit.
A.Section
B.Unit
C.Squad
D.Detail
204.A subdivision of a section.
A.Precinct
B.Unit
C.Squad
D.Detail

205.The primary geographic subdivision of a precinct.
A.Post
B.Sector
C. Section
D.Unit
206.The primary subdivision of a sector.
A.Post
B.Beat
C. Unit
D.Sector
207.One of several tours of duty.
A.Detail
B.Post
C. Shift
D.Beat
208.Fixed geographic location usually assigned to an individual officer
A.Post
B.Beat
C. Shift
D.Section
209.The primary geographic subdivision of the patrol operation bureau.
A. Precinct
B.Section
C. Sector
D.Unit
210.It means planning the work of the department and of the
personnel in an orderly manner.
A.Plan
B.Delegate
C. Oversee
D.Organize
211. A nationwide, cooperative statistical effort of law enforcement
agencies voluntarily reporting data on crimes brought to
their attention.
A. National Crime Reporting
B. Uniform Crime Reporting
C. National Statistic Report
D. National Police Crime Report
212. It post the location of murder's,rapes,robberies,carnapping and
other major crimes of the locality.
A. Crime hot spots
B. Crime incident location
C. Crime spot map
D. Crime mapping
213. It post the the motor vehicle and pedestrian accident which
occur in the area.
A. Traffic spot map
B. Traffic crime map
C. Traffic statistic report
D. Traffic incidence report
214. Useful to indicate the traffic accidents and crime location.
A.Traffic map
B. Traffic and crime map
C. Crime map
D. Spot map
215. Each time any file is issued, a record should be made on a color
charge-out which is often called a “Substitution Card” or an
“Out Card” which takes the place of a file that has been
removed from the cabinet.
A. Borrower's card
B. Document card
C. Borrower's slip
D. Charged out card
216. A file showing the history of each police officer, both prior and
subsequent to joining the force, is indispensable.
A. Personal records
B. Policy,order,memoranda file
C. Assignment record
D. Correspondence file
217. This consist of set or records of communications classified,
arranged and filed alphabetically by the subject to which they
pertain.
A. Personal record
B. Policy,order,memoranda file
C. Assignment record
D. Correspondence file
218. This consist of photographic records of known criminals and
describe the procedure how criminals commit crime.
A. Modus operandi file
B. Operation file
C. Method of operation file
D. Criminal file
219. A notation put into a file to indicate that a record is not stored in
that file but in some other location specified therein.It tells the
filer or searcher where to find the needed material.
A. Reference
B. Cross reference
C. File notation
D. Cross location
220.Making an identifying mark on the item to be stored to indicate
what classifications it is to be filed .
A. Identifying
B. Classifying
C. Coding
D. Differentiating
221. There are how many staff directorate in the Philippine National Police?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
222. The second highest ranking officer in the PNP.
A. Deputy Director General for Operation
B. Chief of the Directorial Staff
C. NCR Director
223. What is the rank of the PNP Chief of the Directorial Staff?
A. 3 Star General
B. 2 Star General
C. 1 Star General
224. This theory of Police service is followed by the PNP.
A. Continental Theory
B. Home Rule Theory
C. Modern Rule Theory
225. Under this theory of police service, policemen are considered
servants of the community.
B. Home Rule Theory
226. Under this theory of police service, policemen are considered
servants of the higher authority and people have little share
or no share of all there duties nor any direct connection
with them.
B. Home Rule Theory
227. This concept of police service says that punishment is the
sole instrument of crime control, throwing more people to jail
rather than keeping them out of jail.
A. Old Concept
B. Modern Concept
C. Community Concept
228. This concept of police service says that the yardstick of
efficiency of police is the absence of crime.
A. Old Concept
B. Modern Concept
C. Community Concept
229. This type of organizational structure divides authority between
several specialist.
A. Line Organization
B. Functional Organization
C. Line Staff Organization
230.It is the simplest type of organizational structure,Channels of
authority and responsibility extends in a direct line from top
to bottom within the structure.
C. Line staff Organization
231. This type of organizational structure is found in almost

all police organization today.
C. Line Staff Organization
232. An organization is effective if it enables the individual
to contribute to the organizations objective.
A. Principle of Unity of Objective
B. Principle of Organizational efficiency
C. Scalar Principle
D. Unity of Command
233. Organization is effective if it is structured in such a way
to aid the accomplishment of the organization's objective
with a minimum cost.
C. Scalar Principle
D. Unity of Command
234. The vertical heirarchy of an organization which defines an

unbroken chain of units from top to bottom describing
explicitly the flow of authority.
C. Scalar Principle
D. Unity of Command
235. A subordinate should only follow the command of one superior.

A. Unity of command
B. Span of control
C. Delegation of authority
D. Principle of balance
236. The control of superior should not be more than what he
can effectively direct.
A. Unity of command
B. Span of control
237. The assignment of authority and responsibility to another person.
A. Unity of command
B. Span of control
238. Refers to the division of work according to type, place, time
and specialization.
A. Functional Principle
B. Line and Staff principle
C. Principle of balance
D. Principle of delegation result
239. To ensure the effectiveness of the structure in meeting
the organization's objective.
D. Principle of delegation result expected
240.That which implies the system of varied functions, arrange
into a workable pattern.
241. The authority delegated should be adequate to ensure
the ability to accomplish expected result.
242. The responsibility of the subordinates to their superior
for performance is absolute and superior can not escape
responsibility for the organization on activities
performed by their subordinates.
A. Principle of Absolute Responsibility
B. Principle of balance
C. Principle of Parity and Responsibility
D. Principle of delegation
243. The responsibility for actions can not be greater than that
implied by the authority delegated nor should it be less.
A. Principle of Absolute Responsibility
B. Principle of balance
C. Principle of Parity and Responsibility
D. Principle of delegation
244. This law organized the Manila Police department.
A. Act 183
B. R.A. 8551
C. E.O. 1012
D. E.O. 1040
245. Transferred the operational supervision and direction
over all INP units to the city and municipal government.
A. Act 183
B. R.A. 8551
C. E.O. 1012
D. E.O. 1040
246. Transferred the administrative control and supervision of
the INP from Ministry of National Defense to the office
of the Napolcom.
A. Act 183
B. R.A. 8551
C. E.O. 1012
D. E.O. 1040
247. The Transfer of the administrative control and supervision of
the INP from Ministry of National Defense to the office
of the Napolcom took effect on.
A. July 10, 1985
B. July 10, 1986
C. July 10, 1987
D. July 10, 1988
248. The Manila Police Department was organized on.
A. July 31, 1900
B. July 31, 1901
C. July 31, 1902
D. July 31, 1903
249. Granted to those who possesses the mandatory
promotional requirement.
A. Regular Promotion
B. Special Promotion
C. A and B
250.Extended to PNP members who acted conspicuously
beyond and above the call of duty.
A. Regular Promotion
B. Special Promotion
C. A and B
251. A PNP officer before eligible for promotion to the

rank of Senior Superintendent must first obtained
what mandatory training requirement?
A. General Staff Course
B. Officer Senior Executive Course
C. Officer Advance Course
D. Officer Basic Course
rank of Superintendent must first secure what
mandatory training requirement?
rank of Chief Inspector must first secure what
mandatory training requirement.
rank of Senior Inspector must first secure what
mandatory training requirement.
255. Before an officer is appointed to the rank of PNP
Inspector, He/She must finish what mandatory training
requirement?
C. Officer Candidate Course
256. Before a PNP enlisted personnel is appointed to the
rank of SPO3 to SPO4, what mandatory training requirement
must he/she undertake?
A. Senior Leadership Course
B. Basic Leadership Course
C. Public Safety Basic Course
257. Before a PNP enlisted personnel is appointed to the
rank of PO2 to PO3, what mandatory training requirement
must he/she undertakes?
A. Senior Leadership Course
B. Basic Leadership Course
C. Public Safety Basic Course
258. Highest award in the PNP.
A. Medalya ng Kasanayan
B. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
C. Medalya ng Katapangan
D. Medalya ng Kagitingan
259. PNP's mandatory retirement age.
A. 55
B. 56
C. 60
D. 65
260. Optional retirement requires the approval of the
A. DILG Secretary
B. Napolcom
C. Chief of the PNP
D. President of the Philippines
261. Sir Robert Peel introduced the Metropolitan Police Act and passed
by the parliament of England on
A. 1828
B. 1829
C. 1830
D. 1831
262. Considered as the father of modern policing system.

A. Sir Robert Peel
B. August Vollmer
C. Edgar Hoover
D. Henry Armstrong
263. In the principles of law enforcement enunciated by Sir Robert Peel,
the basic mission of the police is
A. Prevention of crime
B. Enforcement of the law
C. Maintenance of peace and order
264. One of the feature of this act is that no freeman shall be taken
or imprisoned except by the judgment of his peer
A. Magna Carta
B. Statute of 1295
C. Legies Henry
265. The closing of gates of London during sun down. This mark
the beginning of the curfew hours
A. Statute of 1295
B. Statute of 1775
C. Statute of 1827
D. Statute of 1834
266. A Position having power to arrest, punish, and imposes imprisonment.
A. Justice of the Peace
B. Sheriff
C. Star Chamber Court
D. traveling Judge
267. A Special Court that tried cases against the state.
A. Shire-Reeve
B. Star Chamber Court
C. Magna Carta
D. Legies Henry
268. He is held responsible in passing judgment that was taken from the
shire-reeve in view of some abuses.
A. Legies Henry
B. star Chamber Court
C. Justice of the Peace
D. Traveling Judge
269. An Act enacted in England with the following features:
a. Policeman became public servant
b. The Police has a broad power of arrest
c. Grand Jury was created to inquire on the violations of the law.
A. Statute of 1295
B. Star Chamber Court
C. Legies Henry
D. Magna Carta
270. Shire means
A. Ruler
B. District
C. Police
D. Judge
271. A round line or district area regularly traversed by foot

police patrol.
A. Bureau
B. Division
C. Section
D. Beat
272. One of the advantage of this patrol is that the patrolman
knows the area and people in his beat.
A. Bicycle Patrol
B. Horse Patrol
C. Motorized Patrol
D. Foot Patrol
273. Backbone of the police service in the community.
A. Police Intelligence
B. Police Investigation
C. Police Patrol
274. One of the following types of police patrol is currently
not used in the Philippines.
A. Mobile Patrol
B. Foot Patrol
C. Animal Patrol
D. Aircraft Patrol
275. It is the largest segment of a police station.
A. Police Patrol
B. Police Investigation
C. Police Intelligence
276. From the time of the receipt of the call by the police
dispatcher to the arrival of the mobile patrol at the scene.
A. Response Time
B. Preparation Time
C. Speed Time
277. Which of the following kind of patrol is most effective in
parade and crowd control.
A. Foot Patrol
B. Horse Patrol
C. Mobile Patrol
D. Aircraft Patrol
278. One of the advantage of this kind of patrol is stealth
silence for movement.
A. Foot Patrol
B. Bicycle Patrol
C. Mobile Patrol
D. Horse Patrol
279. An electronic equipment that has helped the police in its
record, storage, and location system.
A. Walkie Talkie
B. Vault
C. File Room
D. Computer
280. One electronic gadget or equipment that has assisted
immediately the police investigation and interrogation
in his work.
A. Walkie Talkie
B. Tape Recorder
C. Computer
281. Backbone of the police department.

A. Intelligence
B. Patrol
C. Investigation
D. Vice Control
282. Established the fist English police department, the London
metropolitan police in 1829.
A. O.W Wilson
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. Henry Fielding
283. He laid the foundation for the first modern police force. he was
appointed magistrate in Westminster in 1748.
A. Henry Fielding
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. O.W. Wilson
284. A Chicago Police department superintendent, he introduced a one man
mobile patrol except in ghetto and crime ridden section of the city.
The rationale is that help is a microphone away.
A. O.W. Wilson
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. Henry Fielding
285. Required all men in a given town to serve on the night watch.
A. Hue and Cry
B. Shires
C. Parish constable
D. Watch and Ward
286. Ten tithings or 100 families under the charge of a constable.
A. Shire
B. Parish Constable
C. Beadies
D. Hundred
287. Groups of hundreds within a specific geographic area.They were put under
the control of the King and were governed by a shire-reeve or sheriff.
A. Shires
B. Parish Constable
C. Beadies
D. Tithings
288. Ten families who grouped together to protect one another and to assume
responsibility for the acts of the group member.
A. Hundred
B. Shires
C. Tithings
D. Beadies
289. Enacted in 1285 in England, it established a rudimentary criminal justice
system in which most of the responsibility for law enforcenment remained
with the people themselves.
A. The Hue and Cry
B. shire-reeve
C. Statute of Winchester
D. Magna carta
290.He was responsible for organizing and supervising the watch
A. Shire-reeve
B. Shire
C. Magistrate
D. Parish Constable
291. He assisted the justices of the peace by presiding the courts, ordering
arrest, calling witnesses and examining prisoners
A. Parish Constable
B. Sheriff
C. Magistrates
D. Shire
292. This office was created to assist the shire-reeve in non urban areas
B. Parish Constable
C. Magistrates
D. Watchmen
293. This office was created to assist the shire-reeve in urban areas.
B. Parish Constable
C. Magistrates
D. Watchmen
294. Patrolling the streets from dusk till dawn to insure that all local
people were indoors and quite and to insure that no strangers were
roaming around.
A. Justice of the peace
B. Parish Constable
C. Magistrates
D. Watchmen
295. A system of apprehending criminals whereby a complainant goes in the
middle of the street and shout at the top of his voice calling all males
to assemble and indicates the whereabouts of the culprit.
A. Royal Judge
B. Magistrates
C. Watchmen
D. Hue and Cry
296. He conducts Criminal investigation and give punishment.
A. Royal Judge
B. Magistrate
C. Watchmen
D. Parish Constable
297. Suspects were required to place their hands in boiling water. When not
hurt, he will be acquitted, if not he is guilty of the crime.
A. Hue and Cry
B. Shire
C. Trial by Ordeal
298. An Anglo-saxon period of policing system where the residents themselves
were required to preserve the peace and order and protect life and
properties of the people.
A. Hue and Cry
B. Royal Judge
C. Trial by ordeal
D. Tun policing system
299. The cooperative human effort to achieve the purpose of criminal justice
system.
A. Civil Administration
B. Police Administration
C. Patrol Administration
300.This law established the Napolcom under the office of the President.
It is also known as the Police Act of 1966.
A. R.A. 6975
B. C.A. 181
C. R.A. 4864
D. R.A. 4668
301. An area containing two or more beat, route, or post.

A. Sector
B. District
C. Area
302. A geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes usually
with its own station.
A. Sector
B. District
C. Area
303. A section or territorial division of a large city each composed of
designated districts.
A. Sector
B. District
C. Area
304. All personnel of the police department who have taken oath.
A. Duty officer
B. Subordinate officer
C. Sworn officer
D. Commanding office
305. Describes the procedure that defines the duties of officers assigned
to specific post or position.
A. Duty Manual
B. Mission Order
C. Special Order
D. Office Manual
306. The Japanese Military Police.
A. Kempetai
B. Sepuko
C. Arigato
D. Kimchi
307. The Manila Police Department was formally organized on this date.
A. July 31, 1901
B. July 31. 1902
C. August 1, 1901
D. August 1, 1902
308. The PC (Philippine Constabulary) was organized as the first insular
police force on this date.
A. July 31, 1901
B. July 31, 1902
C. August 1, 1901
D. August 1, 1902
309. The First Chief of the PC (Philippine Constabulary).
A. Ronald John Hay
B. Henry Allen
C. George Cury
D. John Burnham
310. The First chief of police of Manila.
A. Henry Allen
B. George Cury
C. Howard Taft
D. Tomas Clark
311. The determination in advance of how the objectives of the

organization will be attained.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
312. involves the determination and allocation of the men and
women as well as the resource of an organization to achieve
pre-determined goals or objectives of the organization.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
313. It involves the overseeing and supervising of the human
resources and the various activities in an organization
to achieve through cooperative efforts the pre-determined
goals or objectives of the organization.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
314. It involves the checking or evaluation and measurement of
work performance and comparing it with planned goals or
objectives of the organization, and making the necessary
corrective actions so that work is accomplished as planned.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
315. The task of providing competent men to do the job and choosing
the right men for the right job-involves good selection and
processing of reliable and well-trained personnel.
A. Staffing
B. Reporting
C. Budgeting
D. Controlling
316. The making of detailed account of activities, work progress,
investigations and unusual in order to keep everyone informed
or what is going on.
A. Staffing
B. Reporting
C. Budgeting
D. Controlling
317. The forecasting in detail of the results of an officially

recognized program of operations based on the highest
reasonable expectations of operating efficiency.
A. Staffing
B. Reporting
C. Budgeting
D. Controlling
318. This is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds,
which shall be outlined to guide officers and men in the field.
A. Field Procedure
B. Headquarter's Procedure
C. Special Operating Procedure
319. To be included in these procedures are the duties of the
dispatcher, jailer, matron, and other personnel concerned,
which may be reflected in the duty manual. It also involves
coordinated action on activity of several offices.
A. Field Procedure
320.Certain special operations also necessitate the preparation
of procedures as guides.
A. Field Procedure
321. A general statement of intention and typically with

a time horizon.
A. Goal
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Strategy
322. Specific commitment to achieve a measurable result
within a specific period of time.
A. Goal
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Strategy
323. An organize schedule or sequence by methodical activities
intended to attain a goal and objectives for the
accomplishment of mission or assignment.
A. Goal
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Strategy
324. Is an attempt by administration to allocate anticipated resources
to meet anticipated service demands.
A. Police Planning
B. Planning
C. Strategy
D. Plan
325. A process of preparing for change and copping uncertainty
formulating future causes of action, the process of
determining the problem of the organization coming up with
proposed resolution and finding best solution.
A. Police Planning
B. Planning
C. Strategy
D. Plan
326. It is a broad design, method, a plan to attain a stated
goal or objective.
A. Police Planning
B. Planning
C. Strategy
D. Plan
327. It is a specific design, method, or course of action to
attain a particular objective in accordance with strategy.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
328. A sequence of activities to reach a point or to attain
that which is desired.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
329. A product of prudence or wisdom in the management of
human affairs.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
330.A rule of action for the rank and file to show them
and they are expected to obtain the desired effect.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
331. Set of procedure to meet varying degree of emergency

while at the same time providing continuing police coverage
of areas not affected by the emergency.
A. General Emergency Plan
B. Specific Emergency Plan
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
332. A sub-type of plan to meet unusual needs which is similar
to general emergency plan but it is basically to certain
specific situation.
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
333. It relates to plans which are strategic or long range
in application, it determine the organizations original
goals and strategy.
A. Strategic plan
B. Intermediate plan
C. Operational plan
334. It relates to plans which determine quantity and quality
efforts and accomplishment. It refers to the process of
determining the contribution on efforts that can make
or provide with allocated resources.
A. Strategic plan
C. Operational plan
335. It refers to the production of plans which determines the
schedule of special activity and are applicable from one
week to less than a year duration.
A. Strategic plan
C. Operational plan
336. It is the basic principle in planning, organizing, and
management of the PNP in support of the overall pursuit
of the PNP vision, mission, and strategic action plan of
the national objective.
A. Fundamental Doctrine
B. Operational Doctrine
C. Functional Doctrine
337. The principles and rules governing the planning, organization,
direction, and employment of the PNP forces in the accomplishment
of basic mission of maintenance of peace and order, crime prevention
and suppression and security and public safety operations.
338. This provides guidance for special activities of the PNP in the
broad field of interest such as personnel, intelligence, operations,
logistics, planning.
339. Doctrine formulated jointly by two or more bureau in order
to effect a certain operation with regard to public safety
and peace and order.
C. Complimentary Doctrine
D. Ethical Doctrine
340.It defines the fundamental principle governing the rules
of conduct, attitude, behavior and ethical norm of the PNP.
D. Ethical Doctrine
341. An organization is more effective if it enables the

individual to contribute to the organization.
B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
C. The Scalar Principle
D. Functional Principle
342. Organizations structure is effective if it is structured
to aid the accomplishment of organizations objective with
minimum cost.
343. The vertical hierarchy of the organization which defines an
unbroken chain of scale of units from top to bottom
describing explicitly the flow of authority.
344. This implies a system of varied function arranged into a
workable pattern. The line organization refers to the direct
accomplishment of the objective. The staff refers to the line
organization which is an advisory or facilitative capacity.
345. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank
and position.
A. Authority
B. Doctrine
C. Discipline
346. It provides for the organizations objectives, it provides
the various actions, hence, policies, procedures, rules,
and regulation of the organization are based on the
statement of doctrines.
A. Authority
B. Doctrine
C. Discipline
347. It is imposed by command or self restraint to insure
supportive behavior.
A. Authority
B. Doctrine
C. Discipline
348. Procedures for coping with specific situations and locations.
A. Procedural Plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. Extra-Office Plan
349. Plans for the operation of special divisions like patrol,
detective, traffic, vice, and juvenile control division.
A. Procedural Plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
350. Standard operating procedures shall be planned to guide members
in routine and field operations and in some special operations.
A. Procedural Plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
351. Standard Operating procedures shall be planned to guide
members in routine and field operations and in some
special operations.
A. Policy/Procedural Plan
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
352. Procedures for coping with specific situations at
known locations.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
detective, traffic, vice and juvenile control division.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
354. The active interest and participation of individual office
is so vital to the success of the integrated police programs
tha the integrated police shall continually seek to
motivate, promote and maintain an active public concern in
its affairs.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
355. It shall map out in advance all operations involved in the
organizations management of personnel and material and in
the procurement and disbursement of money.
B. Operational Plan
C. Management Plan
356. Forecasting future events and determining the most effective
future activities for the company.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
357. Consist of the ways in which the organizational structure
is established and how the authority and responsibility
are given to managers a tasked called delegation.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
358. Managers must supervise subordinates in their daily work, and
inspire them to achieve company goals. Likewise it is the
responsibility of managers to communicate company goals and
policies to subordinates.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
359. Concerned with activities designed to create a relationship
between all the organizations efforts and individual task.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
360. It is a manager's duty to observe and report deviations from
plans and objectives, and to make initiatives to correct
potential deviations.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Controlling
D. Coordinating
361. The determination in advance of how the objectives ofthe

organization will be attained.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
362. involves the determination and allocation of the men and
women as well as the resource of an organization to achieve
pre-determined goals or objectives of the organization.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
363. It involves the overseeing and supervising of the human
resources and the various activities in an organization
to achieve through cooperative efforts the pre-determined
goals or objectives of theorganization.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
364. It involves the checking or evaluation and measurement of
work performance and comparing it with planned goalsor
objectives of the organization, and making thenecessary
corrective actions so that work is accomplished as planned.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
365. The task of providing competent men to do the job and choosing
the right men for the right job-involves good selection and
processing of reliable and well-trained personnel.
A. Staffing
B. Reporting
C. Budgeting
D. Controlling
366. The making of detailed account of activities, work progress,
investigations and unusual in order to keepevery one informed
or what is going on.
A. Staffing
B. Reporting
C. Budgeting
D. Controlling
367. The forecasting in detail of the results of an officially
recognized program of operations based onthe highest
reasonable expectations of operatingefficiency.
A. Staffing
B. Reporting
C. Budgeting
D. Controlling
368. This is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds,
which shall be outlined to guide officers and men in the field.
A. Field Procedure
369. To be included in these procedures are the duties of the
dispatcher, jailer, matron, and other personnel concerned,
which may be reflected in the duty manual. It also involves
coordinated action on activity of several offices.
A. Field Procedure
370.Certain special operations also necessitate the preparation
of procedures as guides.
A. Field Procedure
371. A general statement of intention and typically with

a time horizon.
A. Goal
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Strategy
372. Specific commitment to achieve a measurable result
within a specific period of time.
A. Goal
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Strategy
373. An organize schedule or sequence by methodical activities
intended to attain a goal and objectives for the
accomplishment of mission or assignment.
A. Goal
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Strategy
374. Is an attempt by administration to allocate anticipated resources

to meet anticipated service demands.
A. Police Planning
B. Planning
C. Strategy
D. Plan
375. A process of preparing for change and copping uncertainty
formulating future causes of action, the process of
determining the problem of the organization coming up with
proposed resolution and finding best solution.
A. Police Planning
B. Planning
C. Strategy
D. Plan
376. It is a broad design, method, a plan to attain a stated
goal or objective.
A. Police Planning
B. Planning
C. Strategy
D. Plan
377. It is a specific design, method, or course of action to
attain a particular objective in accordance with strategy.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
378. A sequence of activities to reach a point or to attain
that which is desired.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
379. A product of prudence or wisdom in the management of
human affairs.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
380.A rule of action for the rank and file to show them
and they are expected to obtain the desired effect.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
381. Set of procedure to meet varying degree of emergency

while at the same time providing continuing police coverage
of areas not affected by the emergency.
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
382. A sub-type of plan to meet unusual needs which is similar
to general emergency plan but it is basically to certain
specific situation.
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
383. It relates to plans which are strategic or long range
in application, it determine the organizations original
goals and strategy.
A. Strategic plan
C. Operational plan
384. It relates to plans which determine quantity and quality
efforts and accomplishment. It refers to the process of
determining the contribution on efforts that can make
or provide with allocated resources.
A. Strategic plan
C. Operational plan
385. It refers to the production of plans which determines the
schedule of special activity and are applicable from one
week to less than a year duration.
A. Strategic plan
C. Operational plan
386. It is the basic principle in planning, organizing, and
management of the PNP in support of the overall pursuit
of the PNP vision, mission, and strategic action plan of
the national objective.
387. The principles and rules governing the planning, organization,
direction, and employment of the PNP forces in the accomplishment
of basic mission of maintenance of peace and order, crime prevention
and suppression and security and public safety operations.
388. This provides guidance for special activities of the PNP in the
broad field of interest such as personnel, intelligence, operations,
logistics, planning.
389. Doctrine formulated jointly by two or more bureau in order
to effect a certain operation with regard to public safety
and peace and order.
D. Ethical Doctrine
390.It defines the fundamental principle governing the rules
of conduct, attitude, behavior and ethical norm of the PNP.
D. Ethical Doctrine
391. An organization is more effective if it enables the

individual to contribute to the organization.
392. Organizations structure is effective if it is structured
to aid the accomplishment of organizations objective with
minimum cost.
393. The vertical hierarchy of the organization which defines an

unbroken chain of scale of units from top to bottom
describing explicitly the flow of authority.
394. This implies a system of varied function arranged into a
workable pattern. The line organization refers to the direct
accomplishment of the objective. The staff refers to the line
organization which is an advisory or facilitative capacity.
395. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank
and position.
A. Authority
B. Doctrine
C. Discipline
396. It provides for the organizations objectives, it provides
the various actions, hence, policies, procedures, rules,
and regulation of the organization are based on the
statement of doctrines.
A. Authority
B. Doctrine
C. Discipline
397. It is imposed by command or self restraint to insure
supportive behavior.
A. Authority
B. Doctrine
C. Discipline
398. Procedures for coping with specific situations and locations.
A. Procedural Plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
detective, traffic, vice, and juvenile control division.
A. Procedural Plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
400. Standard operating procedures shall be planned to guide members
in routine and field operations and in some special operations.
A. Procedural Plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
401. Standard Operating procedures shall be planned to guide

members in routine and field operations and in some
special operations.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
402. Procedures for coping with specific situations at
known locations.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
detective, traffic, vice and juvenile control division.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
404. The active interest and participation of individual office
is so vital to the success of the integrated police programs
tha the integrated police shall continually seek to
motivate, promote and maintain an active public concern in
its affairs.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
405. It shall map out in advance all operations involved in the
organizations management of personnel and material and in
the procurement and disbursement of money.
B. Operational Plan
C. Management Plan
406. Forecasting future events and determining the most effective
future activities for the company.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
407. Consist of the ways in which the organizational structure
is established and how the authority and responsibility
are given to managers a tasked called delegation.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
408. Managers must supervise subordinates in their daily work, and
inspire them to achieve company goals. Likewise it is the
responsibility of managers to communicate company goals and
policies to subordinates.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
409. Concerned with activities designed to create a relationship
between all the organizations efforts and individual task.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
410. It is a manager's duty to observe and report deviations from

plans and objectives, and to make initiatives to correct
potential deviations.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Controlling
D. Coordinating
411. Knowledge of a possible or actual enemy or area of operations

acquired by the collection,evaluation and interpretation of
military information.
A. Combat intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Counter intelligence

412. Knowledge of the enemy,weather and the terrain that is used
in the planning and conduct of tactical operations.
B. Police intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Counter-intelligence
413. Activity pertains to all security control measures designed to
ensure the safeguarding of information against espionage,
personnel against subversion and installations or material
against sabotage.
B. Police intelligence
C. Military intelligence
D. Counter intelligence
414. Those which seek to conceal information from the enemy.
A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence
415. Those that actively block the enemy's attempt to gain information
of enemy's effort to engage in sabotage or subversion.
A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence
416. When the source of the information comes from a police
intelligence officer of long experience and extensive background,
the evaluation of reliability of information is labeled.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
417. When there is no adequate basis estimating the reliability of an
information,the evaluation of the reliability of the information is
labeled.
A. A
B. F
C. E
D. D
418. The current head of the PNP directorate for intelligence is
A. Catalino Cuy
B. Cipriano Querol Jr.
C. Lina Sarmiento
D. Angelito Pacia
419. Knowledge in raw form is known as
A. Intelligence
B. Information
C. Awareness
D. Cognition
420.The resolving or separating of a thing into its component parts.
A. Analysis
B. Evaluation
C. Collation
D. Collection
421. Ancillary materials that are included in a cover story or deception

operation to help convince the opposition or casual observers that
what they are observing is genuine.
A. Walk-in
B. Warming room
C. Window Observing
D. Window dressing
422. A surveillance team usually assigned to a specific target.
A. Window observer
B. Window dressing
C. Stake-out team
D. Watcher team
423. A location out of the weather where a surveillance team can
go to keep warm and wait for the target.
A. Warming room
B. Rest room
C. Station room
D. Waiting room
424. A defector who declares his intentions by walking into an official
installation, or otherwise making contact with an opposition g
government, and asking for political asylum or volunteering to work
in place. Also known as a volunteer.
A. Enemy traitor
B. Asylum seeker
C. Enemy defector
D. Walk-in
425. The methods developed by intelligence operatives to conduct
their operations.
A. Trade craft
B. Operational technique
C. Trade secret
D. Operational secret
426. It focuses on subject or operations and usually short term.
A. Strategic intelligence
B. Counter intelligence
C. Tactical intelligence
D. Long-term intelligence
427. Concerns with the security of information,personnel,material
and installations.
428. Deals with political,economic,military capabilities and vulnerabilities
of all nations.
429. Tradecraft techniques for placing drops by tossing them while
on the move.
A. Tosses
B. Dropping
C. Throwing
D. Drops
430.A dead drop that will be retrieved if it is not picked up by the
intended recipient after a set time.
A. Picked drop
B. Timed drop
C. Abandoned drop
D. Recovered drop
431. Technical air sampler sensors designed to sniff for hostile
substances or parties in a dark tunnel system.
A. Chemical sniffers
B.Tunnel sniffers
C. Dog sniffers
D. Air sniffers
432. A major electronic communications line, usually made up
of a bundle of cables.
A. Cable line
B. Trunk line
C. Telephone line
D. DSL

433. A counter-surveillance ploy in which more than one target car
or target officer is being followed and they suddenly go in
different directions, forcing the surveillance team to make
instant choices about whom to follow.
A. ABC technique
B. Star-burst maneuver
C. AC technique
D. Sudden change maneuver
434. A chemical marking compound developed by the KGB to keep
tabs on the activities of a target officer. Also called METKA.
The compound is made of nitrophenyl pentadien (NPPD) and luminol.
A. Spy dust
B. Chemical dust
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Potassium nitrate
435. A ploy designed to deceive the observer into believing that an
operation has gone bad when, in fact, it has been put into
another compartment.
A. Burned
B. Deceiving
C. Spoofing
D. Misleading
436. The special disguise and deception tradecraft techniques developed
under Moscow rules to help the CIA penetrate the KGB's security
perimeter in Moscow.
A. Silver bullet
B. Golden bullet
C. Bronze bullet
D. Titanium bullet
437. Any form of clandestine tradecraft using a system of marks,
signs, or codes for signaling between operatives.
A. Ciphers
B. Signs
C. Signals
D. Code
438. Any tradecraft technique employing invisible messages hidden
in or on innocuous materials. This includes invisible inks and
microdots, among many other variations.
A. Secret writing
B. Secret message
C. Hidden message
D. Hidden writing

439. An apartment, hotel room, or other similar site considered
safe for use by operatives as a base of operations or for a
personal meeting.
A. Meeting place
B. Dead drop
C. Drop
D. Safe house
440.When an operation goes bad and the agent is arrested.
A. Rolled up
B. Rolled down
C. Burned out
D. Burned down
441. The Private Security Agency Law is known as

A. R.A. No. 5487
B. R.A. No. 5467
C. R.A. No. 5476
D. R.A. No. 5478
442. Any Person who, for hire or reward or on commission, conducts
or carries on or holds himself or itself out as conducting or
carrying on a detective agency or detective service.
A. Private Security Guard
B. Private Detective
C. Private Security Agency
D. Private Detective Agency
443. Any Person who is not a member of a regular police agency
or the Armed Forces of the Philippines who does detective
work for hire, reward or commission.
A. Private Detective Agency
C. Private Security Guard
D. Private Security Agency
444. Any Person who offers or renders personal service to
watch or secure either residential or business establishment
or both, or any building, compound or area including but not
limited to logging concession, agricultural, mining, or pasture
lands for hire or compensation or as an employee thereof is
known as
A. Security Guard
B. Private Security Agency
C. Private Detective Agency
445. Any Person, Association, Partnership or Corporation who
recruits, trains, muster, furnishes, solicits individuals or
business firms, private or government owned or controlled
corporations to engage his service or those of its watchmen
is known as
A. Private Security Guard
C. Private Detective Agency
446. Security Agency must be owned and controlled by how many
percentage of Filipino ownership?
A. 100% Filipino
B. 90% Filipino
C. 75% Filipino
D. 60% Filipino
447. How many security agency may a person organize or have an
interest in?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. One
448. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at
least
A. 25 Years of Age
B. 30 Years of Age
C. 35 Years of Age
D. 40 Years of Age
449. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at
least a
A. Ph. D. Degree Holder
B. Master's Degree Holder
C. College Graduate
D. High School Graduate
450. An Operator or Manager of a security agency must have no
previous record of any conviction of any crime or offense
involving
A. Crimes Against Person
B. Crimes Against Property
C. Crimes Against Chastity
D. Moral Turpitude
451. One of the following is not a disqualification for an
operator or manager of a security agency
A. Mental Incompetent
B. Womanizer
C. Narcotic Drug Addict
D. Habitual Drunkard
452. One of the following is not a requirement to qualify as a
security guard
A. Filipino Citizen
B. College Graduate
C. Physically and Mentally Fit
D. Not More Than 50 Years Old
453. A Security Guard must be at least
A. 5'2" in Height
B. 5'3" in Height
C. 5'4" in Height
D. 5'5" in Height
454. A Security Guard must not be less than
A. 19 Years of Age
B. 20 Years of Age
C. 21 Years of Age
D. 22 Years of Age
455. Who has the power to promulgate the rules and regulations
to carry out the provisions of R.A. No. 5487
A. The President of the Philippines
B. The DILG Secretary
C. The Chief of the PNP
D. The DOJ Secretary
456. Who has the power to exercise general supervision over
the operation of all Private Detective or Security Guard
Agencies?
A. LGU
B. DILG
C. PNP
D. DOJ
457. A Security Agency is entitled to possess firearm in a number
not exceeding
A. One Firearm For Every Two Security Guard
B. One Firearm For Every Three Security Guard
C. One Firearm For Every Four Security Guard
D. One Firearm For Every Five Security Guard
458. When may a security guard carry firearm outside of the
establishment he is guarding?
A. In Case of Emergency or Disaster
B. When Summoned By PNP Member For Help
C. When In Hot Pursuit Of A Thief Or Robber
D. When He Escorts Big Amount Of Cash
459. A Security Agency operating in the City of Manila may
employ not more than
A. 500 Security Guards
B. 1000 Security Guards
C. 1500 Security Guards
D. 2000 Security Guards
460. A Security Agency operating in places other than
Metropolitan Manila, other cities and first class
municipalities may employ not more than
A. 500 Security Guards
B. 1000 Security Guards
C. 15000 Security Guards
D. 2000 Security Guards
461. A Security Agency operating in municipalities other than first

class may employ
A. Not more than 200 security guard
B. Not more than 300 security guard
C. Not more than 400 security guard
D. Not more than 500 security guard
462. How many security agency may a person, partnership, or
association organize in one city or municipality?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
463. Security Agencies may offer or render services to the
following establishments except one
A. Night Clubs
B. Coffee Shops
C. Gambling Dens
D. Restaurants
464. The Chief PNP in issuing rules and regulations implementing
R.A. No. 5487 or the Private Security Agency Law must
consult with the
A. SAGSD
B. PADPAO
C. DILG
D. LGU
465. A Violation of the provisions of the private security agency
law may result in any of the following except one
A. Suspension
B. Fine
C. Cancellation of License To Operate
466. In a Security Agency, All of the following except one
should secure a license
A. Those employed to manage the agency
B. Those employed to supervise the security guards
C. Those employed to do investigative work
D. Those employed solely to do clerical work
467. A Written Order or Schedule issued by a superior officer
assigning the performance of private security or detective
services duties is known as
A. License To Operate
B. Designation Order
C. Duty Detail Order
D. License To Exercise Profession
468. In a Security Agency, Which of the following is allowed to
issue Duty Detail Order?
A. The Branch Manager
B. The Security Guard Supervisor
C. The Most Senior Security Guard
D. The Chief Of The PNP SAGSD or Representative
469. New Applicants for a license to operate a Security Agency
shall be required to obtain a minimum capitalization of
A. 250,000 pesos
B. 500.000 pesos
C. 750,000 pesos
D. 1,000,000 pesos
470. No regular license shall be granted to any Private Security
Agency unless it has a minimum of
A. 200 licensed private security personnel in its employ
B. 300 licensed private security personnel in its employ
C. 500 licensed private security personnel in its employ
D. 1,000 license private security personnel in its employ
471. No Regular License shall be granted to any company guard

force unless it has a minimum of
A. 10 Licensed Guard Under Its Employ
B. 30 Licensed Guard Under Its Employ
C. 50 Licensed Guard Under Its Employ
D. 100 Licensed Guard Under Its Employ
472. No Regular License shall be granted to any private detective
agency unless it has a minimum of
A. 10 Licensed Private Detective Under Its Employ
B. 30 Licensed Private Detective Under Its Employ
C. 50 Licensed Private Detective Under Its Employ
D. 100 Licensed Private detective Under Its Employ
473. What is the maximum number of private security personnel
that a private security agency may employ?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
that a company guard force may employ?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
that a private detective agency may employ?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
476. A License to operate a private security agency shall be valid
for how many years?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
477. The Application for renewal of license to operate a private
security agency shall be filed at least how many days before
expiry date?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60
478.Under the Implementing Rules and Regulations of R.A. No
5487, What is required to be displayed at all times in a
conspicuous and suitable place in a security agencies office
or headquarters?
A. Business Permit
B. DTI Registration
C. Articles of Incorporation
D. License To Operate
479. Services of any security personnel may be terminated on

which of the following ground?
A. Expiration of Contract
B. Revocation of License To Exercise Profession
C. Physical and Mental Disability
D. All Of The Above
480. All of the following except one is a ground for the
termination of the services of any security personnel
A. Violation of Pertinent Rules Promulgated by the PNP
B. Conviction of a Crime Involving Moral Turpitude
C. Lost of Trust and Confidence
D. Filing of a Criminal Offense in the Prosecutor's Office
481. PNP mandatory retirement age is

A. 56
B. 66
C. 55
D. 60
482. The Highest award given to PNP members.
A. Medalya ng Katapatan
B. Medalya ng Karunungan
C. Medalya ng Kagitingan
D. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
483. Cold Weather Clothing allowance is usually given to PNP members assigned in
A. Baguio City and Tagaytay City
B. Rizal Province and Cordillera
C. Cordillera and Davao
D. Baguio City and Davao
484. Optional retirement in the PNP is upon the accumulation of how many years of
satisfatory service?
A. 15 Years
B. 20 Years
C. 25 Years
D. 30 Years
485. The Year night watch was formed in Boston.
A. 1638
B. 1700
C. 1833
D. 1905
486. The Rattle watch in New York was formed in what year?
A. 1658
B. 1700
C. 1856
D. 1905
487. The Advent of a daytime police with pay
A. 1772
B. 1800
C. 1833
D. 1856
488. The Texas Rangers were organized in what year?
A. 1658
B. 1658
C. 1856
D. 1835
489. In England, They were assistants to the constables and walked the streets removing
vagrants.
A. Thief Takers
B. Beadies
C. Food Pad
D. Constables
490. In old England, Private citizens with no official status were paid by the King for every
criminal they arrested, they are called
A. Thief Takers
B. Beadies
C. Food Pad
D. Constables
491. The Major role of the thief takers in old England was to combat what crime, committed
by highwaymen?
A. Thief
B. Highway Robbery
C. Prostitution
D. Vagrancy
492. It means Food Pad
A. Street Robber
B. Street Dancer
C. Beggar
D. Prostitutes
493. He was credited for laying the foundation for the first modern police force.
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. John Howard
D. Henry Fielding
494. A London Magistrate, he established a small publicly financed special river or marine
police.
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. Kohn Howard
D. Henry Fielding
495. In England, the first river or marine police was established in what year?
A. 1798
B. 1898
C. 1698
D. 1598
496. Among his major contributions are the following: a. the hiring of accountants and
lawyers as FBI special agents b. Introduction of the FBI uniform crime reporting c.
Development of the National crime info. center and d. Development of the FBI most wanted
criminal
A. August Volmer
B. John Edgar Hoover
C. Robert Peels
D. Henry Fielding
497. Procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds shall be outlined as a guide
to officers and members in the field.
A. Field Procedure
B. Headquarters Procedure
498. Included in these procedures are the duties of the dispatcher, jailer, matron, and other
personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty manual.
A. Field Procedure
B. Headquarters Procedure
C. Special Operating procedure
499. Plans relating to patrol distribution, crime investigation, traffic operation and vice
control.
A. Operational Plan
B. Administrative Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Tactical Plan
500. The Board of Examiners for Criminology was created in what year?
A. July 1, 1972
B. June 1, 1972
C. July 1, 1974
D. June 1, 1974
501. The observation of a person, place or thing, generally—but not necessarily—in an
unobtrusive manner.
A. casing B. surveillance
C. undercover operationD. cover operation
502. Surveillance involving the use of scientific device to enhance hearing or seeing the
subject’s activities.
A. close surveillance B. open surveillance
C. loose surveillance D. technical surveillance
503. This is an investigation of an individual made upon the basis of written information
supplied by him on an official inquiry.
A. local agency check
B. national agency check
C. partial background investigation
D. complete background investigation
504. This letter represents that the source of intelligence information is from tactical
interrogation of captured enemy.
A. U B. V
C. W D. X
505. The intelligence operatives are being asked about his personal experiences and
observations while conducting intelligence operations.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing C. counter-intelligence
506. It is an important method of gathering intelligence data, and this is an excellent
source of highly valuable material.
C. de-briefing C. counter-intelligence
507. It is the permanent official chronological record of the operations of the intelligence
section, unit or agency.
A. intelligence journal B. intelligence workbook
C. situation map D. intelligence file
508. It is one of the principal activities of police intelligence operations, and limited
activities on this will usually produce a limited intelligence product.
C. de-briefing D. counter-intelligence
509. It is in this phase of intelligence cycle in which information becomes intelligence.
A. dissemination B. collection
C. processing D. direction
510. Are any person, things or actions from which information about the criminals and
subversives are derived.
A. collection agency B sources of information
C. pertinence factor D. pertinence consideration
511. The reliability of the source is “highly reliable” and the accuracy of information is
“confirmed information’ what is the evaluation rating of the information.
A. A-1 B. B-2
C. C-3 D. D-4
512. It is the granting of access to classified document or information.
A. compartmentation B. need-to-know
C. cleared individual D. security officer
513. It is the term given to the requirement to those persons whose official duty requires
knowledge or possession of information or intelligence.
A. compartmentation B. need-to-know
C. cleared individual D. security officer
514. A properly trained and cleared individual who assist the head of the department in
discharging the responsibilities of safeguarding classified documents and materials.
A. intelligence operative B. undercover agent
C. security officer D. confidential agents
515. It is an information or material in which the unauthorized disclosure of which would
cause administrative embarrassment or unwarranted injury.
A. restricted B. confidential
C. secret D. top secret
516. It is not usually a major factor in prompting an individual to furnish information, but
it can be potent at times.
A. civic duty B. gratitude
C. self-serving reasons D. emotions
517. It is an individual who openly of secretly obtained or assist in obtaining information
for intelligence and counter-intelligence purposes in exchange for some recompense,
monetary or otherwise.
A. informants B. informer
C. confidential agents D. sources of information
518. It is the visual inspection of an area, installation or building to determine its
suitability for intelligence operational activities.
A. surveillance B. casing
C. stake out D. mustard plaster
519. It is a repetitive process in which intelligence are produced from information.
A. intelligence cycle B. processing
C. collection D. phase of intelligence
520. These are the purpose of intelligence activity, EXCEPT:
A. to fill the void often existing in decision making
B. to increase the probability of accuracy
C. to reduce the probability of error
D. to observe the cycle of intelligence
521. These are the members of the PLEB, EXCEPT:
A. member of the Sanguniang Panglungsod/Bayan
B. member of the Association of Barangay Captain
C. three other members of known probity and integrity
D. member of the Peace and Order and Council
522. It is refers to the number of persons an individual can supervise effectively, it is also
known as span of attention.
A. unity of command B. division of work
C. span of control D. personnel development
523. This is the particular provision of the New Philippine Constitution of 1987, which
mandated the establishment of a police which is civilian in character and national in scope.
A. Sec. 12, Art. III B. Sec. 6, Art. XVI
C. Sec. 16, Art. VI D. Sec 3, Art. XII
524. The __________ and __________ of the Philippine National Police was vested upon
to the Chief, PNP.
A. leadership B. command responsibility
C. command and direction D. management
525. It is the organized and physical movement of all units and elements of the Philippine
National Police for purposes of crime prevention and control.
A. deployment B. employment
C. employ D. deploy
526. It is given to the uniformed members of the DILG for every five years of satisfactory
active service, and it is corresponding to ten percent of their monthly basic salary.
A. hazardous pay B. longevity pay
C. expertise pay D. living allowance pay
527. The Mayor shall choose from the list of how many recommendees submitted by the
Police Provincial Director prior designation of Chief of Police.
A. 10 B. 3
C. 5 D. 7
528. It is the compulsory retirement age for officers and members of the Philippine
National Police.
A. 50 B. 55
C. 60 D. 56
529. How many percent is the retirement benefit of the officers and members of the
Philippine National Police who have availed of the optional retirement.
A. 96% B. 50%
C. 2.5% D. 10%
530. It is the premier institution responsible for the education, training, and human
resource development of all the uniformed officers and members of the department.
A. PPSC B. PNPA
C. NAPOLCOM D. DILG
531. The members of the commission shall be appointed by the President, one of whom
must came from the law enforcement sector, and the three others are from civilian sector
and one of whom must came from:
A. military sector B. government sector
C. woman sector D. non-gov’t. organizations
532. It decide cases on appeal, based on the decision made by officers other than the C,
PNP, the mayor, and the PLEB.
A. RAB B. NAB
C. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
533. The National Appellate Board and Regional Appellate Boards are the __________ of
the Philippine National Police.
A. appellate body B. disciplinary machinery
C. juridical authorities D. central receiving entity
534. It is the process of providing clear cut channels of authority, which is very important
in maintaining high working morale and esprit d’ corps.
A. unity of command B. division of work
C. span of control D. personnel development
535. It is the continuous task of making decisions, embodying in them in specific general
order and serving as the leader of the enterprise.
A. planning B. organizing
C. staffing D. directing
536. As provided under RA 8551, the following were given summary dismissal powers
upon due notice and summary hearing, EXCEPT:
A. PLEB B. NAPOLCOM
C. Chief, PNP D. Regional Director
537. It is working out in broad outline the thing that needs to accomplish for the
organizations.
A. planning B. organizing
C. staffing D. directing
538. Who may administer the qualifying entrance and promotional examinations for the
officers and members of the Philippine National Police.
A. NAPOLCOM B. CSC
C. PRC D. PNP
539. It is the central receiving entity of the citizens complaints filed against erring officers
and members of the Philippine National Police.
A. NAB B. RAB
C. NAPOLCOM D. PLEB
540. In ensuring gender sensitivity in the Philippine National Police, how many percent will
be given to female in terms of recruitment, training and promotion.
A. 15% B. 10%
C. 20% D. 5%
541. In general, the initial appointment of the commissioned officers in the PNP shall
commence with the rank of:
A. Inspector B. Senior Inspector
C. Police Officer I D. PNPA Cadet
542. From among the two (2) deputy chiefs who is the second in command in the
Philippine National Police.
A. Dep. for Administration B. Chief, Directorial Staff
C. Dep. for Operation D. all of the above
543. The Secretary of the Department of Interior and Local Government shall be at the
same time the __________ of the NAPOLCOM.
A. Ex-officio member B. Commissioner
C. Ex-Officio Chairperson D. Chairman
544. It is the ideal police-to-population ratio as provided by the PNP Law of 1990.
A. 1:1,000 B. 1:1,500
C. 1:500 D. 1:750
545. It is otherwise known as the Police Professionalization Act of 1966, by virtue of which
NAPOLCOM was created.
A. RA 6975 B. RA 8551
C. RA 4864 D. PD 765
546. He is the father of organized military espionage.
A. Alfred d’ Great B. Frederick d’ Great
C. Akbar D. Genghis Khan
547. It is an individual who are employed by two friendly intelligence collection agencies,
with one of whom are aware of his dual functions.
A. dual agent B. double agent
C. spy D. informant
548. It is an evaluated material of every description, including those derived from
observations, reports, rumors, imagery, and other sources from which intelligence is
derived.
A. intelligence B. police intelligence
C. military intelligence D. information
549. Intelligence activity that is concerned principally with the defending of the police
organization against penetration by individual and various groups.
A. strategic intelligence B. counter-intelligence
C. line intelligence D. police intelligence
550. The subject is kept under constant surveillance, the aim is not to lose the subject
even at the risk of being made.
A. close surveillance D. open surveillance
C. loose surveillance D. mustard plaster
551. They are any persons who offer or render personal service to watch or secure either
residential or business establishment.
A. company guard B. security guards
C. government security D. private detective
552. It is any person who performed detective work for hire, reward or commission.
A. company guard B. security guard
C. government security D. private detectives
553. It is the minimum required number of security guards for issuance of regular license.
A. 200 B. 100
C. 300 D. 400
554. They are hired directly under the payroll of an employer to protect the employer’s
property, and they are also being called as “in-house guards.”
A. company security guards B. government security unit
C. private security agency D. private detective
555. They are charge with directing the work and observing the behavior and performance
of the men under his unit.
A. security supervisor B. security officer
C. security expert D. security consultant
556. It is the minimum height requirement of perimeter barrier, excluding top guard.
A. eight feet B. six feet
C. seven feet D. ten feet
557. A type of code system so that security personnel when forced by armed men to enter
an installation can give alarm by the use of certain words in casual conversation.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
C. Peterman D. fail safe
558. It is a physical phenomenon that causes frequency shift if an object moves in an
area permeated by radio frequency signals.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
C. Peterman D. fail safe
559. It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to a
compound or installation thereof.
A. controlling B. access list
C. exclusion area D. controlled area
560. It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their
work.
A. security education B. security indoctrination
C. security training D. security awareness
561. It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy and deficiency in all aspects
of security, with the corresponding recommendations.
A. security inspections C. security survey
C. special survey D. supplemental survey
562. It is otherwise known as the Private Security Agency Law of the Philippines.
A. RA 5487 B. RA 4864
C. RA 8551 C. RA 6975
563. It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on vertical perimeter fences facing
upward and outward with a 45 degrees angle with three to four strand of barbed wire.
A. topping B. top guard
C. all of the above D. non of the above
564. An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the perimeter barrier.
A. clear zone B. bodies of water
C. building wall D. wire fence
565. A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of an installations or areas to
restrict or impede access thereto.
A. natural barrier B. man-made barrier
C. perimeter barrier D. physical security
566. It is the primary purpose of patrol.
A. elimination of actual opportunity
B. diminishment of desire and capability
C. development of omni-presence
D. prevention and control of crimes
567. This is done by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of the beats, not at
random, but with a definite target location where he knows his presence is necessary.
A. clockwise pattern B. counter-clockwise pattern
C. criss-cross patterns D. free-wheeling pattern
568. It suggest little more than inspectional activity, whether carried out on foot, mobile
or some other way.
A. patrol B. police
C. patroullier D. constable
569. It is an alternative patrol system which means the fielding of the field units in their
respective area of responsibility with prescribed objectives and verifiable tasks schedule of
the day.
A. proactive B. reactive
C. mobile patrol D. beat patrol
570. This term is frequently used to describe a specific condition or place that requires the
patrol officer’s special attention.
A. attractive nuisances B. patrol hazard
571. Its methods consist of the fixed post, line beat, and random patrol, and it is the most
expensive type of patrol.
A. mobile patrol B. air patrol
C. helicopter patrol D. foot patrol
572. It is originated from the Greek word “Politeia” meaning government of a city, and it
is applies to civil officers and not necessarily policeman.
A. patrol B. police
C. patroullier D. constable
573. It is being used in many countries as a simple and inexpensive means of patrol
because of its mobility and stealth.
A. bicycle patrol B. motorcycle patrol
C. helicopter patrol D. mobile patrol
574. The patrol officer to be seen alert and constant patrolling so as to establish a highly
visible police presence, hence, to make his presence psychologically be felt in spite of his
physical absence, and this is called.
A. atmosphere of omni-presence
B. enhanced police visibility
C. extensive crime prevention and control
D. elimination of the elements of crime
575. The observation of patrol personnel must be keenly aimed at this, because it is the
sources of hazard.
A. criminal elements B. patrol hazard
C. attractive nuisances D. persons and things
576. It is the physical presence of uniformed police personnel and marked police vehicles
in the place where crimes are usually taking place.
A. police patrol B. police visibility
C. omni-presence D. police operation
577. It is useful for rescue, medical evacuation, and emergency transportation.
A. bicycle B. motorcycle
C. helicopter D. mobile
578. Is the most extensively used, and the most effective means of police patrol,
considering its speed and mobility.
579. It is primary used for traffic control and enforcement, their speed and
maneuverability make them indispensable police vehicle.
580. It is the backbone of police organization.
A. patrol B. traffic
C. investigation D. intelligence
581. This is the type of police plan according to range, and which has a life span of three
years or more.
A. short term B. medium term
C. long term D. strategic plan
582. This is particularly important during disaster activities operations.
A. disaster relief and rescue evacuation
B. provision for emergency transportation
C. activation of early disaster warning
D. establishment of command post with communication
583. A plan to be effectively carried out must be accepted by persons concerned at the
appropriate level of the plans development, and that is.
A. evaluation of the plan B. execution of the plan
C. selling the plan D. selecting alternatives
584. Are those plans relating to standard operating procedures, and are useful as guides
to personnel, these plans must be reviewed from time to time to increase operational
efficiency.
A. tactical plan B. operational plan
C. procedural plan D. auxiliary plan
585. Are those plans designed to give guidance and direction to personnel in the
performance of the normal police activities.
A. tactical plan B. operational plan
C. procedural plan D. auxiliary plan
586. It is authorized and it shall be established only in conjunction with on-going
operations/situations, or when there is a need to arrest a criminal or fugitive from justice.
A. hot pursuit operation B. follow-up operation
C. choke point operation D. mobile checkpoint
587. It is the willingness to be patient towards people whose opinions were different from
others.
A. rules of engagement B. maximum tolerance
C. dispersal of crowd D. operational procedures
588. City “A” recorded a total of 75 murder cases for a period of 93 days, what is the
crime clock of the particular crime.
A. 29 hours, 54 minutes, and 26 seconds
B. 92 hours, 45 minutes, and 36 seconds
C. 92 hours, 54 minutes, and 26 seconds
D. 29 hours, 45 minutes, and 36 seconds
589. City “A” has a total population of 255,000, and for the period covering January to
June 2004 it has recorded a total crime volume of 180. What is the average monthly crime
rate in the City “A.”
A. 11.67 B. 87.11
C. 78.11 D. 11.76
590. It is the safest type of search, and the purpose is to place the subject in an off-
balance position.
A. kneeling search B. standing search
C. wall search D. prone search
591. It is a physical security applied to business groups engaged in industries, like
manufacturing, and assembling.
A. operational security B. industrial security
C. physical security D. special types
592. It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned with the physical measures
to prevent unauthorized access.
A. operational security B. industrial security
C. physical security D. special types
593. Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused damage, disturbance and
problems of the normal functioning of human activities, including security.
A. security hazards B. man-made hazard
C. natural hazard D. all of the above
594. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the national economy and security.
A. relative criticality B. relative vulnerability
595. Who may issue or revoke licenses of Private Security Agency and Private Security
Guards.
A. Chief, Philippine National Police
B. Security Agency and Guard Supervisory Division
C. Securities and Exchange Commission
D. Department of Trade and Industry
596. Private Security Agencies and Private Detective Agencies must be registered at the
__________.
A. Chief, Philippine National Police
B. Security Agency and Guard Supervisory Division
C. Securities and Exchange Commission
D. Department of Trade and Industry
597. It is the requirement age for the managers and/or owners of Private Security
Agencies or Private Detective Agencies.
A. 25 B. 30
C. 20 D. 35
598. It includes precluding unauthorized entry and facilitating authorized personnel to
enter specific areas.
A. visitor, property movement and vehicle control
B. identification and control
C. operation of intrusion alarm system
D. security communications system
599. A conference or dialogue between the survey team and management officials of plant
before security survey is conducted.
A. security survey B. special survey
C. entrance conference D. exit conference
600. It is a practical test of exercise of a plan or any activity to test its validity, and it is also
an operational readiness exercise.
A. dry run B. run through
C. controlling D. fire drill

Cdi Lea Q and A

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Cdi Lea Q and A

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CABES, Kenneth E.

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible

2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision

3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is

4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a

5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions

6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the

7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated

8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a

9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a

10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence

12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.

13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the

14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after

15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or

use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping

17.A police activity directed toward the identification and

preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their

18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose

20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably

22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,

23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where

practices that make them or their property vulnerable.

24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty

26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling

27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering

28.It means method of operation.

30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their

31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the

32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled

offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to

34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an

perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was

35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except

36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately

37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each

38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene

39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being

40.Another term for tailing.

41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.

42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly

43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a

44.An objective of criminal investigation.

45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the

46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of

47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum

48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to

49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to

50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is

51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.

73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to

101. America's most famous private investigator and founder of

102. The first woman detective in the history of criminal investigation.

103. He was known to be the creator of the "bow street runners", a

106. An Englishman who published a handbook for Examining Magistrates

107. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in

108. The continues accountability of persons handling evidences, and

109. In England, he was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a