Bscplanoct18 PDF

*SLRSO1*
SLR-SO – 1
Seat
No.

Set P
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018

English Compulsory
Golden Petals
Day and Date : Monday, 29-10-2018 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Fill in the blanks choosing the correct answer from the alternatives given below. 14
1) Charlie Chaplin was born in __________
a) London b) Paris
c) Scotland d) America
2) Charlie Chaplin did his first film with __________ company.
a) FOX b) 20th century
c) Sony d) Keystone
3) Shanti Tigga was the mother of ___________ children.
a) one b) three c) two d) five
4) During the training, Shanti Tigga impressed the instructor with her skill in
handling ___________
a) gun b) sword c) rifle d) AK-47
5) Shanti Tigga joined army at the age of ___________
a) 25 b) 27 c) 35 d) 37
6) __________ was Charlie Chaplin’s middle name.
a) William b) Spencer
c) John d) Albert
7) ___________ was the father of Nachiketa.
a) Vajasrawas b) Vijayaraj
c) Vijayakamal d) Vijay
P.T.O.
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8) Nachiketa decided to meet the god of __________

a) Water b) Fire
c) Death d) Air
9) The theme of the poem ‘I Find No Peace’ is ___________
a) Peace b) Love
c) Hateful nature d) Beauty
10) The poem ‘success is counted sweetest’ is written by ___________
a) Emily Dickenson b) John Dickenson
c) John Milton d) John Abraham
11) A reporter from ___________ was assigned to write a review of Charlie’s
first film.
a) Washington b) London
c) New York d) Paris
12) Ranjit wrote a story; the underlined word ‘wrote’ is __________
a) verb b) adverb
c) adjective d) pronoun
13) She had written all answers in her book. The tense of this given sentence
is ___________
a) Present perfect tense b) Past perfect tense
c) Past tense d) Past continuous tense
14) Rani is going to her village to attend the village ___________
a) Fair b) Fare
c) Fairie d) Fer
2. Answer any four of the following questions in brief : 16

1) Describe the get up of Charlie Chaplin.
2) How did Charlie Chaplin get his first role in films ?
3) Describe the character of Shanti Tigga.
4) What did Shanti Tigga’s relative feel after her death ?
5) Why did Nachiketa feel troubled ?
6) What did Nachiketa hope to achieve from his journey ?
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3. Answer any two of the following : 12

1) Describe the theme of the poem ‘I Find No Peace’.
2) Comment on the use of contrast in the poem ‘Success is counted
sweetest’.
3) Write in detail what is communication.
4) State the possible causes when you missed a lecture because you did not
know that the lecture was scheduled at that particular time.
4. Answer any one of the following : 14

1) Explain where and why e-mail, video calls, mobile phones, radio
and movie these channels of – communication are used in particular
communication.
2) Why do you think we need language and vocabulary ?
5. What is the difference between one way and two way communication ? Write
in detail. 14
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Seat Set P
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) Examination, 2018

chemistry (Paper – I) (CBCS Pattern)
Physical Chemistry
Day and Date : Tuesday, 30-10-2018 Total Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Draw neat diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic tables and scientific calculator is
allowed.
1. Multiple choice questions : 14

1) Entropy of universe tends to __________
a) decrease b) remain constant
c) increase d) none of these
2) Integration of dX is __________
a) X b) X + C
c) log X d) log X + C
3) Half change method is used to determine __________ of reaction.
a) Order b) Molecularity
c) Rate d) Velocity
4) Pc, Vc, and Tc are known as
a) Gas constant b) Van der Waal’s constant
c) Velocity constant d) Critical constant
P.T.O.
5) Reaction rate can change with

a) Temperature b) The addition of catalyst
c) Reactant concentration d) All of these
6) The compressibility factor Z for perfect gas is
a) Zero b) Less than one
c) Greater than one d) Equal to one
7) Molecularity never be
a) Zero b) Negative
c) Infinity d) All of these
8) The point of intersection of two axes is called
a) Quadrant b) Origin
c) Co-ordinates d) All of these
9) Decomposition of nitrogen pentoxide is an example of ________
reaction.
a) Pseudo order b) First order
c) Second order d) zero order
10) Derivative of exponential function remains
a) Same b) Constant
c) Unchanged d) All of these
11) In a certain first order reaction, the time for half change was 60 minutes.
Find the rate constant.
a) 0.01155 min–1 b) 0.00539 min–1
c) 0.03795 min–1 d) 0.06394 min–1
12) Efficiency of heat engine is always
a) Greater than one b) Less than one
c) Equal to one d) None of these
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13) Gases which do not obey the gas laws at all temperature and pressure are
called
a) Non-ideal gases b) Perfect gas
c) Ideal gas d) None of these
14) Velocity constant of second order reaction is expressed in
a) mol.lit–1 sec–1 b) dm3 mole–1 sec–1
c) sec–1 d) mole1 dm3
2. A) Answer any four of the following : 8

1) Define molecularity of a reaction.
2) What is heat engine ? Give examples.
3) Define the term :
i) Graph
ii) Origin.
4) What is an isotherm ?
5) Give any two statements of second law of thermodynamics.
B) Write notes on any two of the following : 6

1) Rate constant and its unit.
2) Exceptional behavior of hydrogen and helium gases.
3) Rate of reaction.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 8

1) What is differentiation ? Give any six rules of derivative.
2) Explain hydrolysis of methyl acetate in presence of acid obeys first order
rate constant equation.
3) What is liquefaction of gases and critical phenomenon ?
B) Answer any one of the following : 6

1) What is second order reaction ? Derive the equation of rate constant for
second order reaction with equal concentration of reactants.
2) What is slope ? Give its characteristics.
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1) What are the characteristics of first order reaction ?
2) What is an isotherm ? Describe Andrews’s experiment on P-V-T relations
of CO2.
3) A second order reaction where a = b, is completed to the extent of
60% in 720 seconds. How long will it take for the reaction to go to 85%
completion ?

1) What are Real gases ? Explain in brief deviations of real gases from
Boyle’s law.
2) What is the effect of catalyst and temperature on rate of chemical
reaction ?

1) What is an ideal gas ? Explain the causes of deviations from ideal
behavior.
2) State various methods to determine order of reaction. Discuss in detail
Ostwald’s isolation method.
3) Explain in brief, heat engine and its efficiency. A steam engine operate
between 521 K and 421 K. What is the minimum amount of heat absorbed
from hot reservoir to obtain 1000 J work ?
_____________________
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P
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
CHEMISTRY (Paper – II)
Inorganic Chemistry
Day and Date : Wednesday, 31-10-2018 Total Marks : 70
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) All questions carry equal marks.
4) Draw the neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite
the sentences: 14
1) The bond dissociation energy of NO molecule is ___________kJ/mole.

a) 668 b) 494 c) 292 d) 10170
2) The MOT has been developed by ____________ in 1931.
a) Pauling and Slater b) Huckel, Hund and Mullikan
c) K. Fajan d) H. Bethe
3) According to MOT the oxygen molecule __________ in nature.
a) Unstable b) Diamagnetic
c) Paramagnetic d) Antiferromagnetic
4) The observed bond angle in H2O is 104.5o is due to presence of __________
lone pairs.
a) Four b) One c) Three d) Two
5) Chlorine trifluoride molecule contains __________ bond pairs.
a) Zero b) One c) Two d) Three
6) The geometry of IF7 molecule is
a) Tetrahedral b) Square planer
c) Pentagonal bipyramidal d) TBP
P.T.O.
7) The limiting radius ratio for square planar geometry is

a) >1.0000 b) 0.414 – 0.732
c) 0.155 – 0.225 d) 0.732 – 1.000
8) In H3N:BF3 adduct the two molecules are held together by __________bond.
a) Coordinate b) Covalent c) Ionic d) Metallic
9) Compared with other bonds __________ forces are very weak.
a) Van der Waals b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Metallic d) Ionic bonding
10) If the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3 then the possible orbital is
a) f orbital b) d orbital c) p orbital d) s orbital
11) The size of anion is __________its atomic size.
a) Equal to b) Greater than
c) Less than d) None of these
12) __________ is the most electronegative element of the periodic table.
a) Sodium b) Fluorine
c) Hydrogen d) Helium
13) The number of unpaired electrons possessed by an atom determines its
a) Angular momentum b) CN
c) Valency d) All of these
14) The maximum number of oppositely charged ions surrounding any particular
ion is called __________ of that ion.
a) EAN b) Atomic
c) Bonding number d) Coordination number

1) What trend of melting point in periodic table ?
2) Define hydrogen bonding with suitable example.
3) Write any two limitations of VBT.
4) How the sigma ( σ) and pi (π) orbitals are formed ?
5) Draw the unit cell structure of CsCI.
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B) Write short notes on any two of the following : 6

1) Solubility property of ionic solids.
2) sp2 Hybridisation.
3) Py-Py or Pz-Pz Overlap.

1) Discuss the shapes of ‘d’ orbitals.
2) Discuss the geometry of ammonia molecule on the basis of VSEPR
theory.
3) What do you understand by LCAO principle ?
1) State the Hess’s law. How Born-Haber’s cycle used to determine the
lattice energy of ionic solids ?
2) Distinguish between atomic and molecular orbital.

1) Discuss in detail the trends in periodic table of :
a) Atomic radii b) Reactivity
2) Explain the role ionization energy and electron affinity in ionic bond
formation.
3) Explain trigonal bipyramidal geometry of PCI5 on the basis of
hybridization.
1) Explain on the basis of MOT why Be2 molecule does not exist in
nature.
2) Write a short note on Fajan’s rule.

1) Discuss in detail unit cell structure of rock salt.
2) Discuss the geometry of SF6 on the basis of hybridization.
3) Explain bond order, stability and magnetic property of nitrogen molecule
on the basis of molecular orbital theory.
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Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. I (Semester – I) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

PHYSICS (Paper – I)
Mechanics and Properties of Matter
Day and Date : Thursday, 1-11-2018 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Neat labelled diagrams must be drawn wherever
necessary.
iv) Use of log table and calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative from the following. 14
i) The time period of compound pendulum is maximum when
a) l = k b) l = o c) l = 2k d) l = k2
ii) _________ indicates the resistance of elastic solid to elongation.
a) Bulk modulus b) Poisson’s ratio
c) Modulus of rigidity d) Young’s modulus
iii) Moment of inertia of a circular disc about its diameter is
MR2 2 MR2 MR2
a) b) MR c) d)
2 4 3

iv) Compression strain is equivalent to
a) shear strain b) double the shear strain
c) square root of shear strain d) half the shear strain
v) Dimensions of surface tension are
a) [M2L1T–1] b) [M2L0T–2] c) [M1L0T–2] d) [M1L0T–1]
vi) Viscosity of water __________ with increase in pressure.
a) decreases b) increases
c) does not change d) either increase or decrease
vii) Mass of rectangular lamina of length 30 cm having moment of inertia 6 × 104 gm.cm2
about its breadth is
a) 100 gm b) 200 gm c) 600 gm d) 180 gm
viii) If the substance is highly soluble in a liquid then the surface tension of liquid
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains constant d) either increase or decrease
P.T.O.
ix) The two __________ components of tension in the threads balance the weight of
the bar in bifilar pendulum.
a) vertical b) horizontal
c) neither vertical nor horizontal d) both vertical and horizontal
x) Bernoulli’s equation deals with the law of conservation of
a) mass b) momentum c) energy d) time
xi) The theoretical limiting values or poisson’s ratio are
a) –1 and + 0.5 b) +1 and – 0.5
c) – 0.5 and + 0.5 d) –1 and – 0.5
xii) Moment of inertia in rotational motion is analogous to the _______ in translational
motion.
a) momentum b) mass c) torque d) force
xiii) Velocity of flow of liquid _______ with the area of cross section of the tube of flow.
a) varies directly b) varies inversely
c) does not change d) independent
xiv) Excess pressure inside a bubble of radius 1 × 10–3 m present in a liquid of surface
tension 0.08 N/m is
a) 160 N/m2 b) 80 N/m2 c) 320 N/m2 d) 40 N/m2
2. A) Answer any four of the following. 8

1) Define stress and strain.
2) Give physical significance of moment of inertia.
3) Give any two applications of surface tension.
4) What is the significance of Reynold’s number ?
5) Calculate the length of an equivalent simple Pendulum of a compound
Pendulum for minimum periodic time having radius of gyration 25 cm.
B) Attempt any two of the following. 6
1) Discuss in brief the factors affecting surface tension of liquid.
2) Calculate young’s modulus of a solid material having the values,
K = 9.5 ×1010 N/m2 and η = 6.5× 1010 N/m2.
3) a plate rests on layer of liquid of 0.2 cm thick. A tangential force of 9 N
moves the plate with a speed of 5 cm/s. Calculate the area of the plate
if coefficient of viscosity for the liquid is 0.45 SI units.
3. A) Attempt any two of the following. 8

1) What is a compound pendulum ? Show that a compound pendulum
performs angular simple harmonic motion.
2) Write a note on venturimeter.
3) Calculate the moment of inertia of a circular disc of mass 0.25 Kg
and diameter 20 cm, a) about an axis passing through its centre and
perpendicular to its plane b) about a tangent in its plane.
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B) Attempt any one of the following. 6
1) Derive the relation between surface tension, excess pressure and radius
of curvature.
2) What is a flywheel ? Obtain an expression for moment of inertia of a
flywheel.

1) Describe Jaeger’s method to determine surface tension of a liquid.
2) Derive an expression for the period of oscillation of a torsional
pendulum.
3) Describe experimental method to determine Poisson’s ratio for rubber
tube.
B) Attempt any one of the following. 4

1) Show that shear strain is equivalent to compression and extension
strains.
2) For a Kater’s pendulum the distance between knife edges is 100 cm.
The time taken for 100 oscillations for the pendulum are 200.3 sec.
and 200.2 sec. respectively about the knife edges. Find the value of
acceleration due to gravity.
5. Attempt any two of the following. 14

1) What is a bar pendulum ? Explain how it is used to detemine acceleration
due to gravity and radius of gyration.
2) Obtain an expression for moment of inertia of a spherical shell about its
diameter.
3) Obtain poiseuille’s equation to determine the coefficient of viscosity of a
liquid.
___________

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Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
Physics (Paper – II)
Optics and Laser
Day and Date : Friday, 2-11-2018 Max. Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

3) Use of logarithmic table or nonprogrammable calculator is
allowed.
4) Neat diagrams must be drawn, wherever necessary.
5) Answer to every new question must be written on a new page.
1. Select and write the most appropriate answer from the given alternatives for each
sub-question : 14
i) If t is time of traverse of path of length x then by the Fermat’s principle of
stationary time the value of dt is
dx
a) Zero b) Infinity c) Minimum d) Maximum
ii) For an achromatic convex lens, axial chromatic aberration is
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Extremum
iii) R1, R2 be radii curvatures of crossed lens. For minimum spherical aberration
the ratio of R1 and R2 should be
1 −1 −1
a) b) c) 1 d)
2 3 4 6
iv) In Ramsden’s Eye-piece, cross-wires are placed at distance infront of field
lens of focal length f
f −f f 2f
a) b) c) d)
3 4 5 3
v) Provision of illumination of cross-wires is provided in
a) Kellner’s eye-piece b) Ramsden’s eye-piece
c) Huygen’s eye-piece d) Gauss eye-piece
P.T.O.
vi) For constructive type of interference, path difference between two successive
paths of superimposing coherent light waves of wavelength λ is
λ
a) Even multiple of λ b) Even multiple of 2
λ
c) Odd multiple of λ d) Odd multiple of
2
vii) In Fresnel’s type of diffraction, a point source of light illuminates an obstacle by
a) Spherical wave front b) Cylindrical wave front
c) Plane wave front d) Elliptical wave front
viii) To form wedge shaped air film between two thin glass plates, an angle of
inclination between them should be
a) Nearly equal to 0 ° b) 30°
c) 45° d) 60°
ix) For a given plane diffraction grating, an angle of diffraction for highest order
of spectra
a) 180° b) 120° c) 110° d) 90°
x) Type of pumping used in Ruby Laser is
a) Optical b) Electrical
c) Chemical d) Thermal
xi) N1, N2 be population of atoms in lower and higher energy states. At population
inversion
a) N1 = N2 b) N1 = 2N2
c) N1 > N2 d) N1 < N2
xii) Coefficient of reflectivity of a totally reflecting mirror used in cavity
resonator is
a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 0.4 d) 0.2
xiii) The diameter of 10th dark Newton’s ring is 0.486 cm when source of light of
wavelength 5900 Å is used. Radius of curvature of a plano-convex lens is
a) 50 cm b) 100 cm
c) 150 cm d) 200 cm
xiv) The grating element of a plane transmission grating of 15000 lines per inch is
a) 1.583 � 10–4 cm b) 1.612 � 10–4 cm
c) 1.693 � 10–4 cm d) 1.721 � 10–4 cm
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i) State the Fermat’s principle of least time.
ii) What is meant by spherical aberration ?
iii) Write an expression for : fringe width for the interference pattern observed
in wedge shaped film.
iv) State any two characteristic properties of laser source of light.
v) Calculate the focal length of eye lens and field lens when focal length of
Huygen’s eye-piece is 6 cm.
B) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) By using the Fermat’s principle prove that incident ray, reflected ray and
normal at the point of incidence all lie in same plane.
ii) Write a short note on Spectrometer.
iii) Calculate the smallest thickness of air film where it appear dark by reflection
when an angle of refraction is 60° for light of wavelength 5890 Å.

i) Draw the neat labelled diagram of Huygen’s eye-piece and derive an
expression for focal length of it.
ii) Describe the construction and working of Helium-Neon laser.
iii) Calculate an angle of separation between two spectral lines of
wavelengths 4000 Å and 7000 Å in the second order spectra of a plane
diffraction grating of 6000 lines per cm.
i)Derive the conditions of maxima and minima for the interference of light
in parallel faced thin film.
ii) How to prepare the replica of a original plane diffraction grating ?
Distinguish between prism spectrum and plane diffraction grating
spectra.

i) Deduce the Snell’s law of refraction by using the Fermat’s principle of
extremum path.
ii) Draw a neat ray diagram of Ramsden’s Eye-piece and derive an
expression for Focal length of eye-piece and position of cross-wires.
iii) Define the Einstein’s coefficients : A21, B21 and B21.
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i) Describe the three laser components-active medium, pumping agent and
cavity resonator.
ii) When focal length of Ramsden’s eye-piece is 9 cm. Calculate position
of cross-wires, distance of separation between field lens and eye lens.
i) For a combination of convex lens and concave lens kept in contact, derive
w −f
the condition of an achromatism = .
w′ f ′
ii) Describe an experiment of Newton’s rings to determine refractive index of
a liquid.
iii) Explain the procedure for : Adjustment of spectrometer for parallel light,
mounting of a plane diffraction grating for normal incidence of light.

_____________
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Seat
No.
Set P
Statistics (Paper – I)
Descriptive Statistics – I
Day and Date : Saturday, 3-11-2018 Max. Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

ii) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
1. Choose the correct alternative : 14

1) Which one of the following is suitable scale of measurement to measure
weight ?
A) Interval Scale B) Ratio Scale
C) Nominal Scale D) Ordinal Scale
2) For the mid-values given 25, 34, 43, 52, 61, 70. The first class of the
distribution is
A) 24.5-34.5 B) 25-34 C) 20-30 D) 20.5-29.5
3) In a plot of frequencies against corresponding variate values, when
successive points are smoothly joined we get
A) Density function B) Frequency polygon
C) Frequency curve D) Ogive curve
4) The mean age of 10 observations is 82. If two observations 82 and 92 are
changed to 72 and 82 respectively, the changed value of the mean is
A) 82 B) 92
C) 80 D) none of these
5) A train covered the first 5 km of its journey at a speed of 30 km/h and next
15 km at a speed 45 km/h. The average speed of the train was
A) 35 km/h B) 40 km/h
C) 32 km/h D) 42 km/h
P.T.O.
6) If two sets of observations have same A.M., median and mode, then it means
that the two set of observations
A) must be same B) must be distinct
C) must have same range D) none of these
7) What percent of values lies between 24th percentile and 4th decile ?
A) 20% B) 16% C) 40% D) 76%
8) Which of the following is true for Mean Deviation (M.D.) and Standard
Deviation (S.D.) ?
A) M.D. = S.D. B) M.D. ≥ S.D.
C) M.D. ≤ S.D. D) None of these
9) Sum of absolute deviations of observations about median is always
A) Zero B) Minimum C) Maximum D) 1
10) If X has mean 3 and standard deviation 5, then variance of 2X – 5 is
A) 45 B) 100 C) 5 D) 95
11) The zero order moment about mean is always
A) Zero B) One C) Mean D) Variance
12) In the expression of rth order central moments in terms of raw moments,
which of the following statements is true ?
A) Sum of coefficients of all the terms is zero
B) Terms are alternatively positive and negative
C) First term is rth order raw moment
D) All the above
13) The relation Mean > Median > Mode is valid for _________ Distribution.
A) Symmetric B) Positively skewed
C) Negatively skewed D) None of these
14) The relation between m4 and m2 is m4 > 3m22 then the curve of the distribution is
A) Leptokurtic B) Platykurtic
C) Mesokurtic D) Platykurtic and positively skewed
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2. A) Answer the following (any four) : 8

1) Define Variable and Constant.
2) Define Geometric Mean and Harmonic Mean.
3) Define range and coefficient of range.
4) Define raw moment and central moment.
5) Define positive skewness and negative skewness.
B) Write notes on (any two) : 6

1) Distinguish between qualitative data and quantitative data.
2) What are the requisites of good average ?
3) Explain relative measures of dispersion.
3. A) Answer the following (any two) : 8

1) Define Arithmetic Mean for set of observations X1, X2, . . ., Xn. Show that
n
∑ ( Xi − X ) = 0 .
i =1
2) Show that variance is the minimum value of mean square deviation.
3) State and prove the relation between first raw moments and mean.
B) Answer the following (any one) : 6

1) What is a less than ogive curve ? Explain how it is used to obtain first
quartile and third quartile .
2) Show that sum of squares of deviation taken from mean is minimum.

1) What is the effect of change of origin and scale on Arithmetic mean ?
2) If mean and S.D. of variable X are m and s respectively; then find mean
aX + b
and S.D. of .
c
3) For a frequency distribution show that b2 ≥ 1.
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1) The average salary of male employees in a firm was Rs. 520 and that
of female was Rs. 420. The mean salary of all employees was Rs. 500.
Find the percentage of male and female employees in the firm.
2) A set of 10 values has standard deviation 3. Find standard deviation and
comment on the result in each of the following cases :
i) each value is decreased by 3 and
ii) each value is doubled.
5. Answer the following (any two) : 14

1) Define median and derive the formula for median in case of continuous
frequency distribution.
2) Define Mean Deviation and Standard Deviation. Show that S.D. is always
greater than or equal to M.D.
3) Express the first four central moments in terms of raw moments.
______________
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Seat
No. Set P
statistics (Paper – II)
Probability and Probability Distributions – I

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1) If A and B are mutually exclusive events, then
A) A ∪ B = φ B) A ∩ B = φ C) A ∪ B = Ω D) A ∩ B = Ω
2) If A and B are any two events from Ω then symbolic notation for both A and
B occurs is denoted by
A) A ∪ B B) A ∩ B C) A ∩ Bc D) Ac ∩ B
3) If a sample space contains 3 elements. Then its power set IP(Ω) contains
_______ elements.
A) 3 B) 23 C) 33 D) n3
4) In tossing of three coins, probability of getting at most one head is
3 7 1 1
A) B) C) D)
8 8 2 8
5) If A and B are independent events such that P(A) = 0.3, P(A ∪ B) = 0.8, then
P(B) is
1 2 4 5
A) B) C) D)
7 7 7 7
6) A number is selected randomly from each of the two sets {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
7, 8} and {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, then probability that the sum of the number
is greater than 15 is
4 3 4 3
A) B) C) D)
64 72 81 64
P.T.O.
7) Classical probability cannot be calculated if the outcomes are
A) Exhaustive B) Not equally likely
C) Exclusive D) Complementary
B
8) If A and B are independent events with P(A) = 0.3, P(B) = 0.5 and P   = k,
A
then the value of k is
A) 0.5 B) 0 C) 0.7 D) 0.3
9) Two unbiased coins are tossed. If one coin shows head, the probability that
the other also shows head is
1 1 1
A) B) C) D) none of these
4 2 8
1 1 P(B)
10) If P(A | B) = , P(B | A ) = then =
4 3 P(A )
4 3 1
A) B) C) D) cannot defined
3 4 12
1
11) For any events A, B and C P(A) = P(B) = P(C) = , P(A ∩ B) = P(A ∩ C) =
1 1 2
P(B ∩ C) = and P(A ∩ B ∩ C) = , then
4 4
A) A, B and C are mutually independent
B) A, B and C are dependent events
C) A, B and C are pairwise independent
D) None of these
12) The probability distribution of a random variable is as follows, then P(|X| < 1) is
X : –1 0 1 2 3 4
P(x) : 1/6 1/6 1/6 1/6 1/6 1/6
1 2 3
A) B) C) D) 1
6 6 6
13) If the cumulative distribution functions of a random variable X is
X : 1 2 3 4 5
P(x) : 1/6 2/6 3/6 4/6 1
Then median of a random variable X is
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
14) If r.v. X takes values –2, –1, 0, 1, 2 and if Y = |X| takes, then P(Y = 2) =
A) 2P(X= 2) B) P(X= –2) C) P(X = 2) D) P(X < 2)
Set P
1) Define mutually exclusive events and exhaustive events.
2) Define classical definition of probability.
3) If A and B are mutually exclusive events, then prove that P(A/B) = 0.
4) Define pair wise independence of events.
5) Define cumulative distribution function.
1) With usual notation, show that P(A ∪ B) ≤ P(A) + P(B).
2) If Ω = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, A = } B = {6, 7, 8, 9} C = {2, 4, 8}. Obtain
i) A , B ii) A ∩ B iii) A ∩ B ∩ C
3) If A and B are independent events, prove that
P(A ∪ B) = 1 – P(A ). P(B)

1) Which of the following functions, define a probability space on
Ω = {w1, w2, w3}
1 1 1
i) P(w1) = , P(w2) = , P(w3) =
4 3 2
2 1 2
ii) P(w1) = , P(w2) = – , P(w3) =
3 3 3
1 2
iii) P(w1) = 0 , P(w2) = , P(w3) =
3 3
2) If A and B are two events such that P(A ∪ B) ≠ 0, prove that
(
P A ) =
P(A )
A ∪ B P(A ) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B)
.

3) Verify whether the following function can be regarded as the p.m.f. for
the given values of X
3x + 2
P(X = x) = , X = 1, 2, 3.
24
Set P
1) State addition theorem of probability and hence show that
P(A ∩ B) ≥ P(A) + P(B) – 1.
2) The probabilities of three independent events are 1/3, 1/2 and 2/3 find
the probabilities that
i) all three events will occur ii) at least one event will occur

1) A fair coin is tossed twice. Write down the sample space and power set.
2) Given P(A) = 0.5, P(B) = 0.6 and P(B/A) = 0.9, find P(A ∩ B) and P(A/B).
x
3) A discrete random variable X has p.m.f. P(X = x) = k 2 ,X = 0, 1, 2, 3...
x!
Find i) K ii) P(1 ≤ x ≤ 3)
1) If A ⊂ B, then prove that, i) P(B/A) = 1, ii) P(A) ≤ P(B).
1
2) If A and B are independent events with P(A) = P(B) = . Find the value
2
of P[(A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ B)].

1) Show that for any two events A and B
P(A∩B) ≤ P(A) ≤ P(A∪B) ≤ P(A) + P(B)
( )
2) Show that Two events A and B are independent iff P A B = P A .
B ( )
3
 
 x  , X = 0, 1, 2, 3.
3) The p.m.f. of random variable X is given by P(X = x ) =
8
i) Obtain probability distribution of X, hence the distribution function of X.
ii) Evaluate P(0 < X < 3) and P(X ≥ 2).
––––––––––––––
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
mathematics
Algebra (Paper – I)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 13-11-2018onday, 15-5-2017 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.10.3

2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.. to 12.30 p.m.
1. Select the correct alternative for each of the following : 14
1) A square matrix A = (aij) is called skew-symmetric if ______ for all i and j.

a) aij = –a2ji b) aij = aji c) aij = – aji d) None of these
2) The diagonal elements of skew-symmetric matrix are

a) never zero b) few of them zero
c) always zero d) none of these
1 2 3 
 
3) The rank of matrix  1 2 1  is
 
1 2 2 
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
4) If ‘r’ is the rank of matrix A and ‘n’ is the number of unknowns in the
system of Homogeneous Linear equations of the form AX = 0, then it
have zero solution if and only if
a) r < n b) r > n c) r = n d) none of these
 1 3
5) The characteristic equation of the matrix   is
2 4 
a) λ2 + 5λ + 2 = 0 b) λ2 – 5λ – 2 = 0
c) λ2 + 5λ – 2 = 0 d) λ2 – 5λ + 2 = 0 P.T.O.
7 2 3 
 
6) The eigen values of the matrix 0 6 4  are

 
0 0 5 

a) 7, 2, 3 b) 3, 4, 5 c) 7, 6, 5 d) 2, 4, 6
 1 0
7) The characteristic polynomial of the matrix 0 1 is
 
a) x – 2x + 1
2
b) x – 2x – 1
2
c) x2 + 2x + 1 d) x2 + 2x – 1
8) Polar form of 1 + 3 i is
 π π  π π
a) 2  cos 6 + i sin 6  b) 2  cos − i sin 
 6 6
 π π  π π
c) 2  cos + i sin  d) 2  cos − i sin 
 3 3   3 3
9) If z = cos θ + isin θ then z7 + z–7 =
a) 2 sin 7θ b) 2i sin 7θ c) 2i cos 7θ d) 2 cos 7θ
10) For any complex number, e–z =
a) coshz + sinhz b) coshz – sinhz
c) cosz + sinz d) cosz – sinz
11) The value of (i)i =
π −π π −π
a) e 2 b) e 2
c) e 3 d) e 3
12) sinh–1(z) =
a) log (z + z 2 + 1) b) log (z + z − 1)
2

c) log (z − z 2 + 1) d) log (z − z 2 − 1)
13) For any complex number z, cosh (ix) =
a) sinx b) cosx c) isinx d) icosx
14) For any complex number z, cosh2 z – sinh2z =
a) 0 b) 1 c) –1 d) 2
Set P
2. A) Attempt any four from the following : 8
1) If A is any square matrix then show that
i) A + AT is a symmetric matrix
ii) A – AT is a skew -symmetric matrix.
 1 −2 −3 
 
2) Find the rank of the matrix −3 6 9 

 
 2 −4 −6 
3) Find the characteristic equation of matrix
 1 3 7
 
4 2 3 
 
0 2 1

4) Separate into real and imaginary parts

πi
−
Z = 2.e 4
5) Show that sin (iz) = i sinh z.
B) Attempt any two from the following : 6

0 1 2 1
 
1) Reduce the matrix  1 2 3 2  to normal form.
 
3 1 1 3 
2) Show that [sin ( α − θ ) + eαi sin θ]n = sinn α ⋅ einθ
3) Test for consistency of the equations :
5x – 4y + 2z = – 2
4x – 5y – 2z = 2
2x + 2y + 8z = 1
Set P
3. A) Attempt any two from the following : 8
1) Solve 2x – y + 3z = 8
– x + 2y + z = 4
3x + y – 4z = 0.
n
2) Show that (1 + i)n + (1 − i)n = 2 2 +1.cos n π where n is +ve integer.
4
3) Separate into real and imaginary parts sinh(x + iy).
B) Attempt any one from the following : 6
1) Solve x5 – x4 + x3 – x2 + x –1 = 0 using DeMoivre’s Theorem.
2) If cos ( α + iβ) = x + iy, prove that
i) x2 y2
+ = 1
cosh β sinh β
2 2
x2 y2
− =1
ii) cos 2 α sin2 α
 1 2 3
 
1) Find the inverse of matrix A = 2 −1 4  using Cayley-Hamilton
 
theorem. 3 1 −1
 1 4
2) Find the eigen values and eigen vectors of the matrix A =  .
2 3 
3) If α, β are the roots of the equation x 2 − 2 3x + 4 = 0 then prove that

α3 + β3 = 0.
Set P
1) Investigate for what values of λ and µ of the equations
x + y + z = 6
x + 2y + 3z = 10
x + 2y + λz = µ
have i) no solution ii) a unique solution and iii) an infinite number of

solutions.
2) Separate into real and imaginary parts sin–1 (eiθ).
5. Attempt any two from the following : 14
1) State and prove Cayley- Hamilton theorem.
2) State and prove DeMoivre’s theorem.
3) If z is real then show that
i) cosh−1(z) = log(z + z 2 − 1)
ii) tanh−1(z) = 1 log  1 + z  .

2  1− z 
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

mathematics
Calculus (Paper – II)
Day and Date : Wednesday 14-11-2018 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct alternative for each of the following : 14

1) If y = sin(3x + 2) then y3 = \
a) 3cos (3x + 2) b) 33 cos (3x + 2)
3π
c) 33 cos (3x + 2 + ) d) none of these
2
1
2) If y = , then yn =
2 − 3x
(−1) n n! (−3)n n+1 n+1
a) b) (−1) (n + 1)! (−3)
(2 − 3 x)n+1 (2 − 3 x)n
n+1
c) (−1) n! (−3)
n
d) none of these
(2 − 3 x)n+1
1 + cos x
3) The value of lim is
x → π ( π − x )2
a) π 4 b) 1
c) 0 d) 12
x3 x5 x7
4) x − + − + .... + ∞ is the expansion of
3! 5! 7!
a) sinx b) cosx
c) tanx d) none of these
5) ∂f at (1, 2) for the function f(x, y) = 2x2 – xy + 2y2 is

∂x
a) 0 b) – 12 c) –2 d) 2
P.T.O.
 x5 + y5  ∂u ∂u
6) If u = log  3 3 
, then x +y =
x + y  ∂x ∂y
a) eu b) 2eu
c) 2u d) 2

y
7) If u = tan−1 x , then ( )
∂u
∂x
=
x −x
a) x 2 + y 2 b)
x + y2
2
y −y
c) d)
x + y2
2
x + y2
2
y z x ∂u ∂u ∂u
8) If u = + + , then x +y +z =
z x y ∂x ∂y ∂x
a) u b) 2u
c) – u d) 0
π
2
9)
∫ sin xdx =
7
16 35 16
a) π b) π c) d) none of these
35 16 35
π2
∫ cos xdx =
6
10)
0
5π 5 32π
a) b) c) d) none of these
32 32 5
π
2
11)
∫ sin x cos5 x dx =
4
0
15 8π
a) b) 8 c) d) none of these
8 15 15
12) If F = 2xyi + 3yzj + 4zxk, then ∇ F at (1, 2, 3) is _______units.
a) 20 b) 17 c) 25 d) none of these
13) If φ = x + y + z, then curl gradφ =
a) 0 b) grad curlφ c) ∇ φ d) none of these
14) If F is a vector with curl. F = 0 , then F is
a) conservative b) solenoidal c) constant d) none of these
Set P

x sin x
1) Evaluate lim .
x →0 tan3 x
2) If y = amx, then find yn.
3) State Taylor’s theorem.

π

0
( )
4) Evaluate ∫ sin x 2 dx .
5) Let φ = 2xz + 2yz + z2, find grad φ.

∂z ∂z
1) If z = x3 + 3x2y2 + 7y3, find and .
∂x ∂y
2) Examine the continuity for

f(x, y) = x − y , (x, y) ≠ (0, 0)
2 2
2
1+ x + y
2
= 0, otherwise
3) If f and g are two vectors, then show that div ( f + g) = div f + divg .

1) If y = sin–1x, then prove that, (1 – x2)yn+2 – (2n + 1) x yn+1 – n2yn = 0.
π π
2 2
2) Obtain the reduction formula for ∫ cos xdx and hence find ∫
0
n
0
cos4xdx .
r
3) Prove that curl = 0.
r2
1) State and prove Euler’s theorem on homogeneous functions of three

variables.
2) Find nth derivative of x3.sin2x.
Set P
1) State Maclaurin’s series and by using it expand sinx and cosx.
2) If z = f(x, y) is a homogeneous function of degree n, then

∂ 2z ∂ 2z 2 ∂ z
2
x2 + 2 xy + y = n(n − 1)z .
∂x 2 ∂x∂y ∂y 2
3) Find the directional derivative of φ = x2yz + 4xz2 at (1, –2, –1) in the
direction of 2i – j – 2k.
( )
1) If z = tan−1 x , x = 2t, y =1 – t2, then prove that
y
dz
=
2
dt 1 + t 2
.
7
1 2
2) Evaluate ∫ x (1− x )
2 2
dx .
0

1) State and prove the Leibnitz’s theorem and hence find yn for
y = x3.log(ax + b).
2) If x = rcosθ, y = rsinθ, then prove that ∂ θ2 + ∂ θ2 = 0, for x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0 .
2 2

∂x ∂y
3) Define gradient, divergence and curl and also prove that
1
∇2 (log r) = .
r2
_________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P


Electronics (Paper – I)
Basic Circuit Theory and Network Analysis
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

3) Use of scientific calculator is permissible.
4) Draw neat labeled diagram whenever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternative from the following : 14

1) A resistor has color bands of Brown, Black, Orange and Gold then its
value is ___________
a) 100 KΩ ± 5% b) 1 MΩ ± 5% c) 1 KΩ ± 5% d) 10 KΩ ± 5%
2) The unit of capacitance is ___________
a) Ohm b) Henry c) Farad d) Ampere
3) A LCR series circuit is said to inductive if ___________
a) VL = VC b) VL > VC c) VL < VC d) VL ≥ VC
4) The T network is also called as ___________
a) star b) delta c) open d) all of these
5) The Z parameters are also called as ___________ parameters.
a) admittance b) hybrid c) impedance d) ABCD
6) The working principle of transformer is based on ___________
a) self-induction b) mutual induction
c) conduction d) insulation
7) The ideal current source has ___________ internal shunt resistance.
a) infinite b) finite c) zero d) all of these
8) The parallel resonance circuit is also called as ___________ circuit.
a) acceptor b) voltage magnifier
c) rejector d) all of these
P.T.O.
9) Kirchhoff’s current law is applied for ___________
a) branch b) loop c) mesh d) node
10) The hybrid parameters h22 is called as ___________
a) output conductance b) reverse voltage gain
c) input impedance d) forward current gain
11) The main purpose of fuse is ___________
a) to protect the circuit from the excessive temperature
b) to protect the circuit against the excessive current
c) to protect the circuit against the excessive voltage
d) none of these
12) In pure inductive circuit the current is ___________ with voltage.
a) in phase b) out of phase
c) leading d) lagging
13) A sinusoidal signal has frequency of 50 Hz then its time period is ________
a) 2 sec. b) 200 m sec.
c) 20 m sec. d) 0.2 m sec.
14) In the step up transformer number of turns of secondary winding is
___________ number of turns of primary winding.
a) more than b) less than
c) equal to d) all of these

1) State applications of resistors
2) Define the term :
a) In phase
b) Out of phase.
3) Define the term impedance. State its unit.
4) State super position theorem.
5) A series resonance circuit has reasoning frequency of 100 KHz and
has bandwidth of 25 KHz. Calculate quality factor.
Set P
B) Write a note on (any two) : 6
1) DC voltage sources
2) Fuse
3) Step up transformer.

1) Define passive and active components. Give the classification of inductors.
2) Compare series and parallel resonance circuit.
3) Convert the following π network into T network.

1) With the help of two port model, determine the impedance (Z) parameters.
2) State and prove maximum power transfer theorem.

1) Find out current flowing through load resistance RL of a following dc
network using Thevenin’s theorem.

2) A series LCR circuit connected to ac source having frequency of
50 Hz. If L = 100 mH, C = 100 µF and R = 100 Ω. Calculate :
a) Inductive reactance
b) Capacitive reactance
c) Resonating frequency.
3) What are different types of sources ? Explain non sinusoidal source.
Set P
1) Write a note on relay.
2) A 50 Hz sinusoidal ac quantity has maximum value of 100 volts.
Calculate :
a) Average value
b) RMS value
c) Peak to Peak value
d) Time period.
1) What is resistance ? State its unit. What are its types ? Define any two
specifications of it.
2) Define the term phase difference ? Explain phase relationship of voltage

and current in pure inductor and pure capacitor.
3) State Norton’s theorem. Find out current flowing through load resistance
RL of a following dc network using Norton’s theorem.

_____________
Set P
Seat Set P
no.

electronics
Paper – II : Digital Fundamentals
Day and Date : Friday, 16-11-2018 Total Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Draw the figures wherever necessary.
4) Use of log table and calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative for the following : 14

1) Half subtracter subtracts ___________ bits at time.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8
2) In K map ___________ eliminates one variable.
a) Pair b) Quad c) Octet d) All of these
3) In Boolean algebra A + A is
a) A b) 1 c) 0 d) A
4) To check error __________ bit is used
a) Parity b) Gray c) ASCII d) Excess-3
5) 1′ s compliment of 0111 is
a) 0111 b) 1001 c) 1000 d) 1011
6) Binary equivalent of graycode 1000 is
a) 1110 b) 1010 c) 1100 d) 1101
7) The output of EX-OR gate is 1 when input are
a) 0 and 0 b) 1 and 1 c) 0 and 1 d) All of these
P.T.O.
8) ____________IC is OR gate
a) 7400 b) 7408 c) 7486 d) 7432
9) The decimal number 2479 is equivalent to hexadecimal number
a) 9AF b) 9AE c) 99F d) 99B
10) The radix of decimal number system is
a) 16 b) 2 c) 8 d) 10
11) In binary addition 1 + 1 is
a) 2 b) 10 c) 1 d) 0
12) In NOR gate
a) NOT gate follows AND gate b) AND gate follows NOT gate
c) AND gate follows OR gate d) OR gate follows NOT gate
13) Binary equivalent of hexadecimal number F is
a) 1110 b) 1100 c) 1101 d) 1111
14) ____________ gate is universal gate.
a) NOR b) OR c) XOR d) NOT

1) What is Octal number system ? What is its radix ?
2) Draw pin out diagram of IC 7400.
3) State AND laws.
4) Simplify using Boolean laws Y = A( A + B).
5) Convert decimal 2510 into its equivalent binary number.

1) EXOR gate as a gray converter
2) K map for two variables
3) AND gate and its truth table.
Set P

1) Explain signed binary number system.
2) Explain full adder.
3) Explain universality of NOR gate.

1) Explain excess 3 codes with example of excess 3 addition.
2) Explain hexadecimal number system.

1) Explain ASCII code
2) Explain EX NOR gate along with its truth table.
3) Explain the operations of 1′ s and 2′ s compliment with suitable
examples.

1) Explain XOR gate as parity checker.
2) Explain positive and negative logic. How OR gate in positive logic
becomes AND gate in Negative logic.

1) Explain with neat block diagram organization of digital computer.
2) Explain parallel binary adder.
3) State and prove De Morgan’s theorems.

_____________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
Computer Science
Fundamental of Computer (Paper – I)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 30-10-2018 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2) A figure to the right place indicates full marks.
1. Choose correct alternatives : 14
1) Special purpose key is
a) Shift b) Alt c) Esc d) Ctrl
2) ______ is mobile operating system.
a) DOS b) Linux c) Android d) Unix
3) ______ is a method of printing bars of varying thickness and spacing.
a) Bar coding b) OCR c) OMR d) All of these
4) ______ is a picking device used with hand held computers and digital
assistants.
a) Stylus b) Light pen c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
5) ______ file is link between BIOS and application.
a) MSDOS.SYS b) IO.SYS c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
6) Which of the following is not OS ?
a) Android b) MAC c) Opera d) LINUX
7) Fifth generation computers are based on
a) Transistor b) Diode
c) Vacuum tubes d) Artificial intelligence
8) EBCDIC can code up to how many different characters ?
a) 256 b) 16 c) 32 d) 64
9) MICR stands for
a) Magnetic Ink Character Reader b) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
c) Magnetic Ink Cases Reader d) None of these
10) Which is the volatile memory ?
a) RAM b) ROM c) EPROM d) EEPROM
11) The output quality of a printer is measured by
a) Dot per inch b) Dot per sq. inch
c) Dots printed per unit time d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 12 *SLRSO12*
12) The computer code for the interchange of information between terminals is
a) BCD b) ASCII c) EBCDIC d) All of above
13) Which one of these is not input device ?
a) Speaker b) Mouse c) Scanner d) Keyboard
14) The input device that is closely related to touch screen is the
a) Light pen b) Keyboard c) Joystick d) Mouse
1) SMPS stand for
2) What are the common types of expansion slots ?
3) Application of MICR.
4) EDVAC stands for
5) What is workbook ?
1) Evolution of computers.
2) Linux operating system.
3) Features of MS-Excel.
1) Explain functions of O.S.
2) Explain the following dos commands :
(a) chkdsk (b) mkdir (c) move ( d) copy.
3) What is difference between DOS and window ?
1) Define computer. Explain the characteristics of computer.
2) Explain any two output devices.
1) Explain android mobile operating system.
2) What are the types of monitor ? Explain the construction of CRT
monitor.
3) What are the features of MS-Word ?
1) What is ROM ? Explain its different types.
2) How to import and export data in MS-Excel ?
1) Explain generation of computer.
2) What are the types of printers ? Explain any two type.
3) What is mail merge ? Explain procedure of creating mail merge in MS-Word.
______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
Computer Science
Paper No. II : Programming Using C
Day and Date : Wednesday, 31-10-2018 Max. Marks : 70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Which of the following is not a valid variable name declaration ?
a) int_a3; b) int a_3; c) int 3_a; d) int_3a
2) C Language is developed by
a) Dennis Ritchie b) Martin Richards
c) Ken Thomson d) None of the mentioned
3) The format identifier ‘%d’ is used for _________ data type.
a) char b) int c) float d) double
4) Which of the following is post conditioned loop ?
a) if b) for c) while d) do while
5) Which of the following is jumping statements used in C language ?
a) Break b) Goto
c) Continue d) All above
6) Which of the following cannot be checked in a switch-case statement ?
a) Integer b) Float
c) Character d) Enum
7) Variable name should not contain any symbol except $.
a) True b) False
P.T.O.
8) The main() function is user defined function.

a) True b) False
9) C program are converted into machine language with the help of
a) Editor b) Compiler
c) An operating system d) None of these
10) Which one of the following is not reserved keywords for C ?
a) Auto b) Case
c) Main d) Default
11) Standard ANSI C recognizes _______ number of keywords.
a) 32 b) 34 c) 24 d) 22
12) Which is the only function all C program contains ?
a) main () b) getch ()
c) printf () d) None of these
13) Which of the following is not valid name of C variable ?
a) abcexam b) abc_exam
c) abc exam d) 2abcexam
14) The printf() function includes the _________ header file.
a) conio.h b) stdio.h
c) stdlib.h d) All of the above

1) Define Algorithm and Flowchart.
2) Define Program.
3) State any four operators used in C Language.
4) Write the syntax of nested if else statement.
5) Define compiler and interpreter.
1) Write an algorithm to calculate simple interest.
2) Explain History of C language.
3) Define array. Explain one dimensional array.
Set P

1) Write a program in C to check given number is prime or not.
2) Explain any two string functions used in C language.
3) Write the characteristics of Algorithm.
1) Explain data types used in C language.
2) Write a program in C to calculate the addition of two matrix (2�2).

1) Explain structure of C program.
2) Write a short note on “Machine Language”.
3) Explain loop control statement with example.
1) Explain unconditional statement with example.
2) Write a program in C to print the Fibonacci series 0 1 1 2 3 5 8 13.

1) Explain switch case statement with example.
2) Write a program in C to calculate the face value of given number.
3) Write the advantages and limitations of flowchart.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (Choice Based Credit System)

Examination, 2018
Geography
Paper – I : Physical Geography (Geomorphology)
Day and Date : Thursday, 1-11-2018 Total Marks : 70
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of map stencils is allowed.
1. Select the proper answer from the given below and rewrite the sentences. 14
1) The science which studies the evolution landforms is known as
__________
A) Climatology B) Geomorphology
C) Hydrology D) Pedology
2) Most of the Young Mountain system the world has __________ as a reason
origin.
A) Faulting B) Folding C) Deposition D) Erosion
3) _________ is an example of active volcano.
A) Vesuvius B) Aniakchak
C) Katmai D) Stromboli
4) Geomorphology is the branch of __________ geography.
A) Physical B) Economic
C) Human D) Social
5) The surface layer of the earth is known as ____________ layers.
A) Asthenosphere B) Mental
C) Crust D) Core
6) Sima refers to ___________
A) Si + Ma B) Si + Mg C) Si + Ca D) Ni + Fe
P.T.O.
7) Continental drift theory was put forward by ____________

A) Weber B) Wegner C) Ritter D) Davis
8) ____________ waves provide authentic knowledge about the interior of the
earth.
A) Tidal B) Seismic
C) Sound D) Electromagnetic
9) ____________ discontinuity layer is located in between crust and mental.
A) Oldham’s B) Gutenberg’s
C) Mohos D) Conarads
10) Fumaroles are related with __________ activity.
A) Volcano B) Earthquake
C) Weathering D) Denudation
11) Harold Jeffrey modified the original tidal hypothesis in the year.
A) 1929 B) 1930 C) 1931 D) 1932
12) In 1905 Chamberlin and moulten have suggested the ___________
hypothesis.
A) Planetesimal B) Satelite
C) Tidal D) Gaseous
13) The average density of the earth is _________
A) 3 B) 5.5 C) 6 D) 7
14) The parallel and horizontal limbs of a recumbent fold are called
__________
A) Trust B) Recumbent
C) Simple folds D) Nappes
2. A) Answer the following question (any four) : 8

1) What is pangaea ?
2) Define is Tsunami.
3) State the P Waves.
4) What is NIFE ?
5) What is volcanoes ?
1) What is faulting ?
2) Define the term of geomorphology.
3) Scope of geomorphology.
Set P
3. A) Answer the following question (any two) : 8

1) Explain the world earthquake zones.
2) Describe the types of fold.
3) State the nature of geomorphology.
B) Answer the following question (any one) : 6
1) Describe the concept of SIAL.
2) Draw a neat diagram of the interior of the earth.

1) Explain the types of volcanoes.
2) Describe the effect of earthquake.
3) Explain the Chamberlain theories of the origin of the earth.
1) Write in brief the plate tectonic theory.
2) State the causes of earthquake.
5. Answer the following question (any two) : 14

a) Define geomorphology. Explain the importance of geomorphology.
b) Discuss the evidences of continental drift theory of Wagner.
c) Describe the tyeps of faults.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set p

Geography (Paper – II)
Physical Geography (Geomorphology)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Select the proper answer from the given below and rewrite the sentences : 14
1) Basalt is a ___________ type of rock.
A) Volcanic B) Igneous
C) Sedimentary D) Metamorphic
2) Limestone is an example of ___________ type of rock.
A) Volcanic B) Igneous
C) Sedimentary D) Metamorphic
3) Marble is an example of ______ rock.
A) Volcanic B) Igneous C) Sedimentary D) Metamorphic
4) The evolution of surface features of the earth is studied in ____________
A) Geomorphology B) Climatology
C) Hydrology D) Petrology
5) There are ___________ main types of weathering.
A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five
6) ________________ weathering is carried on by vegetation and animal.
A) Physical B) Chemical
C) Biological D) Mechanical
P.T.O.
7) Generally oxidation process is commonly found in ___________ areas.

A) Humid B) Cold desert C) Hot desert D) None of these
8) The concept of ‘Cycle of erosion’ was given by ______________
A) Davis B) Wegner C) Weber D) None of these
9) The biggest desert ‘Sahara’ is located in the _______________
A) Asia B) Australia C) Africa D) None of these
10) Beaches are the depositional landforms made by ____________
A) Glaciers B) Winds
C) Oceanic waves D) None of these
11) Delta is formed due to the depositional work of ___________
A) Wind B) River C) Glacier D) None of these
12) _______________ is formed by the depositional work of wind.
A) Yardang B) Mushroom rock
C) Barkhans D) None of these
13) ____________ landform is formed due to erosional work of wind.
A) Mushroom rock B) Delta
C) Rapids D) N0one of these
14) The biggest Delta ‘Sunder ban’ is found in _________
A) France B) India C) China D) U.S.A.
2. A) Answer the following questions (any four) : 8

1) State the examples of igneous rock.
2) Give definition of rock.
3) State the agents of biological weathering.
4) Define concept of weathering.
5) Define the chemical weathering.
B) Write notes on any two : 6
1) Give the types of the rocks.
2) Give the types of the weathering.
3) Give the erosional landforms of river.
Set P

1) Describe the types of sedimentary rocks.
2) Describe the major landforms produced by glacial erosion.
3) Describe the effects of weathering.

1) Describe the depositional work of sea waves.
2) Give the depositional features made by glacial.

1) Describe the types of chemical weathering.
2) Describe the depositional work of river.
3) Describe the major landforms product by wind deposition.
B) Answer the question (any one) : 4
1) Draw the neat diagram of water fall.
2) Draw the neat diagram of Mushroom rock.
5. Answer the following question (any two) : 14

1) Describe the types of Physical weathering.
2) Describe the concept cycle of erosion.
3) Describe major landforms produced by wind erosion.
___________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) Examination, 2018

Zoology (Paper – I) (CBCS)
Animal Diversity – I
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

1) Tapeworm belongs to the phylum ___________
a) Aschellminthes b) Platyhelminthes
c) Porifera d) Coelenterata
2) The main function of contractile vacuole is ___________
a) Digestion b) Excretion
c) Respiration d) Osmoregulation
3) In Sycon, water currents enters in the body through ___________
a) Ostia b) Osculum
c) Respiration d) Osmoregulation
4) Hydra belongs to the class ___________
a) Scyphozoa b) Hydrozoa c) Calcarea d) Ciliata
5) Tapeworm is ___________ parasite.
a) Ectoparasite b) Endoparasite c) Obligatory d) Facultative
6) In earthworm intestinal caeca are present in ___________ segment.
a) 16th b) 20th c) 24th d) 26th
7) In earthworm the clitellar segments are ___________
a) 12, 13, 14 b) 14th, 15th, 16th c) 16, 17, 18 d) 18th, 19th, 20th
8) In Hydra asexual reproduction is by ___________
a) Budding b) Conjugation c) Grafting d) Cutting
P.T.O.
9) ___________ daughter Paramecia are formed at the end of conjugation.
a) Two b) Four c) Six d) Eight
10) The earthworm, belongs to class ___________
a) Hirudinaria b) Polychaete c) Oligochaete d) Ciliata
11) In earthworm locomotory organs are ___________
a) Setae b) Cilia c) Tentacles d) Flagella
12) In Sycon the spicules function as ___________
a) Endoskeleton b) Exoskeleton
c) Gland d) Digestive organ
13) Gizzard in earthworm is present in ___________ segment.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 8 d) 11
14) Amoeba belongs to the ___________
a) Protozoa b) Porifera c) Coelenterata d) Nematoda

1) Habit and habitat of Paramoecium
2) Structure and functions of spicules in Sycon.
3) Explain regeneration in Hydra.
4) Give the classes of phylum Annelida with example.
5) Structure of spermatheca.

1) Budding in Hydra
2) Binary fission in Paramoecium
3) Morphology of Hydra.

1) Give salient feature of Coelenterata.
2) Nerve ring of earthworm.
3) Habit and habitat of Sycon.
1) Gravid proglottids of tapeworm.
2) Give general characters of Porifera.
Set P
1) Give an account of conjugation in Paramoecium.
2) Salient features of Phylum Annelida.
3) Scolex in Tapeworm.

1) Body wall of Earthworm
2) Choanocyte of sycon.
1) Describe digestive system of Earthworm.
2) Describe parasitic adaptations in Tapeworm.
3) Describe nervous system of Earthworm.

_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
zoology (Paper – II)
Cell Biology and Genetics
Day and Date : Monday, 12-11-2018 Total Marks : 70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Multiple Choice Questions. 14

1) In electron microscope the image is seen on
a) glass slide b) diaphragm
c) flex screen d) fluorescent screen
2) Cells without well organised nucleus are called
a) eukaryotic cells b) somatic cells
c) prokaryotic cells d) gonadal cells
3) The nucleopores are minute openings found on
a) plasma membrane b) nuclear membrane
c) endoplasmic reticulum d) golgi complex
4) The energy generated from mitochondria is called
a) ADP b) MTP c) GTP d) ATP
5) Golgi body is concerned with
a) respiration b) secretion
c) excretion d) degradation
6) The suicidal bags said to be
a) mitochondria b) lysosomes
c) ribosomes d) endoplasmic reticulum
7) Polytene chromosomes were first observed by
a) Betanelzky in 1980 b) Stevens and Wilson in 1905
c) Hetiz and Boueri in 1935 d) Balbiani in 1881
P.T.O.
8) Phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is

a) 1 : 2 : 1 b) 12 : 3 : 1
c) 15 : 1 d) 3 : 1
9) In incomplete dominance the phenotypic ratio is
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 2 : 1 c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 d) 9 : 3 : 4
10) A person having blood group ‘AB’ married with the lady having blood group
‘O’ the expected blood group of their children are
a) ‘AB’ and ‘O’ b) ‘A’ and ‘O’
c) ‘B’ and ‘O’ d) ‘A’ and ‘B’
11) In rabbit genotypes for Himalayan coat colour is
a) CC b) ChCh c) CchCch d) cc
12) Sex determination in human being is
a) XX-YY type b) XX-XO type
c) XX-XY type d) XO-XX type
13) ___________ is an example of environmental sex determination.
a) Bonellia b) Honey bee
c) Cockroach d) Butterfly
14) RBCs in sickle cell anaemia become
a) swollen b) sickle shaped
c) with nucleus d) without nucleus

1) Law of dominance
2) What are the genotypes of person having blood groups ‘A’ and ‘AB’ ?
3) Give the principles of electron microscopy.
4) Pinocytosis.
5) Co- dominance.
1) Functions of plasma membrane.
2) Balbianiring.
3) Rh- Factor.

1) Describe the law of segregation with suitable example.
2) Explain incomplete dominance with suitable example.
3) Describe the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane.
Set P

1) Describe human genetic disorder sickle cell anaemia.
2) Describe the ultra structure of nucleus.

1) Describe the structure of a typical bacterial cell.
2) What are the giant chromosomes ? Describe the lampbrush
chromosomes.
3) Explain XX-XO method of sex determination
1) Describe the types and functions of lysosomes.
2) What is sex determination ? Describe environmental method of sex
determination.

1) Describe the law of independent assortment with a suitable example.
2) Describe the multiple alleles with reference to ABO blood group system.
3) Describe the ultra-structure of endoplasmic reticulum. Give its functions.
__________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
botany (Paper – I)
Microbiology and Phycology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams whenever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct answer from the given
alternatives. 14
1) The branch of biology which deals with the study of ________ is called as
microbiology.
a) Microbes b) Plants c) Animals d) Gymnosperm
2) Viruses can live only in living organisms and can infect ________
a) Animals b) Plants
c) Other organisms d) All of the above
3) ________ studied the tobacco mosaic virus in crystalline state from the sap
of infected tobacco plants.
a) Stanley b) Mayer c) Hershey d) Twort
4) ________ Bacterium is spherical in shape.
a) Vibrio b) Bacillus
c) Coccus d) All of the above
5) Mycoplasm are transmitted by
a) Fungi b) Bacteria
c) Insect vector d) None of the above
6) In mycoplasm ________ is absent.
a) Ribosomes b) DNA
c) Cell Wall d) Cell membrane
7) The members of blue green algae belongs to the division
a) Euglenophyta b) Pheophyta c) Cyanophyta d) Rhodophyta
8) Reserved food material in Nostoc cells is
a) Lipid b) Manitol
c) Laminarin d) Cyanophycean starch
9) ________ is a nitrogen fixing cell of Nostoc.
a) Spore b) Heterocyst c) Aplonspore d) Zoospore
10) The members of the division chlorophyta are called as ________ algae.
a) Brown b) Green c) Red d) Yellow
P.T.O.
11) Cells of spirogyra contain ________ shaped chloroplasts.
a) star b) ribbon c) disc d) spherical
12) The process of sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is known as
a) Budding b) Fission
c) Conjugation d) None of the above
13) Male coceptacle contains only
a) Oogonia b) Sporangia c) Antheridia d) Zoosporangia
14) Plant viruses spread from plant to plant by
a) Human being b) Air
c) Cattles d) None of the above
1) Define mycoplasma. 2
2) What is bacteriology ? 2
3) State the occurrence of sargassum. 2
4) Write the uses of viruses. 2
5) Write the characters of division cyanophyta. 2
1) Asexual reproduction in Spirogyra. 3
2) Significance of mycoplasma. 3
3) TMV. 3
1) Describe the vegetative methods of reproduction in Nostoc. 4
2) Draw and label the ultra structure of bacterial cell. 4
3) Write the general characters of algae. 4
1) What are microbes ? Write the role of microbes. 6
2) Write the general characters of mycoplasma. 6

1) Describe the male conceptacle of Sargassum. 5
2) Write the classification and general characters of Nostoc. 5
3) Explain the structure of T4 bacteriophage. 5
1) Write the economic importance of bacteria. 4
2) Give an account of general characters of Phaeophyta. 4
1) Give the role of algae in agriculture and industry. 7
2) Write the general characters of viruses. 7
3) Describe the methods of vegetative reproduction in algae. 7
______________ Set P

Seat
No. Set P
botany (Paper – II) : Biomolecules and Cell Biology
Day and Date : Wednesday, 14-11-2018onday, 15-5-2017 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.10.3
1. Choose the correct alternative of the following : 14

1) Covalent bonds are present in
a) glucose b) proteins c) lipids d) all of these
2) A nucleotide contains
a) N-base + phosphate b) sugar + phosphate
c) sugar + N-base + phosphate d) none of these
3) The solution which resists changes in pH is called
a) buffer b) acid
c) base d) none of these
4) Glucose is a
a) monosaccharide b) disaccharide
c) trisaccharide d) polysaccharide
5) Enzymes are ____________ in nature.
a) Protein b) Lipid
c) Carbohydrate d) All of these
6) Protein part of enzyme is called
a) apoenzyme b) prosthetic group
c) holoenzyme d) biocatalyst
7) In prokaryotic cells nuclear proteins are
a) less b) absent c) present d) more
8) The plant cell wall is made up of
a) glycogen b) starch c) both a and b d) cellulose
P.T.O.
9) Cell organelles are embedded in
a) cytoplasm b) protoplasm c) nucleoplasm d) none of these
10) Most of the cell membranes are made of

a) carbohydrates b) phospholipids
c) proteins d) both b and c
11) The head of a phospholipid is

a) hydrophilic b) hydrophobic c) amphiphilic d) none of these
12) A microbody was firstly discovered by

a) Robert Koch b) Rhodin
c) Robert Brown d) De Duve
13) Peroxisome is found in

a) plants b) animals c) both a and b d) viruses
14) The cell cycle can be divided into

a) interphase and mitotic phase b) interphase and anaphase
c) interphase and telophase d) telophase and cytokinesis
2. A) Attempt the following (any four) : 8
1) Define oligosaccharides.
2) Define pH.
3) Define holoenzyme.
4) Define cell.
5) What is microbody ?
1) Significance of mitosis.
2) Functions of glyoxysome.
3) Chemical composition of plasma membrane.

Set P

1) Write in brief ultrastructure of prokaryotic cell.
2) Write in brief functions of cell wall.
3) Explain Lock and Key hypothesis.
B) Answer the following (any two) : 6

1) Explain in brief structure of DNA.
2) Write in brief any three properties of water.
3) Write in brief any three significance of chemical bonds.

1) What is buffer ? Give its significance.
2) Explain in brief clover leaf model of t-RNA.
3) Describe properties of enzyme.

1) Distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
2) Describe Fluid Mosaic Model of cell membrane.

1) What is mitosis ? Describe any two stages of mitosis.
2) Describe the structure and functions of peroxisome.
3) Describe physical properties of carbohydrates.
______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
psychology (paper – i)
General Psychology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right indicate full marks of the question.
1. Choose the correct options : 14

1) _________ developed theory of operant conditioning.
a) Pavlov b) Skinner
c) Watson d) Freud
2) _________ division is usually called the fight-or-flight system.
a) Parasympathetic b) Sympathetic
c) Somatic d) None of the above
3) The ________ content of a dream is the actual dream itself.
a) latent b) hidden
c) manifest d) indirect
4) __________ connects left and right hemispheres of the brain.
a) Cerebellum b) Corpus Collasum
c) Pons d) Medulla
5) According to __________ theory, sleep is a product of evolution.
a) restorative b) adaptive
c) constructive d) none of the above
6) A person who is awake and mentally active will show a brain wave pattern
on the EEG called ___________ waves.
a) alpha b) beta c) theta d) delta
7) __________ is the part of hindbrain that controls heartbeat and breathing.
a) Pons b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla d) Reticular formation
P.T.O.
8) Pavlov was a __________ physiologist.
a) American b) French c) Russian d) British
9) The concept of ‘self actualization’ belongs to ________ psychology.
a) psychoanalytic b) humanistic
c) gestalt d) behaviouristic
10) Narcolepsy is a ___________ disorder.
a) eating b) sex c) personality d) sleep
11) The concept of ___________ is one of Skinner’s major contribution to
behaviourism.
a) reinforcement b) spontaneous recovery
c) shaping d) none of the above
12) The _________ is called little brain.
a) Cerebral Cortex b) Cerebellum
c) Thalamus d) Pons
13) The variable which is manipulated by the researcher is called _______
variable.
a) independent b) dependent c) extraneous d) response
14) Carl Rogers was _________ psychologist.
a) behaviouristic b) psychoanalytic
c) humanistic d) gestalt
2. Answer the following (any seven) : 14

1) Define Psychology.
2) What is stimulus generalization ?
3) What is cognitive neuroscience ?
4) What is neuron ?
5) State the function of thalamus.
6) What is hypnosis ?
7) What is naturalistic observation ?
8) Who proposed law of effect ?
9) What is case study method ?
Set P
3. A) Answer the following questions (any two) : 10

1) Describe different psychological professions.
2) Explain Freud’s interpretation of dreams.
3) What is punishment and explain types of punishment ?
B) Explain the sociocultural perspective of psychology. 4

1) State the functions of REM sleep.
2) Describe the law of effect.
3) Explain survey method.
B) Explain goals of psychology. 6
5. Answer the following questions (any two) : 14

1) Explain the structure of brain.
2) Explain stages of sleep.
3) Write an experiment of operant conditioning and important concepts in
operant conditioning.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. I (Semester – I) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
Geology
Paper – I : Mineralogy and Palaeontology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.
3) Draw neat diagrams wherever needed.
1. Choose the correct alternative from the given option. 14

1) Calcite shows __________ sets of cleavages.
a) I b) II c) III d) none
2) _________ mineral belongs to the feldspar group.
a) Orthoclase b) Plagioclase
c) Microcline d) All of these
3) Form of biotite is
a) Crystalline b) Tabular c) Foliated d) Vesicular
4) Amphibole group of mineral is
a) Tremolite b) Asbestoses
c) Hornblende d) All of these
5) Quartz shows _________ fracture.
a) Concoidal b) Earthy c) Even d) None of these
6) The fluorite has _________ hardness.
a) 1 b) 4 c) 7 d) 3
7) Olivine is present in _________ rock.
a) Dunite b) Granite c) Pegmatite d) Dolerite
8) Pallial line is present in _________ shell.
a) Gastropoda b) Lamellibranchia
c) Brachiopoda d) Conus
9) Body whorl is present at
a) base b) apex c) top d) anterior
P.T.O.
10) Outer lip is present in
a) Gastropod b) Brachiopod
c) Trilobites d) Lamellibranches
11) Pectenbelongs to _________ class.
a) Gastropod b) Lamellibranches
c) Coelenterate d) Trilobites
12) The main characteristic of fossil is its preservation in
a) Soil b) Sediments c) Ice d) Lava
13) Fossil ogygia belongs to
a) Arthopoda b) Anthozoa c) Gastropod d) All of these
14) Plant leaves are preserved in _________ rock.
a) Arenaceous b) Rudaceous
c) Lava d) Argillaceous
2. A) Answer the following (any four). 8

1) Define mineral.
2) What is streak ?
3) Give Moh’s Scales of hardness.
4) Describe Montlivaltia.
5) Describe Turbo.
B) Write notes on (any two). 6

1) Olivine group.
2) Body whorl of gastropod.
3) Thorax of trilobite.
3. A) Answer the following (any two). 8

1) Describe physical properties of feldspar group.
2) Explain specific gravity of mineral.
3) Describe condition of fossilization.
B) Answer the following (any one). 6

1) Describe the Crystalline, cryptocrystalline and amorphous silica.
2) Describe any three uses of fossil.
Set P
1) Describe two forms of minerals with example.
2) Describe physical properties, verities and occurrence of mica group.
3) Describe morphology of hard parts of gastropod.

1) Explain mould and cast.
2) Describe any two types of fractures of mineral.
5. Answer any two of the following. 14

1) Define fossil. Describe petrification and imprint.
2) Describe the pyroxene group.
3) Explain the morphology of lamellibranch shell.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

Microbiology (Paper – I)
Introduction to Microbiology and Microbial Diversity
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answers from the given alternatives. 14
1) __________ type of bacteria live in extreme environment.
a) Actinomycete b) Archaebacteria
c) Fungi d) Mycoplasma
2) Flagella is made up of ___________ protein.
a) Murein b) Flagellin
c) Pilin d) Albumin
3) Mycology is the study of __________
a) viruses b) bacteria
c) fungi d) algae
4) __________ known as father of microbiology.
a) Louis pasteur b) Joseph Lister
c) Robert Koch d) Antony von Leewen Hock
5) Causative agent of tuberculosis is discovered by ___________
a) Robert Koch b) Winogradsky
c) Tyndall d) Joseph Lister
6) Cells divide in two planes and remain attached predominantly in pairs are
a) Staphylococci b) Streptococci
c) Diplococci d) Tetrad
P.T.O.
7) The meaning of monotrichous flagellar arrangement is __________

a) One flagellum at one end
b) Many flagella at one end
c) Flagella all over the cell surface
d) One flagellum at both ends
8) Two amino sugars NAG and NAM in peptidoglycan are linked by
__________
a) α 1-2 linkage b) β 1-4 linkage
c) α 1-6 linkage d) α 1-4 linkage
9) In salmonella typhi, salmonella indicates the name of ____________
a) species b) class
c) family d) genus
10) Actinomycetes is the link between bacteria and __________
a) fungi b) viruses
c) algae d) protozoa
11) The binomial nomenclature system was given by __________
a) Pasteur b) Linnaeus
c) Ivanowasky d) Koch
12) ____________ increases virulence of bacteria.
a) Cell wall b) Cell membrane
c) Flagella d) Capsule
13) Transport of nutrients is the function of ____________
a) Cell membrane b) Cell wall
c) Flagella d) Capsule
14) Aseptic surgery was discovered by __________
a) Pasteur b) Joseph Lister
c) John Tyndall d) Koch
2. A) Answer the following (any 4) : 8

1) Define mycology.
2) Contributions of Winogradsky.
3) What is opacity ?
4) Functions of flagella.
5) Define tyndallization.
Set P

1) Contribution of Alexander Flemming.
2) What is medical microbiology ?
3) Explain various shapes of bacteria.

1) Harmful activities of microorganisms.
2) General properties of viruses.
3) Structure and functions of capsule.
1) Give an account of cell wall of bacteria.
2) Give contributions of Louis Pasteur.

1) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane with functions.
2) Differentiate between procaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
3) General characters of rickettsia.
1) What is fermentation ? Give the role of microorganisms in fermented
products.
2) Role of biochemical characters in bacterial classification.

1) General characters and economic importance of archaebacteria.
2) Give an account of beneficial activities of microorganisms.
3) Give an account of general principles of bacterial nomenclature.
_____________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper No. – II : Human Development

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2) Numbers to the right side indicate marks.

1) Lack of ______ is a major culprit.
(Food, Sleep, Exercise, None of these)
2) Sex hormones in male is known as
(Estrogens, Androgens, Neurons, None of these)
3) Coping with the challenges of late maturation may actually help
(Males, Females, Transgender, None of these)
4) _______ is spread mostly thought sexual contact.
(AIDS, HIV, Chalamydia, Hepatitis B)
5) Human Pappiloma Virus (HPV) produces genital warts and lead ______
cancer.
(Heats, Brain, Cervical, None of these)
6) _______ is psychological investment in a course of action or an ideology.
(Commitment, Aliement Management, None of the above)
7) ________ called the identity versus indent confusion stage.
(Freud, Sternberg , Erikson, Kohler)
8) Exercise increases _______ fitness.
(Bone, Cardiovascular, Hair, None of these)
9) For Boy’s Early maturation is largely a
(Minus, Plus, Divisible, None of these)
P.T.O.
10) At the age of ______ illness and disease overtake accidents as leading
cause of death.
(25, 35, 40, 50)
11) ________ Drugs produce a biological or psychological dependence leading
users to increasingly crave them.
(Addictive, Deductive, Superpower, None of these)
12) A ______ cause may underline anorexia nervosa.
(Physiological, Neurological, Sociological, Biological)
13) Some of the changes of adolescence carry _______ weights.
(Economical, Psychological, Social, None of these)
14) The earlier start of puberty is an example of a significance of _____ trend.
(Secular, Unsecular , Loosing, None of these)
2. Answer the following questions (any seven) : 14

1) What type of thinking perry used in his approach ?
2) What are the secondary sex characteristics in girls ?
3) Long form of AIDS.
4) What is Trichomoniasis ?
5) What is the full form of STI ?
6) Define metacognition.
7) Name the Erikson’s Identify formation crisis.
8) What is obesity ?
9) What adolescence should do for Physical fitness ?

a) What is identity achievement and fore closure in Marica’s approach ?
b) What is cyberspace in Adolescence ?
c) Explain Puberty in Girls.
B) Explain Late Maturation in Adolescence. 4
Set P
a) Explain Schaie’s stages of Development.
b) Explain Suicide in Adolescence.
c) What are the causes students dropping out of School ?
B) Explain Early Maturation. 6

1) Explain Physical Fitness and Health in adolescence.
2) Explain Puberty in Boys.
3) Explain Piagatian approaches to Cognitive Development.

___________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
GEOLOGY
Paper – II : Igneous, Sedimentary and metamorphic Petrology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct alternative from the given option. 14

1) Petrology is the study of
a) fossil b) rock
c) minerals d) none of these
2) Aggregates of minerals are called as
a) fossil b) minerals
c) rock d) all of these
3) Action of pressure, temperature and chemical active fluids, forms _____
rocks.
a) Igneous b) Metamorphic
c) Sedimentary d) All of these
4) The bun shaped igneous intrusion in unfolded region is called
a) Lopolith b) Sill c) Phacolith d) Laccolith
5) Arenaceous sedimentary rocks composed mostly of _______ grains.
a) sand b) clay c) boulder d) none of these
6) Extrusive form of igneous rocks are
a) plutonic b) volcanic c) intermediate d) all of these
7) Breccia is ________ rock.
a) sedimentary b) Igneous
c) Metamorphic d) None of these
P.T.O.
8) Marble is ________ rock.

a) sedimentary b) Igneous
c) Metamorphic d) None of these
9) ________ is discordant igneous intrusion in unfolded region.
a) Sill b) Lopolith c) Laccolith d) Dike
10) _______ is residual sedimentary rock.
a) Conglomerate b) Limestone
c) Sandstone d) Bauxite
11) Schistose structure is formed in _________ metamorphic rock.
a) Dynamothermal b) Thermal
c) Cataclastic d) Plutonic
12) Cooling of magma or lava forms ______ rock.
a) Metamorphic b) Igneous
c) Sedimentary d) None of these
13) Ripple mark is present in ______ rock.
a) Sandstone b) Limestone
c) Conglomerate d) All of these
14) The parent rock of slate is
a) Shale b) Sandstone
c) Lava d) Basalt

1) Define rock.
2) What is lava and magma ?
3) Difference between conglomerate and breccia.
4) Formation of marble.
5) What is sills ?
1) Volcanic rock.
2) Residual sedimentary rock.
3) Agents of metamorphism.
Set P
1) Describe laccolith.
2) Explain compaction and cementation process in sedimentary rock formation.
3) Describe depth zones of metamorphism.
1) Describe the dynamothermal metamorphism.
2) Describe the batholith, stock and boss.

1) Describe two structures in metamorphic rock.
2) Describe two structures in sedimentary rock.
3) Describe the dike and cone sheets in igneous intrusions.
b) Answer the following (any one) : 4

1) Explain the thermal metamorphism.
2) Define igneous rock. Describe their formation.

1) Describe major sub divisions of rock.
2) Describe the rudaceous and arenaceous sedimentary rock.
3) Explain the rock cycle.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Microbiology
Microbial Techniques (Paper – II)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives from

given below. 14
1) The streak plate method was firstly discovered by ___________
A) Robert Koch B) Joseph Lister
C) Louis Pasteur D) Robert Hook
2) The heavy metal which is used as sterilizing agent is ___________
A) Phenol B) Chlorine C) Copper D) Ethylene oxide
3) The source of electron in electron microscope consists ___________
A) Gold B) Silver C) Mercury D) Tungsten
4) _____ used as decolorizing agent in acid fast staining of mycobacterium.
A) Alcohol B) Congo red
C) Copper sulphate D) Acid-Alcohol
5) ___________ polymeric material used for the manufacturing of membrane
filter for sterilization.
A) Gelatin B) Cellulose C) Lignin D) Phenols
6) The ability of lens to distinguish or separate of two objects or points from
each other is known as ___________
A) Reflection B) Refraction
C) Resolution D) Illumination
7) ___________ used as counter stain in the gram staining.
A) Malachite green B) Acid-Alcohol
C) ZNCF D) Safranine
8) Chance’s method is used for staining of ___________
A) Cell wall B) Cell membrane
C) Flagella D) Endospore
9) The process of reducing level of microbial population which is considered
safe by public health hazard is known as ___________
A) Sterilization B) Disinfection
C) Sanitization D) Antiseptic
P.T.O.
10) In STLT method of pasteurization milk is pasteurized at ___________
A) 121°C for 20 Minute B) 62.8°C for 30 Minute
C) 71.6°C for 20 Minute D) 140°C for 10 second
11) Tissue culture media used for cultivation of ___________
A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Viruses D) Algae
12) The method which preserves the microorganism at 4°C is known as ______
A) Freezing B) Lyophilization
C) Cryopreservation D) Thawing
13) The media which contain selective agent that permit growth of desired
organism is called as ___________ media.
A) Living B) Empirical C) Selective D) Differential
14) ___________ nm is microbicidal wavelength of ultraviolet radiation used
for sterilization.
A) 400 B) 150 C) 265 D) 700
1) Define, explain heavy metal as sterilizing agent.
2) What is microbiostasis ?
3) Define enriched media.
4) Define sterilization by membrane filtration.
5) Enlist types and role of objective lens.
1) What is cold sterilization ? Discuss in brief sterilization by ultraviolet
radiation.
2) Discuss in brief principle and procedure of negative staining.
3) Give a brief account on cultivation of viruses in tissue culture.
1) Define culture media. Describe in detail selective, natural and differential
media.
2) Describe in detail principle, construction and working of autoclaving.
3) Give a detailed account on principle and mechanism of capsule
staining.
1) Define stain. Describe in detail the classification of stains with example.
2) Discuss in brief principle and applications of electron microscope.
Set P
1) Discuss in detail principal, procedure and mechanism of Gram’s
staining.
2) Discuss in detail methods of maintenance and preservation of
microorganisms.
3) Describe in detail sterilization by chemical agents such as halogen and
gaseous sterilization agent.
1) Define antiseptics, germicide, sanitization and microbiostasis.
2) Describe in brief principle, procedure and mechanism of simple
staining.
1) Explain in detail principle, ray diagram and working of compound
microscope.
2) Define pure culture. Describe in detail methods of pure culture
techniques.
3) Describe in brief principle, procedure and mechanism of cell wall staining.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (Old CBCS) Examination, 2018

ENGLISH (Compulsory)
On Track – English skills for success
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative. 14

1) The first V2 missile was tested unsuccessfully in
a) May 1942 b) June 1942 c) August 1942 d) Sept. 1942
2) _________ is the common denominator among all successful men and
women, according to Dr. Abdul Kalam.
a) wealth b) fame
c) knowledge d) total commitment
3) Wernher Von Braun was _________ scientist who produced the Jupiter
missile.
a) An American b) A German c) A Russian d) A Roman
4) The first session on the parliament of religion was open on
a) 11 July 1993 b) 31 May 1993 c) 31 April 1993 d) 11 Sept. 1993
5) What is the vanishing act Palkhiwala writes about ?
a) the removal of poverty b) the disappearance of inequality
c) the removal of discrimination d) the disappearance of dissenters
6) The primary idea of human rights involves
a) rights of the government
b) rights for the government
c) rights formulated by the government
d) rights to operate against the government
7) _________ is the speakers of the poem Brahma.
a) Ralph Waldo Emerson b) Brahma
c) Slayer d) Vanished Gods
8) ________ is the colour of slayer in Brahma.
a) black b) white c) yellow d) red
P.T.O.
9) _________ is the godesses in the poem full moon.
a) moon b) mother goose
c) gethsmane d) pierced
10) She borrowed __________ Pen drive (belonging to Manas).
a) Manas’ b) Manas
c) Manases d) None of the above
11) The birds flew into _________ nests.
a) them b) these c) their d) there
12) Mother is __________ singer than me. (good)
a) good b) better c) best d) all
13) She _________ (rarely) plays the violin now.
a) rarely b) seldomly c) carefully d) forcefully
14) Write antonyms of the following.
a) acquit b) clockwise
2. Answer any seven of the following in two or three lines. 14

1) What was the motivating solgan of the American Civil War ?
2) What has caused more deaths than all the weapons of mass destruction ?
3) Who were other Indians present the parliament of religion ?
4) What is the complex than Von Braun attributed to Americans ?
5) What happened the first v2 missile when it was first test ?
6) Why was Vivekananda not prepared for the weather conditions in Chicago ?
7) What is the origin of the poem Brahma ?
8) Why is the moon a brilliant challenger of rocket experts ?
3. A) Write short note on any two of the following. 8

1) Palkhiwala’s view about human rights.
2) Parliament of religion.
3) Dr. Kalam’s attitude on work.
Set P
B) Answer any three of the following in 30 to 40 words. 6
1) What is the origin and background of the poem Brahma ?
2) Who does the speaker address at the end of the poem Brahma ?
3) Who were the watchers of the moon ? What happened to them ?
4) How was the moon’s light made holy in Gethsemane ?
4. You are the secretary of the Bharat Sport Clubin your town. The meeting of the
office bearer of the club is scheduled on 15 of the next month prepare an
agenda and minutes for the meeting. 14
OR
Write an email forwarding job application for the post of software developer
in Patel IT Solutions. 14
5. Prepare a curriculum vitae to apply for the post of software developer. 14

_______________
Set P

P
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) Examination, 2018

ENGLISH (Compulsory) (New) (CBCS)
Golden Petals
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B.: 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by using the correct options : 14
1) Letter to a Teacher exposes the class bias of the __________ system.

a) political b) cultural
c) educational d) social
2) The claims that men and women make on us are beyond
a) imagination b) enumeration
c) expectations d) evaluation
3) Jim Corbett was a colonel with the British Army during the __________
India.
a) colonial b) postcolonial
c) neocolonial d) free
4) The gymnastics teacher wanted the poor boys to play
a) cricket b) rugby c) football d) basketball
5) Social service in the modern times is __________ neighbours’ aspirations.
a) criticizing b) understanding
c) evaluating d) underestimating
6) After having hunted the man-eater, Corbett felt that he didn’t give the animal
a __________chance.
a) spiteful b) sporting c) spiriting d) spiritual
P.T.O.
7) At the break of day, the weavers wove a gay garment for a new-born
a) puppy b) monster c) baby d) pet
8) Maya Angelou was worried about the death of her
a) enemies b) critics
c) rivals d) near and dear ones
9) The moonlight chill is paralleled with __________by Sarojini Naidu.
a) birth b) death
c) regeneration d) salvation
10) When I think of death is
a) a sonnet b) a lyric
c) a free verse d) an ode
11) He was sanctioned a __________of 10 lakh rupees.
a) lone b) loan c) loun d) loen
12) We celebrate Mahatma Gandhi’s __________ Anniversary on 2nd October.
a) berth b) barth c) birth d) breath
13) She runs a __________shop.
a) stationary b) stationer
c) stationery d) stationory
14) The __________ today is quite pleasant.
a) wither b) weather c) whether d) whather
2. Answer the following bits in two to three sentences each (any seven) : 14
1) Why did the students feel that their teacher would forget them ?
2) Describe the two types of neighbours according to Ernest Barker.
3) How did Jim Corbett suppress his cough ?
4) Why did the poor children fail the gymnastics examination ?
5) What are the natural claims of our neighbours ?
6) What was the tiger doing when Corbett went near it ?
7) What were the poor boys good at ?
8) What is the meal of a fully grown tiger ?
Set P
3. A) Answer the following questions in about 50 words each (any two) : 8
1) What are the qualities of a good email ?

2) What is the format of a formal email ?
3) What is the process of writing a blog ?
B) Explain with reference to the context (any two) : 6

1) “Weavers, weaving at fall of night,
Why do you weave a garment so bright ?
Like the plumes of a peacock, purple and green,
We weave the marriage-veils of a queen”.
2) “I find it impossible to let a friend or relative
Go into that country of no return”.
3) “Weavers, weaving solemn and still,
What do you weave in the moonlight chill ? ....
White as a feather and white as a cloud,
We weave a dead man’s funeral shroud”.
4. A) What is an interview ? Write a detailed note on the objectives of interview

and the types of interview.
OR
B) Write the script of a group discussion on the topic “Corruption: A Monster”
discussed by Amit, Deepika, Saleem and Mohan. 14
5. What is the importance of Minutes ? Bring out the types of Minutes along
with its features. 14

_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2018

Chemistry
Paper – III : Organic Chemistry
(CBCS Pattern)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for the following : 14

i) The species which lack positive charge and are short of a pair of electrons
to attain stable configuration is called as
a) positive electrophiles b) neutral electrophiles
c) negative nucleophiles d) neutral nucleophiles
ii) The compound having both sp and sp2 hybridised carbon atom is
a) propane b) propene c) propadiene d) propyne
iii) The movement of single electron is shown by a __________ arrow.
a) curved b) fish hook
c) double headed d) all of these
iv) In a reaction of C6H5 – Y, the major products formed are ortho and para
isomers, so the group Y is
a) –NO2 b) –OH c) –CN d) –SO3H
v) The number of electrons in outermost valence shell of carbon having positive
charge in a carbocation are
a) 4 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
vi) The hybridization of carbon involved in ethene molecule is
a) sp3 b) sp2 c) sp d) sp3– s
vii) ___________ reaction is useful for the preparation of alkanes containing
both even as well as odd number of carbon atoms.
a) Wurtz b) Kolbe c) corey-House d) Grignard
P.T.O.
viii) The optically active compound from the following is
a) 1-Bromobutane b) 2-Butene
c) 2-Bromobutane d) Butanoic acid
ix) Anti-Markovnikoff’s addition of HBr is not observed in
a) 1-butene b) 2-pentene c) 2-butene d) propene
x) Pentalene and Azulene are examples of __________ compounds.
a) aromatic b) non-aromatic
c) anti-aromatic d) pseudo-aromatic
xi) Dienes are isomeric with
a) alkanes b) alkenes c) alkynes d) cycloalkanes
xii) In sulphonation of benzene, the electrophile is
a) HSO3– b) SO3 c) SO2 d) H2SO4
xiii) Diel’s-Alder reaction is also known as ___________ cycloaddition
reaction.
a) [1+2] b) [2+2] c) [3+2] d) [4+2]
xiv) The nature of pyridine is
a) basic b) acidic c) amphoteric d) neutral
2. Solve any seven of the following : 14

i) Arrange the following in the order of increasing stability.
a) Ph – CH2+ CH3 – CH2+ (CH3)2CH+ (CH3)3C+ CH3+
b) Ph – CH2. CH3 – CH2. (CH3)2CH. (CH3)3C. CH3.
ii) Define the terms :
a) Substrate
b) Intermediate.
iii) “A sigma bond is stronger than a π-bond” explain, why ?
iv) Draw the orbital diagram of ethylene molecule and indicate :
a) the type of hybridization involved and
b) number of σ and π-bond in it.
v) Define Wurtz reaction. Give any one reaction for the preparation of
alkane.
vi) What is the action of the following on 1-butene ?
a) HOCl b) H2O/H+.
Set P
vii) Give IUPAC names for the following :
a)

b) H3C – CH = C = CH – CH3
viii) Define the terms :
a) Enantiomers
b) Distereoisomers.
ix) What are the conditions for aromaticity ?
3. A) Attempt any two of the following : 10
i) Explain the mechanism involved in halogenations of benzene.
ii) Discuss the optical isomerism exhibited by Lactic acid.
iii) What is Markovnikoff’s rule ? Complete the following reaction using this
rule.
a) CH3 – CH = CH2 + HBr ?
b) CH3 – C = CH2 + HCl ?
|
CH3
c) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 + HOBr ?
d) CH3 – CH = CH2 + H2SO4
B) What is Corey-House reaction ? How will you prepare n-nonane from n-octyl
iodide and methyl bromide ? 4
4. Attempt any two of the following : 14

i) Predict the products for the following :
a)
b)
Set P
c)
d) nH2C = CH – CH = CH2
e) H2C = CH – CH = CH2 + H2
f) HC CH + HCN
g) HC CH + C2H5OH
ii) What is hybridization ? Explain formation of acetylene molecule on the
basis of sp hybridization.
iii) What are carbanions ? Explain the formation and stability of carbanions.
Give any two reactions of carbanions.

i) What are cycloalkanes ? Give one method for the preparation of
cyclopropane. What happens when cyclopropane is treated with
a) Cl2 in presence of light
b) HBr
c) Con.H2SO4
d) H2/Ni, 80°C ?
ii) What is optical activity ? Give the conditions for optical activity. Discuss in
detail the optical isomerism of Tartaric acid.
iii) Discuss the mechanism involved in
a) Friedel-crafts alkylation
b) Nitration of benzene.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

CHEMISTRY (Paper – IV)
Analytical Chemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
ii) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
iii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Select most correct alternative from among those given below and rewrite
the sentences : 14
1) The unit of surface tension is _______________
a) dyne cm b) dyne cm–1 c) dyne–1 cm d) dyne–1 cm–1
2) Molar refractivity is ____________ property.
a) additive b) colligative
c) constitutive d) additive and constitutive
3) Small droplets are ______________ in shape is due to minimum surface
area.
a) triangular b) square c) hexagonal d) spherical
4) Dipole moment = electrical charge × __________________
a) length b) distance c) height d) area
5) In combustion method, organic compound is heated with _____________
a) CuO b) FeSO4 c) Na d) CuSO4
6) __________ pollution is caused by the presence of bacteria, viruses,
protozoa, parasites and plant toxins.
a) Chemical b) Physical c) Biological d) Physiological
7) Soil pollution is due to _________
a) industrial waste b) domestic waste
c) radioactive waste d) all of these
P.T.O.
8) Biological oxygen demand is expressed in _____________
a) ppm b) gms/lit c) mg/lit d) both a) and c)
9) ____________ process removes all ions from water.
a) Zeolite b) Lime soda c) Soda ash d) Ion-exchange
10) The process of breaking down the higher hydrocarbon to more volatile lower
hydrocarbon is called ___________
a) Cracking b) Knocking
c) Hydro forming d) All of these
11) ___________ represents molecular formula of sodium nitroprusside.
a) Na4 [Fe(CN)5No] b) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
c) Na2[Fe(CN)5] d) Na2[Fe(NO2)2]
12) Octane number of fuel is 60% indicates ________
a) 40% iso-octane b) 60% iso-octane
c) 100% iso-octane d) 60% n-heptane
13) A dibasic acid having equivalent weight 63, then its molecular weight is
_______
a) 63 b) 6.3 c) 2 d) 126
14) ___________________ is used for preparation of synthetic rubber.
a) ethylene oxide b) styrene
c) 2-phenyl ethanol d) paracetamol
2. Answer any seven of the following : 14

i) Explain additive property with example.
ii) Define coefficient of viscosity.
iii) Give the Macleod equation and significance of terms in it.
iv) Define the term pollution and COD.
v) Name the resources of water.
vi) What is hard and soft water ?
vii) Draw neat labelled diagram of estimation of nitrogen by Kjeldahl’s method.
viii) Explain the term knocking.
ix) Give any one method for the preparation of ethylene oxide and write its uses.
Set P
i) Discuss critical angle principle.
ii) What is potable water ? Explain removal of suspended matter by :
a) Screening
b) Coagulation method.
iii) Write note on refining of petroleum.
B) Give any two advantages and disadvantages of ion-exchange method. 4

i) Discuss application of dipole moment for determination of molecular
structures.
ii) What is green house effect ? What are the sources and health effect of
oxides of carbon.
iii) Explain Carius method for determination of sulphur in organic
compound.

i) Define viscosity and explain the method for its determination.
ii) Discuss the types of water pollutants.
iii) An aromatic hydrocarbon contains 92.3% carbon and 7.7% hydrogen. If
molecular weight of compound is 78. Find its molecular formula.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
physics (Paper – III)
Heat and Thermodynamics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

4) Use of log tables and calculator is allowed.

i) At given temperature, the coefficient of viscosity of gas
a) decreases with decrease of pressure
b) increases with increase of pressure
c) is independent of pressure
d) is equal to pressure
ii) Linde’s air liquefier uses the process of
a) Regenerative cooling
b) Cooling by adiabatic demagnetization
c) Creeping films
d) Fountain effect
iii) Coefficient of thermal conductivity depends on temperature as
a) k ∝ T b) k ∝ T
2 1
c) k ∝ T d) k ∝
T
iv) For measurement of final temperature after adiabatic demagnetization of
paramagnetic salt __________________ is measured.
a) Magnetisation b) Susceptibility
c) Change in volume d) Permeability
P.T.O.
v) The mean free path of gas molecule is inversely proportional to
a) Square of the diameter of molecule
b) Square root of the diameter of molecule
c) Molecular diameter
d) Fourth power of molecular diameter
vi) The liquid helium possesses the property of
a) Plasticity b) Internal friction
c) Superfluidity d) Elasticity
vii) All natural processes are
a) Reversible b) Irreversible
c) Isothermal d) Isobaric
viii) The adiabatic relation between temperature and volume is
a) TVg = constant b) TVg +1 = constant
c) TVg –1 = constant d) TV1–g = constant
ix) Refrigeration cycle operates in reverse way as that of
a) Otto cycle b) Diesel cycle
c) Air conditioning cycle d) Carnot’s cycle
x) In an isothermal process ____________ remains constant.
a) Temperature b) Pressure
c) Temperature and volume d) None of these
xi) A device which converts heat into mechanical work is called
a) Heat engine b) Refrigerator
c) Thermostat d) Cycle
xii) The efficiency of Carnot’s engine working between steam point and ice
point
a) 0.26% b) 0.026% c) 26.81% d) 2.681%
xiii) The adiabatic compression ratio in Otto engine is
a) Less than 10 b) More than 10
c) Equal to zero d) In the range 15-20
xiv) The coefficient of performance of refrigerator which absorbs heat at 270° K
and rejects heat at 300° K
a) 0.09 b) 0.009 c) 9 d) 90
Set P

i) Define free path and mean free path.
ii) State the properties of liquid helium.
iii) What is magnetocaloric effect ?
iv) Write isothermal process with two examples.
v) Give comparison between Otto engine and Diesel engine.
vi) What is air conditioning ? State the factors affecting to comfort due to air
conditioning.
vii) State the four operations (strokes) in Otto cycle.
viii) Calculate the molecular diameter of nitrogen gas molecule having mean free
path 800 Å at N.T.P. and molecular density is 2.7 × 1025 molecules/m3.

i) Define adiabatic process. Obtain adiabatic relation between pressure
and volume.
ii) Explain experimental method of adiabatic demagnetisation.
iii) The refrigerator has coefficient of performance 3.2. It absorbs heat from
cold region at 250° K. Find the temperature of hot reservior to which the
heat is rejected.
B) Derive mean free path by Claussius method. 4

i) Describe the working of vapour compressor refrigerator.
ii) Derive an expression for fall in temperature due to adiabatic demagnetisation
of paramagnetic salt.
iii) A Carnot’s engine, whose low temperature reservoir is at 7° C, has an
efficiency of 50%. It is desired to increase the efficiency to 70%. Calculate
how many degrees of temperature of high temperature reservoir should be
increased ?

i) Explain construction and working of diesel engine with P-V diagram and
obtain an expression for its efficiency.
Calculate the work done when a k mole of prefect gas expands isothermally
at 27° C to double its original value. [R = 8.3 J/K. mole° K]
ii) Derive expression for coefficient of viscosity on the basis of transport
phenomena.
Calculate the coefficient of viscosity of gas having average velocity of 900 m/s.
(Density of gas = 1.5 kg/m3 and mean free path = 8 × 10–6 m)
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
Physics (Paper – IV)
Electricity, Magnetism and Basic Electronics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

iii) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
iv) Use of log tables and scientific calculators is allowed.

i) With increase in frequency of alternating current inductive reactance _______
a) increases
b) decreases
c) first decreases and then decreases
d) remains constant
ii) In case of series LCR circuit, the value of resonant frequency is
independent of value of _______ used in the circuit.
a) inductor b) resistance
c) capacitor d) resistance and inductor
iii) The susceptance is the reciprocal of the _______
a) impedance b) admittance c) reactance d) inductance
iv) Multiplication of a vector by the operator j rotates the vector through
_______ in anticlockwise direction.
a) 45° b) 180°
c) 90° d) 120°
v) The time constant (t) of RC circuit is _______
C
a) RC2 b)
R
R
c) d) RC
C
P.T.O.
vi) In a Ballistic Galvanometer the function of iron core is to _______

a) increase the magnetic induction
b) decrease the magnetic induction
c) keep magnetic induction constant
d) decrease current through the galvanometer
vii) Current sensitivity of B.G. is 4 � 106 mm/mA. Its figure of merit is _________
a) 400 � 106 mA/mm b) 25 � 10–6 mA/mm
c) 2.5 � 10–7 mA/mm d) 2.5 � 10–6 mA/mm
viii) In ballistic galvanometer the coil is suspended in _________ magnetic field.
a) radial b) non-uniform c) uniform d) varying
ix) The _________ circuit removes positive half cycle from input voltage.
a) positive clamper b) positive clipper
c) negative clipper d) negative clamper
x) Ripple factor of bridge rectifier is _________
a) 0.884 b) 0.848 c) 1.21 d) 0.484
xi) A reverse biased p-n junction has _________ resistance.
a) low b) high c) zero d) negligible
xii) Transistor as an amplifier is always operated in _________ region.
a) cut off b) active c) saturation d) forward
xiii) The currents amplification factor in a common base configuration (a) is
the ratio _________
∆IE ∆IC ∆I ∆I
a) b) c) C d) B
∆IB ∆IB ∆IE ∆IC
xiv) If b of a transistor is 99, then its a is __________
a) 0.99 b) 0.98 c) 0.099 d) 9.9

i) Define self inductance of a coil.
ii) Define reactance and impedance in A.C. circuit
iii) Define varying current.
iv) What is electromagnetic damping ?
v) Define voltage regulation in bridge rectifier.
Set P
vi) Draw a neat labeled circuit diagram of positive clamper circuit.

vii) Draw circuit symbol of npn and pnp transistor.
viii) In CE amplifier, IB = 20 mA. Find IE if b = 100.

i) Explain the working zener diode as a voltage regulator.
ii) Explain the working of transistor as an amplifier in CE mode.
iii) In a series LCR circuit consists of L = 5H, C = 80 mF and R = 40 ohm.
Find values of :
a) resonant frequency
b) quality factor
c) bandwidth.
B) Write a note on Pi-filter. 4

i) Explain the sharpness of resonance in LCR series circuit.
ii) Explain the working of positive and negative clipper circuit.
iii) Describe in detail transistor characteristics in common emitter mode.
5. Attempt any one of the following : 14

i) Derive the expression for growth of current in LR circuit. A circuit
consisting of resistance of 50 ohm in series with an inductance of 5 H is
suddenly switched on to d.c. source of 100 V. Calculate the current after
0.5 seconds.
ii) Obtain the expression for magnetic induction at a point on the axis of
current carrying coil of single turn.
Calculate magnetic induction along the axis of a infinitely long solenoid
having 103 turns per meter when the current of 2 A passing through a
solenoid.
_____________

Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

(CBCS Pattern)
Statistics (Paper – III)
Descriptive Statistics – II
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1
) All questions are compulsory.
1. Choose the correct alternative. 14
i) The formula for covariance between the variables (X-a) and (Y-b) based
on n paired values, when a and b are constants is
a) ab COV(X,Y) b) – ab COV (X,Y)
c) COV (X,Y) d) none of these
ii) The points of a scatter diagram are on a vertical line, the coefficient of
correlation is
a) 0 b) –1 c) +1 d) none of these
iii) The correlation coefficient ________
a) Is an absolute measure
b) Is a relative measure
c) Is both absolute and relative measure
d) None of these
iv) If r = ±1, then two regression lines are
a) coincident b) parallel
c) perpendicular to each other d) none of these
v) The correlation coefficient is
a) Product of regression coefficient b) Mean of regression coefficients
c) G.M. of regression coefficient d) None of these
P.T.O.
vi) If the coefficient of correlation (r) is zero, then the lines of regression are
a) Perpendicular to each other b) Parallel to each other
c) Equal d) None of these
vii) In a regression line of Y on X, the variable X is known as
a) Independent variable b) Dependent variable
c) Both a and b d) None of these
viii) Attribute is
a) a qualitative characteristics b) a measurable characteristics
c) a quantitative characteristics d) none of these
ix) Attributes A and B are completely disassociated then coefficient of
association Q is equal to
a) +1 b) –1 c) 0 d) none of these
x) The total number of classes of attributes of all orders is
a) 2n b) 3n c) 3n+1 d) none of these
xi) The attributes A and B are independent, the coefficient of association (Q)
is
a) Q = 0 b) Q < 1 c) Q > 1 d) Q = 1
xii) The index number for base year is always taken as
a) 100 b) 1000 c) 10000 d) None of these
xiii) We need to change the base year of index number if
a) It is abnormal year b) New commodities are introduced
c) It is too old or too distant d) Old commodities are out of use
xiv) The weights used in Paasche’s formula belongs to
a) The base period b) Arbitrary chosen period
c) The given period d) None of these

i) Define positive correlation and negative correlation.
ii) Prove that Corr(X,X) = 1.
iii) Define Covariance between X and Y.
iv) State any two properties of regression coefficient.
Set P
v) The regression equations are X – 4Y – 5 = 0 & X – 16Y – 64 = 0.
Find corr (X, Y).
vi) Define fundamental set of frequency.
vii) Given (AB) = 15, (Aβ) = 5, (αB) = 23 and (αβ) = 42, find the coefficient of
association for two attributes A and B.
viii) Define Paasche’s price index number.
ix) Define Fisher’s quantity index number.
3. A) Write short note on any two of the following : 10

i) State important uses of index number.
ii) Write short note on scatter diagram.
iii) For consistent data, with usual notations show that (ABC) ≥(A) + (B) +
(C) – N.
b) Given If σx = σy and r = 2 –1. Obtain the acute angle between two regression
lines. 4

i) With usual notation, prove that
6 Σdi2
R = 1−
n3 − n
ii) What is time reversal test of consistency ? Verify the same for Laspeyre’s
index number.
iii) Derive the equations of lines of regression of Y on X by the method of
least square.

i) Obtain the expression for the acute angle θ between the two regression
π
lines. Interpret the results θ = 0, θ = 2 .
ii) Derive the conditions of consistency in case of three attributes A, B and C.
iii) What are index numbers ? How are they constructed ? What are their uses ?

___________

Set P
Seat
No. Set P
statistics (paper – IV) (CBCS Pattern)
Probability and Probability Distributions – II
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


i) For the following probability distribution
X : –1 0 1
1 1 1
P(x) :
3 3 3
Mean of X =
a) –1 b) 0 c) 1 d) 2
ii) The first central moment is always
a) Zero b) One c) Negative d) Positive
iii) Variance of Constant is
a) Zero b) One
c) Constant itself d) None of these
iv) For discrete r. v. X, the property that E(aX) = aE(X) holds when a is
a) positive only b) non-zero only
c) non-negative only d) any constant
v) For the following probability distribution :
X : 0 1 2 3
1 1 1 1
P(x) :
4 4 4 4
Then V(20) =
15
a) 20 b) c) 0 d) 2.5
12
P.T.O.
 1
vi) If X is a discrete r. v. with p.m.f. p(x) then E   is given by
 X
x p(x ) 1
a) ∑ b) ∑ c) d) ∑ xp(x )
p(x ) x ∑ xp(x )
2
 X − E(X) 
vii) If E   = 1 then h must be
 h 
a) mean b) median
c) mode d) variance
viii) Let X be a random variable and Y = aX + b, where a and b are constant,
then E(X) = E(Y) if
a) a = 0, b = 1 b) a = 1, b = 1
c) a = 1, b = 0 d) b = 0
ix) If X and Y are independent r. v. s. then
a) E(X + Y) = E(X) + E(Y) b) E(X.Y) = E(X) . E(Y)
c) P(x, y) = P(x) . P(y) d) All of these
x) The variance of one point distribution is
a) One b) Zero
c) Constant k d) None of these
xi) The mean of binomial distribution is
a) p b) n c) np d) nq
xii) Suppose a box contain 4 white and 6 black balls. Three balls are drawn
randomly without replacement. A r. v. X is defined as number of white balls
obtained. Then probability distribution of r. v. X is identical to ________
distribution.
a) Bernoulli b) Binomial
c) Hypergeometric d) None of these
xiii) The probability generating function of Bernoulli distribution is
a) (s + pq) b) (p + qs)
c) (p + s + q) d) (q + ps)
xiv) For hypergeometric distribution number of parameters are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Set P

i) Define expectation of a discrete random variable.
ii) Define raw moments.
iii) Suppose a r. v. X takes values 1, 2, 3 with P(X = 2) 0.2 and E(X) = 2, then
find P(X = 1).
iv) In usual notation if µ1′ = 3, µ2′ = 15 find V(X + 10).
v) Define correlation coefficient in bivariate probability distribution.
vi) If X and Y are two discrete r. v. s. and a and b are any constants, then in
usual notations state the expression for
a) E(aX + bY) b) V(aX + bY)
vii) Define one point distribution.
viii) Define Bernoulli random variable.
ix) Define two point distribution.
3. A) Write short note on any two of the following : 10

i) What is the effect of change of origin and scale on probability generating
function ?
ii) If X ~ B(n, p) with E(X) = 16, V(X) = 8 find
a) P(X = 0) b) P(X = 1)
iii) The joint pmf of r. v. (X, Y) is
1
P(x, y) = x = 1, 2 ; y = 1, 2
4
= 0 otherwise
Discuss the independence of X and Y.
B) Prove that V(aX + b) = a2V(X), find V(2x). 4
Set P
i) The joint p.m.f. of (X, Y) is given by :
Y 1 2 3 4
X
1 1 1 1
0
24 12 12 24
1 1 1 1
1
12 6 6 12
1 1 1 1
2
24 12 12 24
Find i) Marginal probability distribution of X.
ii) E(X)
iii) E(Y/X = 1)
ii) Find p.g.f. of binomial distribution. Hence find its mean and variance.
iii) Derive and identify the distribution of sum of independent and identically
distributed ‘n’ Bernoulli random variables.
i) The joint probability distribution of r. v. (X, Y) is
X 0 1 2
Y
1 2
0 0
9 9
2 1
1 0
9 9
1 2
2 0
9 9
Find E(X/Y = 2)
ii) Define :
a) A two dimensional discrete r. v.
b) Marginal probability distribution of X and
c) Conditional probability distribution of Y given X = x.
iii) Find mean and variance of Hypergeometric distribution.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

mathematics (Paper – III)
Geometry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative for each of the following. 14

1) The polar form of cartesian equation x2 + y2 = 2ax is
a) r = 3a cos θ b) r = 2a cos θ
c) r = a sin θ d) r = a cos θ
2) r = 4 sin θ is the polar equation of the curve then its cartesian equation is
a) x2 + y2 – 4y = 0 b) x2 + y2 – 4x = 0
c) x2 + y2 = 4 d) x2 + y2 – xy = 0
3) The equation of x2 + xy + y2 + x + y – 1 = 0 represents
a) parabola b) circle
c) an ellipse d) hyperbola
4) The general second degree equation represent parabola if and only if
a) ∆ = 0, h2 – ab = 0 b) ∆ ≠ 0, h2 – ab < 0
c) ∆ ≠ 0, h2 – ab > 0 d) ∆ ≠ 0, h2 – ab = 0
5) ( 3 , 1) are cartesian co-ordinates whose polar co-ordinates are
a) (3, 30°) b) (2, 30°) c) (2, 45°) d) (3, 45°)
6) The tangent plane to the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 14 at the point (1, 2, 3) is
a) x + 2y + 3z = 14 b) x – 2y – 3z = 14
c) 2x + y + 3z = 14 d) x + y + z = 14
7) The radius of sphere x2 + y2 + z2 + 2x – 4y – 6z + 5 = 0 is
a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 2
P.T.O.
8) The centre of sphere x2 + y2 + z2 – 4x + 2y – 2z – 10 = 0 is
a) (2, –1, 1) b) (–2, 1, –1)
c) (2, 1, –1) d) (–2, –1, –1)
9) Intersection of two sphere is
a) Plane b) Sphere
c) Circle d) Straight line
10) Angle between the planes 2x – y + z = 6 and x + y + 2z = 7 is
π π π
a) b) c) d) π
3 2 4
11) The equation of the plane through P(0, 1, 2) and parallel to the plane
2x – 3y + 4z = 0 is
a) 2x + 3y + 4z – 11 = 0 b) 2x – 3y + 4z + 11 = 0
c) 2x – 3y + 4z = 0 d) x – 3y + 4z + 11 = 0
12) The direction cosine of the normal to the plane 2x – 3y + 6z = 7 is
2 3 6
a)  , − ,  b) (2, –3, 6)
7 7 7 
 2 3 6
c)  1, − 3 , 3  d)  − , − , − 
 2   7 7 7
13) Equation of sphere having centre at origin and radius r is
a) x2 + y2 + z2 = r
b) x2 + y2 + z2 = r2
c) x2 – y2 – z2 = r2
d) x2 + y2 + z2 + 2ux + 2vy + 2wz + d = 0
14) The distance between the parallel planes 2x – 2y + z + 1 = 0 and
4x – 4y + 2z + 3 = 0 is
1 1 1
a) b) c) d) 0
6 2 3
2. Attempt any seven from the following. 14
1) Transform the equation 2x2 + 4xy + 5y2 – 4x – 22y + 7 = 0 to parallel axes
through the point (–2, 3).
2) Find the polar co-ordinates of the points whose cartesian co-ordinates given
as A (2, –2). Set P
3) Identify the conic given by the equation x2 + 2xy + y2 – 2x – 1 = 0.
4) Find the angle between the planes 2x + 3y + 6z + 10 = 0 and x – 2y + 2z + 5 = 0.
5) Show that the points (5, 4, 2), (6, 2, –1) and (8, –2, 7) are colinear.
6) Find the intercepts made by the plane 2x – 3y + 4z = 12 on the co-ordinates

axes.
7) Find the centre and radius of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 – x – 3y + 2z – 10 = 0.
8) Obtain the equation of sphere described on the join of A(2, –3, 1) and
B(3, –1, 2) as diameter.
9) Find the equation of the sphere whose centre at (3, 2, 1) and radius 4.
1) If by rotation of axes, the expression ax + by becomes a1x1 + b1y1 then

prove that a2 + b2 is invariant.
2) Obtain the equation of the plane through the point (–1, 3, 2) and
perpendicular to the two planes x + 2y + 2z = 5 and 3x + 3y + 2z = 8.
3) Find the equation of the sphere through the circle x2 + y2 + z2 + 2x + 3y + 6 = 0,

x – 2y + 4z = 9 and the centre of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 – 2x + 4y – 6z + 5 = 0.
B) Transform the equation 4x2 – 2 3 xy + 2y2 – 1 = 0 when axes are rotated
through an angle 60°. 4

1) Show that plane Ax + By + Cz = D touches the sphere
x2 + y2 + z2 + 2ux + 2vy + 2wz + d = 0 if and only if
(Au + Bv + Cw + D)2 = (A2 + B2 + C2) (u2 + v2 + w2 – d) hence show that the
plane 2x – 2y + z + 12 = 0 touches the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 – 2x – 4y + 2z = 3.
2) Find the normal form of the equation of plane.
3) Find the angle through which the rectangular axes be rotated so that the
equation 3x2 + 2xy + 3y2 – 18x – 22y + 50 = 0 will not contain product term
xy.
Set P
1) Find the equation of the plane passing through three points
P (2, 2, –1), Q (3, 4, 2), R (7, 0, 6).
2) If by rotation of axes, the expression ax2 + 2hxy + by2 becomes
a′x´2 + 2h′x′y′ + b′y′2 then show that a + b and ab – h2 are invariant.
3) Show that the equation of tangent plane to the sphere
x2 + y2 + z2 + 2ux + 2vy + 2wz + d = 0 at a point P (x1, y1, z1) is

xx1 + yy1 + zz1 + u (x + x1) + v (y + y1) + w (z + z1) + d = 0 and hence find
the equation of tangent plane to the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 – x + 2y + 3z = 8
at (1, 2, –3).

_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
Mathematics (Paper – IV)
Differential Equation
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

 y
1) The equation  y + x sin  dx − xdy = 0 , is ____________ type.
 x
a) Homogeneous b) Non-homogeneous
c) Variable separable d) Linear
dy 1
2) The differential equation = is _________ type.
dx 1 + x + y + xy
a) Homogeneous b) Non-homogeneous
c) Variable separable d) Exact
3) The solution tanx dx + coty dy = 0, is
a) secx.cosy = c b) secx.siny = c c) cosx.siny = c d) cosx.cosy = c
4) The number of independent variable is an ordinary differential equation
should be
a) 0 b) more than one c) 1 d) none of these
5) The equation Mdx + Ndy = 0 is homogeneous and Mx + Ny ≠ 0 then I.F.=
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) Mx − Ny d) Mx + Ny
My + Nx My − Nx
6) One of the integrating factor of the differential equation
(x – y) (dx + dy) = dx – dy is
1 1 1 x
a) b) c) d)
xy x+y x−y y
(
7) The I.F. of the equation 1 + x 2 ) dy
dx
+ 2xy =
1
1+ x2
is . . .
2
1
a) x2 b) ex c) d) 1 + x2
1+ x2 P.T.O.
dy
8) The differential equation of the form + p(x)y = q(x)yn is called
dx
a) Euler’s equation b) Linear equation
c) Bernoulli’s equation d) Clairaut’s equation
d4 y
9) The general solution of the differential equation − 81y = 0 is
dx 4
a) c1e3x + c2e–3x + ex (c3 cos3x + c4 sin3x)
b) (c1+ c2x)e3x + c3 cos3x + c4 sin3x
c) c1e3x + c2e–3x + c3 cos3x + c4 sin3x
d) None of these
1
10) P.I. = X=
D−a
− ax − ax
a) e ∫ e X dx b) e − ax ∫ eax X d) ∫ e X dx
ax
c) ∫ eax X dx
11) The general solution of D2 (D – 2) y = 0 is
a) y = c1 + c2 e2x b) y = (c1 + c2 x) e2x + c3x2
c) y = c1 + c2x + c3e2x d) y = c1 + c2 x + c3e–2x
1
12) The value of 2 e − x is
D + 3D + 2
1 1 −x
a) xex b) xe c) xe–x d) None of these
2 2
13) The P.I. of (D2 – 4)y = sin 4x is
x sin 4x x
a) sin 4x b) − sin 4x c) − d) − sin 4x
20 8 20 8
1 5 2
14) The P.I. of (x + x + 1) is
D3 + 8

1 5
( 2
a) 8 x + x + 1 ) b)
1 5
8
2
 x + x + 1 +
15 2 
x 
8 
1 5 15 3  1 5 2 15 2 
 x + x + 1 −
2 x 
c)  x + x + 1 − x  d)
2 
8 8  8
2. Attempt any seven of the following : 14
1) Solve the differential equation 3ex tany dx + (1 – ex) sec2y dy = 0.
 dy   dy 
2) Solve  y − x  = a  y 2 +  .
 dx   dx 
Set P
3) Solve (x2 – 4xy – 2y2) dx + (y2 – 4xy – 2x2) dy = 0.
4) Solve the integrating factor of equation ydx – xdy = 0.
5) Solve the integrating factor of x2ydx – (x3 + y3) dy = 0.
1
6) Show that X = eax ∫ e − ax x dx .
D−a
d2 y dy
7) Solve 2
− 3 + 2y = e3x .
dx dx
8) Find the P.I the differential equation (D3 – 3D + 2)y = x.
1
9) Find, P. I = 2
e2x sin 2x .
(D − 1)
dy
= (4x + 3y − 1) .
2
1) Solve
dx
2) Prove that the necessary and sufficient condition that Mdx + Ndy = 0 to
∂M ∂N
be exact is = .
∂y ∂x
dy (2x + 3y + 1)
3) Solve =− .
dx (3x + 4y − 1)
B) Show that (D – α) (D – β) y = (D – β) (D –α)y. 4

dy
1) Explain the methods of solving the linear differential equation + Py = Q ,
where P and Q are functions of x and find its solution. dx
2) Obtain the particular integral of f(D)y = cos ax, f(a2) ≠ 0 and if
f(D2) = (D2 + a2) φ (D2) where φ (–a2) ≠ 0.
1 ax
3) Obtain particular integral P.I. = e , f(a) ≠ 0 and f(a) = 0.
f(D)
1) Explain the method of solving a non-homogeneous differential equation
dy a x + b1y + c1
= 1
dx a 2 x + b2 y + c 2 .
2) Solve (D3 – 3D2 + 4D – 2)y = ex + cosx.
3) Explain how to solve the differential equation
dny dn −1y dn − 2 y
+ P1 n −1 + P2 n − 2 + ... + Pny = X, where P1, P2, ...Pn are constant and
dxn dx dx
X is functions of x or constant.
______________ Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
electronics (paper – III)
Semiconductor Devices
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
4) Use of calculator and log table is allowed.
1. Choose correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentence. 14
i) When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance ___________
c) remains same d) may increase or decrease
ii) A zener diode is used as ___________
a) an amplifier b) an oscillator
c) a voltage regulator d) a rectifier
iii) In an N-Channel JFET, the charge carriers are __________
a) electrons b) holes
c) both electrons and holes d) ions
iv) A triac can be triggered into conduction by applying __________ pulse at
the gate.
a) only positive voltage b) only negative voltage
c) positive or negative voltage d) none of these
v) A silicon controlled rectifier consists of ____________ semiconductor layers.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
vi) At OK temperature intrinsic semiconductor behaves as __________
a) a conductor b) an insulator
c) a p-type semiconductor d) an N type semiconductor
vii) A pentavalent impurity has __________ valence electrons.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
P.T.O.
viii) In transistor symbol, the direction of arrowhead on emitter shows _________
a) conventional emitter current
b) electron movement in emitter
c) reverse bias current
d) none of these
ix) Which of the following acts like a diode and two resistors ?
a) SCR b) UJT c) BJT d) FET
x) A tunnel diode is _____________
a) a very heavily-doped PN junction diode
b) a high resistivity PN junction diode
c) a slow switching device
d) used with reverse bias
xi) If a 2V change in drain voltage produces a change of 0.02 mA in drain
current then ac drain resistance is _________
a) 100Ω b) 1 kΩ c) 10 kΩ d) 100 kΩ
xii) The varactor is usually ______________
a) forward biased b) reverse biased
c) unbiased d) in the breakdown region
xiii) A semiconductor is formed by ___________ bonds.
a) covalent b) electrovalent c) co-ordinate d) none of these
xiv) The emitter of a transistor is ______________ doped.
a) lightly b) heavily c) moderately d) none of these

i) Draw symbols of zener diode and photodiode with labels.
ii) State any four applications of UJT.
iii) Calculate the value of transconductance (gm) of a JFET, if µ = 80 and
rα = 400 kΩ.
iv) In a transistor circuit IE = 1 mA, IC = 0.94 mA. What is the value of IB ?

v) Name any two acceptor and any two donar impurity materials for doping of
a semiconductor.
vi) Why MOSFET is also called as an insulated gate FET ?
Set P
vii) Define intrinsic standoff ratio of UJT.
viii) Define α. Show that it is always less than unity.
ix) Write diode current-voltage equation and define volt equivalent of
temperature (VT).

i) Explain static and dynamic resistance of PN junction diode.
ii) Explain intrinsic semiconductor.
iii) Write a short note on photodiode.
B) Define α and β of a transistor ? Derive the relation between them. 4

i) Explain the formation PN junction and barrier potential in it.
ii) Explain construction and working of tunnel diode.
iii) Explain I-V characteristics of DMOSFET.

i) Explain construction and working of DIAC.
ii) Explain input and output characteristics of a transistor in CE configuration.
iii) Explain construction and operation with equivalent circuit of UJT.
___________________
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Seat
No.
Set P

Electronics
Digital Electronics (Paper – IV)
Day and Date : Saturday, 1-12-2018 Total Marks : 70
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1
) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks
3) Use of calculator is permissible.
4) Draw neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternative for the following. 14
i) TTL has ____________ input transistor.
a) Normal b) Multi collector
c) Multi base d) Multi emitter
ii) Fan out of TTL is _____
a) 1 b) 10 c) 100 d) 1000
iii) IC 7400 is used as TTL _______ gate.
a) AND b) OR c) NAND d) NOR
iv) IC 7447 is
a) Encoder b) Decoder c) Multiplexer d) counter
v) ___________ number of control lines used in 4 : 1 multiplexer.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
vi) 3 : 8 decoder has ________ number of input lines.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
vii) D flip-flop is constructed by using __________ flip-flop.
a) RS b) JK c) M/S JK d) None of these
viii) ____________ flip-flop is used to avoid race around condition.
a) RS b) JK c) M/S JK d) None of these
P.T.O.
ix) IC 7490 is
a) Decade counter b) Mod 2 counter
c) Mod 5 counter d) All of these
x) Mod 5 counter requires minimum ________ flip flops.
a) Five b) Three c) Two d) One
xi) 4 bit Shift Register requires ___________ number of Flip Flops.
xii) In Johnson counter ____________ is connected back to input.
a) output b) complement of output
c) mode d) clock
xiii) SISO shift register means ______
a) Standard In Serial Out b) Standard In Standard Out
c) Serial In Standard Out d) Serial In Serial Out
xiv) If clock frequency input is 300 Hz for divide by two counter then output
frequency will be __________ Hz.
a) 150 b) 300 c) 450 d) 600
i) What is current sourcing ?
ii) What is meant by MUX and DEMUX ?
iii) What is noise margin in TTL ?
iv) Give the truth table of M/S JK flip-flops.
v) What is ring counter ?
vi) Draw the timing diagram of divide by two counter.
vii) Explain propagation delay in TTL.
viii) Draw the logic diagram of decimal to BCD encoder.
ix) Write the truth table of RS Flip Flop using NOR gate.

i) Explain 1 : 8 demultiplexer.
ii) Explain 3 bit Serial-In-Parallel-Out shift register.
iii) Draw timing diagram of decade counter.
b) Explain T flip-flop in detail. 4
Set P
i) Explain BCD to Decimal decoder with suitable logic diagram.
ii) Explain Left shift register using IC 7495.
iii) Explain JK Flip Flop with suitable logic diagram.

i) Explain working of BCD to seven-segment decoder with suitable logic
diagram.
ii) Draw the circuit diagram of TTL NAND gate and explain in brief.
iii) Explain edge triggered D Flip Flop with logic and timing diagrams.
___________

Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

computer science (Paper – III)
Introduction to Web Designing
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right place indicate full marks.
1. A) Choose correct alternatives : 14

1) The common element which describes the web page, is
a) heading b) paragraph
c) list d) all of these
2) HTML stands for
a) Hyper Text Markup Language
b) High Text Markup Language
c) Hyper Tabular Markup Language
d) None of these
3) HTML5 document may contains a _________ element, which is used to
set the header section of a document.
a) header b) footer
c) section d) none of the mentioned
4) HTML tag to left align the content inside a table cell is
a) <td left> b) <td raligh = “left”>
c) <td align = “left”> d) <td leftalign>
5) Which of the following tag is used to mark a beginning of paragraph ?
a) <TD> b) <BR>
c) <P> d) <TR>
6) JavaScript is a __________ language.
a) Object-Oriented b) High-level
c) Assembly-language d) Object-Based
P.T.O.
7) All modern browsers support JavaScript
a) True b) False
8) ___________ tag is an extension to HTML that can enclose any number
of JavaScript statements.
a) <SCRIPT> b) <BODY>
c) <HEAD> d) <TITLE>
9) How can you make a bulleted list with numbers ?
a) <dl> b) <ol>
c) <list> d) <ul>
10) What is the correct JavaScript syntax to write “Hello World” ?
a) System.out.println (“Hello World”)
b) println (“Hello World”)
c) document.write (“Hello World”)
d) response.write (“Hello World”)
B) State the following statements true/false.

1) The head section of a Web page goes to the Internet and is not visible
to the person viewing the page.
2) Tables can be nested (table inside of another table).
3) Hl is the smallest header tag.
4) JavaScript is case sensitive language.

1) What do you understand about DOCTYPE in HTML ?
2) What is long form of CSS and DOM ?
3) What is purpose of CSS.
4) Define Internet.
5) List out operators in JavaScript.
6) List out different types of CSS.
7) Explain different types of tag.
8) Explain heading tag in HTML.
9) Explain event handling in JavaScript.
Set P
1) Explain structure of HTML.
2) Explain array of JavaScript.
3) What are the requirement for Internet ?
B) Explain table tag in detail with example. 4

1) What is topology ? Explain different types of topology in detail.
2) Explain CSS properties in detail.
3) Explain different data types of JavaScript.

1) Write a JavaScript program to check given no. is prime or not.
2) Explain User defined function in JavaScript.
3) Explain CSS selectors in detail.

_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
computer science (Paper – IV)
Introduction to Programming Using C – II

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct alternatives from the following : 14

1) Which of the following is an operation of a file ?
a) Reading from a file b) Writing to a file
c) Opening an existing file d) All of the mentioned
2) The default value of automatic storage class is
a) Zero b) One
c) Garbage value d) Null
3) Every called function must contain a return statement.
a) True b) False
4) ________ argument mode is used to truncate.
a) a b) f
c) w d) t
5) ________ is used to store dissimilar data together.
a) Structure b) Pointer
c) Void d) Function
6) argv [0] in command line arguments is
a) The name by which the program was invoked
b) The name of the files which are passed to the program
c) Count of the arguments in argv [ ] vector
d) None of the mentioned
7) A function may be called more than once from any other function.
a) True b) False
P.T.O.
8) __________ functions are used to receive input from keyboard.
a) Console I/O b) File I/O
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
9) _________ file extensions are accepted with #include ?
a) .h b) .in
c) .com d) all of the above
10) A macro must always be written in capital letters.
a) True b) False
11) __________ header file should be included to use functions like malloc ()
and calloc ().
a) memory.h b) stdlib.h
c) string.h d) dos.h
12) All macro substitutions in a program are done
a) Before compilation of the program
b) After compilation
c) During execution
d) None of these
13) If a file is opened for reading it is necessary that the file must exist.
a) True b) False
14) The operator used to get value at address stored in a pointer variable is
a) * b) &
c) && d) ||
2. Solve any 7 from the following : 14

1) Differentiate between malloc and calloc.
2) List any two advantages of function.
3) Give the use of global variables.
4) Define self-referential structure.
5) Give any two uses of file handling.
6) List the advantages of pointer.
7) What is the use of typedef keyword ?
8) Give the syntax structure.
9) List the different file opening modes.
Set P
3. A) Solve any two from the following : 10
a) Differentiate between structure and union with suitable example.
b) Explain the preprocessor and its features.
c) Write a program to copy one text file into another text file.
B) Write note on command line arguments. 4
4. Solve any two from the following : 14

a) Why use structures ? Give one example.
b) Write a program to sort an array using pointer.
c) Explain any three graphics library functions.
5. Solve any two from the following : 14

a) Explain different storage classes.
b) What is macro ? Explain with suitable example.
c) Write a program to accept number and check given number is palindrome
or not using function.
___________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

physical geography (Paper – III)
Climatology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.

3) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
4) Use of stencils is allowed.

1) ___________ is the science which studies the atmosphere.
(Climatology, Hydrology, Phytology, Pedology)
2) Nitrogen constitutes about _________ % of the total atmospheric value.
(21.98, 20.94, 78.08, 0.03)
3) ___________ is the outer layer of the atmosphere.
(Exosphere, Ionosphere, Troposphere, Stratosphere)
4) The normal laps rate in the troposphere is ________ °C per 1000 meter.
(7.5, 6.5, 1.5, 2.5)
5) About 35% of short wave radiation does not reach the earth surface and it
is desorbed as ___________of the earth.
(Radiation, Emmitance, Refraction, Albedo)
6) When the isobars are widely spaced the pressure gradient is ________
(Steep, Gentle, Moderate, Vertical)
7) ___________ are lines which are drawn on map to join the places of equal
temperature.
(Isohyets, Isobars, Isotherms, Isohalines)
P.T.O.
8) A belt of low pressure, known as Equatorial Trough is also known
as __________
(Westerlies, Doldrum, Easterlies, Wedge)
9) The horse latitudes are regions located at about ___________ degrees
north and south of the equator.
(45, 50, 15, 30)
10) _________ mb air pressure is found at mean sea level of normal atmospheric
condition.
(1013.2, 998.1, 1001.3, 996.1)
11) The coriolis force is ___________ in high latitudes.
(Absent, Week, Strong, Strongest)
12) Winds blowing under the influence of planetary pressure distribution are
___________ Winds.
(Variable, Local, Planetary, Diurnal)
13) The cyclone originating in Atlantic Ocean is known as ______ in America.
(Typhoons, Hurricane, Cyclone depression, Tornado)
14) In ‘Indian Monsoon’, there is complete ______ reversal of wind direction.
(Diurnal, Monthly, Seasonal, Yearly)
2. Answer in brief (any 7) : 14

1) What is Weather ?
2) Define the term Albedo.
3) What is a doldrum ?
4) State the location of Ozone Layer.
5) What is milibar ?
6) Define the term insolation.
7) State the types of planetary Wind.
8) Name the major gases in the atmosphere.
9) Give names of any two cyclones.
Set P
3. A) Answer in brief (any 2) : 10
1) Inversion of temperature.
2) Nature of climatology.
3) Vertical distribution of temperature.
B) Solve short type answer of question : 4
Draw the neat diagram of structure of atmosphere.
1) Explain the elements of weather.

2) Describe the weather condition associated with tropical cyclone.
3) Explain factor affecting on the air temperature.

1) Elaborate the distribution of atmospheric pressure.
2) What are planetary winds and explain their types with suitable diagram.
3) Describe the characteristics of monsoon climate.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) (Choice Based Credit System)

Examination, 2018
geography (Paper No. – IV)
Physical Geography (Oceanography)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Select the proper answer from the given below and rewrite the sentences. 14
1) Oceanography is the branch ________ geography.
a) Physical b) Human c) Social d) Economical
2) The average salinity of ocean and sea is about _______ %.
a) 34 b) 35 c) 36 d) 37
3) Broad and flat topped sea mounts is called as
a) sea plains b) guyots
c) submarine ridge d) canyon
4) The salinity of _______ seas is low from the following seas group.
a) Baltic b) Red c) Okhastak d) Dead
5) _________ mud is formed from the disintegration of rocks which rich in
iron sulphide mixing with organic elements.
a) Blue b) Red c) Green d) None of them
6) ________ oozes is formed by the shells of radiolarian and foraminifera.
a) Radiolarian b) Diatom c) Pteropod d) Globigerina
7) _______ salt is maximum in the ocean water.
a) CaCl2 b) NaCl c) MgCl2 d) BrCl2
P.T.O.
8) During the _______ phase the neap tides are produced.
a) New moon b) Full moon c) Quadrature d) Day-night
9) Somali current is found in _________ ocean.
a) Pacific b) Atlantic c) Indian d) Arctic
10) _________ is a ring type of coral reef attached to islands.
a) Atoll b) Fringing c) Barrier d) None of them
11) The continental self covers about _______ % of the total area covered by
oceans.
a) 7.5 b) 8.5 c) 17.5 d) 19.5
12) Non subsidence theory of coral formation postulated by
a) Murray b) R.A. Daly
c) Charles Drawin d) Arthor Holmes
13) Gulf stream is a _______ current in North Atlantic ocean.
a) warm b) cold c) wide d) slow
14) The regularly periodic rise and fall of water in seas and oceans is known
as ocean
a) tides b) currents c) drift d) waves
2. Write answers in short (any seven) : 14
1) Daily range of ocean surface temperature.
2) State the difference in between drift and ocean currents.
3) What is a daily and semi-diurnal tides ?
4) Give the various branches of oceanography.
5) Types of ocean water movements.
6) What is a spring tides ?
7) Types of calcareous oozes.

8) Name of ocean currents in Indian ocean.
9) Explain island.
Set P
3. A) Write a short notes (any two). 10
1) Describe the ideal conditions for growth of coral formation.
2) State the various advantages of tides.
3) Discuss the Charles Darwin coral formation theory.
B) Draw the schematic diagram of ocean current in Pacific oceans. 4
4. Write any two answers from following questions. 14

1) State the various factors affecting on the distribution of salinity on the earth
surface.
2) Define ocean currents and state its various determinants.
3) What is a coral reefs ? State one of them with diagram.
5. Write any two answers from following questions. 14

1) What is a tides ? State spring tides with schematic diagram.
2) Describe the ocean currents in Atlantic oceans with suitable diagram.
3) State the ocean deposits and classify it.

_______________
Set P
*SLR-SO42* SLR-SO – 42
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
Zoology (Paper – III)
Animal Diversity – II
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Select the appropriate answer for each of the following and complete the
sentence : 14
1) ______________ belongs to urochordate.
a) Scoliodon b) Herdmania c) Amphioxus d) Labeo
2) In frog (Amphibia) skin is
a) Dry b) Moist and without exoskeleton
c) Rough d) Horney
3) Ammocoetus is the larva of
a) Petromyzon b) Amphibia c) Shark d) Dog fish
4) Placoid scales shows presence of ______________ spines.
5) In labeo all the gills are
a) Holobranch b) Hemibranch c) Demibranch d) Incomplete
6) Jaws and paired appendages are absent in
a) Cyclostomata b) Gnathostomata
c) Pisces d) Amphibia
7) The main excretory waste in frog is
a) Urea b) Uric acid c) Ammonia d) Creatinine
8) Left auricle of frog contains ____________ blood.
a) Deoxygenated b) Oxygenated c) Impure d) Venous
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 42 -2- *SLR-SO42*
9) The enzyme pepsin is present in ___________ juice.

a) Gastric b) Pancreatic
c) Bile d) Intestinal
10) Lung respiration is called ____________ respiration.
a) Pulmonary b) Gill
c) Cutaneous d) Buccopharyngeal
11) Vocal Sacs are present only in ___________ frog.
a) Male b) Female
c) Male and Female d) Sterile
12) Sinus venosus is ______________ chamber
a) Receiving b) Propelling
c) Circulating d) Distributing
13) Axoloa larva is example of ______________
a) Comuflage b) Dwarfinism
c) Mimicry d) Neotany
14) ____________ are phagocytic in function.
a) Leucocytes b) Thrombocytes
c) Bloodplatelets d) Erythrocytes
2. Write short notes on (any seven) : 14

1) Skin of frog.
2) Salient feature of Amphibia.
3) Functions of Erythrocytes.
4) Sexual dimorphism.
5) Ventricles of brain.
6) Holobranch gills.
7) Vocal sacs of frog.
8) Sperm of Frog.
9) Neotany.
Set P
*SLR-SO42* -3- SLR-SO – 42

1) Describe the process of blood clotting in frog.
2) Describe renal portal system of frog.
3) Describe Buccopharynx in frog.
B) Functions of Gastric gland. 4

1) Describe Ammocoetus larva.
2) Describe excretory system of frog.
3) Describe parental care in Amphibia.

1) Describe different types of Fins in Fish.
2) Give general characters of Cyclostomes.
3) Describe female reproductive system of frog.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2018

zoology (Paper – IV) (CBCS Pattern)
(Ecology, Ethology, Evolution and Applied Zoology)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

2) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and write only correct
answer from given alternatives. 14
1) The study of gradual changes among the organisms is called
a) mythology b) ecology c) ethology d) evolution
2) The extract from the Vermiculture is called
a) vermin b) vermiwash
c) vermicompost d) vermicomponent
3) The cultivation of pearl oyster is called
a) sericulture b) pearl culture c) apiculture d) lacculture
4) In a bee hive the worker bees are _________ female.
a) sterile b) fertile c) intersex d) super sex
5) The fossil study is called as
a) osteology b) lithology c) palaeontology d) limnology
6) In a food chain the basic source of energy is
a) solar energy b) lunar energy
c) bioenergy d) mechanical energy
7) The domestication of milk producing animals are called
a) dairy science b) goat farming c) piggary d) vermiculture
8) Over population and over crowding in the colony of bee as avoided by
a) absconding b) group forming
c) swarming d) migration
9) ___________ are called tertiary consumers in a food chain.
a) frogs b) tigers c) rabbits d) elephants
10) ___________ is considered as social insect.
a) silk moth b) Lac insect c) Honey bee d) House fly
P.T.O.
11) The behavior of disguise the enemies in a suitable background for the self
protection in animals is called
a) camouflage b) death fighting c) modeling d) aggression
12) The culture of earthworm under technical principles is called
a) silviculture b) biotechnology
c) vermitechnology d) sericulture
13) ___________ is a abiotic factor of an ecosystem.
a) water b) protozoan c) bacteria d) fish
14) All the living organisms along with abiotic factors on the earth constitute
a) biosphere b) biome c) ecosystem d) community
2. Answer any seven of the followings : 14

i) ecology
ii) Cannibalism
iii) Biome
iv) Commensalism
v) Nuptial flight
vi) Fossils
vii) Lac culture
viii) Vermicompost
ix) Sericulture.

i) Describe mimicry in butterflies.
ii) Describe symbiosis with a suitable example.
iii) Describe primary and secondary succession.
B) Describe biotic components of a typical pond ecosystem. 4

4. Answer any two of the followings : 14
i) What is vermiculture ? Describe in brief the techniques used in
vermicomposting.
ii) Describe the castes and their duties of honey bees in a bee hive.
iii) Describe courtship behavior in birds.
5. Answer any two the following. 14

i) Describe abiotic factors of an ecosystem and their effects on plant and
animals.
ii) Describe energy flow in a typical ecosystem.
iii) What is palaeontology ? Give an account of organic evolution.
________________ Set P

Seat
No. Set P
botany (Paper – III)
Mycology and Phytopathology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2) Draw neat and labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct answer from the given : 14
1) The organism which lack chlorophyll are called
a) Bryophytes b) Fungi
c) Pteridophytes d) Lichens
2) __________ is called bread mould fungus.
a) Aspergillus b) Penicillium
c) Yeast d) Mucor
3) Fermentation of sugar occurs by
a) Saccharomyces b) Mucor
c) Rhizopus d) Penicillium
4) The fungal component of lichen thallus is known as
a) Mycobiont b) Phycobiont
c) Haplobiont d) Diplobiont
5) The full form of VAM is
a) Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza
b) Vascular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza
c) Vertical Arbuscular Mycorrhiza
d) Vegtative Arbuscular Mycorrhiza
6) ___________ is edible fungi.
a) Chlorophyllum molybdites b) Agaricus compestries
c) Amanita muscaria d) Penicillium sps
P.T.O.
7) Grain smut of jawar is caused by
a) Mycplasma b) Sphacelotheca sorghi
c) Phytoplasma d) Bacteria
8) In ____________ perfect state spores are absent.
a) Zygomycotina b) Ascomycotina
c) Basidiomycotina d) Deuteromycotina
9) Lichen are bioindicators of
a) Air pollution b) Water pollution
c) Soil pollution d) Noise pollution
10) Yellow vein mosaic of bhendi is caused by
a) Hibiscus virus I b) Phytoplasma
c) Hibiscus virus II d) Fungi
11) Zygomycetes fungi members are often
a) Predacious b) Parasitic plasmodial
c) Saprophytic d) Endoparasitic
12) __________ is used as fungal biofertilizer.
a) BGA b) VAM
c) NPK d) TMV
13) Sexual reproduction in Albugo is
a) Oogamous b) Isogamous
c) Haplontic d) Diplontic
14) __________ is sugar loving fungus.
a) Saccharomyces b) Albugo
c) Mucor d) Mycorhiza

1) Write general character of Ascomycotina.
2) Write occurance of mucor.
3) Draw a neat labeled diagram of yeast.
4) Describe systematic position of albugo.
5) What is mycorrhiza ?
6) Enlist pollution indicator lichen.
7) Define Mycopesticides.
8) Define Phytopathology.
9) Write any two control measures of citrus canker disease.

Set P
1) Describe nutrition in fungi.
2) Describe asexual reproduction in mucor.
3) Write general characters of oomycetes.
B) Explain significance of mycorrhiza. 4

1) Describe sexual reproduction in saccharomyces cervisae.
2) Give economic importance of lichen.
3) Describe the symptoms, causal organism and control measure of little leaf
of Brinjal.

1) Describe vesicular arbuscular mycorrhiza with suitable diagram.
2) Describe the symptoms, causal organism and control measure of yellow
vein mosaic of bhendi.
3) Describe the symptoms, causal organism and control measure of grain smut
of jawar.
___________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
botany (Paper – IV)
Archegoniate (Bryophyte, Pteridophyte, Gymnosperm)
Day and Date : Thursday, 29-11-2018onday, 15-5-2017 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.10.3

2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
4) All questions carry equal marks. to 12.30 p.m.
1. Rewrite the complete sentences by choosing the correct alternative : 14
1) In archegoniate _________ is the begins of sporophyte.

a) megaspore b) microspore c) zygote d) spore
2) The ventral region of Riccia is formed by ________ tissue.
a) Sclerenchyma b) Collenchymas
c) Hypodermis d) Parenchyma
3) In Selaginella tuberculae cells are formed from
a) endodermis b) pericycle c) xylem d) phloem
4) The sporophyte of Riccia, consist of only
a) foot b) seta c) capsule d) elaters
5) In Cycas, pollen grains are stored in
a) archegonial chamber b) pollen chamber
c) micropylar canal d) female gametophyte
6) Among the plant group ______ is the first true land plant.
a) Bryophyte b) Pteridophyte c) Algae d) Fungi
7) Class Iycopodinae is placed in _______ stage of Smith classification.
a) first b) second c) third d) fourth
P.T.O.
8) The sperm of selaginella are coiled, uninucleate and ________structure.
a) non-motile b) uniflagellate c) ciliated d) biflagellate
9) Coralloid root shows symbiotically associated members like Nostoc and
Anabaena are found in ______ cortex.
a) outer b) middle
c) inner d) outer and inner
10) The Archegoniate name is given for the presence of
a) Antherdia b) Archegonia c) Zygote d) Embryo
11) Bryophytic members are under described as
a) amphibians b) carnivores c) hydrophytes d) xerophytes
12) Assimilatory tissue of Cycas leaflet is differentiated in to ___________ and
spongy cells.
a) transfusion b) cambium c) xylem d) palisade
13) The mounting medium like canada balsam is obtained from _______
plant.
a) Abies balsamea b) Pinus roxburgii
c) Gnetum ula d) Ephedra sps
14) In Cycas, upper part of microsporophyll is sterile known as ______
a) apophysis b) sori c) bract d) hairs

1) Define archegoniate.
2) Sketch and label the L.S. of ovule in Cycas.
3) Write occurrence of Riccia.
4) Process of fertilization in Selaginella.
5) Use of Pteridophyte in agriculture.
6) Draw graphical life cycle of bryophyte.
7) What is fragmentation ?
8) Comment on Rhizophore.
9) What is pollination ?
Set P

1) Describe in brief the anatomy of Selaginella stem.
2) Describe the sporophyte of Riccia.
3) State the unifying characters of archegoniates.
B) Write in brief the anatomy of coralloid root of Cycas. 4
1) Give an account of general characters of gymnosperms.
2) Explain in brief the structure of Selaginella strobilus.
3) Describe the internal structure of gametophytic thallus of Riccia.
1) State the economic importance of gymnosperm.
2) Describe the external morphology of Selaginella sporophyte and add a note

on ligule.
3) State the general characters of bryophytes.

______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

psychology
General Psychology (Paper – III)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right full marks of the question.
1) Levels of processing model was developed by _______

a) Atkinson and Shiffrin b) Craik and Lockhart
c) Peterson and Peterson d) George Miller
2) Visual sensory memory is called _______

a) Echoic memory b) Semantic memory
c) Iconic memory d) Procedural memory
3) Baddeley proposed the model of _______ memory.
a) Working b) Sensory
c) LTM d) None of the above
4) _______ is the system into which all the information is placed to be kept
more or less permanently.
a) STM b) LTM
c) Sensory store d) Working memory
5) _______ proposed ‘g’ factor and ‘s’ factor theory of intelligence.

a) Cattell b) Spearman
c) Gardner d) Binet
P.T.O.
6) _______ found the concept of Intelligence Quotient (IQ).
a) William Stern b) Binet-Simon
c) David Wechsler d) Raymond Cattell
7) _______ plays an important role in processing of emotional information.
a) Hippocampus b) Amygdala
c) Thalamus d) Medulla
8) According to _______ theory of emotion, a stimulus leads to bodily arousal
first, which is then interpreted as an emotion.
a) Cannon-Bard b) James-Lange
c) Schacter-Singer d) Lazarus
9) _______ developed hierarchy of needs.
a) Rogers b) Freud
c) Maslow d) Ebbinghaus
10) Projective tests are used to assess _______
a) Memory b) Intelligence
c) Interest d) Personality
11) MMPI-2 includes _______ statements.
a) 550 b) 560
c) 567 d) 570
12) According to Freud Id acts on _______ principle.
a) Pleasure b) Reality
c) Feedback d) None of the above
13) Phallic stage is _______ years.
a) 1 to 2 b) 3 to 6
c) 6 to 8 d) 8 to 10
14) Cattell suggested _______ source traits of personality.
a) 14 b) 15
c) 16 d) 18
Set P
1) Define memory.
2) State psychosexual stages of development.
3) What is mental retardation ?
4) Who proposed the concept of emotional intelligence ?
5) Define motivation.
6) What is sensory memory ?
7) What is instinct approach ?
8) What is personality ?
9) Which parts of mind are suggested by Freud ?
10) Who proposed Triarchic Theory of Intelligence ?
3. Write short notes (any two) : 14

1) Process of memory
2) Personality measurement techniques
3) Forgetting curve
4) Freud’s model of personality.
4. Answer any one of the following questions : 14

a) Explain different approaches to motivation.
OR
b) Explain Gardner’s Theory of Intelligence.
5. Explain stages of memory. 14
_________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
Geology
Paper – III : Introduction to General Geology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.
1. Choose the correct alternatives, from the given option : 14

1) The comets are
a) Minor planets b) Giant planets
c) Terrestrial planets d) None of these
2) _______ is the third planet from the sun.
a) Earth b) Mars c) Venus d) Jupiter
3) The last four planet of the solar system are called ______ planets.
a) Inner b) Minor c) Outer d) Terrestrial
4) The shooting star is also called as
a) Planets b) Asteroids c) Meteorite d) None of these
5) Earth planet has ___ satellites.
a) 2 b) 1 c) 4 d) 15
6) On _______ day and night will be equal in duration.
a) Eclipse b) Solstices
c) Equinox d) None of these
7) The average depth of ocean below sea level is ____ km.
a) 3.3 b) 4.3 c) 5.3 d) 6.3
P.T.O.
8) _______ discontinuity separate sial and sima.
a) Conrad b) Gutenberg
c) Moho d) None of these
9) P-wave is also called as ______ wave.
a) Push-pool b) Primary c) Longitudinal d) All of these
10) ________ is the third order oceanic feature.
a) Continental slope b) Stable platform
c) Island arc d) Ocean basin
11) The Deccan trap is example of _______ type of volcanic eruption.
a) Central b) Fissure
c) Composite d) All the above
12) The release of hot water from volcano is called
a) Hot spring b) Geysers c) Solfastrus d) None of these
13) The core of galaxy is
a) Corona b) Gas nebula
c) Black hole d) All of these
14) ______ is the point on the earth surface below its earthquake is generated.
a) Focus b) Seismic line
c) Epicenter d) None of these
2. Answer any seven from the following : 14

1) Galaxy.
2) Size of Earth.
3) Epicenter.
4) Name the highest elevated and deepest point of earth.
5) Gutenberg discontinuity.
6) Geysers.
7) Seismic gap.
8) Volcanic belts.
9) Name the second order relief features.
Set P
1) Planetary laws.
2) The solar system
3) Describe Biosphere.
B) Write note on : 4
Describe Seismograph.

1) Describe the crust, mantle and core of earth.
2) Describe the central and fissure type of volcano.
3) Describe first order relief features.

1) Describe modern theory of earth origin.
2) Explain the effect of earthquake.
3) Describe prevention of earthquake.
___________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
microbiology (Paper – III)
Microbial Biochemistry and Physiology
Day and Date : Friday, 30-11-2018onday, 15-5-2017 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.10.3
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary. to 12.30
p.m.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing the correct alternatives : 14

1) The repeating units of proteins are
a) glucose b) amino acids
c) fatty acids d) nitrogen bases
2) A dipeptide has
a) two amino acids and one peptide bond
b) two amino acids and two peptide bonds
c) two amino acids and three peptide bonds
d) one amino acid and one peptide bond
3) The color of Andrade’s indicator in acidic condition is
a) pink b) yellow c) blue d) green
4) Nitrogen source for growth is provided by __________ in culture media.
a) starch b) NaCl c) blood d) peptone
5) Amylase is an example of _________.
a) intracellular b) extracellular
c) apoenzyme d) coenzyme
6) Hydrolysis of phosphate groups in ATP is an ______ process.
a) exergonic b) endergonic
c) reduction d) oxidation
7) The end product of TCA cycle is
a) pyruvic acid b) lactic acid
c) citric acid d) carbon dioxide and water
P.T.O.
8) Starch is a polymer of
a) glucose b) amino acids c) vitamins d) nucleotides
9) Uracil is present in
a) DNA b) RNA
c) Protein d) Polysaccharide
10) Number of cell population remains constant in ______ phase.
a) death b) stationary c) logarithmic d) both a and c
11) Two strands of DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
a) peptide b) hydrogen
c) ester d) phosphodiester
12) The DNA strand complete a turn every
a) 20 A° b) 34 A° c) 28 A° d) 10 A°
13) ______ enzyme is required for lactose utilization.
a) Amylase b) Caseinase
c) Coagulase d) Beta-galactosidase
14) _______ is a solidifying agent.
a) Peptone b) Agar c) Meat extract d) Tryptone
2. Solve any seven of the following (out of 9) : 14
1) What is the function of rRNA ?
2) What is holoenzyme ?
3) What do you mean by autotrophs ?
4) Define metabolism.
5) What is the role of NaCl in media ?
6) Which monomers are present in phospholipids ?
7) What do you mean by lag phase ?
8) Give two examples of polysaccharides.
9) What are high energy compounds ?

Set P
3. A) Attempt any two : 10

1) Lock and key hypothesis.
2) Logarithmic phase of growth.
3) Primary and secondary structure of proteins.
B) Types of RNA. 4
4. Attempt any 2 : 14
1) Describe in detail about classification of enzymes.
2) Nutritional types of microorganisms based on carbon and energy sources.
3) Glycolysis.
5. Attempt any 2 : 14
1) Factors affecting enzyme activity.
2) TCA cycle.
3) Describe in detail about carbodydrates.
______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
Psychology (Paper – IV)
Human development
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. 2.30.00 .m. to .00 p.m.
1. Write multiple choice : 14
1) Womens are greater risk of
a) Osteoporosis b) Presbyopia
c) Vision d) Sensation
2) At the age __________ to __________ sexual intercourse once a week or
more.
a) 45 to 59 b) 40 to 60 c) 35 to 60 d) 30 to 40
3) Health concerns become increasingly important to people in
a) Middle age b) Old age
c) Late adulthood d) None of these
4) Augarten’s response probably reflects the phenomenon of
a) Burnout b) Cynicism c) Burdens d) None of these
5) __________ is prejudice and discrimination directed at older people.
a) Ageism b) Oldism c) Younger d) None of these
6) __________ aging involves universal and inreversible charges that due to
genetic programme occurs as people get older.
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Partically d) None of these
7) _________ is not inevitable in old age.
a) Sleeplessness b) Sickness
c) Happiness d) None of these
8) __________ is major health problem in middle age.
a) Obesity b) Hypertension
c) Blood pressure d) Any other
P.T.O.
9) ___________ sensitivity begins to decline at about age 50.

a) All b) Vision c) Taste d) Audiation
10) Couples who in middle adulthood need to take care of their aging parents
and their children are often referred to by psychologists as the
a) Sandwich generation b) Gift generation
c) Violence generation d) Not
11) ___________ chronic disorder is oftenly called the silent killer.
a) Hypertension b) Blood pressure
c) Cancer d) Not
12) ___________ found that certain abilities of intelligence.
a) Freud b) Terman c) Schale d) Johnson
13) ___________ is the skill or knowledge acquired in particular area.
a) Expertise b) Optimize c) Memory d) None of these
14) In Levinson’s view the assessment may lead to a
a) Midlife crisis b) Normative crisis
c) Adultive crisis d) None of these
2. Write answer in short (any seven) : 14

1) What is menopause ?
2) What is crystallized intelligence ?
3) Name big five personality traits.
4) What is primary and secondary ageing ?
5) What is common physical disorder in older people ?
6) Which is the main problem of middle age of adult woman ?
7) What is the charter of ‘type A’ behaviour ?
8) What is selective optimization ?
9) Suggestion of life events model’s.
Set P
3. A) Write short notes (any two) : 10

1) The threat of cancer in middle adulthood
2) Marriage
3) The death of spouse.
B) Describe the sense in late adulthood. 4

A) Explain relationship in family in middle age.
B) Describe health problems in older people.
C) Explain the cognitive development in late adulthood.
5. Answer any one of the following :

A) Explain the physical development in middle adulthood. 14
OR
B) Explain the Mid Carrier Crisis in middle adulthood.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) ( CBCS) Examination, 2018
Geology (Paper – IV)
Introduction to Physical Geology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Yardangs are erosional features formed by ___________
a) wind b) ocean c) river d) Glacier
2) Material accumulated from surface down to solid rock including soil is
called ___________
a) tors b) murum c) regolith d) talus
3) Formation of soil depends upon ___________ factor.
a) Parent material b) Time
c) Climate and land forms d) All
4) A hanging valley is erosional feature of ___________
a) glacier b) ocean c) wind d) river
5) Point bars are deposited at ___________ of meandering steam.
a) base b) outer curve
c) top d) inner curve
6) Sea caves commonly form in following rock types
a) Granite b) Limestone c) Sandstone d) Basalt
7) Tors are the weathering products produced from ___________ rock.
a) basalt b) marble c) sandstone d) granite
8) Oceans cover approximately ________ percent of the Earth’s surface.
a) 97 b) 71 c) 80 d) 82
9) Which of the following mineral is most stable ?
a) Hornblende b) Olivine
c) Quartz d) Augite
10) Which of the following is a glacial feature ?
a) moraine b) sand dunes c) delta d) dreikanter
P.T.O.
11) River captures another river flowing parallel to it by _________ erosion.
a) downward b) headward c) lateral d) upward
12) The jumping transportation of eroded rock fragments by river is _______
a) saltation b) suspension c) traction d) none of these
13) A river by moving ice is called ___________
a) meander b) glacier c) tributary d) streamlet
14) Swirling action of water creates ___________
a) cascade b) rapids c) pot holes d) ventifacts
1) What is attrition process ?
2) Give two names of products of weathering.
3) What is ventifact ?
4) Describe process of hydration.
5) Describe the formation of sea notch.
6) What is Delta ?
7) What is cascade ?
8) What is natural arch ?
9) Draw labelled diagrams indicating formation of ox-bow-lake.
1) Explain soil profile.
2) Describe process of spheroidal weathering.
3) Explain different types of moraines.
B) Explain exogenous and endogenous processes. 4

i) Define weathering. Describe waterfall and river capture.
ii) What are sand dunes ? Add a note on their types.
iii) Define glacier. Describe types of glaciers.
i) What is physical weathering ? Describe types of physical weathering.
ii) Describe any three erosional features formed by wind.
iii) Describe different depositional features formed by Ocean.
_____________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
microbiology
Applied Microbiology (Paper – IV)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answers from given

alternatives : 14
i) MBRT test is used to determine _______ quality of milk.
a) Nutritive b) Standard
c) Microbiological d) Chemical
ii) ______ is an example of air borne disease.
a) Tuberculosis b) Rabies
c) Typhoid d) Cholera
iii) ______ is an indicator of fecal pollution of water.
a) Bacillus b) Pseudomonas
c) Vibrio d) E.Coli
iv) ________ test is used to measure the strength of sewage.
a) MPN b) BOD c) MBRT d) SPC
v) Kovac’s reagent is used to detect ______ production by bacteria.
a) Indole b) Methane c) Acid d) Acetoin
vi) ______ is the major protein in the milk.
a) Gelatin b) Albumin c) Globulin d) Casein
vii) ______ is used for biological treatment of sewage.
a) Septic tank b) Trickling filtre
c) Imhoff tank d) Chlorine
P.T.O.
viii) EMB agar is used for _______ test.
a) MPN b) Phosphatase c) Confirmed d) Completed
ix) In LTH method of milk pasteurisation milk is heated at _______°C for
30 minutes.
a) 200 b) 71.7 c) 100 d) 62.8
x) The ability of organism to cause disease is
a) Pathogenicity b) Immunity
c) Prophylaxis d) Symptom
xi) Solid material settled at bottom during sewage treatment is called
a) Sediment b) Sludge c) Floccs d) Precipitate
xii) _______ is used for disinfection of water.
a) HCl b) H2SO4 c) NaCl d) Chlorine
xiii) _______ test is used for enumeration of coliforms in water.
a) MBRT b) Imvic c) MPN d) Presumptive
xiv) The infection by the same pathogen again is known as
a) Reinfection b) Secondary infection
c) Cross infection d) Mixed infection
2. Answer in short (any seven) : 14

i) Define COD.
ii) Give two examples of coliforms.
iii) Define virulence.
iv) Components of milk.
v) What is DMC of milk ?
vi) Use of septic tank.
vii) Types of sewage.
viii) Significance of phosphatase test.
ix) What is virulence ?
Set P
i) Describe Imhoff’s tank.
ii) Pasteurisation methods of milk.
iii) Types of diseases.
B) Describe municipal water purification process. 4

i) Describe IMViC test.
ii) Explain the biological methods for sewage treatment.
iii) Describe prophylatic measures for microbial diseases.

i) Describe the various modes of disease transmissions.
ii) Explain the sources of contamination of milk.
iii) Describe detail MBRT and phosphatase test.
___________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – III) Examination, 2018
chemistry (Paper – V : Organic Chemistry)
(CBCS Pattern)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for the following and rewrite the
sentences. 14
1) In hypsochromic shift, ___________
a) λmax increases b) λmax decreases
c) Єmax increases d) Єmax decreases
2) The potential energy of staggered form is ___________
a) zero b) minimum
c) maximum d) none of these
3) In ___________ reaction, phenols can be converted into salicylic acid.
a) Claisen rearrangement b) Gattermann synthesis
c) Fries rearrangement d) Kolbe
4) UV spectroscopy is mainly used for the determination of ___________
a) Molecular weight b) Molecular formula
c) Functional group d) Conjugation
5) The compound which shows conformational isomerism is ___________
a) alkenes b) alkanes
c) alkynes d) both alkenes and alkynes
6) A typical example of chromophore is ___________
a) >C=O b) –NH2 c) –OH d) –CI
7) Phenol is also called ___________
a) Salicylic acid b) Carboxylic acid
c) Carbolic acid d) Benzyl alcohol
P.T.O.
8) The nomenclature system used to show the configurations of optical
stereoisomers are ___________
a) R and S b) D and L c) E and Z d) Both a) and b)
9) Glycerine is ___________
a) Tertiary alcohol b) Trihydric alcohol
c) Secondary alcohol d) Ester
10) Cannizaro reaction does not occur with ___________
a) Formaldehyde b) Benzaldehyde
c) Acetaldehyde d) Trimethyl acetaldehyde
11) The product obtained in Knoevenagel reaction is ___________
a) α-hydroxy ketone b) β-hydroxy aldehyde
c) α, β-unsaturated acid d) α, β-unsaturated ketone
12) The three membered cyclic ethers are known as ___________
a) crown ethers b) epoxides c) diethyl ethers d) esters
13) Among the following, ___________ is unsaturated acid.
a) acrylic acid b) citric acid c) phthalic acid d) acetic acid
14) Azo coupling is useful to prepare ___________
a) drugs b) dyes c) proteins d) vitamins
1) Calculate λmax for the following compounds :
a) b)
2) Give any two methods of preparation of ethylene glycol.

3) What is Lambert-Beer’s law ?
4) Draw the structure of following compounds :
a) 2-methyl pentanal
b) butan-2,3-dione.
5) Explain the chemical reaction of anisole with HI.
1) Hyperchromic and Hypochromic shift.
2) Energy profile diagram of conformations of n-butane.
3) Discuss the structure and reactivity of carbonyl group.
Set P
1) What are the actions of following on ethylene oxide :
a) H2O/H+
b) HBr
c) NH3
d) C2H5OH/H+
2) Discuss the synthesis of citric acid from glycerol. Give its uses.
3) What is diazotization ? How will you prepare a benzene diazonium
chloride ?
1) Give two methods of preparation of phthalic acid. How will convert it
into :
a) phthalic anhydride
b) benzene
c) phthalimide
2) Give synthesis and uses of Methyl orange and Congo red.
1) What is meant by conformation ? Discuss the conformational analysis of
ethane with stability.
2) How is pinacol formed ? Explain the mechanism of Pinacol-pinacolone
rearrangement.
3) Explain in detail the mechanism of Benzoin condensation.
1) In Zeisel’s method, 0.035 � 10–3 kg of organic compound (Molecular
weight = 108 g) gave 0.077 � 10–3 kg of silver iodide. Calculate percentage
and number of – OCH3 groups present in the organic compound.
2) Complete the following reactions :
a) Ethylene bromide
b) Maleic acid
c) Succinic acid
d) Succinic acid
Set P
1) State the basic principle of UV spectroscopy. Explain the different types of

electronic transition in UV spectroscopy.
2) Define geometrical isomerism. Explain determination of configuration of

aldoxime and ketoxime.
3) What are phenols ? Give classification of phenols with suitable example.

What are the actions of following reagents on phenol :
a) CH3COCI / pyridine
b) C2H5I / aq. NaOH
c) BrCH2CH=CH2 / aq. NaOH
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set p
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
chemistry (paper – VI)
Inorganic Chemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
1. Choose the most correct alternative and rewrite the sentence. 14

1) Co-ordinate bond is formed by __________ of electron pair from donor to
acceptor.
a) Loss b) Shairing c) Donation d) Ejection
2) _________ membered chelatering is most stable.
a) Five b) Four c) Three d) Seven
3) According to Lewis theory, an acid is _________
a) Hydrogen giving substance b) Electron pair donor
c) Proton donor d) Electron pair acceptor
4) The maximum number of oxidation states shown by _______ element of
3d services.
a) Cobalt b) Molybdenum c) Scandium d) Manganese
5) Cyanide Ligand can forms ________ complex.
a) Outer orbital b) Inner orbital
c) Spin free d) Chelate
6) BF3 is ___________ molecule.
a) Lewis acids b) Lewis base
c) Bronsted lowry acid d) Lux-Flood acid
7) Decrease in strain in metal chelate
a) Decrease stability
b) Does not change stability
c) First increase and then decrease the stability
d) Increase stability
P.T.O.
8) Colour of ion is due to
a) s-d transition b) s-s transition
c) d-d transition d) p-d transition
9) First transition elements shows _______ stable oxidation state.
a) + 1 and + 2 b) + 3 and + 4
c) + 4 and + 5 d) + 2 and + 3
10) Co-ordination increase with increase in
a) Charge on Ligand b) Size of Ligand
c) Charge on central metal ion d) Number of electrons
11) While naming chloride ion as a Ligand, its name is changed to
a) Chloro b) Chlorine c) Chlorate d) Chloride
12) Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d54s1 is of ________ element.
a) Fe b) Cr c) Mn d) V
13) The chelating agent must contain at least _________ donor atoms with
lone pair of electrons.
a) Two b) One
c) Ten d) None of these
14) Hard-hard interactions are generally
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Co-ordinate d) Co-ordinate covalent

1) What is co-ordination sphere ?
2) Define optical isomerism and isomer.
3) Draw the structure of [Ni (DMG)2] complex.
4) Define Hard and soft acids with example.
5) Show the cis-trans isomers in [pt (NH3)2cl2].
1) What are the limitations of Lewis concept ?
2) Why d-block elements are called as transition elements ? Define
paramagnetic and diamagnetic materials.
3) What is EAN ? Calculate it for Fe in K4 [Fe(CN)6] and K3 [Fe(CN)6].
Set P
1) Discuss the applications of HSAB concept.
2) Explain the position of d-block elements in the periodic table show its
location in the periodic table.
3) Distinguish between double salts and complex salts.
1) Compare first transition series with second and third transition series
w.r.t. their reactivity oxidation state and stability of complexes.
2) Discuss applications of EDTA.

1) Explain the role of transition elements in catalytic reactions.
2) What is geometrical isomerism ? Explain cis-trans isomer in
complexes with CN = 6.
3) Distinguish between metal chelate and metal complex.
1) Explain classification of acids on the basis of Pearson’s concept.
2) Why cr and cu shows irregular electronic configuration ?

1) What are the postulates of Werner’s theory ? According to Werner’s
theory, how will you formulate cocl3.6NH3, COCl3.5NH3 and COCl3.4NH3.
2) 3d-block elements form complexes. Explain with suitable example.
Why transition elements show colour ?
3) Give postulates of VBT. Explain the formation of [Fe(CN)6]3+ complex ion
on the basis of VBT.
___________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – III) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
physics (paper – v)
General Physics, Heat and Sound

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

i) The gradient of scalar function is ___________ rate of change of function
in space.
a) Minimum b) Maximum c) Slow d) Constant
ii) Curl of vector field is
a) Vector b) Scalar
c) Always zero d) None of these
iii) The rifling of barrels if guns provides the stability in __________ of the
bullet.
a) Speed b) Mass c) Direction d) Force
iv) The change in plane of rotation of rotating disc is called
a) Precession b) Nutation c) Rotation d) Vibration
v) A spiral spring is said to be flat if the angle made by plane is spiral to the
horizontal is
a) Zero b) Equal to 90°
c) Less than 90° d) Equal to 45°
vi) Bending moment of beam is
a) Directly proportional to modulus of rigidity
b) Inversely proportional to radius of curvature
c) Directly proportional to radius of curvature
d) Inversely proportional to modulus of rigidity
P.T.O.
vii) The relation between magnitudes of precessional torque (τ1), gravitational
torque (τ2) and centripetal torque (τ3) is
a) τ1 = τ2 = τ3 b) τ1 = τ2 + τ3
c) τ1 = τ3 – τ2 d) τ2 = τ1 – τ3
viii) The critical velocity of disc of radius 30 cm rolling over a horizontal
surface is
a) 140 m/s b) 1.40 m/s
c) 140 cm/s d) 1400 cm/s
ix) If height of liquid in rotation viscometer is increased, the rotation torque
will be
a) Decreased b) Increased
c) Same d) No affected
x) The viscosities of two liquids may be compared with the help of
a) Searle’s Viscometer b) Ostwald’s Viscometer
c) Rotation Viscometer d) Rankin’s Viscometer
xi) Decay of sound energy in hall is
a) Linear b) Exponential
c) Constant d) Zero
xii) The carbon microphone is _________ microphone.
a) Velocity b) Pressure
c) Temperature d) Mass
xiii) Entropy is the measurement of
a) Perfect order b) Liquid
c) Disorder d) Available energy
xiv) Entropy remains constant in
a) Adiabatic process b) Isothermal process
c) Isochoric process d) Isolated process

i) What is nutation ?
ii) What is cantilever ?
iii) Explain the terms neutral axis and neutral surface,
iv) What are the applications of Ostwald’s viscometer ?
v) What is scalar triple product ?
Set P
i) Significance of curl.
ii) Reverberation time.
iii) T-S diagram.

1) Explain vector triple product.
2) Write a note on Gyroscope.
3) Write change in entropy of a perfect gas in terms of temperature and
volume.

i) A flat spiral spring has a diameter of 2 cm, 20 turns and mass 50 gm. The
radius of wire of spring is 2 mm. When the mass of 100 gm is attached
to it, it makes vertical oscillations of time period of 0.038 sec. Calculate
the modulus of rigidity of the wire.
ii) Explain Sabine’s experimental work and obtain expression for reverberation
time.

i) Describe Searle’s methods for determining the viscosity of highly viscous
liquid.
ii) Drive the expression of Young’s modulus of spiral spring.
iii) What are the requirements of good acoustics ?

i) An auditorium of volume 1982 m3 has a reverberation time of 0.9 sec
when empty. Find the area of empty hall.
ii) Explain factors affecting on acoustics of building.

i) Explain the method of piezoelectric effect for production of ultrasonic
waves.
ii) What is Gyrostatic pendulum ? Obtain expression for time period.
iii) Define divergence of vector field and give physical significance of divergence
of vector.
___________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.

PHYSICS (Paper – VI)
Electronics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory.

iii) Use of log table or calculator is allowed.
iv) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.

1) RC coupled transistor amplifier circuit is used for ____________
a) Voltage amplification b) Power amplification
c) Current amplification d) All a), b), c)
2) The feedback factor β is equal to __________ in phase shift oscillator.
a) 1/10 b) 1/19
c) 1/25 d) 1/29
3) The open gain of differential amplifier is 50. The input signals are 3.75 V
and 3.55 V. Then output voltage is equal to
a) 5 b) 10
c) 15 d) 20
4) The value of Aβ must be ___________ for Barkhausen criteria.
a) Less than 1 b) Greater than 1
c) 1 d) 2
5) In Hartely oscillator, ___________ is used.
a) Tapped resistor b) Tapped inductor
c) Tapped capacitor d) Both tapped capacitor and inductor
P.T.O.
6) In a Field Effect Transistor, drain current is maximum when VGS is ______

a) Zero b) Negative
c) Positive d) Equal to VP
7) The device which have negative resistance region is ___________
a) Diac b) Transistor
c) Diode d) UJT
8) The intrinsic stand of ratio of UJT is equal to ___________
a) RB1/(RB1 + RB2) b) (RB1 + RB2)/RB1
c) RB1 + RB2 d) (RB1 + RB2)/RB2
9) A logic circuit that adds 2 binary digits at a time is ____________
a) Flip-Flop b) Gate
c) Half adder d) Full adder
10) In R-S flip-flop, if R = 0 and S = 0 then output will be ___________
a) Zero b) One
c) Complement of the last state d) Last state
11) Inner wall of the Cathode Ray Tube is coated with ___________ material.
a) Zinc chloride b) Phosphor
c) Fluorescent d) All a), b) and c)
12) A Cathode Ray Oscilloscope is used to measure ___________
a) Frequency b) Voltage
c) Phase d) All a), b) and c)
13) If voltage supply provide 102V unloaded and 96V at full load, then % voltage
regulation is ___________
a) 0.625% b) 6.25%
c) 62.5% d) 63%
14) IC 7915 is a ___________ volt regulator.
a) – 5 b) + 5
c) – 15 d) + 15
Set P

1) Define the term feedback and give its types.
2) Draw the block diagram of CRO.
3) Define drain resistance of FET and write its unit.
4) Draw the logic diagram and give truth table of half adder.
5) What is flip-flop ?

1) What is an oscillator ? State different types of waveforms produces by
the oscillator.
2) Write applications of CRO.
3) The change in output voltage of voltage regulator is 60 μV when input
voltages changed by 3 V. Calculate the value of line regulation for this
regulator.

1) Explain the frequency response curve of an amplifier.
2) Write a note on crystal oscillator.
3) Explain the working of UJT as voltage sweep generator.

1) Define transconductance and for N-channel FET, IDD = 9.5 mA, VP = – 4
V and VGS = – 2V. Calculate the values of ID and gm.
2) Explain how FET works as VVR.

1) Explain the transistor voltage regulator with neat circuit diagram.
2) Describe construction and working of CRT.
3) What is voltage regulation ? A power supply has a load voltage
regulation of 2%. When the no load voltage is 15 V, then find the full
load voltage.
Set P

1) State and prove De Morgan’s first theorem.
2) Compare between normal amplifier and differential amplifier.
1) What are different types of differential amplifiers ? Explain any two types
with neat circuit diagram.
2) What is oscillator ? Describe the working of Colpitt’s oscillator with neat

circuit diagram and give its advantages.
3) Explain the construction and working of J-K flip-flop.
__________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
STatistics (Paper – V)
Continuous Probability Distributions
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

1) If X is a continuous r.v. defined on real line then P ( a < X < b ) is the area
under the curve between
a) (– ∞,a) b) (a, b) c) (a, ∞) d) (∞, b)
 x, 0 < x < 1
2) The distribution function of X is F(x) =  then the pdf of X is
 0, otherwise

1
a) b) x c) 1 d) None of these
2 x x
3) Cumulative distribution function of a continuous r.v. F(x) is a
a) U(0, 1) variate b) U(–1, 1) variate
c) U(1, 2) d) None of these
4) For an exponential distribution with parameter θ
a) variance > mean if θ < 1 b) variance < mean if θ > 1
c) variance = mean if θ = 1 d) all of these
5) If X and Y are i.i.d. random variables and m.g.f. of X is Mx(t) then m.g.f. of
(X – Y) is
2
a) 2 Mx(t) b) 0 c) Mx(t) Mx(–t) d) Mx (t)
6) If the density function of a continuous bivariate r.v.s X and Y is given by
f(x,y) = 3xy ; 0 < x < 1 and 0 < y < 1, then the mean of X is
3 1
a) b) c) 3 d) none of these
4 2
P.T.O.
7) In usual notations E(X|Y = y) is called the

a) regression line of X on Y b) regression line of Yon X
c) corr( X ,Y) d) none of these
8) A random variable X ~ exp(mean = 6) then P[X > 9 | X > 3 ] =
a) e b) 1/e c) 3e d) 9e
9) If X~U(0,1) then F(x) =
a) x b) 1 – x c) x – 1 d) None of these
10) Let X ~ exp(θ), then c.d.f. of X is
a) 1 – e–xθ b) e–xθ c) 1 + e–xθ d) None of these
11) If X ~ U(a, b) then µ3 =
a) 0 b) 1 c) (a + b)/2 d) None of these
12) If Mx(t) is a m.g.f. of X then M(x–5)(t) =
a) e–5t Mx(t) b) Mx(t) c) e5t Mx(t) d) Mx(t) – e5t
13) If X is a continuous r.v. then P( X ≤ Q3) r. v. then
3 1
a) b) c) 1 d) 1
4 4 2
 1
14) lf X is a continuous r.v. then reciprocal of E   gives
 x
a) arithmetic mean b) median
c) harmonic mean d) none of these
2. A) Attempt any four (two marks each) : 8
1) Define cumulant generating function of a continuous random variable.
2) Define c.d.f. of a continuous random variable.
3) lf a r.v. X has p.d.f. f(x) = 2x ; 1 < x < 3
= 0 ; otherwise
find mean of X.
4) Define conditional distribution of X given Y = y.
5) Define independence of two continuous random variables.
B) Attempt any two. (three marks each) : 6

1) Define expectation of a function of a continuous bivariate random variable.
2) Prove that E(X – Y) = E(X) – E(Y).
3) Explain how to find mode of a continuous random variable.
Set P
3. A) Attempt any two (four marks each) : 8

1) If X is a continuous r.v. then obtain distribution of its c.d.f. F(x).
2) Define an exponential distribution with scale and location parameters.
3) lf (X, Y) is a continuous bivariate r.v. then prove that Mx+y(t) = Mx(t) My(t)
B) Attempt any one (six marks each) : 6

1) Verify whether the function given below is a p.d.f. of a continuous r.v.X
f(x) = 1 – |1 – X| ; 0 ≤ x ≤ 2
3
2) Suppose the joint p.d.f. of X and Y is f(x, y) = y 2 ;0 ≤ x ≤ 2, 0 ≤ y ≤ 1
find P (X ≤ Y ). 2
4. A) Attempt any two (five marks each) : 10

1) Define A.M., H.M. and median of a continuous random variable.
2) lf (X, Y) is a continuous bivariate r.v. then prove that E[E(X I Y = y] = E(X).
3) State and prove lack of memory property of an exponential distribution
with parameter θ.
B) Attempt any one (four marks each) : 4

1) Given joint p.d.f. of (X,Y),
f(x,y) = 8 xy , 0 ≤ x ≤ y ≤ 1, find the marginal p.d.f. of X.
2) Find the mean and variance of U(0, 1) variate .
5. Attempt any two (seven marks each) : 14

1) Obtain m.g.f. of an exponential distribution with parameter θ and hence find
its mean and variance.
2) The joint p.d.f. of two dimensional continuous r.v.( X,Y) is
f(x, y) = x + y ; 0 ≤ x, y ≤ 1
=0 ; elsewhere
find means and variances of X and Y.

1
3) For the given p.d.f. f(x) = ; − a ≤ x ≤ a determine the value of a such that
2a
P(|X| < 1) = P(|X| ≥ 1).
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
statistics (Paper – VI)
Discrete Probability Distributions and Statistical Methods
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) All questions are compuslory.

1) The probability mass function of r.v. at point n is
6.9n e −6.9
P(n) = n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...........
n!
What is the mean of r.v. ?
A) less than 6.9 B) exactly 6.9
C) at least 7.0 but less than 7.1 D) at least 7.1 but less than 7.2
2) If X~P(4) and Y~P(3) and are independent r.v.s then E(X/X+Y=7) is
A) 2 B) 4 C) 3/7 D) 4/7
3) Let X1~P(λ1), X2~P(λ2) and X1, X2 are independent. Define U = X1 + X2
and V = X1 – X2 then which of the following is true ?
A) U~P(λ1 + λ2), V ~ P(λ1 – λ2) and U, V are independent
B) U~P(λ1 + λ2), V ~ P(λ1 – λ2) and U, V are not independent
C) U~P(λ1 + λ2)
D) V~P(λ1 – λ2)
4) If X ~ Geo(0.5), then the variance of waiting time distribution is
A) 2 B) 1 C) 0.25 D) 0.5
5) If X is a geometric r.v. then P  X ≥ 8 x ≥ 3  is equal to
A) P[X ≥ 8] B) P[X ≥ 5]
C) P[X ≥ 8]/ P[X ≥ 3] D) P[X ≥ 3]
6) If X follows negative binomial distribution with parameter k and p, then
A) Mean > variance B) Mean = variance
C) Mean = 2 variance D) Mean < variance
P.T.O.
7) If X ~ NB (k, p) such that E(X) = 15 and V(X) = 60, then
A) k = 5, p = 3 B) k = 5, p = 1
4 4
1 1
C) k = 15, p = D) k = 3, p =
2 5
8) Let (X1, X2, X3, X4) be a random vector follows multinomial distribution with
usual notations, then COV(X2, X3) is
A) 4P2P3 B) P2(1 – P3)
C) –nP2P3 D) 4P1P2P3P4
9) If b12.3 and b21.3 are two partial regression coefficients, then they are
A) opposite signs B) same signs
C) either same or opposite signs D) nothing can be said
10) The order of residual ΣX2.13 is
A) One B) Two
C) Three D) Four
11) The necessary and sufficient condition for the three planes X1 on X2 and X3;
X2 on X1 and X3 and X3 on X1 and X2 are coincident if
A) r12 + r13 + r23 – 2r12r13r23 = 1
B) r12
2
+ r13
2
+ r23
2
– 2r12r13r23 = 0
C) r12
2
+ r13
2
+ r23
2
– 2r12r13r23 = 1
D) r12 + r13 + r23 – 2r12r13r23 = 0
12) If R1.23 = 1, then R2.13 is equal to
A) 0 B) 0 to 1
C) 1 D) None of these
13) If V(X1.23) = 0, then
A) R1.23 = 1 B) R1.23 = 0
C) R1.23 = 0.5 D) R1.23 cannot be determined
14) The partial correlation coefficient r13.2 is called
A) first order partial correlation
B) zero order partial correlation
C) second order partial correlation
D) none of these
Set P
1) If X follows Poisson Distribution with parameter λ, such that

P(X = 1) = 2P(X = 2). Find the probability mass function of X.
2) Find distribution function of Geometric Distribution.
3) Find mean of Negative Binomial Distribution.
4) State the equation of plane of regression of X1on X2 and X3.
5) State the relation of r13.2 with b13.2 and b31.2.
B) Attempt the following (any two) : 6

(1 − ρ) (1 + 2ρ)
1) If r12 = r13 = r23 = ρ, then prove that 1 – R1.23
2
= .
1+ ρ
2) Let X be a Poisson variate with parameter λ, then prove that

µ2I = λ2 + λ.
3) State and prove recurrence relation for probabilities of geometric binomial

distribution.
1) Let X is a Poisson variate, such that P(X = 2) = 9P(X = 4) + 90P(X = 6).

Find the value of λ and P(X ≤ 2).
2) Derive the expression for the variance of the residual X1.23.
3) Obtain the moment generating function of multinomial distribution.
1) Obtain the probability generating function of Geometric distribution and

hence find its mean and variance.
2) Explain the concept of partial correlation. If simple correlation coefficients

are equal, show that partial correlation coefficients are also equal.
Set P
1) Under certain conditions to be stated. Show that Poisson distribution is

a limiting case of Binomial Distribution.
2) If Z1 = X1 + X2, Z2 = X2 + X3, Z3 = X3 + X1 where X1, X2, X3 are uncorrelated

variables each of which has zero mean and unit variance. Obtain partial
correlation coefficient between Z1 on Z2 with respect to Z3.
3) State the properties of residual and verify any one of them.
1) If r12 = ρ3, r13 = ρ2, r23 = ρ. Find R1.23.
2) Define the partial regression coefficients b13.2, b21.3.
1) Obtain the first three central moments of Poisson distribution.
2) If X and Y are identically distributed Negative Binomial variables. Examine

whether
i) X + Y is a Negative Binomial variable
ii) X – Y is a Negative Binomial variable
it is given that X and Y are independent.
3) Obtain multiple correlation coefficient of X1 on X2 and X3 in terms of simple

correlation coefficients.
_____________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
Mathematics (Paper – V)
Differential Calculus
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Choose and write correct answer from given four alternatives. 14

1) Pedal equation of the curve r = ae θcosα
is
a) P = rsinα b) P = rcosα c) P = rsin2α d) None of these
2) Polar subtangent for the curve r = aθ is
a r2
a) a b) 2 c) d) None of these
r a
3) Angle of intersection of curves r = a cosθ and 2r = a is
π π π
a) b) c) d) None of these
3 2 4
4) The radius of curvature of point S = 8asin Ψ at Ψ = 0 is
a) 4 b) 8 c) 8a d) None of these
5) Radius of curvature y = x2 at the point ( 2 , 2) is
2
a) b) 27 c) 2 d) None of these
27 2
6) The intrinsic formula for radius of curvature is
dy ds 1 ds
a) ρ = b) ρ = c) ρ = s dψ d) None of these
dx dψ
ds
7) For parametric equation x = f(t), y = f(t) then =
2 2
dt
 dx   dy   dx 
2
 dy 
2

a)  dt  +   b)   +  
 dt   dt   dt 
 dx   dy 
c)   +   d) None of these
 dt   dt 
∂(u, v)
8) If u = x2 – y2 and v = xy then =
∂(x, y)
a) 2(x2 + y2) b) (x2 + y2) c) x2 + y2 d) None of these
P.T.O.
9) If u, v, w are function of x, y, z then Jacobian of u, v, w with respect to x, y, z

is a determinant of order
10) If u1, u2, . . . , un are functions of x1, x2, x3, . . . ,xn then they are dependent
functions if
a) J(u1, u2, . . ., un) = 0 b) J(u1, u2, . . . ,un) = 1
c) J(x1, x2, . . ., xn) = 0 d) None of these
∂(x, y)
11) If x = rcosθ, y = rsinθ then =
∂(r, θ)
a) X b) Y c) r d) None of these
12) A function f(x, y) is minimum at point (a, b) if
a) AC – B2 < 0 and A > 0 b) AC – B2 > 0 and A > 0
c) AC – B2 > 0 and A < 0 d) None of these
13) The maximum value of sinx + cosx is
log x
14) The maximum value of is
x
1
a) e b) c) 0 d) None of these
e
2. A) Attempt any four : 8
1) Show that the subnormal at any point of a y2 = 4ax is constant length.
2) Define radius of curvature.
ds
3) Find for curve r = a ( 1 + cosθ).
dθ ∂(x, y)
4) If x = eu cosv and y = eu sinv find .
∂(u, v)
5) Find minimum and maximum value of f(x) = 8x5 – 15x4 + 10x2.
B) Attempt any two : 6

1) Find equation of tangent and normal at (a, a) to the curve x2y3 = a5.
r  d∅ 
2) Show that for any curve = sin ∅  1 +  where ρ is radius of
ρ dθ 
curvature.
x2x3 xx xx ∂(u1, u2 , u3 )
3) If u1 = , u2 = 1 3 , u3 = 1 2 then prove that = 4 .
x1 x2 x3 ∂(x1, x 2 , x 2 )
Set P
1) Show that the function u = x + y – z, v = x – y + z and w = x + y + z – 2yz
2 2 2
are dependent to each other also find relation between them.

2 Polar subnormal
2) Show that for the curve r = aebθ ∝ θ2 .
Polar subtangent
3) Obtain an expression for radius of curvature at any point on the curve
y = f(x).
B) Attempt any one : 6

1) Obtain an expression for radius of curvature at any point on the curve
r= f(θ).
2) A rectangular box open at the top is to have a volume of 32 cubic feet.
What must be the dimension so that the total surface is minimum.

1) Find radius of curvature for the curve x = 3 + 4 cost and y = 4 + 3 sint
at (3, 7).
2) If u, v, w be function of three variables x, y, z. If J be the Jacobian of
u, v, w with respect to x, y, z and J′ is jacobian of x, y, z with respect
to u, v, w then show that J J′ = 1.
3) Explain Lagrange’s method of undetermined multipliers to determine
extreme values of u = f(x, y) subject to condition ∅ (x, y) = 0.
B) Attempt any one : 4

1) Find polar subtangent and subnormal for l/r = 1 + ecosθ.
2) Find the radius of curvature at any point on the curve y = c cosh (x/c).
5. Attempt any two : 14

dS dS dS
,
1) For the cycloid x = a(1 – cost) and y = a(t + sin t) find , .
dt dx dy
2) Determine the points where the function x3 + y3 – 3axy has maximum or
minimum value.
3) If u, v, w are implicit function of x, y, z
f1 (u, v, w, x, y, z) = 0, f2(u, v, w, x, y, z) = 0, f3(u, v, w, x, y, z) = 0 then show
 ∂(f1, f2 , f3 ) 
∂(u, v, w)  ∂(x, y, z) 
that = ( −1)3  .
∂(x, y, z)  ∂(f1, f2 , f3 ) 
 ∂(u, v, w) 
______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
mathematics (Paper – VI)
Real Analysis
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative for each of the following : 14

1) Which of the following is not an equivalence relation ?
a) Congruent of a triangle b) Parallel lines
c) Perpendicular lines d) None of these
2) Which is complete ordered field ?
a) N b) R c) I d) Q
3) Let a and b be two positive real numbers and ∃ n > 0 such that na > b. This
property is known as _________ property.
a) Peano’s b) Dedekind
c) Archimedian d) None of these
4) A function is said to be one-one if
a) x1 = x2 ⇒ f(x1) = f(x2) b) f(x1) = f(x2) ⇒ x1 = x2
c) f(x1) ≠ f(x2) ⇒ x1 ≠ x2 d) None of these
 −1 1 −1 1 
5) The sequence 1, , , , ,... is
 2 3 4 5 
a) Convergent b) Divergent
c) Oscillatory d) None of these
6) (I) Every bounded sequence is Cauchy.
(II) Every Cauchy sequence is bounded.
a) Only (I) is true b) Only (II) is true
c) Both are true d) Both are false
P.T.O.
7) The sequence {xn} is convergent if and only if
a) – 1 < x < 1 b) x < – 1
c) x > 1 d) none of these
8) If a sequence {Sn} is bounded above but not below then
a) lim Sn = – ∞ b) lim Sn = ∞
c) lim Sn = ∞ d) none of these
n
 n + 1
9) lim   lies between
n→∞  n 
a) 0 and 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
10) lim
n→∞
inferior Sn = – ∞ if and only if {Sn} is
a) not bounded above b) not bounded below
c) bounded d) none of these
11) The series 1 + r + r2 + r3 + ... is oscillatory if
a) r < 1 b) r > 1 c) r = 1 d) r = – 1
1
12) The series ∑n p is convergent if
a) p < 1 b) p > 1 c) p = 1 d) p ≤ 1
a n +1
13) If ∑a n is positive term series such that lim
n→∞ a
= L, then the series diverges if
n
a) L = 1 b) L < 1 c) L > 1 d) None of these

3
−n 2
 1
14) lim 1+ =
n→∞ 
 
n
1 3 1
a) e b) c) e
2
d)
e e3
1 ∞
1) By using Pringsheim’s theorem test the convergence of ∑ 2 .
n=1 n
2) State the Raabe’s test for convergence of positive term series ∑ an .

3) Define bounded above and bounded below sequences.
4) Show that the sequence always converges to unique limit.
5) For all real numbers x and y show that, |x + y| ≤ |x| +|y|.
Set P

1) If φ is any empty set then show that f(φ) = φ.
 5 + 3 n 
2) Show that   is converges to 3.
 n 
3) Test the convergence of ∑ sin 2nx .
n

1) Prove that for f : R → R defined by f(x) = 2x – 3 is well defined, one-one
and onto function for all x ∈ R.
 3n − 5 
2) Show that the sequence   is
 2n + 3 
a) Monotonic increasing
b) Bounded
3
c) Tends to limit .
2
3) State and prove Cauchy’s general principle of convergence for the infinite
series.

1) Show that the Raabe’s test is stronger than the D’ Alembert’s ratio test
3 3 .6 3 .6 .9
by considering the series + + + ...
7 7.10 7.10.13
2) State and prove Bolzano Weierstrass theorem for a sequence.

1) If A and B are two sets in M then show that f –1(A∪B) = f –1(A) ∪ f –1(B).
2) State and prove the sandwich theorem.
(n + 1)n n
3) By using Logarithmic test discuss the convergence of ∑ n! x , for
x > 0.

1) Discuss the convergence of the sequence 0.7, 0.77, 0.777, ...
∞
1
2) Show that the series ∑ is divergent.
n=1 n
Set P
1) State and prove Cauchy’s root test for convergence of infinite series.
n
2) Prove that the sequence {Sn} where Sn =  1 + 1 is convergent and
n  n
 1
limit  1 +  lies between 2 and 3.
n→∞  n
3) Show that every monotonic increasing sequence which is bounded above
converges to its least upper bound and hence prove that the sequence {Sn}
1 1 1
where Sn = 1 + + + + ... is convergent.
1! 2 ! 3 !
––––––––––––––––
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
electronics (Paper – V)
Electronics Circuits
Day and Date : Wednesday, 12-12-2018onday, 15-5-2017 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.10.3

3) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
5) Time allotted for Question – 1 is first 30 minutes only.
6) Answers to Question – should be written on Page – 3 of
the answer book. to 12.30 p.m.

i) In a half-wave rectifier, if the input frequency is 50 Hz then the output
frequency will be
a) 25 Hz b) 50 Hz c) 75 Hz d) 100 Hz
ii) In a Zener regulator with load, the series resistor carries a current of 120 mA and
the load current is 45 mA, then the Zener current will be
a) 45 mA b) 120 mA c) 165 mA d) 75 mA
iii) In transistor amplifier, the shift in DC operating point is mainly contributed
due to
a) Current gain β b) Base current IB
c) Reverse saturation current ICBO d) All of these
iv) _____________ the value of Stability Factor better is the biasing method.
a) larger
b) smaller
c) stability factor and biasing method are not related
d) none of these
P.T.O.
v) Whenever a transistor is used as an amplifier it is always operated in

a) Cut-off region b) Saturation region
c) Active region d) All of these
vi) Which one of these configurations is also called Emitter-Follower ?
a) Common-Emitter b) Common-Base
c) Common Collector d) Darlington Configuration
vii) The voltage gain of FET CS-Amplifier is given as
a) gm × rd b)  c) ∆VDS d) all of these
∆VGS
viii) To amplify DC or low-frequency signals, _______ multistage amplifier is
used.
a) RC-coupled b) Transformer-coupled
c) Direct-coupled d) All of these
ix) The advantage of Class – B push-pull amplifier is
a) No-signal collector current is zero
b) Theoretical power efficiency is 78.5%
c) Power efficiency is greater than Class – A
d) All of these
x) If the voltage gain of an amplifier decreases due to feedback, its bandwidth
will
a) Decrease b) Increase
c) Remain constant d) Become ∞
xi) Common-Emitter amplifier without emitter-bypass capacitor is a case of
_______ feedback.
a) Voltage-series b) Voltage-shunt
c) Current-series d) Current-shunt
xii) Output impedance of an amplifier ______ for current-series feedback.
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Doesn’t change d) Becomes zero
Set P
xiii) Obeying the Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillations, if the feedback
factor is 1 then the gain of the amplifier must be
29
1 1
a) b) 29 c) 0.29 d)
29 0.29
xiv) The frequency of oscillation of a Wien-bridge oscillator is given as
1
a) 1 b)
2πRC 2π 6 RC
1 1
c)
2π LC
d)
RC log 1( 1− η )
2. A) Answer the following (any four – 2 marks each): 8
i) Draw the circuit diagram of half-wave rectifier.
ii) Define the stability factor.
iii) Draw the hybrid model of BJT in Common-Emitter configuration.
iv) Give the types of feedback systems.
v) Draw the equivalent diagram of piezoelectric crystal.
B) Answer the following (any two – 3 marks each): 6

i) Compare Class – A, Class – B and Class – C power amplifiers.
ii) Explain Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillations.
iii) Give the need of transistor biasing.
3. A) Answer the following (any two – 4 marks each): 8

i) Explain the effect of negative feedback on the voltage gain of an
amplifier.
ii) Draw the circuit diagram of Pierce Crystal Oscillator and explain.
iii) A basic amplifier has a bandwidth of 100 KHz and voltage gain of 20.
If 2% negative feedback is introduced, what will be the new bandwidth
and voltage gain ?
Set P
B) Answer the following (any one): 6

i) Explain voltage divider bias method and obtain the expression for stability
factor.
ii) Derive the expressions for Ripple factor and efficiency of a Centre-tapped
full wave rectifier.
4. A) Answer the following (any two – 5 marks each): 10

i) Explain Class – B push-pull amplifier.
ii) Analyze current-series feedback circuit for voltage gain.
iii) Give the comparison between CE, CB and CC amplifiers.

i) Calculate the operating frequency of a BJT Phase-shift oscillator for
R = 3 KΩ, C = 10 µF and collector resistor RC = 5 KΩ.
ii) Explain any application of FET CS-amplifier.
5. Answer the following (any two – 7 marks each): 14
i) Discuss the DC and AC analysis of Common Collector amplifier and obtain

the equations for voltage gain and output impedances.
ii) Explain Complementary-Symmetry power amplifier.
iii) Discuss the theory of feedback amplifiers and hence the effect of negative
feedback on output impedance of an amplifier.
______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
Geography (Paper – V)
Biogeography – I
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
2) Draw neat maps and diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Use of map stencil is allowed.
1. Multiple Choice Questions. 14

1) __________ studies the life and interactions of animals with the environment.
A) Zoogeography B) Phytography
C) Soilgeography D) Agricultural geography
2) Bio Geography is a branch of __________ Geography.
A) Physical B) Social C) Human D) Economic
3) During photosynthesis plants convert __________ energy in to chemical
energy.
A) Mineral B) Physical
C) Chemical D) Aquatic
4) An animal that get its energy from plants is a
A) Carnivores B) Omnivores
C) Herbivores D) Decomposers
5) Nitrogen has __________ of the atmosphere by volume.
A) 0.03% B) 29.91% C) 78% D) 87%
6) The term ecosystem was first used by
A) A. G. Tansle B) M. Aaderson
C) G. Tailor D) P. Haget
7) The animals and plants which are constantly reducing their number is known
as __________ species.
A) Endemic B) Extinct C) Explosive D) Endangered
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 62 -2- *SLR-SO62*
8) First Earth summit at __________ was held in 1992.

A) Rio-de-Janeiro B) Johannesburg
C) Kyoto D) Montreal
9) Conservation which takes place at same natural habit is called __________
conservation.
A) Ex situ B) Up situ C) In situ D) Down situ
10) ‘Hot spot’ the term used for a region of rich
A) Atmospheric diversity B) Nonliving diversity
C) Planate diversity D) Biodiversity
11) __________ is the climatic factor influencing the biosphere.
A) Physiography B) Soil
C) Temperature D) Pollution
12) __________ present at the atmosphere is known as Humidity.
A) Sunlight B) Gases
C) Water vapour D) Dust partials
13) Bio geochemical cycle is process of circulation of __________ within the
biosphere.
A) Nutrients B) Minerals C) Elements D) Factor
14) A food web is described as moderate sized __________ having many tropic
levels.
A) Food web B) Food chain
C) Ecosystem D) Biosphere
2. A) Answers the following (any four) : 8
1) Define biogeography.
2) Define the term energy pyramid.
3) What is ecology ?
4) State the main components of Ecosystem.
5) State the climatic factors affecting on plant and animal distribution.
1) Define biodiversity.
2) What is the ecological succession ?
3) What is Nitrogen fixation ?
Set P
*SLR-SO62* -3- SLR-SO – 62
3. A) Answers the following (any two) : 8

1) Explain the importance of biogeography.
2) Describe the importance of climatic factors for plants and animal
distribution.
3) Explain Ecological Pyramid.
B) Answers the following (any one) : 6
1) Draw a diagram of Carbon cycle.
2) State the Branches of biogeography.
4. A) Answers the following (any two) : 10
1) Illustrate Biodiversity in India.
2) Describe the biotic components of an ecosystem.
3) Explain the food chain.
B) Answers the following (any one) : 4
1) Explain the methods of conservation of biodiversity.
2) Describe the nature of biogeography.
5. Answers the following question (any two) : 14

1) Illustrate anthropogenic factor for plants and animal distribution.
2) Explain the importance of biodiversity.
3) Describe the types of Ecosystem.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
Electronics (Paper – VI)
Pulse and Switching Circuits
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.


1) The circuit that introduces a d.c. level into an a.c. input signal is called
a) Integrator b) Differentiator c) Clipper d) Clamper
2) The input of integrating circuit is sine wave then output is
a) cos wave b) square wave
c) regulator wave d) sawtooth wave
3) The average output voltage of positive clipper circuit will always be
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) infinity
4) The transmission error is defined as difference between
a) the input and output divided by the input
b) the output and input divided by the input
c) input and output divided by the output
d) output and input divided by output
5) Difference in slope of the time base signal at the beginning and end of the
sweep is called
a) sweep speed b) slope error c) sweep time d) flyback time
6) If the sweep time of a generated sweep voltage is 10 µsec and the flyback
time is 1 µsec, then the sweep frequency is approximately
a) 100 kHz b) 1.2 MHz c) 1.5 MHz d) 90.90 kHz
P.T.O.
7) _______ multivibrator is one shot multivibrator.
a) Astable b) Monostable c) Bistable d) None of these
8) _________ multivibrator is a free running multivibrator.
9) Astable multivibrator is formed by using
a) one Nand gate b) two nand gate
c) three nand gate d) four nand gate
10) ________ trigger inputs are available in IC 74121.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
11) In sequential timer IC 555 is operated in __________ mode.
12) IC 555 Pin no. 3 is __________ terminal.
a) Control b) Reset c) Trigger d) Output
13) If Ton = 1 msec., Toff = 3 msec., then the duty cycle of an astable multivibrator
will be
a) 10% b) 25% c) 33% d) 50%
14) The output of Schmitt trigger for any type of input waveform is __________
wave.
a) Square b) Triangular c) Sine d) Sawtooth
2. A) Answer any four from the following (2 marks each) : 8

1) What is non linear wave shaping circuit ? Give one example.
2) Define turn on and turn off time of a switching transistor.
3) Find the gate width of monostable multivibrator using BJT, the timing
components are 47 kΩ and 0.01 µF.
4) Mention various types of multivibrator.
5) List the application of IC 555 timer.
B) Write notes on any two from the following (3 marks each) : 6
1) Integrating circuit.
2) General features of time base signal.
3) Transistor as a switch.
Set P
3. A) Answer any two from the following (4 marks each) : 8
1) Explain Miller integrator with suitable circuit digram.
2) Explain RC differentiator.
3) An IC-555 timer connected in astable mode of operation, for which
RA = 6.8 kΩ, RB = 3.3 kΩ, C = 0.1µF. Calculate output frequency and duty
cycle of the circuit.
B) Answer any one from the following (6 marks each) : 6
1) Explain operation of Schmitt trigger using BJT.
2) Explain working of monostable multivibrator using IC 74121.
4. A) Answer any two from the following (5 marks each) : 10

1) Give the operation of IC 555 timer as astable multivibrator and derive the
expression of the output frequency.
2) Draw the circuit of collector coupled bistable multivibrator and explain in
brief.
3) What is clipper ? Describe : (i) Negative clipper and (ii) Biased clipper.
B) Answer any one from the following (4 marks each) : 4
1) Explain the concept of RC time base circuit.
2) Explain the various methods of triggering of monostable multivibrator.
5. Answer any two from the following (7 marks each) : 14
1) Derive an expression of sweep frequency of UJT relaxation oscillator by

explaining its working. Draw the necessary waveforms.
2) Explain working of collector coupled monostable multivibrator using suitable

circuit diagram and waveforms. Obtain an expression for gate width.
3) Explain functional block diagram of IC 555. Explain how IC 555 timer can
be used as voltage controlled oscillator.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

Geography (Paper – VI)
Soil Science
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) Soil geography is the sub-branch of __________ geography.
A) Human B) Historical
C) Settlement D) Physical
2) The organic and inorganic materials on the surface of the earth that provides
the medium for plant growth is known as ____________
A) Weathering B) Soil
C) Erosion D) Rock
3) ___________ is the saturated state of water in the soil that can drain freely
due to the force of gravity.
A) Field capacity B) Wilting point
C) Water holding capacity D) Soil degradation
4) Soils are formed above the parent rock in due course of __________
A) Tide B) Wind C) Time D) Rain
5) A typical soil horizon is developed in ___________ climate.
A) Wet B) Moist C) Dry D) Semi arid
6) Soil depth depends upon ___________
A) Slope of the land B) Bacterial activities
C) Temperature of the area D) Age of the soil
P.T.O.
7) Soils with the finest texture are called __________ soils.

A) Clay B) Sand C) Silt D) None of these
8) ___________ soils are suitable for plantation of tea and coffee.
A) Black B) Red C) Alluvial D) Mountain
9) ____________ soil is also known as regur soil.
A) Black B) Red C) Alluvial D) Mountain
10) Excess use of water in agriculture is responsible for ___________
A) Soil conservation B) Soil formation
C) Soil degradation D) Forestry
11) Universal soil loss equation is used to describe ____________ process.
A) Soil erosion B) Soil formation
C) Soil conservation D) Soil classification
12) The prevention of soil from erosion is known as ____________
A) Soil degradation B) Soil conservation
C) Soil formation D) Soil classification
13) ____________ is one of the methods of soil conservation.
A) Grazing B) Forestry
C) Lumbering D) Counter band
14) Shift cultivation is responsible for ____________
A) Soil conservation B) Soil formation
C) Soil degradation D) Forestry

1) What is soil ?
2) What is wilting point ?
3) Any three factors of soil formation.
4) Define soil erosion.
5) Any three characteristics of red soil.
B) Write a note (any two) : 6
1) State the names of crops in alluvial soil.
2) Give three methods of soil conservation.
3) What is leveling of soil ?
Set P

1) Explain the effect of biotic factor on soil formation.
2) Explain the role of check dam in soil conservation.
3) Describe the characteristics of alluvial soil.
B) Answer the following questions (any one) : 6
1) Classification of soil on the basis of texture.
2) Describe the region of the mountain soil in India.

1) Explain the field capacity of soil.
2) Explain the effect of climatic factor on soil formation.
3) Discuss the classification of soil on the basis of chemical.
1) Causes of soil degradation.
2) Describe the water holding capacity of soil.

1) Explain soil as a resource.
2) Discuss the major characteristics of black soil.
3) Explain the consequences of soil erosion.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. (Computer Science) (Semester – III) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
Paper – V : OOP using C++
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct alternatives : 14

1) When the data of a class to be shared commonly among multiple objects
of a class, then the data should make __________
a) inline b) static c) constant d) all of these
2) A derived class function can access __________ type of data of its base
class.
a) private b) public
c) protected d) both a) and b)
3) Member functions inside a class are by default __________
a) inline b) non-inline c) static d) virtual
4) The ambiguity problem in multipath inheritance is also called as
__________ problem.
a) diamond shape b) oval
c) square d) none of these
5) The smallest individual part of C++ program is known as __________
a) object b) token c) class d) variable
6) Streams that will be performing both input and output operations must be
declared as class __________
a) iostream b) stdstream
c) fstream d) none of these
7) Which of the following operator is used to release the dynamically
allocated memory in C++ ?
a) cast b) new c) free d) delete
P.T.O.
8) Run time polymorphism can be achieved with __________

a) method overloading b) virtual function
c) container class d) both a) and b)
9) Default return type of functions in CPP is __________
a) int b) void c) char d) long
10) During a class inheritance in CPP, if the visibility mode or mode of derivation
is not provided, then by default visibility mode is __________
a) private b) protected c) public d) friend
11) do-while is __________ loop.
a) exit controlled b) entry controlled
c) simple d) none of these
12) Which operator can not be overloaded ?
a) + b) – c) * d) : :
13) What is size of void in bytes ?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) 4
14) C++ is superset of which language ?
a) BASIC b) PASCAL c) VB d) C language

1) Explain data encapsulation with block diagram.
2) Explain explicit type conversion with short example.
3) List out characteristics of destructor.
4) Define polymorphism and list out types of inheritance.
5) State benefits of OOP.

1) Reference variable
2) Scope resolution operator
3) File opening methods.
Set P
*SLRSO65* 3- SLR-SO – 65

1) Explain structure of C++ program with neat diagram.
2) What is inline function ? Write any short program of inline function.
3) Write a C++ program to count and print vowels present in given string.

1) What is friend function ? Write characteristics of friend function.
2) Define constructor. Explain default constructor with any short program.

1) Explain the concept function with default argument and write any
program of it.
2) Explain new and delete memory management operators with syntax only.
3) Write any C++ program to display given number is palindrome or not.

1) What is method overloading ? Write any short program to demonstrate
method overloading.
2) Write a C++ program to write given string into a file.

1) Write a C++ program to print odd numbers between 1 to 20 in reverse
manner.
2) Explain basic concepts of object oriented programming.
3) What is inheritance ? Explain hierarchical inheritance with program.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Computer Science) – II (Semester – III) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
software engineering (Paper – Vi)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) A figures to the right place indicates full marks.
1) Prototyping aims at
a) End user understanding and approval
b) Program logic
c) Planning of dataflow organization
d) None of these
2) If the effect in one module cause defect in another module then it is called as
a) Low coupling b) Low cohesion
c) Ripple effect d) Triple effect
3) The CASE tools are used for

a) System requirement analysis b) System designing
c) Input output design d) None of these
4) Which one of the following are data validation checks ?

a) Length check b) Type check
c) Range check d) All of the above
5) Risk analysis of a project is done at

a) System analysis phase b) Feasibility study
c) Implementation phase d) Maintenance phase
6) Modules X and Y operate on the same input and output data, then the
cohesion is
a) Sequential b) Communicational
c) Procedural d) Logical
P.T.O.
7) Changes made to the system to reduce the future system failure chances
is called
a) Preventive maintenance b) Adaptive maintenance
c) Corrective maintenance d) Perfective maintenance
8) The testing that focuses on the variables is called

a) Black box testing b) White box testing
c) Data variable testing d) Data flow testing
9) Which phase is not available in software life cycle ?

a) Coding b) Testing
c) Maintenance d) Abstraction
10) The spiral model of software development

a) Ends with the delivery of the software product
b) Is more chaotic than the incremental model
c) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration
d) All of the above
11) Software feasibility is based on which of the following ?

a) Business and marketing concerns
b) Cope, constraints, market
c) Technology, finance, time, resources
d) Technical prowess of the developers
12) ________ is sometimes referred as ‘Bubble Diagram’.

a) Flowchart b) ER-Diagram
c) Decision table d) DFD
13) Which of the following coupling uses the same global data ?
a) Control coupling b) Stamp coupling
c) Data coupling d) Content coupling
14) “Black” refers in the black box testing means

a) I-O is hidden b) Design is hidden
c) User is hidden d) All of these
Set P
1) Write benefits of case tool.
2) What is System analysis ?
3) What is deterministic and probabilistic system ?
4) What is meant by ‘Requirement Specification’ ?
5) Write the purpose of DFD.

1) Elements of the system.
2) System maintenance.
3) Feasibility study.

1) Explain V shape model.
2) What is flowchart ? State the principles of flowcharting.
3) Differentiate between logical DFD and physical DFD.

1) What is normalization ? Explain up to 3NF.
2) What is testing ? Explain white box testing techniques.

1) What is decision table ? State the merits and demerits of decision
tables.
2) Define the term entity, attribute and relationship with example.
3) What is data dictionary ? Explain the various contents of DD.

1) Draw an HIPO chart for payroll system.
2) Draw an ER-diagram for College Admission System.

1) Draw a CLD and first level DFD for Library System.
2) Explain different methods that convert old system to new system.
3) Explain top-down incremental implementation. State its advantages and
disadvantages.
––––––––––––––––
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Biochemistry (Paper – I)
Biomolecules
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : ) All questions are compulsory.

1
2) Write chemical reactions where involved.
3) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
4) Draw labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the following : 14
i) Total genetic information present in a cell is called
a) codon b) genome c) cistron d) operon
ii) _________ is water soluble vitamin.
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin B1 d) Vitamin E
iii) __________ amino acid contains sulphur in its structure.
a) Glycine b) Valine c) Proline d) Methionine
iv) __________ is an example of ketotriose.
a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Lactose d) Dihydroxyacetone
v) Waxes are esters of long chain fatty acids with long chain _______
alcohols.
a) monohydric b) dihydric c) trihydric d) tetrahydric
vi) Galactose is a component of
a) sucrose b) cellulose c) lactose d) amylose
vii) _________ lipids act as biological amphiphytes.
a) Terpenoid b) Cholesterol c) Waxes d) Phospho
viii) Thiamine deficiency causes
a) Pellagra b) Night blindness
c) Beriberi d) Burning feet
P.T.O.
ix) _________ has α1 → 6 bond linking two monosaccharides.
a) Sucrose b) Maltose c) Isomaltose d) Lactose
x) _________ is an aromatic amino acid.
a) Glutamic b) Glycine c) Tyrosine d) Methionine
xi) Vitamin B6 is also called as
a) Riboflavin b) Thiamine c) Pyridoxine d) Niacin
xii) Amylopectin is present in
a) cellulose b) milk c) starch d) glycogen
xiii) Carotenes belong to a class of
a) waxes b) triglycerides c) terpenes d) steroids
xiv) NAD+ coenzyme is formed from
a) retinol b) niacin
c) pantothemic acid d) pyridoxine

i) Why sucrose is a non reducing sugar ?
ii) What is the products formed on hydrolysis of DNA ?
iii) Explain phosphoproteins and lipoproteins.
iv) What are the symptoms of pellagra ?
v) What are differences between oil and fats ?
i) Write note on t-RNA.
ii) State the differences between acidic and basic amino acids.
iii) How and why the deficiency of retinol causes infections of the epithelial
tissue ?

i) Explain one reaction involving thiamine pyrophosphate.
ii) Describe the secondary structure of protein.
iii) Define lipids and classify with two examples.
i) Write an account of derived protein.
ii) With structural formula describe starch.
Set P

i) How does deficiency of Vitamin A affects the process of vision ?
ii) Explain components of nucleic acids.
iii) Write and explain the reaction of reduction of monosaccharide.
i) What are fatty acids and triglycerides ?
ii) Explain cholesterol and terpenes.

i) Explain representation of primary structure of polynucleotide.
ii) What are disaccharides ? Illustrate any three disaccharides with their
structural formulae.
iii) Explain the structure of myoglobin and haemoglobin.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
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B.Sc. II (Semester – III) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
plant protection (paper – I)
Major Crops and Methods of Integrated Plant Protection
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
ii) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing correct answer from the given alternatives. 14
1) _______ is the native place of wheat.
a) Himalaya b) Hindukush mountain
c) Sahyadri mountain d) Nilgiri
2) BT cotton is _______ variety.
a) selection b) hybrid c) transgenic d) pure line
3) Sunflower crop is severely attacked by
a) Heliothis sps. b) Pyrilla
c) Stem borer d) Cut worms
4) Tur is _______ season crop.
a) Rabi b) Kharif c) Summer d) All
5) Norman V. Borlaugh received nobel prize for work on _____ crop.
a) wheat b) rice c) jowar d) maize
6) The ________ grains are consumed on large scale in the world.
a) jowar b) maize c) rice d) wheat
7) The birds are scared away by using
a) file b) chain c) wire rope d) sward
8) The jowar variety M-35-1 is produced at _____ research centre.
a) IAri New Delhi b) Parbhani
c) Mohol d) Solapur
P.T.O.
9) Cicer arietinum is the scientific name of

a) Gram b) Wheat c) Rice d) Tur
10) Brinjal is also called as
a) strawberry b) gooseberry
c) egg plant d) 4 o’clock plant
11) ________ is floriculture crop.
a) Mango b) cabbage
c) Gerbera d) Grape
12) Crop hygiene is _______ method of plant protection.
a) Cultural b) Mechanical c) Physical d) Chemical
13) Rhodenticides are used for the management of
a) Nematodes b) Rats
c) Snails d) Insects
14) Use of light traps is _________ method of plant protection.
a) physical b) cultural
c) mechanical d) biological

i) State the morphology of sunflower.
ii) Name any two fungicides.
iii) Write the applications of light traps.
iv) Write the uses of Gerbera.
v) Name any two varities of sugarcane.
i) Economic importance of grapes.
ii) Heat and solarization.
iii) Fertilizer applications for sugarcane.

i) Explain harvesting and threshing of sunflower.
ii) Comment on yield and economic importance of jowar.
iii) State the uses of bactericides with examples.
Set P
i) Explain the need of plant quarantine in India.
ii) Comment on seed rate, yield and economic importance of groundnut.

i) Explain cultural methods of plant protection.
ii) Describe the cultivation of rose with respect to soil types, yield and
economic importance.
iii) Describe any two insecticides studied by you.
b) Answer the following (any one). 4

i) Write the uses of sticky bands and tin-bands in plant protection.
ii) Write botanical name and economic importance of tur crop.
5. Answer the following (any two). 14

i) Describe the role of organic farming in agriculture.
ii) Describe the cultivation of cotton with respect to soil types, seed rate and
economic importance.
iii) Describe the biological control of insect pests and diseases in plant
protection.
_______________
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No.
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BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper – II)
Biochemical Techniques
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

ii) Write chemical reactions where involved.
iii) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the following. 14
i) In polymerase chain reaction ________ accurately and rapidly changes the
reaction temperature.
a) Electro blotter b) ELISA plate
c) Thermal cycle d) Petriplate
ii) In adsorption on carriers, adsorption is based on
a) hydrogen bonding b) vanderwaal’s attractive forces
c) ionic bonding d) covalent bonding
iii) In SDS-PAGE electrophoretic separation depends on _________ of the
protein molecule.
a) charge b) concentration
c) size d) pH
iv) Sephadex gel is prepared from
a) agarose b) dextran
c) polyacrylamide d) cellulose
v) Entrapment within cross linked polyacrylamide was the ________ technique
of entrapment.
a) first b) second c) third d) fourth
vi) The intensity of the light transmitted through the suspension is less than the
intensity of ___________ light.
a) reflected b) incident
c) scattered d) refracted
P.T.O.
vii) In gel permeation chromatography, the minimum molecular mass excluded
from the gel is called _________ of the gel.
a) void volume b) inner volume
c) elution volume d) exclusion limit
viii) In starch gel electrophoresis _______ is used as a support.
a) gel b) paper
c) solidified starch d) glass plate
ix) In colorimetric analysis, when length of cuvette is constant, the absorbance
changes according to
a) Lambert’s law b) Hooke’s law
c) Beer’s law d) Watson law
x) Indian patent act came into force in the year
a) 1950 b) 1960 c) 1970 d) 1980
xi) Diaz binding method is prepared by treating aromatic amino group with
_______ in acidic medium.
a) nitrate b) nitrile c) nitrite d) nitro
xii) In thin layer chromatography glass is used as
a) an adsorbent b) a stationary phase
c) a support d) a binder
xiii) Hybridoma technology is used for production of _______ on large scale.
a) DNA b) Ethanol
c) Immunoglobulins d) Insulin
xiv) In spectrophotometric measurements generally ________ bulb is used as
a source of radiations.
a) helium b) tungsten
c) mercury d) sodium vapour
2. A) Answer the following. (any four) 8

i) Why does the whole cells can be immobilised ?
ii) Write 2-3 applications of phosphoelectric colorimeter.
iii) Define chromatography. Write the formula for Rf value.
iv) Name the chemicals used for preparation of polyacrylamide gel.
v) What is the use of PCR technique ?
Set P
B) Write notes on (any two) 6
i) Describe the electro blotter used in western blotting.
ii) What are the characteristics of printer used in PCR ?
iii) How are proteins stained after starch gel electrophoresis ?
3. A) Answer the following. (any two) 8

i) What are the limitations of colorimetric measurements ?
ii) Explain immobilisation of enzyme by covalent binding method.
iii) Draw a labelled diagram of spectrophotometer.
B) Answer the following. (any one) 6

i) Which detectors are used in HPLC ? How do they function ?
ii) Write the industrial applications of immobilised enzymes.

i) Explain the enzyme immobilisation by gel entrapment using monomer
precursor.
ii) Discuss about patents and their registration.
iii) State Beer Lambert’s law. Derive an equation for optical density.

i) Explain adsorption on carriers immobilisation.
ii) Draw the labelled flow sheet diagram of HPLC process.
5. Answer the following. (any two) 14

i) What is electrophoresis ? Explain the factors affecting electrophoretic
mobility.
ii) Write in detail procedure and applications of western blotting.
iii) Write the principle, preparation of plate, working and uses of TLC.
_______________
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No.
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Plant Protection (Paper – II)
Crop Diseases and Their Management

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N. B. : i) All questions are compulsory.

ii) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing correct answer from the given

alternatives : (14�1=14)
1) The transfer of pathogen to the host is called _____________
a) Incubation b) Isolation c) Inoculation d) All of these
2) The softening, discolouration and disintegration of succulent plant tissues
indicate _____________
a) Necrosis b) Rust c) Rot d) Witt
3) Little leaf of Brinjal is caused by _____________
a) Virus b) Fungus
c) Phytoplasma d) Bacterium
4) Citrus canker disease occurs on _____________ plant.
a) Watermelon b) Soyabean c) Lemon d) Tomato
5) Dithane Z-78 is used to control _____________
a) Bacterial diseases b) Insect pests
c) Parasitic nematodes d) Fungal diseases
6) Rust of groundnut is a _____________ disease.
a) Viral b) Bacterial c) Fungal d) Mycoplasma
7) The ability of organism to overcome, the effect of a pathogen is called
_____________
a) Incubation b) Inoculation
c) Resistance d) Pathogenicity
P.T.O.
8) Early blight of Tomato is caused by _____________

a) Alternaria alternata b) Puccinia arachidis
c) Sclerospora graminicola d) Phytoplasma
9) powdery mildew is a common and sometimes very serious disease of
_____________
a) Mazie b) Groundnut c) Cucurbits d) Cherry
10) Koch’s postulates are helpful in the identification of _____________
a) Host b) Pathogen
c) Fungicide d) Culture media
11) The relative capacity of pathogen to cause the disease is called _________
a) Hypersensitivity b) Immunity
c) Susceptibility d) Pathogenicity
12) Wilt of tomato is a _____________ disease.
a) Bacterial b) Fungal c) Viral d) Phytoplasma
13) The species of _____________ causes grain smut of Jowar.
a) Puccinia b) Xanthomonas
c) Spacelotheca d) Cercospora
14) The plant diseases are classified on the basis of _____________
a) Symptoms b) Pathogens
c) Transmission of pathogens d) All of these
2. A) Answer the following (any four) : (4�2=8)

i) Define hypersensitivity.
ii) Name any two viral diseases of plants.
iii) What is immunity ?
iv) Name any two seed borne diseases.
v) Define isolation.
B) Write notes on any two : (2�3=6)
i) Symptoms of little leaf of Brinjal.
ii) Host and pathogen.
iii) Control measures for Jowar smut.
Set P
3. A) Answer the following (any two) : (2�4=8)

i) Write the name of pathogen and control measures of soyabean rust.
ii) Write the symptoms and control measures of GSD of sugarcane.
iii) Explain sporadic and epidemic disease.
B) Answer the following (any one) : (1�6=6)
i) Describe the factors affecting the infection.
ii) Describe the disease leaf curl of chilli w.r.t. causal organism, symptoms
and control measures.
4. A) Answer the following (any two) : (2�5=10)

i) Write the symptoms and control measures of citrus canker.
ii) Describe the mode of transmission of pathogen through soil and seed.
iii) Give the symptoms and control measures of rust of groundnut.
B) Answer the following (any one) : (1�4=4)
i) Explain the concept of disease.
ii) Describe the qualitative methods of assessment of diseases in crops.
5. Answer the following (any two) : (2�7=14)

i) Describe the disease downy mildew of grapes w.r.t. causal organism,
symptoms and control measures.
ii) Give the classification of plant diseases on the basis of pathogens.
iii) Describe in brief the principles of plant disease management.
_____________
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Seat
No.
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meteorology
Paper – I : Climatology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite sentences. 14

1) Climatology studies the envelope of the ____________ around the Earth.
(bacteria, gaseous, asteroids, dust particles)
2) Nitrogen occupies __________ % gaseous in the atmosphere.
(21, 38.20, 78, 0.03)
3) The upper limit of troposphere is called as
(stratopause, tropopause, ozonosphere, mesosphere)
4) When two contrasting air masses converging and become parallel to each
other without any ascent of air it is called as ___________ front.
(stationary, occluded, cold, warm)
5) Air masses move from one region to another under the influence of barometric
____________ gradient.
(temperature, wind, humidity, pressure)
6) India receives _____________ rainfall during late winter.
(maximum, less, sum, minimum)
7) The line of equal surface temperature of atmosphere is called as
(isotherm, isohyets, isohaline, isobar)
P.T.O.
8) Air mass concept developed ___________ meteorologist.
(American, British, French, Norwegian)
9) An ______________ is an immense body of air.
(front, air mass, frontolysis, humidity)
10) Cold and dry winter air masses of ________ are strong.
(polar continental, equatorial continental, polar maritime, equatorial
maritime)
11) Atmospheric pressure is mostly measure in
(millibars, yards, millimeters, miles)
12) Tamil Nadu receives rainfall during winter due to
(monsoon, advancing monsoon, seasonal, retreat monsoon)
13) Low pressure is also called
(anticyclone, monsoon, cyclone, none of these)
14) Hurricans exists in
(Bay of Bengal, China, USA, Japan)
2. Write answer for the following questions (any seven) : 14

1) Define Meteorology.
2) What is mean by weather ?
3) Absolute humidity.
4) Physical climatology.
5) Trade winds.
6) Anticyclone.
7) Type of air masses.
8) Primary general circulation.
9) Hurricane.
Set P
3. A) Write answer for the following questions (any two) : 10

a) State the nature and scope of climatology.
b) Explain the element of weather.
c) Describe vertical structure of atmosphere.
B) Describe the composition of the atmosphere. 4
4. A) Write answer for the following questions (any two) : 8

a) Explain general circulation in southern hemisphere.
b) Tropical circulation.
c) Describe the break of monsoon.
B) Explain polar front theory. 6
5. Write answer for the following questions (any two) : 14

a) Give an account of South Western monsoon circulation.
b) Explain the mechanism of Indian monsoon.
c) Describe the pressure belt on the earth.
______________
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Seat
No.

Set P

geochemistry
Introduction to Geochemistry (Paper – I)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 14

1) Sulphur system is ________ component system.
a) one b) two c) three d) four
2) If the co-ordination number of molecule is four, its geometry is ________
a) linear b) tetrahedral
c) octahedral d) triangular
3) Gibb’s phase rule is ________
a) P + F = C + 1 b) P + F = C – 2
c) P + F = C + 2 d) P + F = C – 1
4) In co-valent bonding there is ________ of electrons.
a) transfer b) sharing
c) acceptance d) donation
5) Dispersion of liquid in liquid is called as ________
a) sol b) gel
c) emulsion d) solution
6) Tyndall effect is an __________ property of colloidal solution.
a) optical b) electrical
c) magnetic d) mechanical
P.T.O.
7) The atomic substitution is higher at higher ________
a) pressure b) temperature
c) concentration d) both a) and b)
8) The Stoichiometry of ZnS is ________
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 2 : 3 d) 2 : 1
9) In water system, all areas of phase diagram are ________
a) zero varient b) monovarient
c) bivarient d) trivarient
–
10) In NaCl crystal, each Na+ ion is surrounded by ________ Cl ions.
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
11) The bond in mineral shows ________ character.
a) ionic b) polar
c) covalent d) electropositive
12) ________ has a tendency to attract electrons towards itself.
a) Ionization potential b) Electronegativity
c) Electropositivity d) Valency
13) Sugar solution is an example of ________
a) sol b) gel
c) emulsion d) colloids
14) The number of triple points in water system is ________
a) zero b) two
c) one d) three

1) State and explain Gibb’s phase rule.
2) Define radius ratio.
3) Define co-valent bond. Give one example.
4) Define gel. Give one example.
5) State and explain ionic radii.
Set P
B) Write short notes on (any two) : 6
1) Silica as a chemical sediments.
2) Atomic substitution.
3) Structure of sodium chloride.

1) Explain Goldschmidt’s Mineralogical phase rule.
2) State the principles of crystal structure.
3) Discuss the classification of clay minerals.

1) Discuss water system with respect to phase rule.
2) Discuss electrophoresis property of colloidal solution.

1) Discuss the general rules of three dimensional structure with the help of
solid geometry.
2) Explain clay mineral as colloids.
3) Discuss Cesium chloride structure in detail.

1) Show that CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) is two component system.
2) Discuss a concept “state of matter”.

1) Discuss sulphur system in detail.
2) Discuss ZnS crystal in detail.
3) Explain a brief idea of radii of common ions in rock forming minerals.
_________________
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No.
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zoology (Paper – V)
Animal Diversity – III
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat, labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Multiple Choice Questions : 14

1) For control of mosquito population _________ fish is used as biological
agent.
a) Mrigal b) Labeo c) Gambusia d) Catla
2) Common salivary duct opens at the base of
a) hypopharynx b) mandible
c) 2nd maxilla d) labrum
3) Numbers of teeth present in gizzard of cockroach are
a) 7 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
4) Glossa and paraglossa are the parts of
a) Mandible b) Hypopharynx
c) 1st maxilla d) 2nd maxilla
5) Swimming types of foots are present in
a) Aplysia b) Pila c) Sepia d) Mytilus
6) Presence of pallial cavity is a characteristic feature of phylum
a) Mollusca b) Arthropoda
c) Echinodermata d) None of these
P.T.O.
7) Malpighian tubules in cockroach are used for
a) Excretory b) Reproductive
c) Digestion d) Nervous
8) Aerial respiratory organ of Pila is
a) mantle b) pulmonary sac
c) ctenidium d) branchial
9) Sponging type of mouth parts are present in
a) house fly b) cockroach c) honey bee d) butterfly
10) Anal styles are found
a) Female cockroach b) Male cockroach
c) Butterfly d) Both a and b
11) In Pila statosyst is organ for
a) Hearing b) Vision c) Olfactory d) Equilibrium
12) Malaria is caused by
a) Aedes aegypti b) P. vivax c) P. ovalis d) Culex
13) Bipinnaria is the larval stage of
a) Annelida b) Echinodermata
c) Mollusca d) Hemichordata
14) In radula of pila __________ teeth are present in single row.
a) 7 b) 6 c) 5 d) 9

1) Salient features of phylum mollusca.
2) Gizzard of cockroach.
3) Bipinnaria.
4) Functions of foot in mytilus.
5) Mandibles of cockroach.
1) Labium of cockroach.
2) Bioluminescence.
3) Osphradium of Pila.
Set P
1) Explain nervous system of cockroach.
2) Heart of system of Pila.
3) Explain foot in cephalopoda.
1) Mouth parts of butterfly.
2) Dengue disease.

1) Circulatory system of cockroach.
2) Female reproductive system of Pila.
3) Symptoms and control measures of malaria disease.
1) Walking leg of cockroach.
2) Mushroom gland in cockroach.

1) Digestive system of cockroach.
2) Affinities of hemichordata.
3) Describe nervous system of Pila.
_______________
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Seat
No. Set P
meteorology
paper – II : General Meteorology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.

1) The re radiation from carbon dioxide is exclusively confined to ________
a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere d) Ionosphere
2) The main constituent gases in the earth’s atmosphere are _________
a) H2 and He b) Ar and CO2 c) N2 and O2 d) H2 and N2
3) In adiabatic process, the change in entropy (ds) is
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Infinite
4) Which law of thermodynamics is called ‘principle of conservation of energy’ ?
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Zeroth
5) When a solid melts to liquid, entropy ____________
a) Decreases b) Remains constant
c) Increases d) None of these
6) At equator (φ = 0), the value of coriolis force acting on a moving air mass
is __________
a) Zero b) Minimum c) Maximum d) Moderate
7) The specific heat of a substance is the amount of heat required to raise
the temperature of unit mass of that substance through ________ degree.
a) One b) Forty c) Eight d) Hundred
8) Generally air flows from a region of _______ pressure to _____ pressure.
a) High, low b) Low, high
c) Low, low d) High, high
P.T.O.
9) An artificial satellite gets up thrust due to burning fuel. This happens in

accordance with Newton’s ________ law of motion.
a) Zeroth b) First
c) Second d) Third
10) Period of geo-synchronous satellite is equal to _______ hour.
a) 3 b) 6 c) 12 d) 24
11) A photovoltaic cell converts _______ energy into electrical energy.
a) Mechanical b) Wind
c) Solar d) Ocean
12) A generator converts mechanical energy into _______ energy.
a) Potential b) Chemical
c) Electrical d) Thermal
13) Intermediate energy is obtained from ________ energy resources.
a) Intermediate b) Primary
c) Secondary d) Useful
14) ___________ is performed when a particle or an object moves.
a) Work b) Energy
c) Force d) Useful energy

1) Define atmosphere.
2) Mention effects of scattering.
3) What are effects of ozone in troposphere ?
4) What are effects of depletion of ozone layer ?
5) What is a pseudo force ?
1) Mention uses of artificial satellites.
2) How chain and modules are formed using solar cells ?
3) What are different forms of energy ?
Set P
1) Explain terrestrial reradiation. What is green house effect ?
2) Write a note on pressure gradient force.
3) Describe Earth’s rotation and coriolis force.
1) With neat diagram explain characteristics of solar cell.
2) Write a note on energy demand.

1) Discuss in detail tephigram.
2) Explain absorption of solar radiation by ozone.
3) Discuss energy science and energy technology.
1) Explain the radiation budget of earth and its atmosphere in relation
with scattering, reflection and absorption.
2) What is a polar orbiting satellite ?

1) Explain the formation of ozone in the stratosphere.
2) How do the local winds occur ? Explain Buys-Ballot’s law.
3) Describe how an artificial satellite is launched in an orbit round the earth.

___________________
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Seat
No.
Set P

geochemistry
Introduction to Solar System and Geo-Spheres (Paper – II)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from given options : 14

1) The major gaseous constituents of present day atmosphere are
a) (H2O, H2, CO2) b) (N2, O2, Ar)
c) (N2, O2, CO2) d) (N2, O2, O3)
2) _________ protects troposphere from the UV radiations.
a) O2 b) O3 c) O4 d) He
3) _________ constituent is locked in sedimentary rocks and reduced in its
content in the atmosphere.
a) CO2 b) SO2 c) H2O d) H2CO3
4) Which one of the following is NOT included as particulate matter in the
atmosphere ?
a) dust particles b) salt particles c) pollen grains d) sand
5) The concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere is gradually increasing due to
burning of ________
a) coal b) petroleum c) fossil fuel d) all of these
6) During second stage of evolution of the atmosphere, majority of oxygen
was used for ________
a) oxidation b) reduction c) carbonation d) sulphate
7) The addition of 40Ar in the atmosphere by the radioactive decay of ______
took place throughout geologic time.
a) 40K b) 38K c) 40Na d) 38Na
P.T.O.
8) The average chlorinity of sea water is _________ parts per thousand.
a) 19 b) 25 c) 35 d) 38
9) The chemical composition of a river is a function of ________
a) amount of rainfall b) rock types
c) relief d) all of these
10) When inflow of rivers and rainwater decreases, then the salinity of ocean
________
c) remains constant d) none of these
11) The composition of terrestrial water is ________
a) Mg > Na > Ca b) Ca > Na > Mg
c) Ca < Na < Mg d) Na > Ca > Mg
12) The Sun’s major constituents are ________
a) H and He b) O2 and N2
c) NH3 and CO2 d) None of these
13) In cosmic abundance, elements with atomic numbers less than _______
show appreciable abundance.
a) 27 b) 25 c) 29 d) 30
14) The rotation of planets Uranus and Venus around their axes is called as
_______ motion.
a) lowgrade b) prograde c) retrograde d) highgrade

1) What is pyrolite ?
2) Alloys of which metals are found in most of the meteorites ?
3) What is transition zone ?
4) Contribution of volcanoes in evolution of atmosphere.
5) What is composition of daubreelite ?
1) What is salinity ? How it is measured ?
2) Atmospheric losses during geologic time.
3) How and why oxygen content increases during third stage of atmospheric
evolution ?
Set P
1) What is greenhouse effect ? How it is useful to keep the earth warm ?
2) What is composition of the crust ?
3) Atmospheric additions during geologic time.
1) Explain “primary differentiation of the elements”.
2) Describe in brief composition of solar system.

1) Structure of atmosphere.
2) Composition of terrestrial water.
3) Generation of atmospheric gases in its first stage of evolution.
1) What is the composition of the earth as a whole ?
2) Explain the composition of the mantle.

1) Describe meteorites. What are their types ?
2) Describe in brief zonal structure of the earth.
3) Describe in brief internal structure of the earth.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
zoology
Paper – VI : Cell Science, Genetics, Biological Chemistry and Economic
Zoology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Complete the sentence selecting appropriate answer : 14

1) DNA replication takes place in
a) G1 phase b) S phase c) M phase d) G2 phase
2) __________ leucocytes have kidney shaped nucleus.
a) Neutrophils b) Monocytes
c) Eosinophils d) Basophils
3) Crossing over occurs during
a) Pachytene of Prophase I b) Before synapsis
c) Second meiotic division d) Dikinesis
4) Ratio of complementary interaction is
a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 b) 9 : 3 : 4 c) 9 : 7 d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
5) X0 Chromosome abnormality is
a) Klinefelters Syndrome b) Turners Syndrome
c) Downs Syndrome d) Barr body
6) __________ Nucleoside molecules never contains deoxyribose sugar.
a) Adenine b) Guanine c) Uracil d) Thymine
7) Amino acids of a protein are linked to one another by
a) Glycosidic bond b) Ester bond
c) Diaster bond d) Peptide bond
P.T.O.
8) Rearing of silkworm is called
a) Sericulture b) Apiculture
c) Dairy d) Poultry
9) ________ equipment is essential to remove debris and unconsumed food
from aquarium.
a) Heater b) Thermometer
c) Air pump d) Siphon tube
10) Life span of adult silkmoth is
a) 1-2 days b) 4-5 days c) 8-9 days d) 12-15 days
11) Queen bee is
a) Fertile female b) Sterile female
c) Sterile male d) Fertile male
12) Rearing of fowls on litter material are called as
a) Deep litter system b) Individual cage system
c) Semi intensive system d) Intensive system
13) __________ exotic breed for milk production.
a) Red sindhi b) Sahiwal
c) Gir d) Jersey
14) Goat are reared for
a) Meat b) Milk c) Hair d) All of these

1) Monosaccharides.
2) Importance of wax.
3) G1 phase.
4) Significance of lipid.
5) Glass aquarium.

1) Morphology of mulberry silkmoth.
2) Downs syndrome.
3) Economic importance of goat.
Set P
1) Describe in detail process of mitosis.
2) What is crossing over ? Describe the mechanism of crossing over.
3) Describe the economic importance of fishes.

1) What is linkage ? Describe incomplete linkage.
2) Define Poultry. Describe in detail housing system of poultry.

1) Describe complementary genes with suitable example.
2) What is goat farming ? Describe the types of goat houses.
3) Describe various types of leucocytes with their functions.

1) What is dairy science ? Describe the milk products.
2) Describe the types of RNA.

1) Describe Watson – Crick Model of DNA and add a note on functions of DNA.
2) What is Sericulture ? Describe in detail the life cycle of Bombyxmori.
3) What is Apiculture ? Describe the process of Bee-keeping.
––––––––––––––––
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. II (Semester – III) (CBCS-Pattern) Examination, 2018

BOTANY (Paper – V)
Anatomy and Taxonomy of Angiosperm
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answer from given alternatives.

(1×14=14)
1) The lateral meristem is responsible for _________ of the plant body.
a) Increase diameter b) Increase height
c) Decrease height d) Both b and c
2) _________ proposed Histogen theory.
a) Nageli b) Hanstein c) Hofmeister d) Schmidt
3) Sieve tubes and companion cells occur in
a) Ground tissue b) Xylem
c) Phloem d) Vascular bundle
4) Vessels are only present in
a) Bryophytes b) angiosperms
c) Pteridophytes d) Both a and c
5) Conjoint collateral open vascular bundles are present in
a) Sunflower stem b) Maize stem
c) Maize root d) Sunflower root
6) Multiple epidermis is found in ________ leaf.
a) Maize b) Nerium c) Sugarcane d) Jower
7) The living mechanical tissue is
a) Sieve tubes b) Parenchyma c) Collenchyma d) Sclerenchyma
P.T.O.
8) Latex vessels occur in
a) Maize b) Citrus c) Water lily d) Hevea
9) Sunken stomata are found in
a) Xerophytes b) Mesophytes c) Epiphytes d) Hydrophytes
10) Bulliform (motor) cells occur in _______ leaf.
a) Annona b) Maize c) Bamboo d) Both b and c
11) Non porous wood and soft wood is found in
a) Monocots b) Dicots
c) Gymnosperms d) Ferns
12) Lenticels are found on
a) Monocot stem b) Monocot root
c) Both a and b d) Dicot stem
13) The entire inflorescence is enclosed by a large bract called
a) Spathe b) Petiole
c) Scape d) Stipules
14) Quisqualis indica belongs to family
a) Combretaceae b) Asclepidaceae
c) Amaranthaceae d) Liliaceae
2. A) Answer any four of the following. (2×4=8)

i) Define tissue and give the types of simple tissues.
ii) Give the classification of meristems.
iii) Sketch and label the structure of dicot stomata and give its function.
iv) Give in brief functions of epidermal tissue system.
v) Enlist the types of wood with examples.
B) Write notes on any two of the following. (2×3=6)

1) Histogen theory of meristem.
2) Types of Placentation.
3) Economic importance of combretaceae.
3. A) Answer any two of the following. (2×4=8)

i) Lenticels.
ii) Classification of meristem based on position.
iii) Describe any two types of vascular bundles.
Set P
B) Answer any one of the following. (1×6=6)
1) Describe dry indehiscent types of fruits.
2) Give distinguishing characters and economic importance of family
Asclepiadaceae.
4. A) Answer any two of the following. (2×5=10)

1) Describe the structure of periderm.
2) Describe the normal secondary growth in dicot stem of sunflower.
3) Describe in brief epidermal tissue system.

1) Collenchyma.
2) What is inflorescence ? Describe any two types of racemose
inflorescence.
5. Answer any two of the following. (2×7=14)

i) Describe the distribution of mechanical tissues in different plant organs.
ii) Describe normal secondary growth in dicotyledonous root of sunflower.
iii) describe the types of gamopetalous corolla.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
botany (Paper – VI)
Plant Ecology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentence by choosing proper answer from the given alternatives. 14
I) _________ is the space between the soil particiles.
a) Bulk density b) Soil permeability
c) Soil structure d) Soil porosity
II) Wind is an important _________ factor.
a) Edaphic b) Biotic
c) Climatic d) Physiographic
III) Community ecology is the study of different kinds of _________ in that area.
a) Individual b) Organism c) Population d) Habitat
IV) Study of plant community is known as
a) Phytoecology b) Phytosociology
c) Phytogeography d) Phytobiology
V) Ecosystem is structural and _________ unit of community.
a) Functional b) Reciprocal
c) Non functional d) Organizational
VI) The plants are called ________ of the ecosystem.
a) Consumer b) Decomposers
c) Producers d) Rotifers
P.T.O.
VII) Hydrilla is an example of _________ plant.

a) Mesophyte b) Xerophyte
c) Hydrophytes d) Halophytes
VIII) Xerophytes show presence of _________ epidermis.
a) multilayered b) single layered
c) waxy d) none of these
IX) Gradual replacement of one type of community by other is called
a) Stabilization b) Formation
c) Nudation d) Succesion
X) Salt gland is found in plant of
a) Oxalophytes b) Halophytes
c) Psammophytes d) Lithophytes
XI) _________ are grows in direct sunlight.
a) Heliophytes b) Sociophytes
c) Obligate sociophyted d) None of these
XII) Bhopal gas tragedy happened due to leakage of
a) Propyl isocyanate b) Methyl isocyanate
c) Carbon dioxide d) Chlorine
XIII) Ecological pyramid are _________ in nature.
a) Circular b) Triangular
c) Quadrangular d) Pentangular
XIV) Green house effect is caused by
a) CO2 b) O2 c) N2 d) SO2

I) Define megatherm. 2
II) Define Biochemical cycle. 2
III) Write the sources of water pollution. 2
IV) Define succession. 2
V) What are heliophytes ? 2
Set P

I) Acid rain. 3
II) Cryptophytes. 3
III) Air pollutants. 3

I) Describe roll of wind as a climatic factor. 4
II) Explain pond ecosystem. 4
III) Write in brief Process of succession . 4
I) What is mean by hydrophytes ? Write Morphological characters of
hydrophytes. 6
II) Explain biotic component of ecosystem. 6

I) Define succession and write hydrosere succession. 5
II) Describe any two qualitative character of community. 5
III) Define pollution and write sources of water pollution. 5
I) Explain the morphological adaptation in xerophytes. 4
II) Describe the structure of the community. 4

I) Describe in brief energy flow in ecosystem. 7
II) What is ecological pyramid ? Describe pyramid of number in ecosystem. 7
III) Write brief account on oxygen cycle. 7
__________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
psychology (Paper – V)
Experimental Psychology
Day and Date : Wednesday 12-12-2018onday, 15-5-2017 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.10.3

2) Indicate the Figures of right side full marks. to 1
1) The sense organs receive stimuli of various types and convert them into ______
(Experience, Meaning, Steps, None of these)
2) Average duration of the attention wave consisting positive and negative

aspects only for _________ seconds.
(2, 3, 4, 5)
3) The image of the eye is _________ dimension.

(One, Two, Three, Multi)
4) The average attention span of a person is _________ minutes.

(2 to 5, 6 to 10, 10 to 15, 15 to 30)
5) Attention is a __________________ activity.

(Dynamic, Systematic, Easy, None of these)
6) The way in which we interpret the information gathered is called

(Organization, Experience, Sensation, Perception)
7) The process of detecting a stimulus is called _____________.

(Perception, Sensation, Experience, Organization)
P.T.O.
8) Discussing the nature of attention is a _____________ task.
(Easy, Complex, Undecided, None of these)
9) Fechner’s law concerned solely with the __________________.

(Physical continuum, Psychological Continuum, Geological Continuum,
None of these)
10) Ernest Weber was a ________.

(Anatomist, Actor, Thinker, Anchor)
11) Psychology is the science of ______________.
(Happiness, Behavior, Life, None of these)
12) The term sensation refers to our _____________ experience.

(Primitive, Co-operative, Openness, Closure)
13) _____________ published Handbook of “Physiological Optics.”

(Freud, Fechner, Helmholtz, Wundt)
14) The method of minimal changes or sometimes referred to as serial

exploration is called _____________.
(Method of Average Error, Method of Limit, Method of Constant limit,
None of these)

1) What is Perception and Personality ?
2) What is meant by “Controlling Behavior” ?
3) When Tachistoscope is used ?
4) Who identified cognitive style “Rods and Frame” ?
5) Define Attention.
6) Define Stimulus.
7) What is meant by “Controlling Behavior” ?
8) Define Binocular cues to depth.
9) What is Motivation and Perception ?
Set P

a) Explain Perception Adaption ?
b) Which factors affecting perception ?
c) Explain the Fechner’s law.
B) Explain the nature of experimental psychology. 4

a) Explain the Weber’s law.
b) Explain the method of average error.
c) Explain the fluctuation of attention.
B) Goals of experimental psychology. 6
a) Explain the experimental method.
b) Which factors affecting perception ?
c) What is the application of experimental psychology in the field of clinical

settings ?
______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
geology
Paper – V : Optics and mineralogy
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. .00 .m. to .00 p.m.

3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.)
All q 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

1) Violet variety of quartz is
a) amethyst b) agate c) lepidolite d) opal
2) Leucite is member of __________ group.
a) felspathoid b) felspar c) chlorite d) amphibole
3) Calcite shows
a) twinkling and simple twinning
b) twinkling and cross-hatched twinning
c) twinkling and repeated twinning
d) twinkling and symmetrical twinning
4) Under polarized light condition, unequal absorption of E and ordinary rays
causes
a) twinning b) twinkling c) pleochroism d) extinction
5) The refractive index of Canada balsm is
a) 1.658 b) 1.537 c) 1.516 d) 1.666
6) Felspar containing sandstone is
a) arkose b) grit c) arenite d) none of these
7) Clay minerals are products of weathering of
a) felspar b) quartz c) muscovite d) none of these
P.T.O.
8) Common example of phylo-silicates is

a) mica b) quartz c) epidote d) olivine
9) Mineral hypersthene occurs in
a) Schrol b) Gneiss c) Hornfels d) Charnokite
10) Nephelene is a member of __________ group.
a) mica b) carbonate c) felspathoid d) feispar
11) Lower nicol prism is called as
a) polarizer b) analyzer c) condenser d) pillar
12) Which of the following mineral is pleochroic ?
a) Olivine b) Augite c) Muscovite d) Hypersthene
13) Diamond and graphite show
a) Poly-metamorphism b) Pseudo-metamorphism
c) Pleochroism d) Isomorphism
14) Composition of dolomite is
a) CaCO3 and MgCO3 b) MgCO3
c) CaCO3 d) None of these

1) Define polarized light.
2) What is twinkling ?
3) Give two names of members of clay group.
4) Give two names of isotropic minerals.
5) Describe calcite under microscope.
1) Isomorphism
2) Cyclo-silicates
3) Physical properties and optical properties of garnet.
Set P

1) Describe olivine group.
2) Describe neso-silicate structure.
3) Explain any two types of twinning.
1) Describe physical and optical properties of muscovite and biotite.
2) Define pleochroism. Explain scheme of pleochroism with example.

1) Write a note on carbonate group.
2) Describe lower and upper assembly of petrological microscope.
3) Explain encrustation, replacement processes.
1) Explain extinction in minerals.
2) Draw neat-labeled diagram of petrological microscope.

1) Describe in detail physical, chemical and optical properties of Felspar
group minerals with their occurrence.
2) Describe in detail physical, chemical and optical properties of Amphibole
group minerals with their occurrence.
3) Describe single and double chain ino-silicate structures.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. – II (Sem. – III) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
Microbiology (Paper – V)
Cytology and Physiology of Microorganisms
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

3) Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct alternatives given below : 14
1) ___________ lack cell wall, therefore they are resistant to penicillin.
a) Spirocheates b) Cyanobacteria
c) Vibrio d) Mycoplasmas
2) In plants and some microorganisms conversion of fats to carbohydrates
takes place through ___________
a) TCA b) Glycolysis
c) Glyoxylate cycle d) ED Pathway
3) Cluster of polar flagella is called
a) Lophotrichous b) Monotrichous
c) Amphitrichous d) Peritrichous
4) ___________ are sudanophilic in nature.
a) pHB b) Sulfur globules
c) Polyglucan globules d) Starch
5) Copper metal is treated with ___________ during study of it’s effect on
Microbial growth.
a) AgNO3 b) KNO3 c) HNO3 d) NaNO3
6) To provide buoyancy to organism in aquatic medium is main function of
___________
a) Granules b) Chlorobium vesicle
c) Gas vacuoles d) Magnetosomes
P.T.O.
7) ED pathway for glucose metabolism is observed in several bacteria
which lack ___________ which is essential enzyme in glycolysis.
a) Phosphatase b) Phosphorylase
c) Photolyase d) Phosphofructokinase
8) For cultivation of viruses ___________ is used.
a) Blood agar b) Blood broth
c) Chocolate agar d) Embryonated egg
9) Heat resistance of spore is due to ___________
a) Ca-phosphate b) Ca-acetate
c) Ca-citrate d) Ca-dipicolinate
10) Haemagglutination is property of
a) Flagella b) Pilli c) Capsule d) Slime layer
11) When all cells are in some phase of cell division then culture is called
a) Mixed b) Diauxic
c) Synchronous d) Continuous
12) Streptomycin acts on ___________
a) Cell membrane b) Cellwall c) DNA d) Ribosomes
13) In case of bacteria ETC is located in ___________
a) cell membrane b) cell wall
c) cytoplasm d) none of these
14) The main function of metachromatic granules is to supply ___________
for nucleic acid synthesis.
a) nitrogen bases b) ribose sugars
c) phosphates d) deoxyribose sugars

1) Define growth
2) List components of ETC
3) Key enzymes of glyoxylate pathway
4) Structure of ATP
5) Types of spores.
Set P
1) Describe in brief structure of flagella.
2) Write on oligodynamic action
3) Write on germination of spore.

1) Give a brief account on non – nitrogenous food.
2) Effect of temp on microbial growth.
3) Types and functions of pilli.

1) Discuss in detail structure and functions of gram-positive cellwall.
2) Give an account on oxidative phosphorylation.

1) Write on effect of antibiotics on microbial growth.
2) Write on nitrogenous food material.
3) Write in detail on diauxic growth.

1) Effect of salt concentration on microbial growth
2) Synchronous growth.
5. Answer the following : 14

1) Give an account of active transport.
2) Discuss Glyoxylate pathway.
3) Give brief account on cellwall of gram-negative bacteria.
_____________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
psychology
Social Psychology (Paper No. – VI)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Choose and write a correct answer of the following four alternatives : 14

1) Social relationship plays a major role in shaping
A) behaviour B) mind
C) educational D) habits
2) The term stereotype was coined in
A) 1998 B) 2009
C) 1798 D) 1891
3) India is the world’s largest
A) School B) Democracy
C) Social D) Personality
4) ________ psychological regards science as the only social knowledge.
A) Experimental social B) Physical
C) Abnormal D) Cognitive
5) ________ term was coined by Robert Butler.
A) Ageism B) Sexism
C) Racism D) Normal
6) ________ is the founder of psychoanalysis.
A) Allport B) Freud
C) Baldwin D) Skinner
7) _________ as a mental and neural state of redness, organizes through
experience.
A) Learning B) Explanation
C) Attitude D) Prediction
P.T.O.
8) There are ___________ approaches to social psychology.
A) 3 B) 2
C) 4 D) 6
9) __________ refer to a negative attitude towards people.
A) Anxiety B) Prejudice
C) Stress D) Stereotypes
10) __________is created the attitude measurement methodology.
A) McDougall B) Thurstone
C) Le Bon D) Adler
11) Social psychologist proposed _________ models of urban life.
A) 3 B) 5
C) 7 D) 9
12) Attitude as having ___________ components.
A) 2 B) 6
C) 3 D) 4
13) _________ opposed the concept of group minds.
A) Jung B) Miller
C) Allport D) Skinner
14) ___________ is the study of human activities.
A) Psychology B) Sociology
C) Economics D) Cognitive
2. Answer the following (any seven): 14

1) What is meant by social psychology ?
2) Explain the cognitive measures.
3) Explain the attitude cognitive component.
4) Explain the Physiological measurements.
5) Explain the concept of prejudice.
6) Explain the concept of Discrimination.
7) Explain the use of social psychology in business.
8) Explain the concept of conformity.
9) Define prosocial behaviour.
Set P
3. A) Short Notes (any two) : 10
1) Self-awareness.
2) Rating Scales.
3) Gender awareness.
B) Explain the Nature of Prejudice. 4

1) Explain the factors influencing conformity.
2) Explain the present trends in the field of Social Psychology.
3) Discuss on the Attitude formation.
B) How to reduce the prejudice ? 6

1) Explain the nature and scope of social psychology.
2) Describe the fundamental processes of attitude change.
3) What is the techniques for the measurements of attitudes ?
___________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Sem. – III) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018

geology
Paper – VI : Structural Geology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Select correct one : 14

1) The huge ocean surrounded by super continent is called ________
a) Pangaea b) Orogenic c) Panthalassa d) None of these
2) Major breaks in sedimentation are called __________
a) Fold b) Unconformity
c) Conformity d) Fault
3) In __________ fault, the hanging wall moved upward relative to foot wall.
a) strike b) normal c) reverse d) parallel
4) The sloping sides of a fold from crest to trough of another fold are called
the ________________
a) limbs b) axis of fold c) axial plane d) plunge of fold
5) ____________ faults have neither hanging wall nor foot wall.
a) Normal b) Reverse c) Vertical d) Parallel
6) Continental drift theory suggest that, about ____________ million years
ago, all the continents of the earth were united together.
a) 200 b) 250 c) 300 d) 400
7) The southern huge landmass is called as _______ land.
a) Laurasia b) Gondwana c) Cambrian d) None of these
P.T.O.
8) Divergent plate boundaries are also called the _______ zone.
a) constructive b) destructive c) conservative d) none of these
9) In _________ folds, the folding is so tight that the incompetent strata flow
plastically towards crests and troughs.
a) open b) close c) fan d) chevron
10) The vertical displacement of rock bed is called _________ of fault.
a) throw b) heave c) hade d) fault plane
11) Total displacement of rock bed measured along fault plane is called
_________
a) hade b) throw c) net slip d) heave
12) ___________ joints, are those which are formed as a result of tensional
forces.
a) strike b) tension c) dip d) oblique
13) Folded mountains occur in Himalaya because of_______ plate
movement.
a) convergent b) divergent c) transform d) none of these
14) Unconformity can be recognized by__________
a) difference in structure
b) difference in fossil record
c) difference in environment of deposition
d) all of these

1) Define fold.
2) Crest and trough.
3) Name the seven major tectonic plate.
4) Define fault.
5) Define joint.
Set P
B) Write short notes (any two) : 6
1) Lineation
2) Foliation
3) Apparent and true dip.

1) Explain normal and reverse fault.
2) Explain terminology of fault.
3) Explain width of outcrop.

1) Explain Angular unconformity and non-conformity.
2) Explain columnar and sheet joints.

1) Explain recognition of fold in field
2) Explain isoclinal and chevron fold.
3) Explain horst and graben fault.

1) Explain symmetrical and asymmetrical folds.
2) Explain inliers and outliers.
1) Explain types of unconformity.
2) Explain movement of tectonic plate.
3) Explain genetic classification of joints.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

microbiology
Bacterial Genetics (Paper VI)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1
1. Choose the correct alternatives and rewrite the sentences : 14
1) The observable properties of organism is called
a) Genome b) Genotype c) Phenotype d) Phenome
2) The genetic code read in __________ direction.
a) 3′ → 5′ b) 3′ → 3′ c) 5′ → 5′ d) 5′ → 3′
3) ‘B’ form of DNA consists of ________ base pairs per turn of helix.
a) 10 b) 9 c) 11 d) 12
4) Extrachromosomal double stranded circular DNA responsible for
conjugation is
a) Plasmid b) Cistron c) Muton d) Recon
5) In DNA the two consecutive sugar molecules are linked via _________
bond.
a) Hydrogen b) Phosphodiester
c) Peptide d) Glycosidic
6) __________ carry out unwinding of DNA during replication.
a) Primase b) Ligase c) Polymerase d) Helicase
7) There are ____________ codons specifying 20 amino acids.
a) 64 b) 61 c) 3 d) 20
8) _____________ is a termination codon.
a) UGC b) AUG c) UAG d) UUU
9) An interrupted genes always starts with
a) exons b) introns c) muton d) cistron
10) The transformation was discovered by
a) Griffith b) Tatum c) Zinder d) Lederberg
11) The replacement of purine by pyramidine is called
a) Transition b) Transversion c) Transfection d) Translation
12) Exposure of DNA to UV radiation causes __________ dimer.
a) A = A b) G ≡ G c) C ≡ C d) T = T P.T.O.
13) Virus mediated gene transfer found in
a) transformation b) conjugation c) transduction d) translation
14) In photo reactivation ___________ enzyme is involved in repair process.
a) Methylase b) Photolyase c) Endonuclease d) Exonuclease
1) List the forms of DNA.
2) Define Cistron.
3) What are the base analogues ?
4) Define exogenote.
5) Define allels.
1) Hershey and Chase experiment.
2) Describe Transcription.
3) Describe replica plate technique.
1) Give detail account on properties of Genetic code.
2) Describe the Bacterial Conjugation.
3) Discuss in brief properties and types of plasmids.
1) Briefly explain transformation.
2) Describe fluctuation test with significance.
1) Describe in detail structure of DNA.
2) Describe briefly frame shift mutations.
3) Describe the process of generalised transduction.
1) Give the detail account on Fates of Exogenote.
2) Describe the process of Dark repair mechanism.
1) Describe in detail replication of bacterial DNA.
2) Explain in detail mechanism of Mutagenesis.
3) Explain with experimental proof the DNA as genetic material.
________________
Set P

P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

CHEMISTRY (Paper – VII)
Physical Chemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

ii) Draw neat diagrams and give equations wherever
necessary.
iv) Use of logarithmic tables and scientific calculator is allowed.
(At. Wts. H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
1. Choose the most correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 14
i) If t+ is the transport number of cation then the transport number of anion is

a) 1 – t+ b) 1 + t+ c) 2 + t+ d) 2 – t–
ii) Which of the following solid is amorphous in nature ?
a) sugar b) glass
c) common salt d) diamond
iii) The __________ extraction is more efficient.
a) single b) double
c) multiple d) none of these
iv) In an isothermal irreversible process, entropy change is
a) greater than zero b) less than zero
c) equal to zero d) none of these
v) In which of the following electrolyte, the equivalent and molecular conductance
is same.
a) Na2SO4 b) H3PO4 c) KCl d) H2SO4
P.T.O.
vi) The distribution law is applied in

a) Haber’s process for the manufacture of NH3
b) Park’s process for the extraction of Ag
c) Contact process for the manufacture of H2SO4
d) All of these
vii) Entropy change is given by the equation
qrev
a) DS = qrevT b) DS = c) DS = qrev +T d) DS = qrev – T
T
viii) S.I unit of conductance is
a) Siemen b) ohm c) mhos d) ohm–1
ix) Solids which exhibit a regularity in the arrangement of structural units are
called _________solids.
a) amorphous b) crystalline
c) both a) and b) d) none of these
x) The specific conductance of an electrolyte _________with dilution.
c) remains same d) none of these
xi) In an isochoric process ______________remains constant.
a) P b) V c) S d) T
xii) If the plane of crystal cuts the two co-ordinate axes and is parallel to the
third axis, then it is known as _________ plane.
a) cubic b) cubic diagonal
c) simple d) diagonal
xiii) The modified distribution law for solute undergoing dissociation in one of
the solvents is
C1 C1
a) K = b) K = c) K = d) none of these
C2 C2 (α − 1)
xiv) The electrolytic conductance is a direct measure of

a) resistance b) concentration
c) potential d) dissociation
Set P

i) Explain the terms specific resistance.
ii) State Nernst’s distribution law.
iii) Explain the law of constancy of interfacial angles.
iv) What is ionic product of water ?
v) Define entropy. What are its units ?
vi) What are conductors ? Give suitable examples.
vii) State third law of thermodynamics.
viii) Define the term Weiss indices.
ix) Mention applications of extraction process.
i) Explain the term equivalent conductance at infinite dilution. How will

you obtain the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of a strong
electrolytes ?
ii) Explain the phenomenon of association and dissociation of solute in

solvents.
iii) Write use of absolute entropy. Calculate the change in entropy when
4 moles of CO2 expands isothermally from 3 liter to 6 liter.
(R = 8.314 Jk–1 mole–1).
B) Acetic acid has its normal molecular weight in water in the distribution of
the acid between water and CCl4, the concentration layer as follows : 4
CH2O (mol/dm3) : 10.8 7.96 5.01
Cccl4 (mol/dm3) : 1.325 0.729 0.29
Calculate the molecular weight of acetic acid in carbon tetrachloride.
Set P
i) Explain transport number with the help of migration of ions.
ii) Describe Bragg’s equation for interplanar distances of crystal.
iii) Derive an expression for entropy change in an isothermal irreversible process

in an isolated system.
i) Show that fall in concentration around an electrode after electrolysis is

proportional to the speed of ion moving away from it.
ii) State Kohlrausch’s law. Explain its importance in the determination of ionic
product of water.
iii) NaCl and KCl belong to same group, NaCl has face centered cubic structure
while KCl has simple cubic structure. Give reason. The X-ray pattern of KCl
shows the first order maximum reflection at an angle 14.38o. Using X-ray
wavelength of 1.54× 10–8 cm. Calculate the spacing between the planes.

_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) Examination, 2018
chemistry (Paper – VIII) (New CBCS Pattern)
Analytical and Industrial Inorganic Chemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
4) Neat and labeled diagrams should be drawn wherever
necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative for each of the following : 14
1) __________ is essential for EDTA titrations.

a) Buffering b) Unbuffering
c) Neutralization d) Acid
2) The colour of benzoid form of Phenolphthalein is

a) red b) colourless
c) pink d) yellow
3) The solution of known strength is known as

a) normal b) molar
c) standard d) molal
4) Ageing is also known as

a) ignition b) digestion
c) nucleation d) coagulation
5) The particle size of colloidal precipitate is

a) >10–6 m b) 10–9 – 10–6 m
c) 10–10 m d) 10–10 – 10–9 m
6) Coagulation and _________ are reversible to each other.

a) nucleation b) digestion
c) peptization d) ageing
P.T.O.
7) For the best yield of ammonia, the concentration of N2 : H2 is
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 3 d) 3 : 2
8) The principle reaction in the manufacture of sulphuric acid is

a) S → SO2 b) SO3 → H2SO4
c) SO2 → SO3 d) SO3 → H2S2O7
9) ________ is the impure source of metals.

a) Slag b) Flux c) Ore d) Mineral
10) In _______ ore, metal atoms are present in atomic state.

a) halide b) sulphide
c) native d) oxide
11) From halogens, _________ can form major ores.

a) chlorine b) fluorine c) bromine d) iodine
12) Wrought iron contains _______ % carbon.

a) 2.5 – 5.0 b) 0.1 – 0.6
c) 0.1 – 0.2 d) 0.6 – 1.5
13) Extent if iron in earth crust is

a) 60000 ppm b) 4.5%
c) 72.4% d) 62000 ppm
14) In brittle steel, ________ causes brittleness in hot condition.

a) P b) S c) N d) Si

1) Which colour is obtained in acid form of methyl red indicator ?
2) What is the meaning of end point in volumetric analysis ?
3) Explain the term nucleation.
4) Why precipitation should be followed by digestion ?
5) What is degree of supersaturation ?
6) Draw the neat and labelled diagram of contact converter.
7) Draw neat and labelled diagram of wilfley table.
8) Define the terms annealing and hardening.
9) What are the types of steel ?
Set P
3. A) Write note on any two of the following : 10
1) Neutralization curve.
2) Physical nature of precipitate.
3) Chemical reduction methods.
B) Draw neat and labelled diagram of manufacturing plant of ammonia by

Haber-Bosch process. 4

1) Discuss quinoid theory of indicator.
2) Explain the conditions for good precipitation.
3) Comment on occurrence of iron.

1) Discuss the basic Bessemer process.
2) Discuss chemical concentration of ores.
3) Why sulphuric acid is called as king of chemicals ? What are the different
conditions to get good yield of oleum.
––––––––––––––––
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New CBCS) Examination, 2018
physics (Paper – VII) (Optics)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
ii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iii) Draw neat diagrams whenever necessary.
iv) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternatives from the followings : 14

i) _______ interferometer is multiple beam Interferometer.
a) Michelson’s b) Fabry-Perot
c) Gauss d) Huygen
ii) Michelson’s Interferometer works on the principle of _______ due to division
of amplitude.
a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Interference
iii) Unit positive lateral magnification has
a) Size of image and size of object is same
b) Size of image is larger than size of object
c) Size of object is larger than size of image
d) No relation of size of image and size of object
iv) Relation between F1 and F2 intern of µ1 and µ2 is
a) F1/F2 = – (µ1/µ2) b) F1/F2 = + (µ1/µ2)
2 2
c) F1 /F2 = – (µ1/µ2) d) F1/F2 = + (µ12/µ22)
v) In positive Zone plate _______ Zones are transparent.
a) Odd b) Even
c) Both odd as well as even d) No any
vi) Zone plates forms
a) Same image of multiple objects
b) Multiple images of same object
c) Same image of same object
d) Multiple images of multiple objects
P.T.O.
vii) According to modified Rayleigh’s criterion “Two spectral lines are said to
be just resolved, if the intensity at the dip is _______ times the intensity of
either maxima”.
a) 0.51 b) 0.60 c) 0.71 d) 0.81
viii) Two spectral lines of grating are just resolved due to the light of wavelengths
5890 A° and 5896 A°. The resolving power of grating is
a) 582.16 b) 682.16 c) 882.16 d) 982.16
ix) Nicol’s prism is constructed from calcite crystal whose length is _______
times to its width.
a) two b) three c) four d) five
x) LCD stands for
a) Light Crystal Display b) Less Crystal Display
c) Liquid Crystal Display d) Large Crystal Display
xi) To produce circularly polarized light, the phase difference produced by
phase retardation plate must be
a) 0, π b) π/4, 3π/4
c) π/2 , 3π/2 d) π/3, 2π/3
xii) Optical fibre consists of central region called _______ and an outer region
called
a) Cladding , Core b) Core , Cladding
c) Anode , Cathode d) Cathode, Anode
xiii) Pulse dispersion in step index fibre is measure in unit of
a) Acceleration b) Velocity
c) Time d) Viscosity
xiv) Optical fibre was developed by N. S. Kapani , a scientist of_______ origin.
a) American b) Japan c) England d) Indian

i) Define the term numerical aperture.
ii) What is optical fiber ?
iii) Write the principle of Nicol’s prism.
iv) Find the resolving power of prism having base of 4 cm and the rate of change
of refractive index with respect to wavelength is 1400.
v) What is positive and negative zone plate ?
vi) How localized fringes are produced in Michelson’s Interferometer ?
vii) Write the cardinal points of an optical system.
viii) Write any two characteristics of double refraction.
Set P
i) What are the advantages of optical fibers ?
ii) Show that the principal points coincide with the nodal points, if the medium
on the two sides of an optical system is same.
iii) Describe construction and working of Fabry- Perot Interferometer.
B) Derive resolving power of grating. 4

i) Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths 15 cm and 10 cm are separated by
4 cm distance. Find an equivalent focal length and the position of principal
points.
ii) Explain how wavelength, wavelength difference of monochromatic light
and refractive index of thin glass plate is determined using Michelson’s
Interferometer.
iii) What is resolution ? Explain the concept of geometrical and spectral
resolution.

i) Explain Fresnel’s Half Period Zones. Show that area of half period zones
is πbλ.
Find the radii of first two elements of half period zones required to bring a
parallel beam of light, if light of wavelength 5500Å to focus 150 cm away.
ii) What is specific rotation ? Describe Polarimeter to determine specific rotation
of sugar solution.
A 10% sugar solution taken in a Polarimeter tube of length 10 cm rotate the
plane of polarization of light of wavelength 6000 Å through 6.5°. Calculate
the specific rotation of sugar solution.
___________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New-CBCS) Examination, 2018

physics (Paper – VIII)
Modern Physics
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

iii) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
iv) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.

i) The wavelength of matter waves is independent of
a) mass b) velocity
c) charge d) momentum
ii) In Compton Scattering, the frequency of scattered photon is ____________
the frequency of incident photon.
a) equal to b) less than
c) greater than d) zero
iii) “All inertial frames are equivalent” is called the principle of
a) equivalence b) inertia
c) correspondence d) equilibrium
iv) The length of rod or object in motion with velocity nearly equal to c
a) remains the same b) decreases
c) increase d) becomes zero
v) If the particle velocity is c/2, then the phase velocity of the matter wave
associated with the particle is
a) c/2 b) 2c c) 2/c d) c2
vi) The Lamour frequency of precession is given by
a) eh/4πm b) Bh/4πm c) eh/2πm d) h/4πm
P.T.O.
vii) Maximum number of electrons in the nth shell is given by
a) n2 b) 2n c) 2n2 d) n
viii) Energy released per fission of u235 is about
a) 50 Mev b) 200 Mev c) 500 Mev d) 100 Mev
ix) In nuclear reactor, the chain reaction is
a) uncontrolled b) absent
c) controlled d) indefinite
x) The magnitude of Compton wavelength is
a) 0.0484 A° b) 0.0242 A°
c) 0.0122 A° d) 0.0224 A°
xi) The maximum change in wavelength of Compton scattered radiation is for
scattering angle
a) 0° b) 90° c) 180° d) 45°
xii) The atomic energy programme in India was launched under the leadership of
a) C.V. Raman b) Homi J. Bhabha
c) Jagdish Chandra Bose d) C.N.R. Rao
xiii) The relation between phase velocity of a matter wave and the corresponding
particle velocity is given by
a) u = c2/v b) u = v/c2 c) u = v/c d) u = c/v
xiv) Spin of electron is
a) ½ b) 1 c) 0 d) ¼

i) Write a note on time dilation.
ii) What is Compton effect ?
iii) State the postulates of special theory of relativity.
iv) What are matter waves ?
v) Write a note on ether hypothesis.
vi) Give an account of Hund’s rule.
vii) Write a note on spin hypothesis.
viii) Give any two neutron induced nuclear reactions.
Set P
i) Obtain an expression for relativistic addition of two velocities.
ii) A body of mass 100 gm is moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec. Find its
de Broglie wavelength. given : h = 6.62 × 10–34 Joule - sec.
iii) Write a note on LS and jj couplings.
B) At what speed the mass of body becomes twice its rest mass ? 4

i) Obtain an expression for change in wavelength due to Compton
Scattering.
ii) Explain the quantum numbers associated with vector atom model.
iii) If the uncertainty in the position of an electron is 4 × 10–10 meters, calculate
the minimum uncertainty in its momentum,
given h = 6.67 × 10–34 Joule - sec.

i) Define nuclear fission, write a note on chain reaction. 4
Explain the working of nuclear reactor with neat diagram. 10
ii) Explain Michelson – Morley experiment with neat diagram. 10
Give the significance of negative result of Michelson – Morley Experiment. 4
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018

Statistics (Paper – VII) (New)
Continuous Probability Distributions and Exact Sampling Distributions
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) If m.g.f of a continuous r.v. X is (1 – 2t)–10; t < 1/2 then the probability
distribution of X is
a) G (1/2, 10) b) G (10, 2)
c) G (2, 10) d) G (10, 1/2)
2) If X ~ β1(m, n) the mean of X is
a) m/n b) m/(m+n) c) n/(m+n) d) (m+n)/n
3) If X1, X2 and X3 are i.i.d. exponential variates with mean 4 then
X1 + X2 + X3 is
a) G (3, 1/4) b) G (3, 4) c) G (1/4, 3) d) G (4, 3)
4) The harmonic mean of a beta variate of second kind with parameters m
and n is
a) m/(n–1) b) n/(m–1) c) (m–1)/n d) (n–1)/m
5) The variance of a t distribution with n d.f is an integer
a) always b) only when n is odd
c) only when n is even d) only when n = 3 or 4
6) If X1, X2, X3, X4, X5 are i.i.d. N(0, 1) variates then the probability
2X 5
distribution of is
∑1 X
4 2
i
2
d) χ 5
2
a) t5 b) t4 c) χ 4
P.T.O.
7) The mean of a t variate with 10.d.f is

a) 0 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1
8) The mean of F (4, 10) variates is same as that of
a) F (4, 10) variate b) F (10, 10) variate
c) both a) and b) d) F (10, 6)
9) If F ~ F (9, 8) and Y = 1/F then mean of Y is
a) 9/7 b) 9/8 c) 7/9 d) 8/9
10) If F is an F variate with n1, n2 d.f. then its mode is
n2 (n 1 − 2 ) n1 (n 2 − 2 )
a) b)
n1 (n2 + 2) n2 (n1 + 2 )
n2 n2 (n1 + 2 )
c) d)
n2 − 2 n1 (n2 − 2 )
11) If X1, X2, X3, ..., X10 are i.i.d. N (0, 1) variates then distribution of
X1 10
Y = is
∑1
10 2
X 1
a) an F variate b) a t variate
c) chi square variate d) normal variate
12) The t distribution is
a) symmetric b) negatively skew
c) positively skew d) none of these
13) If X ~ tn then E(X) is
n
a) n b) c) 0 d) 2n
n−2
14) If X is a β2(m, n) the X–1 follows
a) β2(n, m) b) β1(n, m) c) β1(m. n) d) β2(m, n)

1) If X ~ G(α, λ) then what is the distribution of CX, if C is a positive
constant ?
2) Write m.g.f. of a chi square variate with n d.f.
3) Define beta distribution of 2nd kind.
Set P
4) Show that continuous uniform distribution is a particular case of beta

distribution of 1st kind.
5) If X is a G (1/2, n/2) variate then what is Var(X) ?
6) Define an F variate with n1, n2 d.f.
7) Define chi square distribution with nd.f.
8) Show that all odd order central moments of t distribution are zero.
9) State relation between F and t variates.

i) Find m.g.f. of gamma distribution with parameter (α, λ).
 1
ii) If X ~ N (0, 1), Y ~ N  0,  and are independent, then find the distribution
 2
of X2 + 2Y2.
iii) Find mode of chi-square distribution with n d.f.
B) Define student t distribution with n d.f. and find its mean. 4

i) If X ~ G (α, λ1), Y ~ G (α, λ2) are independent random variables, then find
X
the distribution of .
Y
ii) State m.g.f. of a N(0, 1) and determine the values of the coefficients of
skewness and kurtosis Γ1, Γ 2 .
iii) Derive the p.d.f. of chi-square variate with n d.f.

i) Let the p.d.f. of normal variate be
f ( x ) = ke
(
− 1 x 2 − 20 x + 100
50 )−∞<X<∞

Find value of K, mean and variance of X.
ii) Find mean and variance of beta distribution of second kind.
2
iii) State and prove relation between F and χ distribution.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc.– II (Semester – IV) (New-CBCS) Examination, 2018
STATISTICS (Paper- Vlll)
Applied Statistics
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

i) We want to test H0 : Two attributes A and B are independent and both the
attributes are at two levels, then under H0 the test statistic used is
2 2 2 2
a) χ2 b) χ1 c) χ3 d) χ4
ii) The disadvantage of C.B.R. is
a) it ignores age and sex distribution
b) it underestimates fertility rate
c) it provides very approximate fertility rate
d) all of the above
iii) The specific death rates may be according to
a) age and sex b) locality or region
c) specific cause and occupation d) all of these
iv) For the babies of age less than one year, the age specific death rate
specifically called
a) infant mortality rate b) maternal mortality rate
c) crude death rate d) None of these
v) Standard error of a sample mean is
a) σ/n b) σ / n c) σ2/ n d) none of these
vi) A random sample , X1, X2, X3, . . . , X25 drawn from N (µ, σ2), σ2 is unknown
and sample mean square is 625 then under H0 : µ = 50, the statistic
(X − 50) / 5 follows
a) t with 25 d.f. b) t with 24 d.f. c) t with 23 d.f. d) none of these
P.T.O.
vii) If total number of live births is 7200 and the total population is 200000 then
C.B.R. will be
a) 72 b) 18 c) 36 d) 9
viii) Level of significance is
a) Proportion of wrong decision
b) Proportion of correct decision
c) Proportion of wrong decision regarding H0, when it is true
d) F- test
ix) If p value < α (L.O.S.) then
a) we reject null hypothesis at L.O.S. α
b) we accept null hypothesis at L.O.S. α
c) we reject null hypothesis at L.O.S. ( 1 – α)
d) we reject null hypothesis at L.O.S. ( 1 + α )
x) The relation between expected value of R and standard deviation σ with
usual constant factors used is
a) E(R) = d1σ b) E(R) = d2σ c) E(R) = D1σ d) E(R) = D2σ
xi) A parameter is a
a) sample characteristic b) population characteristic
xii) Number of defects follows
a) binomial distribution b) Poisson distribution
c) normal distribution d) geometric distribution
xiii) The control limits of C chart are based on
a) binomial distribution b) Poisson distribution
c) normal distribution d) geometric distribution
xiv) Variation in the items produced in a factory may be due to
a) chance causes b) assignable causes
Set P

i) In SRSWR show that E (X) = µ.
ii) Give the 3σ control limits for p-chart when standards are not given.
iii) Define null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis.
iv) Define Type – l error and Type – ll error.
v) Explain the term defects.
vi) Explain the need of vital statistics.
vii) Define a statistic and a parameter.
viii) State the limitations of T.F.R.
ix) Interpret the values G.R.R. = 1, G.R.R. < 1 and G.R.R. > 1.

i) Distinguish between chance causes and assignable causes of variation.
ii) Explain construction and working of C – chart.
iii) Describe the procedure to test population mean µ = µ0 for large sample.
B) Define Crude Death Rate and Crude Birth Rate. 4

i) With usual notations, prove that in SRSWR.
N−1 2
V(yn ) = s
Nn
ii) Describe the test procedure for testing the independence of attributes in
case of 2 × 2 contingency table.
iii) Define Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR) and Net Reproductive Rate (NRR).
Also state the limitations of GRR.

i) Describe the procedure for testing H0 : µ1 = µ2, based on small (paired )
samples.
ii) Explain clearly the control limits of X – chart and R chart when standards
are not given.
iii) Distinguish between SRSWR and SRSWOR .
_____________________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.
B.Sc. – II (Sem. – IV) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

MATHEMATICS (Paper – VII) (New)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Figures to right indicate full marks.

1) The solution of (y – px) (p – 1) = p is
c
a) y = cx + ec b) y = cx +
c −1

c) y = cx – x2 d) y = log(cx – y)
2
dy  dy 
2) The solution for the differential equation y = x +  1−  is _______
dx  dx 

a) y = cx – (1 – c2) b) y = cx + (1 – c2)
c) y = cx – (1 – x)2 d) y = cx + (1 – c)2
3) The differential equation P3 – P(y + 3) + x = 0 is of the type
a) Solvable for y b) Solvable for p
c) Solvable for x d) Solvable for both p and x
4) If 1+ P tanx – Q = 0 then u = ___________ is a solution of the associated
d2 y Pdy
equation + + Qy = 0 .
2 dx
a) cosx dx b) sinx
c) cotx d) tanx
d2 y dy
5) y = e–x is known solution of C.F. of the differential equation 2 + P + Qy = R
dx dx
if ______________
a) 1 + Px + Qx2 = 0 b) 1 + P + Q = 0
c) 1 – P + Q = 0 d) 1 + P – Q = 0
P.T.O.
d2 y dy
6) In the differential equation +P + Qy = R if 2 – Px + Qx2 = 0 then the
2 dx
dx

known solution of the complimentary function of the equation is _______
1
a) u = x2 b) u =
x
1
c) u = 2 d) u = e2x
x
d2 y 1
7) The differential equation + y = 1 is __________ equation.
dx 2 x 2
a) Homogeneous linear
b) Non-homogeneous
c) Linear equation with constant coefficient
d) Exact differential
2
2d y dy
8) The complimentary function of the equation x − 4x + 6y = x
2 dx
is _________ dx
a) y = c1 x + c2x2 b) y = c1 x2 + c2x3
c) y = c1 x3 + c2x4 d) y = (c1 + c2x)ex
2
2d y
9) By using substitution x = e the value of x
z
in the homogeneous linear
2
equation is _____________ dx
a) D2 b) D(D + 1)
c) D( D – 1) d) (D – 1) (D – 2)
10) If the condition of integrability is satisfied then the solution of the equation
(y + 2) dx + dy + dz = 0 is ____________
a) ex(y + z) = c1 b) ey(x + z) = c1
c) ez(x + y) = c1 d) x + y + z = c1
dx dy dz
= =
( ) ( ) ( )
11) One of the solution of the equation
is x y 2 − z2 y z2 − x 2 z x2 − y2

a) x2yz = c1 b) xy2z = c1
c) xyz2 = c1 d) xyz = c1
Set P
12) Which one of the following is the solution of the simultaneous equation :
dx dy dz
= = ?
y+z z+x x+y

a) x – y = c1z b) x + y+ z = c1
x−y
c) = c1 d) xyz = c1
y−z
dx dy dz
13) For solving equation = = one set of multiplier is
bz − cy cx − az ay − bx

a, b, c then the other set of multiplier is ______________
1 1 1
a) 1 , 1 , 1 b) , ,
x y z a b c

c) x, y, z d) a , b , c
x y z

14) The differential equation of the form y = 2px + f(xp2) reduces to Clairaut’s
form by the substitution _______________
a) x2 = u, y = v b) x = u2, y = v2
c) x = u2, y = v d) x = u, y = v2

1) Solve p2 – x5 = 0.
2) Define the Clairaut’s equation and hence solve

( y − px )2 = a2 .
2
1+ p
dx dy dz
3) Solve = = .
y2 x2 x 2 y 2 z2

4) Solve y dx + x dy + 2z dz = 0.
2
2d y dy
5) Find by inspection or solution of x 2
− 3x + 3 y = x 2 2x − 1 . ( )
dxdx

2 d2 y dy
6) Find the complimentary function of x − 4x + 6y = x .
dx 2 dx

7) Define homogeneous linear differential equation.
Set P
8) Solve p2y + 2px = y.

9) Give the condition for integrability for solving total differential equation.

1) Solve p2 + 2py cotx = y2.
( ) ( )
2
2d y dy
2) Solve x − 2 x2 + x + x 2 + 2x + 2 y = 0 .
2 dx
dx

2
2d y dy
3) Solve x +x − 4y = x2 .
2 dx
dx

B) Solve the simultaneous equation : 4
dx dy dz
= = .
mz − ny nx − lz ly − mx
1) Explain the method of solving homogeneous linear equation and hence solve
2
2d y dy 2
x +x − 4y = x
2 dx
dx

d2 y dy
2) Solve − 2 tan x + 3 y = 2 sec x if y = sinx is known solution.
dx 2 dx

3) Solve y = 2px + p3y2.
1) Explain the condition for integrability of total differential equation.
2) Solve
4 3
4d y 3d y d2 y dy
16 ( x + 1) (
+ 96 x + 1 )+ 104 ( ) ( x + 1)2 + 8 ( x + 1) + y = x 2 + 4x + 3
4 3
dx dx dx 2 dx
( ) dx
2
2 d y dy
3) Solve 1− x 2
−x + 4y = 4x .
dx
_________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

mathematics (Paper – VIII) (New)
Abstract algebra – I

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative of the following. 14

1) Let A, B be non-empty sets and f : A → B be a permutation. Then
a) f is bijective and A = B b) f is one-one and A ≠ B
c) f is bijective and A ≠ B d) f is onto and A ≠ B
2) The number of elements in A6
a) 6 b) 720 c) 360 d) 26
3) The following element is not a generator of Z8
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
4) If G be a cyclic group of order 15, then G may have a subgroup of order
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
5) The gcd of {36, – 60, 90} is
a) 180 b) –180 c) – 6 d) 6
6) Let φ : (R, +) →(R*, ⋅) be a homomorphism defined by φ(a) = 3a. Then kerφ =
a) {1} b) {0} c) {e} d) 3a
7) The inverse of – i in the multiplicative group {1, –1, i, –i} is
a) 1 b) –1 c) i d) –i
8) Index of A3 in S3 is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
P.T.O.
9) The set of integers Z with the binary operation ∗ defined as a*b = a+b+1
for a, b ∈ Z, is a group. The identity element of this group is
a) 0 b) 1 c) –1 d) 12
10) A subgroup containing only the identity element is called
a) trivial b) non-trivial c) proper d) improper
11) The number of subgroups of Z36 are
a) 12 b) 10 c) 8 d) 9
12) The order of the product of a pair of disjoint cycles of length 4 and 6 is
a) 6 b) 10 c) 8 d) 12
13) Every proper subgroup of an infinite cyclic group is
a) finite b) non-proper subgroup
c) infinite d) none of these
14) If φ is Euler φ function then φ(15) =
a) 5 b) 6 c) 8 d) 14
2. Attempt any seven of the following. 14

1) Find [Z10 : < [ 2 ]>].
2) Prove that C(a) is a subgroup of G.
3) Find all x such that 0≤ x < 6 and 2x ≡ 4 (mod 6).
4) Let f : (Z, +) → (R, +) be defined by f(n) = 5n, ∀n. Test whether f is
homomorphism.
5) In S3, find the order of (1 2 3).
6) Every cyclic group is abelian.
7) Determine the right cosets of < [4]> in Z12.
8) Every subgroup of an abelian group is normal.
9) Solve the equation x (1 3 2) = (1 3) in S3.

1) If (z, +) and (G, ⋅) where G = {1, –1, i, –i} are groups. Show that the function
f : Z → G defined by f(n) = in is a homomorphism. Find its Kernel.
2) Find the gcd and write it as a linear combination of the two given integers
(1024, 36).
3) State and prove Lagrange’s theorem.
B) Find all the subgroups of Z18. Also construct the subgroup lattice. 4
Set P
1) Prove that every group is isomorphic to a permutation group on its set of
elements.
2) Let G be a group and H be a normal subgroup of G. Then show that the
G
set = {Ha / a ∈ G} is a group under the operation (Ha) (Hb) = Hab.
H

3) Verify that {2m : m∈ Z} is a group with respect to multiplication.

1) If f : G → G′ is a homomorphism then
i) f(e) = e′
ii) f(x −1) = [f(x)]−1
iii) f(xn) = [f(x)]n .
G
2) If f : G → G′ be an onto homomorphism with k = kerf, then ≅ G′ .
K
3) Prove that { [0], [3], [6], [9] } is a subgroup of Z12. Construct the Cayley table
for the subgroup.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New-CBCS) Examination, 2018
Geography (Optional) (Paper – VII)
Biogeography – II
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

3) Use of map stencil is allowed.
1. Choose correct alternatives and complete the sentences : 14
1) According to E. Darwin the species have __________ relationship with
one another.
a) Historical b) Social c) Political d) Geographical
2) The primitive plants originated at __________ in the past geological time.
a) Space b) Air c) Water d) Land
3) The ________ animals have a character of presence of brain and spinal cord.
a) Invertebrates b) Multicellular c) Vertebrates d) Unicellular
4) The whole geological history of the earth is divided in to __________ eras.
a) 05 b) 06 c) 07 d) 10
5) Phylogeny is a branch of biology which studies the __________ of the plants.
a) Evolution b) Development c) Revolution d) Growth
6) In order to disperse successfully, animals require an __________ ability
to move.
a) Inanimate b) Animate c) Acquired d) Innate
7) The earliest form of plant life on the surface of the earth must be in the
form of __________ and algae.
a) Xerophytes b) Halophytes c) Bacteria d) Fungi
8) ________ is considered as the youngest period in the geological time scale.
a) Miocene b) Pliocene c) Holocene d) Eocene
P.T.O.
9) __________ do not have capacity to migrate physically; they need some
external help.
a) Plants b) Animals c) Insects d) Organisms
10) The Forest Conservation Act was implemented in India in __________
a) 1972 b) 1980 c) 1981 d) 1985
11) __________ climate in one of the reason for forceful migration of birds.
a) Healthy b) Extreme c) Pleasant d) Good
12) The ________ records of life history are well preserved in sedimentary rocks.
a) Geological b) Modern
c) Paleo d) Geographical
13) Isolated __________ show distinct types of species of animals due to
lacking of migration.
a) Desert b) Island c) Coasts d) Mountain
14) The theory of __________ of life was put forth by Charles Darwin.
a) Evolution b) Development c) Revolution d) Growth
2. Write in short (any seven) : 14

1) Define migration.
2) Mention the names of Eons.
3) Define Primordial Soup.
4) What is a resources ?
5) What is ‘pollution’ ?
6) Classify organic resources.
7) State the names of at least four water pollutants.
8) What is a ‘hazard’ ?
9) Name the natural causes of hazards.
Set P
3. A) Write in short (any two) : 10
1) Causes of air pollution
2) Evolution of plants
3) Seasonal migration.
B) Classify the resource and give suitable example. 4
4. Write a note (any two) : 14

1) Lamarckism
2) Important fibers
3) Effect of sound pollution.
5. Write answers to any two questions : 14

1) Describe the Darwin’s concept of evolution of life.
2) Describe the effects of Volcanoes as natural hazard with suitable example.
3) Explain the importance of environmental protection laws.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New-CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
Electronics (Paper – Vii)
Fundamentals of Operational Amplifier
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


i) In a phase shift oscillator Op-amp is used in ______ mode.
a) Non inverting b) Inverting
c) Voltage follower d) None of these
ii) For an ideal Op-amp, input impedance is
a) Zero b) High c) Low d) Infinity
iii) V to I converter is also called as
a) Transconductance amplifier b) Log amplifier
c) Transresistance amplifier d) None of these
iv) The peak value of the input to a precision half-wave rectifier is 10 V. The
approximate peak value of the output is
a) 9.3 V b) 10 V c) 5 V d) 10.7 V
v) High value of CMRR means
a) High I/P impedance b) Low common mode gain
c) High common mode gain d) High O/P impedance
vi) ______ stage of Operational amplifier rejects the noise signal.
a) Level shifter b) Differential amplifier
c) Emitter follower d) Output stage
vii) Schmitt’s trigger circuit is called as a _________ circuit.
a) Integrating b) Differentiating c) Subtracting d) Squaring
P.T.O.
viii) An ability of Op-amp to provided sufficient differential mode signal but to
reject common mode signal is indicated by
a) Closed loop gain b) Open loop gain
c) CMRR d) Slew rate
ix) Astable multivibrator can be used to generate
a) Only a square wave b) A sine wave
c) Only a triangular wave d) Both square and triangular waves
x) In Op-amp IC 741 power supply terminals are
a) Pin 2 and 3 b) Pin 1 and 5
c) Pin 7 and 4 d) Pin 7 and 8
xi) In a differential amplifier Ad = 1000 and Ac = 0.1, then CMRR is
a) 10000 b) 1000.1 c) 1000 d) 100
xii) A current mirror bias is used to
a) Increase gain b) Decrease gain
c) Decrease CMRR d) Increase CMRR
xiii) In Op-amp integrator, the feedback element is a
a) Resistor b) Zener diode c) Capacitor d) Voltage divider
xiv) For an ideal Op-amp, slew rate is
a) 0 b) ∞ c) 0.5 V/µs d) 5 V/µs
2. Answer any seven from the following (2 marks each) : 14

i) What are the differents configurations of differential amplifier ? Which one
configuration of differential amplifier is mostly preferred ?
ii) Why the inputs of operational amplifier are called inverting and non inverting
inputs ?
iii) Why an Op-amp is called as operational amplifier ?
iv) Define : a) output offset voltage (b) PSSR
v) Give the difference between open loop and closed loop gain of an Op-amp
with the help of symbolic diagram.
vi) Draw the circuit diagram of Op-amp as Saw tooth oscillator.
vii) Explain the need of differential amplifier.
viii) What is virtual ground ?
ix) Draw the circuit diagram of Op-amp differentiator.
Set P
3. A) Answer any two (5 marks each) : 10
i) Write a short note on current to voltage converter using Op-amp.
ii) Explain Op-amp as a Wien Bridge oscillator and obtain formula for its
frequency.
iii) What is comparator ? Write the applications of comparator.
B) Draw the circuit diagram of inverting adder by using Op-amp with three
inputs. Calculate the output voltage, if R1 = R2 = R3 = Rf and V1 = 0.5 V,
V2 = 1V and V3 = 1.5 V. 4
4. Answer any two (7 marks each) : 14

i) Explain op-amp used as differential amplifier (subtractor).
ii) With the help of circuit diagram and associated wave forms, describe the
working of basic triangular wave generator using Op-amps.
iii) Write a note on Schmitt trigger using Op-amp.
5. Answer any two (7 marks each) : 14

i) Explain Op-amp as Monostable multivibrator and obtain expression for pulse
width.
ii) Explain Op-amp as inverting and non inverting amplifiers.
iii) What is differential amplifier ? With a neat circuit diagram explain constant
current bias circuit in differential amplifier.
_____________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2018
geography (Paper No. – VIII) (New CBCS)
Agricultural Geography
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
3) Use of maps stencil is allowed.
1. Choose and write a correct from given four alternatives : 14

1) Agriculture is ___________ economic activity of man.
A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary
2) ___________ geography is the sub branch of economic geography.
A) Historical B) Settlement C) Agriculture D) Political
3) ___________ is the major crop in extensive agriculture.
A) Wheat B) Rice C) Sugarcane D) Rubber
4) ___________ is an economic factor affecting on agriculture.
A) Water bodies B) Capital C) Relief D) Soil
5) ___________ agriculture involves both crop production and livestock.
A) Intensive B) Mixed C) Extensive D) Plantation
6) In India ___________ is the founder of green revolution.
A) Swami B) Raman C) Sharma D) Swaminathan
7) Shifting cultivation is called ‘Jhuming’ in
A) Brazil B) India C) Indonesia D) Africa
8) ___________ is related to green revolution.
A) HYV B) RH C) Mb D) Nutrition
9) Ecological approach deals with the inter relationship between plants and
A) Animals B) Temperature C) Soil D) Rainfall
10) ___________ crop is cultivated in plantation agriculture.
A) Wheat B) Tea C) Maize D) None of these
P.T.O.
11) ________ farming means to acquire agriculture goals without use of chemical.
A) Intensive B) Organic C) Plantation D) Extensive
12) The term agriculture comes from a ___________ word ‘Agrecultura’.
A) German B) French C) Latin D) American
13) ___________ rainfall is one of the reasons of low agriculture productivity
in certain parts of India.
A) Reliable B) Reduced C) Increased D) Uncertain
14) pH is related to
A) Fertilizer B) Temperature C) Soil D) Pesticide
1) Define agriculture geography.
2) What is mixed farming ?
3) Economic determinants of agriculture.
4) What is green revolution ?
5) Define plantation agriculture.
6) What is biotechnology ?
7) Mention any two cash crops.
8) Any two importance of dairy farming.
9) Define regional approach of agriculture geography.
1) Explain the significance of agriculture geography.
2) Write a note on sustainable agriculture.
3) Describe physical determinants of agriculture development.
B) Write a note on extensive agriculture. 4
4. Write any two of the following : 14
1) Nature of agriculture geography.
2) Subsistence agriculture.
3) Explain social determinants of agriculture development.
5. Write any two of the following long answer question : 14
1) Explain the major problems of Indian agriculture.
2) Write a note on sheep and goat rearing.
3) Describe the scope of agriculture geography.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
electronics (Paper – VIII)
Digital Techniques and Microprocessor
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1) A data storage capacity of memory chip 6264 is ___________

a) 4 KB b) 8 KB c) 12 KB d) 16 KB
2) The memory chip has 13 bit address bus then its capacity is ________
a) 12 KB b) 8 KB c) 16 KB d) 32 KB
3) In ADC 0804 ___________ technique is used for conversion of analog

data into digital data.
a) Dual slope b) Single slope
c) SAR type d) Flash
4) The ___________ symbol is used to represent the start and stop of program
in flow chart.
a) Oval b) Diamond
c) Parallelogram d) Rectangle
5) The ___________ consists of programmable AND array and OR array.

a) PLA b) PAL c) PROM d) PGM
6) The ________ instruction is an immediate addressing mode instruction.

a) mov m, a b) inr d c) cma d) adi 05
P.T.O.
7) In memory mapped IO scheme 8085 will access ___________ ports.
a) 256 b) 512 c) 65536 d) 128
8) The _______ interrupt has highest priority in maskable interrupt of 8085.

a) rst 5.5 b) intr c) rst 6.5 d) rst 7.5
9) The ___________ IC is a tri state Unidirectional buffer.

a) 74244 b) 74245 c) 74138 d) 74373
10) The RRC instruction is an example of ___________ addressing mode.

a) Register b) Direct c) Indirect d) Implied
11) The memory chip IC 6264 is a ___________

a) sram b) eeprom c) dram d) uveprom
12) The data bus capacity of 8085 microprocessor is ___________ bit.

a) 8 b) 32 c) 16 d) 12
13) In 4 bit binary weighted digital to analog converter, if 8KΩ resistor is connected
at LSB position, then the value of resistor at MSB position is _________
a) 32KΩ b) 16KΩ c) 1KΩ d) 4KΩ
14) The ___________ IC is a called octal latch.

a) 74244 b) 74245 c) 74138 d) 74373

1) What is the basic difference between SRAM and DRAM ?
2) Draw the circuit diagram of weighted resistor DAC.
3) What is resolution of ADC ?
4) What is Microprocessor ?
5) What are the various flags in 8085 Microprocessor ?
6) Enlist any four single byte instructions of 8085 microprocessor.
7) What is conversion time of ADC ?
8) State various addressing modes supported by 8085 processor.
9) What is tri-state logic ?
Set P
3. A) Answer any two from the following : 10
1) Explain in brief the concept of PAL.
2) Explain the working principle of SAR type ADC.
3) Explain bus architecture of 8085 Microprocessor.
B) Explain clock and reset circuit of Microprocessor 8085. 4
4. Answer any two from the following : 14
1) Explain architecture of 8085 microprocessor with its block diagram.
2) Write assembly language program to transfer the block of 10 memory

locations starting from 2050 to memory location 2070 with flow chart.
3) Explain architecture of PLA with its block diagram.
1) Explain various arithmetic instructions of 8085 microprocessor with suitable

examples.
2) What is memory ? Explain various types of memories in detail.
3) Write assembly language program for addition of 08H stored at 6050H with
03H stored at 6060H and store the result at memory location 6070H. Draw
the necessary flow chart.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New – CBCS) Examination, 2018

computeR science
Data Structure (paper – VII)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. A) Choose the correct alternative. (10×1=10)

1) Which of the following is limitation of Array ?
a) fixed in size b) wastage of space
c) possibility of overflow d) all of these
2) In stack, insert and remove of element refers to __________ operation of
stack respectively.
a) push and pop
b) pop and push
c) addition and deletion
d) deletion and addition
3) __________ sorting technique require maximum time for sorting data.
a) bubble sort b) radix sort
c) quick sort d) insertion sort
4) ___________ tree also called as 2-tree.
a) height balanced tree b) extended binary tree
c) expression tree d) binary search tree
5) In tree, if we remove root, then we get _________ of tree.
a) forest b) level
c) height d) no. of nodes
6) If no. of elements is very large then ____________ method is very slow.
a) linear search b) binary search
c) multi-way search d) none of these
P.T.O.
7) Quick sort uses __________ technique.
a) backtracking b) divide and conquer
c) branch and bound d) none of these
8) Which data structure allows deleting data elements from front and inserting
at rear ?
a) stack b) queue
c) linked list d) tree
9) Binary search technique requires
a) big data b) small data
c) sorted data d) unsorted data
10) Postfix and Prefix expression of (a+b) is
a) ab+ & +ab b) +ab & ab+
c) (ab+) & (+ab) d) (+ab) & (ab+)
B) State true/false. 4
1) Full form of ADT : Abstract Data Type.
2) Top is a pointer in queue user for pointing topmost element.
3) Linked list is a linear data structure.
4) Level of node = Level of its parent node +1.
2. Attempt any 7. (7×2=14)

1) Explain concept of hashing.
2) Explain linear search algorithm using array in short.
3) What is sorting ? List the different sorting methods.
4) Define threaded binary tree with example.
5) Define overflow and underflow.
6) Differentiate stack and queue.
7) List the applications of stack.
8) What is ADT ? Explain stack as ADT.
3. A) Attempt any 2. (2×5=10)

1) Define linear queue with example. Explain operations of linear queue
using linked list.
2) What is tree ? Explain complete binary tree and expression tree with
example.
3) Write a ‘C’ program to demonstrate stack using linked list.
B) explain BST with example and draw BST for 7, 14, 3, 1, 4, 17, 11. (1×4=4)
Set P
4. Attempt any 2. (2×7=14)
1) Explain algorithm of selection sort with example.
2) What is binary tree ? Explain tree traversals with example.
3) Write a ‘C’ program to demonstrate Binary Search Technique.
5. Attempt any 2. (2×7=14)

1) What is Linked list ? Explain following operations using linear linked list.
A) Insert _ At_ Beginning()
B) Insert _In_Between()
C) Insert_At_End()
D) Delete_At_Beginning()
E) Delete_In_Between()
F) Delete_At_End()
2) Define AVL Tree with example. Explain its rotations in detail.
3) Write a ‘C’ program to demonstrate insertion sort.
________________

Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
Computer Science
DBMS Using Oracle (Paper – VIII) (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 17-12-2018 Marks : 70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Which of the following SQL command can be used to modify existing
data in a database table ?
a) Modify b) update
c) Change d) New
2) Select * from employee, what type of statement is this ?
a) DML
b) DDL
c) View
d) Integrity constraint
3) ___________ is a full form of SQL.
a) Standard Query Language
b) Sequential Query language
c) Structured Query Language
d) Server Side Query Language
4) A _____________ is used to define overall design of the database.
a) schema
b) application program
c) data definition language
d) code
5) Grant and revoke are _____________ statements.
a) DDL b) TCL c) DCL d) DML
P.T.O.
6) What are the different events in Triggers ?

a) Define, Create b) Drop, Comment
c) Insert, Update, Delete d) Select, Commit
7) Architecture of the database can be viewed as
a) Two levels b) Four levels
c) Three levels d) One level
8) The _____________ can be used to ensure database integrity.
a) entity integrity b) database constraints
c) referential integrity d) cardinality
9) If a transaction acquires a shared lock, then it can perform
_____________ operation.
a) read b) write
c) read and write d) update
10) In a two-phase locking protocol, a transaction release locks in
_____________ phase.
a) shrinking phase b) growing phase
c) running phase d) initial phase
11) Dependencies are in _____________ form.
a) 3NF b) 2NF
c) 4NF d) BCNF
12) Data about data is normally termed as
a) directory
b) data bank
c) meta data
d) none of the above
13) Prevention of access to the database by unauthorized users is referred to as
a) Integrity b) Productivity
c) Security d) Reliability
14) The ER model includes additional concepts like
a) Specialization b) Generalization
c) Aggregation d) All of the above
Set P
2. Answer the following (any 7) : 14

1) List out various components of DBMS.
2) Define domain.
3) Define data dictionary.
4) Define deadlock.
5) Define cursor.
6) What is generalization ?
7) State limitations of traditional file system.
8) State different types of joins.
9) What is starvation ?

1) Explain different database languages.
2) Explain different types of keys.
3) Explain select, project and union relational algebra operations.
B) Define DBMS. Explain various advantages of DBMS. 4

1) Define normalization. Explain 1NF, 2NF, 3NF.
2) What is trigger ? Explain types of trigger with example.
3) Define transaction and explain transaction state with suitable diagram.

1) Define attribute. Explain various types of attributes.
2) Define scheduling. Explain various types of scheduling.
3) Explain various deadlock handling techniques.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Biochemistry (Paper – III) (New)
Nutrition and Metabolism
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the
following 14
i) Ammonia eliminated through urine is mostly derived from __________
a) aspartic acid b) glutamine c) alanine d) arginine
ii) The synthesis of fatty acids is catalysed by __________ enzymes.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
iii) Degradable chemical reactions inside the cell are known as __________
process.
a) metabolic b) anabolic c) catabolic d) anaerobic
iv) Basal metabolic rate is ___________ in colder climates.
a) higher b) lower c) normal d) zero
v) Efficiency of glycolysis is about __________ from the point of view of
conservation of energy.
a) 21% b) 31% c) 41% d) 51%
vi) One gram of protein on oxidation in the body produces ________ kcal
of energy.
a) 3.0 b) 4.0 c) 6.0 d) 9.0
vii) Cytochromes contain __________ which is involved in respiratory process.
a) iron ions b) FAD c) NAD+ d) Copper ions
P.T.O.
viii) Decarboxylation of amino acid require ____________ cofactor.
a) NAD b) PLP c) FAD d) Lipoic acid
ix) For Respiratory Quotient (R. Q) value equal to 0.7 means __________ is
being exclusively metabolised in the body.
a) proteins b) fats
c) carbohydrates d) minerals
x) __________ buffer system is principal buffer system of blood.
a) phosphate b) bicarbonate
c) haemoglobin d) protein
xi) From deamination of glutamic acid __________ is obtained.
a) NH3 b) NO2 c) CO2 d) N2
xii) All spontaneous reaction proceed with __________ in the free energy.
a) increase b) equilibrium c) decrease d) zero value
xiii) Pyruvic acid is a starting substrate for __________ cycle.
a) oxalic acid b) nitric acid c) urea d) citric acid
xiv) RBCs utilise __________ as a source of energy for metabolism.
a) proteins b) lipids c) glucose d) glycogen

i) Define and explain nitrogen balance in body.
ii) What is lactic acid fermentation ?
iii) What is amino acid metabolism ?
iv) Define exergonic and endergonic reactions.
v) What is biosynthesis of palmitic acid ?
vi) Write the structures of glucose-6-phosphate and fructose-6-phosphate.
vii) Mention the components of respiratory chain.
viii) Define colorimetry. What is food colorie ?
ix) What is the function of water in the body ?
Set P
i) Which factors affect BMR ? How ?
ii) Write and explain the reaction of glycogenesis.
iii) Write the significance of high energy compounds.
B) Which are essential fatty acids ? Why ? 4

i) Define urea cycle. Write and explain the reactions of urea cycle.
ii) What are protein buffers ? Explain the renal mechanism of pH regulations.
iii) How are lipids oxidised in the body ? Explain the β-oxidation of palmitic acid.

i) Illustrate the role of various components involved in electron transport chain.
ii) Write and explain the reactions of preparatory phase of glycolysis.
iii) What is balanced diet ? Explain carbohydrates, fats and minerals as a
constituent of balanced diet.
_____________
Set P
Seat
no.
Set P
plant Protection (New CBCS)
Paper – III : Introduction to Weeds and Non Insect Pests
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : I) All questions are compulsory.
II) All questions carry equal marks.
III) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
IV) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative : (1�14=14)
1) Pollen grains of Parthenium ______ cause allergy and poisonous to man.
a) spinosus b) oleracea
c) tenella d) hysterophorus
2) Classification of weeds based on ___________
a) Ontogeny b) Ecology
c) Crop association d) All of these
3) Dispersal of weed agencies are ___________
a) Wind b) Animal
c) Crop seeds d) All of these
4) Stem parasitic weed Cuscuta control with the help of 2.5% ________
a) H2SO4 b) NaOH
c) Nacl2 d) NaHCO3
5) Example of root parasitic weed is ___________ sps.
a) Parthenium b) Striga
c) Argemone d) Cyperus
6) Example of emergent weed is ___________
a) hydrila b) Eicchornia
c) typha d) All of these
7) Weeds are controlled with the help of ___________ weedicides.
a) 2,4,8-T b) 2,4,6-T
c) 2,4,7-T d) 2,4,5-T
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 100 -2- *SLRSO100*
8) Portulaka oleracea weed belongs to the family ___________
a) Portulacaceae b) Asteraceae
c) Amaranthaceae d) Euphorbiaceae
9) Cyperus rotundus weed control with help of ___________ weedicides.
a) Metrazine b) Atrazine
c) Citrazine d) All of these
10) Cover crop is the example of ___________ method.
a) Biological b) Chemical
c) Cultural d) Mechanical
11) In biological method of weed management weed is controlled by ______
a) bacteria b) fungi
c) insect d) All of these
12) Gordium worm locally known as ___________ worm.
a) Round b) Tape
c) Thread d) All of these
13) Mites belong to the phylum ___________
a) nematoda b) chordata
c) Arthropoda d) None of these
14) Chemically rat is controlled with help of ____________ phosate.
a) iron b) chlorin
c) calcium d) zinc
2. Answer any seven of the following : (7�2=14)

i) Define non insect pest.
ii) Write about control of mites.
iii) What is weedicide ?
iv) Define cultural method.
v) Give two examples of weed management.
vi) What is dispersal ?
vii) Define poisonous weed.
viii) What is Ontogeny ?
ix) Define weed.
Set P
*SLRSO100* -3- SLR-SO – 100
3. A) Answer any two of the following : (2�5=10)
i) Explain the classification of weed based on crop association.
ii) Give the mode of dispersal of weeds.
iii) Describe the poisonous weed studied by you.
B) Explain the mophology and control of Cynodon dactylon. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : (2�7=14)

i) Describe the Glyphosate with respect to properties, formulation and their
uses.
ii) Give classification of weedicides on the basis of chemical nature and mode
of action.
iii) Explain the Alternanthera tenella weed studied by you.

i) Describe the Amaranthus spinosus weed studied by you.
ii) Explain the weed management of fungi and insect of biological method.
iii) Describe the field sanitation and mulching method of weed management.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper – IV) (New)
Molecular Biochemistry and Diseases
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the following : 14
i) mRNA has ________ tails at its 3’ end.
a) poly C b) poly A c) poly D d) poly B
ii) An optimum temperature or pH, the rate or velocity of an enzymetic reaction is
a) maximum b) minimum
c) moderate d) constant
iii) ________ is most commonly used vector of E. Coli.
a) β phage b) δ phage c) λ phage d) α phage
iv) Juvenile onset diabetes occurs particularly between ________ years.
a) 1 to 15 b) 20 to 35 c) 40 to 50 d) 60 to 75
v) Tears contains
a) zylosome b) acetylase
c) lysozyme d) polymerase
vi) Enzymes function as a catalyst by ________ of activation energy.
a) change b) replacement
c) enhancing d) lowering
vii) For proteins of animals origin, the term immunoglobulin was used by
a) NGO b) PTO c) WHO d) HWO
viii) ________ is not a class of immunoglobulin.
a) IgA b) IgC c) IgD d) IgE
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 101 -2- *SLRSO101*
ix) The non protein part covalently bound to the enzyme is the
a) holoenzyme b) apoenzyme
c) prosthetic group d) ribozome
x) Insulin hormone is formed in
a) small intestine b) kidney
c) liver d) pancreas
xi) Lactate hydrogenase isoenzyme are compound of ________ types of
subunits.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
xii) In acute phase the body response to HIV infection within
a) 1 to 2 years b) 2 to 5 years
c) 1 to 2 weeks d) 3 to 6 weeks
xiii) Km of an enzymatic reaction is the concentration of ________ at which
enzyme shows half of its maximum velocity.
a) Enzyme b) Substrate
c) ES complex d) Product
xiv) Natural UV rays from sun can cause cancer of
a) lung b) bones c) skin d) blood cells

i) What is induced fit hypothesis ?
ii) Write chronic phase stage of AIDS.
iii) Explain in brief prokaryotes.
iv) Mention types of enzyme specificity.
v) How is proinsulin converted into insulin ?
vi) What is reverse trancsriptase ?
vii) How biochemical changes occur in growing tumour cells ?
viii) Write features of enzymes.
ix) What is innate immunity ?
Set P
*SLRSO101* -3- SLR-SO – 101

i) What are the ways for management of insulin dependent diabetes and
non insulin dependent diabetes ?
ii) Explain regulation of gene expression.
iii) What are characteristic of tumour cells?
B) Write applications of genetic engineering. 4

i) Explain in detail types of diabetes mellitus.
ii) Explain the concept of activation energy. Add a note on active site of enzyme
and its features.
iii) Derive the Michaelis Menten equation for enzyme kinetics of monosubstrate
reaction. Write significance of Km and Vmax.

i) What are concatometers ? How are they formed ?
ii) Explain transamination of HIV.
iii) Explain acquired immunity.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Plant Protection (New CBCS Pattern)
Paper – IV : Insect Pests and their Management
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

III) Draw neat and labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the correct answer from the given alternative : (1�14=14)
1) Classification of insect pests is based on ____________
a) nature of damage b) mouth parts
c) metamorphosis d) all of these
2) Host of Wooly Aphids are ____________
a) Bomboo b) Sugarcane c) Annona d) All of these
3) Scientific name of Stem Borer is
a) Chillo zonellus b) Chrotogonus trachypterus
c) Bruchus chinensis d) Aphis sps.
4) Pod borer is chemically controlled with the help of ____________
a) malathion 20% b) malathion 15%
c) malathion 10% d) Malathion 5%
5) Scientific name of Jassids is ____________
a) Leucinodes orbonalis b) Heliothis armigera
c) Idioscopus clypealis d) Chillo zonellus
6) Fruit Borer is the example of ____________
a) rose b) tomato c) brinjal d) mango
7) Classification of insecticides is based on ____________
a) Chemical nature b) Mode of action
c) mode of entry d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 102 -2- *SLRSO102*
8) On the basis of metamorphosis, insects are divided into ____________
types.
a) three b) four c) five d) six
9) Example of recent trends in pests management are ____________
a) attractants b) repellents c) antifeedants d) all of these
10) Fly larvae is also known as ____________
a) maggots b) caterpillars c) wireworms d) cutworms
11) Bark beetles pest i s controlled with the help of ____________
a) butylsorbate b) methyl linolate
c) anisylactone d) all of these
12) The term pheromones is first time described by ____________
a) Jackson b) Johnson
c) Karlson d) None of these
13) White grubs insect pest is the example of ____________
a) groundnut b) gram c) mango d) brinjal
14) Thrips insect pest is the example of ____________
a) Jowar b) Sugarcane c) Gram d) Rose
2. Attempt any seven of the following : (7�2=14)

i) Define pesticides.
ii) What is insecticide ?
iii) Define repellents.
iv) What is management ?
v) Give the scientific name of tomato and brinjal.
vi) Define metamorphosis.
vii) Write two characters of nature of damage of Jowar.
viii) Define quantitative.
ix) Write two general characters of wings.
Set P
*SLRSO102* 3- SLR-SO – 102
3. A) Attempt any two of the following : (2�5=10)

i) Explain the attractants of recent trends in pest management.
ii) Write a note on precautionary measures used during pesticides application.
iii) Describe the principles of insect pest control studied by you.
B) Explain the mark of identification and host range of Stem Borer insect pests. 4
4. Attempt any two of the following : (2�7=14)

i) Explain the stored grain pests rice weevil and their management.
ii) Describe the sugarcane-wooly aphids insect pests studied by you.
iii) Write general characters of typical insect with respect to types of legs
and abdomen.
5. Attempt any two of the following : (2�7=14)

i) Describe the classification of insect pest based on mouth parts.
ii) Explain the mango-pod borer insect pests studied by you.
iii) Describe the losses caused by insect pests in detail
_____________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc.– II (Semester – IV) (New – CBCS) Examination, 2018
Paper – III : Meteorology
Applied Climatology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite sentences : 14

1) The primary purpose of clothing is to protect man against _______ and
improve him physiological compare.
(Humidity, Temperature, Wind, Weather)
2) Shivering is physiological response to ________condition.
(Cloudy, Cold, Warm, Hot)
3) The quality of road transpiration is influenced by
(Temperature, Climate, Weather, Cloud)
4) Surface pressure varies routinely from about __________ mb to 1050 mb.
(950, 955, 960, 965)
5) _________ is irregular motion of air over short distance in the atmosphere.
(Anticyclone, Turbulence, Cyclone, Circulation)
6) Medium range forecast up to ________ days.
(3 to 21, 3 to 26, 3 to 48, 3 to 72)
7) The term ‘forecast’ was first applied in meteorology by
(Miller, Fitzroy, Coriolis, Trewartha)
8) Statistical method are used for _________ range forecasting of weather.
(Short, Medium, Long, Daily)
P.T.O.
9) When the isobars are widely spaced the pressure gradient is
(Gentle, Moderate, Steep, Vertical)
10) The _________ heat Island are formed due to additional for heat from
automobile.
(Hamlet, Rural, Urban, Village)
11) The grand bank is noted for hazards to shipping due to _______ and icebergs.
(Haze, Fog, Mist, Smog)
12) Prevailing wind determine the best orientation of
(Road, Rail, Ropeway, Runway)
13) __________ vitamin necessary for the prevention of bone disease.
(A, B, C, D)
14) Along the east coast of subtropics up weeding of sea water by ______ surface.
(Moderate, Steady, Strong, Weak)
2. Write answers for the following questions (any seven) : 14

1) What is Physiological response ?
2) Urban climate.
3) Define atmospheric pressure.
4) What is Coriolis force ?
5) What is Agro-climate ?
6) Short range weather forecasting.
7) What periodic local wind ?
8) Long range weather forecasting.
3. A) Write answer for the following question (any two) : 10

1) State the importance of temperature in physiological response.
2) Give an account of atmospheric pressure.
3) What are the rotational forces ?
B) What are the industrial pollution ? 4
4. Write answers for the following question (any two) : 14

1) Explain in brief types of weather forecasting.
2) Explain the importance of pressure gradient in atmosphere.
3) Describe the effect of climate on agriculture.
5. Write answers for the following question (any two) : 14

1) Write the effect of urban climate on body comfort.
2) State the importance of air operations on marine activities.
3) Explain the inter relations between telecommunication and air.
_____________ Set P

Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

geochemistry (Paper – III) (New)
Principles of Geochemistry
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1
3) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.

1) Ice  water is an example of ____________ reaction.
a) irreversible b) reversible
c) fast d) exothermic
2) According to Lewis theory, acid is __________ acceptor.
a) proton b) neutron
c) electron pair d) electron
3) Chemical equilibrium is always ___________ in nature.
a) static b) dynamic
c) elastic d) all of these
4) Organic activity of Na2Co3 __________ with decrease in temperature.
5) The functional group of carboxilic acid is
a) – OH b) > C = O
c) – COOH d) – NH2
6) The formation of petroleum is from _____________ rock.
a) sedimentary b) igneous
c) metamorphic d) basalt
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 104 -2- *SLRSO104*
7) ______________ is one of the physical method used to remove germs and
bacteria from raw water.
a) chlorination b) fluoxidation
c) distillation d) ozonization
8) Water which gives good lather with soap is called as
a) hard b) soft
c) permanent hard water d) temporary soft water
9) ____________ is unstable when it is exposed to air.
a) olivine b) parafin
c) aniline d) none of these
10) ___________ principle is applicable for reversible reaction.
a) Equilibrium b) Lechatalier’s
c) Gibb’s d) Faraday’s
11) Na2CO3 is ___________ in nature.
a) acidic b) neutral
c) basic d) electrolyte
12) The pH of ocean water is
a) 8.1 b) 5.1 c) 6.1 d) 7.0
13) Alkenes contains ____________ bonds.
a) single b) double
c) triple d) alternate
14) Petroleum is a mixture of
a) nitrocarbon b) halogen
c) hydrocarbon d) acids

1) Give the source of water pollution.
2) Define water pollutant. Give one example.
3) Write the names of following :
a) C12H22O11
b) C2H2
Set P
*SLRSO104* -3- SLR-SO – 104
4) Write the structure of
a) n-butane
b) iso-butane
5) Explain the nature of basic rock and acidic rock.
6) Select the conjugate acid base pair of the following.
HCl + H2O  H3O+ + Cl–
7) Define neutralization according to Arrhenius theory.
8) State law of mass action. Give one example.
9) Explain the term “Stability of elements”.

1) Discuss the effect of temperature, pressure and concentration on the
reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2HN3(g) + Heat
2) Show that chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature for the reaction
A+B  C+D
3) Write a short note on :
Sedimentary rocks.
B) Explain the process of chemical oxygen demand (COD) for the treatment
on water pollutant. 4

1) Give an account of “origin of petroleum”.
2) Define water pollution. Explain any one physical method for the treatment
of water pollution.
3) How the concentrations of Bicarbonate and carbonate can be estimated
from the hydrolysis of sodium carbonate ?

1) Give an account of “origin of coal”.
2) Define hydrolysis. Explain the hydrolysis of Ammonium chloride.
3) Write a short note on chemistry of carbon.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
(New : CBCS Pattern)
zoology
paper – VII : Animal Diversity – IV
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Rewrite the sentence by choosing correct alternative : 14

i) Pouched beak is found in
a) Duck b) Pellican
c) Kite d) Sparrow
ii) Teatless mammary glands are found in
a) Cow b) Elephant
c) Duck bill platypus d) Deer
iii) _________ is an endocrine gland having duct.
a) Stomach b) Intestine
c) Testis d) Pancreas
iv) In ______ incisors grows throughout life.
a) Rat b) Dog
c) Monkey d) Rabbit
v) In Kangaroo _________ uteri and vagina are found.
a) Single b) Double
c) Triple d) Four
vi) Elephant shows dental formula
a) 2,1,2,3/ 2,1,2,3 b) 1,0,0,3/ 0,0,0,3
c) 4,3,2,0/ 4,2,1,2 d) None of the above
vii) Fangs are found in
a) Rat snake b) Python c) Viper d) Sand boa
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 105 -2- *SLRSO105*
viii) Scutes and scales are found in
a) Mammals b) Aves
c) Amphibians d) Reptiles
ix) Archaeopteryx shows _________ type of teeth in break.
a) Thecodont b) Homodont
c) Heterodont d) Diphyodont
x) Migration of birds from mountain to valley and vice versa is called
_______ migration.
a) Longitudinal b) Latitudinal
c) Altitudinal d) Seasonal
xi) Flat tail is found in
a) Rat snake b) Sa snake c) Sand boa d) Rattle snake
xii) Optic lobes are the organs of
a) Vision b) Equilibrium c) Hearing d) Involuntary
xiii) Leydig cells are found in
a) Ovary b) Liver c) Stomach d) Testis
xiv) Sclerotic plate is present in
a) Pigeon b) Rat c) Rabbit d) Cow

i) Tearing and piercing beak.
ii) Functions of teeth.
iii) Indian cobra.
iv) Fruit eating beak.
v) Cursorial feet in birds.
vi) Functions of Liver.
vii) Primates.
viii) Snake venome.
ix) Functions of Kidney.
Set P
*SLRSO105* -3- SLR-SO – 105
i) Give general characters of Aves.
ii) Eye of rat.
iii) Plesiosaur.
B) Describe Female reproductive system in Rat. 4

i) Explain arterial system of rat.
ii) Discuss arial adaptation in birds.
iii) Discuss Poisonous apparatus in snake.

i) Give salient features of monotremes.
ii) Explain nervous system in rat.
iii) Give detail account on dentition in carnivorous mammals.
___________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (New – CBCS) Examination, 2018
meteorology
Meteorological Instruments (Paper – IV)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
4) Use of calculator and log tables is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternatives. 14

i) Rainfall is measured using a
a) Hygrometer b) Thermometer
c) Barometer d) Rain gauge
ii) The float type; with automatic siphon, weighing gauges and tipping-bucket
gauges are types of
a) hygrometers b) radiometers
c) thermometers d) rain gauges
iii) For automatic recording of rainfall _______ is used.
a) anemograph b) hygrograph c) barograph d) float gauge
iv) A temperature of 0°C is equal to ________ °F.
a) – 40 b) 0 c) 32 d) 80
v) At what temperature do the Celsius and the Fahrenheit scales coincide ?
a) 0° b) – 40° c) – 80° d) – 273°
vi) The six’s thermometer is used to measure _______ temperature.
a) Minimum b) Maximum
c) Minimum and maximum d) Absolute zero
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 106 -2- *SLRSO106*
vii) For automatic recording of temperature ________ is used.

a) Thermograph b) Barograph
c) Anemograph d) Hygrograph
viii) The lines joining places of equal _______ are called isobars.
a) wind speed b) Temperature
c) Pressure d) Humidity
ix) The instrument used for measurement of atmospheric pressure is known as
a) barometer b) thermometer c) anemometer d) calorimeter
x) Aneroid barometer is used to measure atmospheric
a) density b) pressure c) temperature d) humidity
xi) Air in motion is known as
a) Spinning b) Wind c) Rotation d) Revolution
xii) Wind results from __________ heating of different parts of the earth.
a) over b) even c) equal d) uneven
xiii) The arrangement of two dissimilar metals forming two functions is known as
a) Thermograph b) Thermopile c) Termocouple d) Thermometer
xiv) A thermopile consists of large number of ______ connected in series.
a) thermometers b) radiometers
c) thermocouples d) psychrometers
2. Answer any seven of the following. 14

i) What is rain gauge ?
ii) What is a self recording rain gauge ?
iii) Obtain interrelation between different temperature scales.
iv) State differences and similarities between mercury thermometer and alcohol
thermometer.
v) What is a barometer ?
vi) What are advantages of anemograph over an anemometer ?
vii) What is humidity ?
viii) What is a hygrometer ?
Set P
*SLRSO106* -3- SLR-SO – 106
3. A) Answer any two of the following. 10

i) With neat diagram explain construction and working of float gauge.
ii) With neat labeled diagram, describe maximum and minimum thermometer.
iii) Write a short note on the wind vane.
B) Two unknown wind velocities 40 km/hr and 60 km/hr are measured using
a cup anemometer and the respective linear velocities of rotating cups are
25 m/s and 40 m/s. Determine constants of the cup anemometer. 4

i) With neat diagram explain the construction and working of automatic siphon
gauge.
ii) With neat diagram explain construction and working of thermograph.
iii) With neat diagram explain construction and working of Hooke’s
anemometer.
5. Answer any one of the following. 14

i) With neat labeled diagram explain construction and working of aneroid
barometer.
ii) Write a note on seebeck effect.
State the e.m.f equation for a thermocouple. hence show that inversion
temperature (θi) is twice the neutral temperature (θn)F.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

Geochemistry (New)
Chemistry of the Earth (Paper – IV)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from given options. 14

1) Pyroxene minerals convert to __________ mineral by oxidation and
hydration.
a) Kaolinite b) Smectite
c) Goethite d) Calcite
2) Mantle is mainly made up of _________ silicates.
a) Ni-Fe b) Mn-Fe c) Mg-Fe d) Na-Fe
3) The most resistant/non-susceptible mineral to weathering is __________
a) quartz b) olivine
c) mica d) pyroxene
4) ‘B’ soil horizon is characterised by accumulation of leached elements from
___________ horizon.
a) R b) D c) C d) A
5) If pH of the soil is 10 then the soil is said to be ___________
a) acidic b) alkaline
c) basic d) neutral
6) The process involving loss of electrons is ___________
a) oxidation b) reduction
c) potential d) redundant
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 107 -2- *SLRSO107*
7) Limonite formation is an example of _________ chemical weathering

process.
a) solution b) oxidation
c) carbonation d) hydration
8) Primary geochemical differentiation took place due to ___________
a) affinity of ions b) magnetism
c) ionisation d) gravity
9) Hydration of ion is inversely proportional to its __________
a) diameter b) radius
c) charge d) valency
10) The composition of soil is __________
a) solids b) humus
c) air d) all of these
11) Hydration of ion is inversely proportional to its ___________
a) radius b) charge c) diameter d) valency
12) __________ has maximum affinity to oxygen.
a) Ca b) Mg c) Fe d) Na
13) Soil whose dimensions are between __________ mm is sandy soil.
a) 2 and 0.2 b) 0.2 and 0.02
c) 0.02 and 0.002 d) <0.002)
14) Marine clays are mainly of __________ type.
a) Mont Morillonite b) Kaolinite
c) China Clay d) Illite

i) What is hydrogen ion concentration in pure water at 25°C ?
ii) Name the air pollutants.
iii) What is humus in soil ?
iv) Mineral susceptibility sequence for chemical weathering.
v) Explain role of particulate matter in air pollution.
vi) What is mollisol soil ?
vii) What is gravitational differentiation ?
Set P
*SLRSO107* -3- SLR-SO – 107
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

i) Agents of chemical weathering.
ii) What are factors controlling soil formation ?
iii) What are iron sediments ?
B) Explain modern classification of soil. 4

i) Soil texture.
ii) Soil pollution.
iii) Describe smectite structure.

i) Explain geochemical cycle.
ii) Describe the process of formation of clay minerals.
iii) Explain soil pollution.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (New – CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
zoology
Paper – VIII : Histology and Physiology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Multiple choice questions. 14

1) The Connection of muscle to bone due to
a) Ligament b) Tendon c) Cartilage d) Bridge
2) Bile is secreted by ________ cell.
a) Leucocytes b) Hepatocytes c) Erythrocytes d) Osteocytes
3) ________ is not a muscular tissue.
a) Cartilage b) Skeletal c) Smooth d) Connective
4) In _______ connective tissue the matrix is tough.
a) Areolar b) Adipose c) Muscular d) Skeletal
5) β cell of pancreas secretes ________ hormone.
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Glycogen d) Thyroxine
6) _________ is a functional unit of kidney.
a) Uriniferous tubule b) Seminiferous tubule
c) Malphigian tubule d) Flame cell
7) _______ Papillae are located at the apex and along the lateral margin of
tongue.
a) Filliform b) Fugiform
c) Circumvallates d) Foliate
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 108 -2- *SLRSO108*
8) Role of Leyding cell is

a) Nourishment of sperm
b) Give motility to sperms
c) Synthesis of testosterone hormones
d) Undergo spermatogenesis
9) The menstrual cycle in human last for _______ days.
a) 14 b) 24 c) 28 d) 30
10) ________ is the hormone helps to enhance pregnancy.
a) FSH b) Testosterone c) LH d) Progesterone
11) Hormone _______ is responsible for relaxation of pelvic ligament during
birth of child.
a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) FSH d) Relaxin
12) The use of ________ is only contraceptive method to prevent HIV infection.
a) Foam tablets b) IUC c) Condom d) Oral pills
13) As the egg is fertilized in test tube and kept in to embryo formation is known
as the ________ baby.
a) Clone b) Twins c) Test tube d) Embryo
14) Connection of bone to bone is due to
a) Ligament b) Tendon c) Cartilage d) Bridge

1) B-cell immunity.
2) Seminiferous tubules
3) Killer T cell.
4) Lymph node.
5) Vasopressin.
6) Acromegaly.
7) Tubectomy.
8) Tendon.
9) FSH.
Set P
*SLRSO108* -3- SLR-SO – 108
1) Describe the histological structure of mammalian tooth.
2) Write about female sex hormones.
3) Describe the process of IVF technique.
B) Describe the histological structure of mammalian pancreas. 4

1) Describe the Menstrual cycle.
2) Explain the mechanical method of contraceptives.
3) Explain the role of hormone in lactation.

1) Describe the hormones secreted by adenohypophysis.
2) Write about hormonal control of testicular activity.
3) Describe the process of amniocentesis. Add a note on its applications.
_______________
Set P
*SLRHO109* SLR-SO – 109
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018

botany (Paper – VII) (New)
Plant Physiology and Cytogenetics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct alternatives : 14

1) ________ are the essential photosynthetic pigments.
a) Carotin and Xanthophyll b) Chl. a and Chl. b
c) Phycocyanine d) Phycoerythrene
2) __________ is a photosynthetic apparatus.
a) Mitochondrion b) Ribosome c) Chloroplast d) None of these
3) _________ not occurs in the cyclic type of photophosphorylation.
a) Photolysis of water b) Evolution of O2
c) Formation of reduced NADPH d) All of these
4) HSK pathway is occurs in ________ plants.
a) C4 b) C3 c) CAM d) Both b and c
5) The enzyme nitrogenase is extremely sensitive to
a) H2 b) O2 c) CO2 d) N2
6) _________ is present in healthy root nodules of leguminous plants.
a) Leghemoglobin b) Hemoglobin
7) _________ is symbiotic nitrogen fixing algae.
a) Nostoc b) Spirogyra c) Sargassum d) Ulothrix
8) ________ pairs of contrasting characters are present in Pisum sativum.
a) 8 b) 7 c) 3 d) 14
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 109 -2- *SLRHO109*
9) Law of independent assortment shows ________ type of phenotypic
ratio.
a) 9 : 7 b) 9 : 3 : 4 c) 13 : 3 d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
10) The progeny produced in F1 generation is always
a) recessive b) dominant c) both a and b d) none of these
11) _________ is does not occurs in multiple alleles.
a) Linkage b) Crossing over
12) The complementary gene interaction in sweet pea was explained by
a) T.H. Morgan b) Johansen
c) E.M. East d) Bateson and Punnet
13) E.M. East was discovered multiple allelism in
a) Nicotiana tobaccum b) Lathyrathus odoratus
c) Pisum sativum d) Mirabilis jalapha
14) The phenomenon of inheritance of two or more genes located on same
chromosomes togetherally is known as
a) crossing over b) recombination
c) linkage d) none of these

1) What is photolysis of water ?
2) What are three phages of Calvin cycle ?
3) What is photosystem I ?
4) What is symbiotic nitrogen fixation ?
5) Define gene.
6) State the Mendel’s law of purity of gametes.
7) What is crossing over ?
8) Enlist the blood groups.
9) Define photosynthesis.
Set P
*SLRHO109* -3- SLR-SO – 109

1) Write in brief photosynthetic apparatus.
2) Write in brief interaction inhibitory genes.
3) Write in brief incomplete linkage.
B) Write short note on eye color in Drosophila. 4

1) Explain non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
2) Describe the mechanism of crossing over.
3) Explain multiple alleles in blood groups of man.

1) Write in brief CAM pathway.
2) What is gene interaction ? Describe supplementary gene interaction.
3) Explain Mendel’s law of independent assortment with suitable example.
_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
botany (Paper – VIII) (New)
Economic Botany
Day and Date : Monday, 24-12-2018onday, 15-5-2017 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.10.3

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives : (1×14=14)
1) Common name of Cicer arietinum is

a) Chick Pea b) Red Gram c) Cango Pea d) Pigeon Pea
2) Coir is obtained from the fruits of _______
a) Cotton b) Coconut c) Ground nut d) Soyabean
3) The botanical name of Vasaka is
a) Rauvolfia serpentina b) Terminalia chebula
c) Adhatoda zeylanica d) Glycerrhiza glabra
4) Withania somnifera is a _____________ drug.
a) Stem b) Rhizome c) Leaf d) Root
5) ‘Gulvel satva’ is prepared from the starch in ____________ stem.
a) Tinospora cordifolia b) Papaver somniferum
c) Terminalia belerica d) Ephedra species
6) Example of drugs obtained from flower bud is
a) Hirda b) Clove c) Behda d) Red gram
7) Acalypa is a ____________ Plant.
a) Succulent b) Seasonal c) Perennial d) Climber
8) _________ is used as botanical pesticides.
a) Palas b) Oak c) Teak d) Neem
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 110 -2- *SLRSO110*
9) ____________ is source of rhizome dyes.
a) Turmeric b) Indigo c) Heena d) Oak
10) Arachis hypogea commonly known as _________
a) Arecanut b) Peanut c) Walnut d) None of these
11) Facials and skin lotions are prepared from the leaves of ______
a) Bryophyllum b) Opuntia c) Aloe d) Both a and b
12) Varnacular name of Withania somnifera is
a) Sarpagandha b) Nishigandha c) Dongari d) Ashwagandha
13) ___________ is cultivated as fodder legume.
a) Lucerne b) Chick Pea c) Cangopea d) Pigeon pea
14) Alkaloid azadirachtin having insecticidal property is present in
a) Awala b) Neem c) Groundnut d) Soyabean
2. Answer any seven of the following : (2×7=14)
i) Give the botanical names of Fodder legumes.
ii) Give the botanical names and sources of vegetable oils.
iii) Define perennials.
iv) What are fibres ?
v) What is ornamental plants ?
vi) Define perfumes and cosmetics.
vii) Define dyes.
viii) Give the botanical names of dyes obtained from flowers.
ix) Give the botanical names of plant pesticides.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : (2×5=10)

i) Give botanical name, sources and economic importance of chickpea.
ii) Give brief account of cultural practices of groundnut.
iii) State the economic importance of Ginger.
B) Give the properties of Rubber. (1×4=4)
Set P
*SLRSO110* -3- SLR-SO – 110
4. Answer any two of the following : (2×7=14)
i) What is seasonals ? Give the botanical names and ornamental value of

Cock’s comb and shevanti.
ii) Give the botanical name, source and economic importance of Cotton.
iii) Give the botanical name, source and economic importance of dyes obtained
from leaves.
i) Give the botanical name, source and economic importance of korphad.
ii) Give botanical name, sources, chemical constituents and economic

importance of fruit drugs.
iii) Give the botanical name, source and economic importance of Coir.
______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P

psychology
Cognitive Psychology (Paper No. VII) (New)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Choose and write a correct answer of the following : 14

1) ________ processes are set in motion at the time of the experience.
A) Encoding B) Physics C) Sociology D) Economics
2) A _______ image creates the experience of “seeing with the mind’s eye”.
A) mental B) cognitive C) abnormal D) experimental
3) __________ activity also can be studied by constructing models.
A) Social B) Mental C) Experimental D) Emotional
4) ________ relied primarily on process models.
A) Abnormal B) Cognitive psychology
C) Psychophysics D) Social
5) Non-declarative memory refers to non-conscious form of term memory.
A) sensory B) iconic C) long D) short
6) Neural-network models also called _______ models.
A) personality B) abnormality C) connectionist D) feedback
7) __________ psychology began as a science in 1879.
A) Cognitive B) Abnormal C) Social D) Mind
8) __________ does not necessarily imply causation.
A) Correlation B) Effect C) Le Bon D) Cost
9) Verbal information in ____________ memory.
A) sensory B) working C) short term D) long term
10) We can evaluate the various co-relational neural methods on __________
dimensions.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6
11) Researchers have depended on other types of studies to establish causal
connections between ________ activation and performance.
A) mind B) body C) brain D) soul
P.T.O.
12) ________ has a very human foundation in the experience.
A) Emotion B) Motivation
C) Long term memory D) Attitude
13) The kind of memory involved in these situational is ___________
A) long term memory B) stress
C) anxiety D) IQ
14) The oldest ____________ methods record brain activity from the scalp.
A) Co-relational B) Effect C) Le Bon D) Cost

1) Define Cognitive Psychology.
2) Where was established the first psychology laboratory ?
3) Define Retrieval.
4) Define Psychology.
5) Define memory.
6) Define long term memory.
7) Define short term memory.
8) Define Encoding.
9) Define episodic memory.
3. A) Short notes (any two) : 10

1) The Ebbinghaus forgetting functions.
2) Implications of the Nature of working memory.
3) Recognizing stimuli by recollection and familiarity.
B) Discuss on the characteristics of Short Term Memory. 4

1) Discuss on the spacing effect of enhancers of encoding.
2) Explain the Pattern Completion and Recapitulation.
3) Describe the cues of Retrieval.

1) Explain the generation effect of enhancers of encoding.
2) Explain the misremembering the past.
3) Discuss on the form of Long Term Memory.
______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
Geology (Paper – VII)
Igneous Petrology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Write a correct answer from given alternatives : 14

1) Unicomponent rocks are extremely
a) Abundant b) Moderate c) Rare d) None of these
2) The mixture of ice and salt in certain proportions freezes at ________ °C.
a) – 30 b) 0 c) – 22 d) 4
3) The zone of reaction products surrounding a mineral is called a
a) Reaction rim b) Myrmekite c) Xenolith d) Fracture form
4) ___________ structure, occur ball like segregations consisting of concentric
shells of different mineral compositions texture.
a) Spherulitic b) Myrmekite c) Inter growth d) Orbicular
5) The rock appears as an aggregate of little nodules consisting of a number
of onion like shells are called
a) Fracture form b) Orbicular structure
c) Perlitic d) Glassy
6) Vogt has determined the eutectic proportions of orthoclase : Quartz is
a) 42 : 58 b) 70 : 30 c) 72.5 : 27.5 d) 45 : 55
7) ________ is a Ultrabasic rock.
a) Gabbro b) Basalt
c) Diorite d) Peridotite
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 112 -2- *SLRSO112*
8) Acid rock contains more than __________% silica.

a) 60 b) 75 c) 85 d) 95
9) Quartz is absent in _________ rocks.
a) Acidic b) Ultrabasic c) Basic d) None of these
10) When a rock is composed entirely of glassy material, it’s texture is called
a) Holohyaline b) Holocrystalline
c) Merocrystalline d) None of these
11) The term __________ is used for those grains in which crystal faces are
absent.
a) Anhedral b) Euhedral
c) Sabhedral d) None of these
12) The essential minerals in granite are
a) Quartz and Augite b) Quartz and Olivine
c) Quartz and Leucite d) None of these
13) In crystallisation of Binary magma, the freezing points are
a) Lowered b) Increased
c) Same d) None of these
14) In Bowens continuous reaction series, the first crystallized mineral is
a) Plagioclase b) Biotite c) Muscovite d) Olivine

1) Mixed Crystals.
2) Microlites.
3) Syenite.
4) Size of grains.
5) Fine grained texture.
6) Granite.
7) Formation of Basalt.
8) Formation of dolerite.
9) Mineral composition in diorite.
Set P
*SLRSO112* -3- SLR-SO – 112

1) Explain poikilitic texture.
2) Ophitic texture.
3) Intergranular texture.
B) Write note on : 4
Assimilation on magma.

1) Explain crystallization of Ternary magma.
2) Bowen’s continuous reaction series.
3) Differentiation by liquid immiscibility and gaseous transfer.

1) Spherulitic and orbicular structure.
2) Explain xenolithic structure.
3) Differentiate between glass and crystals.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (New CBCS) Examination, 2018

MICROBIOLOGY(Paper No. – VII)
Immunology and Medical Microbiology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever required.
1. Rewrite the sentences after choosing correct answer from the given alternative. 14
i) Amount of complement is very high in _________ animal.
a) Monkey b) Rabbit c) Donkey d) Guinea pig
ii) _________ antibody present in secretions and has valancy four.
a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgD
iii) _________ is a viral disease.
a) S. aureus wound b) Dengue
c) Candida d) Typhoid
iv) Exotoxins are
a) Carbohydrates b) Lipids
c) Proteins d) Lipopolysaccharides
v) _________ Organism DO NOT produce toxin.
a) Escherichia coli b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae d) Bacillus subtilis
vi) Bullock heart muscle lipid called cardiolipin specifically react with syphilis
antibody, used for VDRL test is an example of __________ antigen.
a) Heterophile b) Allogenic c) Syngenic d) Autologous
vii) Negroes are more susceptible to tuberculosis than Caucasians, is an
example of _______ immunity.
a) Individual b) Species c) Racial d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 113 -2- *SLRSO113*
viii) Production of IgE antibody results in
a) Allergy b) Immunity
ix) Use of anti-snake venom (ASV) is an example of _______ immunity.
a) Artificially active b) Naturally active
c) Artificially passive d) Naturally passive
x) Primary lymphoid organ is
a) Spleen b) Lymph node
c) Bone marrow d) Payers patches
xi) Antigen antibody reaction in Widal test is of ________ type.
a) Agglutination b) Precipitation
c) Flocculation d) None of these
xii) During humoral immune response B cells differentiate into _______ cells.
a) mast b) dentritic
c) cytotoxic d) plasma
xiii) How many polypeptide chains are present in IgG molecule ?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8
xiv) __________ antibody is called macroglobulin.
a) IgA b) IgM c) IgG d) IgE
2. Answer in one or two sentences (any seven) : 14

i) Define antibody.
ii) Spread of dengue.
iii) Phagocytic cell.
iv) Define Pathogenicity and virulence.
v) Indication of Inflammation of organs.
vi) Precipitation reaction.
vii) What is Complement ?
viii) Causative agent of typhoid fever.
ix) Adhesion.
Set P
*SLRSO113* -3- SLR-SO – 113
i) Mechanical barriers to infections.
ii) Bacterial toxins.
iii) Active immunity.
B) Draw labelled diagram of structure of Immunoglobulin G (IgG). 4

i) First line of defence.
ii) Wound infection.
iii) Collection, handling and transportation of specimen.

i) Role of fever in body defence.
ii) Candida albicans infection.
iii) Lymphoid organs.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (New-CBCS) Examination, 2018

Psychology
Positive Psychology (Paper – VIII)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Two dimensional representation of __________ goals.
A) 11 B) 10 C) 8 D) 6
2) _________ described as personal concerns.
A) Goals B) Emotion
C) Idea D) Balance
3) Ann Masten defines
A) IQ B) EIQ
C) Resilience D) Emotion
4) ___________ well-being is defined as life.
A) Objective B) Subjective
C) Happy D) Perspective
5) Social acceptance is a factor of _________ well-being.
A) personal B) mental
C) social D) educational
6) Waterman describes ___________ psychological views of happiness.
A) 4 B) 6
C) 2 D) 8
7) There are three components of _________ well-being.
A) subjective B) objective
C) social D) mental
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 114 -2- *SLRSO114*
8) Fredrickson developed Broaden and Build Theory of ____________

A) Positive psychology B) Cognitive
C) Social D) Health
9) _________ directions are important to the focus of the Fredrickson
theory.
A) Four B) Two
C) Five D) Nine
10) ___________ behaviors are often grouped into two general categories.
A) Study B) Coping
C) Learning D) Sexual
11) Seligman’s description of the ___________ pillars of positive psychology.
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 6
12) Positive reappraisal refers a _________ strategy.
A) Social B) Emotional
C) Cognitive D) Motivational
13) External ____________ refers to the rewards, approval, praise or situational
demands.
A) motives B) learning
C) identified D) emotion
14) Grouzef suggested the content of human goals across __________
cultures.
A) 15 B) 12 C) 10 D) 11

1) Define positive emotion.
2) Define ordinary magic.
3) Define personal goals.
4) Define resilience.
5) Define the well-being.
6) What is positive reappraisal ?
7) Define positive psychology.
8) Meaning of personal projects.
9) Meaning of happiness.
Set P
*SLRSO114* -3- SLR-SO – 114
3. A) Write short notes (any two) : 10

1) Sources of resilience.
2) Two tradition of happiness.
3) Personal goals across the culture.
B) Discuss on the source of resilience. 4

1) Discuss on the social resources.
2) Discuss on the physical resources.
3) Explain the areas of positive psychology.

1) Discuss on the person goals.
2) Discuss on the factors of psychological well-being.
3) Discuss on the positive emotions.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
GEology (Paper – VIII)
Sedimentary and Metamorphic Petrology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Choose and write correct answer from given alternatives : 14

1) Kankar is ______ deposit.
a) carbonate b) siliceous
c) argillaceous d) ferrugenous
2) Sandstones with rock fragments up to 25 % are called
a) arkose b) grit
c) greywacke d) none of these
3) Which of the following shows non-foliated fabric ?
a) Marble b) Schist c) Slate d) Phyllite
4) The sedimentary rocks precipitated from solution within the basin of
deposition are called
a) breccia b) conglomerate
c) shale d) limestone
5) The crushed, angular rock fragments formed in shear zones are represented by
a) fault breccia b) volcanic breccia
c) sedimentary breccia d) conglomerate
6) Omphacite is representative mineral of ______ Facies.
a) zeolite b) greenschist c) eclogite d) amphibolite
7) The ______ represent shallow water zone, extending from land mass and
merges in ocean.
a) continental slope b) continental shelf
c) abyssal zone d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 115 -2- *SLR-SO115*
8) The ________ facies rocks are formed at low temperature and low pressure
conditions.
a) amphibolites b) granulite c) eclogite d) zeolite
9) The composition of dolomite is
a) MgCO3 b) CaCO3 c) CaCO3 MgCO3 d) Na2CO3
10) Gneiss represents ________ Foliated fabric.
a) strongly b) non c) weakly d) none of these
11) A tendency of metamorphic rock to split easily along thin, smooth planes
is called
a) slaty cleavage b) lamination c) stratification d) none of these
12) The process of chemical alteration of a rock by hydrothermal and other
fluids is
a) anatexis b) polymetamorphism
c) metasomatism d) pyrometamorphism
13) The sediments having size > 256 mm are called
a) gravels b) pebbles c) silt d) boulders
14) The process which represents different episodes and changes in structural
and mineralogical characters is called
a) retrograde metamorphism b) Polymetamorphism
c) Anatexis d) Metasomatism

i) What is Arkose ?
ii) Describe deltaic environment of deposition.
iii) Explain characters and formation of non-foliated fabric.
iv) Write a short note on -Shale.
v) Give the names of rocks having strongly-foliated fabric.
vi) Define Skarn deposits.
vii) Give different terms used to describe Grain size of sediments.
viii) What is Granulite ?
ix) Explain characters of Marble.
Set P
*SLR-SO115* -3- SLR-SO – 115

i) What are rudaceous deposits ? Add a note on conglomerate.
ii) Define metamorphic facies. Describe greenschist facies.
iii) Describe isotropic and anisotropic fabric of metamorphic rocks.
B) Give the classification of sedimentary rocks based on mineral
composition. 4

i) Define metamorphic rocks. Explain the characters of Mylonite and Gneiss.
ii) Explain the processes of formation of sedimentary rocks.
iii) Describe in detail carbonate rocks.

i) Describe retrograde metamorphism and anatexis processes.
ii) Describe laterite and bauxite.
iii) Describe alluvial fans, braided and meandering rivers with respect to fluvial
environment of deposition.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (New CBCS) Examination, 2018

microbiology
Paper – VIII : Industrial Microbiology – II
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

2) Draw a neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives from given

below : 14
1) ________________ is a major problem in continuous fermentation.
A) Sterilization B) Waste disposal
C) Contamination D) Recovery
2) Crowded plate technique is used for screening of __________ producers.
A) Acid B) Growth factor
C) Amine D) Antibiotics
3) Phenyl acetic acid is precursor used in ____________ production.
A) Amylase B) Penicillin G
C) Vitamin B12 D) Lysine
4) Optimum sugar concentration in medium for alcohol production is
________ %.
A) 30 – 40 B) 10 – 18
C) 50 – 60 D) 4 – 8
5) Bifidobacterium is most commonly used as
A) Probiotics B) SCP
C) Biofertilizer D) Biopesticides
6) Distillation process is used for recovery of
A) Penicillin B) Vit B12
C) Alcohol D) Lysine
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 116 -2- *SLRSO116*
7) End point determination assays are meant for ____________ substances.
A) Amino acids B) Antibiotics
C) Vitamins D) Amines
8) Detection and isolation of industrially important organisms from natural
source is called
A) Assay B) Preservation
C) Enumeration D) Screening
9) ______________ technique used in screening of organic acid producers.
A) Crowded B) pH indicating dye
C) Spread D) Streak
10) Pilot scale fermenter has ___________ liter capacity.
A) 25 – 1000 B) 10 – 12
C) above 10000 D) 300000 – 400000
11) __________ is waste generated by sugar industry.
A) Molasses B) Whey
C) Sulfite waste liquor D) Fruit juice
12) In fermenter ____________ is used to provide sterile air.
A) Baffles B) Sparger
C) Antifoam agent D) Agitator
13) Diffusion assay is carried out by ___________ method.
A) Cylinder plate B) Pour plate
C) Streak plate D) Spread plate
14) Production of ______________ is an example of dual fermentation.
A) Penicillin B) Vitamin B12
C) Alcohol D) Vinegar

Define :
I) Scale up
II) Screening
III) Lyophilization
IV) Bioreactor
V) Enzymatic assay
VI) Recovery
VII) Dual fermentation
VIII) Batch Fermentaion
IX) Industrial microbiology.
Set P
*SLRSO116* -3- SLR-SO – 116

1) Describe in detail methods used for preservation of industrially important
microorganisms.
2) Briefly explain Probiotics with example.
3) Describe in detail secondary screening.
B) With labeled diagram discuss the parts of fermenter and their functions. 4

1) Describe in detail the alcohol fermentation.
2) Discuss in detail the microbiological assay.
3) Explain in detail inoculums and production media.

1) Describe in detail the penicillin fermentation.
2) Explain in detail production of SCP.
3) Write in detail strain improvement program.

_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (Old – CGPA) Examination, 2018
chemistry
Physical Chemistry (Paper – V)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

iii) Neat diagram must be drawn wherever necessary.
iv) Use of logarithmic table/Scientific calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the most correct alternative from each of the following and rewrite the
sentence. 14
i) Specific conductance is the reciprocal of
a) Conductance b) Specific resistance
c) Resistance d) Equivalent conductance
ii) The structure of KCl belongs to
a) Face centered b) Body centered
c) Simple cubic d) None of these
iii) The SI unit of entropy is
a) cm–1 b) m–1 c) J.K–1 d) Cal.mol–1
iv) The molecule in which effective centers of +ve and –ve charges coincide is
known as
a) polar b) non-polar
c) active d) none of these
v) Electric current is carried in the solution by
a) atoms b) molecules c) electrons d) ions
vi) Three dimensional array of points in space is called
a) Crystal structure b) Unit cell
c) Crystal lattice d) Lattice plane
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 117 -2- *SLRSO117*
vii) The refractive index of a liquid is determined by using
a) Potentiometer b) Conductometer
c) Viscometer d) Refractometer
viii) Maximum entropy will be shown by
a) ice b) liquid water
c) snow d) water vapours
ix) In case of uni-univalent electrolyte, the values of equivalent conductivity and
molecular conductivity are
a) equal b) unequal
c) remains same d) none of these
x) An increase in the randomness suggests that the reaction is
a) endothermic b) spontaneous
c) non-spontaneous d) reversible
xi) One Faraday is equal to
a) 96500 C b) 96.500 C c) 9.6500 C d) 9650 C
xii) Optical activity is ____________ property.
a) an additive b) a constitutive
xiii) Which of the following is an electrolyte ?
a) C6H5Cl b) C6H6 c) CHCl3 d) CH3COOH
xiv) Kohlrausch’s law can be represented as
a) l∞ = l0+ + l0– b) l∞ = l0+ – l0–
c) l∞ = l0+ × l0– d) l∞ = l0+ / l0–

i) Explain the term equivalent conductance.
ii) Write any two definitions of entropy.
iii) What do you mean by plane of symmetry ?
iv) Explain the term dielectric constant.
v) Write Hittorf number.
vi) State third law of thermodynamics. Set P
*SLRSO117* -3- SLR-SO – 117
vii) What is Miller indices ?

viii) What do you mean by optical exaltation ?
ix) Define specific resistance.

i) Explain absolute mobility of the ion.
ii) Calculate the entropy ∆S0(298) of the following reaction,
2SO2 (g) + O2(g) → 2SO3 (g)
The third law entropies, S0(298) of SO2 (g), O2(g) and SO3 (g) are 248.53,
205.03 and 256.23 JK–1mol–1.
iii) Explain polar and non-polar molecules with suitable examples.
B) Specific and molar conductivity of acetic acid solution are 2.88 × 10–4 S.m–1
and 5.76 S.m2.mol–1 respectively. Calculate the molarity of acid. 4

i) Explain in detail moving boundary method for determination of transport
number.
ii) State and explain the laws of constancy of interfacial angle and rational
indices.
iii) Derive an expression for entropy change for an ideal gas as a function of P
and T.

i) At 298 K, the specific conductance of a saturated solution of AgCl was found
to be 3.14 × 10–6 ohm–1 cm–1, that of water being 1.6 × 10–6 ohm–1 cm–1. At
this temperature, ionic conductivities at infinite dilution of Ag+ and Cl– ions
are 61.92 and 76.34 ohm–1 cm2 respectively. Calculate the solubility of AgCl
in water in gms per litre at 298 K. (At. wts. Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5)
ii) How dipole moment is useful in the study of molecular structure ? Explain
with examples.
iii) What is Bragg’s equation ? Describe the structure of KCl on the basis of
Bragg’s equation.
______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (Old-CGPA) Examination, 2018
Chemistry (Paper – VI)
Analytical and industrial Inorganic Chemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

ii) Draw neat and labeled diagrams and write equations
whenever necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternatives for each of the following and rewrite the
sentences. 14
i) The solution of accurately known strength is known as _____________
Solution.
a) Standard b) Normal c) Molar d) Molal
ii) pH range or colour change interval of methyl orange indicator is
a) 3.1 – 4.4 b) 2.9 – 4.6
c) 6.3 –7.1 d) 5.2 – 6.3
iii) A state in titration at which the reaction is just complete is known as the
a) End point b) Equivalence point
c) Normal point d) Equal point
iv) Aluminum hydroxide is a gelatinous __________ Precipitate.
a) Amorphous b) Gelatinous
c) Crystalline d) Curdy
v) The process of dispersing the gel to form sol is called as
a) Peptisation b) Coagulation
c) Precipitation d) Nucleation
vi) The particle size of the crystalline precipitate is
a) 10–9 to 10–6m b) 10–10 to 10–9m
c) 10–10 m d) 10–6 – 10–5m
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 118 -2- *SLRSO118*
vii) Adsorption theory of catalysis was introduced by
a) Berzelius b) Frank c) Faraday d) Bosch
viii) the water which is fit for drinking purpose is called as ________ water.
a) Pure b) Deionised c) Potable d) Distilled
ix) For decolourisation of water ________ filter is used.
a) Rubber b) Activated charcoal
c) Paper d) Cotton
x) In manufacture of sulphuric acid, the purified gases are first heated in
preheater to
a) 300 – 400°C b) 450 – 500°C
c) 400 – 500°C d) 200 – 300°C
xi) In Haber’s process _________ is used as premotor.
a) Fe b) Pt c) Mo d) V
xii) The enzyme which can catalyze the conversion of glucose to ethanol is
a) Maltase b) Diastase
c) Invertase d) Zymase
xiii) The chemicals which are manufactured and consumed on commercial
scales are called ____________ Chemicals.
a) Heavy b) Hard c) Soft d) Basic
xiv) In annealing process steel is heated up to __________ °C.
a) 850 b) 300 c) 750 d) 350

i) What is primary standard ? Give any two examples.
ii) Define the term co-precipitation and post-precipitation.
iii) Explain the term crystal growth.
iv) Explain the positive catalysis with suitable example.
v) Explain the heterogeneous catalysis with example.
vi) Give resources of water.
vii) What are the types of water pollution.
viii) Mention the types of steel.
ix) Give the names of methods for heat treatment on steel.
Set P
*SLRSO118* -3- SLR-SO – 118
i) Describe the intermediate compound formation theory of catalysis.
ii) Give the merits and demerits of manufacture of sulphuric acid.
iii) Explain the manufacture of steel by Bessemer process.
B) Draw a neat labeled diagram of manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s
process and give its advantage. 4

i) What is precipitation ? Explain the conditions of precipitation.
ii) With the help of neutralization curve explain the choice of indicator for titration
of strong acid and weak base.
iii) Explain the physical and chemical method used for removal of germs and
bacteria of water.

i) Explain the role of Dimethylglyoxime and 8-hydroxyquinoline in gravimetric
analysis. What are the advantages of organic precipitants ?
ii) Explain the working process of sulphuric acid by contact process.
iii) Write note on Ostwald’s theory of acid base indictor.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) Examination, 2018

(Old) (CGPA)
PHYSICS
Optics (Paper – V)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

3) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.

1) The equivalent focal length of two thin co-axial lenses of focal length f1 and
f2 separated by finite distance ‘d’ in air is
ff f1f2 f +f −d 2f1 f2
a) f = 1 2 b) f = c) f = 1 2 d) f = f + f − d
f1f2 − d f1 + f2 − d f1 f2 1 2
2) The relation between longitudinal magnification mx and lateral magnification

my for an optical system is
a) mx = m2y b) m2x = my c) mx = my d) m3x = my
3) The two glass plates in Michelson’s interferometer are inclined to the incident
beam direction at
a) 45° b) 30° c) 60° d) 90°
4) In Fabry-Perot interferometer, the resultant amplitude is obtained by using
________ of vector.
a) Polygon b) Triangle
c) Parallelogram d) Conical
5) For a zone plate
a) fnR < fnY < fnV b) fnR > fnY > fnV
c) fnR = fnY = fnV d) fnR = fnY > fnV
6) In case of Fresnel’s diffraction at straight edge, in the region of light away
from the edge of the shadow, the bandwidth
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Remains constant d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 119 -2- *SLRSO119*
7) The resolving power of a plane diffraction grating with N number of lines in
an order n is
a) nN b) n/N c) N/n d) 2nN
8) Resolving power is greater for _________ wavelengths.
a) longer b) shorter c) same d) none of above
9) If the velocity of extraordinary light is greater than the velocity of ordinary
light, the doubly refracting crystal is said to be
a) positive b) negative
c) polaroid d) both positive and negative
10) Those substances which rotate the plane of vibration of the polarized light
towards the right side are known as
a) laevorotatory b) optically active
c) dextrorotatory d) none of above
11) For an optical fibre to have greater information carrying capacity, the pulse
dispersion must be
a) very small b) zero
c) very large d) moderately large
12) The basic principles of optical fibres is
a) interference b) total internal reflection
c) reflection d) refraction
13) The ability of optical instruments to separate two close objects is called
a) Magnifying power b) Resolving power
c) Magnification d) None of above
14) In s zone plate, the area of zones
a) is the same for all b) increases as order increases
c) decreases as order increases d) none of above

1) What is meant by resolving power of optical instrument ?
2) State different types of fringes obtained by using Michelson
interferometer.
3) What is zone plate ? How is it prepared ?
4) Distinguish between magnification and resolution.
5) What is double refraction ?
6) What is a half wave plate ?
Set P
*SLRSO119* -3- SLR-SO – 119
7) Define ‘numerical aperture’.
8) State any four advantages of optical fibre.
9) When movable mirror in a Michelson’s interferometer is moved towards the
plate G1 by a distance 0.05440 mm, it is observed that 200 circular fringes
shrink at the centre. Calculate the wavelength of light used.

1) Show that radii of Fresnel’s half period zone is directly proportional to
square root of natural number.
2) Explain the formation and working of fibre optic communication
system.
3) Derive the relation between lateral, axial and angular magnifications.
B) Calculate the thickness of half wave plate for sodium light of wavelength
5890A° and refractive index µ0 = 1.54, µe = 1.55. 4

1) Define resolving power of an optical instrument. Derive an expression for
resolving power of a grating.
2) State the laws of rotation of plane of polarization. Describe polarimeter
experiment to determine the specific rotation of an optically active
solution.
3) Explain how a zone plate acts like a lens having multiple foci. Derive an
expression for its focal length.

1) Describe the construction and working of F.P. interferometer. Hence derive
an expression for intensity.
2) Obtain an expression for equivalent focal length of two thin lenses separated
by finite distance and hence derive expression for position of 2nd principal
point. If two thin convex lenses of focal length 15 cm and 20 cm are placed
coaxially and are separated by a distance of 10 cm then find the equivalent
focal length and the position of principal points.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (Old-CGPA) Examination, 2018
physics (Paper – VI)
Modern Physics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Select the correct alternative : 14

i) The length of rod in motion always
c) remain the same d) becomes zero
ii) Michelson-Morley experiment was designed to predict the existence of
a) length contraction b) motion of earth
c) dragging force d) ether
iii) The inertial frame of reference is _________ frame of reference.
a) an accelerated b) a rotating
c) unaccelerated d) oscillating
iv) A wide wave group has clearly defined
a) momentum b) wavelength c) energy d) time
v) The wavelength of matter waves is independent of
a) charge b) mass c) velocity d) momentum
vi) According to Bohr’s quantum conditions ___________ of the electron orbit
is an integral multiple of electron wavelength.
a) area b) circumference c) radius d) diameter
vii) Maximum number of electrons in the nth shell is given by
a) n2 b) 2n c) 2n2 d) n
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 120 -2- *SLRSO120*
viii) Stern and Gerlach experiment confirms

a) orbital momentum b) space quantization
c) linear momentum d) spin momentum
ix) __________ is the most common type of coupling.
a) LS b) JJ c) L-J d) SS
x) The change in wavelength of scattered radiation due to compton effect is
proportional to
θ 2 θ
a) sin b) sin 2 c) sin θ d) sin2 θ
2
xi) In compton scattering, the wavelength of scattered radiation
c) remains same d) becomes zero
xii) The maximum change in wavelength of scattered radiation in compton
scattering is for scattering angle
a) 0° b) 90° c) 180° d) 45°
xiii) The common material used as a fuel in reactor is
a) cadmium b) lanthanum
c) lithium d) uranium
xiv) Energy released per fission of U235 is about
a) 50 MeV b) 200 MeV c) 500 MeV d) 100 MeV

i) Give any two properties of matter waves.
ii) Define phase velocity and group velocity.
iii) State Hund’s rule.
iv) State Pauli’s exclusion principle.
v) What is compton effect.
vi) Calculate the change in wavelength of x-ray when it is scattered by an angle
90° by free electron.
vii) What is nuclear fission ?
viii) What are two types of chain reactions ?
Set P
*SLRSO120* -3- SLR-SO – 120

i) A rod of length 2 m kept in a satellite with its length along the direction
of motion. If the satellite has velocity 0.8 C calculate length of rod as
measured by observer (a) in satellite (b) in the stationary laboratory.
ii) Describe experimental arrangement to verify compton effect.
iii) Explain various quantum numbers associated with vector atom model.
B) Write a note on LS coupling. 4

i) Derive expression for variation of mass with velocity.
ii) What is Zeeman effect ? Explain the experimental set up to study Zeeman
effect.
iii) Describe in detail nuclear reactor with its essential parts.

i) Derive Lorent’z transformation equations. At what speed will the mass of
body be double its rest mass.
(Given speed of light = 3×108 m/s)
ii) State and explain Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. Using Heisenberg’s
uncertainty principle show that electron cannot exists in the nucleus.
If the uncertainty in the position of an electron is 4×10–10 m, calculate the
minimum uncertainty in its momentum.
__________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (Old CGPA) Examination, 2018
Statistics (Paper – V)
Continuous Probability Distributions and Exact Probability Distributions
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1) If F is an F variate with n1, n2 d.f. then its mode is
n2 (n1 − 2) n (n − 2) n2 n2 (n1 + 2)
a) n (n + 2) b) 1 2 c) d)
1 2 n (n + 2)
2 1
n −2 2
n1(n2 − 2)
X1 10
2) If X1, X2, X3, . . . , X10 are i.i.d. N(0, 1) variates then distribution of Y = is
∑
10 2
a) an F variate b) a t variate 1
x1
c) chi square variate d) normal variate
3) If X ~ F(n1, n2) then the distribution of X–1 is
a) F(n1, n2) b) F(n2, n1) c) N(0, 1) d) None of these
4) The t distribution is
a) Symmetric b) Negatively skew
c) Positively skew d) None of these
5) If X ~ tn then E(X) is
n
a) n b) n − 2 c) 0 d) 2n
6) The coefficient of skewness of a t variate is
a) Positive b) Negative c) 0 d) None of these
7) If X1 ~ N (4, 4), X2 ~ N (4, 5) and are independent variates then the distribution
of
(x1 − x 2 )2 is
9
2 2
a) χ12 b) χ2 c) χ3 d) N(0, 1)
X − np
8) If X ~ b (n, p) then Y = follows (as n tends to ∞).
npq
a) N(np, npq) b) N(0, 1) c) b(n, p) d) χ2 with n d.f.
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 121 -2- *SLRSO121*
9) For a normal distribution, quartile deviation is

a) 2σ b) 3σ c) 0.6745σ d) 0.8σ
X −n
10) If X ~ χ2 with n d.f. and if Y = then as n tends to ∞, Y is
2n
a) N(0, 1) b) χ2 with n d.f. c) tn d) None of these
11) The mode of a Student’s t variate with n d.f. is
a) n b) 1 c) 0 d) 2
12) If X is a β1(m, n) then (1 – x) has
a) β1 (m, n) b) β2 (m, n) c) β2 (n, m) d) β1 (n, m)
X
13) If X and Y are independents gamma variates then X + Y follows a
a) Gamma distribution b) β1 distribution
c) β2 distribution d) χ2 distributor
14) If X is a β2 (m, n) are X–1 follows
a) β2(n, m) b) β1(n, m) c) β1(m, n) d) β2(m, n)
2. Attempt any seven : 14

1) If X1 ~ N(0, 1), X2 ~ N (0, ½) and are independent then state the distribution
of Y = X12 + 2X 22 .
2) Define an F variate with n1, n2 d.f.
3) State the relation between S.N.V. and χ2 variate with n d.f.
4) If X is a G(1/2, n/2) variate then what is Var(X) ?
5) What are the ranges of F, χ2 and t variates.
6) Define χ2 variate with n d.f.
7) State the relation between beta distributions of first and second kind.
8) State mean and variance of a square of an S.N.V.
9) Show that all odd order central moments of t distribution are zero.

1) If X is a β1 (2, 2) then find P(X < 0.6).
2) State and prove additive property of a chi square distribution with n d.f.
3) Using m.g.f. find the distribution of a X + bY + c where a, b and c are
( 2
) 2
( )
constants, where X ~ N µ1, σ1 , Y ~ N µ2 , σ2 and are independent.
B) Find the mean and variance of a chi square distribution. 4
Set P
*SLRSO121* -3- SLR-SO – 121
1) State and prove additive property of normal distribution.
2) Derive the p.d.f. of a t variate with n.d.f.
3) Find an expression for rth raw moment and hence first 4 central moments of
a gamma distribution with parameters α and λ.

–x2
1) If X is a N (0, 1) variate then find mean and variance of e .
2) Define beta distribution of second kind with parameters m and n and find its
harmonic mean.
3) Define gamma distribution with parameters α, λ and find its mode.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (Old) (C.G.P.A. Pattern ) Examination, 2018

Statistics (Paper – VI)
Applied Statistics
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1
i) Sample consist of
a) all units of the population
b) 50 per cent units of the population
c) any fraction of the population
d) None of these
ii) Probability of drawing an unit at any draw remains same in
a) SRSWOR b) SRSWR
c) Both (a) and (b) d) none of these
iii) An unordered sample of size n can occur in
a) n ways b) n! ways
c) one way d) n2 ways
iv) The number of all possible samples of size 2 from a population of 4 units
in SRSWR
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 12
v) level of significance is the probability of
a) Type I error b) Type II error
c) Not committing error d) None of these
vi) Accepting H0 when it is true is
a) type I error b) type II error
c) not committing error d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 122 -2- *SLRSO122*
vii) Whether a test is one sided or two sided depends on
a) Alternative hypothesis b) Composite hypothesis
c) Null hypothesis d) Simple hypothesis
viii) For testing population proportions which of the following test to be used
a) Z-test b) χ2 test c) t-test d) f-test
ix) For testing goodness of fit _______ test is used.
a) Normal b) F c) t d) Chi-square
x) Student’s t-test is applicable only when
a) n ≤ 30 and σ is known b) n > 30 and σ is unknown
c) n = 30 and σ is known d) All of the above
xi) Equality of two population variances can be tested by
a) Z-test b) F-test c) χ2 test d) t-test
xii) Control charts consist of
a) Three control lines b) upper and lower control limits
c) the level of the process d) All of these
xiii) The faults due to assignable causes
a) can be removed
b) cannot be removed
c) can sometimes be removed without increase in production cost
d) none of these
xiv) The value of Gross Reproductive Rate (GRR) > 1 is indicative of
a) increase in population b) reduction in population
c) population remains constant d) none of these

i) Define
a) Population
b) Sample
ii) Describe census survey.
iii) Define alternative Hypothesis.
iv) Define Critical Region.
Set P
*SLRSO122* -3- SLR-SO – 122
v) Explain two-tailed test.
vi) Explain the term defect
vii) Explain the term Assignable causes.
viii) Define GRR.
ix) Define NRR.

i) State advantages of sampling method over census method.
ii) Distinguish between chance causes and assignable causes of
variation.
iii) Describe the procedure to test for testing population mean µ = µ0 based
on t-distribution.
b) Define Crude Death Rate (CDR). State the merits and demerits of CDR. 4

i) Show that in case of SRSWOR expected value of the sample mean is
population mean.
ii) What are the criteria of detecting lack of control in X and R charts ?
iii) Explain Age-specific fertility rate and Total Fertility Rate (TFR). Also state
the limitations of TFR.

i) With usual notations, prove that in SRSWOR
N−n 2
V( yn ) = S
Nn
ii) Give the procedure of X -chart and R chart when standards are not given.
iii) Describe the procedure for testing H0 : µ = µ0 and H0 : µ1 = µ2 based on
normal distribution.
___________

Set P
Seat Set P
No.
B.Sc. – II (Sem. – IV) (Old-CGPA) Examination, 2018

MATHEMATICS (Paper – V)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) The solution of (y – px) (p – 1) = p is
c
a) y = cx + ec b) y = cx +
c −1

c) y = cx – x2 d) y = log(cx – y)
2
dy  dy 
2) The solution for the differential equation y = x +  1−  is _______
dx  dx 

a) y = cx – (1 – c2) b) y = cx + (1 – c2)
c) y = cx – (1 – x)2 d) y = cx + (1 – c)2
3) The differential equation P3 – P(y + 3) + x = 0 is of the type
a) Solvable for y b) Solvable for p
c) Solvable for x d) Solvable for both p and x
4) If 1+ P tanx – Q = 0 then u = ___________ is a solution of the associated
d2 y Pdy
equation + + Qy = 0 .
2 dx
a) cosx dx b) sinx
c) cotx d) tanx
d2 y dy
5) y = e–x is known solution of C.F. of the differential equation 2 + P + Qy = R
dx dx
if ______________
a) 1 + Px + Qx2 = 0 b) 1 + P + Q = 0
c) 1 – P + Q = 0 d) 1 + P – Q = 0
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 123 -2- *SLRSO123*
d2 y dy
6) In the differential equation +P + Qy = R if 2 – Px + Qx2 = 0 then the
2 dx
dx

known solution of the complimentary function of the equation is _______
1
a) u = x2 b) u =
x
1
c) u = 2 d) u = e2x
x
d2 y 1
7) The differential equation + y = 1 is __________ equation.
dx 2 x 2
a) Homogeneous linear
b) Non-homogeneous
c) Linear equation with constant coefficient
d) Exact differential
2
2d y dy
8) The complimentary function of the equation x − 4x + 6y = x
2 dx
is _________ dx
a) y = c1 x + c2x2 b) y = c1 x2 + c2x3
c) y = c1 x3 + c2x4 d) y = (c1 + c2x)ex
2
2d y
9) By using substitution x = e the value of x
z
in the homogeneous linear
2
equation is _____________ dx
a) D2 b) D(D + 1)
c) D( D – 1) d) (D – 1) (D – 2)
10) If the condition of integrability is satisfied then the solution of the equation
(y + 2) dx + dy + dz = 0 is ____________
a) ex(y + z) = c1 b) ey(x + z) = c1
c) ez(x + y) = c1 d) x + y + z = c1
dx dy dz
= =
( ) ( ) ( )
11) One of the solution of the equation
is x y 2 − z2 y z2 − x 2 z x2 − y2

a) x2yz = c1 b) xy2z = c1
c) xyz2 = c1 d) xyz = c1
Set P
*SLRSO123* -3- SLR-SO – 123
12) Which one of the following is the solution of the simultaneous equation :
dx dy dz
= = ?
y+z z+x x+y

a) x – y = c1z b) x + y+ z = c1
x−y
c) = c1 d) xyz = c1
y−z
dx dy dz
13) For solving equation = = one set of multiplier is
bz − cy cx − az ay − bx

a, b, c then the other set of multiplier is ______________
1 1 1
a) 1 , 1 , 1 b) , ,
x y z a b c

c) x, y, z d) a , b , c
x y z

14) The differential equation of the form y = 2px + f(xp2) reduces to Clairaut’s
form by the substitution _______________
a) x2 = u, y = v b) x = u2, y = v2
c) x = u2, y = v d) x = u, y = v2

1) Solve p2 – x5 = 0.
2) Define the Clairaut’s equation and hence solve

( y − px )2 = a2 .
2
1+ p
dx dy dz
3) Solve = = .
y2 x2 x 2 y 2 z2

4) Solve y dx + x dy + 2z dz = 0.
2
2d y dy
5) Find by inspection or solution of x 2
− 3x + 3 y = x 2 2x − 1 . ( )
dxdx

2 d2 y dy
6) Find the complimentary function of x − 4x + 6y = x .
dx 2 dx

7) Define homogeneous linear differential equation.
Set P
SLR-SO – 123 -4- *SLRSO123*
8) Solve p2y + 2px = y.

9) Give the condition for integrability for solving total differential equation.

1) Solve p2 + 2py cotx = y2.
( ) ( )
2
2d y dy
2) Solve x − 2 x2 + x + x 2 + 2x + 2 y = 0 .
2 dx
dx

2
2d y dy
3) Solve x +x − 4y = x2 .
2 dx
dx

B) Solve the simultaneous equation : 4
dx dy dz
= = .
mz − ny nx − lz ly − mx
1) Explain the method of solving homogeneous linear equation and hence solve
2
2d y dy 2
x +x − 4y = x
2 dx
dx

d2 y dy
2) Solve − 2 tan x + 3 y = 2 sec x if y = sinx is known solution.
dx 2 dx

3) Solve y = 2px + p3y2.
1) Explain the condition for integrability of total differential equation.
2) Solve
4 3
4d y 3d y d2 y dy
16 ( x + 1) (
+ 96 x + 1 )+ 104 ( ) ( x + 1)2 + 8 ( x + 1) + y = x 2 + 4x + 3
4 3
dx dx dx 2 dx
( ) dx
2
2 d y dy
3) Solve 1− x 2
−x + 4y = 4x .
dx
_________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

mathematics (Paper – VI)
Abstract algebra – I

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative of the following. 14

1) Let A, B be non-empty sets and f : A → B be a permutation. Then
a) f is bijective and A = B b) f is one-one and A ≠ B
c) f is bijective and A ≠ B d) f is onto and A ≠ B
2) The number of elements in A6
a) 6 b) 720 c) 360 d) 26
3) The following element is not a generator of Z8
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
4) If G be a cyclic group of order 15, then G may have a subgroup of order
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
5) The gcd of {36, – 60, 90} is
a) 180 b) –180 c) – 6 d) 6
6) Let φ : (R, +) →(R*, ⋅) be a homomorphism defined by φ(a) = 3a. Then kerφ =
a) {1} b) {0} c) {e} d) 3a
7) The inverse of – i in the multiplicative group {1, –1, i, –i} is
a) 1 b) –1 c) i d) –i
8) Index of A3 in S3 is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 124 -2- *SLRSO124*
9) The set of integers Z with the binary operation ∗ defined as a*b = a+b+1
for a, b ∈ Z, is a group. The identity element of this group is
a) 0 b) 1 c) –1 d) 12
10) A subgroup containing only the identity element is called
a) trivial b) non-trivial c) proper d) improper
11) The number of subgroups of Z36 are
a) 12 b) 10 c) 8 d) 9
12) The order of the product of a pair of disjoint cycles of length 4 and 6 is
a) 6 b) 10 c) 8 d) 12
13) Every proper subgroup of an infinite cyclic group is
a) finite b) non-proper subgroup
c) infinite d) none of these
14) If φ is Euler φ function then φ(15) =
a) 5 b) 6 c) 8 d) 14

1) Find [Z10 : < [ 2 ]>].
2) Prove that C(a) is a subgroup of G.
3) Find all x such that 0≤ x < 6 and 2x ≡ 4 (mod 6).
4) Let f : (Z, +) → (R, +) be defined by f(n) = 5n, ∀n. Test whether f is
homomorphism.
5) In S3, find the order of (1 2 3).
6) Every cyclic group is abelian.
7) Determine the right cosets of < [4]> in Z12.
8) Every subgroup of an abelian group is normal.
9) Solve the equation x (1 3 2) = (1 3) in S3.

1) If (z, +) and (G, ⋅) where G = {1, –1, i, –i} are groups. Show that the function
f : Z → G defined by f(n) = in is a homomorphism. Find its Kernel.
2) Find the gcd and write it as a linear combination of the two given integers
(1024, 36).
3) State and prove Lagrange’s theorem.
B) Find all the subgroups of Z18. Also construct the subgroup lattice. 4
Set P
*SLRSO124* -3- SLR-SO – 124
1) Prove that every group is isomorphic to a permutation group on its set of
elements.
2) Let G be a group and H be a normal subgroup of G. Then show that the
G
set = {Ha / a ∈ G} is a group under the operation (Ha) (Hb) = Hab.
H

3) Verify that {2m : m∈ Z} is a group with respect to multiplication.

1) If f : G → G′ is a homomorphism then
i) f(e) = e′
ii) f(x −1) = [f(x)]−1
iii) f(xn) = [f(x)]n .
G
2) If f : G → G′ be an onto homomorphism with k = kerf, then ≅ G′ .
K
3) Prove that { [0], [3], [6], [9] } is a subgroup of Z12. Construct the Cayley table
for the subgroup.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (Old) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018
Geography (Paper – V)
Biogeography
Time :10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. .00 .m. to .00 p.m.

3) Use of map stencil is allowed.1) All questions are
to the right indicate full marks.
1. Choose and write correct from given four alternatives : 14

1) Biogeography studies the all _____________ of the earth surface.
(Living organism, Plants, Animals, Man)
2) India has __________ % area under forest covers.
(35.9, 30.3, 19.0, 19.5)
3) Many _________ birds visit India during winter and return back in summer.
This is a forceful type of migration.
(Iranian, Indian, Siberian, Canadian)
4) The theory of evolution of life was put forth by
(Humboldt, Charles Darwin, K. Ritter, Vidal De-La-Blash)
5) Ecology studies the relations of all organisms to their
(Ecosystem, Environment, Ecology, Ecopedia)
6) Zoogeography is a branch of _________ geography.
(Physical, Biogeography, Oceanography, Agricultural)
7) According to C. Darwin the species have __________ relationship with
one another.
(Historical, Social, Political, Geographical)
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 125 -2- *SLRSO125*
8) The primitive plants originated at _________ in the past geological time.
(Space, Air, Water, Land)
9) Tsunami is _________ type of hazards.
(Natural, Man made, Artificial, human)
10) ___________ studies the life and interactions with environment by animals.
(Phytogeoraphy, Cytology, Zoogeography, Soil Geography)
11) Extreme climate is one of the reasons for __________ migration of birds.
(Seasonal, Gradual, Rapid, Forceful)
12) The environment protection Act was implemented India in
(1962, 1961, 1981, 1970)
13) Photochemical smog is related to the _______ pollution.
(Soil, Noise, Water, Air)
14) World conservation day is celebrated on
(5th June, 7th Dec., 3rd Dec., 14th August)

1) Paleozoic Era.
2) Meaning of migration.
3) Importance of animals.
4) Water pollution causes.
5) Explain Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
6) What is geological time scale ?
7) What are natural hazards ?
8) Define the concept of resources.
9) Define the concept of dispersion.
Set P
*SLRSO125* -3- SLR-SO – 125

1) What is Organic resources ?
2) Dispersal of plants.
3) Migration of Animals.
B) Effect of Air Pollution on human life. 4

1) Explain Environment Hazard.
2) Conservation of Resources.
3) Important of environment.
5. Answer any two of the following long answer question : 14

1) What is resources and explain the classification of resources ?
2) Describe the Darwin theory of life evolution.
3) Explain the causes of noise pollution.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Semester – IV) (Old-CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018

ELECTRONICS (Paper – V)
Fundamentals of Operational Amplifier
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

4) Use of log-table and calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative for the following. 14

i) A mirror bias is used to
a) decrease gain b) increase gain
c) increase CMRR d) decrease CMRR
ii) Zero crossing detector is a comparator with
a) Vref = + Vcc b) Vref = – VEE
c) Vref = 0V d) Vref = – 2V
iii) In an op-amp phase shift oscillator the ratio of feedback resistor Rf to R1
should be
a) greater than 29 b) less than 29
c) less than 3 d) greater than 3
iv) In op-amp inverting amplifier the inverting terminal voltage is equal to
a) supply voltage b) output voltage
c) input voltage d) zero voltage
v) A differential amplifier can be used to amplify
a) ac signals only b) dc signals only
c) both ac and dc signals d) none of these
vi) In an inverting amplifier the input and output voltages are
a) in phase b) 180° out of phase
c) 360° out of phase d) 90° out of phase
vii) In phase shift oscillator, op-amp is used in __________ mode.
a) voltage follower b) differential
c) inverting d) non-inverting
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 126 -2- *SLRSO126*
viii) In IC 741, the offset null pins are
a) 1, 5 b) 4, 7 c) 2, 3 d) 2, 6
ix) _______ stage of operational amplifier rejects the noise signal.
a) output b) level shifter
c) emitter follower d) constant current source
x) The output of a schmitt trigger is a
a) sine wave b) sawtooth wave
c) triangular wave d) square wave
xi) The voltage gain of an op-amp with 100% negative feedback is
a) 100 b) 10 c) 1 d) ∞
xii) The input voltages to an inverting adder are V1, V2 and V3 then output voltage
Vo is given by the relation
a) V0 = V1 + V2 + V3 b) V0 = V1 – V2 – V3
c) V0 = – (V1 + V2 + V3) d) None of these
xiii) To obtain sawtooth oscillator, the duty cycle will be
a) 50% b) more than 50%
c) less than 50% d) 100%
xiv) The input of differentiator is square wave then output will be
a) sine wave b) cosine wave
c) triangular wave d) spikes

i) Draw the symbol of op-amp with labels.
ii) Explain briefly concept of virtual ground.
iii) Define the terms :
a) Slew rate b) CMRR
iv) Draw the circuit diagram of precision rectifier using op-amp.
v) State any four ideal characteristics of an op-amp.
vi) In phase shift oscillator using op-amp, the frequency of oscillation is 200 Hz.
Calculate the value of R when c = 0.1µF.
vii) What is the necessity of differential amplifier ?
viii) Draw circuit diagram of monostable multivibrator using op-amp.
ix) Draw the circuit diagram of an integrator using op-amp.
Set P
*SLRSO126* -3- SLR-SO – 126
i) Explain op-amp non-inverting amplifier. Derive the formula for voltage
gain.
ii) Explain zero crossing detector.
iii) Explain wien bridge oscillator.
B) Calculate frequency of an astable multivibrator. Given R2 = 1.16 R1, R = 10 KΩ

and C = 0.05µF. 4

i) What is differential amplifier ? Explain emitter coupled differential
amplifier.
ii) Explain op-amp as differential amplifier (subtractor).
iii) Explain voltage to current converter.

i) State the specifications of IC 741.
ii) Explain astable multivibrator using op-amp. Derive the formula frequency
of oscillations.
iii) Explain regenerative comparative (schmitt trigger) using op-amp.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part– II) (Semester – IV) (Old CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018
Geography (Agricultural Geography) (Paper– VI)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1
1. Choose and write a correct from given four alternatives. 14
1) __________ is a primary economic activity.

a) Agricultural b) Industry c) Trade d) Teaching
2) The word ‘agriculture’ (Agricultura) derived from the ________ language.

a) Arabian b) Latin c) Roman d) Greek
3) The first book on agriculture geography was written by

a) Arthor Young b) Von-Thunen c) Johnson d) Weaver
4) The agriculture patterns are strictly dependent on the conditions of

___________ and Altitude.
a) Salinity b) Humidity c) Temperature d) Topography
5) _____________ is the social type of agriculture determinants.

a) Relief b) Capital c) Climate d) Land holding
6) Government policies are the __________ type of agriculture determinant.

a) Social b) Physical c) Economic d) Climatic
7) __________ farming is utilizes maximum land under cultivation.

a) Extensive b) Intensive c) Mixed d) Subsistence
8) There are ________ types of subsistence agriculture.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 127 -2- *SLRSO127*
9) _____________ is a major crop in extensive agriculture.
a) Wheat b) Rice c) Maize d) Bajara
10) ________ states has the height irrigation coverage in India.

a) Karnataka b) Punjab c) Maharashtra d) Rajasthan
11) __________ is known as father of green revolution in India.

a) Raman b) Aryabhatta
c) Bhaskaracharya d) Swaminathan
12) The rearing of cattle for milk and milk products is known as ____
a) Dairy farming b) Poultry farming
c) Mixed farming d) agriculture
13) Bio-fertilizers do not have any ______ which are harmful to the living soil.
a) Chemical b) eco friendly c) Greenery d) Organic
14) Bio-fertilizer provides _______ organic agro inputs.

a) Harmful b) Toxic c) Chemically d) Eco friendly
2. Answer any seven question from the following. 14
1) List the any four approaches of agriculture geography.
2) Define the agriculture geography.
3) List the determinants of agriculture.
4) What is Subsistence agriculture ?
5) What is mixed farming ?
6) Define the concept of green revolution.
7) Define the concept of sustainable development.
8) What is poultry farming ?
9) List the post harvesting methods ?
Set P
*SLRSO127* -3- SLR-SO – 127
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following. 10
1) Nature of the agriculture geography.
2) Describe economical determinants of agriculture geography.
3) Describe the different government policies of agriculture in India.
B) Explain in details of green revolution in India. 4
4. Answer any two questions of the following. 14
1) Explain the modern techniques used in agriculture in India.
2) Describe the different types of agriculture.
3) Explain in details of problems of agriculture in India.
5. Answer any two questions of the following. 14
1) Describe the scope of Agriculture farming.
2) Describe the different allied areas in agriculture.
3) Describe the different post processing methods in agriculture.

_______________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.

ELECTRONICS
Paper – VI : Digital Techniques and Microprocessor

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 14

1) _____________ memories are made by using MOSFET and capacitors.
a) SRAM b) DRAM
c) EPROM d) PORM
2) A 4 bit binary weighted digital to analog converter, if 1KΩ resistor is
connected at MSB, then the value of resistor at LSB _____________
a) 1 KΩ b) 2 KΩ
c) 4 KΩ d) 8 KΩ
3) _____________ IC is a called as unidirectional buffer.
a) 74244 b) 74245
c) 74138 d) 74373
4) _____________ interrupt has lowest priority among all interrupts of 8085.
a) RST 7.5 b) RST 6.5
c) INTR d) RST5.5
5) ADD M instruction is an example of _____________ addressing mode.
a) Register b) Direct
c) Implied d) Indirect
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 128 -2- *SLRSO128*
6) In _____________ memory the data is written during the manufacturing

process.
a) PROM b) MROM
c) EEPROM d) EPROM
7) IC ADC 0804 gives _____________ bit digital output.
a) 12 b) 10
c) 8 d) 9
8) _____________ consists of fixed OR array and programmable AND
array.
a) PLA b) PGM
c) PROM d) PAL
9) The address bus capacity of 8085 microprocessor is _____________ bit.
a) 16 b) 32
c) 8 d) 12
10) _____________ symbol is used to represent the process in flow chart.
a) Oval b) Parallelogram
c) Diamond d) Rectangle
11) LDA 2050 is an example of _____________ addressing mode.
a) Register b) Immediate
c) Direct d) Indirect
12) The width of stack pointer is _____________ bit.
a) 16 b) 8
c) 12 d) 4
13) _____________ IC is called as octal D latch.
a) 74244 b) 74373
c) 74138 d) 74245
14) In IC ADC 0804 _____________ technique is used for conversion of analog
data into digital data.
a) Dual Slope b) Single Slope
c) Flash d) SAR
Set P
*SLRSO128* -3- SLR-SO – 128

1) Enlist four features of memory IC 2764.
2) Define Accuracy and conversion time for ADC.
3) Explain in brief the concept of tri-state logic.
4) Explain functions of ALE and IO/M control signals of 8085.
5) Enlist different types of non volatile semiconductors.
6) Define T state and machine cycle.
7) What happens when 8085 gets reset ?
8) State four three byte instructions of 8085 processor.
9) Explain the role of program counter in 8085.

1) Explain in brief the concept of CPLD.
2) Compare IO mapped IO scheme with memory mapped IO scheme.
3) Find out the analog voltage for R-2R ladder network DAC if 0 = 0 V and
1 = 10 V for digital input :
1) 1011 2) 1110
B) Draw the format of flag register, and explains each flag of 8085 processor. 4

1) Write assembly language program to subtract the two 8 bit numbers stored
at memory location 2050 and 2060 and put the result at memory location
2070 with flow chart.
2) Explain the concept of PLA and PAL.
3) What is meant by addressing mode ? Explain different types of addressing
mode supported by 8085 processor with suitable examples.

1) Explain the working principle of dual slope ADC.
2) Draw the internal block diagram of 8085 processor and explain ALU with
accumulator and register array.
3) What is flow chart ? Draw different symbols used in flow chart with their
meaning.
_________________
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Seat
No.

Set P
B.Sc. (Computer Sci.) – II (Semester – IV) (Old) (CGPA) Examination, 2018

Paper – V : Data Structures
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) __________ is primitive data structure.
a) Stack b) Queue
c) Tree d) None of these
2) ___________ data structure allows insertion and deletion of elements from
both ends.
a) Stack b) Queue c) Array d) Tree
3) For implementation of radix sort method, __________ data structure is
used.
a) Stack b) Linked list
c) Queue d) Tree
4) ___________ searching method requires less key comparisons.
a) Sequential b) Linear
c) Binary d) Indexed sequential
5) In __________ linked list, traversing is possible in both directions.
a) Singly linear b) Singly circular
c) Doubly linear d) Both a) and b)
6) The balance factor of every node of AVL tree is in the range __________
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 0, 1, 2
c) –1, 0, 1 d) Both a) and b)
7) To sort 6 elements using bubble sort, it made ___________ number of
successful swapping.
a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 15
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 129 -2- *SLRSO129*
8) Using 5 nodes, we can construct __________ number of possible binary

trees.
a) 10 b) 25 c) 52 d) 42
9) __________ traversal of tree produces ascending order of nodes.
a) Preorder b) Inorder
c) Postorder d) BFS
10) The content of stack after function calls push(10), push(10), push(20), pop( ),
pop( ), push(30), pop( ) is ____________
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) Empty
11) Single node of ___________ tree contains multiple keys.
a) Binary b) AVL
c) Extended binary d) B+
12) __________ sort uses divide and conquer strategy.
a) Quick b) Merge
c) Bubble d) Both a) and b)
13) An operating system uses ___________ data structure in sub routine
call.
a) Array b) Stack c) Queue d) Linked list
14) In average case, quick sort method has time complexity ___________
a) O(log n) b) O(log n2)
c) n O(log n) d) O(n log n)

1) Why linked list called as dynamic ?
2) What is internal and external sorting ?
3) List out several applications of tree.
4) Why queue works in FIFO manner ?
5) Write drawback of sequential access.
6) Which points are considered in writing ADT of any data structure ?
7) Why tree is called hierarchical data structure ?
8) What is collision in hashing ?
9) List out applications of stack data structure.
Set P
*SLRSO129* -3- SLR-SO – 129

1) Sort following numbers in descending order using insertion sort (Show
all passes) 58, 36, 10, 78, 92, 45
2) Write an algorithm that counts total leaf nodes in binary tree.
3) Write a program that finds sum of all numbers in matrix having order
4 by 3.
B) Write a program to implement bubble sort method. 4

1) Write an algorithm to delete a node from binary search tree.
2) Write a program that evaluates postfix expression using stack.
3) What is ADT ? Explain ADT for ‘Queue’ data structure.

1) Write a program to implement binary search method.
2) What is Multi-way search tree ? Explain B tree and B+ tree.
3) Explain following operations of doubly linear linked list :
a) insert_last( )
b) search( )
c) reverse( )
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

COMPUTER SCIENCE (paper – VI)
System Analysis and Design
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct alternative. 14

1) In ERD relationship symbol is represented by
a) Rectangle b) Ellipse
c) Diamond box d) Circle
2) SDLC stands for
a) Structure Development Life Cycle
b) Structure Design Life Cycle
c) System Design Life Cycle
d) System Development Life Cycle
3) ________ gives defining the flow of the data through and organization or
a company or series of tasks that may or may not represent computerized
processing.
a) System process b) System flowchart
c) System design d) Structured system
4) Enhancements, upgrades and bug fixes are done during the _______ step
in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and evaluation b) Problem identification
c) Design d) Development and documentation
5) _________ is a tabular method for describing the logic of the decisions to
be taken.
a) Decision tables b) Decision tree
c) Decision method d) Decision data
6) A rectangle in a DFD represents
a) a process b) a data store
c) an external entity d) an input unit
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 130 -2- *SLRSO130*
7) The first step in the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is
a) Analysis b) Design
c) Problem identification d) Development and documentation
8) ________ is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of
an application without peering into its internal structures or workings.
a) White box testing b) Black box testing
9) ________ collection of information from individuals face-to-face.
a) Observations b) Questionnaire
c) Interviewing d) Record reviews
10) The advantages of ________ normal form is removing transitive
dependencies.
a) First b) Second
c) Third d) None of these
11) _________ can be defined as most recent and perhaps the most comprehensive
technique for solving computer problems.
a) System analysis b) System data
c) System procedure d) System record
12) _________ is a group of interested components working together towards
a common goal by accepting inputs and producing outputs in an organized
transformation process.
a) System b) Network c) Team d) System Unit
13) Date store in a DFD represents
a) a sequential file b) a disk store
c) a repository of data d) a random access memory
14) The main ingredient of the report documenting the _______ is the cost
benefit analysis.
a) System analysis b) Feasibility study
c) System analyst d) System design

1) What is system ?
2) What is decision table ?
3) What is flowchart ?
4) Define fact finding technique.
Set P
*SLRSO130* -3- SLR-SO – 130
5) What is DFD ?
6) What is feasibility study ?
7) What is normalization ?
8) Explain the difference between program flowchart and system flowchart.
9) What is feedback ?

1) Draw the DFD for payroll system.
2) Explain characteristics of system.
3) Explain types of system.
B) Explain the symbols of flowchart. 4

1) Explain SDLC in detail.
2) Explain 1NF, 2NF and 3NF in detail.
3) Explain fact finding technique in detail.

1) What is testing ? Explain black box testing in detail.
2) Define ERD with symbols and explain types of relation with example.
3) Write a case study for college admission system.
_______________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (Old-CGPA) Examination, 2018

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper – III)
Nutrition and Metabolism

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Write chemical reactions wherever involved.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the

given options : 14
1) Glycolysis requires ____________ molecules of ATP per glucose molecule
for activation.
a) 2 b) 4
c) 12 d) 16
2) ____________ are non-essential food components in diet.
a) Lipids b) Carbohydrates
c) Proteins d) Vitamins
3) The BMR is increased up to ____________ in hyperthyroidism.
a) 25% b) 50%
c) 75% d) 100%
4) To maintain electrical neutrality, ____________ is the principal intracellular
cation.
a) Mg2+ b) Ca2+
c) K+ d) Na+
5) All spontaneous reactions proceed with ____________ in free energy.
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Equilibrium d) Zero value
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 131 -2- *SLRSO131*
6) Oxidative phosphorylation means production of ATP by _________

process.
a) Glycolysis b) Calvin cycle
c) Respiration d) Glycogenolysis
7) ____________ acid is a starting substrate for tricarboxylic acid cycle
reactions.
a) Pyruvic b) Citric
c) Oxalic d) Acetic
8) In patients suffering from PKU, phenylalanine is first converted to ______
a) Tyrosine b) Phenyl pyruvate
c) Phenyl acetate d) α- ketoglutarate
9) Acetyl CoA is transported out of mitochondria in the form of __________
a) Acetate b) Nitrate
c) Citrate d) Oxalate
10) ___________ regulate the blood pH.
a) Lung b) Kidney
c) Liver d) Spleen
11) Decarboxylation of α-amino acid by decarboxylase gives ________
a) Primary amine b) Secondary amine
c) Tertiary amine d) Alcohol
12) Osmolarity of intracellular fluid decrease in ___________ condition.
a) Metabolic acidosis b) Over hydration
c) Respiratory alkaloids d) Dehydration
13) _________ amino acid is involved in urea cycle.
a) Valine b) Arginine
c) Tyrosine d) Glycine
14) In Palmitic acid oxidation __________ energy is captured as ATP.
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 30% d) 40%
Set P
*SLRSO131* -3- SLR-SO – 131

1) What is phosphoenolypyruvate ?
2) How pyruvic acid obtained from α-keto glutamate ?
3) Define colorimetry. What is food calorie ?
4) How are the carbohydrates in food estimated ?
5) Write the conversion reaction of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA.
6) Write on free energy concept.
7) Write structures of AMP and ATP.
8) Define respiratory quotient with one example.
9) What are the functions of water in the body ?

1) How BMR is measured ? Explain Douglas bag method.
2) Write note on oxidative phosphorylation.
3) Write and explain the reactions of citric acid cycle.
B) Write a note on carbohydrates in diet. 4

1) What is colorimeter ? Draw a labelled diagram of constant volume adiabatic
bomb colorimeter.
2) Write and explain the reactions of preparatory phase of glycolysis.
3) What is high energy molecule ? Explain ATP as a high energy molecule.

1) What is blood buffer ? Explain the renal mechanism of pH regulation.
2) Explain three types of reactions occurred in amino acid metabolism.
3) What is β-oxidation ? Write and explain the reactions of β-oxidation of fatty
acid-palmitic acid.
_________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
plant protection (Old/CGPA)
Paper – III : Introduction to Weeds and Non Insect Pest

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

III) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing the correct answer from the given alternative :
(1×14=14)
1) __________ is the common weed of playground.
a) Amaranthus spinosus b) Argemone mexicana
c) Alternanthera tenella d) Cyperus rotundus
2) Mulching is _______ method of weed management.
a) Biological b) Chemical
c) Cultural d) Mechanical
3) Cynadon dactylon is _________ weed.
a) Annual b) Biennial c) Perennial d) Aquatic
4) __________ is total root parasitic weed.
a) Cuscuta b) Loranthus c) Striga d) Orobanche
5) ______ is soil active herbicide.
a) Alachlor b) DDT c) MCPA d) 2, 4-D
6) __________ is poisonous weed.
a) Loranthus b) Datura
c) Striga d) Eichhornia
7) _________ is monocot weed.
a) Cyperus rotundus b) Euphorbia hirta
c) Argemone mexicana d) Amaranthus spinosus P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 132 -2- *SLRSO132*
8) _________ are non-insect pests.

a) Nematodes b) Mites
c) Birds d) All of these
9) Leaf eating inset Zygograma bicolorata is used to control
a) Cyperus b) Parthenium
c) Euphorbia d) Cuscuta
10) Alternanthera tenella belongs to the family
a) Asteraceae b) Amaranthaceae
c) Poaceae d) Cyperaceae
11) _______ are the most destructive pests in the field and also in storage.
a) Snails b) Mites c) Birds d) Rats
12) Cuscuta reflexa is ________ weed.
a) aquatic b) poisonous c) parasitic d) monocot
13) Ploughing and Hoeing are _________ methods of weed management.
a) Cultural b) Chemical
c) Biological d) All of these
14) Weeds are classified on the basis of
a) crop association b) ontogeny
c) ecological d) all of these

i) Write botanical names of any two aquatic weeds.
ii) Define weed.
iii) What is field sanitation ?
iv) Give the damage caused by birds.
v) Write the agents of weed dispersal.
vi) Write management of Cynadon dactylon.
vii) Write morphology of mites.
viii) What is the role of Alachlor ?
ix) What you know about cover crops ?
Set P
*SLRSO132* -3- SLR-SO – 132

i) Write a note on nematodes.
ii) Explain parasitic weeds.
iii) Give the classification of weeds based on ecology.
B) What is crop rotation ? How it is beneficial ? 4

i) Write morphology, dispersal and management of Parthenium hysterophrous.
ii) Write the properties, mode of action and uses of 2, 4-D.
iii) Write the damage caused by snails and slugs and their management.

i) Write morphology, dispersal and management of Argemone mexicana.
ii) Describe poisonous weeds.
iii) Give the biological methods of weed control.
__________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (Old) Examination, 2018
Biochemistry (Paper – IV) (CGPA)
Molecular Biochemistry and Diseases
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Write the following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the given
options. 14
1) Template strand is present in
a) DNA b) tRNA
c) ribosome d) reverse transcriptase
2) The lac operon consists _________ as three structural genes.
a) K, L, M b) P, Q, R c) Z, Y, A d) D, E, F
3) Insulin hormone is formed in
a) liver b) pancreas
c) kidney d) small intestine
4) For cleavage of DNA, type II endonucleases requires
a) Fe2+ b) Ca2+ c) Mn2+ d) Mg2+
5) Flacial differences in immunology are ________ in origin.
a) genetic b) temporary
c) physiological d) artificial acquired
6) First restriction map was obtained in _________ using Hind II enzyme.
a) 1972 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1973
7) Carcino Embryonic Antigen (CEA) is used in detection of
a) AIDS b) Cancer
c) Diabetes d) Thyroid disease
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 133 -2- *SLRSO133*
8) The synthesis of proteins using genetic information on DNA is called as
a) transcription b) translation
c) transformation d) transition
9) The total genetic information present in a cell is called
a) codon b) genome
c) cistron d) operon
10) Production of d-interferon occurs in
a) 1990 b) 1980 c) 1970 d) 1960
11) In acute phase the body response to HIV infection within
a) 2 to 5 years b) 1 to 2 years
c) 3 to 6 weeks d) 1 to 2 weeks
12) In 1953, Watson and crick explained structure of DNA using
a) IR b) NMR
c) UV d) X-ray diffraction
13) Tears contain
a) zylosome b) lysozyme
c) acetylase d) polymerase
14) Juvenile onset diabetes occurs particularly between _________ years.
a) 1 to 15 b) 20 to 35 c) above 35 d) 60 to 75

1) Write note on insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
2) What is metastasis in cancer ?
3) What is secondary immune response ?
4) Draw the double helix structure of DNA.
5) Write the steps involved in the preparation of recombinant DNA.
6) How can DNA be enzymetically hydrolysed to constituent phase ?
7) How does body response to HIV infection during early acute phase ?
8) State various natural modes of genetic recombination.
9) Write on activation of amino acids.
Set P
*SLRSO133* -3- SLR-SO – 133
1) Draw labelled diagram of HIV and describe in brief.
2) Write note on tumour markers.
3) Explain λ phage as a cloning vector.
B) What are different mechanisms of innate immunity ? 4

1) What is transcription ? Explain steps involved in transcription.
2) Explain C-DNA preparation. What are applications of genetic engineering ?
3) Explain three steps involved in transcription.

1) Write a note on clonal selection theory.
2) Explain the concept of lac operon.
3) Explain in detail types of diabetes mellitus.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set p
plant protection (old CGPA)
Paper – IV : Insect Pests and their Management
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
III) Draw neat and labeled diagrams wherever
necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing the correct answer from the given
alternative : (1�14=14)
1) Holotricha consanguinea is the scientific name of
a) White grab of groundnut b) Gram pod borer
c) Red spider d) Jowar stem borer
2) Jassids are the pests of
a) Gram b) Mango c) Tomato d) Jowar
3) Pod borer is common pest of
a) Brinjal b) Sugarcane c) Gram d) Groundnut
4) Rice weevil is the common pest of
a) Pulses b) Oil seeds c) Stored grains d) Fruit trees
5) The chemical which induces insects to move away from it is called
a) Pheromones b) Antifeedents
c) Repellent d) Attractants
6) _________ are common pest of rose.
a) Wooly aphids b) Jassids
c) Thrips d) White grubs
7) ________ is the plant origin insecticide.
a) DDT b) Diazinon c) Toxaphene d) Pongram
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 134 -2- *SLRSO134*
8) A chemical which has property of sterilizing insect without killing it is called
a) Repellants b) Pheromones
c) Attractors d) Antifeedants
9) ________ insecticide obtained from Chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium.
a) Rotenone b) Nicotine
c) Pyrethrin and cinerin d) Nimbin
10) The classification of insecticides is based on
a) Chemical nature b) Mode of action
c) Mode of entry d) All of these
11) The fruit borer is the pest of
a) Brinjal b) Gram
c) Jowar d) Groundnut
12) __________ crop is affected by wooly aphids.
a) Tomato b) Jowar
c) Sugarcane d) Groundnut
13) ____________ is used as contact Poision obtained from tobacco.
a) Nimbin b) Nimbidine
c) Nicotine d) Pyrethrin
14) ________ are insect pests.
a) Rats b) Snails c) Birds d) Aphids

i) Give the marks of identification of Pod borer.
ii) What are insect pests ?
iii) Write about mouth parts of White grub.
iv) Give the host range of stem borer.
v) Write the nature of damage caused by pulse beetle.
vi) What are the antifeedants ?
vii) Write about nature of formulation.
viii) Give the damage caused by wooly aphids.
ix) Damage caused by Jassids.
Set P
*SLRSO134* -3- SLR-SO – 134
i) Give scientific name and marks of identification of Red spider.
ii) Give the nature of damage and its management caused by Rice weevil.
iii) Give the classification of Insect pest based on mouth parts.
B) State the application and effects of plant origin insecticides. 4

i) Give the life cycle and nature of damage caused by fruit borer.
ii) Give the principles of insect pest control.
iii) Give general characters of typical insect with respect to wings, types of legs
and abdomen.

i) Give the classification of insecticides based on mode of action.
ii) What precautionary measures to be used during pesticide application ?
iii) Give account of Jowar stem borer write scientific name, marks of
identification and life cycle.
___________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Meteorology (Paper – III)
Applied Climatology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) _____________ is meant to protect man against the weather and wild

animals.
(Shelter, Cloths, Security, Force)
2) The body comport zone ranges between 18.9°C to __________ °C.

(22.4°C, 23.9°C, 25.6°C, 27.4°C)
3) The insolation in cities is about _________ % less than the near by rural areas.
( 10 –15, 15 – 20, 20 – 25, 25 – 30)
4) Statistical methods are used for __________ range forecasting of

weather.
(Daily, Short, Long, Hourly)
5) Observations, both surface and ________ air network of stations are

necessary for weather analysis.
(Upper, Lower, Central, Topmost)
6) The term forecast was first applied in meteorology by _____

(Fitzroy, Corriolis, Trewartha, Miller)
7) Indian meteorological services use linear equations to forecast coming of

the _____________
(Winter, Summer, Monsoon, Autumn)
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 135 -2- *SLRSO135*
8) Winds blowing under the influence of planetary pressure distribution are
___________ winds.
(Variable, Planetary, Local, Diurnal)
9) A ___________ is defined as a stream of air in fairly well direction.

(Wind, Breeze, Cyclone, Tornado)
10) A tropical cyclone represents the isobars with _________ gradient.

(Circular, Irregular, Steep, Elongated)
11) Bombay high is known for ______ drilling.

(High sea, On shore, Off shore, Coast)
12) The ____________ bank is noted for hazards to shipping due to fog and
icebergs.
(Grand, Dogger, Canara, Cosmos)
13) Along the ______________ coast of subtropics upwellings of sea water is

by strong surface winds.
(Eastern, Western, Northern, Southern)
14) ____________ are the warm winds restricted to Alps Mountain.

(Chinook, Fohn, Maestro, Hartman)
2. Write in brief (any seven). 14
1) Define human comfort.
2) Define urban climate.
3) Define pressure gradient.
4) Major characteristics of tropical cyclone.
5) What is Marine Fishing ?
6) What are the local winds ?
7) Define the concept of pollution.
Set P
*SLRSO135* -3- SLR-SO – 135
8) What are rotational forces ?
9) What is forecasting ?
3. A) Write short answers (any two). 10

1) Importance of Applied Climatology.
2) Describe the short term weather forecasting.
3) Define the Atmospheric Pressure.
B) Physiological response. 4
4. Write short answers (any two). 14
1) Explain Climatic impact on agriculture.
2) Importance of satellite studies.
3) Explain off shore drilling.
5. Answer any two question. 14
1) Explain the importance of applied climatology.
2) Impact of climate on industrial development.
3) Describe the impact of local winds on local climate.

_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

geochemistry (Paper – III)
Principles of Geochemistry
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1

1) Ice  water is an example of ____________ reaction.
a) irreversible b) reversible
c) fast d) exothermic
2) According to Lewis theory, acid is __________ acceptor.
a) proton b) neutron
c) electron pair d) electron
3) Chemical equilibrium is always ___________ in nature.
a) static b) dynamic
c) elastic d) all of these
4) Organic activity of Na2Co3 __________ with decrease in temperature.
5) The functional group of carboxilic acid is
a) – OH b) > C = O
c) – COOH d) – NH2
6) The formation of petroleum is from _____________ rock.
a) sedimentary b) igneous
c) metamorphic d) basalt
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 136 -2- *SLRSO136*
7) ______________ is one of the physical method used to remove germs and
bacteria from raw water.
a) chlorination b) fluoxidation
c) distillation d) ozonization
8) Water which gives good lather with soap is called as
a) hard b) soft
c) permanent hard water d) temporary soft water
9) ____________ is unstable when it is exposed to air.
a) olivine b) parafin
c) aniline d) none of these
10) ___________ principle is applicable for reversible reaction.
a) Equilibrium b) Lechatalier’s
c) Gibb’s d) Faraday’s
11) Na2CO3 is ___________ in nature.
a) acidic b) neutral
c) basic d) electrolyte
12) The pH of ocean water is
a) 8.1 b) 5.1 c) 6.1 d) 7.0
13) Alkenes contains ____________ bonds.
a) single b) double
c) triple d) alternate
14) Petroleum is a mixture of
a) nitrocarbon b) halogen
c) hydrocarbon d) acids

1) Give the source of water pollution.
2) Define water pollutant. Give one example.
3) Write the names of following :
a) C12H22O11
b) C2H2
Set P
*SLRSO136* -3- SLR-SO – 136
4) Write the structure of
a) n-butane
b) iso-butane
5) Explain the nature of basic rock and acidic rock.
6) Select the conjugate acid base pair of the following.
HCl + H2O  H3O+ + Cl–
7) Define neutralization according to Arrhenius theory.
8) State law of mass action. Give one example.
9) Explain the term “Stability of elements”.

1) Discuss the effect of temperature, pressure and concentration on the
reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2HN3(g) + Heat
2) Show that chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature for the reaction
A+B  C+D
3) Write a short note on :
Sedimentary rocks.
B) Explain the process of chemical oxygen demand (COD) for the treatment
on water pollutant. 4

1) Give an account of “origin of petroleum”.
2) Define water pollution. Explain any one physical method for the treatment
of water pollution.
3) How the concentrations of Bicarbonate and carbonate can be estimated
from the hydrolysis of sodium carbonate ?

1) Give an account of “origin of coal”.
2) Define hydrolysis. Explain the hydrolysis of Ammonium chloride.
3) Write a short note on chemistry of carbon.
_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. Part – II/Semester – IV (Old CGPA) Examination, 2018
zoology (Paper – V)
Animal Diversity – IV
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2) Figures to the right indicate marks.
1. Select the appropriate answer for each of the following and complete the
sentence : 14
1) In reptiles the skin is
a) Wet and smooth b) Moist and smooth
c) Dry and rough d) Sleepery
2) Rat belongs to order
a) Rhodentia b) Logomorpha c) Diapsida d) Chelonia
3) Gastric digestion takes place in
a) Rectum b) Duodenum c) Colon d) Stomach
4) ______ of Rat are called as oxygen carrier.
a) RBCs b) WBCs c) Thrombocytes d) Leucocytes
5) Left side of heart of rat shows ______ blood.
a) Impure b) Oxygenated c) Deoxygenated d) Mixed
6) Malpighian body is a structure present in ______
a) Kidney b) Brain c) Liver d) Heart
7) Optic lobes and crura cerebri are the parts of
a) Fore brain b) Hind brain
c) Prosencephalon d) Mid brain
8) Sclerotic, choroid and retinal layers are the parts of
a) Ear b) Eye c) Brain d) Lungs
9) In matured rat tests are present in
a) Scrotum b) Chest cavity
c) Abdominal cavity d) Thoracic cavity
10) Mesozoic reptile, brontosauvus was named as
a) Garden lizard b) Thunder lizard c) Flying dragon d) Swan dragon
11) Marsupium is ______ mammal.
a) Pouched b) Eutherian c) Egg-laying d) Placental
P.T.O.
12) In human last molar teeth-tooth is called ______ tooth.

a) Wisdom b) Freedom c) Wedding d) Independence
13) Poison gland is ______ shape.
a) Almond b) Diamond c) Ring d) Pea
14) Raptorial feet is found in
a) Sparrow b) Vulture c) Parrot d) Woodpecker
2. Answer any seven : 14

1) Salient features of class reptelia.
2) Monotreams.
3) Dental formula of human.
4) Leg of vulture.
5) Scrotum of rat.
6) Functions of ear of rat.
7) Archaeopteryx.
8) Marsupials.
9) Diastema.

1) Describe gastric digestion in rat.
2) Describe poison apparatus.
3) Describe kidney of rat.
B) Functions of Pancreas of rat. 4
4. Answer any two : 14

1) Describe aerial adaptations in birds.
2) Describe different types of beak of birds.
3) Describe functions of brain of rat.
5. Answer any two : 14

1) Describe lungs of rat.
2) Describe identification, features of poisonous and non poisonous snakes.
3) Describe the mesozoic reptiles.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (Old CGPA) Examination, 2018
meteorology
Meteorological Instruments (Paper – IV)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Select the correct alternatives. 14

i) Rainfall is measured using a
a) Hygrometer b) Thermometer
c) Barometer d) Rain gauge
ii) The float type; with automatic siphon, weighing gauges and tipping-bucket
gauges are types of
a) hygrometers b) radiometers
c) thermometers d) rain gauges
iii) For automatic recording of rainfall _______ is used.
a) anemograph b) hygrograph c) barograph d) float gauge
iv) A temperature of 0°C is equal to ________ °F.
a) – 40 b) 0 c) 32 d) 80
v) At what temperature do the Celsius and the Fahrenheit scales coincide ?
a) 0° b) – 40° c) – 80° d) – 273°
vi) The six’s thermometer is used to measure _______ temperature.
a) Minimum b) Maximum
c) Minimum and maximum d) Absolute zero
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 138 -2- *SLRSO138*
vii) For automatic recording of temperature ________ is used.

a) Thermograph b) Barograph
c) Anemograph d) Hygrograph
viii) The lines joining places of equal _______ are called isobars.
a) wind speed b) Temperature
c) Pressure d) Humidity
ix) The instrument used for measurement of atmospheric pressure is known as
a) barometer b) thermometer c) anemometer d) calorimeter
x) Aneroid barometer is used to measure atmospheric
a) density b) pressure c) temperature d) humidity
xi) Air in motion is known as
a) Spinning b) Wind c) Rotation d) Revolution
xii) Wind results from __________ heating of different parts of the earth.
a) over b) even c) equal d) uneven
xiii) The arrangement of two dissimilar metals forming two functions is known as
a) Thermograph b) Thermopile c) Termocouple d) Thermometer
xiv) A thermopile consists of large number of ______ connected in series.
a) thermometers b) radiometers
c) thermocouples d) psychrometers

i) What is rain gauge ?
ii) What is a self recording rain gauge ?
iii) Obtain interrelation between different temperature scales.
iv) State differences and similarities between mercury thermometer and alcohol
thermometer.
v) What is a barometer ?
vi) What are advantages of anemograph over an anemometer ?
vii) What is humidity ?
viii) What is a hygrometer ?
Set P
*SLRSO138* -3- SLR-SO – 138

i) With neat diagram explain construction and working of float gauge.
ii) With neat labeled diagram, describe maximum and minimum thermometer.
iii) Write a short note on the wind vane.
B) Two unknown wind velocities 40 km/hr and 60 km/hr are measured using
a cup anemometer and the respective linear velocities of rotating cups are
25 m/s and 40 m/s. Determine constants of the cup anemometer. 4

i) With neat diagram explain the construction and working of automatic siphon
gauge.
ii) With neat diagram explain construction and working of thermograph.
iii) With neat diagram explain construction and working of Hooke’s
anemometer.

i) With neat labeled diagram explain construction and working of aneroid
barometer.
ii) Write a note on seebeck effect.
State the e.m.f equation for a thermocouple. hence show that inversion
temperature (θi) is twice the neutral temperature (θn)F.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

Geochemistry
Chemistry of the Earth (Paper – IV)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Pyroxene minerals convert to __________ mineral by oxidation and
hydration.
a) Kaolinite b) Smectite
c) Goethite d) Calcite
2) Mantle is mainly made up of _________ silicates.
a) Ni-Fe b) Mn-Fe c) Mg-Fe d) Na-Fe
3) The most resistant/non-susceptible mineral to weathering is __________
a) quartz b) olivine
c) mica d) pyroxene
4) ‘B’ soil horizon is characterised by accumulation of leached elements from
___________ horizon.
a) R b) D c) C d) A
5) If pH of the soil is 10 then the soil is said to be ___________
a) acidic b) alkaline
c) basic d) neutral
6) The process involving loss of electrons is ___________
c) potential d) redundant
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 139 -2- *SLRSO139*
7) Limonite formation is an example of _________ chemical weathering

process.
a) solution b) oxidation
c) carbonation d) hydration
8) Primary geochemical differentiation took place due to ___________
a) affinity of ions b) magnetism
c) ionisation d) gravity
9) Hydration of ion is inversely proportional to its __________
a) diameter b) radius
c) charge d) valency
10) The composition of soil is __________
a) solids b) humus
c) air d) all of these
11) Hydration of ion is inversely proportional to its ___________
a) radius b) charge c) diameter d) valency
12) __________ has maximum affinity to oxygen.
a) Ca b) Mg c) Fe d) Na
13) Soil whose dimensions are between __________ mm is sandy soil.
a) 2 and 0.2 b) 0.2 and 0.02
c) 0.02 and 0.002 d) <0.002)
14) Marine clays are mainly of __________ type.
a) Mont Morillonite b) Kaolinite
c) China Clay d) Illite

i) What is hydrogen ion concentration in pure water at 25°C ?
ii) Name the air pollutants.
iii) What is humus in soil ?
iv) Mineral susceptibility sequence for chemical weathering.
v) Explain role of particulate matter in air pollution.
vi) What is mollisol soil ?
vii) What is gravitational differentiation ?
Set P
*SLRSO139* -3- SLR-SO – 139

i) Agents of chemical weathering.
ii) What are factors controlling soil formation ?
iii) What are iron sediments ?
B) Explain modern classification of soil. 4

i) Soil texture.
ii) Soil pollution.
iii) Describe smectite structure.

i) Explain geochemical cycle.
ii) Describe the process of formation of clay minerals.
iii) Explain soil pollution.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (Old CGPA) Examination, 2018
zoology (Paper – VI)
(Histology and Physiology)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat labeled diagram.
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct answer from given alternatives. 14
1) __________ tissue evolved first in the animal kingdom.
a) Connective tissue b) Epithelial tissue
c) Skeletal tissue d) Muscular tissue
2) Schwan cells are found in
a) Connective tissue b) Epithelial tissue
c) Nervous tissue d) Muscular tissue
3) The functional unit of muscle fiber is termed as
a) ‘Z’ line b) ‘A’ band
c) Sarcomere d) Actin
4) The hardest covering which is present over the tooth is
a) Cement b) Dentine c) Enamel d) Gum
5) Ilets of langerhans are present in
a) Liver b) Stomach
c) Salivary glands d) Pancreas
6) Hormone secreting cells of a testis are
a) Follicular cells b) Spermatocytes
c) Leydig cells d) Cells of tunica albuginea
7) Malphigian bodies are present in
a) Testis b) Ovary c) Kidney d) Pituitary
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 140 -2- *SLRSO140*
8) Corpus luteum is found in
a) Kidney b) Testis c) Ovary d) Pitutary
9) TSH is secreted by
a) Adrenal cortex b) Ant. lobe of pituitary gland
c) Thyroid follical cells d) Post. lobe of pituitary gland
10) Vasectomy means
a) Cutting of ureter
b) Cutting and removal of seminal
c) Cutting of vas deference
d) Cutting and removal of prostate gland
11) Defensive mechanism of body is called
a) Clarity b) Immunity
c) Community d) Variety
12) The use of ___________ is only contraceptive method to prevent HIV
infection.
a) Foam b) IUC c) Condom d) Oral pills
13) In test tube baby technique, the development of young one take place in
a) Test tube b) Glass jar c) Uterus d) Vagina
14) Chromosomal abnormalities of a foetus can be detected by
a) Amniocentesis b) X ray
c) Electrocardiogram d) Sonography

1) Types of Neuron.
2) Sarcomere.
3) Gastric gland.
4) Taste bud.
5) Villi.
6) Sertoli cells.
7) Bile.
8) T-Cells.
9) Insulin.
Set P
*SLRSO140* -3- SLR-SO – 140

1) Describe the structure of Neuron.
2) Describe the historical structure of stomach of mammals.
3) Describe oestrus cycle.
B) Describe the histological structure of mammalian testis. 4

1) Describe the hormonal control of testicular activity.
2) Describe the hormones of anterior lobe of pituitary gland.
3) What are the contraceptives ? Explain the IUD and oral contraceptives pills.

1) Describe the humoral immunity.
2) Describe the any two connective tissue with reference to organ, location and
functions.
3) Describe test tube technique.
––––––––––––––––
Set P
Seat
No. Set P

Botany (Paper – V)
Plant Physiology and Cytogenetics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative : 14

1) _____________ is absent in the chloroplast.
a) DNA b) Ribosome
c) Carotenoids d) Bacteriochlorophyll
2) The number of oxygen molecules released per photon of light in
photosynthesis is called ___________
a) Quantum requirement b) Quantum yield
c) Photosynthetic yield d) None of these
3) The enzyme nitrogenase is very sensitive to __________
a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen d) Methane
4) The chromatids of chromosome are attached at _________ region of
chromosome.
a) Centromere b) Secondary constriction
c) Satellite d) None of these
5) Meiosis produces ____________ number of haploid cells.
a) Two b) Four c) Six d) Eight
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 141 -2- *SLRSO141*
6) In Lathyrus odoratus, Bateson and Punnet obtained _______ test cross
ratio.
a) 1 : 1 : 1 :1 b) 7 : 1 : 1 : 7
c) 9 : 7 d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
7) In higher plants, translocation of organic solutes takes place mainly
through ________________
a) Phloem and sieve tubes b) Xylem vessels
c) Pith d) Both a) and b)
8) The Rhizobium enters into roots of leguminous plants through _______
a) Epidermal cells b) Root hairs
c) Meristematic region d) Zone of elongation
9) During the process of crossing over, two sister chromatids break due to the
activity of an enzyme ___________
a) Endonuclease b) Ligase
c) RNA polymerase d) Gyrase
10) Percentage of N2 in atmosphere is _____ by volume.
a) 92% b) 72% c) 78% d) 95%
11) Photosynthesis is ___________ process.
a) Catabolic b) Anabolic c) Metabolic d) Respiratory
12) The complete linkage has been reported in _____________
a) Maize b) Human
c) Male drosophila d) Female drosophila
13) _______________ is the site of photochemical reaction.
a) Quantasome b) Polysome
c) Ribosome d) Chromosome
14) The kranz anatomy is seen in the leaves of ________________
a) Maize b) Nerium
c) Sunflower d) Potato
Set P
*SLRSO141* -3- SLR-SO – 141
I) Enlist the enzymes involved in the process of crossing over.
II) Why the quantasomes are called main photosynthetic units ?
III) Define linkage.
IV) Define meiosis.
V) Define symplast type of phloem loading.
VI) Write a reaction of photosynthesis.
VII) What is CAM ?
VIII) What is N2 fixation ?
IX) What is Kranz anatomy ?

I) Write an outline of nitrogen cycle.
II) Draw neat labelled diagram of chloroplast.
III) What is meiosis ? Discuss the Anaphase – I.
B) Explain in brief the ‘Munch hypothesis’. 4

I) Explain incomplete type of linkage.
II) Define nitrogen fixation and comment up on the organisms involved in
biological nitrogen fixation.
III) Discuss the structure and chemical nature of eukaryotic chromosomes.

I) Give an outline of Calvin cycle.
II) Explain CAM pathway.
III) Explain various stages of Prophase in meiosis – I.

______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (Old – CGPA) Examination, 2018
botany (Paper No. – VI)
Utilization of Plants

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives. 14

1) Arachis hypogea is cultivated for
a) Oil b) Medicine
c) Fibre d) Rubber
2) Common English name of Glycine max is
a) Groundnut b) Soyabean
c) Mustard d) Coconut
3) Fibres are obtained from the __________ of coconut plant.
a) Stems b) Roots c) Fruits d) Leaves
4) Citronella oil is obtained from the leaves of
a) Rosa b) Jasminum
c) Lawsonia d) Cymbopogon
5) The alkaloid vasicinine is present in the leaves of
a) Adhatoda zeylanica b) Aloe Vera
c) Tinospora Cordifolia d) Rauvolfia Serpentina
6) The clove oil is obtained from the ___________ of syzgium aromaticum.
a) Roots b) Flower buds
c) Stems d) Leaves
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 142 -2- *SLRSO142*
7) _____________ is a succulent plant.
a) Quisqualis b) Celosia
c) Bryophyllum d) Ginger
8) Indigo dye is obtained from the leaves of
a) Lawsonia inermis b) Butea monospora
c) Rubia tinctorum d) Indigofera tinctoria
9) Orange red dye is obtained from the _______ of curcuma longa.
a) Roots b) Rhizomes
c) Leaves d) Fruits
10) The Botanical name of Rangoon creeper is
a) Celosia cristata b) Quisqualis indica
c) Aloe vera d) Bryophyllum sp.
11) Red gram is also called
a) Cowpea b) Chickpea
c) Pigeon pea d) Lucerne
12) Soyamilk is obtained from _____________ seeds.
a) Groundnut b) Coconut
c) Mustard d) Soyabean
13) Botanical name of ‘Henna’ is
a) Lawsonia inermis b) Rosa indica
c) Pogostemon Cablin d) Aloe Vera
14) ____________ is used as a botanical pesticides.
a) Palas b) Neem c) Oak d) Teak

i) Give the botanical names of fodder legumes.
ii) Give the examples of botanical pesticides.
iii) What is perennials ? Give one example of perennials.
iv) Define medicinal plants.
v) What is fibre ? Set P
*SLRSO142* -3- SLR-SO – 142
vi) Define ornamental plants.

vii) What is cacti ? Give one example of cacti.
viii) Define dyes.
ix) Give the botanical names of vegetable oil plants.

i) State the economic importance of clove.
ii) Give brief account of cultivation methods of soyabean.
iii) Give botanical name and economic importance of rubber.
B) Give an account of fodder legumes. 4

i) Give the properties and extraction methods of Rubber.
ii) What is seasonals ? Give botanical names and ornamental value of Cock’s
comb and Shevanti.
iii) Give the botanical names, sources and economic importance of pulse
legumes.

i) Give the botanical name, source and economic importance of cotton.
ii) Give the botanical name, source and economic importance of Ginger.
iii) Give an account of perfumes and cosmetics of Rose and Aloe.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) Old (CGPA) Examination, 2018

Psychology
Cognitive Psychology (Paper No. – V)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1
1. Choose and write a correct answer of the following four alternatives. 14

1) _____________ is essential to the functional and even the survival of human
and other animal.
a) memory b) cognition c) emotion d) experiment
2) The kind of memory involved in these situational is ___________ term
memory.
a) long b) short c) sensory d) iconic
3) ____________ psychologists try to specify how information is internally
represented.
a) abnormal b) cognitive c) experimental d) social
4) Cognitive psychology has come to rely on facts about the
a) mind b) brain c) soul d) social
5) Nondeclarative memory refers to nonconscious form of __________ term
memory.
a) sensory b) iconic c) long d) short
6) Cognition psychology focused exclusively on the level of
a) personality b) abnormality
c) information processing d) social
7) A behavioral method measures directly observable
a) behavior b) mind c) attitude d) stress
8) __________ does not necessarily imply causation.
a) correlation b) effect c) Le Bon d) Cost
9) __________ information in working memory.
a) sensory b) verbal c) short term d) long term
10) We can evaluate the various __________ neural methods on
three dimensions.
a) effect b) correlational c) short term d) long term P.T.O.
11) Spatial resolution means how precisely they track changes in the ________
activity over time.
a) mind b) body c) brain d) soul
12) __________ memory has a very human foundation in the experience.
a) short term b) iconic c) long term d) cost
13) The oldest __________ methods record brain activity from the scalp.
a) correlational b) effect c) Le Bon d) cost
14) ___________ processes are set in motion at the time of the experience.
a) encoding b) physics c) sociology d) economics
2. Answer the following (any seven). 14

1) Who defined episodic memory ?
2) Which memory supports for individual life events ?
3) Which memory is highly flexible ?
4) Define Memory.
5) Define short term memory.
6) Which theories specify ways in which stimuli lead to responses ?
7) Who developed a method to examine how information is accessed in
memory ?
8) Define Encoding.
9) Define Long term memory.
3. A) Short notes (any two). 10

1) Correlational Neural Methods
2) Modeling
3) Misremembering the past.
B) Describe the causal Neural Methods. 4
4. Answer the following. (any two). 14

1) Discuss on the Ebbinghaus forgetting functions.
2) Explain the Forgetting and competition.
3) Discuss on the Spacing Effect of Enhancers of Encoding.

1) Explain the pattern completion and recapitulation.
2) Discuss on the Implications of the nature of working memory.
3) Discuss on the form of long term memory.
_________________ Set P
Seat
No.

Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (Old) (CGPA) Examination, 2018

Geology (Paper – V)
Igneous Petrology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answers from the given options : 14
1) The presence of augite and leucite has lowered its freezing point by at least
__________ °C.
a) 400 b) 500 c) 600 d) 200
2) Vogt has determined the eutectic proportion of pair of rock forming minerals,
diopside; enstatite is ___________
a) 45 : 55 b) 55 : 45 c) 60 : 40 d) 70 : 30
3) The reaction relation in magma proposed by ___________
a) Vogt b) Harker
c) Bowens d) Tyrrel
4) The end product of reaction relation is ___________
a) olivine b) pyroxene
c) amphibole d) quartz
5) __________ are usually rod or needle shaped to their mineralogical
nature.
a) microlites b) holocrystalline
c) merocrystalline d) holohyaline
6) __________ textures are those in which the constituent minerals are all of
approximately the same size.
a) equigranular b) inequigranular
c) allotriomorphic d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 144 -2- *SLRSO144*
7) Textures which are produced by flow in magmas during their crystallization

are said to be ____________
a) trachytic b) directive
c) intersertal d) intergranular
8) The essential features of __________ structure is simultaneous crystallization
of fibres with radiate arrangement about a common centre.
a) spherulitic b) orbicular
c) corona d) myrmekite
9) __________ is a ultrabasic rock.
a) Gabbro b) Basalt c) Diorite d) Peridolite
10) Acid rock contains more than ____________ % silica.
a) 65 b) 75 c) 85 d) 95
11) Quartz is absent in __________ rocks.
a) acidic b) ultrabasic c) basic d) none of these
12) When a rock is composed entirely of glassy material, its texture is called
____________
a) holohyaline b) holocrystalline
c) merocrystalline d) none of these
13) The term ___________ is used for those grains in which crystal faces are
absent.
a) anhedral b) euhedral
c) subhedral d) none of these
14) The essential minerals in granite are ___________
a) quartz and augite b) quartz and olivine
c) quartz and leucite d) none of these

1) Formation of dolerite.
2) Define differentiation of magma.
3) Metastable region.
4) Composition of syenite.
5) Eutectics.
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*SLRSO144* -3- SLR-SO – 144
6) Xenolith.
7) Size of grains.
8) Fine grained texture.
9) Composition of diorite.

1) Porphyritic texture.
2) Poikilitic texture.
3) Ophitic texture.
B) Write note on : Directive texture. 4

1) Explain crystallization of binary magma.
2) Formation of glass and crystals.
3) Bowens discontinuous reaction series.

1) Tabular classification of igneous rocks.
2) Spherulitic and orbicular structure.
3) Explain differentiation by gaseous transfer and gravity settling.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (Old – CGPA) Examination, 2018
Microbiology (Paper – V)
Immunology and Medical Microbiology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Rewrite the sentences after choosing correct answer from the given
alternatives. 14
i) __________ antibody has valancy TEN.
a) IgA b) IgE c) IgG d) IgM
ii) Antibodies involved in anaphylactic reactions are _________ class.
a) IgG b) IgE c) IgM d) IgD
iii) Clonal selection
a) Begins with inflammation
b) Occurs for all leucocytes
c) Results in innate immunity
d) Results in proliferation of antigen specific lymphocytes
iv) Antigen antibody reaction of Viruses and its antibodies is of _______ type.
c) Flocculation d) None of these
v) ________ is a secondary lymphoid organ.
a) MALT b) Spleen c) Lymph node d) All of these
vi) Application of vaccines is an example of _________ immunity.
a) Artificially active b) Artificially passive
c) Naturally active d) Naturally passive
vii) Prevalence of Tuberculosis observed in Nepalese and Russian is less, is
an example of ________ immunity.
a) individual b) racial c) species d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 145 -2- *SLRSO145*
viii) Presence of swelling, redness, pain, fever, necrosis and loss of function of
organ is called
a) Infection b) Inflammation
c) Immunity d) Pathogenicity
ix) Skin graft from an individual’s thigh to his chest or face is an example of
graft and is not foreign.
a) Allograft b) Xenograft c) Syngenic d) Autograft
x) __________ test is most sensitive test for detection of antigen antibody
reaction.
c) Immunodiffusion d) ELISA
xi) Endotoxins are made up of
a) Lipopolysaccharide b) Proteins
c) Carbohydrate d) Lipids
xii) __________ is the fungal disease.
a) Dengue b) Typhoid c) Candidiasis d) Diarrhoea
xiii) Dengue fever spreads through the bite of an infected _______ mosquito.
a) Aedes Aegypti b) Anopheles
xiv) __________ is the only antibody pass through placenta from mother to
foetus.
a) IgE b) IgA c) IgG d) IgM
2. Answer in one or two sentences (any seven). 14

i) Antigen
ii) Precipitation reaction
iii) Adhesion
iv) Exotoxin
v) Spread of typhoid infection
vi) Wound infection
vii) IgA antibody.
viii) Flocculation test.
ix) First line of defence.
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*SLRSO145* -3- SLR-SO – 145
i) Write on complement fixation test.
ii) Describe collection, handling and transportation of samples for
microbiology testing.
iii) What is Innate immunity ?
B) Differentiate between active and passive immunity. 4

i) Factors affecting immunogenicity.
ii) Mechanism of Pathogenicity.
iii) Primary and secondary lymphoid organs.

i) Typhoid fever.
ii) Immunoglobin M (IgM).
iii) Bacterial toxins.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (Old) (CGPA) Examination, 2018
psychology
Positive Psychology (Paper – VI)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1) _____________ motives refer to the rewards, approval, praise or
situational demands.
A) External B) Internal
C) Identified D) Interject
2) ___________ suggested the content of human goals across 15 cultures.
A) Grouzef B) Maslow
C) Skinner D) Adler
3) Goals described as ___________ concerns.
A) Social B) Personal
C) Mental D) Emotional
4) ___________ well-being is defined as life.
A) Objective B) Subjective
C) Happy D) Perspective
5) Social acceptance is a factor of ___________well-being.
A) Personal B) Mental
C) Social D) Educational
6) ___________ describes two psychological views of happiness.
A) Carver B) Cantor
C) Waterman D) Austing
7) There are three components of well-being.
A) Subjective B) Objective
C) Social D) Mental
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 146 -2- *SLRSO146*
8) Fredrickson developed Broaden and Build theory of _______ psychology.
A) Positive B) Cognitive
C) Social D) Health
9) ________directions are important to the focus of the Fredrickson theory.
A) Four B) Two
C) Five D) Nine
10) Coping behaviours are often grouped into ________general categories.
A) four B) two
C) five D) six
11) Seligman’s description of the ___________ pillars of positive psychology.
A) 5 B) 4
C) 3 D) 6
12) ___________ reappraisal refers a cognitive strategy.
A) Social B) Emotional
C) Positive D) Motivational
13) Two dimensional representation of ___________goals.
A) 11 B) 10
C) 8 D) 6
14) ___________described as personal concerns.
A) Goals B) Emotion
C) Idea D) Balance

1) Define the well-being.
2) Define positive psychology.
3) Meaning of happiness.
4) Define resilience.
5) Define positive emotion.
6) What is positive reappraisal ?
7) Define ordinary magic.
8) Meaning of personal projects.
9) Define personal goals.
Set P
*SLRSO146* -3- SLR-SO – 146
3. A) Short notes (any two) : 10
1) Person goals.
2) Factors of psychological well-being.
3) Positive emotions.
B) Health Psychology. 4
1) Discuss on the social resources.
2) Discuss on the physical resources.
3) Explain the areas of positive psychology.
1) Discuss on the sources of resilience.
2) Explain the two tradition of happiness.
3) Discuss on the personal goals across the culture.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (Old CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018
geology (Paper – VI)
Sedimentary and Metamorphic Petrology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
1. Choose the correct alternative from the given option : 14

1) ________ is feldspar rich sandstone, consisting of course grained, angular
to sub angular grains.
a) Arkose b) Greywacke
c) Grit d) All of these
2) Grain size of sand grade is between
a) 2 mm to 10 mm b) 0.01 mm to 0.1 mm
c) less than 0.01 mm d) 0.1 mm to 2 mm
3) Conglomerate is a _________ sedimentary rock consisting of cobbles and
pebbles.
a) Rudaceous b) Arenaceous
c) Argillaceous d) None of these
4) The residual deposits are the _________ products of rock weathering.
a) Soluble b) Insoluble
c) Soluble and insoluble d) None of these
5) Transitional environmental of deposition of sedimentation are of
a) Delta b) Continental shelves
c) Beaches d) All of these
6) The rock consisting of _______ in limestone.
a) Ca Co3 b) Mg Co3 c) Ca mg Co3 d) None of these
7) Alluvial Fan is deposit of ___________ environment.
a) Terrestrial b) Marine c) Transitional d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 147 -2- *SLRSO147*
8) Slate, phyllite, serpentinite represent rocks of ________ facies.
a) Amphibolite b) Eclogite c) Granulite d) Greenschist
9) __________ is metamorphic fabric formed at high grade dynamothermal
metamorphism.
a) Strongly foliated fabric b) Weakly foliated fabric
c) Non foliated fabric d) None of these
10) ________ is a product of cataclastic metamorphism on argillaceous rock.
a) Marble b) Slate
c) Quartzite d) None of these
11) Alternate bands of light and dark colour showing in
a) Gneiss b) Schist c) Granulite d) Phylite
12) Very high temperature and pressure condition in ________ metamorphic
facies.
a) Zeolite b) Green schist
c) Granulite d) Ecologite
13) _________ fabric shows irregular crystal outline.
a) Xenoblastic b) Ideoblastic
c) None of these d) All of these
14) The process of partial melting of rock at very high grade metamorphism is
called
a) Anatexis b) Polymetamorpism

1) Grit.
2) Bauxite.
3) Minerals in amphibole facies.
4) Quartzite.
5) Roundness of sediments.
6) Migmatites.
7) Non-foliated fabrics.
8) Dolomites.
9) Sediments in desert environment.
Set P
*SLRSO147* -3- SLR-SO – 147

1) Describe formation of rudaceous sedimentary rock.
2) Formation of Oolitic limestone.
3) Greywake.
B) Granulite facies. 4

1) Describe calcareous and carbonate deposit and their important rocks.
2) Explain Terrestrial environment of deposition.
3) Classification sedimentary rock based on size and shape of sediments.

1) Polymetamorphism.
2) Metamorphism and pneumatolysis.
3) What is metamorphic facies ? Add note on Ecologite facies.
––––––––––––––––
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
microbiology (Paper – VI)
Applied Microbiology – II
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Choose the most correct alternative from the following and rewrite the sentences. 14
i) ________ is the capacity of laboratory scale fermentor.
a) 10 lit b) 100 lit c) 10,000 lit d) 1,00,000 lit
ii) ________ material is used for making of production scale fermentors.
a) Glass b) Copper c) Steel d) Aluminium
iii) ________ are used for surface culture method.
a) Flasks b) Trays
c) Tubular fermentor d) Deep tanks
iv) The crowded plate technique is used for screening of ______ producers.
a) vitamin b) antibiotic c) acid d) amylase
v) Lysine production is done by ________ fermentation.
a) Batch b) Dual
c) Multiple d) Continuous
vi) One time complete operation of fermentation is known as ________
fermentation.
a) dual b) batch
c) multiple d) continuous
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 148 -2- *SLRSO145*
vii) The production of inhibition zone is characteristic of _____ producers.

a) vitamin b) enzyme
c) acid d) antibiotic
viii) ________ radiations are most common for strain improvement.
a) Gamma b) X c) UV d) infrared
ix) ________ are preserved conveniently by soil culture method.
a) Fungi b) Bacteria
c) Yeast d) Protozoa
x) Diffusion assay is not suitable for _______ type of product.
a) soluble b) insoluble c) volatile d) colloidal
xi) SCP is ________ rich product.
a) Carbohydrate b) Vitamin c) Protein d) Fatty acid
xii) _________ is measured in terms of O.D. in turbidometric assays.
a) Colour b) Volatility c) Turbidity d) Solubility
xiii) _________ are used for control over vortex formation.
a) Baffles b) Spargers c) Impellers d) Cooling coils
xiv) ________ is the value that appears most frequently in the data.
a) Mean b) Median c) Variance d) Mode
2. Answer any seven. 14

i) What is fermentation ?
ii) What is the role of cooling coils ?
iii) Explain in brief surface culture.
iv) Define dual fermentation.
v) Define Median.
vi) Enlist methods of preservation.
vii) What is SCP ?
viii) Write the differences in batch and continuous fermentation.
ix) What is screening ?
Set P
*SLRSO148* -3- SLR-SO – 148
3. A) Attempt any two. 10

i) Give an account of primary screening.
ii) Describe concept of probiotics.
iii) Elaborate on measures of central tendency i.e. Mean, Mode, Median.
B) Write on Applications of Biostatistics. 4
4. Attempt any two. 14

i) Write on basic concepts of fermentation.
ii) Describe alcohol fermentation.
iii) Describe methods of preservation of industrially important organisms.
5. Attempt any two. 14

i) Write on production of Penicillin.
ii) Give an account of diffusion assay.
iii) Write on SCP by S cerevisiae.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (New CBCS) Examination, 2018
English (Compulsory)
Literary Quest
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) What is referred to as ‘mother of religions’ by Swami Vivekananda ?
a) Hinduism b) Christianity
c) Judaism d) None of the above
2) What has destroyed civilization and sent whole nations to despair, according
to Vivekananda ?
a) sectarianism b) bigotry c) fanaticism d) all the above
3) What did Mother Teresa want to be as a child ?
a) teacher b) nun c) missionary d) nurse
4) When did Mother Teresa receive Nobel Peace Prize award ?
a) 1979 b) 1980 c) 1981 d) 1978
5) When you are defrauded it is easy to be
a) angry b) jealous c) peaceful d) selfish
6) According to Lawrence, money is our vast ________ madness.
a) individual b) personal c) collective d) none of the above
7) Science is addressed as
a) daughter of Old Time b) enemy of Old Time
c) wife of Old Time d) herald of New Time
8) Father Gilligan was tired because
a) people were working hard b) people were tired
c) people were sick d) people were celebrating
9) The young children in this school _________ (have: Simple Present) yoga
classes twice a week.
a) has b) are c) have d) is
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 149 -2- *SLRSO149*
10) Karan _________ (work: past progressive) in Solapur.
a) is working b) was working
c) worked d) were working
11) Either Murali or Tara _________ (use: Present Perfect) these pens.
a) have used b) had used
c) has used d) has been used
12) What is the superlative form of ‘young’ ?
a) younger b) more young
c) most young d) youngest
13) What is the comparative form of ‘fine’ ?
a) more fine b) finer
c) most fine d) finest
14) What is the positive form of ‘further’ ?
a) furthest b) more further
c) far d) none of the above
2. Answer any four of the following questions. 16

1) What does one gain from being calm ?
2) What are the solutions offered by Lawrence to the problems caused by
money mindedness ?
3) What is the theme of the sonnet ‘To Science’ ?
4) What did God do when Father Gilligan fell asleep ?
5) What is the central idea of the poem ‘Money Madness’ ?
6) Why doesn’t Father Gilligan have rest, joy and peace ?
3. Answer any two of the following questions. 12

1) How has India displayed religious tolerance to the world ?
2) What Mother Teresa initially did after completing nursing course ?
3) Write the dialogues for the following situation :
Mahesh goes to his friend Sachin’s house. They talk about which book they
will gift to their friend Namdeo on his birthday.
4) Write the dialogues for the following situation :
You call a restaurant to ask how long it is open and to make a reservation.
Set P
*SLRSO149* -3- SLR-SO – 149
4. Answer any one of the following questions. 14
1) Write an argumentative speech on ‘Smoking at Public Places’.
OR
2) Write a script of a debate on the topic- ‘Should Plastic Bags be Banned ?’
Use following points below to develop a debate. You can work in a group
of four with two people choosing to argue for affirmative and two people
arguing for the negative.
Affirmative :
1) Environmental damage
2) The Great Waste
3) Non-biodegradable
4) They litter our streets
5) Plastic bags suffocate and kill
6) Wildlife concerns
7) Spread Awareness.
Negative :
1) No need to ban, add a tax
2) Freedom of choice
3) People forget their re-useable bags
4) Causes loss of jobs
5) The environmental war needs to be won elsewhere
6) Loss of Technology
7) So what do we carry our shopping in ?
8) No need to ban just reduce the use of plastic.
5. Write a detailed paragraph on the following tree diagram. 14

_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) Examination, 2018
Physics (Special Paper – IX) (New CBCS)
Mathematical Physics and Statistical Physics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

i) Integration of a vector along a curve is called
a) volume integral b) closed integral
c) line integral d) surface integral
ii) In orthogonal curvilinear coordinate system, the coordinate surfaces are
mutually _________ everywhere.
a) curved b) parallel
c) perpendicular d) none of these
iii) If W is the probability of state of system then which of the following is the
statistical definition of entropy.
a) S=kw b) S=W lnk c) S=lnk d) S=klnw
iv) What is the volume of cell in phase space is ?
a) h b) h2 c) h3 d) h4
v) In spherical polar coordinate system, h3 is
a) rsinθ b) sinθ c) r d) cosθ
vi) Which of the following have dimensions of length ?
a) (h1, h2, h3) b) (r, θ, φ) c) (u1, u2, u3) d) (h1, u1)
vii) The most probable speed for the molecules in assembly on Maxwell
Boltzmann distribution law is
a) v b) v c) vmp = KT d) vmp = 3KT
mp = 2KT mp = 3KT 2m m
m 2m
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 150 -2- *SLRSO150*
viii) Maxwell Boltzmann statistics applicable to
a) He atoms b) electrons c) bosons d) gas molecules
ix) The ratio of most probable speed and average speed of gas molecule is
a) π b) π c) 1 d) π
2 4
x) The Bose-Einstein distribution law is
gi gi
a) ni = α u / KT b) ni = α u / KT
e ei +1 e ei −1
g g
c) ni = α ui / KT d) ni = α i u
e ei e ei
xi) Which of the formula agrees well with the experimental results Lummer
and Pringsheim for all the frequencies ?
a) Wein’s formula b) Rayleigh’s Jean’s formula
c) Planck’s formula d) Wein’s displacement formula
xii) Fermi-Dirac distribution law is widely applied in the
a) band theory of solids b) free electrons theory of metals
c) Debye theory of specific heat d) classical theory
xiii) Fermi-Dirac statistics is based on
a) Equipartition of energy b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
c) Classical theory d) Planck’s theory
xiv) According to Fermi-Dirac statistics the resulting electronic specific heat is
approximately given by
3  kT  3  kT  2  UF 
a) 2 =  U  R b) =   UF c) 3 =  UF  R d) = R
 F 2 R  2  kT  3  kT 

i) State Gauss divergence theorem with mathematical relation.
ii) Define :
i) Macrostate
ii) Microstate of a system.
iii) What do you mean by an ensemble ?
iv) For given volume V find ∫∫ r.ds where r is position vector.
v) What is phase space ?
Set P
*SLRSO150* -3- SLR-SO – 150
i) Laplacian operator ∇2 in orthogonal curvilinear co-ordinates.
ii) Wein’s displacement law from Planck’s radiation formula.
iii) Concept of orthogonal curvilinear coordinates.

i) Describe microcanonical and canonical ensemble.
ii) Obtain the relation for average speed of gas molecules.
iii) Define thermodynamic probability. Obtain an expression for
thermodynamic probability.

i) Compare M.B., B.E. and F.D. statistics.
ii) Deduce the functional relation between entropy and probability.

i) Derive Plank’s radiation formula in terms of frequency and wavelength.
ii) What are the thermodynamic functions ? Express them in terms of
Boltzmann partition function.
iii) Derive an expression for Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution law.

i) If a black body at a temperature 6174°K emits 4700Å with maximum
energy, calculate the temperature at which it will emit a wavelength of
1.4×10–5m with maximum energy.
ii) Deduce Green’s theorem from Gauss Divergence theorem.

i) Obtain the expression for curl of vector field in orthogonal curvilinear
co-ordinates.
ii) State and prove Stoke’s theorem in vector field.
iii) Derive an expression for Fermi-Dirac distribution law.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

Chemistry
Special Paper – IX : Physical Chemistry (CBCS) (New)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

necessary.

1) The electrolyte which is used in the preparation of salt bridge is
___________
a) KCl b) NaCl c) K2SO4 d) Na2SO4
2) In Nernst equation for the calculation of emf of cell Qa represents
__________
a) Einstein b) Reaction quotient
c) Quantum d) Equilibrium constant
3) Al+++ (aAl+++)/Al(s) is an example of ___________ electrode.
a) gas b) amalgam
c) metal-metal ion d) oxidation-reduction
4) The equation, G = –n ECF, represents ___________
a) maximum work b) free energy
c) both a) and b) d) electrical work
5) Which electrodes are used to construct chemical cell without transference ?
a) metal-metal ion electrode
b) gas electrode
c) metal-insoluble salt electrode
d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 151 -2- *SLRSO151*
6) The electrode at which __________ reaction occurs is called cathode or

reduction electrode.
c) hydrolysis d) neutralization
7) What is the emf of a cell A/A+//B+/B ?
Given : E0A+/A = 0.30 V, E0B+/B = –0.45 V ?
a) –0.75 V b) 0.75 V
c) 0.075 V d) –0.075 V
8) The wavelength 10000 A0 represent ___________ region.
a) far infra-red b) infra-red
c) visible d) ultraviolet
9) The quantity (2S + 1) is known as ___________
a) spin pairing b) spin multiplicity
c) excited state d) ground state
10) In photosynthesis, ___________ acts as a sensitizer.
a) heat b) H2O
c) CO2 d) chlorophyll
11) Fluorescein and CaF2 are the example of ___________
a) Fluorescence b) Phosphorescence
c) Chemiluminescence d) Both a) and b)
12) The number of components for the system
CaCO3 = CaO(s) + CO2 will be __________
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
13) At the congruent melting point of the compound, system is ___________
a) invariant b) univariant
c) bivariant d) trivariant
14) In the study of solid – liquid equilibrium, generally __________ phase is
neglected.
a) liquid b) solid
c) vapour d) ice
Set P
*SLRSO151* -3- SLR-SO – 151

1) Give two reasons for high quantum yield.
2) State Gibb’s phase rule and give its mathematical equation.
3) Define :
a) Electrochemical cell
b) Electrolytic cell
4) Maintain any two factors affecting single electrode potential.
5) Write electrode reaction and expression for potential of the electrode,
Fe++(aq), Fe+++(aq) /Pt.
1) Amalgam electrode
2) Luminescence
3) Degree of freedom.

1) Explain in detail “Reversible cells”.
2) Draw neat and labeled phase diagram for sulphur system.
3) What are photosensitized reaction ? Explain with the suitable example.
1) What is the chemiluminescence ? Explain the phenomenon with suitable
examples.
2) Explain how emf measurements may be employed to determine
thermodynamic parameter ∆G, ∆H and ∆S.

1) Derive an expression for emf of electrode concentrated cell without
transference reversible to cation.
2) Discuss the application of phase rule to water system.
3) State and explain Einstein law of photochemical equivalence.
Set P
SLR-SO – 151 -4- *SLRSO151*

1) Define pH of solution. The cell Pt H2 (g, 1 atm)/HCl (a)(g)// Normal calomel
electrode has the emf 0.67 volt at 298 K. The potential of normal calomel
electrode is 0.28 volt. Calculate the pH of solution.
2) What is meant by quantum yield ? A substance absorbs 2 × 1016 quanta
of radiation per sec and 0.002 mole of it reacts in 20 minutes. Calculate
the quantum efficiency of the reaction. Given : N = 6.023 × 1023.

1) Discuss the application of phase rule to Pb-Ag system.
2) Calculate the emf of the cell
Cd(s)/Cd++(a=0.001)//Fe++(a=0.6)/Fe(s) at 20°C
Given : E°Cd = –0.403, E°Fe = –0.441
2.303 RT/F = 0.0581.
3) Standard potentials of fluorine half cell and silver half cell are 2.87 and
0.80 V respectively. If F2 is added to Ag
a) What would be the reaction ?
b) Represents the cell.
c) What will be the standard emf of the cell ? and
d) Will the reaction be spontaneous ?
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (CBCS) (New) Examination, 2018
Botany
Reproductive Biology of Angiosperms
(Special Paper – IX)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. 2.00 .m. to .00 p.m.
1. Rewrite the following sentences, choosing the correct alternative : 14
1) The primordial cell of flower is __________ type of cell.

a) Meristematic b) Permanent c) Dead d) None of these
2) __________ and ___________ are essential whorls of flower.

a) Calyx, corolla b) Corolla, Androecium
c) Androecium, Gynaecium d) Corolla, Gynaecium
3) In a typical anther there are __________ microsporangia.

4) Study of pollen grains and spores is called as

a) Cytology b) Chemotaxonomy
c) Ecology d) Palynology
5) The pollen grains in which apertures are absent are called as

a) Atreme b) Inaperturate
6) The protective coat of ovule is called as

a) Epidermis b) Endodermis c) Integument d) Endothecium
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 152 -2- *SLRSO152*
7) In __________ type of ovule the micropyle, chalaza and funicle lies in

straight line.
a) Othotropous b) Anatropous
c) Campylotropous d) Circinotropous
8) In tetrasporic embryo sac the antipodals cells are _________ in number.
a) Three b) Six c) Eight d) Sixteen
9) The flowers pollinated by wind are called as
a) Malcophelous b) Ornithophelous
c) Entemophelous d) Anemophelous
10) The development of endosperm in which free nuclear divisions are occurring
in __________ endosperm.
a) Helobial b) Cellular c) Nuclear d) None of these
11) The entry of pollen tube in ovule through micropyle, is known as
a) Chalazogamy b) Mesogamy c) Progamy d) None of these
12) Free nuclear divisions occur in __________ type of endosperm.
a) Helobial b) Cellular c) Nuclear d) None of these
13) __________ is the endospermic seed.
a) Groundnut b) Castor c) Jowar d) None of these
14) In orchids the seeds are dispersed by __________
a) Water b) Wind c) Animal d) None of these

1) Sketch and label primordium of flower.
2) Define archesporium.
3) Sketch and label anatropous type of ovule.
4) What do you mean by Hydrophily ?
5) What do you mean by endospermic seeds ?
1) Describe classification of aperture based on number(s).
2) Describe the structure of typical ovule.
3) Describe cleistogamy.
Set P
*SLRSO152* -3- SLR-SO – 152
3. A) Attempt the following (any two) : 8

1) Describe cellular endosperm.
2) Describe development of carpel.
3) Give the functions of tapatum.
1) Describe the monosporic embryo sac with suitable example.
2) Describe mechanism of double fertilization in angiosperms.

1) Describe the development of male gametophyte with diagrams.
2) Describe the tetrasporic embryo sac with suitable example.
3) Describe types of style and stigma.
1) Describe elf seed dispersal mechanism in plants.
2) Give a significance of pollination.
1) Give a detail account on development of anther lobe and formation of

microspore with diagrams.
2) What is meant by megasporogenesis ? Describe development of typical

female gametophyte.
3) Give a detail account of pollination, its type and agencies.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) Examination, 2018
zoology (Special Paper – IX) (New) (CBCS)
Non-Chordates
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Multiple choice questions : (1�1=14)

1) In Sycon, the canal system found is ___________ type.
a) Ascon b) syconoid
c) Leuconoid d) Rhagon
2) Nauplius is the larva of___________
a) Mollusca b) Crustacea
c) Insecta d) Echinodermata
3) Hirudin, Anticoagulant is present in ___________ animal
a) Earthworm b) Neries
c) Leech d) Sea-Star
4) Polymorphism is mostly seen in Phylum ___________
a) Coelenterata b) Porifera
c) Annelida d) Mollusca
5) The function of gastrozoid is ___________ in a complete colony.
a) Respiration b) Reproduction
c) Digestion d) Excretion
6) ___________ is the earliest and basic larval stage in crustaceans.
a) Naupleus b) Matanaupleus
c) Zoea d) Mysis
7) Locomotor organs of sea-Star are ___________
a) Pseudopodia b) Tube feet
c) Setae d) Parapodia
8) ___________ pairs of testicular nephridia are present in leech.
a) 10 b) 11
c) 17 d) 6
9) The Larva of butterfly moth is commonly called ___________
a) Polypod b) Oligopod
c) Apodus d) Trophosphere
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 153 -2- *SLRSO153*
10) Auto tropic type of nutrition is found in___________
a) Amoeba b) Trypansoma
c) Paramocium d) Euglena
11) In a sponge which of the followings are responsible for maintaining the
current of water ?
a) Pinocytes b) Porocytes
c) Choanocytes d) Pinacocytes
12) Dactylozooids are concerned with ___________
a) Nutrition b) Reproduction
c) Respiration d) Protection
13) ___________ type of feeding habit is found in Leech.
a) Herbivorous b) Frugivorous
c) Sanguivorous d) Omnivorous
14) Bipinnaria is the larva of ___________
a) Pila b) Ctenophora
c) Sea-Star d) Nereis
2. A) Answer the following questions (any four) : (2�4=8)
i) General characters of Annelida.
ii) Systematic position of sea-star.
iii) Structure of tube foot.
iv) Brachilolaria
v) Jaws of Leech.
B) Write notes on (any two) : (2�3=6)
i) Economic importance of Leech.
ii) Mixotrophic nutrition.
iii) Systematic position of Leech.
3. A) Answer the following questions (any two) : (2�4=8)
i) Describe salient features and Affinities of Lingula.
ii) Describe parasitic adaptation in Leech.
iii) Explain locomotion in sea-star.
B) Answer the following questions (any one) : (1�6=6)
i) Explain with neat labeled diagram excretory system of leech.
ii) Describe Nutrition of protozoa.
Set P
*SLRSO153* -3- SLR-SO – 153
4. A) Answer the following questions (any two) : (2�5=10)
i) Describe Male reproductive system in leech.
ii) Digestive system of sea-star. Explain.
iii) Describe the types of crustacean larvae.
B) Answer the following questions (any one) : (1�4=4)

i) Describe the types of canal systems (any two)
ii) Write notes on torsion and detorsion.
5. Answer the following questions (any two) : (2�7=14)
i) With neat labelled diagram, explain the digestive system of leech.
ii) Food feeding and digestive system of sea-star.
iii) Polymorphism in Coelenterats.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

MATHEMATICS (special Paper – IX)
Algebra – II
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) A Commutative ring in which the set of non zero elements forms a group
with respect to multiplication is called
a) division ring b) field c) vector space d) ideal
2) Let V be a vector space over F. Then V is isomorphic to Fn iff
a) dim (V) = n b) dim(V) = n2
c) dim (V) = n – 1 d) dim (V) = n(n – 1)
3) An isomorphism from a ring on to itself is called
a) endomorphism b) monomorphism
c) epimorphism d) automorphism
4) Let F be a field then the no. of nonzero ideals of F is equal to
a) 2 b) 1 c) infinite d) 0
5) Let θ : z → z5 be the ring homomorphism then ker θ is the ideal
a) z b) nz c) 5z d) z5
6) Let θ : R → Z4 be an isomorphism then characteristic of R is
a) 0 b) infinite c) 4 d) 2
7) If the set of nonzero elements is closed with respect to multiplication
then
a) There are no zero divisors
b) There are infinitely many zero divisors
c) There is only one zero divisor
d) There are finitely many zero divisors
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 154 -2- *SLRSO154*
8) Consider the following two statements
i) In any vector space ax = bx implies that a = b
ii) In any vector space ax = ay implies that x = y then
a) only (i) is true
b) only (ii) is true
c) both (i) and (ii) are true
d) both (i) and (ii) are false
9) Let A ∈ M(F) then A* = AT iff
mxn

a) A has real entries
b) A has complex entries
c) A has both real and complex entries
d) None of these
γ
10) Let β and γ be the standard ordered bases of P1(R) and R2 then [T ] β
=
where T (a + bx) = (a, a + b)

1 0   1 0  1 1
a)   b) 1 1 c)   d)  
1 0  0 1 0 1
1 1  

11) L e t T : R 2 → R 2 b e t h e l i n e a r t r a n s f o r m a t i o n d e f i n e d b y
T(a1, a2) = (a1 + a2, a1) and N(T) = {0} then
a) only T is one one
b) only T is onto
c) T is both one-one and onto
d) T is neither one-one nor on to
12) Let V be an inner product space. For x∈V we define length of x as
a) < x, x > b) < x, x >
d) (< x, x > )
1
c) < x, x > = 1
3
13) Over the field of complex numbers the vector space of complex no. has
dimension
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) infinite
14) The no. of zero divisors of z10 are
a) 4 b) 5 c) 2 d) 9
Set P
*SLRSO154* -3- SLR-SO – 154
2. A) Attempt any four of the following : 8
1) Show that T : R2 → R2 defined by T (a1, a2) = (2a1 + a2, a1) is linear.
1
2) In c([0, 1]) let f(t) = t, g(t) = et and < f, g > = ∫ f(t)g(t)dt compute < f, g >.
0
3) Define basis and dimension in a vector space.

4) If R and S are two rings and θ : R → S is a ring isomorphism, prove that if
e is unity of R then θ(e) is unity of S.
5) Define prime and maximal ideal with suitable examples.
B) Attempt any two of the following : 6

1) If D is an integral domain then show that cancellation laws holds in D.
2) Let V, W, Z are vector spaces over the same field F and let T : V → W and
U : W → Z are linear, show that UT is linear.
3) Show that the span of any subset S of a vector space V is a subspace of V.

1) Let W be a subspace of a finite dimensional vector space V then prove
that W is finite dimensional and dim (W) ≤ dim (V).
2) Let V and W are vector spaces and T : V → W is linear then prove that
N(T) and R(T) are subspaces of V and W respectively.
3) If D is an integral domain then prove that characteristic of D is either
zero or prime number.
B) Attempt any one of the following : 6

1) Let R is a ring and I is an ideal of R, define R/I and show that R/I is
ring.
2) State and prove cauchy-schwarz inequality for an inner product space V.

1) State and prove replacement theorem for the vector space.
2) Prove that every finite integral domain is field.
3) Let V and W are vector spaces of equal (finite) dimension and let T : V → W
is linear then prove that the following statements are equivalent
a) T is one-one
b) T is onto
c) rank (T) = dim (V)
Set P
SLR-SO – 154 -4- *SLRSO154*
1) Let V be a vector space having finite basis then prove that every basis
for V contains the same number of vectors.
2) Let θ : R → S is a ring homomorphism then prove that θ is one-one iff
ker θ = {OR}.

1) State and prove the dimension theorem (rank nullity theorem).
2) Prove that if R is commutative ring with unity and I is an ideal of R then
I is maximal ideal iff R/I is a field.
3) Let V be a vector space and β = {u1, u2, u3, ......un} be a subset of V. Then
prove that β is basis for V iff each v∈ V can be uniquely expressed as a
linear combination of vectors of β.
_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (CBCS) (New) Examination, 2018
statistics
Statistical Inference – I (Special Paper – IX)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Each question carries equal marks.

i) An estimator is a
a) Sample characteristic
b) Population characteristic
c) Part of a population
d) Part of a sample
ii) Sample variance is ___________ estimator of population variance.
a) Unbiased b) Consistent
iii) Which of the following is always true ?
a) An unbiased estimator is unique
b) MLE is a function of sufficient statistics
c) Unbiased estimator is a consistent statistic
d) MLE always exists
iv) If x is a single observation from L(0, λ) then the sufficient statistic for λ is
a) |x| b) x
c) x2 d) None of these
v) If T be an consistent estimator of θ then g(T) is consistent for g(θ) =
a) 2θ + 3 b) eθ
c) θ d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 155 -2- *SLRSO155*
vi) Likelihood function is a function of
a) Sample only b) Parameter only
c) Either sample or parameter d) Sample and parameter
vii) Let x1, x2,...xn be i.i.d. from uniform distribution over (0, θ). Then
a) Sample mean is MLE of θ
b) Sample median is MLE of θ
c) Max order statistic is MLE of θ
d) None of these
viii) Factorization theorem for sufficiency is known as
a) Rao-Blackwell theorem
b) Cramer-Rao theorem
c) Chapman - Kolmogorov theorem
d) Fisher-Neyman theorem
ix) Let 5, 8, 3, 6, 8 are observations from Poisson (λ) then unbiased estimate
of λ is
a) 3 b) 6
c) 5 d) 8
x) Moment estimators cannot be obtained for
a) Laplace distribution
b) Lognormal distribution
c) Cauchy distribution
d) Exponential distribution
xi) Mean square error of an estimator Tn of θ is
a) bias + varθ (Tn) b) (bias + varθ (Tn))2
c) bias2 + varθ (Tn)2 d) bias2 + varθ (Tn)
xii) A statistic T = t(X1, x2,...Xn) is said to be sufficient for a parameter θ, if the
conditional distribution of X1, X2,...Xn given T = t is
a) independent of t
b) dependent of θ
c) independent of θ
d) all the above
Set P
*SLRSO155* -3- SLR-SO – 155
xiii) Let X1, X2,...Xn be a sample from a Poisson distribution P(θ). Consider three
statistics as estimator of θ.
i) x
(x − x)
2
i
ii) ∑ (n − 1)

iii) 2X1 – X2
Which of these are unbiased for θ ?
a) Only I b) Only II and III
c) All three d) Only I and II
xiv) Which one of the following is unique estimator ?
a) Unbiased b) Biased c) U.M.V.U.E. d) Sufficient

i) Define a Parameter and give one example.
ii) Define sufficient estimator.
iii) Give one example of biased but consistent estimator.
iv) State Neyman-factorization theorem.
v) Define Minimum Variance Unbiased Estimator (MVUE).

i) Show that sample mean square is unbiased estimator of Population
Variance.
x + x2 2x + 4x 2
ii) Let T1 = 1 , T2 = 1 are two unbiased estimators of population
2 6
mean. Then find the efficiency of T2 with respect to T1.
iii) Obtain likelihood function of a random sample x1, x2,...xn from Bernoulli
distribution with parameter p.

i) Find moment estimator of θ if f ( x ) = θx (1 − θ ) x = 0, 1, 2,...
.
0 otherwise
ii) Show that sample mean is sufficient statistic for parameter λ of Poisson
distribution.
iii) Show that there exists infinite number of unbiased estimators of
parameter θ.
Set P
SLR-SO – 155 -4- *SLRSO155*
i) Find information function for the parameter θ of exponential
distribution.
ii) Prove that biased estimator is consistent if it’s bias and variance both
tends to zero as sample size tends to infinity.

i) Describe the method of minimum chi-square for the estimation of
parameters.
ii) If x1, x2,...xn be a random sample of size n from a distribution with pdf
f(x, θ) = θxθ 0 < x < 1, θ > 0. Find the M.L.E. of θ.
iii) Prove that if T is sufficient statistic for θ then φ(T)is sufficient statistic for
θ when φ is one-to-one onto function.

i) Prove that if T is unbiased estimator of θ, then φ(T) is an unbiased
estimator of φ(θ) provided φ(.) is a linear function.
ii) State properties of Maximum likelihood estimator.

i) State and prove Cramer-Rao inequality.
ii) If X has N(µ, σ2) find the Fisher information function
i) I(µ) when σ2 is known
ii) I(σ2) when µ is known
iii) Obtain estimator of θ by the method of i) moments and ii) likelihood for the
1 x −θ
following pdf f ( x, θ ) = e −∞ < x < ∞ .
2
___________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
Geology (Special Paper – IX)
Earth’s Physics and Dynamics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) Mid-Atlantic oceanic ridge is an example of ________ plate boundary.
a) transform fault b) convergent
c) divergent d) passive
2) _________ refers to the origin of the continents.
a) Isostasy b) Orogenesis
c) Epeirogenesis d) Erosiogenesis
3) Which one of the following plates is larger plate ?
a) China plate b) Arabian plate
c) Cocoas plate d) Indian plate
4) The movement along transform fault is _________ slip.
a) dip b) strike c) oblique d) rotational
5) _________ theory provides global distribution of mountains, seismicity,
volcanism etc.
a) Plate tectonics b) Continental drift
c) Isostasy d) Sea floor spreading
6) Oceanic trenches are the examples of _________ plate boundary.
a) convergent b) divergent
c) transform fault d) reagent
7) Airy postulated the hypothesis of isostasy considering the _________
density of the outer crust.
a) varying b) uniform c) very high d) very low
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 156 -2- *SLRSO156*
8) Coal is a climatic indicator of _______ climate.
a) humid b) cold c) arid d) dry
9) In ________ zone all kinds of earthquakes are originated.
a) rift b) shear c) shatter d) benioff
10) According to _________, the hypothesis of isostasy can be explained by
considering that the earth’s outer layer is composed of materials of varying
density.
a) Shreve b) Airy c) Strahler d) Pratt
11) _________ fossils have been discovered in the lands of Gondwana.
a) Glossopteris b) Productus c) Pectene d) Physa
12) Continental Plates are
a) thinner than Oceanic Plates
b) thicker than Oceanic Plates
c) equal in thickness to Oceanic Plates
d) none of these
13) Plates and upper part of mantle combine to form a layer known as
a) Atmosphere b) Troposphere
c) Exosphere d) Lithosphere
14) Movement of Magma due to convection current move the
a) Plates b) Crust c) Mantle d) Core

1) State Heiskanen’s hypothesis.
2) Where convection current exists ?
3) State Airy’s hypothesis.
4) What are types of Epeirogenic forces ?
5) What is average thickness of asthenosphere ?

1) What is level of compensation ?
2) What are orogenic movements ?
3) What are characteristics of Fold Mountains ?
Set P
*SLRSO156* -3- SLR-SO – 156
1) Describe supporting evidences for continental drift.
2) Explain subduction zone.
3) Explain mechanism of plate motion.

1) Explain causes of sea floor spreading.
2) Describe convection current hypothesis.

1) Describe palaeo-climatic evidences of continental drift.
2) Explain residual mountains.
3) Distinguish between plate margin and plate boundary.

1) Describe hot plumes.
2) Explain crustal movements.

1) Explain concept of plate tectonics.
2) Write short note on tectonic mountains.
3) Explain in detail Pratt’s hypothesis for isostasy.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
microbiology (Special Paper – IX)
Virology (CBCS New)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentences again. 14

1) LHT system of viral classification grouped DNA viruses into __________
class.
a) Ribovira b) Retroviridae
c) Retroviruses d) Deoxyvira
2) In case of ___________, tissue cells do not invade surrounding tissues only
remain localised as a compact mass.
a) Malignant tumors b) Non-malignant tumors
c) Cancer d) Malignant wart
3) Rabies virus is ________________ shaped.
a) Icosahedral b) Bullet
c) Spherical d) None of these
4) Multiplication of influenza virus occurs in
a) Cytoplasm b) Ribosome
c) Mitochondria d) Nucleus
5) _______________ virus contain double stranded RNA.
a) Reovirus b) Bunyavirus
c) Calcivirus d) Rhabidovirus
6) One step Growth Experiment was deviced by
a) Crick b) Lederberg c) Delbruk d) Watson
7) Viruses release their nucleic acid into host cell cytoplasm is known as
a) Penetration b) Adsorption
c) Assembly d) Transcription
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 157 -2- *SLRSO157*
8) Polystyrene latex is used for enumeration of viruses in sample by
a) Hemagglutation assay b) Pock method
c) Direct microscopic count d) Acid end point method
9) Bacteriophage are readily counted by the process of
a) Plaque assays b) Tissue cell culture
c) ELISA d) Immunoassays
10) A common polyhedral capsid shape of viruses is a
a) Cube b) Pyramid
c) Icosahedron d) Pentagon
11) A structural component that is found in all viruses is
a) The envelope b) Tail fibers
c) Capsid d) DNA
12) A type of cell culture that can reproduce for an extended number of
generations and is used to support viral replication is a
a) Continuous cell line b) Cell strain
c) Diploid fibroblast cell d) Primary cell culture
13) Viruses range in size from
a) 25 – 300 mm b) 1 nm – 100 nm
c) 10 – 400 nm d) 400 – 1000 nm
14) In lambda phage ____________ gene is responsible for the lysogenic
state.
a) Q b) R c) A d) C1
2. A) Define and explain any four of the following : 8

1) Malignant Warts.
2) Eclipse period.
3) Antigenic shift and drift.
4) Oncogenesis.
5) Vertical Transmission.
B) Write short note on any two of the following : 6
1) Enumeration of viruses.
2) Capsid.
3) Temperate phage.
Set P
*SLRSO157* -3- SLR-SO – 157

1) Explain RNA bacteriophages.
2) What is taxonomy ? Explain LHT system of viral classification.
3) Explain the genetic material of influenza virus.
1) Discuss in detail the viral morphological characteristics with examples.
2) Explain the role of methods used for enumeration of viruses.

1) Briefly explain virogene and defective immunity hypotheses.
2) Describe briefly the role of embryoted eggs in cultivation of viruses.
3) Explain one step growth experiment.
1) Give the detailed account of lysogeny of l (lambda) phage.
2) Briefly explain TMV structure.

1) Discuss in detail the reproduction in T4 Bacteriophages.
2) Give the detailed account of characteristics of cancerous cells.
3) Give the detailed account of reproduction in Adenovirus.
______________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (CBCS Pattern) (New) Examination, 2018

electronics (special Paper – IX)
Linear Integrated Circuits and Applications

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


i) In epitaxial process _____________ is used as silicon source.
a) SiCl4 b) SiO2
c) Elemental Si d) None
ii) The foundation on which an IC is built is called as
a) Insulator b) Base
c) Plate d) Wafer
iii) A log amplifier has _____________ in the feedback loop.
a) BJT b) Resistor
c) Capacitor d) Inductor
iv) _____________ filter is also known as notch filter.
a) Low pass b) High pass
c) Narrow band pass d) Narrow band reject
v) In second order low pass butter worth filter gain decreases at the rate of
a) 10dB/decade b) 20dB/decade
c) 40dB/decade d) 80dB/decade
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 158 -2- *SLRSO158*
vi) IC79xx is ______________ voltage regulator series.

a) Positive b) Negative
c) Adjustable d) None
vii) For proper operation of voltage regulator, input voltage must be
______________ output voltage.
a) Less than b) Greater than
c) Same as d) None
viii) PLL in normal condition is ______________
a) In capacitive mode b) In lock range mode
c) In free running mode d) None of these
ix) When PLL is locked the VCO frequency is ___________ input frequency.
a) Less than b) Greater than
c) Equal to d) Greater than or equal to
x) In IC regulator ______________ is used to increase the current capacity
of the regulator.
a) Reference voltage source b) Pass transistor
c) Error amplifier d) None
xi) In integrated circuits ______________ are not fabricated.
a) Resistors b) Capacitors
c) Inductors d) Diodes
xii) In precision rectifier, op-amp is used to ______________
a) Reduce breakdown voltage b) Reduce cut-in voltage
c) Increase cut-in voltage d) None of these
xiii) The Q factor for a narrow band pass filter is ______________
a) Zero b) Less than one
c) Greater than one d) Its bandwidth
xiv) If the control voltage to a VCO increases, the output frequency
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Does not changes d) None of these
Set P
*SLRSO158* -3- SLR-SO – 158
2. A) Answer any four from the following : 8
i) Give the advantages of integrated circuits.
ii) Draw the circuit diagram of antilog filter.
iii) What is difference between active filters and passive filters ?
iv) Draw the circuit diagram of voltage regulator using IC 7812.
v) Define VCO.
B) Write note on any two from the following : 6
i) Metallization in IC technology.
ii) Advantages of IC regulator.
iii) Lock range and capture range in PLL.
i) Draw the block diagram of PLL, what is the function of phase detector ?
ii) Explain clipper and clamper by using op-amp.
iii) Explain variable voltage regulator using IC LM 317.
B) Answer any one from the following : 6
i) Design second order low pass filter at a high cutoff frequency of 1Kz.
ii) Explain three stages through which PLL operates.
i) Give classification of filters. Explain second order Butterworth high pass

filter.
ii) Write a short note on V to F converter using IC LM 331.
iii) What is voltage regulator ? Draw the block diagram of IC regulator and
explain the function of each block.
Set P
SLR-SO – 158 -4- *SLRSO158*
B) Answer any one from the following : 4

i) Explain full wave precision rectifier.
ii) Explain active peak detector using Op-Amp.

i) Explain the operation of sample and hold circuit.
ii) Explain the steps involved in the fabrication of NPN and PNP transistor in IC.
iii) Explain application of PLL as frequency multiplier.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (New-CBCS) Examination, 2018

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Visual Programming Using C++ (Special Paper – IX)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternatives. 14

1) The non-generic collections are operates on data of type
a) object b) structure c) class d) none of these
2) Which of the following assemblies can be stored in Global Assembly Cache ?
a) Private Assemblies b) Friend Assemblies
c) Shared Assemblies d) None of these
3) __________ keyword used to define call by reference parameter in
C#.NET.
a) & b) out c) ref d) &&
4) Which of the given modifiers can be used to prevent method overriding ?
a) static b) virtual c) sealed d) final
5) The data members of a class by default is
a) protected, public b) private, public
c) private d) public
6) _________ is the exception class.
a) DivideByZeroException b) ArithmeticException
c) NullReferenceException d) All of the above
7) __________ members are implicitly public.
a) interface b) structure c) class d) properties
8) The Sleep() method of the thread class pauses a thread for a specified
amount of time.
a) True b) False
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 159 -2- *SLRSO159*
9) Stack class follows the First In First Out (FIFO) order.
a) True b) False
10) CLR is runtime environment in which program written in C# and other. Net
language are executed.
a) True b) False
11) The process of defining two or more methods within the same class that
have same name but different parameter list.
a) Method overloading b) Method overriding
c) Encapsulation d) None of the mentioned
12) A finally block can be used to handle any exception generated within try
block.
a) True b) False
13) _________ keyword which declares the indexer.
a) base b) this c) super d) extract
14) The .Net framework provides multiple language support because of
a) CTS b) CLS c) MSIL d) IL

1) What is thread ?
2) What is exception ?
3) What is unboxing ? How is it achieved ?
4) Give the need for operator overloading.
5) State difference between class and structure.
B) Write note on (any two) 6
1) Common Language Runtime
2) Constructor
3) Garbage collection.

1) What are the major difference between a class and interface ?
2) Explain catch block with example.
3) Explain foreach with example.
1) Explain how to implement interface with example.
2) Explain abstract method and its characteristics.
Set P
*SLRSO159* -3- SLR-SO – 159
1) Write a program to implement multilevel inheritance.
2) Explain array list collection class methods with example.
3) Write a program which can create file and write data into file.
1) Explain concept of thread synchronization.
2) Write note on property.

1) Explain following parameter passing technique in C# with example.
a) value parameter
b) reference parameter
c) out parameter.
2) Write a program for implementation of Hashtable.
3) Write a program for implement constructor overloading.

_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (CBCS Pattern) (New) Examination, 2018
Physics (Special Paper – X)
Solid State Physics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N. B. : i) All questions are compulsory.

iii) Use of log table or calculator is allowed.
iv) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
i) Bravais lattice in three dimensions is classified in ___________
a) Three groups b) Five groups
c) Seven groups d) two groups
ii) Magnitude of reciprocal lattice vector is equal to ___________
a) 1 b) dhkl c) 1/*dhkl d) 1/dhkl
iii) Density of energy level in a energy band of metal is ___________
a) constant b) increases
c) decreases d) increase and decrease
iv) In intrinsic semiconductor, the number of conduction electron in C. B. and
number of holes in V. B. is
a) unequal b) exactly equal
c) large d) zero
v) In a material, domain or dipole is ___________
a) a particle like electron
b) a particle photon
c) a small region having resultant magnetic moment
d) an empty space
vi) A temperature above which a ferromagnetic material behaves like a
paramagnetic material is called ___________
a) Curie point b) Neel point
c) transition point d) Turning point
vii) Superconductor is also called as a ___________
a) bad conductor b) hole conductor
c) perfect conductor d) semiconductor
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 160 -2- *SLRSO160*
viii) The normal conductor become superconductor when ___________
a) its resistance becomes zero
b) its conductivity becomes zero
c) it melts
d) its thermal conductivity becomes zero
ix) If a magnetic field is applied to the superconductor, then it becomes
___________
a) a ferromagnetic substance b) a diamagnetic substance
c) a capacitance d) an inductance
x) In intrinsic semiconductor, the position of fermi energy level is
___________
a) in the conduction band
b) in the valence band
c) exactly at centre of forbidden energy gap
d) at the top of forbidden energy gap
xi) The volume of the unit cell of the reciprocal lattice is ___________ to the
volume of unit cell of.
a) directly proportional to the volume of unit cell of direct lattice
b) inversely proportional to the volume of unit cell of direct lattice
c) equal to the volume of primitive cell
d) all a), b) and c)
xii) Packing fraction of hcp crystal structure is ___________
a) 0.34 b) 0.52 c) 0.72 d) 0.92
xiii) Diffraction of x-ray from crystal is the phenomenon of ___________
a) scattering b) interference
c) reflection d) polarization
xiv) If F(E) = 0 at T = 0, then the state above Fermi energy are __________
a) completely occupied b) 50% filled
c) 50% empty d) completely empty

1) Define co-ordination number.
2) What is Meissner effect in superconductors ?
3) Write the rules for finding reciprocal lattice points.
4) What is the condition that state should be 50% empty and 50% filled in
Fermi-Dirac distribution ?
5) Write the applications of ferromagnetic materials.
Set P
*SLRSO160* -3- SLR-SO – 160
1) Write the properties of metals.
2) Describe diamagnetic materials.
3) Explain Miller indices.
3. A) Write a notes on any two of the following : 8

1) Write a note on production of X-ray.
2) Write a note on anti-ferromagnetic material.
3) Write a note on Hall Effect.

1) Define space lattice and describe Bravais lattice of two dimensions.
2) Describe Drude’s free electron model.

1) Define packing fraction. Calculate the packing density of FCC crystal
structure using ‘r’ as the radius of atom.
2) Derive an expression for electrical conductivity by using free electron
theory of metal.
3) Discuss the type – I and type – II superconductors.

1) Explain the effect of magnetic field on superconductor.
2) What are the properties of paramagnetic material ?

1) Explain Bragg’s law in reciprocal lattice.
2) Explain the Fermi-Dirac distribution of electrons in the metal.
3) Derive an expression for effective mass of an electron.
_____________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

chemistry
Special Paper – X : Inorganic Chemistry

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat labeled diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.

1. Select the most correct alternative from the following and rewrite the
sentences. 14
1) The colour property of transition metal compounds best explained by

__________ theory on the basis of d-d transition.
a) CFT b) VBT
c) MOT d) All of above
2) The CFSE is maximum for __________ transition metal ion.
a) 5d b) 3d
c) 4d d) All of these
3) For age determination by tracer technique __________ isotope is used.
a) 17O b) 14C c) 12C d) 15N
4) Artificial radioactivity was first discovered by
a) Rutherford
b) G. T. Seborg
c) Irene Curie and Federic Joliot Curie
d) Chadwick
5) The nuclear reactors works on the principle of _________ reaction.
a) chemical b) chain
c) uncontrolled chain d) controlled chain
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 161 -2- *SLRSO161*
6) Myoglobin has molecular weight _________ amu.

a) 17000 b) 64000
c) 15000 d) 60000
7) The sixth co-ordination site in Hb and Mb can be occupied by
a) CO b) CO2 c) O2 d) O2 or CO2
8) The function of Myoglobin is to
a) transport oxygen b) store oxygen
c) transport CO2 d) all of these
9) The decomposition of chloroform is retarded by the addition of little
amount of
a) sulphuric acid b) NaOH
c) alcohol d) phenol
10) The efficiency of catalyst depends on it’s
a) particle size b) solubility
c) molecular weight d) liquid or solid nature
11) In the manufacture of ammonia ________ catalyst is used.
a) Pt b) Fe + Mo c) Al2O3 d) V2O5
12) The element __________ is important component of chlorophyll in plants
and helps in imparting dark green colour to leaves.
a) Magnesium b) Sulphur c) Boron d) Zinc
13) The NPK are called _________ and _______ fertilizers.
a) complete and mixed b) natural and synthetic
c) inorganic and organic d) direct and incomplete
14) The available amount of nitrogen from Urea is equal to ________ %
a) 46.6 b) 21 c) 100 d) 72

1) Among the complex ion [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6]3+ which is expected
to give greater splitting of d-orbital’s ? Explain.
2) Discuss in brief projectile capture particle emission reactions.
3) Give reason : Myoglobin does not show co-operative effect.
4) Write the characteristics of catalysis.
5) What are the qualities of ideal fertilizer ?
Set P
*SLRSO161* -3- SLR-SO – 161

1) Symmetric and non-symmetric metal and ligand orbitals.
2) Applications of catalysis.
3) Pollution caused by fertilizers.

1) Write note on crystal field stabilization energy.
2) Explain the importance of tracer technique ? How this technique is
important in analytical chemistry ?
3) Give the difference between Haemoglobin and Myoglobin.
1) On the basis of CFT explain the formation of [CoF6]–3 complex ion.
Comment on its spin and stability.
2) Explain in brief use of Uranium and Thorium for generation of
electricity.

1) Distinguish between chemical reaction and nuclear reactions.
2) What are the different types of catalysis ? Explain each type with suitable
examples by giving appropriate chemical reactions.
3) What are fertilizers ? Write detail note on types of feritilizers.
1) Which factors affect on the crystal field splitting of d orbitals ? Explain
in detail effect of ligands.
2) Give the structure and function of Haemoglobin.

1) On the basis of MOT, explain the complex [Co(NH3)6]+3 and comment
on its magnetic properties.
2) What is the chain reaction ? Explain in detail Uncontrolled chain reaction.
3) Describe in detail action of Sodium-Potassium pump.
_____________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
botany
Genetics (Special Paper – X)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 20-11-2018onday, 15-5-2017 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.10.3

1) Sex chromosome is also called in
a) Autosomes b) Allosome c) Both a and b d) None of these
2) The genes responsible for colour blindness are carried on the _______
chromosome.
a) X b) Y c) X and Y d) None of these
3) Men with red-green color blindness inherited the genes for it from
a) Their mothers b) Their fathers
c) Either their mothers or fathers d) None of these
4) __________ is a group of non-allelic genes that together influence a
phenotypic trait.
a) Mutation gene b) Sex-linked c) Polygene d) None of these
5) Quantitative gene is also called
a) Polygene b) Sex-linked c) Mutation gene d) None of these
6) In the cytoplasmically inherited characters show ________ inheritance.
a) Paternal b) Maternal c) Both a and b d) None of these
7) When characteristic is controlled by two or more genes is called
a) Polygenic inheritance b) Plastid inheritance
c) Mitochondrial inheritance d) None of these
8) In extra chromosomal inheritance most of the cytoplasm of zygote is
contributed by the
a) Sperm b) Egg c) Both a and b d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 162 -2- *SLRSO162*
9) Mitochondrial inheritance is the example of________.
a) Chromosomal b) Mutation
c) Extra chromosomal d) None of these
10) Changes within the individual chromosome are called
a) Aberration b) Ploidy c) Linkage d) None of these
11) The loss of one or more genes from chromosome is called
a) Deletion b) Duplication
c) Inversion d) Translocation
12) Unequal crossing over results into
a) Deletion b) Duplication
c) Inversion d) Translocation
13) Variations in entire sets of chromosomes is called _______.
a) Point mutation b) Aneuploidy
c) Aberration d) Euploidy
14) X rays causes mutation by _________.
a) Base substitution b) Transversion
c) Transition d) Deletion

1) What are holandric genes ?
2) What is meant by polygene inheritance ?
3) Describe Neutral Petites.
4) What is meant by tetrasomy ?
5) What is meant by mutation ?

1) Haemophilia.
2) Trisomy.
3) Gene pool.
Set P
*SLRSO162* -3- SLR-SO – 162
3. A) Answer the following (any two): 8

1) Give salient features of Hardy-Weinberg’s law.
2) Comment on sex-linked inheritance in man.
3) Describe the mitochondrial inheritance with suitable example.
1) Mention the differences between Mendelian inheritance and cytoplasmic
inheritance.
2) Mention the types of chemical mutagens.
4. A) Answer the following (any two): 10

1) Describe the law of genetic equilibrium in detail with suitable example.
2) Describe translocation with its types.
3) Write on physical mutagens.

1) Describe the plastid inheritance in 4 ‘O’ clock plant.
2) Describe the types of mutations on molecular basis.
5. Answer the following (any two): 14

1) Describe in detail with suitable examples the colour blindness phenomenon.
2) Describe the Autopolyploids and its types.
3) Describe duplication and its types with suitable example.
______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
zoology (cbcs) (New) (Special Paper – X)
Developmental Biology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) Ultrasound is a reflection of
a) soft tissues only b) hard tissues only
c) both soft and hard tissues d) hard muscles only
2) Which of these habits of the mother-to-be can be harmful to the fetus ?
a) Smoking b) Drinking alcohol
c) Taking illegal drugs d) All of the above
3) One of the following is not the primary egg membrane
a) Vitelline membrane b) Zona pellucida
c) Jelly envelope d) Chorion
4) Centrolecithal eggs are the characteristics of
a) Placental mammals b) Birds
c) Insects d) Reptiles
5) Amphibians are the examples for
a) Oligolecithal eggs b) Mesolecithal eggs
c) Isolecithal eggs d) Telolecithal eggs
6) When is an unborn baby most at risk of developing a birth defect
a) First trimester b) Second trimester
c) Last trimester d) All 9 months
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 163 -2- *SLRSO163*
7) Gut is derived from
a) Mesoderm b) Ectoderm c) Endoderm d) Germ cell
8) Number of pairs of somites present in 26 hrs chick embryo is
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 5
9) Blood islands present in ______ hrs of Chick embryo.
a) 18 b) 24 c) 33 d) 72
10) In human the placenta is
a) Haemochorial b) Endothelial
c) Epithiochorial d) Syndesmochorial
11) The morphogenic movement change the hollow spherical blastula into a
a) Embryonic disc b) Morula
c) Gastrula d) All the above
12) The developmental stage which immediately follows fertilization is
a) Gastrulation b) Cleavage
c) Neurulation d) Growth
13) A fertilized egg is called a
a) germ cell b) embryo c) zygote d) blastula
14) Anterior end of neural groove forms furture
a) Liver b) Spinal cord
c) Heart d) Brain

1) Draw a labeled diagram of microlecithal egg.
2) Irregulative type of egg.
3) Draw a figure of Discoidal placenta with example.
4) Gastrula of chick.
5) Chalaza.
1) Fate map of Amphioxus embryo.
2) Give an account on functions of placenta.
3) Write note on miscarriage.
Set P
*SLRSO163* -3- SLR-SO – 163
1) Write a note on spermatogenesis.
2) Note on three germ layer formation in Amphioxus.
3) Give an account on Notogenesis in Amphioxus.
1) Give an account on structure of 24 hrs of chick embryo.
2) Give an account on placenta in Mammals.

1) Give an account on structure of 72 hrs Chick embryo.
2) Give an account on applications of ultra sound for foetus study.
3) Give an account on fertilization in Chick.
1) Give an account on different types of eggs on the basis of amount of Yolk
with example.
2) Note on Meroblastic cleavage.

1) Describe in detail Foetal membranes in chick. Add a note on their
functions.
2) What is ultrasound ? Add a note on uses of ultrasound.
3) Give an account on causes of miscarriage.
___________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (CBCS) (New) Examination, 2018
Mathematics
Complex Analysis (Special Paper No. – X)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) A conjugate harmonic of u(x, y) = ex sin y is
a) excos y b) eycosx c) – excosy d) eysinx
d
2) If f(z) = F(g(z)) then f (z ) =
dz
a) F′(g(z)) b) F′(g′(z)) c) F(g′(z)) d) F′(g(z))g′(z)
3) The equation |z – 1| = |z + i| represents
a) Line through origin whose slope is 1
b) Line through origin whose slope is – 1
c) A circle through origin
d) None of these
4) If u = sinx.coshy then construct analytic function F(z) = u + iv is
a) sinz + ci b) cosz + ci c) – sinz + ci d) – cosz + ci
5) ________ parts of an analytic function satisfy the Laplaces equation.
a) Only real b) Only imaginary
c) Both real and imaginary d) None of these
6) A continuous function f(z) over a continuous rectifiable arc c is
a) Differentiable b) Integrable
c) Mesomorphic d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 164 -2- *SLRSO164*
1 π
7) The function f(z) = at z = has a
sin z − cos z 4
a) Simple pole corresponding to n = 0
b) Isolated singularity
c) Essential singularity
d) No singularity
dz
8) If ∫z
C
2
around the circle |z| = 1 is
a) Zero b) πi c) 2πi d) 4πi

9) The curve L is regular if
a) z′(t) = 0 b) z′(t) ≠ 0 c) z(t) = 0 d) z(t) ≠ 0
sin z
10) Consider the function f(z) = , z ∈ c then
z
a) f has a removable singularity at z = a
b) f has a pole at z = 0
c) f has a essential singularity at z = 0
d) f has non-removable singularity at z = 0
11) Which of the following is not the residue of f(z) at z = ∞ ?
1 1
2πi ∫C
− z f (z ) f(z)dz
2πi ∫
a) zlim
→∞
b) − f ( z )dz c) d) None of the above
C
ψ (z )
12) If f(z) = where φ (a) = 0 and ψ(a) ≠ 0 then the Residue at z = a is f(z) =
φ(z)
ψ (a ) ψ ′( a ) ψ (a ) ψ ′( a )
a) b) c) d)
φ(a) φ(a) φ ′( a ) φ ′( a )
1
13) Residue of at z = 1 is
z(1 − z 2 )
1 1
a) 1 b) – 1 c) − d)
2 2
sin πz 2 + cos πz 2
14) The residue of f(z) = at z = 2 is
(z + 1)2 (z − 2)
1 2 1
a) b) c) 1 d) −
9 9 9
Set P
*SLRSO164* -3- SLR-SO – 164
1) If f(z) and g(z) are analytic function in a domain D then
d d
g(z) f(z) − f(z) g(z) .
d  f (z )  dz dz
  =
dz  g(z)  [g(z)]2
1
2) If u = log(x 2 + y 2 ) . Find its harmonic conjugate.
2
3) Define partition and norm of interval [a, b].
cot πz
4) Find the kind of singularity of the function 2 at z = 0 and z = ∞ .
( z − a )
z3
5) Evaluate the residue of at z = ∞ .
(z − 1)(z − 2)(z − 3)

1) If f(z) = u + iv is an analytic function of z = x + iy and ψ is any
function of x and y with differential coefficient then prove that
2
 ∂ψ   ∂ψ 
2
  ∂ψ  2  ∂ψ  2  2
  +   =   +    f ′(zz) .
∂x ∂y  ∂u ∂v 
2) If f(z) is continuous on a contour L of length l and let |f(z) | ≤ M on l then
prove that ∫ f(z)dz ≤ Ml .

L
ez dz
3) Using residue theorem, evaluate ∫ where C is circle |z| = 2.
C
z(z − 1)2

2 sin 2x
1) If u + v = 2 y , find the analytic function f(z) = u + iv.
e + e −2 y − 2 cos 2x
1
2) Prove that the value of the integral of along a semi-circular arc |z| = 1 from
z
– 1 to 1 is – πi or πi according as the arc lies above or below the real axis.
3) Determine the order of poles and values of residues of the function

z+3
i) cosec z ii) 2 .
z − 2z
Set P
SLR-SO – 164 -4- *SLRSO164*
1) State and prove Cauchy’s Residue theorem.
cos x + sin x − e − y
2) If f(z) = P + iQ is analytic function of z = x+ iy and P − Q = ,
2 cos x − e y − e − y
( )
find f(z) subject to the condition f π 2 = 0 .

–4
1) Show that the function f(z) = e–z
(z ≠ 0) and f(0) =0 is not analytic at
z = 0 although the Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied at that point.
∞
 1  1
2) Prove that cosh  z +  = a 0 + ∑ an  zn + n  where
2π
 z n =1
 z 
1
2π ∫0
an = cos nθ cosh(2 cos θ)dθ .
3) If lim(z − a)f(z) = A and if c is the arc θ1 ≤ θ ≤ θ2 of the circle |z – a| = r then

z→ a
lim ∫ f(z)dz = iA(θ2 − θ1) .

r →0
C

∂u 1 ∂v
1) Prove that the polar form of Cauchy’s Riemann equations = and
∂ r r ∂ θ
∂v 1 ∂u −1  y 
where r = x + y , θ = tan   .
2 2
=−
∂r r ∂θ  x
2) Evaluate ∫ z dz from z = 0 to z = 4 + 2i along the curve L defined by

L
a) z = + itt2
b) The line from z = 0 to z = 2i.

1) State and prove Millne-Thomson method.
π
dθ πa
2) Prove that∫0 (a + cos θ)2 (a2 − 1)3 2 , (a > 1) .
=
1
3) Expand for the regions
z(z − 3z + 2)
2
i) 0 < |z| < 1 ii) 1<|z| < 2 iii) |z| > 2.
_____________
Set P

Seat
No.
Set P

Statistics (special Paper – X) (New CBCS)
Probability Distributions
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

ii) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is allowed.
1. Choose most appropriate alternative. 14
i) The mean of truncated poisson (λ) distribution, truncated at X = 0 is ET(X) =

λ λ λ
a) λ b) c) d)
e λ 1− e λ
1− e− λ
ii) If X is Cauchy (5, 2) then Q.D. =
a) 2 b) 4 c) 10 d) 5
iii) For logistic distribution which of the following statements is correct ?

a) mean < median < mode b) mean > median > mode
c) mean = median = mode d) mode > mean > median
iv) For Weibull (1, 1) distribution Q3 =

4  1  1
a) log   b) log   c) log (4) d) log  
3 2 4
v) Let (X, Y) is BN (0, 0, 1, 1, 0.5) then E[Y|X = 4] is ________ E[X|Y = 2].
a) twice of b) equal to c) less than d) none of these
X Y
vi) Let (X, Y) is BN (µ1, µ2, σ2 , σ2 , 0.25) then Covariance  , =
 σ1 σ2 
1 2

 0.25 
a)   b) 0.25 (σ1 σ2) c) 0.25 d) 1
 σ1σ2 
vii) The probability curve of LN(µ, σ2) distribution occupies 50% area up to
1
a) eµ–σ b) eµ+σ c) eµ+ 2 σ d) eµ
2 2 2

P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 165 -2- *SLRSO165*
viii) If X is a Pareto (α, β) r.v., then the support of r.v. X is
a) (– ∞ , ∞) b) (0, ∞ ) c) (α, ∞) d) (0, α)
ix) The support of a r.v. X following normal distribution truncated below 0 is

a) – ∞ to 0 b) 0 to ∞ c) – ∞ to ∞ d) – k to k
x) Cauchy distribution can be obtained as the distribution of

a) ratio of two standard normal variates
b) difference of exponential r.vs.
c) sum of standard normal r.vs.
d) all of these
λ –λ|x – µ|
xi) If X → Laplace (µ, λ) with p.d.f. f(x) = e 0 ≤ λ, |µ|, |x| ; then V (X) =
2 2 2
a) (µ2 + ) b) 2µ2 + λ c) 2λ2 – µ d)
λ 2
λ2
log(X)
xii) If X and Y are iid LN(0, 1) then distribution of is
log(Y)
a) Cauchy b) Laplace c) Normal d) Iognormal
xiii) If X and Y are iid Exp(1) r.vs., then distribution of X-Y is

a) Cauchy b) Laplace c) Normal d) Iognormal
xiv) Let (X, Y) is BN (0, 0, 1, 1, 0.5) then distribution of X-Y is

a) N(0, 1) b) N(0, 2) c) N(0, 3) d) N(1, 2)
2. A) Attempt any four from the following. 8

a) State the relationship between Cauchy and student t distribution.
b) Obtain the p.d.f. of truncated exponential (1) r.v. truncated below θ.
c) Draw a probability curve for logistic (µ, λ) distribution.
d) If X is L(0, 1) write µ′r.
e) Let (X, Y) is BN (2, 4, 4, 9, 0.8) then find the value of E[XY].
B) Attempt any two from the following. 6

i) Let (X, Y) is BN (µ1, µ2, σ2 , σ2 , ρ) then write the distribution of aX + by + c
1 2
and hence find the distribution of X + Y.

ii) Derive CDF of C (µ, λ) distribution.
iii) Define power series distribution and find its moment generating
function.
Set P
*SLRSO165* -3- SLR-SO – 165
3. A) Attempt any two from the following. 8
i) Obtain pmf of truncated binomial distribution, truncated at X= 0. Also
find its mean.
λ
ii) If X → Laplace (µ, λ) with p.d.f. f(x) = e–λ|x – µ| 0 ≤ λ, |µ|, |x|; then find
2
mean.
iii) If X is Weibull (1, β), find the distribution of Xβ.
B) Answer any one from the following. 6

i) If (X, Y) is a bivariate normal r.v. with pdf
−1
f(x, y) = K exp [ 2 (x2 + y2)] – ∞ < x < ∞ find K and all the parameters.
ii) If X is Exp (1) r.v., then find the distribution of Y = µ + σ log(ex – 1).
4. A) Answer any two from the following. 10

i) State and prove relationship between Cauchy distribution and standard
normal distribution.
ii) State and prove relationship between power series distribution and
a) NBD and b) geometric distributions.
iii) Obtain CDF and hence median of LN(µ, σ2 ) distribution.

i) If X is a Pareto (α, β) r.v., find P(X < t). Also find value of t for which
P(X < t) = 0.5.
ii) If X is a Laplace (0, 1) r.v., state values of Q1, Q3 and QD.
5. Answer any two from the following. 14
i) If X is C(0, 1), obtain the distribution of Y = µ + λX. Also find median of Y.
ii) Let (X, Y) is BN (µ1, µ2, σ2 , σ2 , ρ) then find conditional distribution of Y given
1 2
X = x. Also find regression of Y on X.

(β −1)
x
iii) If X is Weibull (α, β), then find and identify the distribution of Y =   .
_______________ α
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
geology (Special Paper – X)
Geomorphology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) ___________ is the only agent responsible for mass movement.
a) Water b) Gravity
c) Slope d) Weathering
2) Which of the following causes mass movement ?
a) gp + g + shear strength> gt b) gp + g + shear strength< gt
c) gp < g + shear strength + gt d) gp + g + shear strength = gt
3) The slope can be considered as stable when it has angle ___________
a) 20° to 47° b) 35° to 37°
c) 20° to 27° d) 30° to 37°
4) Which of the following type is stable at angle more than “angle of repose” ?
a) dry sand b) slightly wet sand
c) sand saturated with water d) all of these
5) In the old stage valley side shows, ___________ slope.
a) convex b) rectilinear
c) concave d) level to very gentle
6) Elevation measured from mean sea level is
a) Relative relief b) Absolute relief
c) Initial relief d) None of these
7) The level below which river cannot erode vertically downward is also called
as ___________
a) Lower level of erosion b) Upper level of erosion
c) Sea level d) Base level of erosion
8) A high land between two streams known as ___________
a) point bars b) spits
c) subtracts d) drainage divide
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 166 -2- *SLRSO166*
9) Which type of mass movement occurs on gentle slope whose angle between
2° and 5° ?
a) Creep b) Rapid flowage
c) Sliding d) Toppling
10) Excess withdrawal of groundwater in the limestone area may
cause ______
a) Rapid flowage b) Sliding
c) Toppling d) Subsidence
11) Development of badland topography is the characteristic of ______ region.
a) Clay-shale
b) Horizontally bedded conglomerate-sandstone
c) Inclined conglomerate-sandstone
d) Metamorphic
12) Which of the following process operates on the surface of the earth ?
a) Endogenetic b) Hypogenous
c) Epigene d) None of the above
13) What are the two types of geomorphic scales ?
a) Time – spatial scale b) Process – time scale
c) Structure – time scale d) None of the above
14) Braided streams are characteristics of __________ stage.
a) Youth b) Mature c) Old d) None of these
1) State principle of uniformitarianism.
2) What is another name of convex slopes at summit ?
3) How convex slope increases its height ?
4) What is lahar ?
5) What is angle of repose ?
1) What are the three resolution types of time scale ?
2) What is mono-cycle landscape ?
3) What is waning slope ?
1) Describe genetic classification of slope.
2) What is subsidence ?
3) What is multi-cyclic landscape ?
Set P
*SLRSO166* -3- SLR-SO – 166
1) What are causes of mass movement ?
2) Explain factors which increase shearing forces in mass movement.
1) Sliding and its types of mass movement.
2) What are characters of mature stage in cycle of erosion ?
3) What are causes of rejuvenation ?
1) What are topographic expressions of rejuvenation ?
2) Explain slow flowage and rapid flowage.
1) What are various elements of slope ?
2) Explain landforms formed over igneous terrain.
3) Classification of mass movement.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

MICROBIOLOGY (Special paper – x)
Agricultural Microbiology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

ii) Figures to the right indicate marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer from given

alternatives. 14
i) Atoms which most often limits the primary productivity of an ecosystem is
a) carbon b) phosphorus c) nitrogen d) sulphur
ii) The process of converting nitrate to nitrogen gas and nitrous oxide is
called
a) eutrophication b) denitrification
c) transpiration d) ammonification
iii) Chernozem soil is the type of soil from area where rainfall is
a) average b) abundant c) limited d) nil
iv) __________ is a free living autotrophic N2 fixer.
a) Azotobacter b) Nostoc c) Bacillus d) Beijerinckia
v) The phosphorus cycle lacks _________ component.
a) a mineral b) an aquatic
c) an atmosphere d) an organic
vi) ____________ enzyme act only on native cellulose molecules.
a) C1 b) C native c) Cx d) Glucanases
vii) The size of sand particles in soil ranges from _________ mm.
a) 0.05 to 2.00 b) 2.5 to 3.5 c) 0.001 to 0.01 d) 4.0 to 4.5
viii) Phenol oxidase enzymes are involved in the oxidation of
a) pesticides b) lignin
c) hydrocarbons d) cellulose
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 167 -2- *SLRSO167*
ix) In vermicomposting on an average _______ number of adult earthworms
are necessary.
a) 20 b) 20000 c) 2000 d) 200
x) Of all algae, the property of nitrogen fixation is restricted to
a) Phaeophyta b) Chlorophyta c) Endophyta d) Cyanophyta
xi) A Manure containing cow dung and crop debris is called
a) Compost b) Organic manure
c) Vermicompost d) Farm yard manure
xii) Loss of productivity of soil is a phenomenon of
a) Bifragmentation b) Reduction
c) Desertification d) Disgeneration
xiii) Bordeaux mixture contain _________, lime and water.
a) Magnesium Sulphate b) Copper Sulphate
c) Calcium Carbonate d) Silver Nitrate
xiv) In soil the dominant nitrifying bacteria are
a) Nitrosomonas b) Azotobacter c) Rhizobium d) Nitrosospira

1) Define vermicompost.
2) Define persistant pesticides with example.
3) Define ammonification
4) Explain solubilization of phosphorus.
5) Define canker.
B) Answer the following. (any two) 6
1) Role of Cx cellulose.
2) Explain characteristics of A horizon.
3) Explain nitrification.

1) Explain green manure.
2) Lignin degradation.
3) Common symptoms of plant-diseases.
Set P
*SLRSO167* -3- SLR-SO – 167
1) Describe ‘Oily spot of pomegranate’ with respect to causative agents
symptoms and control.
2) Biodegradation of hemicellulose.

1) Give an account of ‘Farm Yard Manure’.
2) Explain carbon cycle.
3) Explain genetically modified crops.
1) Explain sulphur cycle.
2) Explain role of soil enzymes.

1) Write an essay on pesticide degradation.
2) Explain various control measures of plant-diseases.
3) Role of Azo-Rhizo biofertilizers.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
Electronics
(Special Paper – X) : Fundamentals of Microcontroller
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
4) Use of Log-table and calculator is allowed.
5) Time allotted for question 1 is first 30 minutes only.
6) Answer of question 1 should be written on page 3 of answer
book.

1) Microcontroller uses __________ memory architecture.
a) Von Neumann b) Harvard c) RISC d) CISC
2) The first address of Bank-3 registers is
a) 08 H b) 0F H c) 18 H d) 1F H
3) Which one of these pins of µC 8051 is also used as programming voltage
pin ?
a) EA b) ALE c) PSEN d) RESET
4) Upon power on RESET the IO ports are configured in __________ mode.
a) Tristated b) Input
c) Either Input or output d) Output
5) What is the address range of SFR registers ?
a) 00 – 2F H b) 30 – 7F H c) 00 – 7F H d) 80 – FF H
6) How many bytes of bit addressable RAM is present in µC 8051 ?
a) 8 b) 16 c) 32 d) 64
7) Which of the following rotate instructions has an ability to modify the carry
flag ?
a) RR A and RL A b) RR A and RLC A
c) RLC A and RRC A d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR- SO – 168 -2- *SLRSO168*
8) The standard baud rate for serial communication with computer is

a) 512 b) 1200 c) 4800 d) 9600
9) What is the maximum delay generated by the timer having 12 MHz crystal
frequency and operating in Mode-2 ?
a) 128 µS b) 256 µS c) 512 µS d) 65536 µS
10) Which one of the following instructions is used for copying the accumulator
data to the register ?
a) MOV A, Rn b) MOV A, @Rn c) MOV Rn, A d) MOV address, A
11) Which of the following branching instructions allow a jump anywhere within
64 KB block of program memory ?
a) LJMP b) SJMP c) AJMP d) JNZ
12) The software control bits to start or stop the timer/counter are
a) TI and RI b) TF0 and TF 1
c) TR0 and TR1 d) IE0 and IE 1
13) MOVX A, @DPTR is a __________ byte instruction.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
14) If Accumulator A = 35 H, the result after executing the instruction RL A will be
a) 1D H b) 1E H c) 6A H d) 6B H

1) Draw reset circuit for microcontroller 8051.
2) Give the significance of EA pin.
3) State the function of RS0 and RS1 bits in the flag register of µC 8051.
4) Mention any four arithmetic instructions.
5) If the accumulator holds the data 54 H, what will be the result after SWAP
A instruction is executed ?
1) Give alternate functions of Port 3.
2) Draw the format of TMOD register and explain.
3) List the interrupt sources in µC 8051 and their default priority levels.
Set P
*SLRSO168* -3- SLR- SO – 168

1) Draw the Clock circuit diagram for µC 8051 and explain.
2) List the SFRs available in µC 8051 with their function.
3) Write an assembly language program to add the two numbers 05H and
0AH and store result in the registers R7.
1) With suitable diagram describe pin structure of microcontroller 8051.
2) Describe modes of the timers/counters of 8051 microcontroller.

1) List and explain the salient features of µC 8051.
2) Explain the structure of PORT-0.
3) Write an assembly language program to transfer ten bytes of data from
internal RAM addresses 30H to 39H to internal RAM addresses 40H to 49H.
1) Write program in assembly language to make LED on-off connected to P1.2.
2) Write a note on IC MAX 232.

1) Draw functional block diagram of microcontroller 8051 and explain each block.
2) Write an assembly language program to generate square wave of frequency
2KHz. Use Timer 1 in mode 2.
3) What do you mean by serial communication ? Describe modes of serial
communication of 8051 microcontroller.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set p
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New CBCS) Examination, 2018
computer science
core Java (Special Paper No. – X)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) String object cannot modified after it is created.
a) True b) False
2) A package is a collection of
a) Class b) Interface
c) Class and interface d) Editiong tool
3) _________ is a process of storing object contents into a file.
a) Serialization b) De-Serialization
c) Both A) and B) d) None of these
4) Which class is used the read data from a file in the form of sequence
of byte ?
a) FileInputStream b) FileOutputStream
c) Filewritter d) FileReader
5) Which operator is used to test if an object belongs to a class or not ?
a) = = b) equals
c) instanceof d) object
6) The exceptions that are checked at compile time by the Java compiler are
called
a) Checked b) Unchecked c) User defined d) None of these
7) Which collection interface will not allow duplicate elements ?
a) Set b) List c) Map d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 169 -2- *SLRSO169*
8) AWT stands for abstract Window Toolkit.
a) True b) False
9) Which layout used to arrange the components in a line one after the other ?
a) FlowLayout b) BorderLayout
c) GridLayout d) GridBackLayout
10) In a Java thread can be created by
a) Extending Thread class b) Implanting Runnable interface
c) Both A) and B) d) None of these
11) _________ method returns the character at the specified index of string.
a) insert() b) append() c) CharAt() d) addChar()
12) Which of these method of thread class is used to suspend a thread for a
period of time ?
a) sleep() b) terminate() c) suspend() d) stop()
13) Swing components are platform dependent.
a) True b) False
14) All classes and interfaces of event are defined in ________ package.
a) java.awt.* b) java.awt.event.*
c) java.event.* d) java.swing.*

1) What is Event ?
2) What is type casting ?
3) Define abstract class.
4) List out advantages of collection.
5) What is JVM ?
B) Write a notes on (any two) : 6
1) Multithreading.
2) Interface.
3) Array list.
Set P
*SLRSO169* -3- SLR-SO – 169
1) What is exception ? How to handle exception in java ?
2) Explain the features of java program.
3) Write a program which is used to read data from any text file.
1) Write a program to demonstrate that use of ‘super’ Keyword.
2) Write a program to display text message on an applet.

1) What is thread ? And explain thread life cycle.
2) Differentiate between AWT and Swing.
3) Write a program to display addition of two no. (Use swing components
and events)
1) Write a program to throw a user defined exception.
2) Write a program to implement multiple inheritance.

1) What is inheritance ? And explain types of inheritance ?
2) Explain any five swing components.
3) Explain data types in Java.
___________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Physics (Special Paper – XI)
Classical Mechanics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

3) Use of log table or calculator is allowed.
1. Select correct alternative : 14

1) A rigid body in motion can be completely specified if its ___________
and ___________ are given.
a) Position, Orientation
b) Position, Centre of mass
c) Body frame of reference, principal axis
d) Centre of mass, orientation
2) If the missile is moving towards the north in northern hemisphere, its
deflection due to coriolis force is towards the ___________
a) East b) West c) South d) North
3) The energy transfer from an oscillator to its coupled partner is periodic
and takes place with the period ___________
π 2π
a) T = b) T =
w1 − w 2 w1 − w 2
4π 3π
c) T = d) T =
w1 − w 2 w1 − w 2
4) The generalized coordinates ___________
a) Have dimensions of length
b) Can be divided into the convenient groups of three
c) Determine the configuration of the system
d) Are dependent of each other
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 170 -2- *SLRSO170*
5) The velocity of the projectile while falling on the ground is ___________
the velocity with which it was projected.
a) greater than b) less than
c) equal to d) all of the above
6) If all forces of a system are generated from a single function, the system
is called ___________ system.
a) Conservative b) Monogenic
c) Non Conservative d) Homogenic
7) In the rotational motion of a rigid body, the directions of the angular velocity
vector and the angular momentum vector are ___________
a) Different b) Same
c) Antiparalle to each other d) Inclined to each other
8) For holonomic constraints the equation is ___________
a) 
f (
→→ →
r1 , r2 , ...., rn , t ) ≠ 0 b) f (
→→ →
r1 , r2 , ...., rn , t ) = 0
c) 
f (
→→ →
r1 , r , ...., rn , t ) > 0 d) f (
→→ →
r1 , r , ...., rn , t ) = ∞
2 2
9) The anti symmetric mode has ___________ frequency of oscillation than

that of the symmetric mode.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Same d) Different
10) A rigid body have ___________ degrees of freedom.
a) 9 b) 6 c) 3 d) 2
11) The coriolis force acting on a horizontally moving particle at the equator
is ___________
a) Zero b) Minimum
c) Maximum d) Moderate
12) The part which deals with the motion of bodies without any reference to
the force or forces causing the motion is called ___________
a) Kinematics b) kinetics c) statics d) dynamics
13) The curve for which the surface of revolution is a minimum is a ___________
a) Catenary b) Cycloid c) Elipse d) Straight line
14) In coupled system, the energy of the first pendulum decreases while that
of the other increases as the angle ___________ increases.
a)  w 2 − w1  . t
w − w2 
b)  1 .t c)  w1 + w 2  .t d)  2 
      .t
2  2   2   w1 − w 2 
 
Set P
*SLRSO170* 3- SLR-SO – 170
1) What are difficulties introduced by constraints in the mechanical
problems ?
2) State the theorem of conservation of linear and angular momentum of
a particle.
3) Explain the formation of cyclones.
4) What are the advantages of Hamilton’s formulation ?
5) What is rigid body ?

1) Explain the principle of virtual work.
2) Show that the shortest distance between two points in a plane is along
a straight line.
3) State and prove the Euler’s theorem about the motion of a rigid body.

1) Discuss the effect of coriolis force on a body falling freely under the
action of gravity.
2) Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of a rigid body in the
components form.
3) Derive an expressions for time of flight of a projectile moving in a
resistive medium.

1) Derive an expression for the general Euler-Lagrange’s differential equation.
2) What are normal coordinates and normal modes of oscillations ?
Explain symmetric and antisymmetric mode of oscillation and obtain an
expression for normal mode of simple harmonic osciations in terms of
normal coordinates.

1) Obtain an expression for the motion of a bead sliding on a rotating wire
in a force free space.
2) State and prove the conservation theorem for energy of system of particles.
3) Explain the principle of Newtonian relativity. What is mean by pseudo
force ?
Set P
SLR-SO – 170 -4- *SLRSO170*
1) Masses m and 2 m are connected by light inextensible string of length
‘l’ which passes over a pulley of mass 2 m and radius a. Write the
lagrangian and find the acceleration of the system.
2) Show that in the rotational motion of a body applied with a torque, the
rate at which work is done by the torque is equal to the rate of change
of kinetic energy of the body.

1) Obtain Lagrange’s equations from D’Alembert’s principle.
2) Show that the angular acceleration of a particle is the same in fixed
and rotating coordinate systems. Obtain an expression for velocity and
acceleration relative to fixed axes.
3) Write down the equations of motion of the two simple pendulums coupled
by means of a weightless elastic spring of force constant K. Obtain their
general solutions.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

Chemistry
Organic Chemistry (Special Paper – XI)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks.

3) Write balanced chemical equations wherever
necessary.
5) Spectroscopic data chart supplied by university is
allowed.
1. Select the most correct alternative amongst those given below and rewrite the
complete sentence : 14
1) ____________ signals are observed in PMR spectrum of propane.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 8 d) 4
2) The frequency region for IR radiation is __________
a) 650 – 4000 cm–1 b) 450 – 850 cm–1
c) 4000 – 8000 cm–1 d) 200 – 400 cm–1
3) Number of fundamental vibrations for non-linear molecules is given by
formula _________
a) (3n – 6) b) (3n – 5)
c) (6n – 3) d) (5n – 3)
4) Infrared spectroscopy involves the interaction between __________ energy
and IR radiations.
a) rotational b) electronic
c) vibrational d) spin
5) _________ is an example of magnetic nuclei.
a) 6C12 b) 6C13 c) 8O16 d) 16S32
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 171 -2- *SLRSO171*
6) Highest value of chemical shift for methyl protons will be observed for
_________
a) CH3 – CI b) CH3 – Br
c) CH3 – F d) CH3 – I
7) Methylene protons in 2-butannone will split into ___________ in the PMR
spectrum.
a) doublet b) triplet
c) quartet d) quintet
8) Alpha-methyl benzyl alcohol can be converted into acetophenone by
___________
a) Stobbe condensation b) Oppenauer oxidation
c) MPV reduction d) W. M. rearrangement
9) Benzamide can be converted into aniline by __________
a) Hydrolysis b) Stobbe condensation
c) Hofmann rearrangement d) MPV reduction
10) _____________ conformation of cyclohexane has maximum potential
energy.
a) Chair b) Boat
c) Half chair d) Twist boat
11) Addition of bromine to cis-2-butene gives ___________
a) recemic-2, 3-dibromobutane b) meso-2, 3-dibromobutane
c) d-2, 3-dibromobutane d) I-2, 3-dibromobutane
12) Enolates are also referred as ___________
a) β-carbanions b) α-carbanions
c) β-carbocations d) α-carbocations
13) Ethyl acetoacetate is ethyl ester of ___________
a) β-halo acid b) α-keto acid
c) β-keto acid d) α-halo acid
14) In mass spectrometry, the peak for ion with maximum relative abundance
is referred as ____________
a) Molecular ion peak b) Base peak
c) Isotope ion peak d) Rearrangement ion peak
Set P
*SLRSO171* -3- SLR-SO – 171

1) What are magnetic and non-magnetic nuclei ? Give one example of
each.
2) Explain types of in-plane bending vibrations.
3) Explain why enol form of ethyl acetoacetate is more stable than keto
form ?
4) What is Wittig reaction ? Give one example.
5) Define the terms stereo selective and stereo specific reactions.
1) Active methylene compounds with example.
2) Oppenauer oxidation.
3) Figureprint region in IR spectroscopy.

1) Explain the concept of locking of conformation in t-butyl cyclohexane.
2) Explain mechanism of Meerwein-Ponndrof-Verley reduction with
example.
3) What is the internal standard used in PMR spectroscopy ? Why ?
1) How will you monitor following transformations with the help of given
spectroscopic method ?
i) Conversion of cyclohexanol into cyclohexanone by IR spectroscopy.
ii) Conversion of ethyl bromide into ethyl alcohol by Mass spectrometry.
2) How will you prepare crotonic acid, 4-methyl uracil and antipyrine starting
from ethyl acetoacetate ?

1) Write a note on the postulates of Baeyer’s strain theory, mention its
limitations.
2) How will you synthesize alanine from diethylmalonate ?
3) Explain the concept of spin-spin splitting (n + 1 rule) with example.
Set P
SLR-SO – 171 -4- *SLRSO171*

1) An unsaturated compound A[C3H4O] showing strong absorption band at
1720 cm–1 and 2700 cm–1, when reacted with aluminium isopropoxide in
isopropanol medium gives B[C3H6O] which shows absorption bands at
3300 cm–1 and 1640 cm–1. Name the reaction, complete the transformation
and identify the compounds A and B.
2) Explain PMR spectra of acetophenone with diagram.

1) Explain relative stabilities of different conformers of cyclohexane with their
structures and potential energy diagram.
2) A compound with molecular formula C9H10O2 shows IR bands at 1745, 1225,
749, 697 cm–1 and has following PMR data
δ : 1.96 (t, 3H), 5.01 (q, 2H), 7.22 (s, 5H). deduce the structure of the
compound and assign the IR and NMR data values.
3) An organic compound A[C3H6O] with IR band at 1720 cm–1 and only one
singlet in PMR reacts with compound B[C4H7O2Br] and metallic zinc in
ether to form an intermediate which is converted to compound C[C7H14O3]
which exhibit prominent IR band at 3300 cm–1. Compound C on further
hydrolysis gives D[C5H10O3] which exhibit broad singlet in PMR at δ 11.24
(exchangeable with D2O). What are A, B, C and D ? Name the reaction
involved in the transformation.
Set P
*SLRSO171* -5- SLR-SO – 171
Set P
SLR-SO – 171 -6- *SLRSO171*
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (CBCS) (New) Examination, 2018

botany
Plant Physiology (Special Paper – XI)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1

1) Readily available water to the plants for absorption by roots is
a) rain water b) gravitational water
c) capillary water d) hygroscopic water
2) _________ is the essential element for the synthesis of auxin.
a) Phosphorus b) Zinc c) Potassium d) Iron
3) Die back disease of shoot is caused by deficiency of ____ microelement.
a) Zn b) Mo c) Cu d) Mn
4) ________ elements are essential for the synthesis of chlorophyll.
a) P and Fe b) Mg and S c) Mg and Fe d) Mg and Mn
5) The water potential of pure water at atmospheric pressure is
a) zero bar b) one bar c) –2.5 bar d) +2.5 bar
6) Root pressure is due to
a) increased turgidity b) active absorption
c) passive absorption d) transpiration
7) _________ is used measuring the rate of root pressure.
a) Potometer b) Monometer c) Porometer d) Osmometer
8) Active absorption of minerals salts makes use of
a) ionic exchange b) carriers
c) phosphorylation of elements d) none of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 172 -2- *SLRSO172*
9) Sink strength is product of
a) sink size x sink activity b) sink size x xylem activity
c) phloem cells x sink activity d) sink size x phloem fibers
10) Mass flow hypothesis was proposed by

a) Munch b) Curtis c) De Vries d) Darwin
11) Transport of organic substances from cytoplasm to cytoplasm of another

cell through plasmodesmata is called
a) leucoplast b) amyloplast c) apoplast d) symplast
12) The term auxin was coined by

a) F.W. Went b) Skoog c) Haberlandent d) Miescher
13) _______ is widely used as rooting hormone.

a) IBA b) CCC c) Gibberellin d) Cytokinin
14) Abscisic acid is chemically

a) Sesquiterpene with 15 C atoms b) Pyrrole compounds
c) Amino acid compound d) Nucleotide compound
1) Define ascent of sap.
2) What are micronutrients ? Enlist micronutrients.
3) Define phloem unloading.
4) Give any two practical application of gibberellin.
5) Give deficiency symptoms of calcium.
1) Guttation.
2) Soil as a nutrient reservoir.
3) Any two practical application of cytokinin.

Set P
*SLRSO172* -3- SLR-SO – 172
1) Explain Donnan equilibrium.
2) Describe in brief assimilate partitioning.
3) Give physiological role of abscisic acid.
B) Answer the following (any two). 6
1) Give role of boron to plants.
2) Give chemical structure of cytokinin.

3) Explain components of water potential.
1) Describe cohesion-tension theory.
2) Explain carrier mediated uptake.
3) Describe phloem loading and unloading.
1) Give deficiency symptoms of Cu and Mo.
2) Give practical application of ethylene.
1) Describe in brief Munch hypothesis.
2) Explain physiological role and practical application of CCC.
3) What is transpiration ? Describe in brief mechanism of transpiration.
_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. Part – III (Semester – V) (New CBCS) Examination, 2018
zoology (Special Paper – XI)
Comparative Anatomy of Chordates
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
iii) Draw neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.

1) Oily secretion produced by _______ glands keeps the skin soft and leathery
in mammals.
a) Scent b) Sweat c) Mucus d) Sebaceous
2) Rhinocoel is present in
a) Olfactory lobe b) Optic lobe
c) Cerebellum d) Medulla oblongata
3) _______ is one of the contributory bone of pectoral girdle of vertebrates.
a) Pubis b) Scapula c) Ischium d) Ilium
4) Focal length of lens of eye is regulated by
a) Iris muscles b) Pupil
c) Ciliary muscle d) Vitreous humor
5) Mesonephros kidney is present in
a) Fish b) Reptiles c) Aves d) Amphibians
6) Three chambered heart is found in
a) Fish b) Amphibians c) Mammals d) Birds
7) Horns of rhinocerous is formed of modified
a) Scales b) Hair c) Glands d) Muscles
8) Ductus botalli is a connection between _______ aortic arch and lateral
dorsal aorta in vertebrates.
a) VI b) V c) IV d) III
9) _______ of pigeon secrete pigeon milk.
a) Stomach b) Pancreas c) Crop d) Intestine
10) Narrow space between lips, cheeks and jaws is called vestibule in which
mouth opens
a) Rabbit b) Pigeon c) Lizard d) Frog
11) In _______ roof of cerebral hemisphere is poorly developed and it is almost
non-nervous.
a) fishes b) mammals c) birds d) reptiles
P.T.O.
12) Gills of _______ have filiform gill lamellae.
a) Cartilage fish b) Bony fishes
c) Ascidians tadpole d) Frog tadpole
13) Sinus venosus is on the way of disappearance in _______ group of
vertebrates.
a) Avian b) Reptilian c) Mammalian d) Amphibian
14) Pons varolli is present in _______ group of vertebrates.
a) Pisces b) Amphibians c) Reptiles d) Mammals
1) Down feather
2) Gills of cartilage fishes
3) Heart of rat
4) Mesonephros kidney
5) Pelvic girdle of frog.
B) Write note on (any two) : 6
1) Eye of rat.
2) Alimentary canal of aves.
3) Skin of mammals.
1) Give an account on lungs of Reptiles.
2) Give an account on internal ear of dog fish.
3) Describe air sacs in the birds.
1) Ventricles in the vertebrate brain.
2) Pectoral girdle of frog.
1) Explain evolutionary changes in brain of vertebrate.
2) Describe heart of frog.
3) Give an account on brain of reptile.
1) Write an account on skin of reptile.
2) Hepatic portal system of frog.
1) Give an account of soft derivatives of integuments of vertebrate.
2) Describe the fore gut of a frog and state the different from that the fore gut
of reptiles.
3) Describe different types of scales in fishes.
______________ Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
Mathematics (Special Paper – XI)
Integral Calculus

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) The improper integral with infinite interval of integration and bounded
integrand is known as
a) the improper integral of the first kind
b) the improper integral of the second kind
c) the improper integral of the third kind
d) the improper integral of the mixed kind
b
2) The condition for the convergence of the improper integral ∫ f(x) dx at a,

a
where f(x) is positive when x ∈ (a, b], is that there exists k > 0, such that
b
∫
a +∈
f(x) dx < k, ∀ ∈ ∈ (0, b – a] or for all is
0<∈<b–a
a) necessary but not sufficient

b) sufficient but not necessary
c) both necessary and sufficient
d) neither necessary nor sufficient
3) The µ-test states that, if b is the only point of infinite discontinuity of f on
b
[a, b] and lim (b – x)µ f(x) exists and ______ then

x →b
∫ f(x) dx converges if and
a
only if µ < 1.
a) is zero b) is any non-zero
c) is non-zero finite d) is any value
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 174 -2- *SLRSO174*
∞
4) the integrand of the integral ∫ xm – 1. e–x dx has infinite discontinuity at

0
zero if
a) m < 1 b) m > 1 c) m = 1 d) 0
π
x
5) The integral ∫ sin x
dx is
0
c) conditionally convergent d) absolutely convergent
6) lim n =
n→0
a) 0 b) 1 c) ∞ d) π
1
7) B  ,
3
=

2 2 
π π
a) π b) 2 c) π d) 8
8) - 1 =
2
a) π b) – π c) 2 π d) – 2 π
1
9) ∫ x4(1 – x)2 dx =
0
1 1
1
a) b) 105 c) 101 d) 101
15
1 3x
10) The multiple integral ∫ ∫ xy dx dy =

0 0
3 2 1
a) 1 b) c) 3 d) - 2
2
π a sinθ
11) ∫ ∫ rdθdr =
0 0
π
2 2 2
a) a π b) a c) ∫ sinθ dθ d) 3a π
4 4 0 4
Set P
*SLRSO174* -3- SLR-SO – 174
1 1
12) Change of order of integration in the double integral ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dxdy gives
0 y

1 1 1 x x y y x
a) ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dydx b) ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dydx c) ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dydx d) ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dxdy
0 x 0 0 0 0 1 0
13) Area lying between the parabola y = 4x – x2 and the line y = k is

1 3 5
a) unit b) unit c) unit d) 9 unit
2 2 2 2
14) For transformation x + y = u, x – y = v, the value of dxdy is
1 1 2
a) dudv b) ududv c) dudv d) u dudv
2 2
∞
2
1) Examine the convergence of ∫ e- x dx .
0
1 -1
sin x
2) Compute the integral ∫ x
dx.
0
3) Define the terms : Beta and Gamma function.
4) Evaluate - 3 .
2
(x, y ) 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, 4 ≤ y ≤ 5 and
5) Let A =  
 f (x, y ) = (x + y )2 
Evaluate ∫ f(x, y) dA.

A
1 dx .
1) Test the convergence of ∫ 1- x3
0
1
3
∫ (x log x)
3
dx = - .
2) Prove that 128
0
1 y
xye- x dxdy .
2
3) Find ∫∫
0 0
Set P
SLR-SO – 174 -4- *SLRSO174*
∞
1) Discuss the convergence of the integral cos x
∫ 2
dx .
1+ x
2) Prove that B (m, n) = m n 0
m+n
3) Find by double integration area of the region enclosed by curves
x2 + y2 = a2, x + y = a in the first quadrant.
1) Show that every absolutely convergent integral is convergent for improper

integral of first kind.
 ∞ - x4 2   ∞ - x4  π
2) Show that  ∫ e x dx  ×  ∫ e dx  = .
0  0  8 2

1 m-1 n-1
x +x
1) Prove that B(m, n) = ∫ (1 + x )m+n
dx.
0
1
x (1 + x 2 )
3
Hence obtain ∫ dx .
0 (1 + x)10
1 1 x-y  1 1 x - y 
2) Show that ∫ ∫
 0 (x + y )
2
dy 

dx ≠ ∫ ∫
 0 (x + y )
2
dx  dy .

0 0
∞
- a2 x2
3) Show that ∫e .cos bxdx is absolutely convergent.
0
1
 1 -x  dx
1) Show that ∫  1+ x - e  x is convergent.

0
2) Show that if m > 0, n > 0 then

b
m-1
∫ (x - a) (b - x )n-1dx = (b - a)m+n-1. β(m, n) .
a
1) State and prove Dirichlet’s test for the improper integral of a product of two
functions.
2) Prove that 22m-1 m m + 21 = π 2m .
( x+y )
x -y

3) Using the transformation x + y = u, x – y = v evaluate ∫∫ e . dxdy over the
region bounded by x = 0, y = 0, x + y = 1.
_________________ Set P
Seat
No. Set P
statistics (Special Paper – XI) (CBCS) (New)
Sampling Techniques
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative from the following : 14

i) Which of the following is not related with stratified random sampling ?
a) fixing the criterion for stratification b) fixing the total cost
c) fixing the sample size d) fixing number of strata
ii) In presence of linear trend ________ method is more efficient.
a) SRSWR b) SRSWOR
c) Stratified d) Systematic
iii) Possession of certain attribute by a sampling unit is characterized by
_________ distribution.
a) Bernoulli b) Discrete uniform
c) Hypergeometric d) Poisson
iv) _________ errors can be reduced more easily.
a) Sampling b) Non-sampling
c) Random d) Standard

v) In usual notations unbiased estimator for A i.e. total number of sampling
units possessing given attribute is
Na
a) b) a
n
a
c) d) none of these
n
vi) Under proportional allocation, the size of the sample from each stratum
depends on
a) total sample size b) size of the stratum
c) population size d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 175 -2- *SLRSO175*
vii) Sampling frame is a term used for
a) a list of random numbers
b) a list of voters
c) a list of sampling units of a population
d) none of these
viii) In stratified random sampling the formula for optimum allocation was derived
by
a) Pearson b) Neyman
c) Neyman-Pearson d) Gupta-Kapoor
ix) The total number of possible samples of size n, drawn from population of
size N by SRSWOR is
 N
a) N b) n c) Nn d)  
 n
x) Circular systematic sampling first used by
a) W. G. Cochran b) M. H. Hansen
c) D. B. Lahiri d) C. R. Rao
xi) An estimator can possess
a) any value b) a fixed value
c) both a) and b) d) neither a) nor b)
xii) The most important factor in determining the size of a sample is
a) the availability of resources b) purpose of the survey
c) heterogeneity of population d) none of these
xiii) The discrepancy between estimate and population parameter is known as
a) human error b) non-sampling error
c) sampling error d) none
xiv) In SRSWR, the same sampling may be included in the sample
a) only once b) only twice
c) more than once d) none of these

i) State any two non-sampling errors.
ii) State expression for standard error of ratio estimator for population mean.
iii) State any two merits of systematic sampling.
iv) Explain cluster sampling.
v) Give real life situation where stratified sampling is used.
Set P
*SLRSO175* -3- SLR-SO – 175

i) Explain proportional allocation.
ii) Define regression estimator.
iii) Objectives of sample survey.

i) Show that sample proportion is an unbiased estimate of population proportion.
ii) Give two demerits of systematic sampling.
iii) Explain multi stage sampling.
B) Attempt the following (any one) : 6

i) Define the ratio and regression estimators of the population total.
State the expressions for variances of these estimators.
ii) With usual notations show that V(Y st )p ≤ V(Yn )R.

i) Obtain unbiased estimator for population mean in case of systematic
sampling.
ii) State the characteristics of a good questionnaire.
iii) Obtain an unbiased estimator for population mean and derive its standard
error in case of cluster sampling.

i) Give any four situations where ratio method of estimation is appropriate.
ii) Show that sample mean is an unbiased estimator of population mean in
stratified sampling.
5. Attempt the following (any two) : 14

i) In stratified random sampling with given cost function of the form C = a + ∑ cini.
Prove that V(Y st ) is minimum if ni α NiSi .
ci
ii) Show that Neyman’s optimum allocation gives better estimate than
proportional allocation.
iii) In presence linear trend of the form Yi = i, i = 1, 2, ..., N; compare SRSWOR,
stratified random sampling and systematic sampling.
_____________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.

(New CBCS)
GEOLOGY (Special Paper XI)
Stratigraphy of India (Part – I)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) The statement ‘the present is the key to the past’ suggests ________
principle.
a) Uniformitarianism b) Order of superposition
c) Faunal succession d) None of the above
2) Which one of the following is the smallest unit in the lithostratigraphic
classification ?
a) Formation b) Group
c) Bed d) Member
3) Which one of the following study is impossible without knowledge of
paleontology ?
a) Chronostratigraphy b) Lithostratigraphy
c) Biostratigraphy d) Geochronostratigraphy
4) Which of the following is famous mountain ranges in Peninsular India ?
a) Sahyadri b) Satpura
c) Anaimalai Ranges d) All of these
5) Two parts of Dharwar cratons are _____________ blocks.
a) Eastern-Southern b) Eastern-western
c) Northern-Southern d) Not divided in parts
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 176 -2- *SLRSO176*
6) Eastern and Western Dharwar blocks are separated by ________ schist

belt.
a) Gadag b) Sandur
c) Chitradurg d) Sargur
7) Kolar group is divided into
a) Champion gneiss b) Goldfield volcanics
c) Sakarsanhalli formation d) All of these
8) Which one of the following groups is youngest ?
a) Chilpi b) Khairagarh
c) Dongargarh d) Nandgaon
9) Eastern Ghats Mobile belt is dissected by two prominent grabens of
a) Tapti-Narmada b) Son-Narmada
c) Mahanadi-Godavari d) Mahanadi-Tapti
10) The unconformity lying between the Proterozoic basins and crystalline
basement is of age ___________ Ma.
a) 2500 b) 3500
c) 4500 d) 5500
11) The Mobile belts are mostly ______________ in age.
a) Archean b) Proterozoic
c) Paleozoic d) Cenozoic
12) WDC and edc are separated by ___________ shear zone.
a) Sargur b) Chitradurga
c) Bababudhan d) Kollar
13) __________ is the largest single Purana basin.
a) Cuddapah b) Vindhyan
c) Kaladgi d) P-G basin
14) Satpura Mobile Belt is also known as
a) Middle Indian Tectonic Zone
b) Southern Indian Tectonic Zone
c) Northern Indian Tectonic Zone
d) Central Indian Tectonic Zone
Set P
*SLRSO176* -3- SLR-SO – 176

1) What is ‘a Stage’ in chronostratigraphy ?
2) Define Mobile Belts.
3) Define Charnockite.
4) Name the major intrusive in Bastar Craton.
5) What is other name of Satpura Mobile Belt ?
1) Describe ‘Principle of Original Horizontality’.
2) List the main components of Singhbhum Craton.
3) Write a short note on Nallamalai group.

1) Write a lithostratigraphic table of Bagalkot group of Kaladgi basin.
2) Write stratigraphic sequence of Western Dharwar Craton (WDC)
3) Papaghani sub-basin.
1) Write note on Bababudan schist belt.
2) Draw a table of lithostratigraphy of Vindhyan supergroup.

1) Write a note on ‘Mewar gneiss’.
2) Describe composite stratigraphy of second cycle of Precambrian of
Himalaya.
3) Write note on ‘Khetri basin’.
1) Write note on sandur schist belt.
2) Describe ‘Iron ore group’.

1) Describe in brief ‘Singhbhum craton’.
2) Explain Western and eastern khondalite zones of Eastern Ghats Mobile
belt.
3) Explain classification and lithology of upper Vindhyan supergroup.
______________ Set P

Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) Examination, 2018

(CBCS Pattern) (New)
microbiology (special paper XI)
Immunology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1
) Figures to right indicate full marks.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from the given alternatives. 14

1) ___________ antibody has valency four.
a) IgG b) IgA c) IgM d) IgE
2) __________ sugar is transferred as a result of H gene in ABH blood group
system.
a) Acetyl-galactosamine b) Fucose
c) Galactose d) Glucose
3) Several of the complement components are __________
a) Glycolipids b) Cytokines
c) Enzymes d) Hormones
4) The initial complement component that is bound by complement fixing
antibodies is ___________
a) C1r b) C1s c) C1q d) C5a
5) Bombay blood group (Oh) can be detected by using _________
a) Anti A b) Anti B
c) Anti D d) Anti H
6) During humoral immune response B cells differentiate into __________
cells.
a) plasma b) dentritic
c) cytotoxic d) mast
7) Specific antibodies are readily detectable in serum following primary contact
with antigen after
a) 10 min b) 1 h c) 5 – 7 days d) 1 year
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 177 -2- *SLRSO177*
8) Arthus reaction is __________ clinical type of hypersensitivity reactions.
a) systemic type III b) Localized Type III
c) Type I d) Type II
9) Myasthenia gravis is an example of ____________ disease.
a) transitory autoimmune disease
b) complement deficiency
c) non organ specific autoimmune
d) organ specific autoimmune
10) Universal donor is person with blood group
a) ‘‘AB’’ positive b) ‘‘B’’ positive c) ‘‘A’’ negative d) ‘‘O’’ negative
11) Nobel prize was given for technique of monoclonal antibodies to
a) Burnet b) Landsteiner
c) Kohler and Milstein d) Jenner
12) The condition in which immune response is developed against self antigen is
a) immunological tolerance b) autoimmunity
c) homograft rejection d) allergy
13) Generally antibodies produced against the foreign pathogens are
a) monoclonal b) polyclonal
c) homogenous d) a) and b) both
14) Histamine is produced in anaphylaxis by de granulation of
a) Mast cells b) RBCS c) WBCS d) Platelets

1) What is natural and acquired immunity ?
2) What is Systemic Lupus Erythometosus (SLE) ?
3) What are five antibodies types ?
4) What are uses of HLA typing ?
5) What are activators of alternate complement activation pathway ?

1) IgM antibody
2) Properties of complement
3) Blood transfusion reactions and its complications.

1) Arthus reaction and serum sickness. Set P
*SLRSO177* -3- SLR-SO – 177
2) Mechanisms of HAT selection.
3) Burnet clonal selection theory.

1) Biological effects of complement
2) Bombay blood group.

1) Mechanisms of Immunological tolerance.
2) Humoral immune response.
3) Cells involved in immune response.

1) Describe in brief Mechanism of Anaphylaxis.
2) Write in brief Rh blood group typing.
5. Attempt (any two). 14

1) Describe the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) genes in man.
2) What is Autoimmunity and autoimmune diseases ?
3) Applications of monoclonal antibodies in diagnosis and treatment.
______________
Set P
SLR-HM – 315 -4- *SLRHM315*
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (CBCS New) Examination, 2018
electronics (Special Paper – XI)
Sensors and Transducers

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Select the correct alternatives from the following : 14

1) The smallest change in a measured variable to which an instrument will
respond is
a) Sensitivity b) Resolution c) Error d) Precision
2) Magnetic flux can be measured by
a) Capacitive pick-up b) Inductive pick-up
c) Resistive pick-up d) Hall-effect pick-up
3) Load cell uses ______________ as transducer.
a) Strain gauge b) Capacitor
c) Inductor d) None of these
4) Which of the following act as inverse transducer ?
a) Thermistor b) Capacitive transducer
c) LVDT d) Piezo-electric crystal
5) Identify the active transducer from the given transducers.
a) LVDT b) Thermocouple
c) Strain gauge d) Thermistor
6) Capacitive transducers are generally used for
a) Static measurement b) Dynamic measurement
c) Transient measurement d) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 178 -2- *SLRSO178*
7) Photo resistive cells are
a) Active device b) Passive device
c) Insulating device d) None of the mentioned
8) The photoconductive material used in LDR is
a) Gallium arsenide b) Gallium phosphide
c) Cadmium sulphide d) Silicon dioxide
9) NTC Thermistor has ________________temperature coefficient.
a) Negative b) Positive
c) Both d) None of these
10) What will happen to resistance, if length of conductor is increased ?
a) Decreases b) No change
c) Increases d) Doubles
11) The sensitivity of IC LM35 temperature transducer is
a) 10 mV/°F b) 10 mV/°K
c) 10 mV/°C d) 10 mV/°C
12) Which of the following materials can be used as photoconductive transducer ?
a) Selenium b) Silicon
c) Germanium d) All of the mentioned
13) Which of the following represents output of Hall Effect transducer ?
a) Hall voltage b) emf
c) Applied voltage d) Lorentz voltage
14) Thermo couple cannot be used to measure
a) Temperature of gas b) Temperature of liquid
c) Cryogenic range temperature d) None of the mentioned

1) Write the definition of
a) Accuracy
b) Resolution
2) Write the definition of
a) Sensitivity
b) Precision.
Set P
*SLRSO178* -3- SLR-SO – 178
3) What is actuator ?
4) Distinguish between bonded and unbounded strain gauge.
5) Give the classification of sensor.
B) Answer any two the following : 6
1) What is active transducer ? State the two examples.
2) Write a note on Potentiometer.
3) Enlist the temperature transducers.

1) Write a note on capacitor microphone.
2) State the characteristics of measuring devices explain any one of
them.
3) Write a note on resistance pressure transducer.
1) Explain the RVDT (Rotary Variable Differential Transformer) device.
2) Explain the PIR sensor.

1) Explain in brief piezoelectric transducer.
2) Explain the construction and working of Electromagnetic Relay.
3) Explain in brief IC LM 35 as a temperature sensor.
1) Enlist the transducer selection factors.
2) Write note on Pyrometer.

1) Explain the Hall effect transducer.
2) Explain photovoltaic cell as a transducer.
3) State the types of strain gauges, explain any one of them.
______________

Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2018
COMPUTER SCIENCE (Special Paper No. – XI)
Operating System

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2) A figure to the right place indicates full marks.

1) For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion
A) Must exist B) Must not exist
C) may exist D) None of these
2) Deadlock prevention is a set of methods
A) To ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
B) To ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
C) To decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
D) To recover from a deadlock
3) When memory is divided into several fixed sized partitions, each partition
may contain
A) exactly one process B) atleast one process
C) multiple processes D) None of these
4) The aim of creating page replacement algorithms is to
A) replace pages faster
B) increase the page fault rate
C) decrease the page fault rate
D) to allocate multiple pages to processes
5) In the __________ algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and
moves toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk.
At the other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.
A) LOOK B) SCAN C) C-SCAN D) C-LOOK
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 179 -2- *SLRSO179*
6) Process Management function of an operating system kernel includes
A) Process creation and termination
B) Process scheduling and dispatching
C) Process switching
D) All of the above
7) Interval between the time of submission and completion of the job is
called
A) Waiting time B) Turnaround time
C) Throughput D) Response time
8) ___________ is a technique of improving the priority of process waiting in
Queue for CPU allocation.
A) Starvation B) Relocation C) Revocation D) Ageing
9) What are the two types of Semaphore ?
A) Digital and Binary B) Analog and Octal
C) Counting and Binary D) Critical and System
10) Which one of the following true about the sequential file access method ?
A) random access according to the given byte number
B) read bytes one at a time, in order
C) read/write sequentially by record
D) read/write randomly by record
11) The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called
A) Non preemptive scheduling B) Preemptive scheduling
C) Shortest job first D) First come first served
12) The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting
to execute are kept on a list called
A) job queue B) ready queue
C) execution queue D) process queue
13) The page table contains
A) base address of each page in physical memory
B) page offset
C) page size
D) none of these
Set P
*SLRSO179* -3- SLR-SO – 179
14) In the bounded buffer problem, there are the empty and full semaphores that
A) Count t he number of empty and full buffers
B) Count the number of empty and full memory spaces
C) Count the number of empty and full queues
D) None of these

1) What are multiprocessor systems and give their advantages ?
2) What is process control block ?
3) Define entry section and exit section.
4) Define request edge and assignment edge.
5) Define Boot Block.
B) Write Notes on (any two) : 6
1) Wh at is file ? Explain the access methods.
2) Explain the Short-term and Medium-term schedulers.
3) Explain Dinning Philosopher Problem.

1) Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders :
98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67
Solve through FCFS (First Cum First Served) and SSTF (Shortest Seek
Time First) scheduling. Calculate the total number of head movements
if the disk head is initially at 53.
2) What are the various file allocation methods ? Explain any one method
in detail.
3) How to handle Page fault ? Explain it.
1) Consider the following snapshot of a system :
Process Allocation Max Available
A B C D A B C D A B C D
P0 0 0 1 2 0 0 1 2 1 5 2 0
P1 1 0 0 0 1 7 5 0
P2 1 3 5 4 2 3 5 6
P3 0 6 3 2 0 6 5 2
P4 0 0 1 4 0 6 5 6
Set P
SLR-SO – 179 -4- *SLRSO179*
Answer the following questions using the banker’s algorithm :
a) What is the content of the matrix Need ? Is the system in a safe state ?
b) If a request from process PI arrives for (0, 4, 2, O), can the request
be granted immediately ?
2) Explain about contiguous memory allocation.

1) What is race condition ? How process synchronization is helpful to guard
against race condition ?
2) Briefly describe first fit, best fit and worse fit strategies in terms of memory
allocation scheme. Which scheme should be use ?
3) Explain Free- space management.
1) Consider the following set of processes, with the length of the CPU-burst
time given in milliseconds :
Process Burst Time (ms) Priority
P1 10 3
P2 1 1
P3 2 5
P4 1 4
P5 5 2
a) Draw Gantt charts illustrating the execution of these processes using
non preemptive priority (a smaller priority number implies a higher
priority) and RR (quantum = 1) Scheduling.
b) What is the turnaround time and average waiting time of each process
for each of the scheduling algorithms ?
2) Explain the Virtual Machine.

1) Consider the following page reference string : 1 2 3 4 2 1 5 6 2 1 2 3 7 6 3
2 1 2 3 6. Assume four frames are initially empty. How many page faults
would occur for LRU and FIFO replacement algorithms?
2) What is Threads ? Explain types of threads and Benefits of threads.
3) How to detect and Recover deadlock ? Explain it.
___________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XII) (New CBCS Pattern)
Nuclear Physics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

ii) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
iii) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
iv) Use of log table or calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct answer from the given alternatives : 14

i) Shape of nucleus is _____________
a) Spherical b) Circular
c) Semicircular d) Cubic
ii) If electrical quadrupole moment is greater than zero then charge distribution
of nucleus is _____________
a) Circular b) Spherical
c) Oblate spherical d) Prolate spherical
iii) The minimum energy required to break the nucleus into it’s constituent
particles is called _____________
a) Fussion energy b) Activation energy
c) Fission energy d) Binding energy
iv) Deuteron is made up of _____________
a) Proton and neutron b) Proton and electron
c) Electron and neutron d) positron and electron
v) In endothermic nuclear reactions the Q value should be _____________
c) Zero d) Infinity
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 180 -2- *SLRSO180*
vi) A accelerator is used for increasing _____________ of a charged

particles.
a) Potential energy b) Kinetic energy
c) Binding energy d) Excitation energy
vii) The cyclotron is ______________ ion accelerator.
c) Neutral d) Both positive and negative
viii) The principle of Betatron is same as that of _____________
a) Rectifier b) Oscillator
c) Transformer d) Resistor
ix) The time at which GM tube unable to count pulse is called ___________
a) Dead time b) Recovery time
c) Resolving time d) Half life time
x) GM counter works on the principle of _____________
a) Emission of light
b) Visualization of track
c) Measuring discharge current to ionization
d) Piezo-electric effect
xi) In k-electron capture, the atomic number of the product nucleus _______
a) Increases by one b) Decreases by one
c) Decreases by two d) Remain same
xii) β-particles are _____________
a) Positrons b) Electrons
c) Protons d) Neutrons
xiii) Field particle in electromagnetic force is _____________
a) Muon b) Pion
c) Photon d) Positron
xiv) Leptons are _____________
a) Fermions b) Bosons
c) Baryons d) Pions
Set P
*SLRSO180* -3- SLR-SO – 180

1) Write semi empirical mass formula.
2) What is stripping reaction ?
3) Obtain equation for resonant frequency of cyclotron.
4) State principle of scintillation counter.
5) Give four properties of Photons.
1) Obtain equation for radius of nucleus.
2) Obtain threshold energy of nuclear reactions.
3) Explain in short continuous nature of β-ray spectrum.

1) Explain electrical quadrupole moment.
2) Calculate Q-value of the following reaction and indicate type
of reaction.
4 14 17 1
2 He + 7 N 8 O + 1H

4
Given : mass of 2 He = 4.0038727 a.m.u.
Mass of 7 N14 = 14.003074 a.m.u.

Mass of 8 O17 = 16.999133 a.m.u.
Mass of 1H1 = 1.007825 a.m.u.
1 a.m.u. = 931 MeV
3) Obtain betatron condition.

1) Explain construction and working of GM counter. Hence explain Geiger
plateau region.
2) Explain the classification of elementary particles in brief.

1) Explain the construction and working of betatron.
2) Explain construction and working of scintillation counter.
3) Explain fine structure of α line spectra and long range α particle
spectra.
Set P
SLR-SO – 180 -4- *SLRSO180*

1) Explain construction and working of Cloud Chamber.
2) Explain different types of interactions.

1) Define mass defect and packing fraction. Explain liquid drop model of
nucleus.
2) Explain construction and working of cyclotron. What are the limitations
of cyclotron ?
3) Define α-disintegration energy and show that Qα=Eα[1+Mα/MY].
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) New (C.B.C.S. Pattern) Examination, 2018

Physics (special paper – XII)
Energy Studies
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

3) draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic table and calculator is allowed.

i) The type of energy in coal is
a) primary b) secondary c) intermediate d) renewable
ii) Solar radiation is the source of energy which is
a) conventional b) non-conventional
c) renewable d) secondary
iii) KWh is the unit of
a) electrical energy b) electrical power
c) mechanical power d) thermal energy
iv) Solar energy is a source of energy which is
a) cheap b) clean c) renewable d) all a, b and c
v) The solar constant is measured
a) at the sea surface
b) at the middle of the atmosphere
c) at the surface of the earth
d) at the mean distance between the sun and the earth
vi) Solar PV system panel consists of
a) pv cells b) strings of pv cells
c) modules of pv cells d) string and modules of pv cells
vii) S.I. unit of wind power density is
a) J/m2 b) W/m2 c) W/cm2 d) KW/m2
viii) for VAWT, the rotating shaft axis is
a) vertical b) horizontal c) tilted d) inclined at 45º
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 181 -2- *SLRSO181*
ix) Wind energy is a manifestation of
a) heat energy b) geothermal energy
c) solar energy d) mechanical energy
x) The origin of cause of biomass energy is
a) photosynthesis b) fermentation c) oxidation d) deoxidation
xi) Biomass is a __________ resource of non-conventional energy source.
a) primary b) secondary
c) intermediate d) renewable
xii) about 70% of the earth’s surface is covered by
a) mountains b) forests
c) water d) lakes
xiii) The greenhouse effect is due to
a) CO2 b) NO2 c) H2S d) UV radiations
xiv) The Coriolis force along the equator is
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) varying

i) Define solar constant.
ii) What is wind energy ?
iii) What are algae ?
iv) What is ocean tide energy ?
v) Define air pollution.
B) Write note on (any two). 6

i) Write a note on the vertical motion of the humid air.
ii) Write a note on environmental problems.
iii) Write a note on off-shore and on-shore energy conversion
technologies.

i) Explain the prospectus of solar PV panel system.
ii) Write a note on planning of wind farm.
iii) Write a note on biomass energy resources.

i) Explain the origin of pressure difference.
ii) Explain wind power density.
Set P
*SLRSO181* -3- SLR-SO – 181
i) Explain renewable and non-renewable energy sources. Give two examples
of each.
ii) What is solar energy plant ? Explain all its component system.
iii) Explain wind energy quantum.

i) Write a note on the vertical structure of the atmosphere.
ii) Explain I-V characteristics of photovoltaic cell.

i) What are the applications of wind energy ?
ii) What is pyrolysis ? Explain how biomass is converted into gases, liquids
and solids by pyrolysis. What are the advantages of pyrolysis ?
iii) Explain the energy transport in the atmosphere and the poles.
_______________

Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Chemistry (Special Paper – XII)
Analytical and Industrial Physical Chemistry (CBCS) (New)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1
2) Draw neat diagrams and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative of the following : 14
1) In colorimetric measurements, the light passing through the thin gold metal
layer falls upon the selenium surface ________ are released.
a) ions b) electrons c) protons d) atoms
2) The colorimetric analysis is based on the variation of the ________ of a
system with change in concentration of the component.
a) current b) voltage c) colour d) pH
3) The formula C6H4O2.C6H4(OH)2 represents
a) quinine b) quinhydrone c) hydroquinone d) quinoline
4) Glass electrode contains _________ solution.
a) 0.01M HCl b) 0.001M HCl
c) 1.0M HCl d) 0.1M HCl
5) In potentiometric titration _________ electrode is used as reference
electrode.
a) quinhydrone b) glass c) calomel d) hydrogen
6) For anodic oxidation of aluminium, the aluminium is made __________ in
the cell.
a) electrode b) anode c) cathode d) diode
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 182 -2- *SLRSO182*
7) In the process of electroplating __________ plays an important role.
a) electrolysis b) electrophoresis
c) electro osmosis d) all of these
8) In premix burner percentage of sample used is
a) 100 b) 50 c) 05 d) 20
9) In total consumption burner, the fuel used usually is
a) methane b) acetylene
c) oxygen d) hydrogen
10) The burner in which sample, fuel and oxidant are mixed before reaching
to the flame is called as
a) total consumption burner b) laminar flow burner
c) lundergarph d) bunsen burner
11) The salt bridge used in precipitation titration must be saturated solution
of
a) KNO3 b) KCl c) NaCl d) NH4Cl
12) In measurement of conductance, conductivity water having specific
conductance less than ________ S.
a) 10–3 b) 10–2 c) 10–6 d) 10–1
13) The titrations in which end point are determined by conductance
measurement are called
a) potentiometric titrations b) conductometric titrations
c) amperometric titrations d) pHmetric titrations
14) Cell constant is determined by the formula
a) 1/a b) a/1 c) 1/a2 d) a2/1

1) Define the terms
i) Opacity
ii) Transmittance.
Set P
*SLRSO182* -3- SLR-SO – 182
2) What are potentiometric titrations ?
3) Mention the electroplating equipments.
4) Draw block diagram of flame photometer.
5) What is conductivity water ?

1) Use of light filters in colorimeter.
2) Calomel electrode
3) Total consumption burner.

1) Give advantages and disadvantages of quinhydrone electrode.
2) Explain the terms
i) electroforming
ii) Bright nickel plating.
3) Why direct current is not used in measurement of conductance by
Wheatstone bridge ?

1) Describe construction and working of a single cell photoelectric
colorimeter.
2) Describe various componenets of flame photometer. Give disadvantages
of flame photometer.

1) State and explain Lambert’s law. What is extinction coefficient ?
2) Describe in short, the factors affecting the nature of electrodeposition.
3) What is flame photometry ? Describe the general principles of flame
photometry.
Set P
SLR-SO – 182 -4- *SLRSO182*

1) Mention different types of potentiometric titrations. Explain redox
titration.
2) Discuss different types of conductometric cells used for conductance
measurement.
1) Explain construction and working of glass electrode. How it is used to

determine the pH of a solution ?
2) Describe in detail the electroplating of nickel. Give its applications.
3) Discuss the nature of conductometric titration curve obtained between weak
acid and strong base. Give advantages of conductometric titrations.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
chemistry (Special Paper – XII)
(New CBCS-Pattern)
Methodology and Materials of Industrial Importance

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

ii) Draw neat labeled diagrams and write equations wherever
necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite the
sentences. 14
i) The SI unit of mass is
a) gm b) Kg c) ton d) all of these
ii) The chemical discipline that uses mathematics and statistics to design
experimental procedures and to analyze chemical data, is called as
a) Biotechnology b) Computer
c) Chemometrics d) Green chemistry
iii) A model is said to be ___________, if it contains the terms, x1, x2, x3 etc.
in a sequence.
a) normal b) standard c) hierarchical d) secondary
iv) The piecewise polynomials are called
a) splines b) knots c) binders d) all of these
v) The degree of hazard associated with a flammable liquid depends on it’s
a) flash point b) quantity
c) surface tension d) none of these
vi) The chemicals which are manufactured and consumed on commercial scales
are called ______________ chemicals.
a) hard b) heavy c) soft d) basic
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 183 -2- *SLRSO183*
vii) Example of acute toxin is
a) Sodium cyanide b) Sodium chloride
c) Sodium carbonate d) None of these
viii) ______________ must be used for labelling chemical bottles.
a) Short forms b) Full name
c) Chemical formulae d) None of these
ix) Carbon fiber-reinforced composite is extensively used in
a) race cars b) trucks
c) jeeps d) all of these
x) One nanometer = ___________ meter.
a) 10–7 b) 10–9 c) 10–10 d) None of these
xi) Banana is _________________ fiber.
a) Non-biodegradable b) Synthetic
c) Fruit d) Natural
xii) Jute is _____________ fiber.
a) Non-biodegradable b) Ecofriendly
c) Synthetic d) All of these
xiii) Top down approach means from
a) Bulk to nanostructure b) Nanostructure to bulk
c) Bulk to large d) None of these
xiv) Sugar, base and phosphate forms the
a) fat b) nucleoside c) carbohydrate d) nucleotide

i) Give the two uses of SI units.
ii) Give two cautions for storage of hazardous chemicals.
iii) Define self assembled nanostructures.
iv) Give two cautions for transportation of hazardous chemicals.
v) Give two environmental effects on nanocomposites.
i) Explain the correlation and regression.
ii) Explain the role of metrics in composites.
iii) Explain bio-nanocomposite with example.
Set P
*SLRSO183* -3- SLR-SO – 183

i) Explain the procedure for disposal of explosives.
ii) Write short note on classification of nanomaterials.
iii) Discuss the curve fitting.
i) Discuss the aspects of multiple linear regression analysis.
ii) Explain the method for preparation of gold and silver metallic
nanomaterials.

i) Explain the protective apparel in laboratory safety.
ii) Write short note on carbon nanotubes.
iii) Discuss the analysis of residuals.
i) Explain the classification of composite materials.
ii) Write short note on recycling and reuse of laboratory chemicals.

i) Explain linearizing transformations.
ii) Describe the natural nanomaterials.
iii) Explain fiber reinforced composites.
______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
botany (Special Paper – XII)
Plant Breeding (Elective)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2) Draw flow diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answer from given alternatives : (1×14=14)
1) Selection of homozygous plant is
a) Pureline selection b) Mass selection
2) Breeding for disease resistance require
a) Good source of resistance b) Disease test
c) Planned hybridization d) All of the above
3) Polyploidy can induce in cell culture by
a) Acetone b) Methanol
c) Colchicine d) All of the above
4) The quickest method of plant breeding is
a) Introduction
b) Selection
c) Hybridization
d) Mutation breeding
5) Plant biotechnology involves
a) Production of valuable products in plants
b) Rapid clonal multiplication of desired genotypes
c) Production of virus free plants
d) All of these
6) Which of the following is the unit of inheritance ?
a) Phenotype b) Genotype c) Gene d) Genome
7) Involving or controlled by a single gene is called
a) Monogenic b) Mutagenic
c) Polygenic d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 184 -2- *SLRSO184*
8) Polygenic inheritance is also referred as a
a) Quantitative inheritance
b) Multiple genes interaction
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
9) The oldest method of plant breeding is
a) Introduction b) Selection
c) Hybridization d) Mutation Breeding
10) Method of selection in plants showing vegetative propagation is
a) Pedigree selection b) Pure line selection
c) Clonal selection d) Mass selection
11) Pure line selection is also called
a) Inbred selection b) Progeny selection
c) Single line selection d) All of the above
12) Mutation frequency during plant breeding depends on
a) Dose (concentration × time) b) Temperature
c) pH value d) All of the above
13) Role of distant hybridization in crop improvement is a
a) Disease and insect resistance b) Improvement in Quality
c) Improvement in adaptation d) All of the above
14) Crossing between different species of the same genes or different genera
of the same family is called
a) Distant hybridization b) Wide crossing
c) Both a) and b) d) Mutation
2. A) Answer any four of the following : (2×4=8)

i) Define introduction.
ii) What is self pollination ?
iii) Define polyploidy.
iv) Enlist methods of crop improvement.
v) Define mutation.
B) Write note on any two of the following : (2×3=6)
1) Role of mutation in plant breeding.
2) Plant genetic resources.
3) Scope of plant breeding.
Set P
*SLRSO184* -3- SLR-SO – 184
i) Give an account of centers of origin of crop plants.
ii) Describe the role of polyploidy in plant breeding.
iii) Explain in detail clonal selection method.
B) Describe any one of the following : (1×6=6)
1) Describe the role of distance hybridization in crop improvement.
2) Distinguish in between monogenic vs polygenic inheritance.

1) Explain in detail mass selection method.
2) What is hybridization ? Explain in detail hybridization procedure.
3) Define mutation and describe the role of mutation in plant breeding.
1) Describe aim and objectives of plant breeding.
2) Explain role of biotechnology in crop improvement.

i) Explain in detail method of hybridization in cross pollinated plants.
ii) What is selection ? Describe pureline selection method.
iii) What is quantitative inheritance ? Explain with example of Kernel colour in
wheat.
______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New) (CBCS – Pattern) Examination, 2018
botany (special Paper – XII)
Nursery and Gardening (Elective)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives. 14

1) Air layering is also called as
a) Gootee b) Chinese layering
c) Pot layering d) All of these
2) In a formal garden the imaginary central line is known as
a) Edges b) Axis c) Focal point d) Hedges
3) Seed dormancy allows the plants to
a) Overcome unfavourable climate condition
b) Develop healthy seeds
c) Reduce viability
d) Prevent deterioration of seed
4) Vegetative part of the plant separated from mother plant and becomes a
new plant is called
a) Grafting b) Inarching c) Cutting d) Layering
5) ___________ is not a part of Transplanter.
a) Transplanting unit b) Furrow operer
c) Press whell d) All the above
6) The process of weakening the seed coat to break dormancy is called
a) Vernalization b) Scarification
c) Photoperiodism d) Stratification
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 185 -2- *SLRSO185*
7) ___________ is the quickest method of lawn making.
a) Turfing b) Seedling
c) Dibbling d) Turf plastering
8) In grafting, the stem cutting from the donar plant is called
a) Transplant b) Scion
c) Bud graft d) Root stock
9) _________ irrigation method is most suitable for lawns.
a) Furrow b) Drip c) Basin d) Sprinkler
10) Zen garden are also known as
a) Italian garden b) Mughal garden
c) Japanese garden d) Chinese garden
11) _________ sowing method is used for small seeds which require a
shallow sowing depth.
a) Broadcasting b) Drilling
c) Dibbling d) Bandsowing
12) _________ is a natural germination inhibitor that induces dormancy.
a) Auxin b) Cytokinin
c) ABA d) Gibberlin
13) To control damage by earthworm and termites in lawn ________ method
can be used.
a) Manuring b) Rolling
c) Weeding d) Replanting
14) The inner layer of the seed coat is called
a) Testa b) Tegmen
c) Cotyledon d) Soutellum

1) Define seedling.
2) What is transplanting of seedling ?
3) Enlist the types of seed.
4) Define budding.
5) Enlist types of plant nursery.
Set P
*SLRSO185* -3- SLR-SO – 185
1) Scarification.
2) Types of cutting.
3) Objectives of gardening.

1) Write difference between Epicotyl and Hypocotyl.
2) What is purpose of seed storage ?
3) Describe causes of seed dormancy.
1) Describe types of grafting.
2) Explain methods of seed dormancy.

1) Which are the objectives of nursery ?
2) Describe styles of landscape gardening.
3) Write cultural practices of any two vegetable studied by you.
1) Describe in brief home gardening.
2) Describe structure of seed.

1) Explain steps involved in transplanting of seedling.
2) Describe phases of seed certification.
3) Describe different media used in the propogation.
___________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Zoology (CBCS Pattern) (New)
(Biostatistics, Bioinformatics, Medical Zoology and Evolutionary Biology)
(Special Paper – XII)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1
) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Choose correct answer from given alternatives. 14
1) The pathogenic agent of malaria disease is
a) virus b) Bacteria c) Plasmodium d) Fungi
2) The systematic arrangement of data in a table is called as
a) Standard deviation b) Histogram
c) Coefficient correlation d) Classification and tabulation
3) _________ is defined as a sum of all the values derived by the total
number of value.
a) Mean b) Variable c) Median d) Mode
4) The pathogenic agent of the disease Ebola is
a) Amoeba b) Paramecium
c) Mosquito d) Filarial worm
5) The command Ctrl + A is used for _______ in the bioinformatics.
a) to delete all b) to save all
c) to select all d) to cut all
6) The applications of statistics in the biological science is called
a) Bioinformatics b) Biotechnology
c) Biostatistics d) Biochemistry
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 186 -2- *SLRSO186*
7) The profused salivation in man is due dog bite is called as
a) TB b) Dengue
c) Swine flue d) Rabies
8) __________ are the tools in bioinformatics.
a) Research microscopes b) Search engines
c) Computer appliances d) CPU
9) The disease tuberculosis is caused by the pathogenic agent
a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Fasciola d) Mosquito
10) In a statistical table the lower limit of first class should be
a) Zero b) Five c) Ten d) Twenty
11) In perfect negative correlation, the value of ‘R’ is
a) –1 b) +1 c) 0.1 d) 0.2
12) A mathematical relationship was developed to explain equilibrium between
frequency and allele is called
a) Genetic law b) Mendel’s law
c) Lemark’s law d) Hardy-Weinberg law
13) _________ is input device in the computer appliances.
a) Printer b) CPU c) Keyboard d) Monitor
14) The term used in population genetics to refer the statistical drift is called
a) Genetic drift b) Gene pool
c) Genetic net d) Genome bank

1) Malaria
2) Tabulation
3) Migration in evolutionary genetics
4) Entrez engine.
5) Tuberculosis
Set P
*SLRSO186* -3- SLR-SO – 186
1) Median
2) Standard deviation
3) Keyboard.

1) Describe the phenomenon of genetic drift.
2) Give an account of pathogenesis and treatment of rabies.
3) Describe the frequency distribution in a statistical table.
B) Answer the following (any one) 6

1) Give an account of dengue disease.
2) Enlist the symptoms of tuberculosis.

1) Describe applications of search engines in bioinformatics.
2) Describe the symptoms and treatment of Ebola disease.
3) Define median and calculate median from the following data.
No. of Students 10 08 06 17 09 10 10 03
Marks 30 25 37 56 45 78 88 67
B) Answer the following (any two) 4

1) Describe the Hardy-Weinberg law.
2) Define statistical table. Describe its different parts.
3) Give an account of pathogenesis and treatment of elephantiasis.

1) Describe the three levels of bioinformatics.
2) Describe the symptoms and treatment of disease elephantiasis.
3) Define classification. Describe its different types of classification.
_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (New CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018
zoology (Special Paper – XII-B)
Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
Day and Date : Saturday 24-11-2018 Total Marks : 70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) The number of species found in an area represents
a) Genetic Diversity b) Species Diversity
c) Ecosystem Diversity d) Agro-biodiversity
2) An index of diversity that considers both species richness and evenness is
a) Shannons Index b) Species Richness
c) Species Abundance d) Species Evenness
3) Species that become establish and proliferate in new ranges where they
cause damage to environment are called as
a) Endemic Species b) Umbrella Species
c) Keystone Species d) Invasive Species
4) _________ is an example of extinct mammal in India.
a) Cheetah b) Lion
c) One horned Rhinoceros d) Gibbon
5) Red Data Book for plants and animals is published by
a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
b) United Nations Environmental Programme (UNEP)
c) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
d) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 187 -2- *SLRSO189*
6) ________ is a famous bird from mauritius that went extinct due to human
pressure.
a) Dodo b) Elephant Bird
c) Moa d) Passenger Pigeon
7) Sanjay Gandhi National Park is located at ________ in Maharashtra.
a) Pune b) Thane, Mumbai
c) Amravati d) Chandrapur
8) _______ is an International NGO involved in environmental conservation.
a) Greenpeace
b) BNHS
c) Kalpavriksha
d) People for Animal
9) Great Indian Bustard is a ______ species.
a) Endangered b) Critically Endangered
c) Vulnerable d) Extinct
10) Highest population of Great Indian Bustard is found in ______ state in
India.
a) Gujarat b) Maharashtra
c) Rajasthan d) Andhra Pradesh
11) Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD) is located at
a) Bangalore b) Pune c) Hyderabad d) New Delhi
12) Dr. Salim Ali, the birdman of India was associated with
a) NCBS, Bangalore b) BNHS, Mumbai
c) Wll, Dehradun d) CDFD, Hyderabad
13) ________ is related to biodiversity informatics.
a) NCBI b) GBIF
c) DDBJ d) Gen Bank
14) ________ is the major contributor to green house effect.
a) CFC b) Methane
c) CO2 d) NO2
Set P
*SLRSO189* -3- SLR-SO – 187
1) Global Warming.
2) Ecosystem Diversity.
3) Ethical values of biodiversity.
4) Sacred Groves.
5) Extinction.
1) Shannon Diversity Index.
2) Habitat fragmentation and its impact on biodiversity.
3) Molecular markers and their use in biodiversity conservation.

1) Discuss the impact of climate change on environment.
2) Explain captive breeding as a method of biodiversity conservation with
examples.
3) Discuss human-wildlife conflict with reference to tiger in India.
1) Discuss scope and constraints of biodiversity science.
2) Discuss with examples the role of NGOs in conservation of biodiversity.

1) Discuss with suitable example national parks in Maharashtra.
2) Explain in brief causes and consequence of habitat destruction on
biodiversity.
3) Elaborate with example the impact of invasive species on terrestrial
ecosystem.
1) Explain importance of biodiversity informatics.
2) Discuss Western Ghats as biodiversity hotspots.

1) Discuss Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
2) Explain applications of remote sensing technology in biodiversity
conservation.
3) Discuss various natural and anthropogenic causes that contribute to climate
change.
___________ Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (CBCS – New ) Examination, 2018
mathematics
Special Paper – XII (A)
Partial Differential Equations

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) The equation x2zp + y2zq = xy is
a) semi-linear b) linear c) quasi-linear d) non-linear
2
 ∂z   ∂3z   ∂z 
2) The equation  ∂x  +  3  = 2x  ∂x  is of order
   ∂y   
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 0
3) The general solution of zp = x is
a) φ(x2 – z2, y) = 0 b) φ(x2 + z2, –y) = 0
c) φ(x + z, y) = 0 d) φ(x – z, y) = 0
4) If the number of arbitrary constants is equal to number of independent
variables then by elimination of arbitrary constant we get
a) more than one p.d.e. of order one
b) unique p.d.e. of order one
c) p.d.e. of order greater than one
d) none of these
5) Eliminate arbitrary constant a and b from z = (x – a2) + (y – b)2. Then partial
differential equation is
a) p2 + q2 = 4z b) p2 + q2 = z c) p2 – q2 = z d) p2 – q2 = 4z
6) The integral which does not contains an arbitrary constant is called
a) complete integral b) singular integral
c) general integral d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 188 -2- *SLRSO188*
7) The equation z = px + qy + F(p, q) is form of

a) Standard form (I) b) Standard form (IV)
c) Ctairaut’s form d) None of these
8) The complete integral of p2 + q2 = 1 is
a) z = ax + y 1 − a2 + c b) z = ax + y 1 + a2 + c
c) z = ax + y(1 – a2) + c d) z = ax + y (1 + a2) + c
9) Standard form – III of non-linear p.d.e. of order one is
a) f(p, q) = 0 b) f(p, q, z) = 0
c) f(p, q, x, z) = 0 d) f(p, q, y, z) = 0
10) The complete integral of F(p, q) = 0 is
a) z = ax + F(a)y + c b) z = ax– F(a)y + c
c) z = ax + by + c d) none of these
∂2z ∂2z
11) The solution of 2 − 2 = 0 is
∂x ∂y
a) z = φ1(y + 1) + φ2(y – 1) b) z = φ1(y + x) + φ2(y – x)
c) z = φ1(y) + φ2(x) d) None of these

12) The P.I of (D2 – 6DD′ + 9D′2)z = 6x + 2y is
a) P.I = x2(3x + y) b) P.I. = x2 (6x + 2y)

2
c) P.I = x (3x + y ) d) None of these
2
13) When F(x, y) is of the form xm.yn. If n < m should be expanded in power of
D D′
a) ′ b) D c) DD′ d) None of these
D
14) The P.I of (D – D′) (D + D′ + 1)z = e2x + 3y is
1
a) P.I = e2x + 3y b) P.I = 6 e2x + 3y
6
1
c) P.I = − e2x + 3y d) P.I = –6 e2x + 3y
6
1) Eliminating h and k from the equation (x – h) + (y – k) = λ .
2 2 2
2) Solve py + qx = xyz2 (x2 – y2).

3) Show that the differential equation p = x2 – ay, q = y2 – ax are compatible.
4) Find singular integral of the equation z = px + qy + log (pq).
5) Solve (D3 – 4D2D′ + 4DD′2)z = 0.
Set P
*SLRSO188* -3- SLR-SO – 188

1) Solve r – s + p = 1.
2) Find the complete integral of zpq = p + q.
3) Solve z(x + y)dx + z(x – y)q = x2 + y2.

1) Solve (x2 – y2 – z2)p + 2xyq = 2xz.
2) Explain the method of solving the equation of the form f1(x, p) = f2(y, q).
3) Solve (D2 – 6DD′ + 9D′2)z = 12x2 + 36xy.
1) Explain Lagrange’s method of solving Pp + Qq = R where P, Q, R are
functions of x, y, z.
2) Find a complete integral of px + qy = pq by using Charpits method.

1) Derive the partial differential equation by elimination arbitrary function φ
from the equation φ(u, v) = 0 where u and v are function of x, y, z.
2) Show that the equations xp = yq and z(xp + yq) = 2xy are compatible
and solve them.
3) Solve (D – 3D′ – 2)2z = 2e2x.sin (y + 3x).
1) Show that the solution of (D – mD′)2z = 0 is z = φ1(y + mx) + xφ2(y + mx).
2) Solve (x2 – yz)p + (y2 – zx)q = z2 – xy.

1) If f(DD′) be homogeneous function of D and D′ of degree n, if f(ab) ≠ 0 then
1 1
prove that φn(ax + by) = φ (ax + by) .
f(DD′) f(ab)
2) Explain the Charpits method of solving the partial differential equation
f(x, y, z, p, q) = 0 where x and y are independent variable and p = ∂z , q = ∂z .
∂x ∂y
3) Find the integral surface of the partial differential equation
(x –y)p + (y – x – z)q = z through the circle z = 1, x2 + y2 = 1.
__________________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

Mathematics (Special Paper – XII) (Elective – B)
Mathematical Analysis
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


x−4
 , x≠4
1) If the function f ( x ) =  x − 4 , then the right hand limit at x = 4 of
 0 , x=4

f(x) is ___________
a) 1 b) –1 c) 0 d) does not exist
sin x
2) lim + = _____________
x→0 x
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) ∞
3) A function f is said to have discontinuity of the first kind at x = c if
____________
a) if lim f ( x ) and lim f ( x ) both exist but are not equal.

x → c− x → c+
b) if lim f ( x ) exists but is not equal to f(c)

x → c−
c) if neither lim f ( x ) nor lim f ( x ) exists

−
x→c x → c+
d) lim f ( x ) does not exist

x → c−
4) If f is continuous on [a, b] and f(x) ∈ [a, b], for every x ∈ [a, b] then f has a
fixed point c ∈ [a, b] such that f(c) = c is called __________
a) Intermediate value theorem b) Rolle’s theorem
c) Bolzano wierstrass theorem d) Fixed point theorem
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 189 -2- *SLRSO189*
5) If f is derivable at c and f(c) ≠ 0 then the function 1/f is also derivable there
at, and ___________
 1 ′ f ′ (c)  1 ′ 1
a)   c = − b)   c = −
 f f (c)  f {f ′ (c )}
2
 1 ′ 1 −f ′ (c)
c)   c = d)
{ } {f (c )}
2
 f f ( c )
2
6) If a function f is derivable on a closed interval [a, b] and f′(a), f′(b) are of

opposite signs then there exists at least one point c between a and b such
that ___________
a) f′(c) > 0 b) f′(c) < 0 c) f′(c) = 0 d) f(c) = k
7) If f′ exists and is bounded on some interval I, then f is ___________
a) continuous but not uniformly on I
b) Uniformly continuous on I
c) Not continuous on I
d) Not uniformly bounded
8) The range of the values of x for which the function x3 – 6x2 – 36x + 7 increases
with x is ____________
a) 2 < x < 6 b) –6 < x < 2
c) x < – 2 and x > 6 d) x < 2
hn (1 − θ )
n−1
9) The term Rn = fn ( a + θh) is called ___________

(n − 1) !
a) Rolles form of remainder b) Lagranges form of remainder
c) Cauchy’s form of remainder d) Roche form of remainder
xn
10) The series ∑ n converges for ___________
a) x = 1 b) –1 c) | x | < 1 d) | x | > 1
11) The exponential function E(1) is ___________
a) 1 b) ∞ c) –∞ d) e
12) lim− tan x = __________
x→ π
2
a) –1 b) 1 c) ∞ d) –∞
Set P
*SLRSO189* -3- SLR-SO – 189
13) for the function f (x) = 3x2 – 2x3, for –2 ≤ x ≤ 2. V (f, –2, 1) = _________
a) 28 b) 29 c) 2 d) 14
14) If f and g are of bounded variation then ____________
a) V (f ± g, a, b) ≤ V (f, a, b) + V (g, a, b)
b) V (f ± g, a, b) ≥ V (f, a, b) + V (g, a, b)
c) V (f ± g, a, b) = V (f, a, b) ± V (g, a, b)
d) V (f ± g, a, b) = +V (f, a, b) + V (g, a, b)

 1
1) Prove that lim x sin   = 0 .
x→0  x
2) For the function f defined on R by
f ( x ) = x if 0 ≤ x < 1
= 1 if x ≥ 1
Show that f′(1) does not exist.
3) Prove that sinx is uniformly continuous on [0, ∞).
4) Define the term functions of bounded variation for vector-valued
functions.
5) Compute the total variation functions of f where f(x) = [x] – x (0 ≤ x ≤ 2).
1) Show that a function of bounded variation is necessarily bounded.
tan x x π
2) Show that > , for 0 < x < .
x sin x 2
3) If f′ exists and is bounded on [a, b] then show that f is of bounded variation
on [a, b].

1) Prove that a function which is derivable at a point is necessarily continuous
at that point.
2) Assuming the validity of expansion, show that
1 1 4
log sec x = x 2 + x + ...
2 12
3) Prove that the product of two functions of bounded variation is also of
bounded variation.
Set P
SLR-SO – 189 -4- *SLRSO189*

1) State and prove Cauchy’s mean value theorem.
2) If a vector valued function f, with domain [a, b] and range a subset of
Rm, is of bounded variation on [a, b] then show that Vf(x) is continuous at
c ∈ [a, b] if and only if f is continuous at c.

1) If f and g are two functions defined on some neighbourhood of c such that
lim f ( x ) = l and lim g ( x ) = m then prove that lim  f ( x ) + g ( x ) = l + m .
x→c x→c x→c
2) Prove Taylor’s theorem with Cauchy’s form of remainder by taking the

last term of φ(x) as A (a + h – x).
3) State and prove Jordan theorem.
1
1) Show that the function f ( x ) = is not uniformly continuous on (0, 1].
x
2) A twice differentiable function f is such that f(a) = f(b) = 0 and f(c) > 0,
for a < c < b. Prove that there is at least one value ξ between a and b for
which f″(ξ) < 0.

1) If a function f is continuous on a closed interval [a, b] and f(a) and f(b) are
of opposite signs then show that there exists at least one point α ∈] a, b [
such that f(α) = 0.
2) Prove that there exists a positive number π such that c(π/2) = 0 and
c(x) > 0, for 0 ≤ x < π/2.
3) Assuming f ′′ to be continuous on [a, b], show that
b−c c−a 1
f ( c ) − f (a ) − f (b ) = ( c − a ) ( c − b ) f ′′ ( ξ ) where c and ξ
b−a b−a 2
both lie in [a, b].
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
(Special Paper – XII) – Statistics (CBCS Pattern) (New)
Operations Research

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

ii) Use of simple or scientific calculator is allowed.
iv) Graph papers will be supplied if required.
1. Select most correct alternative : 14

i) In a LPP feasible solution satisfies ____________
a) only constraints b) only non-negative restriction
c) a) and b) both d) a), b) and optimum solution
ii) In graphical method for solving a LPP the restriction on number of
constraint is _____________
a) 2 b) 3
c) not more than 3 d) none of these
iii) The feasible region of a L.P.P. has four extreme points : A(0, 0), B(1, 1),
C(0, 1) and D(1, 0). Optimal solution for maximization problem with the
objective function z = 2x – 2y is __________
a) a unique solution at C
b) a unique solution at D
c) an alternate solution at a line segment between A and B
d) an unbounded solution
iv) In linear programming problem, most popular non-graphical procedure is
classified as
a) linear procedure b) non-graphical procedure
c) graphical procedure d) simplex method
v) From the following methods _______________ is a method to obtain
initial solution to transportation problem.
a) North-West b) Hungarian
c) Simplex d) Newton Raphson
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 190 -2- *SLRSO190*
vi) In a balanced transportation problem where supply equals demand,

a) all constraints are equalities
b) none of the constraints are equalities
c) all constraints are inequalities
d) none of these
vii) An assignment problem is considered as a particular case of transportation
problem, because
a) all the rim conditions are 1
b) all Xij are either 1 or 0
c) the number of rows equals columns
d) all of these
viii) In assignment problem he minimum number of lines covering all zeros in
a reduced cost matrix of order m can be
a) at the most m b) m
c) at the least m d) 2m
ix) In sequencing problem the time during which a machine does not have a
job to process is known as ___________
a) an elapsed time b) a busy time
c) an idle time d) none of these
x) The procedure for solving the sequencing problem is known as ________
a) S. M. John’s algorithm b) S. M. Johnson’s algorithm
c) S. M. Johny’s algorithm d) None of these
xi) A strategy that may be chosen by the decision maker is known as _________
a) a state of nature b) a decision alternative
c) a payoff d) none of these
xii) Maximax decision making criteria is used under the environment ________
a) uncertainty b) certainty
c) risk d) none of these
xiii) __________ is considered to be a numerical computation technique used
in conjunction with dynamic mathematical models.
a) analysis b) system simulation
c) dynamic computation d) none of these
xiv) Monte Carlo is
a) a technique fo r modeling b) a technique for simulation
c) a person d) a company brand
Set P
*SLRSO190* -3- SLR-SO – 190

i) Define a L.P.P.
ii) Define a slack variable.
iii) When is a solution of a transportation problem said to be a degenerate
one ?
iv) Define an assignment problem.
v) What is a payoff in decision making problem ?
i) What is decision making under uncertainty ?
ii) Convert the following L.P.P. in its standard form :
Maximize z = 30x1 + 20x2
subject to :
x1 + x2 ≥ – 4
x1 – x2 ≤ 2
and x1, x2 ≥ 0.
iii) What is a sequencing problem ?

i) Write the mathematical form of a transportation problem.
ii) Explain EVPI in decision making.
iii) Write the definition and properties of random numbers.
i) Explain the procedure of finding optimum sequence of processing n
jobs on 2 machines sequencing problem.
ii) Write a procedure of North-West corner method.

i) Explain the steps of decision making.
ii) Give the procedure of generating random observations from binomial
distribution.
iii) Find the IBFS of the following LPP :
Max Z = x1 + x2
subject to
x1 + x2 ≤ 1 3x1 + x2 ≥ 3
x1 ≥ 0 x2 ≥ 0.
Set P
SLR-SO – 190 -4- *SLRSO190*
i) Suggest the best strategy using the maximin criteria for the following
decision making problem :
Payoff (profits) table
Strategies States of nature
S1 S2 S3 S4
D1 20 15 12 –3
D2 15 8 7 10
D3 5 10 15 12
ii) Give the steps involved in minimax regret criterion.
i) Solve the following LPP graphically.
Max Z = x1 + x2
subject to
x1 + x2 ≤ 1 3x1 + x2 ≥ 3
x1 ≥ 0 x2 ≥ 0.
ii) Find initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem
using Vogel’s approximation method and test whether it is an optimum
solution using MODI method.
D1 D2 D3 D4 Availability
O1 23 27 16 18 30
O2 12 17 20 51 40
O3 22 28 12 32 53
Requirement 22 35 25 41
iii) Find the optimal sequence in performing the following five jobs on three
machines in order M1M2M3. Processing times (in hours) are given in the
following table :
Job 1 2 3 4 5
Machine M1 8 10 6 7 11
Machine M2 5 6 2 3 4
Machine M3 4 9 8 6 5
Also find minimum total elapsed time and idle times for all machines.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Statistics (Special Paper – XII) (New CBCS Pattern)
(Elective)
Regression Analysis
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

ii) Use of scientific calculators is allowed.

1) In a simple linear regression model, least square estimate of slop parameter
β1 is given by
Sxy S S2 S2
a) b) xx c) xy d) xx
S xx S xy S xx Sxy
2) In a simple linear regression model, standard error of β̂1 is given by
σ σ2 S σ
a) b) c) xy2 d)
Sxx Sxx σ Sxx
3) In a simple linear regression model, estimate of variance σ2 is given by
a) MSR b) MSres c) SSR d) SSres
4) An outlier is indicated by
a) large value of MSres b) large studentized residual
c) small Cp statistic d) large value of R2
5) In a simple linear regression model, estimate of β0 is given by
a) Y − βˆ 1 X b) X − βˆ 1 Y c) Y + βˆ 1 X d) X + βˆ 1 Y
6) The variation of y values around the regression line is expressed as
a) Σ (yi − yˆ l )2 b) Σ (yi − y)2 c) Σ (yi + yˆ l )2 d) Σ (yi + y)2
7) For regression equation y = 5 – 2x, which of the following is true ?
a) the y intercept of the line is 2
b) the slop of the line is negative
c) the line represents positive association between y and x
d) the x intercept of the line is 2
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 191 -2- *SLRSO191*
8) In multiple regression model with p regressors E (SSres) is
a) (n – 2) σ2 b) (n – 1) σ2 c) (n – p) σ2 d) (n – p – 1) σ2
9) Coefficient of determination lies between
a) 0 and 1 b) – 1 and + 1 c) 0 and ∞ d) – ∞ and + ∞
10) Hat matrix is given by
a) X (X′X)–1 b) X′ (X′X)–1
c) X′ (X′X)–1X d) X (X′X)–1X
11) In the multiple linear regression model ________ statistic is used to test
the significance of regression.
a) χ2 b) t c) F d) Z
12) Covariance matrix of residual vector ‘e’ is given by
a) σ2I b) σ2 (H – I) c) σ2 (I – H) d) σ2 (X′X)–1
13) Studentized residual in a linear regression model is given by
MSres ei
a) b)
ei MSres
ei ei
c) d)
SSres (1− hii ) MSres (1− hii )
14) In regression model Y = β0 + β1X1 + β2X2 ; Y is independent of X2 if

a) β1 = 0, β2 = 0 b) β2 = 0
c) β2 = 1 d) β2 = – 1
2. A) Answer any four from the following. 8

1) Define residual ei.
2) State simple linear regression model. Also state its assumptions.
3) In simple linear regression model, state E (Y | X = x) and V (Y | X = x).
4) State multiple linear regression model with p repressors.
5) Interpret R2 = 0.99.
B) Write notes on any two of the following. 6

1) Logistic regression model and logit transformation.
2) Studentized residual ri and standardised residual di. Interpret di > 3.
3) Construction of confidence interval for σ2.
Set P
*SLRSO191* -3- SLR-SO – 191
1) In simple linear regression model obtain a) V (βˆ 0 ) and b) V (βˆ 1) .
()
2) For multiple linear regression model Y = Xβ+ ∈ , show that a) E βˆ = β
()
b) V βˆ = σ 2 (X′X)−1 .
– –
3) Let X = 25.6, Y = 34.1, SXX = 1114.4, SXY = 1393. Using this information,
fit a simple linear regression model. Also estimate the response variable
when X = 25.

1) Prove that matrix H and (I – H) are idempotent.
2) Describe test for individual regression coefficients in multiple linear
regression model.

1) In simple linear regression model, describe the construction of confidence
interval for β1.
2) In a simple linear regression model Y = β0 + β1X1 + ∈, with E (∈) = 0
and V (∈) = σ2 and ∈ are uncorrelated, show that E (MSres) = σ2.
ˆ = σ2H
3) In multiple linear regression model E (Y) = Xβ , show that V (Y)
where H is a hat matrix.

1) Describe the test of significance of regression in multiple linear regression
model.
2) In a simple linear regression model Y = β0 + β1X1 + ∈, with E (∈) = 0 and
V (∈) = σ2 and ∈ are uncorrelated, show that the least square estimators
β̂0 and β̂1 are linear combinations of observations.

1) In a simple linear regression model Y = β0 + β1X1 + ∈, with E (∈) = 0 and
V (∈) = σ2 and ∈ are uncorrelated, obtain estimators β̂0 and β̂1 by least
square principle.
2) In a simple linear regression model describe the procedure for construction
of confidence interval for β0 and σ2.
2
3) For a multiple linear regression model Y = Xβ+ ∈ with ∈ → Np + 1 (0, σ I n ) ,
i) Show that least square estimator of β is unbiased estimator
ii) Obtain V (βˆ ) . Set P
_______________
Seat
No. Set P

(New CBCS)
GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XII)
Applied Geology (Part – I)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Multiple choose questions : 14

1) Successive layers seen in vertical section of soil is called _____
a) soil zone b) soil texture c) soil profile d) none of these
2) Vesicular basalt shows _______________ porosity.
a) low b) high c) moderate d) none of these
3) The most efficient and rapid method of determination of sub-surface geology
is ______________
a) seismic method b) gravity method
c) magnetic method d) electric resistivity method
4) Which of the following has high crushing strength ?
a) Shale b) Vesicular basalt
c) Granite d) Limestone
5) ____________ drilling method is used for greater depth investigations.
a) Diamond b) Calyx
c) Steel bit d) None of these
6) Arch dams constructed when _________ rocks are strong.
a) parapet b) abutment
c) upstream d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 192 -2- *SLRSO192*
7) _____________ is a process of collection and recharge of rainwater within
bore well from rooftop in Urban areas.
a) Water spreading b) Rainwater harvesting
c) Flooding d) None of these
8) Strength of building stone mainly depends upon _____________
a) Mineral composition b) Texture
c) Structure d) All of these
9) RQD is poor where the rocks are ___________
a) compact b) jointed
c) massive d) none of these
10) Abutment is __________ surface of the valley upon which dam rests.
a) vertical b) sloping c) slippery d) horizontal
11) Most desirable condition for tunnel alignment through folds is ______
a) crest b) trough c) limbs d) axis
12) Hot springs of along Konkan coast are controlled by ____________
a) lineament b) foliation
c) bedding planes d) none of these
13) Upper surface of zone of saturation is called ____________
a) water table b) aquifer
c) aquiclude d) aquitard
14) Overflowing well can be __________
a) bore b) artesian well
c) aquitard d) all of these

1) What is Gravity Dam ?
2) Define tunnel.
3) Give any two names of dams in Maharashtra with their types.
4) What is secondary porosity ?
5) Define groundwater.
Set P
*SLRSO192* -3- SLR-SO – 192
1) Permeability
2) Rock Quality Designation (RQD)
3) Tunnels in Bore Ghat.

1) Explain desirable and undesirable conditions for dams on inclined beds.
2) Describe any two methods of ground water recharge.
3) Explain Reservoir Induced Seismicity (RIS) with case study.
1) Explain ground water basins.
2) Use of satellite imageries and GIS in selection of engineering site.
4. A) Answer the following questions (any two) 10

1) Write a note on – Electric Resistivity Method
2) Write a note on – Types of Springs.
3) Explain different sources of ground water.
1) Describe Siltation Process with controlling measures.
2) Write a note on – Hydrological cycle.

1) Define aquifer. Describe any two types of aquifers.
2) What is groundwater fluctuation ? Describe the causes of groundwater
fluctuations.
3) Define tunnels. Explain tunneling through joints.
______________
Set P
Code -4- **
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

(CBCS) (New)
Geology (Special Paper – XII)
Crystallography and Optical Mineralogy
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) If the centre of symmetry is present in the crystal, the opposite edges, solid
angles and faces are at _______ distances from it.
a) odd b) unequal
c) double d) equal
2) Galena type system crystals shows __________ horizontal plane of
symmetry.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1
3) The number of vertical planes of symmetry in Beryl of Hexagonal System
are _______
a) 6 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1
4) Indices for Macro-Pinacoid is _______
a) (110) b) (101) c) (111) d) (100)
5) Vertical, ‘wall like’ faces parallel to C axis are of _______
a) pyramids b) prisms
c) domes d) clino-pinacoids
6) There are ______ faces to Hemiprism.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1
7) Hexagonal pyramid has _______ faces.
a) 6 b) 12 c) 24 d) 21
8) If the isogyre is single and parallel to any one of the cross wire, it is _______
mineral.
a) uniaxial b) biaxial
c) cannot be said surely d) positive
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 193 -2- *SLRSO193*
9) Quartz is ________ mineral.
a) coloured b) pleochroic
c) non-pleochroic d) isotropic
10) Measure of the bending of a ray of light when passing from one medium
into another is
a) refractive index b) relief
c) colour d) cleavage
11) If blue colour appears in 2nd and 4th quadrants, the mineral shows _____
optic sign.
a) negative b) positive
c) neutral d) biaxial
12) In crossed nicol condition, if the mineral shows change in colour, it
shows
a) interference colour b) pleochroism
c) isotropism d) opeque
13) In eye field, only one isogyre appears in any one of the quadrants, the
mineral is definitely
a) biaxial b) negative
c) positive d) uniaxial
14) Change in the colour of mineral UPL condition of microscope means
a) isotropic b) extinction
c) interference colour d) pleochroism

i) Define prism.
ii) Define Hemi-orthodome.
iii) How many planes of symmetry are present in Triclinic system crystals ?
iv) What is optic sign ?
v) What is relief ?
B) Answer any two of the following. 6

i) Describe Tetra Hexahedron.
ii) Describe shadow method.
iii) Describe RI of Staurolite, Chlorite and Augite.
Set P
*SLRSO193* -3- SLR-SO – 193
i) Describe planes of symmetry of a Cube.
ii) Describe Hemi-brachydome.
iii) Describe settings of microscope needed for determination of optic
sign.
B) Write answer of any one of the following. 6

i) Describe Cube and Octahedron. Draw related diagrams.
ii) Describe conditions of settings of microscope and process of determination
of interference colours of minerals.

i) Describe elements of symmetry of Tetragonal system crystal. Describe
Tetragonal prism of first order. Draw diagrams.
ii) Describe relief of mineral in detail. Draw diagrams.
iii) Describe Uniaxial and Biaxial mineral optic indicatrix. Draw diagrams.
B) Answer any one of the following. 4

i) Define Tris-octahedron and Hexoctahedron in detail. Draw related
diagrams.
ii) Describe pleochroism and absorption with related examples and
diagrams.

i) Describe Law of constancy of interfacial angle. Add note on Contact
Goniometer.
ii) Describe parts of crystal. Add note on the Open and Closed forms of
crystal.
iii) Describe optic indicatrix and isogyres. Draw related diagrams.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
Microbiology (Special Paper – XII)
Industrial Microbiology – I
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer from given alternatives: 14
i) Incubation period for streptomycin production is __________ days.
a) 1 – 2 b) 5 – 7
c) 15 – 20 d) 25 – 30
ii) ______ can be produced by rDNA technology.
a) Vit. B12 b) Streptomycin
c) Lysine d) Insulin
iii) __________ is an example of perishable food.
a) Milk b) Onion
c) Potato d) Sugar
iv) __________ is an example of soft cheese.
a) Swiss b) Cheddar
c) Cottage d) Roquefort
v) ________ is recovered by distillation process.
a) Ethanol b) Penicillin
c) Streptomycin d) Vit. B12
vi) __________ is an example of food poisoning.
a) Salmonellosis b) Shigellosis
c) Botulism d) Cholera
vii) __________ gives aroma and bitterness in beer.
a) Malt b) Hops
c) Yeast d) Adjunct
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 194 -2- *SLRSO194*
viii) In gel filtration chromatography, molecules are separated on the basis of
a) Size b) Molecular weight
c) Shape d) Structure
ix) Bruce Ames test is used for _______ testing.
a) Allergy b) Toxicity
c) Carcinogenicity d) Pyrogenicity
x) _________ is used for pretreatment of must during wine fermentation.
a) CO2 b) HCl
c) H2SO4 d) SO2
xi) Canning is method of food
a) Transportation b) Preservation
c) Spoilage d) Harvesting
xii) Corynebacterium glutamicum is used for production of
a) Streptomycin b) L-Iysine c) Insulin d) Vit. B12
xiii) Ropiness in milk is developed by contamination with
a) Clostridium perfringens
b) Vibrio cholerae
c) Alcaligenes viscolactis
d) Lactobacillus bulgaricus.
xiv) Beer is produced by using
a) Grape juice b) Molasses
c) Whey d) Barley Malt

1) Give the types of Beer.
2) Define Pasteurisation.
3) List the organism involved in curd formation.
4) What is whole broth processing ?
5) Give the examples of nonperishable foods.
1) Toxicity testing.
2) Spoilage of meat.
3) Solvent extraction in downstream processing.
Set P
*SLRSO194* -3- SLR-SO – 194

1) Production of Bread.
2) Spoilage of milk.
3) Food poisoning.
1) Production of white table wine
2) Production of yogurt.

1) Allergy and toxicity testing.
2) Production of Insulin.
3) L-Iysine production.
1) Spoilage of fruits and vegetables.
2) Chromatography for recovery of product.

1) Describe in detail streptomycin production.
2) Explain various methods of food preservation.
3) Describe in detail manufacture of cheese.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
microbiology (Special Paper – XII)
Industrial Microbiology – II
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answers from given

alternatives. 14
i) Vitamin B12 contains ____________ in its structure.
a) Iron b) Calcium c) Aluminium d) Cobalt
ii) Alpha amylase randomly splits ___________ band linkage.
a) α– 1,4 glycosidic b) Peptide
c) Hydrogen d) α–1,6 glycosidic
iii) ____________ is used in medium during citric acid production by Koji
process.
a) SWL b) Wheat bran c) Whey d) CSL
iv) _____________ is acting as leavening agent in bread.
a) Salt b) Sugar c) Yeast d) Protein
v) ____________ is an example of soft cheese.
a) Limberger b) Cheddar c) Stilton d) Roquefort
vi) Cell lysis is an important operation when product is ___________
a) Thermo labile b) Intracellular c) Soluble d) Toxic
vii) Contamination in fermentation is due to ____________
a) Acids b) Alkalis
c) Sterile media d) Negative pressure
viii) The cost which incur to pay for personal working in any industry at all level
is called __________ cost.
a) Selling b) Production c) Labor d) Maintenance
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 195 -2- *SLRSO195*
ix) Black gram is used in production of __________
a) Idli b) Bread c) Curd d) Cheese
x) Adsorption chromatography separates molecules due to their ___________
for the surface of a solid matrix.
a) Solubility b) Differential affinities
c) Size d) Structure
xi) _______________ sterilization is the best suitable method for sterilization
of fermentor and pipelines.
a) filtre b) Chemical c) Burning d) Heat
xii) For yogurt production lactobacillus bulgaricus and ____________ is used
as culture.
a) lactobacillus lactis b) Streptococcus fecalis
c) Streptococcus thermophilus d) Lactobacillus brevis
xiii) ____________ fungi is used for amylase production.
a) Bacillus subtilis b) Aspergillus oryzae
c) Penicillium niger d) Bacillus amylolyticus
xiv) ________________ organism is used as design organism for sterilization
program.
a) B. Stearothermophilus b) B. Subtilis
c) B. Cereus d) B. Anthracis

1) Give the types of Yogurt.
2) Give the media used for Vi+B12 production.
3) List the organism in Idli fermentation.
4) What is meaning of bioethics ?
5) What is meaning of whole broth processing ?
1) Filtration methods in recovery of products.
2) Biosafety measures in fermentation industry.
3) Production of Idli.
Set P
*SLRSO195* -3- SLR-SO – 195
1) Describe the production of Yogurt.
2) Explain control of contamination during fermentation.
3) Describe amylase production.
1) Describe manufacture of cheese.
2) Production of bread.

1) Describe methods of sterilization of bioreactor.
2) Describe in detail bioethics.
3) Describe recovery of product by precipitation.
1) Recovery of product by solvent extraction.
2) Explain the sterilization of fermentation media.

1) Describe the various types of chromatographic methods used for product
recovery.
2) Describe various factors affecting fermentation economics.
3) Write an essay on Vitamin B12 production.

___________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (CBCS New) Examination, 2018

ELECTRONICS
(Special Paper – XII) : Biomedical Electronics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Answer all questions.

1. Choose correct answer. 14

1) The human body has contains ________ type of system.
a) Electrical b) Mechanical c) Chemical d) All of these
2) The ________ mV is the resting potential of the cell.
a) + 20 b) + 90 c) – 90 d) – 20
3) The cell membrane in depolarization state ________ ions rushes into the
cell.
a) K+ b) Cl+ c) Na+ d) p+
4) The biopotential generated by the muscles of heart is
a) Electrocardiogram b) Electromyogram
c) Electroencephalogram d) Electrogastrogram
5) The ___________ Volt is the silver electrode potential with respect to the
hydrogen.
a) + 0.799 b) 0.000 c) – 0.799 d) ± 0.0799
6) The ___________ electrode is used to measure the bioelectric potentials
near or within cell.
a) Needle b) Skin surface
c) Micro d) All of these
7) The film of __________ jelly or paste used to allow the good contact between
the skin and surface electrode.
a) resistive b) conductive
c) inductive d) capacitive
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 196 -2- *SLRSO196*
8) In case of ECG lead, the electrode on the _________ is used only for
ground reference.
a) left arm b) right arm c) left leg d) right leg
9) The basic modes of ultrasound transmission are
a) four b) three c) two d) five
10) The isolation amplifier is commonly used for getting protection against
__________ current.
a) saturation b) leakage
c) reverse d) source
11) For biophysical measurements __________ amplifier is used.
a) ac/dc universal b) transducer
c) dc d) all of these
12) The magnitude of noise signals is directly proportional to the signal
source
a) voltage b) current
c) impedance d) both a and b
13) The _________ picture is called a radiograph.
a) alpha ray b) X-ray c) gamma ray d) beta ray
14) The pattern of EEG electrodes on the head and the channels these
electrodes are connected to is called
a) orbit b) selector c) montage d) placement
2. A) Answer any four questions. 8

1) Write the Nernst equation for bioelectric measurements.
2) Write the basic frequencies of the EEG signal.
3) Draw the neat labelled diagram of pad electrode.
4) Draw the neat labelled ECG waveforms.
5) Draw the neat labelled diagram of A-scan ultrasound display.
B) Answer any two questions. 6

1) What is preamplifier ?
2) Explain the Pulsed Doppler mode of transmission of ultrasound.
3) Explain the limb electrode.
3. A) Answer any two questions. 8

1) Explain the waveform of action potential.
2) Explain the floating electrode.
3) Explain the instrumentation amplifier for bioelectric potentials.
Set P
*SLRSO196* -3- SLR-SO – 196
B) Answer any one question. 6
1) Explain the silver-silver chloride electrode.
2) Explain the micropipette electrode.
4. A) Answer any two questions. 10

1) Explain the resting and action potential with neat labelled diagram.
2) Explain the basic architecture of the medical instrumentation system.
3) Explain the measurement of biopotentials with two electrode.
B) Answer any one question. 4

1) Explain the differential amplifier for bioelectric potentials.
2) Explain the EMG block diagram.
5. Answer any two questions. 14

1) Describe the ECG monitoring system with neat labelled diagrams.
2) Explain the properties of ultrasound for ultrasonic measurements.
3) Explain the optically isolated amplifier for biomedical instrumentation.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester –V) (CBCS New) Examination, 2018
Electronics (Special Paper – XII)
Electronics Communication

i) DSB is obtained by suppressing
a) Modulating signal b) Carrier signal
c) Unwanted signal d) None
ii) A 100 MHz carrier is FM modulated by 5 KHz sine wave. If resulting FM
signal has frequency deviation of 50 KHz, the modulation index is
a) 0.1 b) 10 c) 1 d) 250
iii) Data communication that takes place in two directions is ________
system.
a) Simplex b) Duplex c) Multiplex d) Triplex
iv) In communication unwanted signal is called _________ signal.
a) Modulated b) Demodulated
c) Noise d) Carrier
v) The standard IF for FM receiver is
a) 10.7 MHz b) 455 KHz c) 4.5 MHz d) 75 KHz
vi) Line of sight communication takes by ________ wave.
a) Ground b) Sky c) Direct d) Surface
vii) In isotropic antenna radiation efficiency is
a) More than one b) Less than one
c) Equal to one d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 197 -2- *SLRSO197*
viii) In digital TV communication aspect ratio is

a) 4 : 3 b) 16 : 9 c) 3 : 4 d) 9 : 16
ix) A carbon granules microphone is a variable ________ type.
a) Resistor b) Capacitor c) Inductor d) Carbon
x) _________ tone indicates that exchange is ready to accept the dialing.
a) Busy b) Ring c) Dial d) All of these
xi) ________ is an example of digital modulation.
a) ASK b) AM c) FM d) PM
xii) A super heterodyne receiver has input signal of 15 MHz. The local oscillator
is tuned to18.5 MHz. The IF is
a) 3.5 MHz b) 33.5 MHz c) 10.7 MHz d) 455 KHz
xiii) In TV communication picture signal is _________ modulated.
a) Frequency b) Phase c) Amplitude d) Pulse
xiv) Essential components of Yagi antenna is
a) Director, dipole, reflector b) Director, Dipole, Balloon
c) Director, Feed wire, Reflector d) Reflector, Director, Dc source

i) Write any four picture qualities in TV communication.
ii) Draw the general block diagram of electronic communication.
iii) What are characteristics of receiver ?
iv) For amplitude modulated wave Emax = 3.2 V, Emin = 1.8 V. Find
modulation index in percentage.
v) What are the tones used in Telephone communication ?
i) Need and importance of electronic communication.
ii) Need and importance of modulation.
iii) Concept of skip distance and virtual height.

i) Differentiate between AM and FM.
ii) Explain any four antenna characteristics.
iii) Explain principle of TV communication.
Set P
*SLRSO197* -3- SLR-SO – 197

i) Explain ratio detector.
ii) Explain how power is distributed in amplitude modulated wave.

i) Explain telephone hand set with necessary block diagram.
ii) What is super heterodyne principle ? Explain FM super heterodyne
receiver.
iii) What is radio wave propagation ? What are its types ? Explain sky wave
propagation.
i) Distinguish between DSB and SSB.
ii) Explain FM receiver with necessary block diagram.

i) Explain monochrome TV with necessary block diagram.
ii) Explain dish antenna.
iii) What is digital modulation ? What are its types ? Explain ASK and FSK.
_____________________
Set P

P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (CBCS) (New) Examination, 2018

Computer Science
Python (Special Paper – XII)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) ___________ is immutable object in python.

a) Tuple b) List
c) Dictionary d) Set
2) What is output of following code ?

S = [2, 3]
print(S*3)
a) 8,27 b) 6,9
c) [2,3,2,3,2,3] d) None of these
3) ___________ function overload + operator.

a) _add_ b) _plus_
c) _sum_ d) _info_
4) The else part of try----except----else statement be executed when

a) An exception occur
b) No exception occur
c) An exception catch by except block
d) Always
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 198 -2- *SLRSO198*
5) ___________ function of random module is used to generate random

number between specific range.
a) Randint b) Randomrange
c) Randomint d) Intrange
6) ___________exception occur when following code execute.

1st = [1,2,3, 4]
print (1st[4])
a) NameError b) ValueError
c) TypeError d) IndexError
7) ___________ function is used to read file line by line.
a) read() b) readline()
c) readlines() d) readstatement()
8) __________ function is used to check whether attribute is present or not in

the class.
a) hasattr b) isattr
c) classattr d) giveattr
9) __________ special character matches pattern only at beginning of the

string.
a) \ B b) \ X c) \ A d) \ Z
10) __________ is used to get current position within file (fp).

a) fp.seek b) fp.tell c) fp.loc d) fp.pos
11) Comments are given in python by using

a) # b) // c) /* */ d) $
12) Switch statement is present in python.

a) True b) False
13) __________ operator is overloaded by __invert__().

a) ! b) ~ c) ^ d) %
14) __________function is used to convert data from any type to string.
a) str b) string c) char d) ToString

Set P
*SLRSO198* -3- SLR-SO – 198

1) What is membership operator ? Explain with example.
2) Explain how to add Python path to system environment variables.
3) What is module ? Explain how to import module.
4) How to write multiline statements in python ?
5) Explain else suite in looping.

1) Explain different directory related operation with example.
2) What is use of type and id function ? Explain with example.
3) What is constructor ? Explain with example.

1) What is regular expression ? Explain its advantages and operations with
example.
2) Write python functions for reverse number and sum of digit.
3) Explain random module. Discuss at least 4 random module functions
with example.
1) Explain object oriented features in detail.

2) Write Python function which creates n text files having file names are
random number between 10000 and 99999 and write filenames into the
file.

1) What is operator overloading ? Write a program to overload any
3 operators.
2) Explain different control statements with example.
3) What is user define exception ? Explain how to create user define
exception with example.
Set P
SLR-SO – 198 -4- *SLRSO198*

1) What is use of math module ? Explain at least 4 functions in math
module.
2) Explain dictionary comprehension with example.

1) What are different types of parameter passed to function ? Explain with
example.
2) What are different features of Python programming language ? Explain in
detail.
3) What is difference between List and Tuple ? Explain Slicing and Negative
indexing of list with example.

_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

COMPUTER SCIENCE (Special Paper – XII)
SOFTWARE TESTING
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) Testing beyond normal operational capacity is
a) Load testing b) Performance testing
c) Stress testing d) All of these
2) Test plans are based on
a) Project Plan b) Business Plan
c) Support Plan d) All of these
3) Equivalence Partioning comes under which type of testing ?
a) White Box Testing b) Black Box Testing
c) Grey Box Testing d) None of the above
4) Which of the following are the objectives of software testing ?
a) Determines that software product satisfy specified requirements
b) Demonstrate that software products are fit for use
c) Detect defects
d) All the above
5) System testing is a
a) Black box testing b) White box testing
c) Grey box testing d) Both a and b
6) Which of the following statements is not true ?
a) Acceptance Testing determines if system is ready for release
b) Acceptance Testing checks whether system meets needs and
expectations
c) Acceptance Testing helps to find defects in system
d) Acceptance Testing is responsibility of user
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 199 -2- *SLRSO199*
7) Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done
in-house ?
a) Alpha b) Beta c) Gamma d) Theta
8) Who performs the acceptance testing ?
a) Software Developer b) End users
c) Testing team d) Systems engineers
9) What is the main purpose of integration testing ?
a) Design errors b) Interface errors
c) Procedure errors d) None of the above
10) Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under which
type of testing ?
a) Integration testing b) Validation testing
c) Unit testing d) None of the above
11) User acceptance testing is
a) White box testing b) Black box testing
c) Gary box testing d) None of the above
12) Which one is not structural testing ?
a) Regression b) Parallel c) Acceptance d) Stress
13) Testing comes under which category of cost of quality ?
a) Preventive b) Appraisal
c) Failure d) None of the above
14) Function point is measure of
a) Effort b) Complexity c) Usability d) Size

1) What is smoke testing ?
2) Define loop testing.
3) Define condition testing.
4) What do you mean by non incremental integration testing ?
5) Give any two characteristics of good test cases.
B) Write a notes on (any two). 6

1) Spiral Model
2) ‘V’-Model
3) Performance testing.
Set P
*SLRSO199* -3- SLR-SO – 199
1) What is boundary value analysis ?
2) Explain in details what is regression testing.
3) How water fall model works ?

1) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the black box testing ?
2) How to prepare review report ?

1) Why black box testing is essential in software engineering ?
2) Explain how waterfall model and prototyping model can be accommodated
in the spiral process model.
3) What is software testing ? Explain its objectives.

1) Explain system testing in detail.
2) Differentiate among Bug, Defect, Failure and Error.

1) What is the white box testing ? Explain any three white box testing methods
with example.
2) What is test case ? Explain any six elements present in a good test case
design.
3) Describe the phases of SDLC in detail.
_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
English (Compulsory) (Old) (CGPA)
Breakthrough

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. A) Choose the correct alternative : 10

1) The opinions Shaw expresses in Church, School and Press prove that
Shaw is a
a) Capitalist b) Anarchist
c) Socialist d) Populist
2) According to G. B. Shaw, our society must be judged, not by its few ____,
but by its millions of obedient subjects.
a) Patriots b) Peasants
c) Journalists d) Rebels
3) The Gettysburg Address was delivered by Abraham Lincoln in
a) 1863 b) 1862 c) 1865 d) 1864
4) Abraham Lincoln appeals to the people assembled at Gettysburg to
strengthen
a) Aristocracy b) Autocracy
c) Democracy d) Both democracy and aristocracy
5) In the poem “Abou Ben Adhem” an angel was writing in his golden book
the names of
a) Those who loved God
b) Those who hated God
c) Those who were rich
d) Those who worked hard
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 200 -2- *SLRSO200*
6) The poem “O Captain ! My Captain!” is written to mourn the death of
a) Poet’s father b) Abraham Lincoln
c) The captain of the ship d) Poet’s brother
7) Which of the following statements about women is not true ?
a) In the 19th Century women were encouraged to be an artist
b) Anonymity runs in the blood of women
c) A woman must have money and a room of her own if she is to write
fiction
d) Even in the 19 th century, women were slapped, lectured and
exhorted
8) According to Virginia Woolf, chastity had then a _____ importance in a
woman’s life.
a) Political b) Social
c) Economical d) Religious
9) The poem Abou Ben Adhem was written by
a) Lord Hunt b) Leigh Hunt
c) Walt Whitman d) Robert Browning
10) The captain does not answer because
a) He is busy in his work
b) He is fast asleep
c) His lips are pale and still
d) He could not hear properly
B) Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct modal auxiliary from
the brackets. 2
1) I _________ swim hours and hours. (can, could, may, should)
2) _______ you please give me a lift up to the police station ? (would, must,
might, shall)
C) Write the following sentences in indirect speech. 2

1) Reema said to Kavita, “What are you doing ?”
2) He said to us, “Let’s go home”.
Set P
*SLRSO200* -3- SLR-SO – 200
2. Answer any four of the following questions : 16
1) What are Shaw’s views on Press ?
2) What does G. B. Shaw say about the corruption in the field of education ?
3) Write a note on Abraham Lincoln’s address to the people assembled at the
Gettysburg.
4) What are the principles on which the American democracy was founded ?
5) How does society erode the talents of women writers ?
6) What are the immaterial conditions of life that hinder women’s talents as
writers ?

1) Write a note on the appropriateness of the title of poem O Captain ! My
Captain !!
2) What did Abou Ben Adhem see in his dream ?
3) Write a report on the send off ceremony of your class.
4) Write a report on your visit to National Park.

1) Prepare a presentation consisting of five charts or slides to promote a “Dish
Washer” in the market.
2) Write a presentation on the topic “Child Sexual Abuse” using charts,
transparencies or slides.
5. Write a transcript of group discussion on the topic “Lynching in India”. 14

_____________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (CGPA) (Old) Examination, 2018
Physics (Special Paper – VII)
Mathematical Physics and Statistical Physics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

i) Integration of a vector along a curve is called
a) Line integral b) Closed integral
c) Volume integral d) Surface integral
ii) In orthogonal curvilinear coordinate system, the coordinate surfaces are
mutually __________ everywhere.
a) Curved b) Parallel c) Perpendicular d) None of these
iii) If W is the probability of state of system then which of the following is the
statistical definition of entropy
a) S = kw b) S = k ln w c) S = ln k d) S = W ln k
iv) What is the volume of cell in phase space is
a) h b) h2 c) h3 d) h4
v) In spherical polar coordinate system, h3 is
a) cosθ b) sinθ c) r d) rsinθ
vi) Which of the following have dimensions of length ?
a) (h1, h2, h3) b) (r, θ, Φ) c) (u1, u2, u3) d) (h1, u1)
vii) The most probable speed for the molecules in assembly on Maxwell
Boltzmann distribution law is
2KT 3KT KT 3KT
a) v mp = b) v mp = c) v mp = d) v mp =
m 2m 2m m
viii) Maxwell Boltzmann statistics applicable to
a) He atoms b) Electrons
c) Bosons d) Gas molecules
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 201 -2- *SLRHO201*
ix) The ratio of most probable speed and average speed of gas molecule is
π π
a) π b) 4 c) 1 d)
2
x) The Bose-Einstein distribution law is
gi gi gi gi
a) ni = α ui/kT b) ni = α ui/kT c) ni = α ui/kT d) ni = α
e e +1 e e −1 e e e +1
xi) Which of the formula agrees well with the experimental results Lummer and
Pringsheim for all the frequencies ?
a) Wein’s formula b) Rayleigh’s Jean’s formula
c) Planck’s formula d) Wein’s displacement formula
xii) Fermi-Dirac distribution law is widely applied in the
a) Band theory of solids b) Free electrons theory of metals
c) Debye theory of specific heat d) Classical theory
xiii) Fermi-Dirac statistics is based on
a) Equipartition of energy b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
c) Classical theory d) Planck’s theory
xiv) According to Fermi-Dirac statistics the resulting electronic specific heat is
approximately given by
3  kT  2 U 
a) =   R b) 3 =  kT  UF c) 3 =  UF  R d) =  F  R
2  UF  2 R 2  kT  3  kT 
i) State Gauss divergence theorem with mathematical relation.
ii) Define : (i) Macrostate (ii) Microstate of a system.
iii) What do you mean by an ensemble ?
iv) For given volume V find ∫∫ r.ds where r is position vector.
v) What is phase space ?
i) Laplacian operator ∇2 in orthogonal curvilinear co-ordinates.
ii) Wien’s displacement law from Planck’s radiation formula.
iii) Concept of orthogonal curvilinear coordinates.

i) Describe microcanonical and canonical ensemble.
ii) Obtain the relation for average speed of gas molecules.
iii) Define thermodynamic probability. Obtain an expression for thermodynamic
probability.
Set P
*SLRHO201* -3- SLR-SO – 201

i) Compare M.B., B.E. and F.D. statistics.
ii) Deduce the functional relation between entropy and probability.

i) Derive Planck’s radiation formula in terms of frequency and
wavelength.
ii) What are the thermodynamic functions ? Express them in terms of
Boltzmann partition function.
iii) Derive an expression for Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution law.
i) If a blackbody at a temperature 6174°K emits 4700A° with maximum
energy, calculate the temperature at which it will emit a wavelength of
1.4×10–5m with maximum energy.
ii) Deduce Green’s theorem from Gauss Divergence theorem.

i) Obtain the expression for curl of vector field in orthogonal curvilinear
co-ordinates.
ii) State and prove Stoke’s theorem in vector field.
iii) Derive an expression for Fermi-Dirac distribution law.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (CGPA – Old) Examination, 2018

Chemistry
Physical Chemistry (Special Paper – VII)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

4) Use of logarithmic table/scientific calculator is allowed.

1) A liquid at its critical point have ___________ degree of freedom.
a) zero b) one c) two d) three
2) In case of one component system, in any area a system is ___________
a) invariant b) univariant c) bivariant d) trivariant
3) Simple meaning of eutectic point is easy ___________
a) boiling point b) melting point c) freezing point d) all of these
4) For a reaction that obeys Einstein’s law ___________
a) ∅ > 1 b) ∅ = 1 c) ∅ < 1 d) ∅ = 0
5) In most of the photochemical reactions, ∆G is ___________
c) zero d) remains constant
6) ISC means ___________
a) inter System Crossing
b) inter Solution Crossing
c) inter Solution Concentration
d) All of these
7) Photochemical reactions are ___________ of temperature.
a) independent b) dependent
c) constant d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 202 -2- *SLRSO202*
8) The standard electrode potential of Hydrogen electrode is ___________
a) 0.00 V b) 1.1 V c) 0.11 V d) –1.1V
9) Calomel electrode is example of ___________ electrode.
a) redox
b) metal-metal
c) amalgam
d) metal-insoluble salt
10) When temperature coefficient of the cell becomes zero, ∆G of the cell
reaction equal to ___________
a) ∆S b) zero c) ∆H d) one
11) At 0 K the cell potential is ___________
a) E° b) equal to zero
c) less than E° d) equal to 1 volt
12) The cell potential becomes equal to E° when reaction quotient is
a) 10 b) 20 c) 1 d) 100
13) Which electrolyte is not used for the preparation of salt bridge ?
a) KCl b) KNO3 c) NH4NO3 d) KOH
14) The equation, G = – nEcF, represent ___________
a) maximum work b) free energy
c) both a and b d) electric work

1) Give the two reasons for low quantum yield.
2) State Gibbs phase rule and give its mathematical equation.
3) Define :
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction.
4) Mention any two factors affecting single electrode potential.
5) Write electrode reaction and expression for potential of the electrode,
Cl–, AgCl(s)/Ag(s)
Set P
*SLRSO202* -3- SLR-SO – 202
1) Metal-metal ion electrode
2) Luminescence
3) Explain the terms :
a) True equilibria and
b) Metastable equilibria.

1) Explain in detail “Irreversible cells”.
2) Explain the application of phase rule to water system.
3) Write notes on “Photodimerisation of Anthracene”.

1) Discuss the application of emf measurements in
a) Determination of pH of solution
b) Determination of solubility product and solubility of sparingly soluble
salts.
2) What is the Chemiluminescence ? Explain the phenomenon with
suitable examples.

1) Derive an expression for emf of chemical cells without transference.
2) Discuss the application of phase rule to FeCl3-H2O system.
3) What are photochemical reactions ? How do they differ from dark
reactions ?

1) Calculate the emf of the electrode concentration cell,
Pt H2(g, P1)/HCl(aq)/H2(g P2), Pt at 298 K, if P1 = 600 torr and P2 = 400 torr.
Given : 2.303 RT/F = 0.0591.
2) When substance irradiated with light at 5000 A° wavelength, 1×10–4 moles
of it decomposed how many photons are absorbed during the reaction if
its quantum efficiency is 10 ?
Given N = 6.023�1023.
Set P
SLR-SO – 202 -4- *SLRSO202*
1) State Gibbs phase rule and explain the term involved in it.
2) The following cell is set up :
Zn(s)/Zn(NO3)2 (0.5N)//AgNO3(0.1N)/Ag(S).
The standard cell potential of Zn and Ag are – 0.76 and 0.8 volt respectively.
If Zn(NO3)2 and AgNO3 are dissociated to the extent of 50% and
80% respectively. What will be the emf of cell ?
Given : 2.303 RT/F = 0.0591 at 298 K.
3) The cell utilize the reaction,
Cl2(g, 1 bar) + 2I– (0.1 M) → 2Cl– (0.01 M) + I2(s)
a) Set up a cell
b) Calculate the emf of the cell
c) Is the reaction spontaneous as written ?
Given : E° Cl2 = 1.359 V E° l2 = 0.535 V 2.303 RT/F = 0.0590.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (Old CGPA) Examination, 2018

Botany
Special Paper – VII : Biology of Cryptogams
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Algae growing in saline water are called as _________
a) Halophytes b) Thermophytes
c) Parasites d) Lithophytes
2) Haplontic type life cycle of alga is dominated by _______
a) Gamophyte b) Sporophyte
c) Tetrasporophyte d) Both a) and b)
3) In Chara the female sex organ is called as _______
a) Globule b) Stipulodes c) Nucule d) Zygote
4) Chara belongs to division _________
a) Rhodophyta b) Cyanophyta c) Phaeophyta d) Chlorophyta
5) ___________ is an example of fresh water alga.
a) Chara b) Sargassum c) Ulva d) Caulerpa
6) Ectocarpus belongs to division _________
a) Chrysophyta b) Euglenophyta
c) Phaeophyta d) Pyrrophyta
7) Uncinula reproduced asexually by _________
a) Zoospores b) Conidia c) Oospores d) Aplanospores
8) Basidiocarp is the fruiting body of __________ species.
a) Chara b) Ectocarpus c) Polyporus d) Uncinula
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 203 -2- *SLRSO203*
9) Uncinula species causes __________ disease in teak.
a) Downey mildew b) Powdery mildew
c) Rust d) Smut
10) Uncinula is an
a) Facultative Parasite b) Facultative Saprophyte
c) Obligate Saprophyte d) Obligate Parasite
11) The mushrooms are very rich in ________
a) Carbohydrates b) Vitamines
c) Proteins d) Both a) and b)
12) The genus Marchantia belongs to the class __________
a) Anthocerotopsida b) Bryopsida
c) Hepaticopsida d) None of these
13) In Marsilea the Sporocarps are attached to the _________
a) Root b) Stem c) Petiole d) Leaf
14) Marsilea reproduces by __________ methods.
a) Vegetative and asexual b) Asexual and sexual
c) Vegetative and sexual d) Vegetative, asexual and sexual

1) Define algae.
2) Name any two unicellular forms of algae.
3) Write any two popular mushroom dishes.
4) Define thermophytic algae.
5) What are amylum stars.
1) Stipulodes of Chara.
2) Gemma of Marchantia.
3) Sporocarp of Marsilea.

1) Describe diplontic life cycle.
2) Describe the vegetative method of reproduction in fungi.
3) Sketch, label and describe the structure of archegonium of Marchantia.
1) Describe cleistothecium of Uncinula.
2) Sketch, label and describe T.S. of stem (rhizome) of Marsilea.
Set P
*SLRSO203* -3- SLR-SO – 203
1) Sketch, label and describe – globule of Chara.
2) Describe pleurilocular sporangia of Ectocarpus.
3) Write the classification and economic importance of Polyporus.
1) Sketch, label and describe the structure of antheridium of Marchantia
2) Sketch, label and describe the vertical longitudinal section (V.L.S.) of
sporocarp of Marsilea.

1) Describe the steps involved in mushroom cultivation.
2) Sketch, label and describe the sporangium (sporophyte) of Marchantia.
3) Sketch, label and describe the horizontal longitudinal section (H.L.S.) of
sporocarp of Marsilea.
__________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
Zoology (Special Paper – VII)
Non-Chordates
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Multiple choice questions. (1×14=14)

1) In Leucosolenia ____________ type of canal system is present.
a) ascon b) sycon c) leucon d) rhagon
2) The saliva of Leech contains ____________ anticoagulant.
a) Heparin b) Hirudin c) Citric acid d) Ascorbic acid
3) Bipinnaria is the larva of
a) Pila b) Ctenophora c) Sea-Star d) Nereis
4) Peripatus is a connecting link between ___________ and ____________
a) Annelida and arthropoda b) Arthropoda and Mollusca
c) Mollusca and Echinodermata d) Echinodermata and Hemichordata
5) Botryoidal tissues are found in
a) Leech b) Cockroach c) Tapeworm d) Liver fluke
6) Dactylozooids are conseaned with
a) Nutrition b) Reproduction c) Respiration d) Protection
7) In Leech female genical opening is present in segment number
a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
8) ____________ is the earliest and basic larval stage in crustaceans.
a) Naupleus b) Matanaupleus
c) Zoea d) Mysis
9) In Paramecium, sexual reproduction takes place by
a) Transverse binary fission b) Conjugation
c) Endomixis d) Binary Fission
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 204 -2- *SLRSO204*
10) Auto trophic type of nutrition is found in

a) Amoeba b) Trypansoma c) Paramocium d) Euglena
11) Lingula belongs to ____________ minor phyla.
a) ectoprocta b) brachiopoda c) phoronida d) chaetognatha
12) Stone canal of Sea Star connects
a) Ring canal to polian vesicles
b) Ring canal to radial canal
c) Ring canal to stone canal
d) Madreporite to ring canal
13) Cell drinking phenomenon is termed as
a) ingestion b) pinocytosis c) phagocytosis d) circumference
14) The sea water lying in between islands and coral reefs is called
a) atoll b) corals c) lagoon d) icecan
2. A) Answer the following questions (any four) : (2×4=8)

i) Dactylozooid.
ii) Systematic Position of Leech.
iii) Torsion.
iv) Habit and Habitat of Sea-Star.
v) Doliolaria.
B) Write notes on (any two). (2×3=6)
i) Holozoic Nutrition in Protozoa
ii) Pedicellriae of star fish
iii) Binary Fission in Paramoecium
3. A) Answer the following questions (any two). (2×4=8)

i) Describe polymorphism in coelenterate.
ii) Evolutionary significance of Peripatus - Explain.
iii) Conjugation in Paramoecium.
B) Answer the following questions (any one). (1×6=6)
i) Explain with neat labeled diagram “digestive system of Leech.
ii) With neat labeled diagram explain the digestive system of sea star.
Set P
*SLRSO204* -3- SLR-SO – 204
4. A). Answer the following questions (any two). (2×5=10)

i) Sailent features and Affinities of Lingula.
ii) Describe the types of Canal Systems (any two).
iii) Describe the types of insect larvae.
B) Answer the following questions (any one). (1×4=4)
i) Describe Body Wall of Sea-Star.
ii) Explain with neat labeled diagram Female Reproductive System of
Leech.
5. Answer the following questions (any two). (2×7=14)

i) Describe with neat labeled diagram “The Water Vascular System of Sea-
Star”.
ii) Reproduction in Protozoa- Explain.
iii) Explain excretory system leech.

––––––––––––––––
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (Old) (CGPA) Examination, 2018

MATHEMATICS (special Paper – VII)
Algebra – II
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) A Commutative ring in which the set of non zero elements forms a group
with respect to multiplication is called
a) division ring b) field c) vector space d) ideal
2) Let V be a vector space over F. Then V is isomorphic to Fn iff
a) dim (V) = n b) dim(V) = n2
c) dim (V) = n – 1 d) dim (V) = n(n – 1)
3) An isomorphism from a ring on to itself is called
a) endomorphism b) monomorphism
c) epimorphism d) automorphism
4) Let F be a field then the no. of nonzero ideals of F is equal to
a) 2 b) 1 c) infinite d) 0
5) Let θ : z → z5 be the ring homomorphism then ker θ is the ideal
a) z b) nz c) 5z d) z5
6) Let θ : R → Z4 be an isomorphism then characteristic of R is
a) 0 b) infinite c) 4 d) 2
7) If the set of nonzero elements is closed with respect to multiplication
then
a) There are no zero divisors
b) There are infinitely many zero divisors
c) There is only one zero divisor
d) There are finitely many zero divisors
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 205 -2- *SLRSO205*
8) Consider the following two statements
i) In any vector space ax = bx implies that a = b
ii) In any vector space ax = ay implies that x = y then
a) only (i) is true
b) only (ii) is true
c) both (i) and (ii) are true
d) both (i) and (ii) are false
9) Let A ∈ M(F) then A* = AT iff
mxn

a) A has real entries
b) A has complex entries
c) A has both real and complex entries
d) None of these
γ
10) Let β and γ be the standard ordered bases of P1(R) and R2 then [T ] β
=
where T (a + bx) = (a, a + b)

1 0   1 0  1 1
a)   b) 1 1 c)   d)  
1 1 1 0  0 1 0 1
   

11) L e t T : R 2 → R 2 b e t h e l i n e a r t r a n s f o r m a t i o n d e f i n e d b y
T(a1, a2) = (a1 + a2, a1) and N(T) = {0} then
a) only T is one one
b) only T is onto
c) T is both one-one and onto
d) T is neither one-one nor on to
12) Let V be an inner product space. For x∈V we define length of x as
a) < x, x > b) < x, x >
d) (< x, x > )
1
c) < x, x > = 1
3
13) Over the field of complex numbers the vector space of complex no. has
dimension
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) infinite
14) The no. of zero divisors of z10 are
a) 4 b) 5 c) 2 d) 9
Set P
*SLRSO205* -3- SLR-SO – 205
1) Show that T : R2 → R2 defined by T (a1, a2) = (2a1 + a2, a1) is linear.
1
2) In c([0, 1]) let f(t) = t, g(t) = et and < f, g > = ∫ f(t)g(t)dt compute < f, g >.
0
3) Define basis and dimension in a vector space.

4) If R and S are two rings and θ : R → S is a ring isomorphism, prove that if
e is unity of R then θ(e) is unity of S.
5) Define prime and maximal ideal with suitable examples.

1) If D is an integral domain then show that cancellation laws holds in D.
2) Let V, W, Z are vector spaces over the same field F and let T : V → W and
U : W → Z are linear, show that UT is linear.
3) Show that the span of any subset S of a vector space V is a subspace of V.

1) Let W be a subspace of a finite dimensional vector space V then prove
that W is finite dimensional and dim (W) ≤ dim (V).
2) Let V and W are vector spaces and T : V → W is linear then prove that
N(T) and R(T) are subspaces of V and W respectively.
3) If D is an integral domain then prove that characteristic of D is either
zero or prime number.

1) Let R is a ring and I is an ideal of R, define R/I and show that R/I is
ring.
2) State and prove cauchy-schwarz inequality for an inner product space V.

1) State and prove replacement theorem for the vector space.
2) Prove that every finite integral domain is field.
3) Let V and W are vector spaces of equal (finite) dimension and let T : V → W
is linear then prove that the following statements are equivalent
a) T is one-one
b) T is onto
c) rank (T) = dim (V)
Set P
SLR-SO – 205 -4- *SLRSO205*
1) Let V be a vector space having finite basis then prove that every basis
for V contains the same number of vectors.
2) Let θ : R → S is a ring homomorphism then prove that θ is one-one iff
ker θ = {OR}.

1) State and prove the dimension theorem (rank nullity theorem).
2) Prove that if R is commutative ring with unity and I is an ideal of R then
I is maximal ideal iff R/I is a field.
3) Let V be a vector space and β = {u1, u2, u3, ......un} be a subset of V. Then
prove that β is basis for V iff each v∈ V can be uniquely expressed as a
linear combination of vectors of β.
_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Old) (CGPA) Examination, 2018
statistics
Statistical Inference – I (Special Paper – VII)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Each question carries equal marks.

i) An estimator is a
a) Sample characteristic
b) Population characteristic
c) Part of a population
d) Part of a sample
ii) Sample variance is ___________ estimator of population variance.
a) Unbiased b) Consistent
iii) Which of the following is always true ?
a) An unbiased estimator is unique
b) MLE is a function of sufficient statistics
c) Unbiased estimator is a consistent statistic
d) MLE always exists
iv) If x is a single observation from L(0, λ) then the sufficient statistic for λ is
a) |x| b) x
c) x2 d) None of these
v) If T be an consistent estimator of θ then g(T) is consistent for g(θ) =
a) 2θ + 3 b) eθ
c) θ d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 206 -2- *SLRSO206*
vi) Likelihood function is a function of
a) Sample only b) Parameter only
c) Either sample or parameter d) Sample and parameter
vii) Let x1, x2,...xn be i.i.d. from uniform distribution over (0, θ). Then
a) Sample mean is MLE of θ
b) Sample median is MLE of θ
c) Max order statistic is MLE of θ
d) None of these
viii) Factorization theorem for sufficiency is known as
a) Rao-Blackwell theorem
b) Cramer-Rao theorem
c) Chapman - Kolmogorov theorem
d) Fisher-Neyman theorem
ix) Let 5, 8, 3, 6, 8 are observations from Poisson (λ) then unbiased estimate
of λ is
a) 3 b) 6
c) 5 d) 8
x) Moment estimators cannot be obtained for
a) Laplace distribution
b) Lognormal distribution
c) Cauchy distribution
d) Exponential distribution
xi) Mean square error of an estimator Tn of θ is
a) bias + varθ (Tn) b) (bias + varθ (Tn))2
c) bias2 + varθ (Tn)2 d) bias2 + varθ (Tn)
xii) A statistic T = t(X1, x2,...Xn) is said to be sufficient for a parameter θ, if the
conditional distribution of X1, X2,...Xn given T = t is
a) independent of t
b) dependent of θ
c) independent of θ
d) all the above
Set P
*SLRSO206* -3- SLR-SO – 206
xiii) Let X1, X2,...Xn be a sample from a Poisson distribution P(θ). Consider three
statistics as estimator of θ.
i) x
(x − x)
2
i
ii) ∑ (n − 1)

iii) 2X1 – X2
Which of these are unbiased for θ ?
a) Only I b) Only II and III
c) All three d) Only I and II
xiv) Which one of the following is unique estimator ?
a) Unbiased b) Biased c) U.M.V.U.E. d) Sufficient

i) Define a Parameter and give one example.
ii) Define sufficient estimator.
iii) Give one example of biased but consistent estimator.
iv) State Neyman-factorization theorem.
v) Define Minimum Variance Unbiased Estimator (MVUE).

i) Show that sample mean square is unbiased estimator of Population
Variance.
x + x2 2x + 4x 2
ii) Let T1 = 1 , T2 = 1 are two unbiased estimators of population
2 6
mean. Then find the efficiency of T2 with respect to T1.
iii) Obtain likelihood function of a random sample x1, x2,...xn from Bernoulli
distribution with parameter p.

i) Find moment estimator of θ if f ( x ) = θx (1 − θ ) x = 0, 1, 2,...
.
0 otherwise
ii) Show that sample mean is sufficient statistic for parameter λ of Poisson
distribution.
iii) Show that there exists infinite number of unbiased estimators of
parameter θ.
Set P
SLR-SO – 206 -4- *SLRSO206*
i) Find information function for the parameter θ of exponential
distribution.
ii) Prove that biased estimator is consistent if it’s bias and variance both
tends to zero as sample size tends to infinity.

i) Describe the method of minimum chi-square for the estimation of
parameters.
ii) If x1, x2,...xn be a random sample of size n from a distribution with pdf
f(x, θ) = θxθ 0 < x < 1, θ > 0. Find the M.L.E. of θ.
iii) Prove that if T is sufficient statistic for θ then φ(T)is sufficient statistic for
θ when φ is one-to-one onto function.

i) Prove that if T is unbiased estimator of θ, then φ(T) is an unbiased
estimator of φ(θ) provided φ(.) is a linear function.
ii) State properties of Maximum likelihood estimator.

i) State and prove Cramer-Rao inequality.
ii) If X has N(µ, σ2) find the Fisher information function
i) I(µ) when σ2 is known
ii) I(σ2) when µ is known
iii) Obtain estimator of θ by the method of i) moments and ii) likelihood for the
1 x −θ
following pdf f ( x, θ ) = e −∞ < x < ∞ .
2
___________
Set P
*SLRHT103* SLR-SO – 207
Seat Set P
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (Old CGPA) Examination, 2018

geology
Special Paper – VII : Earth’s Physics and Dynamics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Satpura Mountain is an example of __________ mountain.
a) fold b) fault block c) volcanic d) residual
2) The magnetic normals and reversals are well documented in the rocks
flanking the
a) Mid-Oceanic ridges b) Transform faults
c) Oceanic trenches d) Dip-slip faults
3) __________ means all land masses.
a) Gondwana b) Tethys c) Pangaea d) Eurasia
4) Lithosphere constitute
a) Sial and Sima b) Crust and mantle
c) Crust and upper mantle d) Lower mantle and upper core
5) __________ refers to the origin of mountain building.
a) Orogenesis b) Isostasy
c) Epeirogenesis d) Mountogenesis
6) Airy postulated the hypothesis of isostasy considering the __________
density of the outer crust.
a) Varying b) Uniform c) Very high d) Very low
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 207 -2- *SLRHT103*
7) India was once part of

a) Laurasia b) North America
c) Gondwana d) South America
8) According to __________ , the hypothesis of isostasy can be explained by
considering that the earth’s outer layer is composed of materials of verying
density.
a) Shreve b) Airy c) Strahler d) Pratt
9) ____________ fossils have been discovered in the lands of Gondwana.
a) Glossopteris b) Productus
c) Pectene d) Physa
10) Sahyadri mountain is classified as ____________ mountain.
a) Fault b) Fold c) Residual d) Volcanic
11) When India and Eurasia Plate collide, India plate is
a) Abducted b) Subducted c) Deducted d) Preducted
12) This process makes new crust at the bottom of the ocean at a divergent
boundary.
a) Mod-Atlantic Ridge b) Seafloor spreading
c) Subduction d) hotspot
13) Process of collision of two plates with different densities is known as
a) Abduction b) Subduction c) Prediction d) Production
14) When two Continental plates with same density, collide with one another
a) Collision takes place b) Earthquake takes place
c) Transformation takes place d) Folding takes place

1) What are types of orogenic forces ?
2) State Heiskanen’s hypothesis.
3) Where convection current exists ?
4) State Airy’s hypothesis.
5) Where triple junction is located ?
Set P
*SLRHT103* -3- SLR-SO – 207

1) What is level of compensation ?
2) Explain residual mountains.
3) What are continental mountains ?

1) What are the characters of plate ?
2) Describe palaeo-climatic evidences of continental drift.
3) What are orogenic movements ?

1) Describe supporting evidences for continental drift.
2) Explain subduction zone.

1) Explain transform faults.
2) Explain mechanism of plate motion.
3) Describe convergent plate boundaries.

1) Explain concept of plate tectonics.
2) Explain causes of plate motion.

1) Describe convergent plate boundaries.
2) Explain causes of sea floor spreading.
3) Write note on tectonic mountains.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (Old-CGPA) Examination, 2018

microbiology (Special Paper – VII)
Virology, Extremophiles and Bioinformatics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) The largest group of cultured archaea are
a) Thermophiles b) Methanogens
c) Acidophiles d) Barophiles
2) The BLAST programme is used in
a) Biostatistics b) Nanotechnology
c) Geoinformatics d) Bioinformatics
3) ____________ is electronic filing cabinets for vast amount of information.
a) Annotation b) Datamining
c) Database d) Algorithm
4) Multiplication of influenza virus occurs in
a) Cytoplasm b) Ribosome
c) Mitochondria d) Nucleus
5) In 1948, ___________ first time applied Linnean system of binomial.
a) Holmes b) Watson
c) Crick d) Lederberg
6) ____________ organism can grow at temperature range 70°C – 100°C at
pH – 6.
a) Desulfococcus b) Methanomonas
c) Thermotoga maritima d) Sulfolobus
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 208 -2- *SLRSO208*
7) Viruses release their nucleic acid into host cell cytoplasm is known as
a) Penetration b) Adsorption
c) Assembly d) Transcription
8) ____________ lacks protective capsid around the nucleic acids.
a) Slow viruses b) Pock method
c) Direct microscopic count d) Acid end point method
9) Bacteriophage are readily counted by the process of
a) Plaque assays b) Viroids
c) Prions d) Naked Viruses
10) Members of the genus sulfolobus are
a) Photolithoautotrophs b) Thermoacidophiles
c) Aerophiles d) Methanogens
11) The phage φ X – 174 contain __________ as its genome.
a) Circular DS DNA b) Linear SS DNA
c) Circular SS RNA d) Linear DS RNA
12) ___________ phage contains 12 capsomers in its Capsid.
a) T4 b) T2
c) φ X – 174 d) λ Lambda
13) Adeno viruses possess __________ capsid symmetry.
a) Helical b) Complex
c) Icosahedral d) Octahedral
14) __________ is temperate phage.
a) λ phage b) T4 phage
c) T3 phage d) φ X – 174 phage
2. A) Define and explain any four of the following : 8

1) Bioinformatics.
2) Burst size.
3) Latent period.
4) Benign warts.
5) Vertical transmission.
B) Write short note on any two of the following : 6

1) Halophilic organisms.
2) Cultivation of Viruses by using embryoted eggs.
3) Explain the LHT system of viral classification.
Set P
*SLRSO208* -3- SLR-SO – 208
1) Explain RNA bacteriophages.
2) Discuss the method used for isolation of Coliphages from sewage.
3) Describe the types of Cancers.

1) Give the detailed account of λ lambda Iysogeny.
2) Give the detailed account of applications of Bioinformatics.

1) Briefly explain virogene and defective immunity hypotheses.
2) Give the detailed account of Extremophiles.
3) Give the detailed account of reproduction in Adenovirus.

1) Briefly explain ICTV and ICNV.
2) Explain one step growth experiment.

1) Discuss in detail the reproduction in T4 Bacteriophages.
2) Give the detailed account of characteristics of cancerous cells.
3) Explain in detail intracellular development of influenza virus.

_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Old-CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018
Electronics (Special Paper – VII)
Linear Integrated Circuits and Applications

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

i) An integrated circuits offers
a) low power consumption b) improved performance
c) high speed d) All of the above
ii) First integrated chip was developed by
a) C.V. Raman b) W. H. Brattain
c) J.S. Kilby d) Robert Noyce
iii) Number of RC combinations in filter decides the _____ of filter.
a) Order b) Type c) Class d) None
iv) A log amplifier has _______ in the feedback loop.
a) a BJT b) a resistor
c) a capacitor d) inductor
v) The main job of a voltage regulator is to provide a nearly ______ output
voltage.
a) Sinusoidal b) Constant c) Smooth d) Fluctuating
vi) In PLL circuit phase detector is followed by
a) VCO b) Low pass filter
c) High pass filter d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 209 -2- *SLRSO209*
vii) For proper operation of voltage regulator, input voltage must be _______
output voltage.
a) less than b) greater than c) same as d) none
viii) The relation between Lock Range (LR) and Capture Range (CR) is
a) LR = CR b) LC < CR c) LR > CR d) All of these
ix) To have +5V regulated output voltage, we must use IC
a) 7809 b) 7909 c) 7805 d) 7905
x) IC _______ is a phase locked loop.
a) 565 b) LF 198 c) 556 d) LF 356
xi) In integrated circuits _______ are not fabricated.
a) resistors b) capacitors c) inductors d) diodes
xii) ______ filter is also known as notch filter.
a) low-pass b) high-pass
c) narrow band pass d) narrow band reject
xiii) In precision rectifier, op-amp is used to
a) reduce breakdown voltage b) reduce cut-in voltage
c) increase cut-in voltage d) none of these
xiv) The Q-factor for a narrow bandpass filter is
a) zero b) less than one
c) greater than one d) it’s bandwidth

i) Give the advantages of integrated circuits.
ii) Define lock range and capture range in PLL.
iii) Draw the circuit diagram of voltage regulator using IC 7809
iv) What is difference between active filters and passive filters ?
v) Draw the circuit diagram of antilog amplifier.
i) PLL as frequency multiplier.
ii) Over current protection circuit for IC regulators.
iii) Monolithic diodes.
Set P
*SLRSO209* -3- SLR-SO – 209
i) Explain the operation of sample and hold circuit.
ii) Explain LM 331 as a voltage to frequency converter.
iii) Explain variable voltage regulator using IC LM 317.
i) What is integrated circuit ? Explain briefly fabrication of PNP transistor in IC.
ii) Explain second order Butterworth low pass filter.

i) State various applications of PLL. Explain the use of PLL as FSK
demodulator.
ii) Draw the circuit of active peak detector and explain its operation with
input and output waveforms.
iii) Design second order high pass filter at low cut off frequency of 1kHz.
Assume C = 0.0047 µF.
i) Draw the block diagrams of PLL. What is the function of phase detector ?
ii) Explain full wave rectifier using op-amp.

i) Draw the block diagram of IC voltage regulator and explain the functions of
each block.
ii) Explain clipper and clamper circuit using op-amp.
iii) Explain band stop filter with suitable diagram.

___________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.
B.Sc. – III (Computer Science) (Sem. – V) (CGPA) Examination, 2018

VISUAL PROGRAMMING (Special Paper No. – VII) (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 19-11-2018 Max. Marks :70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Select correct alternative from the following : 14

1) Valid variable naming rules are that
A) A variable name can be a keyword
b) The name must begin with a letter, can be followed by letters, digits and
underscores
c) A name can be a keyword or a combination of keywords
d) Both B) and C)
2) Which of the following assemblies can be stored in Global Assembly Cache ?
A) Private Assemblies b) Protected Assemblies
c) Public Assemblies d) Friend Assemblies
3) A constructor ___________
A) Is nameless
b) Has the same name as of the class
c) Never has a same as the class
d) Has no parameters
4) How many times can a constructor be called during lifetime of the object ?
A) As many times as we call it
b) Only once
c) Depends upon a Project Setting made in Visual Studio.NET
d) Any number of times
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 210 -2- *SLRSO210*
5) Disadvantages of Explicit type conversion are that it

A) Results in loss of data b) Makes program memory heavier
c) Is potentially Unsafe d) Is memory consuming
6) Process of defining a method in terms of itself, that is a method that calls
itself is
A) Polymorphism b) Abstraction
c) Recursion d) Encapsulation
7) Where the properties can be declared _____________
A) Class b) Struct
c) Interface d) All of the above
8) Properties of a parameter array are _______________
A) Parameter arrays can be a useful way to simplify your code
b) You don’t have to pass arrays from your calling code
c) You pass several parameters of the same type, which are placed in an
array you can use from within y
d) All of the above
9) When a class serves as base class for many derived classes, situation is
called
A) Polymorphism b) Hierarchical inheritance
c) Hybrid inheritance d) Multipath inheritance
10) Which of the following are not C# value types ?
A) long b) bool
c) struct d) class
11) Bitwise operators
A) Operate on series of bits stored in a variable
b) Operate on the principle of bits “0” and “1”
c) Do not exist
d) Are not used in C#
12) Following are types of branching techniques
A) The ternary operator b) The if statement
c) The switch statement d) All of the above
Set P
*SLRSO210* -3- SLR-SO – 210
13) Which of the following statements is correct about constructors in C#.NET ?

A) A constructor cannot be declared as private
b) A constructor cannot be overloaded
c) A constructor can be a static constructor
d) None of the mentioned
14) Which of the following is a type of stream in C# ?
A) Integer stream b) Character stream
c) Float stream d) Long stream

1) Explain Multilevel inheritance.
2) Define Destructor.
3) What are advantages of managed code ?
4) Explain Threading.
5) What is Garbage collection ?
1) Indexer
2) JIT
3) Hybrid Inheritance.

1) Explain Boxing and Unboxing.
2) What is Namespace ? List out the Namespace of .NET Framework.
3) Explain different access modifiers used in C# programming.
1) Explain .NET framework with suitable diagram.
2) Define an Interface. Write a program to implement a property through
interface.
Set P
SLR-SO – 210 -4- *SLRSO210*
1) What is type casting and how it is done in C# ?
2) What is exception ? Write a program to handle custom exception.
3) Explain for each loop with example.
1) Explain the different File Handling classes.
2) What is constructor ? Explain constructor overloading with example.
1) What is enumeration ? Explain with example.
2) Write a program to copy content of one file to another.
3) What is Polymorphism ? Explain in detail.
___________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Physics (Special Paper VIII)
Solid state Physics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

iii) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.

1) When a superconductor is placed in a constant magnetic field, it
becomes
a) diamagnetic b) ferromagnetic c) paramagnetic d) ferromagnetic
2) The magnetism in solids arises due to
a) spin motion of electron b) orbital motion of electron
c) spin of nuclei d) all a, b and c
3) For Silicon, the band gap energy is
a) 0.72 eV b) 1.12 eV c) 0.6 eV d) 2.1 eV
4) As b → 0, the sinβb → __________ and cosβb → __________
a) (0, 1 ) b) (βb, 0) c) (βb, 1) d) (1, βb)
5) The behavior of electron in a one dimensional periodic potential has been
treated by
a) Bloch b) Schrodinger c) Kronig-Penny d) Rutherford
6) If T > 0 and E = Ef then f(E) =
a) 20% b) 30% c) 40% d) 50%
7) The electrical conductivity of metal is
a) directly proportional to absolute temperature T.
b) inversely proportional to absolute temperature T.
c) inversely proportional to absolute temperature T2.
d) inversely proportional to square root of absolute temperature T.
8) 1 eV = _____________ erg.
a) 1.6 ×10–12 b) 1.6 ×10–19 c) 1.6 × 10–9 d) 1.6 ×10–2
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 211 -2- *SLRSO211*
9) The Bragg’s law in terms of reciprocal lattice vector G is
a) 2 k. G + k2 = 0 b) 2 k.G + G2 = 0
c) G.G + 2.k .2k = 0 d) 2 G. G + k.k = 0
10) Magnitude of the reciprocal lattice vector is equal to
a) 1/dhkl b) dhkl c) 1/d2hkl d) 1/d3hkl
11) X-rays are
a) electromagnetic waves b) electric waves only
c) magnetic waves only d) paramagnetic waves only
12) The number of lattice points in primitive cell are
1 3
a) 1 b) 2 c) d)
2 2
13) Number of atoms present in unit cell of hcp structure is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 7
14) For tetragonal crystal system, dhkl =
−1 −1
 h2 + k 2 l2  2  h2 + k 2 l2 
a) dhkl = + 2 b) dhkl = 2
+ 2
 a c 
2
 a c 
−2  h2 + k 2 l2 
 h2 + k 2 l2  dhkl = + 2
c) dhkl =  2
+ 2 d)  a
2
c 
 a c 
1) Define critical temperature.
2) State Curie law for paramagnetic substances.
3) Define conduction band and valence band.
4) State Widemann-Franz relation.
5) Define coordination number.
B) Answer the following (any two). 6

1) State and explain Meissner effect.
2) Show that reciprocal of reciprocal lattice is direct lattice.
3) Determine Miller indices of the planes :
i) (2a, 2b, c/2) ii) (3a, 3b, c) iii) (a, b, c).

1) Derive an expression for effective mass of an electron in two dimensional
lattices.
Set P
*SLRSO211* -3- SLR-SO – 211
2) Derive an expression for mobility of charge carriers and conductivity of
metal on the basis of Hall Effect.
3) In NaCl crystal (a = 2.814 Aº) the first order reflection is observed from
the plane (100) by using X-ray beam of wavelength 0.75 Aº. Calculate
angle of diffraction.

1) Derive an expression for Fermi energy of metal and show that the Fermi
energy depends only on free electron density.
2) Describe powder method of X-ray diffraction in reciprocal lattices for
analysis of cubic structure.

1) Explain ‘‘Hysteresis loop’’ in ferromagnetic materials.
2) What is Hall Effect ? Obtain an expression for Hall voltage.
3) Show that Simple Cubic structure is not close packed.

1) Write a note on ferrites.
2) Draw the variation of susceptibility χ with temperature for paramagnetic,
ferromagnetic and anti-ferromagnetism. Also, mention any two properties
of anti-ferromagnetic substances.

1) Explain type – I and Type – II superconductors.
2) Discuss Sommerfelds model of metal and hence derive the expression for
energy of a free electron in metal.
3) Show that packing fraction of FCC structure is 0.74.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Old) (CGPA) Examination, 2018

Chemistry
Special Paper – VIII : Inorganic Chemistry
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat labeled diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentences. 14
1) In octahedral complex each t2g is stabilized by __________
a) –6Dq b) –4Dq c) +4Dq d) +6Dq
2) According to MOT nature of bonding in coordination complex is
__________
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Coordinate covalent d) Covalent as well as ionic
3) The [Co(NH3)6]3+ complex is ___________ complex.
a) high spin b) low spin
c) tetrahedral d) paramagnetic
4) Jahn-Teller distortion in non-linear molecule result in __________
a) lower in energy b) lower the symmetry
c) remove the degeneracy d) all of these
5) Atomic bomb works on the principle of __________ reaction.
a) chemical b) chain
c) uncontrolled chain d) controlled chain reaction
6) Artificial transmutation was first reported by __________
a) Rutherford b) Irene Curie
c) Chadwick d) Meri Curie
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 212 -2- *SLRSO212*
7) For age determination by tracer technique ___________ isotope is used.

a) 17O b) 14C c) 12C d) 15N
8) In inorganic monomers having at least __________ functional groups are
only capable of forming polymers.
a) three b) two c) four d) six
9) The formation of chain of ___________ atoms is called catenation.
a) organic b) carbon and oxygen
c) same d) hetero
10) Thermal stability of inorganic polymers is due to ___________ bonding.
a) strong b) metallic c) ionic d) hydrogen
11) Metalloporphyrines are complexes between ___________
a) metal and nonmetal b) metals and porphyrins
c) ligand and porphyrins d) haemoglobin and myoglobin
12) The haemoglobin and myoglobin are the ___________
a) proteins b) carbohydrates
c) lipids d) molecular compounds
13) Myoglobin has moleculer weight ___________ amu.
a) 17000 b) 64000
c) 15000 d) 60000
14) In space mainly _________ power is used for satellite.
a) nuclear b) electrical
c) thermal d) solar

1) With increase in charge on metal ion 10 Dq value increases, explain.
2) What is half life period of Pu-239 ?
3) Define essential elements and trace elements with suitable examples.
4) Give brief account of homoatomic polymer containing phosphorus.
5) What is the range of particle size of nanomaterials ?
1) Shapes of d-orbitals.
2) Co-operativity effect in haemoglobin.
3) Importance of inorganic polymers.
Set P
*SLRSO212* -3- SLR-SO – 212

1) What is nuclear reaction ? Discuss in detail nuclear fusion reactions.
2) Write note on oxygen binding curve.
3) Distinguish between organic polymer and inorganic polymer.
1) On the basis of CFT explain the formation of [Co(CN)4]–2 complex ion.
Comment on its spin and stability.
2) What is nuclear energy ? How nuclear energy is generated from U-235 ?

1) Mention various factors affecting on the Crystal field splitting of d-orbitals.
Explain any one in detail.
2) Write informative note on Dating by C14.
3) Explain the role of calcium in biological processes.
1) What is difference between deoxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin.
2) Discuss the applications of nanotechnology.

1) With the help of M O diagram explain colour and magnetic property of
[Ti(H2O)6]3+.
2) Write note on : Isotopic dilution method for the determination of volume of
blood.
3) Define fluorocarbons. Describe the preparation properties and uses of
teflon.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
botany (Special Paper – VIII)
Gymnosperms and Palaeobotany

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Zamia is _________ plant.
a) Monoecious b) Dioecious c) Monosporic d) Bisexual
2) In Zamia the ovule is
a) Orthotropous b) Anatropous
c) Amphitropous d) Hemianatropous
3) The phyllotaxy in Zamia is
a) Simple b) Palmately compound
c) Pinnately compound d) De compound
4) Gnetum ula is
a) Herb b) Shrub c) Tree d) Linas
5) T. S. of young stem of Gnetum shows a ring of conjoint, collecteral and
_________ vascular bundles.
a) Exarch b) Endarch
c) Mesarch d) None of these
6) Because of only ______________ Gnetum is a gymnosperm.
a) Polyembryony b) Orthotropous ovule
c) Pollination by wind d) Naked seeds
7) Devonian period is included under ___________ era.
a) Mesozoic b) Coenzoic c) Palaeozoic d) Proterozoic
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 213 -2- *SLRSO213*
8) Cretaceous period is included under __________ era.
a) Palaeozoic b) Mesozoic
c) Coenozoic d) Proterozoic
9) Impression is a negative of
a) amber b) compression
c) petrification d) nodule
10) Order cycadeoidales is also called
a) Coniferales b) Gnetales c) Cordaitales d) Bennettitales
11) The sporangipophores were placed at right angles to the cone axis in
_____________ gonus.
a) Cingularia b) Calamostachys
c) Palaeostachys d) None of these
12) In Asterophyllites the leaves were
a) Spherical b) Plate like
c) Needle like d) Wheel shaped
13) Over 99% of oil and coal are drawn from ______________ rocks.
a) Sedimentary b) Igneous c) Metamorphic d) Besoltic
14) Microfossils play important role in
a) Oil formation b) Oil deposition
c) Oil exploration d) Oil degradation

1) Systematic position of Zamia.
2) Sketch, label V.S. of Zamia ovule.
3) Enlist any two Indian species of Gnetum.
4) Give geographical distribution of Gnetum in India.
5) Write any four periods of palaeozoic era.
1) External features (plant body) of Zamia.
2) Coal balls.
3) Oil excavation.
Set P
*SLRSO213* -3- SLR-SO – 213

1) Sketch, label and describe the male cone of Gnetum.
2) Sketch, label and describe the T. S. of Zamia stem.
3) Describe geological occurrence of oil.
1) Define coal and describe origin of coal and geological periods of coal
formation.
2) Describe impression and petrification.

1) Write systematic position and describe the fruit Enigmocarpon.
2) Define fossilization and describe the process of fossilization.
3) Describe any two leaf genera of Calamites.
1) Describe the concept of ‘form genera’.
2) Sketch, label and describe the structure of Lagenostoma lomaxi.

1) Define carbon dating and describe the process of carbon dating.
2) Describe internal structures of Lyginopteris Oldhamia stem.
3) Sketch, label and describe – T. S. of Zamia rachis and leaflet.
______________
Set P
*SLR-SO-214* SLR-SO – 214
Seat
No.
Set P

zoology (Special Paper – VIII) (Old CGPA Pattern)
(Biostatistics, Bioinformatics, Medical Zoology and
Evolutionary Genetics)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

1. Rewrite the sentence by choosing correct alternative : 14

i) The collection, compilation and interpretation of numerical fact related to
biological sciences is known as ______________
a) Statistics b) Biomeasure
c) Biostatistics d) Probability
ii) NCBI was established in______________
a) 1988 b) 1989
c) 1990 d) 1991
iii) ______________ is a nucleotide sequence data base.
a) swiss prot b) embl
c) prosite d) pir
iv) The rabies virus is passed on by contact with ______________ of an infected
animal.
a) skin b) saliva
c) blood d) claws
v) The most common symptom of ____________ is swelling of body parts.
a) Malaria b) Swine-flu
c) Elephantiasis d) Dengue
vi) ______________ is intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica.
a) Snail b) Mosquito
c) Man d) Rat
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 214 -2- *SLR-SO-214*
vii) Random fluctuation in allele frequencies called as ______________
a) Mutation b) Speciation
c) Genetic drift d) Isolation
viii) Isoniazid is a drug used for treatment of ______________
a) Malaria b) Dengue
c) Elephantiasis d) Tuberculosis
ix) The sexual cycle of Plasmodium is completed in ______________
a) Gut of mosquito b) RBC
c) Liver tissue d) Salivary gland of mosquito
x) ______________ type of virus causes rabies.
a) Poliovirus b) Retrovirus
c) Hantavirus d) Lyssavirus
xi) ______________ is a sequence alignment tool.
a) blast b) print
c) prosite d) pir
xii) The sum of all the data values divided by the number of variables is called
as ______________
a) Mode b) Median
c) Frequency d) Mean
xiii) (p + q)2 = p2 + ______________ + q2.
a) pq b) q
c) 2p d) 2pq
xiv) The process of formation of new species is called as ______________
a) Speciation b) Isolation
c) Migration d) Segregation
i) Define Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.
ii) Primary data.
iii) blast.
iv) Symptoms of Ebola.
v) Treatment of Malaria.
Set P
*SLR-SO-214* -3- SLR-SO – 214
i) Give an account on symptoms of tuberculosis.
ii) Standard deviation.
iii) Give an account on symptoms of Dengue.
i) Give an account on Natural selection.
ii) Give an account on symptoms of Rabies.
iii) Scatter diagram.
i) Benefits of graphical data presentation.
ii) Mode of infection and treatment of Ebola.
i) Explain Genetic Drift.
ii) Discuss histogram with suitable example.
iii) Genomics.
i) Describe frequency data with example.
ii) Give an account on symptoms of Malaria.
i) Describe in detail applications of bioinformatics.
ii) Describe in detail the mode of infection and treatment for elephantiasis.
iii) Explain in detail correlation coefficient and describe Spearman’s Rank
Correlation Coefficient.
_____________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (Old – CGPA) Examination, 2018
Mathematics
Complex Analysis (Special Paper No. – VIII)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) A conjugate harmonic of u(x, y) = ex sin y is
a) excos y b) eycosx c) – excosy d) eysinx
d
2) If f(z) = F(g(z)) then f (z ) =
dz
a) F′(g(z)) b) F′(g′(z)) c) F(g′(z)) d) F′(g(z))g′(z)
3) The equation |z – 1| = |z + i| represents
a) Line through origin whose slope is 1
b) Line through origin whose slope is – 1
c) A circle through origin
d) None of these
4) If u = sinx.coshy then construct analytic function F(z) = u + iv is
a) sinz + ci b) cosz + ci c) – sinz + ci d) – cosz + ci
5) ________ parts of an analytic function satisfy the Laplaces equation.
a) Only real b) Only imaginary
c) Both real and imaginary d) None of these
6) A continuous function f(z) over a continuous rectifiable arc c is
a) Differentiable b) Integrable
c) Mesomorphic d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 215 -2- *SLRSO215*
1 π
7) The function f(z) = at z = has a
sin z − cos z 4
a) Simple pole corresponding to n = 0
b) Isolated singularity
c) Essential singularity
d) No singularity
dz
8) If ∫z
C
2
around the circle |z| = 1 is
a) Zero b) πi c) 2πi d) 4πi

9) The curve L is regular if
a) z′(t) = 0 b) z′(t) ≠ 0 c) z(t) = 0 d) z(t) ≠ 0
sin z
10) Consider the function f(z) = , z ∈ c then
z
a) f has a removable singularity at z = a
b) f has a pole at z = 0
c) f has a essential singularity at z = 0
d) f has non-removable singularity at z = 0
11) Which of the following is not the residue of f(z) at z = ∞ ?
1 1
2πi ∫C
− z f (z ) f(z)dz
2πi ∫
a) zlim
→∞
b) − f ( z )dz c) d) None of the above
C
ψ (z )
12) If f(z) = where φ (a) = 0 and ψ(a) ≠ 0 then the Residue at z = a is f(z) =
φ(z)
ψ (a ) ψ ′( a ) ψ (a ) ψ ′( a )
a) b) c) d)
φ(a) φ(a) φ ′( a ) φ ′( a )
1
13) Residue of at z = 1 is
z(1 − z 2 )
1 1
a) 1 b) – 1 c) − d)
2 2
sin πz 2 + cos πz 2
14) The residue of f(z) = at z = 2 is
(z + 1)2 (z − 2)
1 2 1
a) b) c) 1 d) −
9 9 9
Set P
*SLRSO215* -3- SLR-SO – 215
1) If f(z) and g(z) are analytic function in a domain D then
d d
g(z) f(z) − f(z) g(z) .
d  f (z )  dz dz
  =
dz  g(z)  [g(z)]2
1
2) If u = log(x 2 + y 2 ) . Find its harmonic conjugate.
2
3) Define partition and norm of interval [a, b].
cot πz
4) Find the kind of singularity of the function 2 at z = 0 and z = ∞ .
( z − a )
z3
5) Evaluate the residue of at z = ∞ .
(z − 1)(z − 2)(z − 3)

1) If f(z) = u + iv is an analytic function of z = x + iy and ψ is any
function of x and y with differential coefficient then prove that
2
 ∂ψ   ∂ψ 
2
  ∂ψ  2  ∂ψ  2  2
  +   =   +    f ′(zz) .
∂x ∂y  ∂u ∂v 
2) If f(z) is continuous on a contour L of length l and let |f(z) | ≤ M on l then
prove that ∫ f(z)dz ≤ Ml .

L
ez dz
3) Using residue theorem, evaluate ∫ where C is circle |z| = 2.
C
z(z − 1)2

2 sin 2x
1) If u + v = 2 y , find the analytic function f(z) = u + iv.
e + e −2 y − 2 cos 2x
1
2) Prove that the value of the integral of along a semi-circular arc |z| = 1 from
z
– 1 to 1 is – πi or πi according as the arc lies above or below the real axis.
3) Determine the order of poles and values of residues of the function

z+3
i) cosec z ii) 2 .
z − 2z
Set P
SLR-SO – 215 -4- *SLRSO215*
1) State and prove Cauchy’s Residue theorem.
cos x + sin x − e − y
2) If f(z) = P + iQ is analytic function of z = x+ iy and P − Q = ,
2 cos x − e y − e − y
( )
find f(z) subject to the condition f π 2 = 0 .

–4
1) Show that the function f(z) = e–z
(z ≠ 0) and f(0) =0 is not analytic at
z = 0 although the Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied at that point.
∞
 1  1
2) Prove that cosh  z +  = a 0 + ∑ an  zn + n  where
2π
 z n =1
 z 
1
2π ∫0
an = cos nθ cosh(2 cos θ)dθ .
3) If lim(z − a)f(z) = A and if c is the arc θ1 ≤ θ ≤ θ2 of the circle |z – a| = r then

z→ a
lim ∫ f(z)dz = iA(θ2 − θ1) .

r →0
C

∂u 1 ∂v
1) Prove that the polar form of Cauchy’s Riemann equations = and
∂ r r ∂ θ
∂v 1 ∂u −1  y 
where r = x + y , θ = tan   .
2 2
=−
∂r r ∂θ  x
2) Evaluate ∫ z dz from z = 0 to z = 4 + 2i along the curve L defined by

L
a) z = + itt2
b) The line from z = 0 to z = 2i.

1) State and prove Millne-Thomson method.
π
dθ πa
2) Prove that∫0 (a + cos θ)2 (a2 − 1)3 2 , (a > 1) .
=
1
3) Expand for the regions
z(z − 3z + 2)
2
i) 0 < |z| < 1 ii) 1<|z| < 2 iii) |z| > 2.
_____________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (Old) Examination, 2018
statistics (Special Paper – VIII) (CGPA)
Sampling Techniques
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


i) Systematic sampling means
a) selection of n largest units
b) selection of n continuous units
c) selection of n units situated at equal distances
d) none of these
ii) What sampling design is most appropriate for cluster sampling ?
a) SRSWR b) SRSWOR c) Stratified d) Systematic
iii) In __________ sampling all the elements in different groups of the population
are used as sample.
a) Stratified b) Systematic c) Two-stage d) Cluster
iv) The sampling interval is systematic sampling is
N
a) n b) 1− n c) N d) 1−
N N n n
v) __________ errors can be reduced more easily.
a) Sampling b) Non-sampling
c) Random d) Standard
vi) Sampling frame is term used for
a) a list of random numbers
b) a list of voters
c) a list of sampling units of a population
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 216 -2- *SLRSO216*
vii) The total number of possible samples of size n, drawn from population of
size N by SRSWOR is
 N
a) N b) n c) Nn d)  
 n
viii) The probability of selection varies at each draw in
a) SRSWR b) SRSWOR
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) nor b)
ix) Stratified random sampling belongs to the category of
a) subjective sampling b) controlled sampling
c) judgement sampling d) none of these
x) Circular systematic sampling first used by
a) W. G. Cochran b) M. H. Hansen c) D. B. Lahiri d) C. R. Rao
xi) The discrepancy between estimate and population parameter is known as
a) human error b) non-sampling error
c) sampling error d) none
xii) In SRSWR, the same sampling may be included in the sample
a) only once b) only twice
c) more than once d) none of these
xiii) In presence of linear trend _______ method is more efficient.
a) Stratified b) Systematic c) SRSWOR d) SRSWR
xiv) Sampling errors can be reduced by
a) Choosing a proper random sampling
b) Selecting a sample of adequate size
c) Using a suitable formula for estimation
d) All of these

i) Define sampling frame and sampling unit.
ii) State an unbiased estimator of population total in stratified sampling.
iii) State any two merits of stratified sampling.
iv) Explain sampling errors.
v) Give real life situation where cluster sampling is used.
Set P
*SLRSO216* -3- SLR-SO – 216

i) Explain Neyman’s allocation.
ii) Define ratio estimator.
iii) Describe proportional allocation.

i) What are the advantages of sampling over census ?
ii) Explain two-stage sampling.
iii) Explain multi stage sampling.

i) Define regression estimator of population mean.
ii) State the characteristics of a good questionnaire.

i) Show that ratio estimator is a biased estimator.
ii) What are non sampling errors ? Describe in brief different sources of these
errors.
iii) With usual notations show that : V(Y st )p ≤ V(Yn )R. .

( )
i) With usual notations show that : E Ylr ≠ Y .
ii) Describe cluster sampling. Show that sample mean is unbiased estimator
of population mean.
5. Attempt the following (any two) : 14

i) Find an unbiased estimator of the population mean and obtain its variance
in case of cluster sampling.
ii) Obtain unbiased estimator for population mean in case of systematic
sampling.
iii) Explain sampling for proportion. Obtain its unbiased estimator for population
proportion.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Geology (Special Paper – VIII)
Geomorphology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Which of the following is exogenetic process ?
a) Earthquake b) Deposition c) Volcano d) None of these
2) The level below which river cannot erode vertically downward is also called
as _____________
a) Lower level of erosion b) Upper level of erosion
c) Sea level d) Base level of erosion
3) Slope angle greater than 45° can be classified as ________ slope.
a) precipitous to vertical b) almost level
c) very gentle d) moderate
4) Which of the following has definite surface of failure ?
a) Flowage b) Subsidence c) Sliding d) All of these
5) The concept “ The present is the key to the past” is given by __________
a) Steno b) James Hutton
c) W. M. Davis d) W. D. Thornbury
6) No river can erode vertically beyond ______________
a) Mean sea level b) Local base level
c) Valley floor d) Interfluve
7) The slope can be considered as stable when it has angle __________
a) 20° to 47° b) 35° to 37° c) 20° to 27° d) 30° to 37°
8) Which of the following has indefinite surface of failure ?
a) Flowage b) Subsidence c) Sliding d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 217 -2- *SLRSO217*
9) Knick point can be indicated by presence of _____________
a) Water fall b) Meandering c) Delta d) None of these
10) Alluvial fans and alluvial cones, meanders and loops and natural levees
are characteristics of __________ stage in the fluvial evolution.
a) youth b) mature
c) old d) all of the above
11) Which one of the following is endogenic process ?
a) Earthquake b) Erosion c) Deposition d) Weathering
12) Rejuvenation can be interpreted by presence of ___________
a) point bar b) meandering
c) entrenched meander d) delta
13) Interpretation of evolution of landscape is impossible without appreciation of
the manifold influences of the geologic and climatic changes during the
a) Oligocene b) Miocene c) Pliocene d) Pleistocene
14) A landscape produced by the effect of many geomorphic cycle of
development is called as __________
a) monocyclic b) multicyclic c) exhumed d) resurrected

1) What is compound landscape ?
2) What is monodnock stage ?
3) What is topographic discordance ?
4) What is slope of accumulation ?
5) What is lahar ?

1) Explain how incised meanders indicate rejuvenation.
2) Explain slow flowage and rapid flowage.
3) What is rotational sliding ?

1) Explain how knick points indicate rejuvenation.
2) Explain wanning slope.
3) What is subsidence ?
Set P
*SLRSO217* -3- SLR-SO – 217
1) What is dynamic equilibrium ?
2) Explain static and eustatic rejuvenation.

1) Explain in detail the role of water in mass movement.
2) What are topographic expressions of rejuvenation ?
3) Explain factors which increase shearing forces in mass movement .

1) What are causes of rejuvenation ?
2) What causes subsidence ?

1) Importance of geological structures in mass movement.
2) Explain landforms formed over sedimentary rocks.
3) Classification of mass movement.
___________

Set P
Seat
No. Set P
microbiology (Special Paper – VIII)
Industrial Microbiology
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct alternatives given below : 14
1) __________ organisms are used for curdling in Cheddar cheese production.

a) Streptococcus b) Leuconostoc
c) Lactobacillus d) Pediococcus
2) __________ wine do not contain CO2.

a) Dessert b) Still c) Sparkling d) Dry
3) __________ rDNA product is used for treatment of diabetic patients.

a) Insulin b) Interferon c) Glucagon d) Interleukins
4) Wine storage tanks are generally constructed of

a) Red Oak b) Nickel c) White Oak d) Iron
5) __________ organism is used as cloning organism for production of rDNA

products.
a) B. Subtilis b) S. Aureus c) E. Coli d) Ps. Aeruginosa
6) Nonsymbiotic N2 fixer is
a) Cyanobacter b) Azotobacter
c) Blue green algae d) Rhizobium
7) Bruce Ames test is used for __________ testing.

a) Pyrogen b) Toxicity c) Carcinogen d) Allergy
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 218 -2- *SLRSO218*
8) Recovery of alcohol is carried out by

a) Precipitation b) Chromatography
c) Distillation d) Adsorption
9) __________ is used as a antifoaming agent.
a) Iron compounds b) Calcium compounds
c) Silicon compounds d) Phosphorous compounds
10) The first phase of streptomycin production is characterised by
a) Sporulation b) Mycelial growth
c) Autolysis d) Formation
11) __________ organisms forms film over the wine to produce defective wine.
a) Lactobacillus b) Saccharomyces
c) Acetobacter d) Mycoderma
12) Saccharomyces cerevisial variety ellipsoides is used for production of
a) rDNA products b) Lysine
c) Wine d) Streptomycin
13) Biopolymers are extracted and purified by precipitation with
a) Methanol b) NaOH
c) Phosphoric acid d) Hcl
14) __________ is the waste of dairy industry.
a) CSL b) Whey c) Molasses d) SWL

1) What is curdling of milk ?
2) Microbial spoilage of wine.
3) What is crude media ?
4) List organisms involved in Idli production.
5) What is crystallization ?
1) Yogurt production.
2) CSL
3) Concentration as a method of recovery of fermentation product.
Set P
*SLRSO218* -3- SLR-SO – 218

1) Food as a substrate
2) Production of bread
3) Sterilization of fermentation media.
1) Allergy testing
2) Production of Rhizo biofertilizer.

1) Whole broth processing
2) Production of white table wine
3) Production of bioinsecticide.
1) Carcinogenicity testing
2) Chromatography.
1) Production of rDNA product interferon
2) Lysine producine
3) Pyrogenicity testing.
_____________________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Old CGPA) Examination, 2018

ELECTRONICS
special Paper – VIII : Fundamentals of Communication

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Choose correct alternatives for the following : 14

1) A frequency of 27 MHz has wave length of approximately
a) 27 m b) 30 m
c) 11 m d) 33 m
2) In super heterodyne AM radio receiver standard value of IF is
a) 455 KHz b) 4.5 MHz
c) 7.5 MHz d) 4.5 KHz
3) Receiver uses
a) Modulator b) Detector
4) Telephone communication is _____________ system.
a) Simplex b) Duplex
c) Complex d) Multiplex
5) If amplitude of modulating signal is 20 mV and that of carrier is 50 mV, then
percentage modulation is
a) 0.4 b) 4
c) 40 d) 70
6) The most widely used antenna for microwaves is _______ antenna.
a) yagi-Uda b) Vertical
c) Rhombic d) Parabolic dish
7) In AM signal, the useful information is carried by
a) Carrier wave b) Lower side band
c) Upper side band d) Both side bands
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 219 -2- *SLRSO219*
8) For a good communication system he S/N ratio must be

a) Zero b) Low
c) Medium d) High
9) Which of the following is a major communication medium, used now days ?
a) Wires/cables b) Fiber-optic cables
c) Free-space d) Water
10) The radio-wave propagates through space by
a) Surface-waves b) Space-waves
c) Sky-waves d) All of these
11) Which two sine-wave frequencies are produced, when the number (8) key
of DTMF dialer is pressed ?
a) 697 and 1477 Hz b) 852 and 1336 Hz
c) 770 and 1209 Hz d) 941 and 1633 Hz
12) Communication is the process of
a) Broadcasting b) Internet
c) Telecasting d) Exchange of information
13) Noise figure in radio receiver is the ratio of
a) (S/N) output/(S/N) input b) N/S
c) (S/N) d) (S/N) input/(S/N) output
14) The lowest existing layer in ionosphere is
a) E layer b) D layer
c) F1 layer d) F2 layer

1) What is noise figure ?
2) Define FM and its modulation Index.
3) Define Virtual Height.
4) What is Super heterodyne principal ?
5) What is elements of Telephone handset ?
1) VSB Transmission.
2) Radiation pattern of Antenna.
3) One way and two way communication.
Set P
*SLRSO219* -3- SLR-SO – 219
3. A) Answer any two the following : 8

1) What are the types of radio waves ? Explain sky wave propagation.
2) A transmitter radiates 1500 watt power under carrier condition. If this
carrier is modulated by 60%, determine total power radiated.
3) Explain ratio detector in brief.
1) Explain the principal of antenna.
2) Explain DTMF dialer tone.

1) Explain with neat block diagram AM superheterodyne receiver.
2) Explain envelop detector.
3) Explain telephone handset with its block diagram.
1) Distinguish between AM and FM.
2) Explain composite video signal with diagram.

1) Explain amplitude modulation and derive an expression for AM modulated
wave.
2) What is electronic communication ? Explain along and digital
communication with necessary block diagram.
3) Explain various parameters of antenna.
___________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

computer science
Core Java (special Paper – VIII)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) In java String is a data type.
A) True B) False
2) Which class is used to create a pop-up list of items from which the user
may choose ?
a) List b) Choice c) Labels d) Checkbox
3) Synchronization is a process of strong object contents into a file.
a) True b) False
4) Which class is used the write data into a file in the form of characters ?
a) FileInputStream b) FileOutputStream
c) Filewriter d) FileReader
5) Which of these can be overloaded ?
a) Methods b) Constructors
c) Both A and B d) None of these
6) Throwable is a super class of exception and error class.
a) True b) False
7) Which of these packages contain all the event classes ?
a) java.lang b) java.util
c) java.awt.event d) java.awt
8) Which block are executed irrespective of whether there is an exception or
not ?
a) try b) catch c) throw d) finally
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 220 -2- *SLRSO220*
9) Which layout used to arrange the components in a line one after the other ?
a) FlowLayout b) BorderLayout
c) GridLayout d) GridBackLayout
10) _______ type exception caused when an object is referring null.

a) ArithmeticException b) NumberFormatException
c) NullPointerException d) FileNotFoundException
11) ________ method returns the length of string.

a) length() b) size() c) len() d) strlen()
12) Which component is responsible for converting byte code into machine ?
a) JVM b) JDK c) JIT d) JRE
13) Java is a platform independent.

a) True b) False
14) Which of these is a wrapper class for data type int ?

a) Integer b) Long c) Byte d) Double
1) Define mutable and immutable object.
2) Write the use of ‘instanceof’ operator.
3) Write use of final keyword.
4) What is package ?
5) Write use of wrapper class.
B) Write a notes on (any two). 6
1) Frame.
2) Abstract class.
3) Array in java.
Set P
*SLRSO220* -3- SLR-SO – 220
1) What is exception ? Explain types of exception.
2) Explain the simple structure of java program.
3) Write a program to check given string is palindrome or not.
1) Write a program to demonstrate that use of ‘this’ keyword.
2) Difference between method overloading and overriding.
1) What is thread ? Explain multithreading with example.
2) Differentiate between interface and class.
3) Write an applet to check no. is Armstrong or not (use AWT components

and events).
1) Write a program to which show use of ‘NumberFormateException’.
2) Explain applet life cycle with suitable example.
1) Explain multiple inheritances with suitable example.
2) Explain layout manager with example.
3) Explain operators in Java.

_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (Old-CGPA) Examination, 2018
Physics (Special Paper – IX)
Classical Mechanics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

3) Use of log table or calculator is allowed.

1) A rigid body in motion can be completely specified if its ___________
and ___________ are given.
a) Position, Orientation
b) Position, Centre of mass
c) Body frame of reference, principal axis
d) Centre of mass, orientation
2) If the missile is moving towards the north in northern hemisphere, its
deflection due to coriolis force is towards the ___________
a) East b) West c) South d) North
3) The energy transfer from an oscillator to its coupled partner is periodic
and takes place with the period ___________
π 2π
a) T = b) T =
w1 − w 2 w1 − w 2
4π 3π
c) T = d) T =
w1 − w 2 w1 − w 2
4) The generalized coordinates ___________
a) Have dimensions of length
b) Can be divided into the convenient groups of three
c) Determine the configuration of the system
d) Are dependent of each other
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 221 -2- *SLRSO221*
5) The velocity of the projectile while falling on the ground is ___________
the velocity with which it was projected.
a) greater than b) less than
c) equal to d) all of the above
6) If all forces of a system are generated from a single function, the system
is called ___________ system.
a) Conservative b) Monogenic
c) Non Conservative d) Homogenic
7) In the rotational motion of a rigid body, the directions of the angular velocity
vector and the angular momentum vector are ___________
a) Different b) Same
c) Antiparalle to each other d) Inclined to each other
8) For holonomic constraints the equation is ___________
a) 
f (
→→ →
r1 , r2 , ...., rn , t ) ≠ 0 b) f (
→→ →
r1 , r2 , ...., rn , t ) = 0
c) 
f (
→→ →
r1 , r , ...., rn , t ) > 0 d) f (
→→ →
r1 , r , ...., rn , t ) = ∞
2 2
9) The anti symmetric mode has ___________ frequency of oscillation than

that of the symmetric mode.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Same d) Different
10) A rigid body have ___________ degrees of freedom.
a) 9 b) 6 c) 3 d) 2
11) The coriolis force acting on a horizontally moving particle at the equator
is ___________
a) Zero b) Minimum
c) Maximum d) Moderate
12) The part which deals with the motion of bodies without any reference to
the force or forces causing the motion is called ___________
a) Kinematics b) kinetics c) statics d) dynamics
13) The curve for which the surface of revolution is a minimum is a ___________
a) Catenary b) Cycloid c) Elipse d) Straight line
14) In coupled system, the energy of the first pendulum decreases while that
of the other increases as the angle ___________ increases.
a)  w 2 − w1  . t
w − w2 
b)  1 .t c)  w1 + w 2  .t d)  2 
      .t
2  2   2   w1 − w 2 
 
Set P
*SLRSO221* 3- SLR-SO – 221
1) What are difficulties introduced by constraints in the mechanical
problems ?
2) State the theorem of conservation of linear and angular momentum of
a particle.
3) Explain the formation of cyclones.
4) What are the advantages of Hamilton’s formulation ?
5) What is rigid body ?

1) Explain the principle of virtual work.
2) Show that the shortest distance between two points in a plane is along
a straight line.
3) State and prove the Euler’s theorem about the motion of a rigid body.

1) Discuss the effect of coriolis force on a body falling freely under the
action of gravity.
2) Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of a rigid body in the
components form.
3) Derive an expressions for time of flight of a projectile moving in a
resistive medium.

1) Derive an expression for the general Euler-Lagrange’s differential equation.
2) What are normal coordinates and normal modes of oscillations ?
Explain symmetric and antisymmetric mode of oscillation and obtain an
expression for normal mode of simple harmonic osciations in terms of
normal coordinates.

1) Obtain an expression for the motion of a bead sliding on a rotating wire
in a force free space.
2) State and prove the conservation theorem for energy of system of particles.
3) Explain the principle of Newtonian relativity. What is mean by pseudo
force ?
Set P
SLR-SO – 221 -4- *SLRSO221*
1) Masses m and 2 m are connected by light inextensible string of length
‘l’ which passes over a pulley of mass 2 m and radius a. Write the
lagrangian and find the acceleration of the system.
2) Show that in the rotational motion of a body applied with a torque, the
rate at which work is done by the torque is equal to the rate of change
of kinetic energy of the body.

1) Obtain Lagrange’s equations from D’Alembert’s principle.
2) Show that the angular acceleration of a particle is the same in fixed
and rotating coordinate systems. Obtain an expression for velocity and
acceleration relative to fixed axes.
3) Write down the equations of motion of the two simple pendulums coupled
by means of a weightless elastic spring of force constant K. Obtain their
general solutions.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (Old CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018

chemistry (Special Paper – IX)
Organic Chemistry
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

3) Write balanced chemical equations wherever
necessary.
5) Spectroscopic data chart supplied by university is
allowed.
1. Select the most correct alternative amongst those given below and rewrite the
complete sentence. 14
1) ___________ signals are observed in PMR spectrum of acetaldehyde.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 8 d) 4
2) Mass spectrometry involves separation of ions depending on ________
ratio.
a) Mass/Charge b) Charge/Mass
c) Carbon/Hydrogen d) Proton/Electron
3) In IR spectroscopy out of plane bending vibrations can classified into
a) Rocking and scissoring vibrations
b) Waging and twisting
c) Linear and nonlinear
d) Bending and non bending
4) Infrared spectroscopy is mainly used for detection of
a) nature protons b) electronic structure
c) functional groups d) molecular weight
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 222 -2- *SLRSO222*
5) __________ is an example of non-magnetic nuclei.
a) 6C12 b) 6C13 c) 1H1 d) 7N15
6) Highest value of chemical shift for methyl protons will be observed for
a) CH3 – CH2 – R b) CH3 – NH – R
c) CH3 – O – R d) CH3 – S – R
7) Methyl group protons in acetic acid appear in the form of ____________ in
the PMR spectrum.
a) doublet b) triplet c) quartet d) singlet
8) Acetophenone can be converted into Alpha-methyl benzyl alcohol by
a) Stobbe condensation b) Oppenauer oxidation
c) MPV reduction d) W.M. rearrangement
9) Acetamide can be converted into methyl amine by
a) hydrolysis b) stobbe condensation
c) hofmann rearrangement d) MPV reduction
10) ______________ conformation of cyclohexane has minimum potential
energy.
a) Chair b) Boat c) Half chair d) Twist boat
11) Addition of bromine to trans-2-butene is ___________ reaction.
a) only stereoselective
b) only stereospecific
c) both stereoselective and stereospecific
d) non-stereoselective
12) On reaction with sodium hydroxide active methylene compounds forms
a) Sodium salt b) δ-carbocations
c) b-carbocations d) a-carbocations
13) Diethyl malonate is diethyl ester of
a) butane-dioic acid b) propane-dioic acid
c) malic acid d) succinic acid
14) In mass spectrum of ethane the Molecular ion peak is observed at m/e
ratio
a) 30 b) 16 c) 4 d) 64
Set P
*SLRSO222* -3- SLR-SO – 222
1) Why TMS is used as an internal standard in NMR spectroscopy ?
2) Explain types of out of plane bending vibrations.
3) Write keto and enol structures of ethyl aceto acetate.
4) Define what is Stobbe condensation ? Give one example.
5) Define the terms stereo selective and stereo specific reactions.
1) Application of ethyl aceto acetate in synthesis of cinnamic acid and

succinic acid.
2) Oppenauer oxidation.
3) Mass spectrometry in molecular formula determination.
1) Explain the relative stability of two conformers of t-butyl cyclohexane with

energy diagram.
2) Explain mechanism of Wagner-Meerwein Rearrangement with

example.
3) Discuss the PMR spectrum of acetaldehyde, comment on splitting pattern

of signals.
1) How will you monitor following transformations with the help of given
spectroscopic method ?
i) Conversion of 2-propanone into 2-propanol by IR spectroscopy.
ii) Conversion of ethene into 1, 2-dichloroethane by Mass-Spectrometry.
2) How will you prepare cinnamic acid, 4-methyl uracil and antipyrine starting
from ethyl aceto acetate ?
Set P
SLR-SO – 222 -4- *SLRSO222*
1) Write the limitations of Baeyer’s strain theory and comment on theory of

strain less rings.
2) How will you synthesize barbituric acid, b-methyl crotonic acid and
n-valeric acid from diethylmalonate ?
3) Explain the concept of Spin-spin splitting (n + 1 rule) with example.
B) Answr the following (any one) : 4

1) Explain Hoffmann rearrangement reaction with example.
2) How will you distinguish the following pairs of compounds with PMR
spectroscopy ?
i) Ph – CO – Ph and Ph – CHOH – Ph
ii) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 and CH3 – CHCl – CH3.
1) What are conformers ? Draw different conformers of cyclohexane and explain

their stability.
2) Propose the structure of the compound with molecular formula C7H8 based
upon following spectral characteristics. IR = 1600 cm–1, Mass : m/z = 92,
78 and PMR δ : 2.3 (3H.s), 7.02(5H.s). Assign the IR, NMR values in the
structure of compound.
3) An organic compound A with molecular formula C7H7ON shows IR bands at

1400, 1670, 3350 cm–1. When it is heated with Br2/KOH it forms compound
B with molecular formula C6H7N which gives two signals in PMR and has IR
bands at 1220, 3550 cm–1. Name the reaction involved in the transformation
and comment on spectroscopic data of compounds A and B.

Set P
*SLRSO222* -5- SLR-SO – 222
Set P
SLR-SO – 222 -6- *SLRSO222*
_______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018
botany (Special paper – iX) (Old)
Genetics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) The blood group __________ is universal donor.

a) A b) B c) AB d) O
2) Best example self incompatibility in plant is

a) Tomato b) Carrot
c) Tobacco d) Lemon
3) Self incompatibility first time coined by

a) Stout b) East
c) Mangelsdwarf d) Landsteiner
4) In Drosophila, chromosomes in normal female are

a) 2A + XY b) 2A + XXY
c) 2A + XX d) 2A + XXY
5) In Drosophila, sex chromosomes

a) only X b) only Y
c) are X and Y d) are Z and W
6) Extranuclear inheritance commonly occurs in

a) nucleus b) cytoplasmic organelles
c) cell wall d) cell membrane
7) In Hardy Weinberg law, gene frequency p + q =

a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 223 -2- *SLRSO223*
8) The chromosome number is 2n – 1 then it is called

a) Monosomy b) Nullisomy
c) Trisomy d) Tetrasomy
9) Hexaploid wheat variety is an example of

a) Monosomy b) Nullisomy
c) Autopolyploid d) Allopolyploid
10) Autosomes pair in human male are

a) 22 b) 23 c) 24 d) 25
11) Protonaphia is _________ colour blindness.

a) Green b) Yellow c) Red d) Blue
12) Hemophilia in human being is caused due to

a) Chromosomal aberration b) Autosomal mutation
c) Sex linked mutation d) None of above
13) Polyploidy in plants induced by ________ treatment.

a) Ethanol b) Colchicine
c) EMS d) X-ray
14) The proportion of different genotypes in a sample is called

a) Emigration b) Gene frequency
c) Genotypic frequency d) Relative fitness

1) What is sex chromosome ?
2) Enlist blood group in man.
3) Give any four eye colour in Drosophila.
4) Define allele.
5) What is haploid ?

1) Sex linked inheritance : Holandric genes.
2) Nullisomy.
3) Hardy-Weinberg’s law.
Set P
*SLRSO223* -3- SLR-SO – 223

1) Explain in short self incompatibility in plants.
2) Describe in brief plastid inheritance.
3) Explain in brief XX-YY female-male sex determination.

1) Explain in brief trisomy.
2) Give an account of Bridge’s experiment : Balance concept of sex
determination in Drosophila.

1) Give an account of Mendelian inheritance.
2) Explain Mitochondrial inheritance.
3) Describe the genetic significance of polyploidy.

1) Give an account of chromosomes in Drosophila.
2) Write a note on Hemophilia.

1) What is aneuploidy ? Describe in brief trisomy and tetrasomy.
2) Write characteristics of extra chromosomal inheritance.
3) What is sex linked inheritance ? Explain in brief colorblindness.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – IX)
Comparative Anatomy of Chordates
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

ii) Figure is to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Draw neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.

1) Lungs of Pigeon are provided with ___________ air sacs.
a) ten b) nine c) eight d) four
2) Lobi inferiors are present in brain of _______
a) elasmobranches b) mammals
c) reptiles d) amphibians
3) Horns of cattle are derivatives of _________________ integuments in
vertebrate.
a) epidermis b) dermis
c) keratin d) connective tissue
4) Gills of _________ have filiform gill lamellae.
a) Cartilage fish b) Bony fish
c) Ascidian tadpole d) Frog tadpole
5) Opisthonephros kidney is found in ____________
a) scoliodon b) frog c) birds d) mammals
6) _________ is one of the contributory bone of pectoral girdle of vertebrate.
a) Ilium b) Coracoid
c) Scapula d) Pterygoid
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 224 -2- *SLRSO224*
7) Four chambered heart present in _________________
a) frog b) cow c) labeo d) lizzard
8) Femoral gland is present in ________
a) amphibia b) aves c) reptiles d) mammals
9) Sinus venosus is on the way of disappearance in _______ group of
vertebrate.
a) avian b) reptilian c) mammalian d) amphibian
10) Pons varolli is present in ___________ group of vertebrates.
a) pisces b) amphibians c) reptiles d) mammals
11) Foramen panizzae found as a bridge connecting two systemic aortae at the
point of their crossing is found in __________
a) mammals b) birds c) reptiles d) fishes
12) ____________ shows incomplete four chambered heart.
a) Reptile b) Birds c) Mammals d) Fishes
13) Optic lobes are divided into two each and hence are called corpora
quadrigemina is found in ______________
a) frog b) fish c) lizard d) rat
14) Stomach of ruminant mammals shows __________chambered.
a) two b) three c) four d) five

1) Gills of bony fishes
2) Brain of bird
3) Membranous labyrinth in scoliodon
4) Heart of frog
5) Avian kidney.
1) Describe the cutaneous respiration.
2) Fore gut in birds.
3) Function of mammalian skin.
Set P
*SLRSO224* -3- SLR-SO – 224
1) Ventricles in vertebrate brain.
2) Describe the aortic arches in reptiles.
3) Air sacs in bird.
1) Hepatic portal system.
2) Mesonephros kidney.
1) Describe lungs of reptiles.
2) Describe alimentary canal of frog.
3) Give an account on four chambered heart of vertegbrate.
1) Describe Mammary glands in Rat.
2) Describe Placoid scales.

1) Describe brain of soliodon and compare it with brain of frog.
2) Give an account of glandular derivatives of integument in vertebrate.
3) Give comparative account on scales of cartilagenous and bony fishes.
______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (Old-CGPA) Examination, 2018
Mathematics (Special Paper – IX)
Integral Calculus

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) The improper integral with infinite interval of integration and bounded
integrand is known as
a) the improper integral of the first kind
b) the improper integral of the second kind
c) the improper integral of the third kind
d) the improper integral of the mixed kind
b
2) The condition for the convergence of the improper integral ∫ f(x) dx at a,

a
where f(x) is positive when x ∈ (a, b], is that there exists k > 0, such that
b
∫
a +∈
f(x) dx < k, ∀ ∈ ∈ (0, b – a] or for all is
0<∈<b–a
a) necessary but not sufficient

b) sufficient but not necessary
c) both necessary and sufficient
d) neither necessary nor sufficient
3) The µ-test states that, if b is the only point of infinite discontinuity of f on
b
[a, b] and xlim

→b
(b – x)µ f(x) exists and ______ then ∫ f(x) dx converges if and
a
only if µ < 1.
a) is zero b) is any non-zero
c) is non-zero finite d) is any value
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 225 -2- *SLRSO225*
∞
4) the integrand of the integral ∫ xm – 1. e–x dx has infinite discontinuity at

0
zero if
a) m < 1 b) m > 1 c) m = 1 d) 0
π
x
5) The integral ∫ sin x
dx is
0
c) conditionally convergent d) absolutely convergent
6) lim n =
n→0
a) 0 b) 1 c) ∞ d) π
1
7) B  ,
3
=

2 2 
π π
a) π b) 2 c) π d) 8
8) - 1 =
2
a) π b) – π c) 2 π d) – 2 π
1
9) ∫ x4(1 – x)2 dx =
0
1 1
1
a) b) 105 c) 101 d) 101
15
1 3x
10) The multiple integral ∫ ∫ xy dx dy =

0 0
3 2 1
a) 1 b) c) 3 d) - 2
2
π a sinθ
11) ∫ ∫ rdθdr =
0 0
π
2 2 2
a) a π b) a c) ∫ sinθ dθ d) 3a π
4 4 0 4
Set P
*SLRSO225* -3- SLR-SO – 225
1 1
12) Change of order of integration in the double integral ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dxdy gives
0 y

1 1 1 x x y y x
a) ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dydx b) ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dydx c) ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dydx d) ∫ ∫ f(x, y) dxdy
0 x 0 0 0 0 1 0
13) Area lying between the parabola y = 4x – x2 and the line y = k is

1 3 5
a) unit b) unit c) unit d) 9 unit
2 2 2 2
14) For transformation x + y = u, x – y = v, the value of dxdy is
1 1 2
a) dudv b) ududv c) dudv d) u dudv
2 2
∞
2
1) Examine the convergence of ∫ e- x dx .
0
1 -1
sin x
2) Compute the integral ∫ x
dx.
0
3) Define the terms : Beta and Gamma function.
4) Evaluate - 3 .
2
(x, y ) 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, 4 ≤ y ≤ 5 and
5) Let A =  
 f(x, y ) = (x + y )2 
Evaluate ∫ f(x, y) dA.

A
1 dx .
1) Test the convergence of ∫ 1- x3
0
1
3
∫ (x log x)
3
dx = - .
2) Prove that 128
0
1 y
xye- x dxdy .
2
3) Find ∫∫
0 0
Set P
SLR-SO – 225 -4- *SLRSO225*
∞
1) Discuss the convergence of the integral cos x
∫ 2
dx .
1+ x
2) Prove that B (m, n) = m n 0
m+n
3) Find by double integration area of the region enclosed by curves
x2 + y2 = a2, x + y = a in the first quadrant.
1) Show that every absolutely convergent integral is convergent for improper

integral of first kind.
 ∞ - x4 2   ∞ - x4  π
2) Show that  ∫ e x dx  ×  ∫ e dx  = .
0  0  8 2

1 m-1 n-1
x +x
1) Prove that B(m, n) = ∫ (1 + x )m+n
dx.
0
1
x (1 + x 2 )
3
Hence obtain ∫ dx .
0 (1 + x)10
1 1 x-y  1 1 x - y 
2) Show that ∫ ∫
 0 (x + y )
2
dy 

dx ≠ ∫ ∫
 0 (x + y )
2
dx  dy .

0 0
∞
- a2 x2
3) Show that ∫e .cos bxdx is absolutely convergent.
0
1
 1 -x  dx
1) Show that ∫  1+ x - e  x is convergent.

0
2) Show that if m > 0, n > 0 then

b
m-1
∫ (x - a) (b - x )n-1dx = (b - a)m+n-1. β(m, n) .
a
1) State and prove Dirichlet’s test for the improper integral of a product of two
functions.
2) Prove that 22m-1 m m + 21 = π 2m .
( xx+-yy ). dxdy

3) Using the transformation x + y = u, x – y = v evaluate ∫∫ e over the
region bounded by x = 0, y = 0, x + y = 1.
_________________ Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Old) Examination, 2018

statistics (special Paper – IX) (CGPA Pattern)
Probability Distributions and Stochastic Process
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

2) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is
allowed.
1. Choose most appropriate alternative. 14

i) In case of Transition Probability Matrix (TPM) which of the following
statements is/are true ?
A) Row sum is 1
b) It is square matrix
a) Only A b) Only B
c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B
ii) For C(0, 1) distribution median =
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) – 0.5 d) none of these
iii) For L(µ, λ) distribution
a) mean > median b) mean < median
c) mean = median d) mean = λ 2
iv) If X is Cauchy (10, 20) then Q3 =
v) If P denotes one step T.P.M. then 4 step T.P.M. is given by
a) P2 b) P3 c) P4 d) P–4
vi) Let (X, Y) is BN (0, 0, σ1 , σ2 , ρ ) and suppose U = X and V = Y then the
2 2

marginal distribution of U is Y
a) Cauchy b) Normal
c) Bivariate normal d) Uniform
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 226 -2- *SLRSO226*
vii) Let (X, Y) is BN (3, 2, 4, 9, 0) then Cov (X, Y) =
a) 0 b) 18
c) 3 d) None of these
viii) The pdf of L(µ, λ) distribution is f(x) = __________ over R1.
λ + λ | x − µ| λ − λ | x − µ|
a) e b) µ e
2
1 − λ | x − µ| λ − λ | x − µ|
c) e d) e
λ 2
ix) If X is N (µ, σ2) r.v., truncated below µ then p (X > µ) =
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) None of these
x) For Cauchy distribution coefficient of skewness γ1

a) is positive b) is negative c) is equal to 0 d) does not exists
xi) Suppose X is B (n, p) r.v., truncated at X = 0. Then mean of this distribution =

np np np
a) np b) n c) d)
q (1− q)n (1− qn )
xii) A state 5 of a markov chain is called absorbing state if
( n) ( n)
a) P5,5 = 0 b) P5,5 > 0
( n) ( n)
c) P5,5 = 0.5 for n > 1 d) P = 1
5,5
xiii) Let X is LN (0, 1) r.v. then V(5 + k) =

a) 1 b) e(e+1) c) e d) 0
xiv) If X is LN (µ, σ2) then p(x > q2) is =

a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) e–1

a) State pmf of truncated poisson distribution truncated at X = 0.
b) Define lognormal distribution with parameters (µ, σ2).
c) State the additive property of Cauchy distribution.
d) Define transient state.
e) State the relationship between standard normal variates and Cauchy
random variate.
Set P
*SLRSO226* -3- SLR-SO – 226
B) Answer any two from the following. 6
a) If (X, Y) → B. N. (1, 2, 3, 4, 0.6), then find E(X|Y = 2) and V(Y| x = 2).
b) Define absorbing state of a Markov chain. Give suitable illustration.
c) If X → L (µ, λ), then write the expression for Q1 and Q2.
3. A) Attempt any two from the following. 8
a) If X → L (µ, λ), then find E(| X |).

x−µ
b) If X → C (µ, λ), then find the distribution of Y =  .
 λ 
c) Let X is a B (n, p) r.v., truncated at X = 0. Then obtain its p.m.f. and
hence mean.
a) Let {Xn, n ≥ 0} be a markov chain with S = {0, 1, 2}. Let corresponding

0.75 0.25 0 
 
TPM is P = 0.25 0.5 0.25 
 0 0.75 0.25 

1
and initial distribution P(X0 = i) = 3 . Then find the joint distribution of
(X0, X1).
b) If X → LN (µ, σ2), then find its CDF and hence find all the three quartiles.
( 2 2
)
a) If (X, Y) is a BN µ1, µ2 , σ1 , σ2 , ρ r.v., find its mgf.
b) Suppose the probability that a dry day (state 0) following a rainy day
(state 1) is 1/3 and that the probability of rainy day following a dry day
is 0.5. Find the probability that June 9 is a rainy day given that June 7
was a dry day.
c) If X → L (µ, λ) then find its moment generating function.
Set P
SLR-SO – 226 -4- *SLRSO226*
a) Derive CDF of C (µ, λ) distribution.
b) If X is LN (µ, σ2) then find the distribution of kX.
5. Attempt any two from the following. 14
a) Let {Xn, n ≥ 0} be a markov chain with state space S = {0, 1, 2} with TPM
 1 0 0
given by P = 0 1 0  and initial distribution
0 0 1
Xo 0 1 2
Pr 1/3 1/3 1/3
Find joint distribution of (X0, X1).

X
b) Let (X, Y) is BN (0, 0, 1, 1, ρ) and find the distribution of U = .
Y
c) If X is LN (µ, σ2) r.v., then find rth raw moment about origin and hence find
mean and variance.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Old-CGPA) Examination, 2018

geology (Special Paper – IX)
Environmental Geology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the given options : 14
1) Sinkhole collapse in karst areas commonly occurs because of
a) collapse of cavern roofs
b) collapse of surface materials over a cavity
c) rapid solution of limestone near the surface
d) all of these reasons given in a, b and c
2) The solid material falls down under influence of gravity in _________
hazard.
a) cyclone b) tsunami
c) landslide d) volcano
3) The main effect of human activities that produces sinkhole collapse is
a) vibrations from highways, etc. b) increasing runoff by paving
c) lowering the water table d) removing vegetation
4) Which of the following methods can reduce subsidence associated with
underground mining ?
a) Make sure that at least 10 m of hard rock overlies the mine
b) Make rooms wider to reduce amount of vibration associated with
digging
c) Use grout columns
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 227 -2- *SLRSO227*
5) Which of the following means of stabilizing slopes does so by reducing the
shear stress ?
a) draining the subsurface b) installing piles
c) reducing the slope angle d) removing grass
6) Disposal of _____________ is main problem in open cast mining.
a) ore b) dump
c) mineral d) heavy machinery
7) The most destructive landslides generally occur on
a) gentle slopes b) intermediate slopes
c) steep slopes d) leveled ground
8) Slides are more likely where rock layers dip
a) parallel to slope b) into the slope
c) steeply d) gently
9) Gabian structure reduces hazard of
10) Fire is common hazard in __________ mining.
a) gold b) iron
c) coal d) asbestos
11) Slides are less likely where rock layers dip
a) parallel to slope b) into the slope
c) steeply d) gently against slope
12) Gas masks are used in ____________ disaster.
13) Channel spreading controls
a) flood b) tsunami
14) Military activities may cause __________ in hilly areas.
a) flood b) tsunami
Set P
*SLRSO227* -3- SLR-SO – 227
i) Fluorosis
ii) Asbestosis
iii) Retention Wall
iv) Bolting
v) Define flood.

i) Hazards of gaseous products of volcano.
ii) Role of Mangroves in hazard prevention.
iii) Role of artificial dyke in hazard prevention.

i) Water contamination due to mining activity.
ii) Hazard due to heavy machinery in mining activity.
iii) Hazard due to blasting in mining activity.
B) Write answer of any one of the following : 6

i) Hazardous effects of Tsunami.
ii) Hazards in open cast mining.

i) Natural causes of sea level changes.
ii) Man made causes and effects of sea level changes.
iii) Precautions of volcanic hazard.

i) Continuous counter trenching (CCT).
ii) Meshing.

1) Hazard of fire in coal mining.
2) Causes of subsidence.
3) Role of vegetation in flood and landslide hazards.
Set P
_______________
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (Old-CGPA) Examination, 2018
Microbiology (Special Paper – IX)
Agricultural Microbiology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2) Draw well labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct alternatives : 14

1) The protozoans of ____________ class are dominant in soil.
a) Ciliata b) Sporozoa c) Mastigofora d) Diffugia
2) Sulphate is reduced under anaerobic condition by
a) Thiobacillus b) Nitrobacter c) Desulfovibrio d) Bacillus
3) The denitrifying bacteria convert-nitrate or nitrite to
a) NH3 b) NO3 c) N2 d) NH2
4) Composting process requires ____________ percentage of moisture.
a) 100 b) 70 c) 40 d) 10
5) The cleavage of phosphorus from organic matter in soil is carried out by
____________ enzyme.
a) Oxygenase b) Phosphatase
c) Reductase d) Hydrolase
6) The conversion of nontoxic substrates to toxic products is known as
a) Detoxification b) Conjugation c) Degradation d) Activation
7) Quarantine helps in ____________ of plant disease.
a) Spread b) Control c) Pathogenecity d) Transmission
8) The size of sand particles in soil ranges from _________ to ________ mm.
a) 0.05 to 2.00 b) 0.002 to 2.00
c) 2 to 4 d) 0.002 to 0.05
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 228 -2- *SLRSO228*
9) ____________ is the most abundant compound of plant cell.

a) Pectin b) Cellulose
c) Lignin d) Hemicellulose
10) Random cleavage of partially degraded cellulose is caused by ____________
enzyme.
a) C1 cellulose b) Endoenzyme of Cx cellulose
c) Exoenzyme of Cx cellulose d) Cx cellulose
11) Bordeaux mixture contain ____________ lime and water.
a) MgSO4 b) MnSO4 c) Cuso4 d) CaCO3
12) ____________ molecule present in cell wall of plants is made up of
pentoses, hexoses on uronic acids.
a) Cellulose b) Lignin
c) Hamicellulose d) Chitin
13) Soft rot of potato is caused by
a) Xanthomonas citri b) Xanthomonas axonopodis
c) Ustilago scitaminae d) None of these
14) The vermicompost becomes ready after ____________ days.
a) 14 b) 30 c) 47 d) 45

1) Define green manure.
2) Define soil ecosystem.
3) List macronutrients and micronutrients in soil.
4) Explain ‘A’ horizon of soil.
5) Define denitrification.
1) Explain structure of Lignin.
2) Explain what is PO4 solubilization.
3) CO2 fixation.
Set P
*SLRSO228* -3- SLR-SO – 228

1) Structure of hemicellulose.
2) Physical properties of soil.
3) Explain persistent and nonpersistent pesticides.
1) Lignin degradation.
2) Process of vermicomposting.

1) Farm yard manure.
2) Biological nitrogen fixation.
3) Biochemistry of cellulose degradation.
1) Explain important symptoms of plant diseases.
2) Soft rot of potato.

1) Sulfur cycle.
2) Types of microorganisms in soil.
3) Applications of biotechnology in agriculture.
_____________________
Set P
Seat Set P
no.

electronics
Special Paper – IX : Fundamentals of Microcontroller

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


i) The SFR used for selection of the Register Bank is
a) Accumulator b) PSW c) SCON d) TCON
ii) Which one of the following instructions represent direct addressing mode ?
a) MOV A,#52 H b) MOV R5, A
c) MOV A, @ R1 d) MOV 35 H, 50 H
iii) The SFR address of Port 3 is
a) B0H b) 80H c) A0H d) 90H
iv) If microcontroller has to operate in real time mode, then frequency of clock
should be
a) 12 MHz b) 3 MHz
c) 11.0592 MHz d) 12.0592 MHz
v) The result after executing the instruction ADD A,#35 H, where A = 78 H,
will be
a) AB H b) 76 H c) AC H d) AD H
vi) If internal clock is selected for timer, then time for 1 pulse is __________
microsecond.
a) 2 b) 1 c) 8 d) 12
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 229 -2- *SLRSO229*
vii) Which of the following interrupt has highest priority ?

a) Timer overflow b) Serial data transmit
c) External interrupt d) Serial data receive
viii) Which one of the instructions is not a Boolean (single bit) instruction ?
a) SETB P2.0 b) CPL C
c) ANL C, P 1.3 d) CLR A
ix) Which of the following instruction shows relative addressing method ?
a) AJMP b) LCALL c) SJMP d) RET
x) The mode 2 operation of the timer/counter is called as
a) 8-bit autoreload b) 11-bit Timer/counter
c) 11-bit Timer/counter d) 13-bit Timer/counter
xi) The control word to set-up Timer-0 in mode-1 Timer mode and Timer-1 in
Mode-2timer mode, without GATE control is
a) 21 H b) 12 H c) 23 H d) 11 H
xii) Which of the following pin of 8051 microcontroller is used for serialreception ?
a) INT0 b) INT1 c) TxD d) RxD
xiii) ______ Timer is used as Baud-Rate generator for serial
communication.
a) Timer-0 b) Timer-1
c) Both a) and b) d) Timer-2
xiv) Standard Baud rate for serial communication with computer is
a) 110 b) 1200 c) 22400 d) 9600

i) Mention salient features of µC8051.
ii) Give the role of EA pin in µC8051.
iii) Explain MUL AB instruction with suitable examples.
iv) Draw diagram for power on reset circuit for 8051 microcontroller.
v) Give the structure of TMOD register.
Set P
*SLRSO229* -3- SLR-SO – 229
vi) Mention any four instructions of Branch control group.

vii) Give alternate functions of Port 3.
viii) List the interrupts with vector address.
ix) Explain the need of I/O expansion.

i) Draw diagram showing internal architecture of port 1 and explain.
ii) Explain the architecture of internal 128-byte RAM of microcontroller
8051.
iii) Give classification of instruction set of 8051 microcontroller.
B) Write assembly language program to generate square wave at port pin
P1.7. 4

i) Draw the block diagram of µC8051 and explain functions of the block in
brief.
ii) Explain in detail the interfacing of EPROM 2764 to µC8051.
iii) Write an Assembly Language Program to generate a square wave of 5 KHz
on portpin P2.3. Use Timer-0 in Mode-2 and assume crystal frequency of
12 MHz.

i) With suitable diagram explain operation timers of 8051 microcontroller.
ii) Write an Assembly Language Program to transfer internal memory block
B1 often bytes to memory block B2.
iii) What do you mean by serial communication facility of 8051 microcontroller ?
With suitable assembly language program, explain serial transmission to
computer.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

computer Science (Special Paper – IX)
Operating System – I
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternatives. 14

1) The Primary job of the operating system is
a) Manage command b) Manage user
c) Manage programs d) Manage resource
2) __________ shares characteristics with H/W and S/W.
a) Operating system b) Data
c) Application software d) Database software
3) Multiprogramming system are easier to develop than single programming
system.
a) True b) False
4) __________ hole allocation in worst-fit algorithm of memory management.
a) It allocates the smaller hole than required memory hole
b) It allocates the smallest hole from the available memory holes
c) It allocates the largest hole from the available memory holes
d) It allocates exits same size memory hole
5) The Chunks of a memory are known as
a) sectors b) offset c) page d) frame
6) Which of the following operating system reach and reacts in actual time ?
a) real time system b) time sharing system
c) batch processing system d) multitasking system
7) When there is enough memory to fit a process in memory, but the space
is not contiguous we need
a) internal fragmentation b) external fragmentation
c) synchronization d) all of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 230 -2- *SLRSO230*
8) Bring a page into memory when it is needed is called
a) demand memory b) demand paging
c) page fault d) page segmentation
9) Which of the following is not function of operating system ?
a) resource management b) file management
c) network d) process management
10) A page fault occurs when
a) A deadlock happens b) The segmentation starts
c) The page find in memory d) The page not find in memory
11) A program in execution is called
a) A paging b) A process
c) A virtual memory d) A demand paging
12) Copying a process from memory or disk to allow space for other process
is called deadlock.
a) True b) False
13) Inter-process communication
a) Is required for all processes
b) Is never necessary
c) Allow processes to synchronize activity
d) None of these
14) Producer consumer problem can be solved using
a) semaphores b) monitors
c) event counters d) all of the above

1) List the different memory allocation methods.
2) What are the system calls ?
3) Define schedulers.
4) What is meant by multiprogramming ?
5) What is the internal fragmentation ?

1) What are page and frames ?
2) What is semaphores ?
3) Define Compaction.
Set P
*SLRSO230* -3- SLR-SO – 230
3. A) Answer the following questions (any two). 8

1) Differentiate between long term and short term schedulers.
2) Define deadlock and explain necessary condition to occur deadlock.
3) Explain dining philosopher problem.

1) What is virtual memory ? Give its advantages.
2) List the advantages of contiguous allocation.
4. A) Answer the following questions (any two). 10

1) List of different services provided by OS and explain in detail.
2) What is the process and explain process state diagram ?
3) What is synchronization and explain its hardware ?

1) Explain note on Kernel.
2) Explain the various page replacement strategies.
5. Answer the following questions (any two). 14

1) Explain the two solution of recovery from deadlock.
2) Describe in detail time sharing and distributed systems.
3) Explain in detail segmentation.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
physics (Special Paper – X)
Nuclear Physics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) In stripping reaction the product nucleus differs from the target nucleus in
a) Atomic number b) Mass number
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of (a) and (b)
2) Relativistic increase in mass of the ion is the limitation of
a) Synchrotron b) Synchrocyclotron
c) Betatron d) Cyclotron
3) The relation between atomic mass number and radius of nucleus is
given as
a) R = R0A1/3 b) R = R0A3
c) R = R0 d) R = R0A1/2
4) The packing fraction is lowest negative at A =
a) 10 b) 20 c) 50 d) 30
5) The liquid used in Bubble chamber must be
a) Conducting b) Highly conducting
c) Semiconducting d) Non-conducting
6) In Betatron electron is accelerated only for _____________ cycle.
a) T/4 b) T/2 c) T/3 d) T
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 231 -2- *SLRSO231*
7) Energy equivalent to 1 amu is
a) 931 eV b) 931 BeV c) 931 KeV d) 931 MeV
8) Nuclear Magneton is called as
a) Rabi magneton b) Bohr Magneton
c) Newton Magneton d) Magneton
9) 1 barn is equal to
a) 10–28 m2 b) 10–28 cm2
c) 1028 m2 d) 1028 cm2
10) Q-value of Exoergic nuclear reaction is
a) negative b) positive
c) zero d) infinity
11) In k-electron capture the atomic number of the product nucleus
a) increases by 1 b) increases by 2
c) decreases by 1 d) remains same
12) Neutrino Hypothesis was postulated by
a) Rutherford b) Pauli c) Einstein d) Thomson
13) In Greek Baryons means
a) heavy b) light c) hard d) soft
... 30
14) 15P + 1H2 = . . .P + 2H3.
a) 29, 2 b) 2, 29 c) 31, 14 d) 31, 12

1) What is Recovery Time ?
2) Define a-distintegration energy.
3) Mass number of an atom is 39 and its atomic mass is 39.80613 amu.
Find packing fraction of the atom.
4) Draw a neat diagram of Bubble Chamber.
5) Define Nuclear Magnetic Moment.
1) Pick-up reaction.
2) Packing fraction.
3) Nuclear radius.
Set P
*SLRSO231* -3- SLR-SO – 231

1) Define Nuclear reaction. State and explain the types of nuclear
reactions.
2) The atomic mass of Oxygen is 17.97015 amu and mass number is 17.
Calculate the mass defect and packing fraction for oxygen.
3) Discuss advantages and disadvantages of cyclotron.
1) Define nuclear reaction cross-section. Discuss the geometrical significance
of nuclear reaction cross- section of a nuclear reaction.
2) Explain the construction and working of Cloud Chamber.

1) Derive Semi-empirical Binding energy formula for nucleus on the basis
of liquid drop model.
2) Calculate the Q value of the following nuclear reaction and comment on
the result.
13Al27 + 1H2 → 12Mg25 + 2He4
Given : - Mass of 13Al27 = 27.9706 amu
Mass of 1H2 = 2.014102 amu
Mass of 12Mg25 = 25.97216 amu
Mass of 2He4 = 4.00388 amu
3) Explain the continuous nature of b-ray spectrum.
1) What are Elementary Particles ? Give the classification of Elementary
Particles.
2) Write a note on Electric Quadrupole moment.

1) State the principle and explain the working of Betatron. Derive the expression
for kinetic energy gained by the electron.
2) Define Binding energy. Explain the characteristic binding energy curve. The
atomic mass of Calcium is 41.97216 amu and atomic mass number is 41.
Calculate the Binding Energy and Packing fraction for Calcium.
3) Explain construction and working of GM counter. Explain Geiger plateau
region.
______________

Set P

Seat
No. Set P
Chemistry (Special Paper – X)
Analytical and Industrial Physical Chemistry

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2) Draw neat diagrams and give equations wherever necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative of the following and rewrite the sentences : 14
1) Transmittance is the reciprocal of
a) molar absorptivity b) opacity
c) extinction coefficient d) none of these
2) In photoelectric colorimeters, the response from the photocurrent is
measured by means of a
a) voltmeter b) galvanometer
c) potentiometer d) conductometer
3) Titrations in which end points are determined by emf measurements are
called _____________ titrations.
a) conductometric b) redox
c) potentiometric d) precipitation
4) In potentiometric titration, between AgNO3 and KCl, the salt bridge used is
a) KCl b) KNO3
c) NH4Cl d) KBr
5) In potentiometric titration, the potential of indicator electrode depends on
the _______ of the ions present in the solution.
a) concentration b) volume
c) temperature d) pressure
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 232 -2- *SLRSO232*
6) Relatively uniform deposits are obtained on a cathode of irregular shape
due to ________ of solution.
a) pH b) concentration
c) throwing power d) agitation
7) Current density is usually expressed in terms of
a) Am.dm–2 b) Am.dm2 c) Am.dm–1 d) Am.dm1
8) The temperature of the flame is controlled by ______ factors.
a) fuel-oxidant ratio b) type of solvent
c) type of fuel and oxidant d) all of these
9) In flame photometry, _______ is commonly used for making the prism.
a) quartz b) glass c) metal d) all of these
10) Boltzmann distribution equation for the fraction of free atoms that are
thermally excited is given as N*/N0 =
a) A.e∆E/kT b) A.e–∆E/kT c) A.e–E/kT d) A.eE/kT
11) The emf of the cell measured on potentiometer is expressed as
a) Ecell = ER + EL b) Ecell = EL – ER
c) Ecell = ER/EL d) Ecell = ER – EL
12) The specific conductance of conductivity water is the order of ______
ohm–1cm–1.
a) 10–6 b) 10+6 c) 10–3 d) 10+3
13) To determine the cell constant ____ electrolyte is preferred.
a) KNO3 b) KCl c) NH4Cl d) All of these
14) The equivalent conductance is given by the relation, λ =
a) 1000.k/M b) 100.k/N c) 1000.k/N d) 100.k/M

1) State Lambert’s law.
2) What are the disadvantages of quinhydrone electrode ?
3) Explain the term cathode efficiency.
4) Give different characteristics of burner.
5) Represent the nature of curve obtained in conductometric titration between
strong acid and weak base.
Set P
*SLRSO232* -3- SLR-SO – 232
1) Photovoltaic cell.
2) Precipitation titration.
3) Limitations of flame photometry.

1) What are the advantages of potentiometric titrations ?
2) What is anodizing ? Give the applications of anodizing.
3) Explain the nature of curve in conductometric titration between strong
acid and strong base.
1) Describe the construction and working of a single cell photometric
colorimetre.
2) What is flame photometry ? Describe the general principles of flame
photometry.

1) What are the applications of Beer’s law ? Under what conditions the law
can’t invalid ?
2) Describe the theory of electroplating of chromium.
3) What are the applications of flame photometry in qualitative and
quantitative analysis ?
1) Describe the location of end point by classical and analytical methods in
potentiometric titrations.
2) Why direct current is not used in the measurement of conductance by
Wheatstone bridge ?

1) Explain construction and working of quinhydrone electrode. How it is used
to determine the pH of a solution ?
2) Discuss in detail the various processes of cleaning of articles in electroplating.
3) Describe in detail experimental determination of equivalent conductance by
Wheatstone bridge.
Set P
___________
Seat Set P
no.

botany ((Special Paper – X)
Plant Biochemistry

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct answer from the given alternatives : 14

1) The general formula of monosaccharide is
a) (C6H12O6)n b) (C6H10O5)n
c) (C6H12O4)n d) (C6H10O6)n
2) α-helix structure of protein was proposed by
a) Kreb and Kelvin b) Haworth and Cooper
c) Pauling and Corey d) Bloor and Hatch
3) The __________ codon is responsible for protein synthesis.
a) ACU b) AUG c) ATG d) UGA
4) The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is
a) acetyl Coa carboxylase b) AMP activated protein kinase
c) protein phosphatase d) none of these
5) Most of amino acids are usually soluble in
a) Water b) Glucose c) Petroleum d) Ether
6) α-D-Glucose and β-D-glucose are
a) Epimers b) Anomers
c) Stereoisomers d) Ket-aldo pairs
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 233 -2- *SLRSO233*
7) __________ are sulphur containing amino acids.

a) cysteine and glycine b) glycine and serine
c) cysteine and methionine d) methionine and serine
8) Keto group in fructose is located at carbon atom number
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Six
9) β-oxidation fatty acids involves sequential removal of two carbon atoms in
the form of
a) acetic acid b) Acetyl CoA
c) two CO2 moles d) CO2 and Acetyl CoA
10) The secondary structure of protein is due to ________ bonds in between
peptide linkages.
a) peptide b) hydrogen c) disulphide d) ionic
11) ________ are the simplest non hydrolysable sugars.
a) Polysaccharides b) Monosaccharides
c) Disaccharides d) Trisaccharides
12) __________ is saturated fatty acid.
a) Palmitic acid b) Oleic acid c) Linoleic acid d) Linolenic acid
13) Transamination of oxaloacetic acid with glutamic acid produces
a) Aspartic acid b) Arginine c) Alanine d) Proline
14) __________ is essential amino acid.
a) Tryptophan b) Glutamic acid
c) Aspartic acid d) Oxalic acid

1) Give properties of oligosaccharides.
2) Give significance of polysaccharides.
3) Give significance of lipid.
4) Define β-oxidation.
5) Enlist aromatic amino acids in plants.
Set P
*SLRSO233* -3- SLR-SO – 233

1) Biosynthesis of sucrose.
2) Properties of saturated fatty acids.
3) Biosynthesis of phenylalanine.

1) Describe in brief biosynthesis of starch.
2) Explain properties and examples of unsaturated fatty acids.
3) Describe in brief biosynthesis of proline.

1) Describe in brief protein biosynthesis in prokaryotes.
2) Explain properties of lipids.
3) Describe in brief glyoxylate cycle.

1) Describe in brief degradation of starch.
2) Explain gluconeogenesis of fatty acids during germination.
3) Describe in brief post translational modifications.

1) Describe in brief degradation of sucrose.
2) Explain characteristics of essential amino acids.

1) Explain enantiomers and epimers.
2) Describe in brief biosynthesis of fatty acids.
3) Describe in brief physico-chemical structure of protein.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

zoology
Special Paper – X : Developmental Biology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) Blood islands present in ___________ hrs. of chick embryo.
a) 18 b) 24 c) 33 d) 72
2) Telolecithal eggs are the characteristics of
a) Placental mammals b) Birds
c) Insects d) Amphioxus
3) Anterior end of neural groove forms future
a) Liver b) Spinal cord c) Heart d) Brain
4) Cleavaged cells develop into
a) Blastomere b) Micromere c) Macromere d) Centromere
5) Anterior end of primitive streak is occupied by
a) mesodermal cells b) notochordal cells
c) endodermal cells d) ectodermal cells
6) Reproductive cells are also called
a) ovaries b) embryos c) gametes d) zygotes
7) In reptiles, birds and mammals, mesoderm is formed by invagination and
involution into the
a) archenteron b) primitive streak
c) gastrocoel d) amnion
8) Contact of the optic stalk with ectoderm induces the formation of the
a) retina b) lens c) cornea d) iris
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 234 -2- *SLRSO234*
9) The allantois
a) occurs in birds but not in mammals
b) is an outgrowth of the amnion in all animals producing it
c) contributes blood vessels to the umbilical cord in mammals
d) becomes the placenta in mammals
10) In human the placenta is
a) haemochorial b) endothelial
c) epithiochorial d) syndesmochorial
11) The morphogenic movement change the hollow spherical blastula into a
a) Embryonic disc b) Morula
c) Gastrula d) All the above
12) The developmental stage which immediately follows fertilization is
a) Gastrulation b) Cleavage c) Neurulation d) Growth
13) A fertilized egg is called a
a) germ cell b) embryo c) zygote d) blastula
14) Microlecithal egg is the egg of
a) Frog b) Bird c) Insect d) Amphioxus

1) Draw a labeled diagram of homolecithal egg.
2) Irregulative type of egg.
3) Draw a figure of diffuse placenta with example.
4) Blastula of chick.
5) Blastodisc.
1) Fate map of amphioxus.
2) Give an account on functions of placenta.
3) Write note on blastulation of amphioxus..

1) Write a note on Oogenesis.
2) Note on three germ layer formation in Chick.
3) Give an account on Gut formation in Amphioxus.
1) Give an account on structure of 48 hrs. of chick embryo.
2) Give an account on Human Placenta.
Set P
*SLRSO234* -3- SLR-SO – 234
1) Give an account on structure of 72 hrs. chick embryo.
2) Give an account on Holoblastic type of cleavage with suitable
examples.
3) Give an account on fertilization in Amphioxus.
1) Give an account on different types of eggs on the basis of presence and
absence of egg shell with example.
2) Note on Fate map of Chick.

1) Describe in detail foetal membranes in chick. Add a note on their functions.
2) Give an account on Placenta in Mammals.
3) Give an account of heart formation in chick embryo.
__________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
mathematics
Special Paper – X
Partial Differential Equations

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) The equation x2zp + y2zq = xy is
a) semi-linear b) linear c) quasi-linear d) non-linear
2
 ∂z   ∂3z   ∂z 
2) The equation  ∂x  +  3  = 2x  ∂x  is of order
   ∂y   
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 0
3) The general solution of zp = x is
a) φ(x2 – z2, y) = 0 b) φ(x2 + z2, –y) = 0
c) φ(x + z, y) = 0 d) φ(x – z, y) = 0
4) If the number of arbitrary constants is equal to number of independent
variables then by elimination of arbitrary constant we get
a) more than one p.d.e. of order one
b) unique p.d.e. of order one
c) p.d.e. of order greater than one
d) none of these
5) Eliminate arbitrary constant a and b from z = (x – a2) + (y – b)2. Then partial
differential equation is
a) p2 + q2 = 4z b) p2 + q2 = z c) p2 – q2 = z d) p2 – q2 = 4z
6) The integral which does not contains an arbitrary constant is called
a) complete integral b) singular integral
c) general integral d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 235 -2- *SLRSO235*
7) The equation z = px + qy + F(p, q) is form of

a) Standard form (I) b) Standard form (IV)
c) Ctairaut’s form d) None of these
8) The complete integral of p2 + q2 = 1 is
a) z = ax + y 1 − a2 + c b) z = ax + y 1 + a2 + c
c) z = ax + y(1 – a2) + c d) z = ax + y (1 + a2) + c
9) Standard form – III of non-linear p.d.e. of order one is
a) f(p, q) = 0 b) f(p, q, z) = 0
c) f(p, q, x, z) = 0 d) f(p, q, y, z) = 0
10) The complete integral of F(p, q) = 0 is
a) z = ax + F(a)y + c b) z = ax– F(a)y + c
c) z = ax + by + c d) none of these
∂2z ∂2z
11) The solution of 2 − 2 = 0 is
∂x ∂y
a) z = φ1(y + 1) + φ2(y – 1) b) z = φ1(y + x) + φ2(y – x)
c) z = φ1(y) + φ2(x) d) None of these

12) The P.I of (D2 – 6DD′ + 9D′2)z = 6x + 2y is
a) P.I = x2(3x + y) b) P.I. = x2 (6x + 2y)

2
c) P.I = x (3x + y ) d) None of these
2
13) When F(x, y) is of the form xm.yn. If n < m should be expanded in power of
D D′
a) ′ b) D c) DD′ d) None of these
D
14) The P.I of (D – D′) (D + D′ + 1)z = e2x + 3y is
1
a) P.I = e2x + 3y b) P.I = 6 e2x + 3y
6
1
c) P.I = − e2x + 3y d) P.I = –6 e2x + 3y
6
1) Eliminating h and k from the equation (x – h) + (y – k) = λ .
2 2 2
2) Solve py + qx = xyz2 (x2 – y2).

3) Show that the differential equation p = x2 – ay, q = y2 – ax are compatible.
4) Find singular integral of the equation z = px + qy + log (pq).
5) Solve (D3 – 4D2D′ + 4DD′2)z = 0.
Set P
*SLRSO235* -3- SLR-SO – 235

1) Solve r – s + p = 1.
2) Find the complete integral of zpq = p + q.
3) Solve z(x + y)dx + z(x – y)q = x2 + y2.

1) Solve (x2 – y2 – z2)p + 2xyq = 2xz.
2) Explain the method of solving the equation of the form f1(x, p) = f2(y, q).
3) Solve (D2 – 6DD′ + 9D′2)z = 12x2 + 36xy.
1) Explain Lagrange’s method of solving Pp + Qq = R where P, Q, R are
functions of x, y, z.
2) Find a complete integral of px + qy = pq by using Charpits method.

1) Derive the partial differential equation by elimination arbitrary function φ
from the equation φ(u, v) = 0 where u and v are function of x, y, z.
2) Show that the equations xp = yq and z(xp + yq) = 2xy are compatible
and solve them.
3) Solve (D – 3D′ – 2)2z = 2e2x.sin (y + 3x).
1) Show that the solution of (D – mD′)2z = 0 is z = φ1(y + mx) + xφ2(y + mx).
2) Solve (x2 – yz)p + (y2 – zx)q = z2 – xy.

1) If f(DD′) be homogeneous function of D and D′ of degree n, if f(ab) ≠ 0 then
1 1
prove that φn(ax + by) = φ (ax + by) .
f(DD′) f(ab)
2) Explain the Charpits method of solving the partial differential equation
f(x, y, z, p, q) = 0 where x and y are independent variable and p = ∂z , q = ∂z .
∂x ∂y
3) Find the integral surface of the partial differential equation
(x –y)p + (y – x – z)q = z through the circle z = 1, x2 + y2 = 1.
__________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
Statistics (Special Paper – X)
Operations Research and Applied Statistics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
iv) Graph papers will be supplied if required.
1. Select most correct alternative. 14

i) In graphical method of solving a LPP, the bounded region is known as
_________ region.
a) solution b) basic solution
c) feasible solution d) optimal
ii) In graphical method for solving a LPP the restriction on number of constraint
is
a) 2 b) 3
c) not more than 3 d) none of these
iii) The feasible region of a L.P.P. has four extreme points: A(0, 0), B(1, 1),
C(0, 1) and D(1, 0). Optimal solution for minimization problem with the
objective function z = 2x – 2y is
a) a unique solution at C
b) a unique solution at D
c) an alternate solution at a line segment between A and B
d) an unbounded solution
iv) In linear programming problem, most popular non-graphical procedure is
classified as
a) linear procedure b) non-graphical procedure
c) graphical procedure d) simplex method
v) The Penalty in VAM represents difference between _________ cost of
respective row/column.
a) two largest b) smallest two
c) largest and smallest d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 236 -2- *SLRSO236*
vi) In a balanced transportation model where supply equals demand
a) all constraints are equalities
b) all constraints are inequalities
c) both a and b
d) none of these
vii) In non-degenerate solution of a transportation problem with m origins and
n destinations, the number of allocated cells is
a) Not equal to m + n – 1 b) Not equal to m + n + 1
c) Equal to m + n + 1 d) None of these
viii) The probability of accepting a lot with rejectable quality level p is known as
a) consumer risk b) type I error
c) producer’s risk d) none of these
ix) The expected sample size required to arrive at a decision about the lot is
called
a) a random variable b) average sample number
c) both a and b d) none of these
x) Given a system of 5 simultaneous linear equations in 7 unknowns, the
number of basic variables will be
a) 5 b) 2 c) 12 d) 7
xi) In a single sampling plan of n = 80 and c = 2, the lot is accepted if the
number of observed defectives d is
a) greater than 2 b) less than 2
c) greater than or equal to 2 d) less than or equal to 2
xii) Network problems have advantage in terms of project
a) scheduling b) planning
c) controlling d) all of the these
xiii) The slack for an activity in network is equal to
a) EF-ES b) LF-LS c) LS-ES d) EF-LS
xiv) In assignment problem if number of columns is equal to number of rows then
a) dummy column is added b) dummy row is added
c) any column is deleted d) none of these
Set P
*SLRSO236* -3- SLR-SO – 236
2. A) Answer any four of the following. 8
i) Define a solution of a L.P.P.
ii) Define a surplus variable.
iii) When is a transportation problem said to be an unbalanced ?
iv) Define an Assignment Problem.
v) What is a producer’s risk ?

i) Define an A.Q.L.
ii) Write the standard form of the following L.P.P. :
Maximize z = x1 + x2 + 3x3
Subject to : 3x1 + 2x2 + x3 ≤ 3
2x1 + x2 + 2x3 ≤ 2
and x1, x2, x3 ≥ 0.
iii) What is an entering variable in Simplex method ? How to decide for an
entering variable in Simplex method ?

i) Write the mathematical form of a L.P.P. in its canonical form.
ii) In a Single Sampling Plan if N = 100, n = 8, c = 1, p = 0.05, then calculate
the probability of acceptance of the lot using binomial distribution and
average outgoing quality.
iii) Define a solution and a feasible solution of a LPP.

i) Write the procedure of North-West corner method.
ii) Find initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem
using Matrix Minima method :
D1 D2 D3 D4 Availability
O1 23 27 16 18 30
O2 12 17 20 51 40
O3 22 28 12 32 53
Requirement 22 35 25 41
Set P
SLR-SO – 236 -4- *SLRSO236*
i) Give a procedure of Single Sampling Plan.
ii) Define pessimistic time and most likely time in a PERT.
iii) Find the IBFS of the following LPP :
Maximize z = x1 + x2 + 3x3
Subject to : 3x1 + 2x2 + x3 ≤ 3
2x1 + x2 + 2x3 ≤ 2
and x1, x2, x3 ≥ 0.
i) Write a note on CPM.
ii) What is a basic feasible solution of a LPP ?

i) Solve the following LPP graphically.
Maximize z = 3x1 + 4x2
Subject to : 4x1 + 2x2 ≤ 80
2x1 + 5x2 ≤ 180
and x1, x2 ≥ 0.
ii) The following assignment problem shows the costs of assigning five persons
to five jobs. Determine the optimum assignment schedule.
Job
1 2 3 4 5
A 8 4 2 6 1
B 0 9 5 5 4
Person C 3 8 9 2 6
D 4 3 1 0 3
E 9 5 8 9 5
iii) A project schedule has the following activities and the time (in hours) of
completion of each activity is as follows :
Activity 1–2 2–3 2–4 1–4 4–5 5–6 3–6 2–6
Time 17 15 10 16 13 14 18 10
Draw the network diagram. Find the minimum time of completion of the
project and show the critical path.
_______________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
Geology (Special Paper – X)
Hydrogeology and Remote Sensing
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct options. 14

1) Seasonal fluctuation is caused in __________ of a well.
a) Surface runoff b) Transpiration c) Sediment d) Water table
2) Porosity of rock promotes
a) Infiltration b) Transpiration
c) Precipitation d) Cone of depression
3) Low porosity/permeability of rock promotes
a) Precipitation b) Transpiration
c) Surface runoff d) Cone of depression
4) ________ water is trapped in the sedimentary rocks at the time of its
deposition.
a) Juvenile b) Connate c) Magmatic d) Volcanic
5) __________ is an impermeable formation, which may contain water but is
incapable of transmitting significant water quantities.
a) Aquifer b) Aquifuge c) Aquiclude d) Voids
6) Arrange the sequence of vertical distribution of groundwater starting from
surface of the earth : (i) zone of intermittent saturation, (ii) zone of saturation
and (iii) zone of aeration
a) (iii), (ii) and (i) b) (i), (ii) and (iii) c) (ii), (iii) and (i) d) (iii), (i) and (ii)
7) __________ is the capacity of a rock to transmit fluids through it.
a) Permeability b) Porosity c) Permittivity d) None of these
8) __________ describes the collection of data about an object, area or
phenomenon from a distance with a device that is not in contact with the
object.
a) Remote sensing b) Hydrogeology
c) Geohydrology d) Geomorphology
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 237 -2- *SLRSO237*
9) When wavelength of electromagnetic waves decreases, their frequency

a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remain same d) None of these
10) The infrared (IR) portion of the electromagnetic spectrum has range between
wavelengths __________ µm.
a) 0.4 and 100 b) 0.5 and 100 c) 0.6 and 100 d) 0.7 and 100
11) __________ in the atmosphere absorbs large amount of radiation energy
of various wavelengths.
a) O3 b) H2O c) CO2 d) All of these
12) __________ is the study of the character of the ground surface using the
aerial photographs.
a) Photointerpretation b) Photogrammetry
c) Photorecognition d) Photosynthesis
13) In __________ aerial photographs, the optical axis is perpendicular to the
ground surface.
a) Oblique b) High oblique c) Vertical d) None of these
14) Fiducial marks are placed at centre of __________ of aerial photograph.
a) Base b) Corners c) Top d) Edges

1) What is forward overlap ?
2) What is Nadir point ?
3) What are sensors ?
4) Name the errors occur in flying.
5) What is specific yield ?
1) What is transpiration and infiltration ?
2) What is aquiclude and aquifuse ?
3) What is porosity and permeability ?

1) What are advantages of photogeology ?
2) Describe vertical air photographs.
3) Describe pocket stereoscope.
1) Describe in detail hydrological cycle.
2) What are sensors ? Explain multispectral scanner.
Set P
*SLRSO237* -3- SLR-SO – 237

1) Describe perched aquifer.
2) Describe oblique air photographs.
3) Describe atmospheric windows.
1) What are primary and secondary porosity ?
2) Write note on ground water basin. Give Indian example.

1) Define the spring. Describe the hot springs.
2) Describe how texture affects porosity and permeability of rock. Sketch
figures.
3) Describe any four drainage patterns in aerial photographs.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

B.Sc. (Semester – V) Examination, 2018
(Old CGPA)
Microbiology (Special Paper – X)
Immunology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

alternatives : 14
1) ___________ antibody is a pentamer.
a) Iga b) Igm c) Igg d) Ige
2) Granulocytic cell which release histamine after IgE production
is ___________
a) Platelets b) Lymphocytes
c) RBC d) Mast cells
3) In an autoimmune disease idiopathic thrombocytopic purpura auto antibodies
are produced against
a) Lymphocytes b) RBC
c) Platelets d) WBC
4) ___________ is antibody producing cell.
a) Eosinophil b) Lymphocyte
c) Monocytes d) NK cells
5) No antibody production against self antigen is called ___________
a) immunological tolerance b) autoimmunity
c) anamnstic response d) none of these
6) In an autoimmune Myasthenia gravis auto antibodies are produced
against ___________
a) RBC b) Acetyl choline receptors
c) Thyroid hormones d) WBC
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 238 -2- *SLRSO238*
7) Cell mediated immunity protects the body from ___________ pathogenic
agents.
a) Intracellular b) Extra cellular
8) Bacteria, neoplastic cells, virus infected cells as well as intracellular
parasites containing cells are destroyed by
a) T lymphocytes b) NK cells
c) B lymphocytes d) Phagocytes
9) The MHC is mouse celled H2 gene complex is located on chromosome no.
___________ in mice.
a) 16 b) 6 c) 14 d) 17
10) Cytokines are ___________
a) Low molecular wt proteins b) High molecular weight
11) IgE is produced by ___________
a) Mast cells b) T lymphocytes
c) B lymphocytes d) Macrophage
12) T-helper cells carry ___________ molecules as its specific marker.
a) cd4 b) cd8 c) cd9 d) cd3
13) Bombay phenotype blood group can be detected by using
a) Anti A b) Anti B
c) Anti D d) Anti H
14) Complement is present in maximum amount in ___________ animal.
a) mice b) monkey c) guinea pig d) horse
2. A) Answer in one or two sentences (any four) : 8
1) Humoral immunity
2) Antibody
3) Blood groups
4) Define monoclonal antibodies
5) Complement.
1) T-Lymphocyte.
2) Bombay blood group.
3) Use of HAT medium.
Set P
*SLR-SO-238* -3- SLR-SO – 238

1) Macrophage.
2) Differentiate between immediate and delayed type hypersensitivity.
3) S.L.E.
1) MHC gene complex.
2) Cells of immune system.
1) Differentiate between conventional and new generation vaccines.
2) Blood transfusion reactions.
3) Explain mechanism of anaphylaxis.
1) Significance and functions of complement.
2) Functions of monoclonal antibodies.
1) Describe properties and functions of cytokines.
2) HLA typing.
3) What is systemic and organ specific autoimmune diseases ?
Give examples.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (CGPA Pattern) (Old) Examination, 2018

electronics (special paper – X)
Sensors and Instrumentation

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : ) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

1
4) Draw neat labelled diagram whenever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternatives from the following. 14

1) The deviation of the true value from the desired value is
a) sensitivity b) resolution
c) error d) expected value
2) In the X-T recorder T stands for
a) tension b) transfer c) temperature d) time
3) The physical phenomenon of light observed in the LCD display is
a) emission b) refraction
c) polarising d) scattering
4) The instrumentation amplifier are used principally to amplify signals from
a) choppers b) active filters
c) transducers d) D to A converters
5) Identify the active transducer from the given transducers.
a) LVDT b) Thermocouple
c) Strain gauge d) Thermistor
6) The transducer used in weighing machine is
a) LVDT b) load cell
c) piezoelectric sensor d) capacitive transducer
7) The photoconductive material used in LDR is
a) gallium arsenide b) gallium phosphide
c) cadmium sulphide d) silicon dioxide
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 239 -2- *SLRSO239*
8) _________ is produced when photoconductive cell is connected to load.
a) light b) electric current
c) heat d) voltage
9) As far as power consumption is concerned LCD display consume _________
power when compared to LED displays.
a) less b) more c) no power d) same power
10) In electronic circuit in which dc signal is converted into an ac signal, amplified
by standard amplifier and finally converted back to dc signal is called
a) chopper b) clamper c) inverter d) rectifier
11) What will happen to resistance, if length of conductor is increased ?
a) decreases b) no change
c) increases d) doubles
12) Hall effect is clearly visible in
a) pure conductors b) semiconductors
c) super conductors d) metals
13) In multichannel data acquisition system ________ unit is used to scan the
conditioned outputs from different input channels.
a) buffer b) A to D converter
c) multiplexer d) converter
14) In instrumentation amplifier, the output voltage is product of
a) gain and difference of input signals
b) gain and ratio of input signal
c) difference and sum of input signals
d) none of these

1) Compare between active and passive transducer.
2) draw the block diagram of measuring system.
3) Write the definition of sensor.
4) What is actuator ?
5) What is transducer ?
B) Write note on (any two). 6

1) Write a note on solenoid.
2) Explain isolation technique.
3) Give the objectives of data acquisition system.
Set P
*SLRSO239* -3- SLR-SO – 239
1) State any four points to be considered while selecting a transducer for
any application.
2) List the important specification of LM 35 sensor.
3) Write a note on Standards in measurement.

1) Explain the operation of capacitive transducer.
2) Write a note on Data logger.

1) Explain in brief thermocouple.
2) Explain the instrumentation amplifier.
3) Explain bridge amplifier.

1) Explain the construction and working of Electromagnetic Relay.
2) Explain working of LVDT with neat diagram.

1) Explain the working of piezoelectric transducer.
2) Write a note on chopped and modulated amplifier.
3) Explain single channel DAS.
________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
Computer Science
Data Communication and Networking – I (Special Paper – X)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct alternatives. 14
1) _________ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.
A) Topology B) Mode of operation
C) Data flow D) None of the above
2) A ___________ connection provides a dedicated link between two
devices.
A) primary B) multipoint C) point-to-point D) secondary
3) The information to be communicated in a data communications system
is the
A) Medium B) Protocol C) Message D) Transmission
4) In this topology there is a central controller or hub
A) Star B) Mesh C) Ring D) Bus
5) A ___________ is a data communication system within a building, plant,
or campus, or between nearby buildings.
A) LAN B) MAN
C) WAN D) None of the above
6) This was the first network.
A) CSNET B) NSFNET C) ARPANET D) ANSNET
7) Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves
___________ transmission.
A) simplex B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex D) automatic
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 240 -2- *SLRSO240*
8) ___________ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the

order in which they are presented.
A) Semantics B) Syntax
C) Timing D) All of the above
9) ___________ provides full transport layer services to applications.
A) UDP B) TCP
C) ARP D) None of the above
10) The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility
of the ___________ layer.
A) Transport B) Application C) Physical D) Network
11) The ___________ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet.
A) IP B) Port C) Specific D) Physical
12) In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer ?
A) process-to-process message delivery
B) node-to-node delivery
C) synchronization
D) updating and maintenance of routing tables
13) _________ data are continuous and take continuous values.
A) Digital B) Analog
C) A) or B) D) None of the above
14) As frequency increases, the period
A) increases B) decreases
C) doubles D) remains the same

1) CSMA/CD, CSMA/CA stands for.
2) Define Phase, Amplitude.
3) Define Network Criteria.
4) Define Network.
5) What are the elements of data communication ?
B) Write Notes on (any two) : 6
1) Uses of a computer network
2) Modem
3) Applications of Internet.
Set P
*SLRSO240* -3- SLR-SO – 240

1) Explain simplex protocol.
2) Explain Twisted Pair.
3) Explain Connection oriented and connection less services.
1) Explain TCP/IP reference model.
2) Define Switching. Explain Packet Switching.

1) What is topology ? Explain types of topology.
2) Explain ALOHA.
3) Explain types of network.
1) Explain Services Primitives.
2) Explain Network layer Design issues.

1) What is Multiplexing ? Explain Frequency Division Multiplexing.
2) What is Channelization ? Explain FDMA and TDMA.
3) Explain ISO-OSI Reference model.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. III (Semester – VI) (CGPA) Examination, 2018
English Compulsory
(Breakthrough)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given. 14

1) What task was Jim set by Aunt Polly ?
a) to whitewash the fence
b) to check on Tom’s work
c) to bring the water from the town pump
d) to tend to his own business
2) Ben Rogers was pretending to be
a) Aunt Polly b) Billy Fisher c) Big Missouri d) Johnny Miller
3) Tom gave the ‘privilege’ of whitewashing the fence when Ben offered him
a) the core of his apple b) a bully law
c) half of his apple d) the whole apple
4) What did Loisel suggest Mathilde wear for ornamentation ?
a) flowers b) diamonds c) a necklace d) fur wraps
5) What change took place in Mathilde by the time she had repaid the loan ?
a) She had aged ten years
b) She became pale and thin
c) She had the look at a robust woman from a poor household
d) She looked young, still beautiful, still seductive
6) Monsieur is a young middle class _______ in the Ministry of Education.
a) clerk b) teacher c) professor d) driver
7) Pyramus and Thisbe reside (live) in
a) Tomb of Ninus b) Greece
c) Baby lonia d) Semiramins
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 241 -2- *SLRSO241*
8) Pyramus and Thisbe communicated through
a) secret midnight meetings at the Tomb of Ninus
b) common friends
c) a crack in a wall
d) letters
9) On seeing ________ pyramus assumed that Thisbe was dead.
a) a crack in a wall
b) a bloody, torn veil
c) the white mulberry tree turned red
d) the footsteps of a lion in the sand
10) _________ sells tunics, mirrors and daggers in the poem ‘In the Bazaars
of Hyderabad.
a) the magicians b) the gold smiths
c) the merchants d) the flower sellers
11) In the poem The ‘bright jewel’ being addressed here is
a) chastity b) virtue
c) the speaker’s soul d) none of these
12) The tag question of “That is a great idea” is
a) isn’t that ? b) is that ? c) isn’t it ? d) isn’t it
13) The girl knitted mittens while listening to a music CD the underlined clause is
a) noun clause b) an adverbial clause
c) a relative clause d) an adjectival clause
14) It was raining, yet we went shopping. The sentence is
a) simple sentence b) complex sentence
c) compound sentence d) none of these
2. Answer any seven of the following questions in short. 14

1) How did Tom try to persuade Jim to help with his task and what was the result ?
2) What task was Tom set by his aunt ?
3) What did Tom acquire at the end of the day ?
4) Why was Mathilde dissatisfied and unhappy ?
5) How did Mathilde and Loisel replace the necklace ?
6) Where did Pyramus and Thisbe decided to meet ?
7) What happens to Thisbe before Pyramus arrives ?
8) Where does Pyramus find Thisbe’s Veil and what does he think ?
Set P
*SLRSO241* -3- SLR-SO – 241
3. A) Answer any two of the following questions. 8
1) Describe the scene of the bazaar in the poem of Sarojini Naidu. (In the
Bazaars of Hyderabad).
2) What is the theme of the poem ‘On Virtue’ ?
3) What does the poet speak about life on earth in the poem ‘on virtue’ ?

1) Write the important tips on time management.
2) Imagine that you have recently been quarrelling a lot with a friend and
want to make up your relationship with him/her better. Write six to eight
sentences on how you would handle the problem.
3) Describe briefly a difficult situation you found yourself in what did you
do to adapt yourself to it.
4. A) Write a description of a person who sat opposite you on a train journey.

Remember to use words to convey what the character, thoughts and mood
of the person seemed to be. 14
OR
B) Write a description of national hockey-player you watched at an interview
programme on T.V. conducted by the TV anchor, by describing his personal
qualities, attitude, speech etc.
5. Read the following passage and write one-third summary of it. 14

Trees give shade for the benefits of others and while they themselves stand
in the sun and endure scorching heat, they produce the fruit by which others
profit. The character of good men is like that of trees. What is the use of this
perishable body, if no use of it is made for the benefit of mankind ?
Sandalwood – the more it is rubbed the more scent does it yield. Sugarcane – the
more it is peeled and cut into pieces, the more juice does it produce. Gold – the
more it is burnt, the more brightly does it shine. The men who are noble at heart
do not lose these qualities even in losing their lives. What does it matter whether
men praises them or not ? What difference does it make whether riches abide
with them or not ? What does it signify whether they die at this moment or whether
their lives prolonged ? Happen what may, those who tread in the right path will
not set foot in any other. Life itself is unprofitable to a man who does not live for
others. To live for the mere shake of living one’s life is to live the life of dogs and
cows. Those who lay down their lives for the shake of a friend or even for the
sake of a stranger, will assuredly dwell forever in a world of bliss.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

physics (Special Paper – XI)
Electrodynamics
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

iii) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
iv) Use of log table and calculator is allowed.
1. Select correct alternatives : 14

i) The Poisson’s equation is
a) ∇2φ = 0 b) ∇2φ = D c) ∇2φ = E d) ∇2φ = ρ/ε0
ii) The trajectory of charged particle in constant, uniform electric field is
a) linear b) cyclic c) parabolic d) cycloid
    
iii) ∫ E ⋅ dl = ∫ (V × B) ⋅ dl . This emf is called
a) rational emf b) motional emf c) motive emf d) electric emf
 
iv) ∫ E ⋅ dl =
d   d   d   d  
a) − ∫ B ⋅ ds b) − ∫ B ⋅ dl c) ∫ B ⋅ ds d) dt ∫ B ⋅ dl
s
dt l
dt s
dt l
v) Self inductance measured in

a) Farad b) Capacitance c) Henry d) Ohm
vi) Biot-Savart’s law gives
a) magnetic field induction b) gravitational field induction
c) electric field induction  d) electric power
vii) The electric displacement vector D =
 1   
a) ε0 ⋅ E b) ε ⋅ E d) µ0 ⋅ E
2
c) ε0 ⋅ E
0
viii) The speed of EM wave in free space is
1 1 1
a) c = b) c = c) c = d) c = µ0 ⋅ ε0
µε µ0 ⋅ ε0 ε0 ⋅ µ0
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 242 -2- *SLRSO242*

ix) ∇ ⋅E =
  
    K K ×E
a) i ⋅ K ⋅E c) i ⋅ 
b) i ⋅ K × E d)
E i
x) The electromagnetic energy crossing unit area in unit time is called
a) Poynting’s vector b) Maxwell’s vector
c) Layman’s vector d) Lee vector
xi) The normal component of magnetic induction at interface of two media is
a) continuous b) discontinuous
c) always discontinuous d) never continuous
xii) An oscillating charge
a) radiates b) does not radiate
c) never radiate d) some time radiates
xiii) The radiation emitted from a source exerts
a) a reaction force b) an accelerating force
c) no force d) gravitational force
xiv) The nature of EM wave is
a) transverse b) cycloid
c) longitudinal d) stationary

i) Write down the Laplacian operator (∇2) in terms of spherical co-ordinates.
ii) State Gauss law in differential form.
iii) State transformer ratio.
iv) State Ampere’s law.
v) State equation of continuity.
vi) State Poynting’s vector in terms of electric and magnetic field vectors.

vii) Write down relationship between momentum density ( G ) and Poynting’s

vector ( N ).
viii) Define retarded time. Set P
*SLRSO242* -3- SLR-SO – 242
i) Write a note on :
a) Faraday’s law and
b) Lenz’s law.
ii) Derive an expression for self inductance per unit length of solenoid.
  
iii) Show that E, H and K are orthogonal.
B) Derive an expression for potential at a point between plates of spherical
capacitor. 4

i) Show that charged particle moves along a cycloid, when it enters in mutually
 
perpendicular electric field E and magnetic field B .
ii) Using Maxwell’s equation derive an expression for wave equation and
calculate speed of wave. Also show that EM waves are transverse in
nature.
iii) Derive an expression for radiation reaction for electric dipole.

i) Explain Maxwell’s correction for Ampere circuital law, why correction was
 
needed and write down Maxwell’s equations in vacuum. Derive ∇ × B = µ 0 ⋅ J .
ii) Obtain expression for relative intensities of reflected and transmitted waves
with respect to that of plane wave incident normally on the interface of two
dielectrics.
Problem : The amplitude of electric field in monochromatic wave in free
space, incident normally on plane surface of medium of refractive index 2
is 10 v/m. Find amplitude of electric field inside medium.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (CGPA) Examination, 2018

Chemistry
Physical Chemistry (Special Paper – XI)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

4) Use of logarithmic table/scientific calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the most correct alternative and write the sentences. 14

i) Rotational spectra of diatomic molecules are observed in ____________
region.
a) Visible b) Far infrared
c) Microwave d) X-ray
ii) Fundamental equation of spectroscopy is _____________
a) ∆γ = hγ b) ∆J = hγ c) ∆S = hc d) ∆E = hγ
iii) In vibrational spectra, the transition from v = 0 to v = 1 gives a very intense
line known as ___________ band.
a) intense b) fundamental
c) overtone d) sharp
iv) The energy Eo of a oscillating molecule in its lowest vibration is
__________
1
a) 2 hc ω 0 b) hcω0
2
c) hc ω 0 d) 2 hc ω 0
3
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 243 -2- *SLRSO243*
v) According to selection rule, rotational transitions are governed by

_________
a) ∆J = ± 3 b) ∆J = ± 2
c) ∆J = ± 1 d) ∆J = ± 0
vi) In the formation of ideal solution, ___________ is evolved or observed.
a) heat b) no heat
c) light d) none of these
vii) Liquid mixture which boils at constant temperature without change in its
composition is called ___________ mixture.
a) Azeotropic b) Zeotropic
c) Fractional d) None of these
viii) The dimensions of fugacity is ___________
a) sec–1 b) dm3
c) temperature d) pressure
ix) At constant pressure and temperature change in free energy for reversible
process is ___________
a) zero b) negative
c) positive d) none of these
x) The variation of melting print of a reaction with pressure is given by
__________ equation.
a) Clausius-Clapeyron b) Arrhenius
c) Kirchoff’s d) Gibb’s
xi) 2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) is an example of __________ order of reaction.
a) zero b) first
c) second d) third
xii) The temperature coefficient of most of the reactions lies between
__________
a) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4 d) 0 and 1
Set P
*SLRSO243* -3- SLR-SO – 243
xiii) Reactions in which the products of chemical change react to form the original
reactants are known as ___________ reactions.
a) Parallel b) reversible
c) chain d) consecutive
xiv) A reaction in which two or more products form simultaneously are called
___________ reactions.
a) reversible b) chain
c) competing d) none of these

i) What are the applications of vibrational spectra ?
ii) Define :
a) Wavelength
b) Frequency.
iii) State and explain Raoult’s law.
iv) Define :
a) Ideal solution
b) Non-indeal solution.
v) Define :
a) Activity
b) Activity coefficient.
vi) Give any two applications of Clausius-Clapeyron equation.
vii) What is law of mass action ?
viii) What are chain reactions ?
ix) How units of third order rate constant is to be determined ?

i) Describe in brief vibrational spectra of diatomic molecules.
ii) Discuss the distillation of solutions with the system having boiling point
minimum.
iii) Explain transition state theory for energy of activation.
B) The vapour pressure of liquid is 6.7 × 104 pascal at 288 k and 1.04 × 105
pascal at 298 k. Calculate molar heat of vaporisation of liquid
(R = 8.314 Jk–1 mole-1). 4
Set P
SLR-SO – 243 -4- *SLRSO243*

i) Discuss solubility of partially miscible liquids whose mutual solubility
decreases with increase in temperature.
ii) Derive thermodynamically vant. Hoff reaction isochore.
iii) Derive an expression for rate constant of third order reactions.
5 Answer any two of the following : 14

i) Derive thermodynamically the law of mass action.
ii) Calculate the energy of activation, when rate of reaction get doubled from
the temperature 296 k to 306 k. (R = 8.314 Jk–1 mole-1).
iii) Calculate the reduced mass and moment of inertia of HCl, if internuclear
distance is 1.275 × 10–8cm. (Atomic mass; H = 1.008, Cl = 34.98 and
N = 6.023 × 1023)
_____________________
Set P

*SLRSO244* SLR-SO– 244
Seat
No. Set P
Botany (Special Paper – XI)
Microbiology and Plant Pathology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.

ii) All questions carry equal marks.
iii) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
iv) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing correct answer from the given alternatives: 14
1) The sterilization of inoculating material like needles, forcepes etc. by direct
heating is called
a) Tyndallization b) Incineration
c) Pasteurization d) Filtration
2) Lowenstein Jensen’s and Loefflers serum are _______ culture media.
a) Liquid b) Solid
c) Semisolid d) All of these
3) The bacteria appears spherical in shape and occurs singly are
a) Micrococci b) Streptococci
c) Staphylococci d) Bacillus
4) The discovery that led to the development of first antibiotic was made by
a) Jenner b) Pasteur
c) Fleming d) Pauling
5) Classification of micro-organisms is made on the basis of
a) Nature of cellularity b) Nature of nucleus
c) Nature of cell d) All of these
6) _______ is famous food of Indonesia.
a) Idly b) Shoyu c) Tempe d) Miso
P.T.O.
SLR-SO– 244 -2- *SLRSO244*
7) A fungus causing powdery mildew of grapes or teak belongs to the class

a) Oomycetes b) Ascomycetes
c) Basidiomycetes d) Deuteromycetes
8) Rust fungi belongs to the class
a) Deuteromycetes b) Basidiomycetes
c) Ascomycetes d) Oomycetes
9) Grassy shoot disease of sugarcane is ________ disease.
a) Bacterial b) Fungal
c) Mycoplasma d) Viral
10) Rust of Mango is caused by
a) Algae b) Fungi c) Bacteria d) Rickettsiae
11) Bangadi disease of Potato is a ________ disease.
a) Nematode b) Fungal c) Bacterial d) Viral
12) Albugo Candida causes
a) Stem rust of wheat b) White rust of crucifer
c) Rust of jowar d) Powdery mildew of teak
13) Dropping of diseased tissues from the leaf is called
a) Shot hole b) Dwarfing
c) Etiolation d) Blast
14) Serial dilution method is used for ______ the microorganisms.
a) Incubation b) Sterilisation c) Isolation d) All of these

i) Name any two agents of sterilization.
ii) Write symptoms of Anthracene of Bean.
iii) What is pathogen ?
iv) Write control measures of Tikka disease.
v) Define culture medium.
vi) Define microbial pesticide.
vii) State the symptom-necrosis.
viii) Define microbiology.
ix) Name any two soil borne diseases.
Set P
*SLRSO244* -3- SLR-SO– 244

i) Describe the steps involved in Alcohol production.
ii) State applications of antibiotics.
iii) Describe any two sources of Biopesticides studied by you.
B) Write the symptoms and control measures of grain smut of Jowar. 4

i) Write the classification of culture media based on the chemical composition.
ii) Describe any two methods of pure culture studied by you.
iii) State the characteristic features of bacteria and viruses.

i) Give the symptoms, causal organism and control measures of Downy mildew
disease of Bajra.
ii) Describe the characteristic features of Algae as microbes.
iii) Describe the classification of plant diseases based on crops.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

ZOOLOGY – (Special Paper – XI)
Physiology
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Complete the sentence selecting appropriate answer 14
1) __________ is the waste product produced in ornithine cycle.
a) Urea b) Ammonia c) Creatin d) Creatinine
2) ________ is used when kidney functions failed.
a) Pacemaker b) Dialyzer c) Stethoscope d) Thermometer
3) Gastric Hcl is secreted by __________ cell.
a) Oxyntic cell b) Serous c) Kuffers cells d) R cell
4) Exchange of O 2 and CO 2 at respiratory surface across through
________.
a) Active transport b) Passive transport
c) Diffusion d) Osmosis
5) The emulsification of fat is carried by ___________.
a) Bile b) Intestinal c) Gastric d) Pancreatic
6) One cardiac cycle required _________ time.
a) 0.4 sec b) 0.2 sec c) 0.3 sec d) 0.8 sec
7) __________ is called antisterility vitamin.
a) Vit K b) Vit E c) Vit A d) Vit D
8) Mammalian urine is _________ to the blood.
a) Isotonic b) Hypotonic c) Hypertonic d) Dilute
9) Hamberger phenomenon is called _________ shift.
a) Nitrate b) Phosphate c) Chloride d) Bicarbonate
10) Blood pressure in healthy person is ________ mmhg.
a) 80/130 b) 80/120 c) 120/80 d) 90/60
P.T.O.
11) ___________ water soluble vitamin.

a) Vit A b) Vit B c) Vit K d) Vit D
12) Spliting of Glucose molecule is refered as
a) Glycolysis b) Gluconeogenesis
c) Glycogenesis d) Osmosis
13) Bowman’s capsule are located in ________ region in kidney.
a) Cortex b) Medulla c) Pelvic d) Calyx
14) Islets of Langerhans secretes the hormone _________.
a) Insuline b) Secretonine c) Adrenaline d) Cortisone

i) Definition of Respiration.
ii) Define muscle contraction.
iii) Synapse.
iv) Deamination.
v) Meditation.
vi) Cardiac Cycle.
vii) Define Neuron.
viii) Diagram of ECG.
ix) Riboflavian.

i) structure of malpighian body.
ii) Explain dialysis.
iii) Give an account of vitamin K.
B) Write note on respiratory pigment Hemoglobin. 4

i) Describe the sources, physiological importance and deficiencies of vitamin A.
ii) Describe the process of Glycolysis.
iii) Describe the origin and conduction of heart beat.

i) Describe the process of gastric digestion.
ii) Describe the Krebs cycle in details.
iii) Give detailed structure of striated muscle.
_______________ Set P
Seat
No. Set P

mathematics (Special Paper – XI)
Metric Spaces
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) Which of the following sequence is not in l2 ?
∞ ∞
a)  1  b)  1 
 n
 logn n= 2  e n=1
∞
 1  ∞
c)   d)  1 
 n n=1  n n=1
 1
2) lim sin   = _______________
x →0 x
a) 0 b) 1
c) – 1 d) Does not exit
∞ 2
3) If the sequence {sn }n=1 ∈ l then nlim sn =
→∞
a) 1 b) 0
c) Any finite non zero value d) Does not exit
4) Let f be a nondecreasing function on the bounded open interval (a, b).
If f is bounded above on (a, b) then ___________
a) lim− f(x ) exist b) lim f(x ) exist

x →b x →b +
c) lim f(x ) exist d) lim f(x ) exist

x →a+ x →a−
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 246 -2- *SLRSO246*
5) With usual meaning, if χ is a characteristic function of rational number
then lim χ(x ) = ....... for any a ∈ R′ .
x →a
a) 0 b) 1
c) Close not exist d) None of these
6) If M = Rd, the real lime with discrete metric, and if a is any pt in Rd then
a) φ b) a
c) {a} d) Rd
∞
 1 1
7) In R′ , if In denotes the open interval  − ,  then  In contains
 n n n=1
a) Only 0 b) (–1, 1)
c) – 1 and 1 d) No element
8) For any metric space M, if x ∈ M , then the set {x} is a ___________ subset
of M.
a) Open b) Closed
c) Neither open nor closed d) Both a) and b)
9) The subset A of a metric space M is dense in M if ___________
a) A = M b) A = φ
c) A = M d) None of these
10) If A is the set (0, 1) then diameter of A is
a) 1 b) Greater than 1
c) Less than 1 d) None
11) Which of the following is compact ?
a) (0, 1) b) [0, 1]
′
c) R d) [0, 1)
12) If R′ bounded and totally bounded means the _____________ thing.
a) Same b) Different
c) Can not say any d) May or may not be same
13) Any open interval is ___________
a) Compact b) Complete
c) Incomplete d) None of these
14) A subset ‘A’ of Rd is totally bounded iff A contains only a _______ of points.
a) Finite number b) Infinite number
c) Countably infinite d) Transfinite number
Set P
*SLRSO246* -3- SLR-SO – 246
a
∑ nn
∞ 2
1) If {an }n=1 ∈ l1 and l then prove that converges absolutely.
2) Prove that lim (x 2 + 2x ) = 15 .
x →3
3) If | x – 2 | < δ then prove that x − 2 < δ .

x+3 4
f
4) If the real valued function f and g are continuous then is continuous at
x = a and g(a) ≠ 0. g
5) Prove that every subset of Rd is open.
6) If F is family of closed subsets of a metric space then prove that F is

f∈F
also closed.
2 1
7) If Tx = x  0 ≤ x ≤  . Prove that T is contraction on 0,  .
1

 3  3
1
8) If f(x ) = , (−∞ < x < ∞) then prove that f attains a maximum value but
1+ x
does not attain a minimum value.
9) If A and B closed subset of R′ , prove that A � B is closed subset of R2.
1) Let f be a continuous function from compact metric space M1 into metric

space M2. Then prove that the range f(M1) of f is also compact.
2) If G1 and G2 are open subsets of metric space M then prove that G1 ∩ G2

is also open.
3) Show that, d : R2 � R2 → R2 such that, d(x, y) = max { |x1 – y1| , |x2 – y2|}
where x = (x1, x2), y = (y1, y2) are in R2 is a metric on R2.

B) If f and g are real valued functions, if f is continuous at ‘a’ and if g is continuous
at f(a) then prove that (gof) is continuous at a. 4
Set P
SLR-SO – 246 -4- *SLRSO246*
∞
1) If s = {sn }n∞=1 and t = { tn }n∞=1 are in l then prove that
2
∑ sn ⋅ t n is convergent
n =1
1 1
∞  ∞ 2 2
 ∞ 2 2
and ∑ sn ⋅ t n ≤  ∑ sn   ∑ tn  .
n =1  n=1   n=1 
∞
2) Let M, ρ be a metric space. If {sn }n=1 is convergent sequence of point in
∞
M then {sn }n=1 is a couchy sequence. But converse ? Justify.
3) The metric space M, ρ is compact if and only if every sequence of point
in M has a subsequence converging to a point in M.

1) Let M, ρ be a complete metric space and T is contraction on M. Then
prove that, there is one and only one point x in M ⇒ Tx = x.
∞ ∞
2) Let R be a set of real sequence, if x = { xn }n=1 and y = { yn }n=1 are in R.
∞
Define d(x, y ) = ∑ 1 | xn − yn | then prove that (R, d) is metric space.
n =1 2n 1+ | xn − yn |
3) The metric space M is compact if and only if whenever F is family of closed
subset of M with finite intersection property then  F ≠ φ .
f∈F
___________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
Statistics
Statistical Inference – II (Special Paper – XI)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the most correct alternative. 14

1) Type II error is related to
a) Critical region b) Size of the test
c) Power function d) None of the above
2) Critical region provides us the region of________ null hypothesis.
a) rejection b) continuation
c) no decision of d) none of the above.
3) For a random sample of size n from N(µ, σ2 ) with known µ the degrees of
∑ ( xi − µ )
2
freedom of is
2
σ
a) n b) n + 1
c) n – 1 d) 2n
4) If a r.v. has exponential distribution with parameter θ then which of the
following is simple hypothesis
a) θ = 5 b) θ > 5
c) θ < 5 d) θ ≠ 5
5) (T1, T2) is confidence interval for θ with confidence coefficient (1 – α) then
P(θ ∈ (T1, T2)) is
a) at least 1 – α b) at most 1 – α
c) α d) 1 – α
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 247 -2- *SLRSO247*
6) Let a random sample of size 5 is drawn from N ( µ , 1) distribution. Problem
is to test H0 : µ = 1 versus H1: µ = 2 . Proposed test is reject H0 if x > 1.5.
What is the power of the test ?
 5  
a) P  Z > −  b) P  Z < − 5 
2   2 
 
c) P (Z > 1.5) d) P(Z < 1.5)
7) The ratio of the likelihood functions under H0 and entire parametric space
is called
a) Probability ratio b) Sequential probability ratio
c) Likelihood ratio d) None of the above
8) In SPRT the decision about H0 is taken
a) after each successive observation
b) after a fixed number of observation
c) after fixed time interval
d) when experiment is over
9) LRT for equality of two population variances of normal distribution reduces
to test
a) t-test b) chi-sq. test
c) F-test d) None of these
10) Under what circumstances would you use a non-parametric tests ?
a) When you think your sample size is too big
b) When your data does not meet the assumptions for a parametric test
c) In a pilot study
d) When you do not really understand a parametric test
11) In wilcoxons signed rank test the statistics T+ is distributed with variance
a) n (n − 1) ( 2n + 1) b) n (n − 1) ( 2n + 1)
12 24
c) n ( 2n + 1) d) n (n + 1) ( 2n + 1)
12 24
12) Which of the following statement is false ?
a) Parametric tests are not applicable to nominal data
b) NP- lemma provides MP-test
c) In SPRT the size of the sample is random
d) K-S test is parametric test
Set P
*SLRSO247* -3- SLR-SO – 247
13) Ordinary sign test utilizes
a) Poissons distribution b) Binomial distribution
c) Normal distribution d) None of these
14) If distribution of parent population is not known then we use
a) Parametric test b) LR test
c) SPR test d) Nonparametric test
2. Attempt any seven : 14
1) Define interval estimation.

2) Define size of the test.
3) Define uniformly most powerful test.
4) Distinguish between parametric test and nonparametric tests.
5) Obtain confidence interval for population mean when sample if size 64 is

drawn from N(µ,16) with 5% level of significance.
6) What are the values of A and B in SPRT where α = β = 0.2 ?
7) Based on random sample size n from the distribution having pdf

f(x, θ) = θ. xθ–1, 0 < x < 1 show that the BCR for testing H0 : θ = 1 against
n
H1 : θ = 2 is π i = 1 xi ≥ C .
8) Giving a example, define a run in the run test.
9) Define power function of a test.

1) Define what is pivotal quantity. Give one example.
2) Let H0 : X ~ U(–3, 3) and H1 : X ~ N( 0, 1). Suppose a test rejects H0 if
|x| > 3 then obtain size and power of a test ( Given Φ ( 3) = 0.9986 ).
3) Explain in short sign test.
B) Obtain 100(1-∝)% confidence interval for σ2 for a sample size of n from

N (µ, σ2) when µ is not known. 4
Set P
SLR-SO – 247 -4- *SLRSO247*
1) Explain the procedure of likelihood ratio test (LRT) to test the equality of
variances of two normal population.
2) Develop 100(1-∝)% confidence interval for difference of population
proportions.
3) Define UMP test. Construct a UMP test of size ∝ for testing H0 : θ = θ0 against
H1: θ > θ0 based on a sample of size n from an exponential distribution with
parameter θ.

1) State and prove Neyman Pearson lemma.
2) Describe the procedure of Mann-Whitney U test.
3) Obtain SPRT of strength ( α, β ) for testing H0 : p = p0 against H1 : p = p1,
(p1 > p0) for a Bernoulli variate with parameter p.
___________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (CGPA) Examination, 2018

Geology (Spl. Paper – XI)
Crystallography, Principles of Stratigraphy and Earth’s History
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the given options. 14
1) Indices (111) is shown by _________ form.
a) Cube b) Pyramid c) Dome d) Prism
2) In Monoclinic System crystal models total number of panes of symmetry
are _________
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
3) Flat surface of a crystal is called as _________
a) face b) edge c) solid angle d) corner
4) There are _________ elements of symmetry to describe any crystal.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
5) Three faces of a crystal meets to form an _________
a) corner b) solid angle c) center d) edge
6) In cube vertical axis shows _________ fold symmetry.
a) four b) six c) one d) two
7) Basal pinacoid have _________ indices.
a) (111) and (111) b) (001) and (001)
c) (123) and (321) d) (112) and (113)
8) The study of space and time of layered rocks is called _________
a) petrology b) geology c) stratigraphy d) mineralogy
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 248 -2- *SLRSO248*
9) There are main ________ principles of stratigraphy.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 10
10) James Hutton presented the _______ principle of stratigraphy.

a) order of super position b) uniformitarianism
c) faunal succession d) time
11) William Smith suggested the principle of _________

a) order of super position b) uniformitarianism
c) faunal succession d) time
12) In an order of superposition principle _______ beds are at top.

a) youngest b) oldest c) younger d) older
13) The largest time unit in the Geological Time Scale is _________
a) phase b) age c) epoch d) eon
14) Smallest litho-stratigraphic unit is _________

a) member b) formation c) group d) bed
a) What are indices ?
b) What is the type mineral of Hexagonal System ?
c) What is face of crystal ?
d) What is an edge of the crystal ?
e) What is solid angle of the crystal ?
f) What is lithostratigraphy ?
g) What is unconformity ?
h) What is stratigraphy ?
i) What is chronological order ?

Set P
*SLRSO248* -3- SLR-SO – 248
1) What is type mineral for Monoclinic System ? Describe two the common
forms of Moniclinic system. Draw their diagrams.
2) What is type mineral for Triclinic System ? Describe the elements of
symmetry of Triclinic system.
3) Describe the use of Graded bedding and ripple marks are useful in
finding age of sedimentary.
B) Describe use of marker bed in stratigraphy. 4

1) Describe elements of symmetry of orthorhombic system. Draw related
diagrams.
2) Draw and describe Ortho pinacoid, Macro pinacoid and basal pinacoid in
detail.
3) Describe the principle of faunal succession. Give example.

1) Describe the elements of symmetry of hexagonal system. Draw diagrams.
2) Draw and describe any two forms of hexagonal system crystals.
3) Draw diagram showing correlation of rocks with the help of Index Fossil,
explain it.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P


Microbiology (Special Paper – XI)
Microbial Genetics
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

2) Draw a neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct alternatives given

below : 14
i) DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by ________
A) Francis crick B) H. Khurana
C) Alec Jeffrey D) James Watson
ii) The chemical nucleotide DNA sequencing also known as ________ method.
A) Sanger B) Maxam-Gilbert
C) Automated D) Edman
iii) Base pair substitution mutation in which codon specifying for one amino
acid is substituted by another codon which specify functionally different
amino acid is called as ________ mutation.
A) Missense B) Non sense C) Neutral D) Silent
iv) Which of the following is an example of a silent mutation ?
A) A codon that codes for valine is mutated. The mutated codon still codes
for valine.
B) A codon that codes for valine is mutated. The mutated codon now codes
for Glutamic acid.
C) A codon that codes for valine is mutated. The mutated codon is now a
“stop” codon.
D) A codon that codes for valine is disrupted when an extra base is inserted
in the codon
v) The restoration of function by a second mutation at a different site in the
same gene is called
A) back mutation B) conditional lethal
C) intragenic suppression D) intergenic suppression
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 249 -2- *SLRSO249*
vi) ___________ type of restriction enzyme most commonly used in r-DNA
technology.
A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV
vii) For DNA fingerprinting ___________ used as marker.
A) RAPD B) AFLP C) VNTR D) RFLP
viii) If a particular short DNA sequence is AGATTC, the corresponding mRNA
sequence will be
A) AGATTC B) TCTAAG C) AGAUUC D) UCUAAG
ix) In DNA replication unwinding of DNA is carried out by _________ enzyme.
A) Topoisomerase B) Primase
C) Helicase D) DNA polymerase
x) A base pair substitution mutation that changes a codon specifying an
amino acid into a stop codon is called as __________ mutation.
A) Missense B) Non sense C) Frame shift D) Deletion
xi) __________ type of gel electrophoresis most commonly used for separation
of large DNA fragments.
A) PAGE B) SDS PAGE C) Agarose D) 2D PAGE
xii) ____________ provide the binding site for RNA polymerase in operon.
A) Promoter B) Operator C) Repressor D) Inducer
xiii) Genetic complementation test in the rII region of phage T4 developed by
___________
A) S. Benzer B) S. Altman C) Griffith D) Watson
xiv) ___________ enzyme which add phosphate moiety at either 5’s end or
3’end of DNA in gene manipulation.
A) S1 nuclease B) Polynucleotide kinase
C) Phosphatase D) RNase H

i) How cyclic AMP is formed ? Give its significance.
ii) Define linkers and give its use.
iii) Give the signifiance of phenotypic lag in isolation of auxotropic mutants.
iv) What are Restriction endonucleases. Give their use.
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*SLRSO249* -3- SLR-SO – 249
v) Define Semiconservative DNA replciation.
vi) What is intergenic suppression ?
vii) Give the role of DNA polymerase I.
viii) What is operator ? Give its role.
ix) Define adaptor.

i) Define Operon. Discuss in detail Negative regulation of Lac operon.
ii) Write briefly on phenotypic lag.
iii) Give brief account on missense mutations.
B) Draw a labelled diagram of pBR322. 4

i) Describe in detail Mechanism of transcription in prokaryotes.
ii) Describe in detail Mechanism of DNA replication.
iii) Describe in detail organization of E.coli chromosome. Add a note on
folded fiber model.

i) Define DNA fingerprinting. Discuss in brief steps involved in DNA
fingerprinting.
ii) Write briefly on Applications of protein engineering.
iii) Give a detailed account on gel electrophoresis and its applications.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018
Electronics
Special Paper – XI : Power Electronics
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

i) Emitter, gate and collector are the terminals of __________
a) Power BJT b) Power MOSFET
c) IGBT d) None of these
ii) SCR is a _________ triggered device.
a) voltage b) current c) both a) and b) d) none of the above
iii) In controlled rectifier _________ commutation is used.
a) line b) load c) forced d) all of these
iv) _________ is used as a DC-DC converter.
a) Rectifier b) Inverter
c) Cyclo-converter d) Chopper
v) The working of AC motor is based on _________
a) heat transfer b) conduction c) induction d) none of these
vi) SIT is _________ controlled device.
a) current b) voltage
vii) In SCR the magnitude of holding current is always _________ than the
latching current.
a) less b) greater c) both a) and b) d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 250 -2- *SLR-SO250*
viii) If the firing angle of SCR is α then conduction angle is _________

a) 0 b) 90 c) 180 d) (180-α)
ix) In SCR based series inverter _________ type of commutation is used.
a) Class B b) Class C c) Class A d) Class F
x) _________ circuits are operated with higher frequency for power supply.
a) UPS b) Inverters c) SMPS d) None of these
xi) In dc choppers, if Ton ON is the period and f is frequency of chopping, and
Vdc is input voltage, then the load voltage will be _________
f
a) f × Vdc × Ton b) Vdc ×
Ton
Vdc T
c) d) Vdc × on
f × Ton f
xii) In the controlled rectifier if the firing angle of the SCR is increased, the
average voltage supplied to the load is _________
a) increases b) decreases c) remain same d) none of these
xiii) A conducting GTO can be turn off by applying a _________ to it.
a) negative gate current b) positive gate current
xiv) _________ layer is an additional layer fabricated in power BJT.
a) Buffer b) Buried c) Drift d) None of these

i) Draw equivalent circuit and symbol of IGBT.
ii) Draw the constructional diagram and symbol of PUT.
iii) Explain the principle of phase control.
iv) What do you mean by chopper and inverter ?
v) State the principle of DC motor.
vi) Compare natural and forced commutation.
vii) Define turn on time and reverse recovery time of power diode.
viii) Why controlled rectifiers are used ?
ix) Explain the need of heat sink for power devices.
Set P
*SLR-SO250* -3- SLR-SO – 250

i) Explain construction and switching characteristic of power MOSFET.
ii) Explain class A commutation method for SCR.
iii) Describe single phase half wave controlled rectifier with resistive load.
B) Write a note on step up chopper. 4

i) What is meant by Uninterrupted Power Supply ? What are its types ? Explain
any one of them.
ii) Give the construction of GTO and explain turn on and turn off process of GTO.
iii) Explain working of transistor inverter with wave forms.

i) Describe single phase half wave controlled rectifier with inductive load.
State the effect of free wheel diode.
ii) With suitable diagram explain R and RC turn on methods.
iii) Explain Class C commutation method for SCR with wave forms.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Special Paper – XI : Web Technology
Computer Science
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) Default cookies stored per sites are
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) Can’t say
2) Web.Config file is useful for
a) Web server configuration
b) Storing global variable and information
c) Web browser configuration
d) Configure server side code behind model
3) _______ property must be set for a any validation control for the validation
to work.
a) Text b) ValidateControl
c) ControlToValidate d) ValidateWork
4) Common type system is built into
a) CLR b) GAC c) RCT d) None of these
5) The EnableViewState allows the page to save the users input on a form
a) True b) False
6) __________ namespace is used for SqlServer connection.
a) Syatem.Data.SqlServer b) System.Date.SqlType
c) System.Data.Sql d) System.Data.SqlClient
7) _______ object can help you maintain data across users.
a) Application b) Session c) Cookies d) QueryString
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 251 -2- *SLRSO251*
8) __________ method is invoked on the Data Adapter control to load the
generated dataset.
a) Load() b) Fill()
c) ExecuteNonQuery() d) LoadDataset()
9) ___________ is not a member of Command class.
a) ExecuteReader b) ExecuteScaler
c) Open d) Connection
10) _________ property of ListBox is used for multiple selection of items.
a) SelectionMode b) MultiSelect
c) Multiple d) MultiItem
11) ______ event of Calendar control visits each and every date in calendar.
a) DayVisit b) Click c) VisitDate d) DayRander
12) By default value of ActiveViewIndex of MultiView control is
a) –1 b) 0 c) 1 d) None of these
13) To cancel editing in GridView, ________ property is used.
a) CancelEdit b) EditCancel c) EditIndex d) CancelEditing
14) Any Master page must contains <asp:Content> Tag.
a) True b) False

1) Explain IsPostBack and AutoPostBack.
2) When CheckBox and RadioButton controls are used ? Explain.
3) What is connection string ? List parts of connection string.
4) Why Master Pages are used ?
5) What is Global Assembly Class ?
6) What is web server ? list out any 4 web servers.
7) Explain Table control in ASP.Net.
8) Which event is used for assigning master page at runtime ?
9) What is validation group ?
Set P
*SLRSO251* -3- SLR-SO – 251
1) Explain difference between ASP and ASP.Net.
2) Explain Themes and Skins with example.
3) Explain different ASP.Net Page structure.
B) Design web page which display all weekend in red colour in calendar control. 4

1) Design web page which insert, delete and update records in gridview.
2) What is application folder ? Explain different application folders used in
ASP.Net.
3) What is Master Page ? Explain how to create nested master pages with
example.

1) Explain different validation controls with properties and example.
2) What is connected and disconnected classes ? Explain in detail.
3) What is cookie ? Explain Cookies in detail.
__________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. Part – III (Semester – VI) Examination, 2018

Physics (Special Paper – XII) (CGPA Pattern)
Material Science
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

iii) Neat labeled diagrams must be drawn wherever
necessary.
1. Select the correct answer from the given alternatives : 14
i) Applied force per unit cross-sectional area of a body is called

a) strain b) stress
c) creep d) ductility
ii) Time dependent permanent deformation is called

a) elasticity b) creep c) plasticity d) fatigue
iii) ________ polymes occurs naturally.

a) Nylon b) Starch c) PVC d) Teflon
iv) ___________ type of polymer cannot be recycled..

a) Thermoplast b) Thermoset c) Elastomer d) PVC
v) Polymers are long chain organic macromolecules having _________ as a

common element in their structure.
a) Sodium b) Nitrogen c) Chlorine d) Carbon
vi) Ceramics normally exhibit __________ nature.

a) sort b) hard
c) brittle d) elastic
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 252 -2- *SLRSO252*
vii) Ceramics are ________ materials.
a) Organic metallic b) Inorganic non-metallic
c) inorganic metallic d) None of these
viii) Combination of two or more materials is called _____ materials.
a) Composite b) Metal c) Polymer d) Single phase
ix) The strength of composite is
a) low b) high c) zero d) infinite
x) When grain size reduces to nanoscale, then the material becomes
a) soft b) elastic
c) plastic d) stronger and harder
xi) _________ technique is used to determine the crystal structure of
material.
a) SEM b) XRD c) FTIR d) UV-VIS
xii) _____________ prepared and explained carbon nanotubes for first time.
a) Richard Feynmann b) Richard Smalley
c) Eric drexler d) Sumia Iijima
xiii) The tanning operations on skin of animal produces
a) leather b) cloth c) wool d) blood
xiv) The materials which finds application in the field of medicine are called
a) geomaterials b) biomaterials
c) metals d) plastic

i) Calculate the conductivity of copper having resistivity 18 × 10–9 Ωcm.
ii) Define specific heat.
iii) Give four applications of polymers.
iv) Give any four examples of ceramics.
v) Explain Particle-Reinforced Composites.
vi) Explain any one method of fabrication of composites.
vii) What is Laser Ablation ?
viii) What is biomechanism ?
Set P
*SLRSO252* -3- SLR-SO – 252
i) Explain mechanical, electrical and magnetic properties of materials.
ii) Explain addition and condensation polymerization.
iii) Explain methods of processing of biomaterials.
B) Explain formation of thin film by Chemical Bath Deposition (CBD)

technique. 4

i) Explain properties and applications of composite materials.
ii) Discuss various techniques of characterization of nanostructured
materials.
iii) What is ceramics ? Explain Rock Salt (NaCl) structure with suitable
diagram.
5. A) Explain classification of materials in detail. 10
B) Explain applications of biomaterials. 4

or
A) What is Degree of polymerization ? Give Mechanical properties of polymers. 10
B) Explain properties of ceramics. 4

_______________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
chemistry
special Paper – XII : Inorganic Chemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
II) Draw neat labelled diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.
III) All questions carry equal marks.
1. Select the most correct alternative from those given below and rewrite the
sentence : 14
i) Nickel carbonyl has _________ structure.
a) Octahedral b) Square planer
c) TBP d) Tetrahedral
ii) Lithium alkyls are obtained by reaction of alkyl chlorides and lithium
metal in presence of _________ solvent.
a) Polar b) Non-aqueous
c) inert d) Aqueous
iii) _________ proposed “differential aeriation principle”.
a) Whitney b) Evans c) Ostwald d) Faraday
iv) In corrosion phenomenon _________ gas is evolved from the surface of
cathode.
a) Hydrogen b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen d) Carbon dioxide
v) The process of destruction of metal by mechanical means is called
a) Erosion b) Corrosion
c) Oxidation d) Covering
vi) In XeO4 molecule Xenon undergo _________ hybridisation.
a) SP2d b) SP3 c) SP3d d) SP3d2
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 253 -2- *SLRSO253*
vii) The structural geometry of sulphur trioxide is
a) Trigonal b) Planer
c) Planer trigonal d) Square planer
viii) Correct structure of diborane was given by
a) Faraday b) L. Pauling
c) Huckel and Bethe d) Hedberg and Shomaker
ix) Metals show high melting and boiling points as they bound together by
strong electrostatic force of attraction between _____ and _______
a) Metal ion and mobile electrons
b) Mobile metal ion and rigid electrons
c) Rigid metal ion and rigid electrons
d) None of these
x) Superconductors show _________ effect.
a) Trans b) Meissner c) Resonance d) Raman
xi) Germanium doped with donar atom is called
a) Super conductor b) p-type conductor
c) n-type semiconductor d) Mixed oxide conductor
xii) Most of the transuranic elements of periodic table were discovered by
a) Moseley b) Moragan c) Rutherford d) G. T. Seaborg
xiii) _________ is the atomic number of transuranic element Un-nil-pentium.
a) 100 b) 115 c) 105 d) 95
xiv) 238 U + ....... → 241

+ 01n
92 94 Pu
a) β b) α c) γ d) p

a) Why transuranic elements are called man made elements ?
b) Explain in brief crystal structure property of metallic solids.
c) Draw the structure of P4O10 molecule.
d) Draw geometrical structure of XeF2.
e) Give any two applications of passivity.
Set P
*SLRSO253* -3- SLR-SO – 253
f) Define atmospheric and immersed corrosion.
g) Draw the structure of Fe(CO)5 molecule.
h) Name the theories of bonding in metals.
i) What are the applications of semiconductors ?
3. A) Write a short notes on any two. 10

a) Synthesis of TU elements by heavy ion bumbardment.
b) Structure of borazine.
c) Alkyl and aryl compounds of aluminium.
B) Explain the effect of ‘purity of metal’ on corrosion. 4

a) Name the methods used in separation of lanthanides. Explain in detail ion
exchange separation method.
b) Discuss n-type and p-type semiconductors.
c) Describe the structure of diborane.
5. Solve any two of the following : 14

I) Describe in brief the methods used for protection of metals from corrosion.
II) Discuss the properties of metals.
III) Give the name, symbol and electronic configuration of 4F block elements.
___________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
botany
Systematics of Angiosperms (Special Paper – XII)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1) The development of embryo sac in pepromia is _______ type.
a) Monosporic b) Bisporic c) Tetrasporic d) Trisporic
2) The flowers pollinated by insects are called as
a) Entemophelous b) Ornithophelous
c) Malcophelous d) Hydrophelous
3) _______ cells plays a role of nutrition.
a) Epidermis b) Endothecium
c) Tapatum d) Sporogenous tissue
4) In Bisporic embryo sac the egg apparatus is made up of _______ cells.
5) In the endosperm development the free nuclear divisions occurs in _______
type of endosperm.
a) Helobial b) Nuclear c) Cellular d) None of these
6) _______ is the endospermic seed.
a) Groundnut b) Castor c) Jowar d) None of these
7) According to Engler and Prantl the angiosperms are derived from a
hypothetical group of plants called
a) Protangiosperms b) Brophytes
c) Gymnosperms d) None of these
8) Callistemon rigidus belongs to family
a) Ranunculaceae b) Rutaceae
c) Fabaceae d) Myrtaceae
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 254 -2- *SLRSO254*
9) The dispersal of coconut fruit is done by
a) Water b) Wind c) Insects d) Bats
10) The developed embryo is present in _______ seed.
a) Endospermic b) Non-endospermic
c) Both d) None of these
11) Double fertilization is characteristic feature of
a) Bryophyta b) Pteridophyta c) Gymnosperms d) Angiosperms
12) The entry of pollen tube in ovule through micropyle, is known as
a) Chalazogamy b) Mesogamy c) Progamy d) None of these
13) In typical embryo sac of angiosperms the secondary nucleus is
a) Haploid b) Diploid c) Triploid d) Tetraploid
14) Random distribution of vascular bundles are found in the stem of
a) Monocotyledons b) Dicotyledons

a) What is meant by double fertilization ?
b) Comment on stamen primordia.
c) Sketch and label the typical ovule.
d) Comment on archesporium.
e) Describe caryopsis type of fruit.
f) Mention two economic important plants with its uses from family
cucurbitaceae.
g) Describe helobial type of endosperm.
h) What is meant by microsporogenesis ?
i) Mention the primitive characters of flower.

1) Describe Gnetalean theory of angiosperms.
2) State the role of cytology in relation with taxonomy.
3) Describe the merits of Engler and Prantl’s system of classification.
B) Describe monosporic embryosac with neat labeled diagram. 4
Set P
*SLRSO254* -3- SLR-SO – 254
1) What is meant by megasporogenesis ? Describe the bisporic embryosac
development with suitable example.
2) Describe development of embryo in dicotyledons.
3) Give the distinguishing characters of any one family given below and add
two economic important plants with its uses.
a) Capparidaceae
b) Lamiaceae
c) Polygonaceae.

1) Write on wind dispersal of seeds and fruits.
2) Write on any two agencies of pollination.
3) Assign the following plant to its respective family with reasons and add an
economic importance of it.
a) Citrus aurantifolia
b) Clematis paniculata
c) Cucurbita maxima.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018

Zoology (Special Paper – XII)
(Endocrinology, Environmental Biology and Toxicology)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct answer from given alternatives : 14
1) Insulin and glucagon are antagonistic hormone because they increase and
decrease
a) Calcium b) Potassium c) Glucose d) Sodium
2) _______ gland produce calcitonin.
a) Parathyroid b) Thyroid
c) Adrenal Cortex d) Adrenal Medulla
3) Cretinism is resulted due to less secretion of
a) Thyroid b) Parathyroid
c) Adrenal gland d) Islets of Langerhan’s
4) Epinephrine is secreted by
a) Islets of Langerhan’s b) Adrenal cortex
c) Thyroid d) Adrenal medulla
5) The normal calcium homeostasis are ________ hormone maintains
extracellular fluid calcium on long-term basis.
a) parathyroid b) insulin
c) epinephrine d) glucagon
6) Exopthalmic goiter is due to
a) hypo secretion of thyroxin b) hyper secretion of thyroxin
c) hypo secretion of calcitonin d) hyper secretion of calcitonin
7) _______ hormone secreted by adrenal cortex.
a) Insulin b) Aldesterone
c) Thyroxin d) Parathormone
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 255 -2- *SLRSO255*
8) ________ hormone is responsible for triggering the body for fight or, flight
or, fright response and produced, when the situation requires immediate
action.
a) Insulin b) Adrenaline c) Thyroxin d) Parathormone
9) _______ are the species which are used to monitor the health of an
environment or specific ecosystem.
a) Biodegradation b) Biodistructor
c) Biological indicator d) Biofussion
10) Long term exposure to a toxic chemical producer a effect which is
a) chronic b) immediate c) acute d) sub vital
11) _______ habitat show least animal diversity.
a) Grassland b) Tropic Rainforest
c) Temperate d) Desert
12) DDT, aldrin and dialdrine are _______ pesticides which are extremely
persistent and accumulate in various tissues.
a) organo-phosphorous b) carbonate
c) pyreth d) organo-chlorine
13) The importance of rain water harvesting is
a) wastage of water through drainage stopped
b) the quantity of water can be raised underground
c) water gathered can be in used for agriculture, domestic during drought
d) all of the above
14) _______ typically done on a computer either online or through a computer
based program or by software which show the anatomy of the animals.
a) Authentic dissection b) Actual dissection
c) Virtual dissection d) Real dissection

1) LC50.
2) Animal ethics.
3) Biomagnification.
4) Lentic habitat.
5) GnRH.
6) Prostaglandin.
7) Cretinism.
8) Incerination.
9) Desert.
Set P
*SLRSO255* -3- SLR-SO – 255
1) Bioaccumulation.
2) Disorders of parathyroid hormones.
3) Conservation of GIB.
B) Write the answer. 4

Hormones of Islets of Langerhans.

1) Give a detail classification of toxicants.
2) Describe histology and normal function of adrenal gland.
3) Explain characteristics and faunal adaptation of grassland habitat.

1) Describe anatomy, histology and normal functions of thyroid gland.
2) Explain characteristics and faunal adaptation of freshwater habitat.
3) Explain Rain water harvesting.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P


Mathematics (Special paper – xII)
Numerical Analysis
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N. B. : 1) Use of scientific calculator are allowed.

1. Choose the correct alternative :

14
1) If f(x) = – 6x3 + 11 x2 – 6x + 1 then ∆3 f(x) is equal to = _________
a) 36 b) – 36 c) 32 d) 1
2) ∆2 = ____________
a) E2 – I b) E2 – 2E + I c) E – 1 d) E
3) Simpson’s 3th rule is obtained by putting n = in general
8
quadrature formula.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 8
4) The order of the difference equation yn + 2 – 2yn + 1 + yn = 0 is ___________
a) third b) first c) second d) zero
5) The solution of (E – 1)3 un = 0 is __________
a) c1 + c2 + c3n b) c1 + c2 + c3n2
c) c1n + c2n2 + c3n3 d) c1 + c2n + c3n2
6) ∆∇ = ___________
∆
a) ∇∆ b) ∇ + ∆ c) ∇ – ∆ d)
∇
7) L2 (x) is a Lagrange polynomial of degree __________
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
8) In Trapezoidal rule, the function must be __________
a) Linear b) Quadratic c) Cubic d) Biquadratic
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 256 -2- *SLRSO256*
9) Given x = 1, 2, 3, f(x) = 3, 8, 15 then ∆2 f(1) = __________
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
1
10) The number of sub-intervals should be taken in Simpson’s rd rule
3
a) Odd b) Even c) Prime d) None of these
11) E ( 1
2 +E
−1
2
) (1+ ∆ )
1
2
= ________________
a) ∆ + 1 b) ∆ – 1 c) ∆ + 2 d) ∆ – 2
1
12) In Simpson’s rule, function y = f(x) is taken to be
3rd
a) Circle b) Ellipse c) Parabola d) Line
13) If the roots are λ1, λ2 real and distinct then C. F. =
a) (c1 + c2n) (λ1)n b) (c1 + c2) (λ2)n
c) c1 (λ1)n + c2(λ2)n d) rn (c1 cosnθ + c2 sinnθ)
14) Which one is incorrect ?
a) E = 1 + ∆ b) ∆ (s) = 0
c) ∆ (f1 + f2) = ∆ f1 + ∆ f2 d) ∆ (f1 · f2) = ∆ f1 + ∆ f2

1) State Newton’s Backward interpolation formula.
2) Express u = x4 – 12 x3 + 24 x2 – 30x + 9 in factorial notation.
3) Solve : ux + 2 – 6 ux + 1 + 9 ux = 0.
4) State Simpson’s three eighth rule.
5) Construct the forward difference table for the data below :
x: 0 1 2 3 4
f(x) : 1.0 1.5 2.2 3.1 4.6
6) Given y3 = 2, y4 = – 6, y5 = 8, y6 = 9 and y7 = 17, calculate ∆4 y3.
7) Form the difference equation corresponding to the family of curves
y = ax2 – bx.
8) Prove that E∇ = ∆ = ∇E.
9) From yn = a2n + b (– 2)n, derive a difference equation by eliminating the
constant.
Set P
*SLRSO256* -3- SLR-SO – 256
1) Find the missing values in the following data :
x: 45 50 55 60 65
y: 3.0 – 2.0 – – 2.4
2) Solve the following difference equation yn + 2 – 5yn + 1 – 6yn = 4n, y0 = 0,

y1 = 1.
3) Explain Lagrange’s interpolation formula for unequally spaced values of x.
B) State and prove Trapezoidal rule. 4

1) State and prove Newton’s forward interpolation formula.
6
dx
2) Evaluate ∫ 1+ x 2 by using
0
i) Trapezoidal rule
3
ii) Simpson’s rule.
8th
3) A curve passes through the points (0, 18), (1, 10), (3, – 18) and (6, 90).
Find the slope of the curve at x = 2.

1) Solve the following difference equation yn + 2 + 5yn + 1 + 6yn = n + 2n.
2) Find y ′ (0) and y ′′ (0) from the following table.
x: 0 1 2 3 4 5
y: 4 8 15 7 6 2
3) With the usual notations, show that :
a) (1 + ∆) (1 – ∇) = 1
b) ∆∇ = ∇∆ = δ2.
_____________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester –VI) Examination, 2018
STATISTICS (Special Paper – XII) (CGPA Pattern)
Design of Experiments
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

i) Local control is a device to maintain
a) Homogeneity among blocks b) Homogeneity within blocks
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) nor b)
ii) In a CRD with k treatments and N experimental units, total degrees of
freedom is equal to
a) N – k b) k – 1 c) k – N d) N – 1
iii) A factorial experiment with three factors each at two levels is called
a) 2 × 3 factorial experiment b) 3 × 2 factorial experiment
c) 32 factorial experiment d) 23 factorial experiment
iv) In LSD having m rows, the degrees of freedom for treatment is
a) (m – 1) (m – 2) b) m – 1
c) m2 – 1 d) N – m
v) In LSD with six treatments having one missing value, the error degrees of
freedom is
a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 19
vi) The total number of main effects and interaction effects in a 23 factorial
experiment is
a) 17 b) 4 c) 8 d) 10
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 257 -2- *SLR-SO257*
vii) Replication in an experiment means

a) The number of treatments
b) The number of blocks
c) The number of times a treatment occurs
d) None of these
viii) LSD controls
a) Two way variation b) Three way variation
c) Multi-way variation d) None of these
ix) Which of the following is principle of design of experiment ?
a) Randomization b) Replication
c) Local control d) All of these
x) If same effect is confounded in all replicates, it is said to be
a) Partial confounding b) Total confounding
c) Balanced confounding d) None of these
xi) The analysis of split-plot design consists of
a) Main-lot analysis b) Sub-plot analysis
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) and b)
xii) In RBD with 4 blocks and 5 treatments, degrees of freedom for error S.S are
a) 16 b) 15 c) 12 d) 19
xiii) The method confounding is a device to reduce the size of
a) Experiments b) Replications
c) Blocks d) None of these
xiv) An experimental design is
a) A map of experiment b) A plan of experiment
c) An architect of experiment d) None of these

i) Explain local control.
ii) Define treatment with an illustration.
iii) What is meant by confounding? State types of confounding.
iv) Define layout of an experiment.
Set P
*SLR-SO257* -3- SLR-SO – 257
v) Define Critical Difference (C.D.)

vi) Define efficiency of design.
vii) State formula for efficiency of RBD over CRD.
viii) Give two demerits of CRD.
ix) State formula to obtain one missing value in RBD.

i) Describe the ANOVA technique for one-way classification.
ii) What is RBD ? Give its ANOVA table.
iii) Explain Split-Plot design.
B) Explain total and partial confounding. 4

i) Obtain the formula for estimating one missing observation in RBD.
ii) Estimate the parameters by the method of least squares in CRD.
iii) Explain Yate’s procedure to obtain factorial effect totals in a 23 factorial
experiment with three factors A, B and C.

i) Give the mathematical model, assumptions and analysis of variance table
in case of LSD.
ii) Derive the expressions for main effect and interaction effect for 22 factorial
experiment.
iii) Explain two principles of design of experiments, randomisation and
replication.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XII)
PRE-Cambrian Stratigraphy of India
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1) The Kurnool series is
a) of carboniferous age and is located in Karaal district of Haryana
b) of lower Vindhyan age and occurs in Andhra Pradesh
c) of Cuddapah age and occurs in Mysore
d) none of the above
2) Bundelkhand gneisses belongs to ____ system.
a) Archaean b) Cambrian c) Cuddapah d) Vindhyan
3) Manganiferous deposits in Dharwar system occurs in _____ series.
a) Iron-ore b) Sausar c) Chilpi d) None of these
4) Which one of the following series of Vindhyan system show occurrences
of life ?
a) Bhander b) Rewah c) Kaimur d) None of these
5) The most common rocks in archaean system are
a) marbles b) slates
c) sandstone d) gneisses and schists
6) Eparchaean unconformity is present between _______ and ________
a) Archaean; Aravalli b) Archaean; Dharwar
c) Archaean; Cuddapah d) Archaean; Vindhyan
7) Which one of the following sentences is true for the Cuddapah system ?
a) it is unfossiliferous
b) it is composed of high grade schists and gneisses
c) it is highly tectonically disturbed
d) it is underlained by Dharwar system
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 258 -2- *SLRSO258*
8) Famous ‘Makrana marble’ belongs to

a) Delhi system b) Bundelkhand gneiss
c) Aravali system d) Raialo series
9) The oldest rocks forming the foundation rocks over which all the other rock
systems have been deposited are known as ________ complex.
a) Basement b) Fundamental c) Archaean d) All of these
10) Which one of the following series forms in the upper Cuddapah system ?
a) Papaghani b) Cheyair c) Kistna d) Kurnool
11) ‘Ajabgarh series’ belong to
a) Delhi system b) Bundelkhan gneiss
c) Aravali system d) None of these
12) Aravalli system is overlain by
a) Bundelkhand gneiss b) Raialo series
c) Bangol gneiss d) Charnokite series
13) Bhima series is part of _______ vindhyan.
a) upper b) middle c) lower d) none of these
14) Dimondiferous sandstone beds occurring at the base of Kurnool series is
known as ________ beds.
a) Malani b) Palnad
c) Banaganapalli d) Pakhal

i) What is peninsular gneiss ?
ii) Write stratigraphic sequence of Charnokite, Champion and Peninsular
gneisses.
iii) Name of rock type exposed in Bundelkhand gneiss of Archaean system.
iv) What are types of rocks found in Dharwar system ?
v) What are another names given to the Archaean rocks ?
vi) Which system in north India is equivalent of Cuddapah System ?
vii) What are Champion gneisses ?
viii) What is the name of Dharwarian rocks of the Aravalli region ?
ix) Chilpi Ghat series are overlained by which system.
Set P
*SLRSO258* -3- SLR-SO – 258
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following. 10
i) Fundamental gneisses.
ii) Sakoli series.
iii) Bundelkhand gneisses.
B) Explain Sausar series. 4

i) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Bhandar and Rewa
series.
ii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of lower Cuddapah
system.
iii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of lower Vindhyan
system.

i) Describe in detail economic importance of Vindhyan system.
ii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of upper Vindhyan
system.
iii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence, lithology of Kurnool system.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

Microbiology (Special Paper – XII)
Microbial Biochemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct alternative. 14

1) GOGAT play role in assimilation of ____________
a) NO3 b) N2 c) NO2 d) NH3
2) ___________ is group specific enzyme.
a) Alcohol dehydrogenase b) Cellulase
c) Amylase d) Caseinase
3) Haemoglobin is ____________ allosteric protein.
a) tetrameric b) monomeric
c) trimeric d) dimeric
1
4) When V0 = V , then KM = __________
2 max
a) [E] b) [S]
c) [ES] d) [P]
5) The hexose monophosphate pathway includes the enzyme ___________
a) Malate dehydrogenase
b) Isocitrate lyase
c) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
6) Ribozymes are ___________
a) RNA enzymes b) Catalysts
c) Non-protein enzymes d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 259 -2- *SLRSO259*
7) Isocitrate lyase and malate synthase enzymes are present in _________

a) Mesosome b) Carboxysomes
c) Ribosome d) Glyoxysomes
8) ___________ amino acid is not used in protein synthesis.
a) Methionine b) Pyptophan
c) Citrulline d) Aspargine
9) __________ enzyme is coded by lux gene.
a) Lecituinase b) Lipase
c) Lyase d) Luciferase
10) In procaryotic protein synthesis starting amino acid is ___________
a) Methionine b) N-formyl methionine
c) Alamine d) Asportic acid
11) __________ is precursor in peptidoglycan bio-synthesis.
a) Glucose b) Maltose
c) Fructose d) Arabinose
12) Aspartate transcarbamoylase is activated by ____________
a) ATP b) ADP c) AMP d) C-AMP
13) Lock and key hypothesis is proposed by __________
a) Koshland b) Sumner
c) Pasteur d) Emil Fischer
14) _________ is termination codon.
a) AUG b) UAG c) GAU d) AGU
2. Write in short any seven : 14

1) Michaelis menten equation
2) List nitrogen bases
3) Functions of P and A sites of ribosome
4) Nitrogenase
5) Translocation
6) Isoenzymes
7) Luciferine
8) Active site
9) Define operon.
Set P
*SLRSO259* -3- SLR-SO – 259
3. A) Write answers any two : 10

1) Poxymity and orientation model
2) Pyruvate as key metabolite
3) Processing of polypeptide chain.
B) Write on acid base catalysis. 4
4. Write answers any two : 14

1) Biosynthesis of peptidoglycan
2) Assimilation of nitrogen
3) Pentose phosphate pathway.
5. Write answers any two : 14

1) Arabinose operon
2) ED pathway
3) Catabolite repression.
_____________________
Set P

*SLRSP260* SLR-SO – 260
Seat
No. Set P
electronics (Special Paper – XII)
Advanced Communication

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

i) Radar operates in ___________ frequency range.
a) UHF b) VHF
c) Micro wave d) IR
ii) Cavity in Klystron tube operates with ___________ principle.
a) Frequency modulation of electronic beam
b) Amplitude modulation of electron beam
c) Velocity modulation of electron beam
iii) Quadrature amplitude modem uses __________ system.
a) AM only b) QPSK only
c) AM and PM d) FM and PSK
iv) _________ works as frequency mediator between computer and network.
a) hub b) node
c) modem d) network card
v) A satellite that revolves in same direction as earth rotates is said to be in a
orbit ________.
a) posigrade orbit b) retro grade orbit
c) eleptical orbit d) polar orbit
vi) Typical down link frequency is
a) 14 GHz b) 6 GHz
c) 4 GHz d) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 260 -2- *SLRSO260*
vii) Each cell contains
a) repeater b) control computer
c) direct link to branch office d) touch tone processor
viii) Receiver channel 22 is 870.66 MHz then receive channel 23 is _______MHz.
a) 870.36 b) 870.63
c) 870.96 d) 870.69
ix) The operation of optical fiber cable is based on _________ principle.
a) refraction b) total reflection
c) absorption d) dispersion
x) Permanent bond in optical fiber is
a) joinder b) binder
c) splicing d) connector
xi) When speed of microwave signal is known range of the target is determined
by knowing
a) distance b) direction
c) time d) elevation
xii) A rule that defines, how data transmitted is
a) hand shake b) error detection
c) protocol d) data specification
xiii) Transmitter and receiver channel frequency is selected by
a) calling subscriber b) hand set manufacturer
c) called subscriber d) MTSO
xiv) Band width required to transmit 48kb /s binary signal without noise is
a) 24 kHz b) 48 kHz
c) 96 kHz d) 28 kHz
2. Answer any seven for the following : 14

i) Define bit rate and Baud rate.
ii) Define wave guide.
iii) Draw the block diagram of cell phone.
iv) What are the terms used in internet communication ?
v) What is geo stationary satellite ?
vi) Name the micro wave semiconductor devices.
vii) What are digital data codes used in computer communication ?
viii) State any four application of Optical fiber.
ix) What is apogee and perigee in elliptical orbit in satellite communication ?
Set P
*SLRSO260* -3- SLR-SO – 260
3. A) Answer any two for the following : 10
i) Explain LED as light source used in Optical fiber communication.
ii) Explain in brief satellite communication system.
iii) What are advantage and disadvantages of micro waves?
B) Enlist types of computer networking and explain LAN in brief. 4
4. Answer any two for the following : 14

i) Explain satellite earth station.
ii) Explain synchronous and asynchronous digital communication.
iii) Explain optical fiber communication with necessary block diagram.
5. Answer any two for the following : 14

i) Explain pulsed radar system with necessary block diagram used to detect
the range and locate the target.
ii) Explain frequency synthesizer and logic unit of cell phone along with steps
involved to transmit and receive the call.
iii) What is modem ? What are its types ? Explain QPSK modem.
___________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Computer Science (Special Paper – XII)
Advanced Java

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1
1. Choose the most correct alternatives : 14
1) _______ interface is used for handling events generated by JCheckBox.
a) MouseListener b) KeyListener
c) ActionListener d) ItemListener
2) Package of drawstring() method is
a) java.awt b) javax.swing
c) java.awt.event d) java.io
3) Which is a component in AWT that contains another components JButton,
JTextField, label etc.
a) Window b) Panel c) Container d) Frame
4) JDBC technology-based drivers generally fit into how many categories ?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
5) You can open only one statement object per connection when you are using
the JDBC-ODBC Bridge.
a) True b) False
6) Which method is used for an SQL statement that is executed frequently ?
a) prepareCall b) prepareStatement
c) createStatement d) none of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 261 -2- *SLRSO261*
7) Which is used to execute parameterized query ?
a) Statement interface b) Prepared Statement interface
c) Result Set interface d) None of the above
8) Which of the following code retrieves the MIME type of the body of the
request ?
a) new MimeType() b) response.getContentType()
c) request.getContentType() d) none of the above
9) Servlet technology is used to create web application
a) True b) False
10) In RequestDispacher which method is used to sends the same request and
response objects to another servlet ?
a) forward() b) sendRedirect()
c) both a and b d) none of the above
11) In JSP Action tags which tags are used for bean development ?
a) jsp:useBean b) jsp:setproperty
c) jsp:getProperty d) all of these
12) Which tag is used to execute java source code in JSP ?
a) Declaration Tag b) Scriptlet tag
c) Expression tag d) None of the above
13) EJB is used to develop which type of applications in java ?
a) Scalable b) Robust c) Secured d) All of these
14) Which type of instances retain no data or conversational state for a specific
client ?
a) Message-Driven Bean b) Session Bean
c) Entity Bean d) None of the above
2. Answer any seven from the following. 14

1) Define ComboBox. List its constructors.
2) What is the use of JTree component ?
Set P
*SLRSO261* -3- SLR-SO – 261
3) Define Connection interface. State any two methods of it.
4) Give any two advantages of Type-4 JDBC driver.
5) Define servlet. What are the types of servlet ?
6) List the methods of HttpRequest.
7) Describe scriptlet tag in JSP.
8) Describe expression tag in JSP.
9) List the applications of EJB.

1) Write a program to add Icon on JButton.
2) Explain Resultset interface with its methods.
3) Explain MVC architecture in servlet.
B) Write note on action elements in JSP. 4

1) Explain the architecture of servlet.
2) Describe in brief the CallableStatement interface.
3) Write a servlet program to handle doPost() method.
1) Write a JDBC program to update the existing salary of all employees by

incrementing 1000.
2) Explain JSP life cycle.
3) Write a program to display Hello message in JtextField when user click on

JButton.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
physics (Special Paper – XIII)
Atomic, Molecular Physics and Quantum Mechanics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

4) Use of log table or scientific calculator is allowed.

i) Elements with configuration ns1 for last orbit are called
a) alkali metals b) alkaline earth metals
c) halogen d) inert gases
ii) In alkali spectra, the selection rule for j in emission transition is
a) ∆j = 0 b) ∆j = ±1 c) ∆j = 0, ±1 d) ∆j = 2
iii) The ground state of single electron system always gives rise to
a) singlet b) doublet c) triplet d) quartet
iv) If the coupling between l* and s* is broken in an external magnetic field,
then we observe
a) Anomalous Zeeman effect b) Paschen back effect
c) Stark effect d) Strong field stark effect
v) Electronic spectra of diatomic molecules occurs in
a) UV-Vis b) Microwave c) Infrared d) X-ray
vi) The selection rule ∆V = +1 and ∆J = –1 in vibration rotation spectra
corresponds to _______ branch.
a) O b) P c) Q d) R
vii) To observe Raman effect, molecule must be
a) Polar b) Non-polar
c) Both a) and b) d) Circular
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 262 -2- *SLRSO262*
viii) For free particle, potential energy is

a) Constant b) High c) Low d) Zero
ix) The quantity ϕϕ* is called
a) Probability current density b) Reflection coefficient
c) Transmission coefficient d) Probability density
x) The minimum energy of a particle confined to one dimensional rigid box is
obtained by substituting n equal to
a) one b) zero c) half d) two
xi) Eigenvalue of Lz is
a) m2  b) mh c) m  2 d) m 
xii) For given particle, uncertainty in position is 1 cm, then uncertainty of its
momentum is
h h
a)  b) h c) d)
π 2
xiii) The probability of wave function ϕ is always equal to
a) zero b) minus one
c) one d) infinity
xiv) If orbital quantum number l = 2, then the values of magnetic orbital quantum
number are
a) ml = 1, 0, –1 b) ml = 0, 1, 2
c) ml = 2, 1, 0, –1, –2 d) ml = 3, 2, 1, 0, –1, –2, –3

i) Give any two properties of Raman lines.
ii) Draw vibrational energy levels and transitions.
iii) Calculate reduced mass of CO diatomic molecule. [Mass of C = 1.99 × 10–26 kg
and Mass of O = 2.66 × 10–26 kg].
iv) What are requirement of wave function ϕ ?
2
v) Find eigenvalue of (sinnx) for the operator d .
dx2
vi) What is tunnel effect ?
vii) State optical spectral series names of alkali atoms.
viii) What is Stark effect ?
Set P
*SLRSO262* -3- SLR-SO – 262

i) Show that  H,P   = 0.
 
ii) Derive Schrodinger’s time dependent wave equation in one dimension
of a free particle.
iii) Write a note on Frank Condon principle.
B) Illustrate quantitative intensity rule for fine structure doublet with one suitable
example. 4

i) Obtain an expression for rotational energy of a diatomic molecule and explain
its spectrum with energy level diagram.
ii) What is an operator ? Obtain expressions for linear momentum operator
and total energy operator.
iii) What is linear harmonic oscillator ? Derive an expression for zero point
energy of harmonic oscillator from Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
5. Attempt any one : 14

i) Explain anomalous Zeeman effect. Obtain an expression for term shift
and complete term value. Calculate the magnetic moment of the atom
corresponding to state 2P½. Calculate the term shift of split levels from no
field level 2P½ in terms of Lorentz unit.
ii) Apply Schrodinger’s steady state wave equation to a particle in one dimensional
rigid box, give the energy levels. Calculate ground state energy of an electron
confined to move freely between two ends separated by 2Å. (Given : mass
of electron m = 9.1 × 10–31 kg and Planck’s constant h = 6.626 × 10–34 J – s.)
__________________
Set P
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (cgpa) Examination, 2018

chemistry
Organic Chemistry (Special Paper – XIII)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

3) Draw neat labelled diagram and give balanced equations
wherever necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite the
same. 14
i) Pyrrole gives electrophilic substitution reactions preferentially at position
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) above all
ii) Quinoline reacts with n-butyl lithium to give
a) 2-butyl quinoline b) 3-butyl quinoline
c) 5-butyl quinoline d) 8-butyl quinoline
iii) The carbohydrates which do not undergo further hydrolysis are known as
a) Monosaccharides b) Oligosaccharides
c) Polysaccharides d) None of these
iv) Mutarotation is catalyzed by
a) Acid b) Base
c) Acid-base d) None of these
v) Starch is a
a) Trisaccharides b) Amylose
c) Amylopectin d) Amylose and amylopectin
vi) Skraup’s synthesis is used to prepare
a) Pyrrole b) Pyridine
c) Quinoline d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 263 -2- *SLRSO263*
vii) The chemical nature of vitamin-A is

a) Primary alcohol b) Secondary alcohol
c) Tertiary alcohol d) Aldehyde
viii) Thyronine on boiling with HI gives

a) quinol b) p-hydroxy benzoic acid
c) tyrosine d) oxalic acid
ix) Chloromycetin is a _____________ rotatory broad spectrum antibiotic.

a) Dextro b) Laevo
c) Optically inactive d) Racemic mixture
x) Tuberculosis is caused by the micro-organism

a) M. leprae b) M. tuberculosis
c) P. vivax d) P. falciparum
xi) Bathochromic groups are

a) Electron withdrawing b) Electron donating
c) Electron deficient d) None of these
xii) The example of dependent dye is

a) carbonyl b) azo c) nitro d) quinonoid
xiii) ________ stimulates the latex production in rubber trees.

a) Ethophan b) Monocrotophos
c) Methoxychlor d) Carbaryl
xiv) Pesticides are classified on the basis of

a) Chemical nature
b) Mode of action
c) Type of pest against which they are used
d) All of these
Set P
*SLRSO263* -3- SLR-SO – 263
i) Starting from pyrrole, how will you get 2-acetyl pyrrole and pyrrole
2-sulphonic acid.
ii) Define and give example of oligosaccharides and polysaccharide.
iii) Give two uses of lactose.
iv) What is the action of
a) SO3/H2SO4 at 220°C and
b) Na/NH3 on quinoline.
v) Which hormones are secreted by Thyroid and pituitary glands ?
vi) Give examples of fat soluble vitamins.
vii) Define the terms antimalarial and antineoplastic agents.
viii) Write the structure of amylose.
ix) Give synthesis of methoxychlor from anisole and chloral.
3. A) Write any two of the following. 10
i) Give the reactions of

a) sodamide and
b) n-butyl lithium on pyridine.
ii) Discuss the structure and configuration of D-glucose.
iii) Prove the presence of –NH2, –COOH and phenolic –OH groups in
thyroxine.
B) Give synthesis of Paludrin. 4
Set P
SLR-SO – 263 -4- *SLRSO263*
i) How will you prepare pyridine from
a) acetylene and hydrogen cyanide
b) piperidine.
Give reactions involved in the nitration, sulphonation and bromination of
pyridine.
ii) What are hormones ? Discuss the structure of vitamin-A on the basis of
analytical evidences.
iii) Give synthesis of

a) Carbaryl from α-naphthol and
b) Malechite green from benzaldehyde and N, N-dimethyl aniline.

i) What are antibiotics ? Give the synthesis of chloromycetin. Give its uses.
ii) What is mutarotation ? Explain the mutarotation of D-glucose with
mechanism.
iii) What are dyes ? Explain Witts theory of chromophore and auxochrome.
Give synthesis of orange – IV.

__________________
Set P

P

botany
Special Paper – XIII : Microbial Genetics, Plant Breeding and Biostatistics
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions carry equal marks.

2) Question 1 is compulsory.
1. Select the correct alternative and rewrite the complete sentence : 14
1) Adaptation of an introduced variety to the new environment is called

a) Introduction b) Acclimatization
c) Domestication d) Characterization
2) Several varieties of sugarcane having high yield and high sugar content
first time developed by
a) V. Santhanam b) C. T. Patel
c) M. S. Swaminathan d) T. S. Venkatraman
3) A variety developed by mixing the seeds of various genotype which are
similar in maturity, height, seed size, seed colour etc. are called
a) Synthetic variety b) Composite variety
c) Pure variety d) Hybrid variety
4) Bacterial DNA is
a) Single stranded and circular b) Single stranded and linear
c) Double stranded and circular d) Double stranded and linear
5) Development of new variety through identification and isolation of a single
best plant progeny is called
a) Clonal selection b) Mass selection
c) Directional selection d) Pureline selection
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 264 -2- *SLRSO264*
6) A software programme which is useful for statistical analysis, graphical and

diagrammatic display of experimental result is called
a) M.S. Word b) M.S. Excel
c) M.S. PowerPoint d) Internet
7) Bacteriophage participate in the process of
a) Transformation b) Transduction
c) Conjugation d) All above
8) Out of following _______________ is not a physical mutagen.
a) X-ray b) g -ray
c) uv-ray d) Ethylmethane sulphonate
9) A cross of F1 with either of its parent is called
a) Test cross b) Back cross
c) Multiple cross d) Double cross
10) Physical or chemical agents which greatly enhance the frequency of mutation
is called
a) Mutant b) Muton
c) Mutagen d) Alkylating agent
11) The term F factor used for genetic material in the process of
a) Transformation b) Transduction
c) Conjugation d) All above
12) Famous plant breeder responsible for green revolution in India was
a) M.S. Swaminathan b) B. P. Pal
c) T.S. Venkatraman d) V. Santhanam
13) An individual having more than two basic sets of chromosome is called
a) Haploid b) Diploid c) Polyploidy d) All above
14) In the process of transformation, ___________strain is used as virulent.
a) S II b) S III c) R II d) R III
Set P
*SLRSO264* -3- SLR-SO – 264

1) Enlist plant viruses containing DNA.
2) Write the merits of clonal selection.
3) Give any four varieties of cotton.
4) Calculate the mean of given data : 35.2, 38.4, 23.7, 11.7.
5) What is mutation ?
6) Give input and output devices of computer.
7) Define hybridization.
8) What is plant breeding ?
9) What is genome ?

1) Write a note on back cross method in plant breeding.
2) Explain in breif process of transformation.
3) Describe role of induced mutation in crop improvement.
B) Write applications of biostatistics in botony. 4

1) Describe in brief bacterial conjugation.
2) What is plant breeding ? Explain in breif aims and objectives of plant
breeding.
3) What is mass selection ? Write its important features with its merit and
demerits.

1) What is meant by selection ? Explain pureline selection with its merit.
2) Explain breeding in cotton with its significance.
3) What is transduction ? Describe the process of transduction.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018
zoology (Special Paper – XIII)
Molecular Biology and Biotechnology
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. .00 .m. to .00 p.m.

1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the
sentence : 14
1) Discontinuous DNA synthesis on lagging strand produce _____________
fragments.
a) Non-template b) Primer c) Template d) Okazaki
2) Solenoid is a term concerned with __________
a) Nucleosome b) Ribosome c) Spliceosome d) Polysome
3) Hershey and Chase performed their experiment using ___________ virus
to prove DNA as genetic material.
a) Tobacco Mosaic Virus b) Baculovirus
c) T2-Bacteriophage d) Polio
4) Polyadenylation occurs towards __________ of eukaryotic m-RNA.
a) 5’-end b) 3’-end c) 2’-end d) 7’-end
5) Transcription is a process concerned with the synthesis of ________
a) Protein b) DNA c) RNA d) Enzymes
6) The total number of codons in genetic code table is __________
a) 03 b) 04 c) 46 d) 64
7) Alec Jefferys contributed in the discovery of _________ technique.
a) DNA fingerprinting b) Polymerase chain reaction
c) ELISA d) Hybridoma
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 265 -2- *SLRSO265*
8) _________ technique is used for the detection of target proteins in the

sample.
a) Southern blotting b) Northern blotting
c) Eastern blotting d) Western blotting
9) Monoclonal antibodies are produced by using _________ technology.
a) ELISA b) Hybridoma c) PCR d) Protein fingerprinting
10) Removal of introns and joining of exons in eukaryotic m-RNA is known as
a) Ligation b) Intronation c) Splicing d) Exonation
11) _________ are used as vector in recombinant DNA technology.
a) DNA probe b) Antibiotic c) Primer d) Vector
12) Histone octamer consists of __________
a) H2a, H2b, H3a, H4 b) 2(H2a, H2b, H3a, H4)
c) 2(h1, H2a, H2b, H3a, H4) d) None of the above
13) __________ contributed in the experiment to prove DNA as genetic material.
a) Avery, McLeod, McCarty b) Alec Jefferys
c) Kohler and Milstein d) Kary Mullis
14) Formation of T=T dimers is DNA are induced by the action of _________
a) X-rays b) UV Radiation
c) Cosmic Radiation d) IR Radiation

i) Palindrome
ii) DNA Ligase
iii) Lagging strand
iv) Polyadenylation
v) Eco.RI
vi) Northern blotting
vii) DNA probes
viii) Initiation Codon
ix) Photoreactivation.
Set P
*SLRSO265* -3- SLR-SO – 265

i) Discuss replication of DNA in prokaryotes.
ii) Discuss in brief capping and splicing as posttranscriptional
modifications.
iii) Explain the process and applications of Southern blotting technique.
B) Discuss the properties of genetic code. 4

i) Discuss the technique of PCR and its applications.
ii) Explain the principle, working and applications of ELISA.
iii) Discuss Griffith’s transformation experiment.

i) Discuss with example plasmids as cloning vectors.
ii) Explain in detail the steps involved in translation process.
iii) Describe various applications of biotechnology in cloning and medicine.

_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XIII)
Integral Transforms
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative for each of the following. 14
1) If f(t) = sinhat, a > 0 then L{f(t)} =

p a
a) p > 0 b) p >| a |
p + a2
2
p − a2
2
1
c) p > − a d) None of these
p+a
2) If f(t) = e–at then L{f(x)} =
1 1 1
a) b) c) p − a d) None of these
p p+a

sint 
3) L  =
 t 

 1  1 
a) tan–1p b) tan–1   c) cot–1   d) None of these
p  p 

 eat + e− at 
4) L  =
 2 
p 2a
a) a p2 − a 2 b) p2 − a 2 c) p2 − a 2 d) None of these
5) L{tneat} =
n! n! n!
a) b) c) d) None of these
(p + a ) (p − a ) (p + a )
n n+1 n+1
6) The final value theorem is

a) lim
t →∞
f(t) = lim pf(p)
p→0
b) lim
t →0
f(t) = lim pf(p)
p →∞
c) lim
t →∞
f(t) = lim pf(p)
p →∞
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 266 -2- *SLRSO266*
7) Convolution of two function is always
a) commutative b) associative c) both a) and b) d) none of these
{ }
8) L−1 1 2 =
p
a) 1 b) t c) eat d) none of these
9) If L–1 {f(p)} = f(t) then L–1 {f(kp)} =

1 1
a) kf(t) b) f(kt)
k
c)
k ( )
f t
k
d) none of these
10) L–1
p
{
p 2 −a 2
= }
1
a) coshat b) sinhat
a
c) coshat d) none of these
–1  p + p2 
11) L  3  =
 p 
a) t + t2 b) t + 1 c) t2 + 1 d) none of these
 ∂y 
12) If y(x, t) is a function of x and t then L   =
 ∂t 

a) x y (x, p) + y (x, 0) b) p y (x, p) – y (x, 0)
c) p y (x, 0) – y (x, p) d) none of these
 f(p) 
13) L–1  2 =
p 
t t y
d2
a) ∫ f(x) dx dy
0
b) ∫∫0 0
f(x) dx dy c) (– 1)2
dp2
f(p) d) none of these
 ∂2y 
14) If y(x, t) is fuction of x and t then L  2  =
 ∂t 
a) p2 y (x, p) – py (x, 0) – yt (x, 0) b) p2 y (x, p) + py (x, 0)
c) p2 y (x, p) – pyt (x, 0) – y(x, 0) d) none of these
1) State second shifting theorem.
2) Find L{(sint – cost)2}.
3) Show that t2 is of exponential order 3.
Set P
*SLRSO266* -3- SLR-SO – 266
4) Verify initial value theorem for function f(t) = 3e–2t.
 1 
5) Find L–1  .
 p 
6) If L–1 {f(p)} = f(t) then show that L–1 {f(p – a)} = eat f(t).
 p 6p 3 .
7) Find L–1  + 2 + 
 p + 2 p − 16 p + 3 
2
8) State linearity property of Laplace inverse.

2
9) Show that |∗|∗| = t 2!
1) Find L{f(t)} where

(
f(t) = sin t − π 3 ) t>π
3
.
= 0 t<π
2) Find L{sin t }. 3
3) If L–1 {f(p)} = f(t) then show that L–1 {f(ap)} = 1a f t a .

∞
( )
B) Show that ∫
0
te–3t sintdt = 3 50 . 4
4. Attempt any two of the following questions. 14
n n
dn f(p)
1) If f(t) is a function of class A and if L{f(t)} = f(p) then L{t f(t)} = (– 1) .
dpn
 1 
2) Using convolution theorem solve L–1  .
 (p + 1) (p − 2) 
3) Solve (D2 + g)y = cos2t if y(0) = 1, y π 2 = – 1. ( )
1) Let f(t) be a periodic function with period T > 0 that is f(u + T) = f(u), f(u + 2T) = f(u) ...
1 T
etc., then show that L{f(t)} =
1− e −PT ∫
0
e −Pt f(t)dt .
 (p + 3) 
2) Find L–1 log .
 (p + 2) 
3) Solve Dx + Dy = t
D2x – y = e–t.
If x(0) = 3, x′(0) = – 2, y(0) = 0.

_______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) Examination, 2018
statistics (Special Paper – XIII) (CGPA)
Limit Theorems, Reliability and Queuing Theory
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N. B. : i) All questions are compulsory and figures to the right indicate

full marks.
ii) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is allowed.
1. Choose most appropriate alternative and rewrite the answers : 14
i) If Φ(x) is the structure function of a system then Φ(x) is ___________r.v.
a) Bernoullie b) Uniform c) Poisson d) Normal
ii) If T is a life time of a component with CDF F(.), then reliability of component
is given by _________
f(T)
a) F(T) b) 1 – F(T) c) f(T) d) F(T)
iii) In M/M/1 : ∞ /FIFO model the probability distribution of service time
is ___________
a) Poisson b) Normal c) Exponential d) Gamma
iv) Queue length will be infinite if ___________
a) ρ < 1 b) ρ = 1 c) ρ = 0 d) ρ > 1
v) If customers arrive at a rate of 10 per hour and service rate is 12 per hour
then M/M/1 : ∞ /FIFO model, expected waiting time of a customer in the
queue is __________ minutes.
a) 25 b) 10 c) 12 d) 30
vi) For a random sample of size 5 pdf of first order statistic is given by
f(y1) = __________
a) n!f(y1) [1 − F(y1)] b) 5f(y1) [1 − F(y1)]
(n − 1) 4

c) n f(y1) [1 − F(y1)] 5!(y1) [1 − F(y1)]
(n − 1) 4
d) 5!f
vii) Suppose Xi are iid exp(0.1) random variables. Then distribution of min {Xi}
is __________
a) exp(0.1) b) exp(10) c) exp(1) d) none of these
viii) Suppose Xi are iid N(0, 1) random variables. Then limiting distribution of
Z = ____________ is N(0, 1).
X
a) X b) c) X + n d) n X
n
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 267 -2- *SLRSO267*
ix) Which of the following statements is wrong ?
a) Xn 
Law
→ X ⇒ Xn 
P
→ X b) Xn 
Law
→ k ⇒ Xn 
P
→k
c) Xn → X ⇒ Xn  →k
P Law
d) Xn P
→ X ⇒ Xn 
Law
→X
x) If X is a r.v. with E(X) = 2 and V(X) = 4, then using Chebyscheve’s inequality
P[|X – 2| > 3] is __________
4 4 5
a) ≤ b) ≤ c) ≤ d) none of these
3 9 9
xi) If X is B(n, p) r.v., then with usual notations proportion of successes in n
trials, converges in probability to __________
a) 0 b) 1 c) P d) none of these
xii) Reliability of a series system of three components is __________
a) P1 + P2 + P3 b) (1 – P1) (1 – P2) (1 – P3)
c) P1P2(1 –P3) d) P1P2P3
xiii) Ageing function will be same as reliability function if __________
a) t < 0 b) t = 0 c) t > 0 d) t = 10
xiv) In queuing theory queue length means total number of customers ______
a) being served b) not being served
c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)
2. Attempt any seven from the following : 14
a) If Xi are iid P(2) r.vs. for i = 1, 2, ..., 50 then using central limit theorem (CLT)
obtain P[ΣXi > 125].
b) Define structure function of a system.
c) Obtain structure function for a series system of 3 components.
d) Define inter-arrival time.
e) In M/M/1 : ∞ /FIFO model, if arrival rate λ = 6 per hour then under proper
assumption about distribution of inter arrival time, find average time in
minutes between two successive arrivals.
f) If X is N(µ, σ2), then obtain lower bound for P[|X – µ|< 2σ].
g) In usual notations state pdf pf rth order statistic corresponding to a random
sample of size n fro a distribution with pdf f(.) and CDF F(.).
h) For a random sample of size 5 from U(0, 1) distribution write down the
distribution of median. (Derivation need not be given).
i) What do you mean by 2 out of three system ?
Set P
*SLRSO267* -3- SLR-SO – 267
P
a) If Xn → 1 then discuss the convergence of (kXn) in probability as n → ∞.
b) Let Xi be iid χ(10) r.vs. ∀ i = 1, 2, ..., n. Test whether weak law of large
2

numbers (WLLN) holds good for this sequence.
c) State Chebysheves inequality. Use Chebysheves inequality to
determine how many times a coin with p(H) = 0.25 must be tossed
so that P[|X – E(X) | > 2] will be 0.80, whether X = number of heads
in n tosses.
B) State any four assumptions of M/M/1 : ∞/FIFO model. 4
A) State and prove CLT for iid random variables.
b) Stating the assumptions made, obtain the joint distribution of rth and sth
order statistic.
C) Define failure rate function. Show that failure rate function is constant if and
only if underlying distribution is exponential.
A) State the assumptions made regarding the probability distribution of

arrivals in queuing system and then obtain probability distribution of arrivals.
B) If Y1 is the first order statistic with respect to a random sample of size n from
exp(θ) distribution, then obtain pdf of Y1. Further test the convergence of Y1
in probability as n → ∞.
C) Define :
i) convergence in probability of to a constant
ii) convergence in quadratic mean
iii) convergence in distribution.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester –VI) (CGPA) Examination, 2018
Geology (Special Paper – XIII)
Phanerozoic Stratigraphy of India
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1) The age of Muth quartzite is
a) Ordovician b) Silurian c) Devonian d) Carboniferous
2) Which one of the following series includes in Jurassic of Cutch ?
a) Katrol b) Boulder bed c) Rikba d) Barren measures
3) Gondwana sediments were deposited in
a) Geosynclines b) Lakes c) Trough faults d) Estuaries
4) The age of Bagh beds found under Deccan Traps is
a) Triassic b) Jurassic c) Cretaceous d) Tertiary
5) Productus shales are found in
a) Ordovician b) Silurian c) Devonian d) Permian
6) The fossils of Physa occur in ___________ beds underlying Deccan Traps.
a) Umia b) lnfratrappean
c) Chari d) None of these
7) The last upheaval of the Himalayan mountain belt took place in
a) Lower – Middle Cretaceous b) Miocene – Pliocene
c) Upper Cretaceous – Eocene d) Pliocene – Pleistocene
8) The main boundary fault separates
a) Vindhyans and Arawallies b) Siwaliks and Tertiaries
c) Siwaliks and Aravallis d) Siwaliks and Archaeans
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 268 -2- *SLR-SO268*
9) Jurassic rocks of Cutch are overlaid by

a) Deccan Traps b) Gondwana c) Salt range d) None of these
10) Lithologicaly upper Gondwana constitute
a) Conglomerate and shale b) Limestone and shale
c) Laterite and shale d) Sandstone and shale
11) Which one of the following Cretaceous rocks of South India is youngest ?
a) Utatur b) Trichuiopoly c) Ariyalur d) None of these
12) The Gondwana System was formed during
a) Upper Carboniferrous – Jurassic
b) Upper Carboniferrous – Cretaceous
c) Permian – Jurassic
d) Permian – Eocene
13) Pick out the formation which is devoid of coal ?
a) Barakar stage b) Raniganj stage
c) Iron stone stage d) None of these
14) In which of the following Era of Indian Stratigraphy Jurassics of Kutch were
formed ?
a) Purana b) Aryan c) Dravidian d) Archaean

i) Describe Raniganj stage.
ii) What is the age of Neobolus beds ?
iii) Names of series in Middle Gondwana.
iv) What is the age of Siwalik System ?
v) On which rock Cambrian strata of Spiti lies over ?
vi) What are series included in Triassic of Spiti ?
vii) In which system Maleri Series found ?
viii) Names of series in upper Gondwana.
ix) Describe “Neobolus beds”.
Set P
*SLR-SO268* -3- SLR-SO – 268

i) Kaladgi series
ii) Sakoli series
iii) lron ore series.
B) Explain Sausar series. 4

i) Describe in detail economic importance of Vindhyan System.
ii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Bhandar and Rewa
series.
iii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Lower Cuddapah
System.

i) Describe in detail economic importance of Dharwar System.
ii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Upper Vindhyan
System.
iii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Upper Cuddapah
System.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

microbiology (Special Paper – XIII)
Environmental Microbiology
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right indicate marks.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answer from given alternatives. 14

i) ________ is the main cause of Eutrophication.
a) Algal mass b) Pollutants
c) Reduction in DO d) Animal population
ii) Hiroshima – Nagasaki Tragedy is a case of _________ pollution.
a) Soil b) Radioactive c) Air d) Metal
iii) Marine bacteria grow best at salt concentration of __________ %.
a) 0.5 to 2 b) 0.5 to 1 c) 2.5 to 4 d) 1 to 2
iv) ___________ play an important role in leaching of uranium.
a) E.coli b) Bacillus polymyxa
c) S. aureus d) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
v) Study of animals in germ free environment is known as
a) Gnotobiology b) Biology
c) Geology d) Geomicrobiology
vi) Most hazardous metal pollution of automobile exhaust is
a) Mercury b) Lead c) Iron d) Copper
vii) Erosion observed in Taj Mahal is attributed to
a) CFC b) CO2
c) Acid rain d) Green house effect
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 269 -2- *SLRSO269*
viii) Depletion of ozone is due to
a) BHC b) PAN c) DDT d) CFC
ix) __________ will not cause atmospheric pollution.
a) H2 b) CO c) CO2 d) SO2
x) Minamata disease results from
a) Oil spills into sea
b) Release of industrial waste mercury
c) Accumulation of arsenic in atmosphere
d) Release of human organic waste into drinking water
xi) Respiratory disease are caused due to
a) Methane b) H2S
c) Suspended particulate matter d) Fluoride compounds
xii) _______ protect us from harmful effects of ultraviolet radiations.
a) Smog b) Clouds
c) Thick layer of CO2 d) Ozone
xiii) Lichens are described as indicators of
a) Air pollution b) Water pollution
c) Xerophytic succession d) Mesophytic succession
xiv) EMB agar is used in ________ test.
a) Confirmed test b) Presumptive test
c) Completed test d) IMViC

i) Define term ‘BOD’.
ii) Write characters of waste of paper and pulp industry.
iii) Enlist bioindicators of fecal pollution.
iv) Give significance of ozone.
v) What is gnotobiosis ?
vi) Define term ‘coliforms’.
vii) Give significance of water purification.
viii) What is bioremediation ?
ix) Define ‘potable water’.
Set P
*SLRSO269* -3- SLR-SO – 269
3. A) Answer any two of the following questions in brief. 10
i) Explain municipal water purification process.
ii) Give characteristics of waste from textile industry.
iii) Explain sugar industry as zero waste industry.
B) Give significance of lead and mercury as pollutant. 4

i) Write an essay on eutrophication.
ii) What is bioleaching ? Explain leaching of copper.
iii) Write an essay on marine environment.

i) Write an essay on routine bacteriological analysis of water.
ii) What is biomedical waste ? Explain treatment of biomedical waste.
iii) Explain various sampling methods for study of air borne microorganisms.
_______________
Set P

P

ELECTRONICS
Embedded System Design (Special Paper – XIII)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1) Which of the following is an example of an embedded system ?

a) Printer b) Computer c) Laptop d) None of these
2) In an embedded C program developed for 8951 microcontroller, which of
the following file should be essentially included ?
a) stdio.h b) reg51.h c) conio.h d) math.h
3) In the C language which of the following has highest priority ?
a) Addition b) Multiplication
c) Exponentiation d) All of these
4) In C language, which of the following is input function ?
a) Printf() b) Scanf() c) Putch() d) All of these
5) Which of the following embedded C statement is used to configure Port 1
in input mode ?
a) P1 = 0×FF b) P1 = 0×00 c) P1 = 0×99 d) P1 = 0× AA
6) Mode 2 of the timer programming is called
a) 11-bit timer/counter b) 13-bit timer/counter
c) 16-bit timer/counter d) 8- bit auto reload
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 270 -2- *SLRSO270*
7) In case of LCD interfacing, which of the following pin is used for contrast
adjustment ?
a) Vcc b) VEE c) Vss d) RW
8) TxD line of microcontroller 8951 is used for serial ___________of data.
a) Transmission b) Reception
c) Interruption d) None of these
9) In-system programming is the techniques of
a) Embedding firmwave into target device
b) Developing the firmware
c) Simulation of the results
d) None of these
10) Standard baud rate for serial communication with the computer is________
bits/second.
a) 9600 b) 19600 c) 22500 d) 1100
11) For measurement of the temperature which of the following sensor is most
suitable ?
a) LM741 b) LM324
c) LM35 d) None of these
12) For development of the embedded firmware for microcontroller
8951__________ IDE is used.
a) Keil Microvision b) Flash Magic
c) Pony Prog d) Micro C.
13) To ensure good isolation in device interfacing, which of following should be
interfaced ?
a) Electromagnetic relay b) Max 232
c) Transistor d) Seven Segment Display
14) For development of an embedded system for temperature
measurement__________ is essential part.
a) Sensor unit b) Digitization
c) Calibration d) All of these
Set P
*SLRSO270* -3- SLR-SO – 270
2. Attempt any seven from the following : 14

1) Define the term an embedded system.
2) Draw circuit diagram for clock for 8951 based system.
3) Give basic structure of C program.
4) Mention data types and data ranges of the C language.
5) Draw circuit diagram to interface optocoupler to Port I of microcontroller 8951.
6) What do you mean by In-system programming ?
7) Draw pin diagram of 16 ×2 LCD.
8) Mention registers used for programming of the timer.
9) Mention any four temperature sensors.

1) Write embedded C program to blink the LED connected at port pin P2.2.
2) With suitable diagram, describe interfacing DAC to the microcontroller.
3) Mention steps involved in development of embedded firmware by using
Keilmicrovision IDE.
B) Write a note on superloop. 4

1) With suitable diagram, describe interfacing of ADC 0804 to 8951
microcontroller.
2) Write embedded C program for generation of square of 4KHz at port pin P1.0.
3) Mention steps involved in programming of firmware into memory of the
microcontroller by using Flash Magic IDE.

A) With the help of suitable block diagram discuss the development of an
embedded system for measurement of temperature. Give flowchart of the
required firmware.
OR
B) 1) Describe in detail the designing of an embedded speed control of DC
motor by using PWM techniques. 14
2
) Mention applications of an embedded system.
____________ Set P

Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2018
Computer science (Special Paper – XIII)
Operating System – II
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct alternatives : 14

1) In Linux a user can load or upload
a) I/O modules b) I/O devices
c) Kernel modules d) File base I/O
2) Kernel is known as core of operating system.
a) True b) False
3) File inode number can be viewed by ?
a) –s b) –i c) –a d) –t
4) Which command changes a file’s group owner ?
a) chmod b) chgrp
c) chown d) chgrep
5) pwd command can be used to know the present working directory.
a) True b) False
6) cp command is used to copy files.
a) True b) False
7) All device files are stored in which directory ?
a) /etc b) /dev c) /www d) /html
8) vi editor commands are not case sensitive.
a) True b) False
9) In the shell, by default, all variables are considered and stored as ?
a) integer b) string
c) float d) character
10) ex command reads the content of another file in vi editor.
a) True b) False
11) NIS means Network Information System.
a) True b) False
12) mv command is used for renaming the file.
a) True b) False
P.T.O.
13) Which command is used to extract intermediate result in a pipeline ?

a) tee b) extract
c) exec d) None of the above
14) How many links are created when we create a directory file ?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
2. Answer any seven of following : 14

1) Write difference between rm and rmdir command.
2) Explain pipe command.
3) Explain grep command.
4) Explain wc command.
5) Explain mkdir command.
6) Write a note on Shell script.
7) Explain tar command.
8) Explain gzip command.
9) Explain head and tail command.
3. Explain any two of the following : 10

A) 1) Explain history and features of linux operating system.
2) Write a program for checking given year is leap year or not leap year.
3) Explain, ls command with its different options.
B) Explain vi-editor in detail. 4

1) Write a program for checking given number is even or odd.
2) Write a note on Linux file structure.
3) Explain Shell in linux with its different types.
5. Write short note on (any four) : 14

1) chown and chgrp
2) cut and paste
3) chmod
4) .exrc file
5) sort command.
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

Physics (Special Paper – XIv)
Electronics and instrumentation
Day and Date : Friday 2-11-2018 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
3) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.
1) The ideal operational amplifier has ________ bandwidth.
a) infinite b) finite c) zero d) one
2) The feedback path in an op-amp differentiator consists of
a) a resistor b) a capacitor
c) a resistor and inductor d) a resistor and capacitor in series
3) If RA = RB = 1 KΩ, C = 1µF then frequency of astable circuit is
a) 380 b) 480 c) 580 d) 680
4) Astable multivibrator is also called as
a) Free running multivibrator b) asymmetric
c) symmetric d) constant multivibrator
5) An SCR is turned off by
a) reducing gate voltage to zero b) reverse biasing the gate
c) reducing anode voltage to zero d) none of above
6) The normal way to turn on a diac is by
a) gate current b) gate voltage
c) breakover voltage d) none of above
7) The liquid used in LCDs are
a) nematic b) tantlum c) oil d) electrolytic
8) ___________ is passive display.
a) LEd b) LCD
c) CRT d) gas discharge plasma
9) RTD is an
a) active transducer b) passive transducer
c) inductive transducer d) capacitive transducer
10) Semiconductor diode parameter sensitive to temperature is
a) forward voltage drop b) reverse voltage drop
c) forward saturation current d) reverse current
P.T.O.
11) Which of the following should be incorporated in an RTD to make a
temperature sensing bridge most sensitive ?
a) platinum b) nickel c) copper d) thermistor
12) Maximum magnification that can be obtained by using TEM is
a) X 500000 b) X 50000 c) X 5000 d) X 500
13) Decreasing the electron beam diameter in SEM, _______ the resolution.
a) decreases b) increases
c) does not change d) minimize
14) Resolution of SEM is approximately
a) 1×10–3m b) 1×10–6m c) 1×10–9m d) 1×10–2m
1) Define resolution and magnification in microscope.
2) Give applications of SEM.
3) What are the disadvantages of RTD ?
4) State the selection criteria for transducer.
5) What are advantages of LEDs ?
6) Define the terms : breakover voltage and holding current.
7) Draw the functional block diagram of IC – 555.
8) Define the term SVRR and CMRR.
1) Explain construction, working and characteristics of Diac.
2) Draw the structure of LED and explain its operation.
3) What is photodiode ? Explain construction and characteristics of
photodiode.
B) Write note on scanning electron microscope. 4
1) Explain construction, working and characteristics of SCR.
2) Write note on construction and working of Transmission electron
microscopy.
3) Explain LCD. State different types of liquid crystals used for LCD. Give
important features of LCDs.
1) With neat diagram explain op-amp as differentiator and integrator. An
op-amp is used in inverting mode with R1 = 1 KΩ, R2 = 12 KΩ and
Vcc = ±15V. Calculate the output voltage for the inputs a) Vi = 150 mv
b) Vi = 2 V.
2) Explain application of timer IC-555 as linear ramp generator. Draw the circuit
of an astable multivibrator to generate the output signal with frequency of
1 kHz and duty cycle of 75% with capacitor C = 0.1 µF.
______________ Set P

P
B.Sc. Part – III (Semester – VI) (CGPA) Examination, 2018

chemistry (Special Paper – XIV)
Analytical and Industrial Organic Chemistry
Day and Date : Friday, 2-11- 2018 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

3) Draw neat, labeled diagrams and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for each of the following : 14

i) The raw materials required for the manufacture of synthetic detergents are
obtained from ______________ industry.
a) Sugar b) Glass c) Petroleum d) Plastic
ii) Invert soaps are ______________detergents.
a) Anionic b) Cationic c) Ampholytic d) Non-ionic
iii) In vulcanisation of rubber, ______________ is used.
a) Carbon b) Sodium c) Iron d) Sulphur
iv) Decolourisation of cane juice is done by
a) Activated carbon process b) Ion exchange process
c) Sulphitation process d) All of these
v) The name of monomer of natural rubber is
a) Isoprene b) Chloroprene c) Neoprene d) Styrene
vi) The liquid obtained after fermentation of molasses contains ______________
of ethyl alcohol.
a) 80 – 90 % b) 8 – 10% c) 50% d) 25 – 40 %
vii) __________ is a synthetic adhesive used in the sizing of man-made fibres.
a) Starch b) Tallow
c) Polyvinyl alcohol d) Flour
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 273 -2- *SLRSO273*
viii) Cotton bleaching by sodium hypochlorite involves ____________ process.

a) Reduction b) Oxidation
c) Hydrolysis d) Decomposition
ix) Biocatalytic reactions are
a) Highly specific b) Not heat sensitive
c) Not pH sensitive d) None of these
x) Friedel Craft’s reactions using zeolites are used to introduce ______________
groups into the aromatic nucleus.
a) Alkyl b) Acyl
xi) Alkaline hydrolysis of ______________is called saponification.
a) Carbohydrates b) Fats and oils
c) Proteins d) Starches
xii) Chromatographic separations involve the use of differences in the
______________ properties of components of a mixture.
a) Physical b) Optical c) Chemical d) Magnetic
xiii) Massecuite is a syrupy mixture of
a) Molasses and sugar crystals b) Sugar crystals and juice
c) Juice and molasses d) None of these
xiv) In paper chromatography, the stationary phase is always
a) Gas b) Solid
c) Liquid d) All of the above

i) Explain the uses of Turkey Red oil.
ii) Classify the following into organic, inorganic and synthetic polymers :
a) Cellulose b) Silicons c) Rayon d) Wool
iii) Explain defecation process used in refining of raw sugar.
iv) Define : a) desizing b) Singing
v) State any four principles of Green Chemistry.
Set P
*SLRSO273* -3- SLR-SO – 273
vi) Draw a neat labelled diagram of development of paper in paper

chromatography.
vii) Define : a) Homopolymers b) Copolymers
viii) Write a brief note on ‘Vat dyes’.
ix) Mention the necessary characteristics of adsorbents used in column
chromatography.

i) Define the term detergents. How is Deriphat prepared ? Give its uses.
ii) Write a note on microwave assisted reactions with suitable examples.
iii) Explain the principle and experimental technique of TLC.
B) What are Buna rubbers? How is Buna-N rubber prepared ? 4

i) Explain the method of preparation and uses of :
a) polyethene b) PVC
ii) Explain hot process of soap manufacture with a neat labelled diagram.
iii) Discuss the process of sugar crystallization in vacuum pan with a neat
labelled diagram of single effect vacuum evaporator.

i) Explain the principle and process of bleaching of fibres by sodium
hypochlorite.
ii) With a neat sketch, explain the role of juice heater in the clarification of
sugar juice. Add a note on the by-products of sugar industry.
iii) Explain the principle and experimental technique of gas chromatography.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
botany (Special Paper – XIV)
Molecular Biology and Biotechnology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative : 14

1) The DNA structure was discovered by __________ scientist.
a) J.H. Watson and Fransis Crick b) Robertson
c) J.H. Watson d) Fransis Crick
2) The Guanine nitrogen basesugar always join with the _____ base pair.
a) Adenine b) Cytosine c) Uracil d) Thymine
3) The plant tissue culture technique first was time discovered by _______
scientist.
a) Morkel – 1972 b) De Varies – 1872
c) Mullar – 1972 d) Haberland – 1972
4) The cell having capacity to divisible in tissue culture is called as
a) Totipotent cell b) Mitotic cell c) Meiotic cell d) None of these
5) The __________ fork is called “Okazaki” fragment.
a) C b) T c) Y d) G
6) Northern bloting is the technique for the detection of
a) Specific DNA in sample b) Specific RNA in sample
c) Specific protein d) None of these
7) The tissue culture plantlet growing in shade house is called
a) Hardening b) Treaming c) Sizing d) Dibbling
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 274 -2- *SLRSO274*
8) ________ enzymes are used to joining the bits of DNA.

a) DNA Ligase b) Polymerase c) Primase d) Gyrase
9) Bt cotton is __________ modified type of the genetic crop.
a) Hybrid b) Crossed c) GM d) Tissue culture
10) The genomic libraries are _________ types.
a) Genomic library b) c-DNA library
c) Both a) and b) d) DNA library
11) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique discovered by ________
scientists.
a) Watson b) Crick c) Karymulis d) Monod
12) The bacteria contain small independent circular double strand DNA is called
a) Vector b) Plasmid
c) Cosmid d) c-DNA
13) The DNA segment to be cloned is called __________
a) Gene segment b) DNA fragment
c) Chimeric DNA d) None of these
14) Operon hypothesis is putforth by
a) Jacob and Monod b) Watson and Crick
c) Gillbert and Mullar d) Monod
2. Answer any seven of the following questions : 14

i) Define denaturation of DNA.
ii) What is the B-form of DNA ?
iii) What is the Chimeric DNA ?
iv) What is meant by protoplast ?
v) Define the Callus.
vi) What is meant by DNA libraries ?
vii) What is meant by Replication ?
viii) What is meant by Semi-conservative method ?
ix) What is meant by DNA-fingerprinting ?
Set P
*SLRSO274* -3- SLR-SO – 274
3. A) Answer any two of the following questions : 10

i) Describe the brief lac operon concept with the figure.
ii) Describe the Transgenic plants.
iii) Describe the “Okazaki Fragment”.
B) Explain the Anther culture method. 4
4. Answer any two of the following questions : 14

i) Give the brief account of enzymes involved in DNA replication.
ii) Write the brief note on Micropropagation.
iii) What is PCR ? Give its application.
5. Answer any two of the following questions : 14

i) Describe the Watson and Crick model of DNA structure.
ii) Give the applications of Genetic Engineering.
iii) Describe the Somatic hybridization.
__________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
Zoology (CGPA) (Special Paper – XIV)
Biotechniques and Applied Zoology
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the
sentence. 14
1) __________ is a technique for separation of charged molecules based on
molecularsize.
a) Electrophoresis b) Chromatography
c) Angiography d) Mixography
2) The full form of Page is
a) Poly Acrylamide Gel Electrophoresis
b) Poly Amyl Gel Electrophoresis
c) Poly Amide Gel Electrophoresis
d) Poly Acyl Gel Electrophoresis
3) To remove negatively charged molecules through matrix of agarose, nucleic
acid molecules are separated by applying
a) electric current b) electric field
c) magnetic field d) all of the above
4) In gel electrophoresis fragments are separated on basis of
a) size b) charge c) both a and b d) none of the above
5) Tribolium is the pest of __________ crop.
a) Maize corn b) Cotton boll c) Jowar grain d) Pea pod
6) The acidity of given sample is measured from the device
a) pH meter b) Calorimeter
c) Spectrophotometer d) Balance
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 275 -2- *SLRSO275*
7) The IPM refers to
a) Indian Pest Management b) International Pest Management
c) Integrated Pest Management d) All of the above
8) In biological control of pests __________ are used.
a) Chemicals b) Fumigants
c) Biological agents d) Pheromones
9) ___________ deals with silkworm culture.
a) Apiculture b) Sericulture c) Silviculture d) Pisciculture
10) ___________ deals with culture and capture of fishes and crustaceans like
lobster, crab, shrimp etc.
a) Silviculture b) Aquaculture c) Apiculture d) Pearl culture
11) TLC means
a) Thin layer chromatography
b) Thick layer chromatography
c) Transparent layer Chromatography
12) The stem cells are __________ in nature.
a) Nutripotent b) Pleuripotent c) Totipotent d) Electropotent
13) __________ incubators provide the suitable environmental conditions to
the growing animal cell in a culture media.
a) O2 b) NO2 c) SO2 d) CO2
14) __________ deals with Honey bee culture.
a) Apiculture b) Sericulture c) Silviculture d) Pisciculture

i) Colorimeter.
ii) Pyrilla.
iii) Column chromatography.
iv) Cotton ball worm.
v) Economic importance of Fish oil.
vi) Gill net.
vii) Rampani net.
viii) Hooks and Lines.
ix) Silkworm Bacterial diseases.
Set P
*SLRSO275* -3- SLR-SO – 275
i) Give an account of applications of Stem cells.
ii) Write about the uses of Spectrophotometer.
iii) Describe Coastal fishery Sardine.
B) What is Pearl culture ? Give its economic importance. 4

i) Define and Describe pH meter.
ii) Describe Cryopreservation of gametes and its application.
iii) Give an account on Silkworm viral diseases.

i) Give an account on Marine capture fisheries.
ii) Give an account on Economic importance of Fish Products and by products.
iii) Give an account on Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis and its applications.
_______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Set P

Mathematics
Programing in C (Special Paper – XIV)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) C-language contains ___________ keywords.
a) 32 b) 30
c) 36 d) None of these
2) The character ‘\v’ means ___________
a) new line b) vertical tab
c) vector d) none of these
3) Every C-program statement end with __________
a) colon b) comma
c) semicolon d) none of these
4) One dimensional array is called _________
a) string b) matrix
c) row d) vector
5) Modulo division is a meaning of the operator ___________
a) % b) + c) ⊕ d) None of these
6) “Is not equal to” is the meaning of the operator __________
a) < = b) ! =
c) > = d) none of these
7) Math function for “arc tangent of x” is ____________
a) tan (x) b) tanh (x)
c) atan (x) d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 276 -2- *SLRSO276*
8) The meaning of the operator “&&” is ___________

a) AND b) OR
c) Address d) Logical AND
9) ____________ is the conditional statement.
a) switch b) for c) while d) do_while
10) Input data through keyboard using ____________ function.
a) printf b) scanf
c) float d) none of these
11) ____________ is the jumping statement.
a) switch b) while
c) goto d) none of these
12) The __________ is the header file contains maths function.
a) <stdio.h> b) <math.h>
c) <coin.h> d) none of these
13) _________ is the derived type of data.
a) pointers b) float
c) union d) none
14) ___________ is the three dimensional array.
a) Table b) Product
c) Chart d) Survay

1) Draw a tree diagram of C-Tokans.
2) Explain relational operators with their meaning.
3) Give the syntax for inputting integer and real number.
4) Write the types of decision-making statement.
5) Draw block diagram and general form of goto and label statement.
6) Draw block diagram of data structures.
7) Explain basic structure of C-program.
8) Draw block diagram of constant.
9) Explain one dimensional array.
Set P
*SLRSO276* -3- SLR-SO – 276

1) Explain backslash character constants table with meaning.
2) Explain ‘if’ statement with flowchart.
3) Write a program to evaluate the equation y = xn.
B) Explain two dimensional array with one example. 4

1) Write the table for all maths function with their meaning.
2) Explain ‘if-else’ statement with flowchart and example.
3) Explain ‘DO’ and ‘FOR’ statement.

1) Write the program for convert the given temperature in fahrenheit to celsius
F − 32
using formula C = .
1.8
2) Explain switch statement with flowchart and example.
3) Explain all types of constants.
_____________________
Set P

Seat
No. Set P
Statistics – (Special Paper – XIV) (CGPA Pattern)
C – Programming

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Select most correct alternative : 14

i) C is a programming language developed at
a) Microsoft Corp., USA
b) IBM, USA
c) AT and T’s Bell Laboratories of USA
d) C Laboratory
ii) The assignment statement x = x – 10; is equivalent to
a) x – – ; b) – – x ; c) x + + ; d) none of these
iii) Which of the following is neither an input nor an output function in C ?
a) scanf() b) getchar() c) print() d) none of these
iv) C programs are converted into machine language with the help of
a) A compiler b) An editor c) A translator d) A converter
v) C variable cannot start with
a) A number
b) An alphabet
c) A special symbol other than underscore
d) Both a) and c)
vi) Which of the following is allowed in a C arithmetic instruction ?
a) [ ] b) { } c) ( ) d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 277 -2- *SLRSO277*
vii) Which of the following is not an identifier in C ?
a) double b) int c) float d) all of these
viii) In switch statement, each case instance value must be
a) Special symbol b) Constant
c) Variable d) None of these
ix) What will be the output of the following statement ?
int k = 10; k = k% 3; printf (“%d”, k + 9) ;
a) 19 b) 11 c) 10 d) 1
x) If p is an integer pointer with initial value, say 3028, then after the operation
p = p + 1; the value of p will be
xi) For char type variable, ______ is used as conversion specifier.
a) %d b) %f c) %c d) %ch
xii) Which of the following is an error free declaration statement in C ?
a) integer number ; b) float rate 10 ;
c) int count ; d) real mean ;
xiii) What is the right way to declare and initialize an array ?
a) int num[6] = {2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5. 7}
b) float num[6] = {2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5. 7}
c) float num{ } = {2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5. 7}
d) none of these
xiv) In C, an expression –18%3 results in
a) –6 b) 6 c) 0 d) none of these

i) What is a keyword in C ?
ii) State the rules for constructing real constants.
iii) Give the list of C relational operators with their meaning.
iv) What is a getchar( ) ? What is its use ?
v) Write a scanf statement for inputting the value of the variable x which is of
the type integer.
Set P
*SLRSO277* -3- SLR-SO – 277
vi) Give the syntax of ternary operator.
vii) Convert the following algebraic expression into C arithmetic expression :
log10 a + 10
+ e ( 3 −k ) .
b − 10
viii) What is a pointer in C ?
ix) What is a break statement ?

i) Give the syntax of if ... else statement. Complete the following instruction
in C language by using if ... else statement :
“if a is greater than or equal to 10 then the value of b is assigned 50,
otherwise b is assigned 100”.
ii) Explain while loop.
iii) Write a C program for x = y3, where y is an integer type variable.
B) Find the value of the variable y in the following : 4
int a = 10, b = 20, y ;
y = a + b/2 – b%6 + 106% (a/2) ;

i) What is an array ? Give the syntax for declaration of one dimensional and two
dimensional arrays. Give at least one example to illustrate each syntax.
ii) What is a recursion in C programming ? Write a C-program for finding factorial
of a positive integer using recursion.
iii) Explain switch statement with its syntax.

i) Explain strlwr( ) and strupr( ). Illustrate each by one example.
ii) Write a C-program for finding the value of k, where k is :
k = loge(a + 20) – a7 + e3.
iii) Write a C-program for finding mean of first five natural numbers.
___________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P

geology (Special Paper – XIV)
Economic Geology
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the given options. 14
1) Tenor of the precious metals is __________.
a) high b) low c) very high d) moderate
2) The heavy minerals occurring as placers possess high specific gravity and
high ________.
a) durability b) volume c) mass d) shine
3) Diamondiferous conglomerate and quartzite are found in _________.
a) Madhya Pradesh b) Vindyan
c) Andhra Pradesh d) None of these
4) Flat topography is the requirement for the formation of ____________
deposit.
a) arenaceous b) rudaceous c) residual d) coal
5) Psilomilan is an ore mineral of
a) Zn b) Pb c) Mn d) Ti
6) India is major producer of _______ ore.
a) iron b) petroleum c) uranium d) platinum
7) Which of the following coal is the highest grade of coal ?
a) Bituminous b) Peat c) Lignite d) Anthracite
8) _____________ is non renewable hence we have limitations for its
conservation.
a) Uranium b) Gold c) Copper d) Iron
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 278 -2- *SLRSO278*
9) The placer deposits along the coastal tract of Maharashtra is _________
a) Gold b) Zircon c) Rutile d) Ilmenite
10) The placer deposits formed at the base and along slope of hill ______
a) fluvial b) eluvial c) beach d) wave
11) ___________ is a one of the non metalic ore deposit.
a) Au b) Coal c) Cu d) Zn
12) The ore deposit formed simultaneously with the formation of host rock is
________
a) bauxite b) epigenitic c) exogenic d) syngenitic
13) __________ is an example beach placer deposit.
a) Mn deposit of sauser b) Monazite of Kerala
c) Gold of Karnataka d) Uranium of Goa
14) Sulphide ores are the most common products of _________ process.
a) fluvial b) residual
c) magmatic d) supergene enrichment

1) What is gossan ?
2) What is zone of oxidation ?
3) Give the name and chemical composition of any 4 ore mineral from which
copper metal can be extracted.
4) Give any two conditions for the formation of residual deposits.
5) Define ore mineral and give any two examples of non metalogenic ore
deposits.
6) What is late magmatic deposits ?
7) Define the process of metasomatism.
8) What is epithermal deposits ?
9) Formation of eolian placer.
Set P
*SLRSO278* -3- SLR-SO – 278
1) Explain any five objectives of national mineral policy.
2) Define metasomatism and explain how temperature and intruding magma
affect in the contact metasomatic ore formation.
3) Diamond deposits of India.
B) Explain the tenor of 4
4. Answer in detail any two of the following : 14

1) Hydrothermal replacement deposits.
2) Explain how to achieve conservation of economic mineral.
3) Oxidation and supergen enrichment deposits.
5. Answer in detail any two of the following : 14

1) What is magmatic concentration ? Explain early magmatic concentration
deposits.
2) Explain in detail fluvial, eluvial and beach placer deposits with neat labeled
diagrams.
3) Write the salient features of National Mineral Policy (1990) of India in
brief.
_______________
Set P
Seat Set P
No.

microbiology (Special Paper – XIV)
Medical Microbiology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

alternatives : 14
i) Which of the following can cause gas gangrene infection ?
a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae b) Clostridium perfringens
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae d) Treponema pallidum
ii) Viral population can be estimated by ___________ determination.
a) LD50 b) TCD – 50
c) HI units d) All of these
iii) Latency in the germinal ganglea is characteristic of which of the following ?
a) Hepatitis A virus b) Plasmodium vivax
c) Herpes simplex virus d) AIDS
iv) Hydrophobia is the symptom of
a) Rabies b) Filariasis
c) Gas gangrene d) Hepatitis
v) Clostridium perfringens is
a) Gram positive, aerobic, spore bearing rods
b) Gram positive, anaerobic, spore bearing rods
c) Gram negative, aerobic, non-spore bearing rods
d) Gram negative, anaerobic, non-spore bearing rods
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 279 -2- *SLRSO279*
vi) Helicobacter pylori causes

a) Gastric lymphoma b) Gastric and duodenal ulcer
c) Hyperacidity d) All of these
vii) Sulphonamides are inhibitor of __________ synthesis.
a) Folic acid b) Vitamin B12
c) Protein d) Peptidoglycan
viii) Plasmodium reproduces asexually in the
a) Mosquito b) Human
c) Stagnant water d) Both mosquito and human
ix) _________ antiobiotic inhibit cell wall synthesis of bacteria.
a) Rifamycin b) Trimethoprim
c) Tetracycline d) Bacitracin
x) Oxidase test positive is a characteristic of __________ organisms.
a) Mycobacterium leprae b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Helicobacter pylori d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
xi) __________ is a veneral disease.
a) Syphilis b) Leprosy
c) Gas gangrene d) Filariasis
xii) Rifamycin antibiotic acts on __________ synthesis.
a) Cell wall b) Nucleic acid
c) Protein d) Cell membrane
xiii) The genetic material of hepatitis A virus is
a) RNA b) DNA
c) DNA or RNA d) Single stranded DNA
xiv) Spread of Hepatitis A takes place through
a) Blood b) Water
c) Mosquito d) Direct contact
Set P
*SLRSO279* -3- SLR-SO – 279
2. Answer in one or two sentences (any seven) : 14

1) What is Negri bodies ?
2) List two drugs inhibiting folic acid cynthesis.
3) What is Lepromin test ?
4) What is gas gangrene ?
5) What is Ebola ?
6) How β-lactamase enzyme cause penicillin resistance ?
7) What is Candidiasis ?
8) Stains used in Acid fast staining.
9) What is MIC ?

1) Spread of Rabies.
2) Cultural and biochemical characters of Vibrio cholerae.
3) Properties of ideal antimicrobial drugs.
B) Difference between Hepatitis A and B. 4

1) Mode of action of Streptomycin.
2) Diagnosis of AIDS.
3) Factors contributing, agents of Hospital infections.

1) Prevention of Swine flu.
2) Biochemical Mechanism of antibiotic resistance.
3) Diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori infection.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) Examination, 2018
electronics (special Paper – xiv) (cgpa Pattern)
Measurement Instrumentation and Control System
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

3) Neat diagrams are drawn wherever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternative of the following : 14

1) The _________ is used for non-invasive diagnosis.
a) pulse oximeter b) ultrasound imaging
c) heart rate monitor d) all of these
2) In the action state the bio-potential generated is
a) +70 mV b) – 20 mV
c) + 20 mV d) – 70 mV
3) The standard glass pH electorde is of ___________ electrode.
a) potentiometric b) ampeometric
c) variable capacitive d) variable inductive
4) The frequency generator employs ________ to produce the frequency.
a) differentiator b) integrator
c) both a) and b) d) amplifier
5) The __________ is the feature of open loop control system.
a) simple to design and construct
b) economical and easy to maintenance
c) no relation between input and output
d) all of these
6) The fidelity is the degree to which the control system shows the changes
in the measured variable without any __________ error.
a) systematic b) static c) dynamic d) gross
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 280 -2- *SLRSO280*
7) The PLC is ___________ of microcomputer system.
a) industrial type b) digital type
c) solid-state type d) all of these
8) The PLC performs _________ functions in a variety of automatic process
industry.
a) continuous b) discrete
c) continuous and discrete d) none of these
9) The ___________ ion are responsible for development of bio-potential.
a) Na+ b) Cu+ c) OH– d) Fe+
10) In case of CRO, the time base generator is introduced in __________
channel.
a) vertical b) horizontal
11) The ___________ control system is the discontinuous automatic control
system.
a) ON-OFF b) Proportional
c) Proportional integral d) Proportional derivative
12) The __________ control system is the composite control sytem.
a) Proportional b) ON-OFF
c) PID d) Derivative
13) In case of bio-potential, the cell in the action state is called as
a) polarized b) depolarized
c) repolarized d) none of these
14) The change in pulse width utilize normally for control of
a) Temperature b) DC motor
c) Humidity d) Soil moisture
2. Solve any seven from the following : 14

1) Compare analog CRO and DSO.
2) State the principle of conductivity meter.
3) Explain any two characteristics of control system.
4) Give the advantage and disadvantage of the PI control system.
Set P
*SLRSO280* -3- SLR-SO – 280
5) State the salient feature of the PLC.
6) Give the applications of PLC.
7) Draw the ECG waveform with its label.
8) Draw the block diagram of heart rate measurement system.
9) Define the resting and action bio-potential.
3. A) Solve any two of the following : 10

1) Explain the basic digital control system.
2) Explain the digital tachometer with the block diagram.
3) Explain in detail automatic control system with its classification.
B) Explain the resting and action potentials. 4
4. Solve any two of the following : 14

1) Explain the LCR-Q meter with the help of block diagram.
2) Explain the concept of ladder programming in PLC with various symbols.
3) Describe the servo-motor control system in detail with functional diagram.
5. Solve any one of the following : 14

1) a) Explain the EEG recorder system.
b) Explain the frequency generator meter.
2) a) Explain the On-OFF temperature control system for a set point.
b) Explain the architecture of the PLC.
––––––––––––––––
Set P
Seat
No.
Set P
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) CGPA Examination, 2018

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Special Paper – XIV : Data communication and networking – ii
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1) The first line of HTTP request message is called
a) Request line b) Header line
c) Status line d) Entity line
2) The file transfer protocol is built on
a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) none of the mentioned
3) When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes
a) SMTP server b) SMTP client
c) Peer d) None of the mentioned
4) The entire hostname has a maximum of
a) 255 characters b) 127 characters
c) 63 characters d) 31 characters
5) _________ provide security at the transport layer.
a) SSL b) TLS
c) either (a) or (b) d) both (a) and (b)
6) Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in
a) Browser security b) Email security
c) FTP security d) None of the mentioned
P.T.O.
SLR-SO – 281 -2- *SLRSO281*
7) Encryption and decryption provide secrecy or confidentiality, but not

a) Authentication b) Integrity
c) Privacy d) All of the above
8) Which of the following is true with respect to TCP ?
a) Connection-oriented b) Process-to-process
c) Transport layer protocol d) All of the mentioned
9) The main advantage of UDP is
a) More overload b) Reliable
c) Less overload d) Fast
10) Telnet is a
a) Television on net b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login d) Teleshopping site
11) The field used to detect errors over the entire user datagram is
a) UDP header b) Checksum
c) Source port d) Destination port
12) Bluetooth is the wireless technology for
a) local area network b) personal area network
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the mentioned
13) When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we
need only
a) One MTA
b) Two UAs
c) Two UAs and one pair of MTAs
d) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
14) URL stands for
a) unique reference label b) uniform reference label
c) uniform resource locator d) unique resource locator
Set P
*SLRSO281* -3- SLR-SO – 281

1) What is meant by Packet-filter firewall ?
2) What is meant by VPN ?
3) Which are the various control flags of TCP ?
4) What is transposition cipher ?
5) What is cryptography ?
6) Explain the use of router.
7) Explain SMTP in short.
8) Which are the various partitions in linux ?
9) What is classful addressing ?

1) Explain GPRS in detail.
2) Explain samba server in detail.
3) Explain bridge in detail.
B) Explain UDP in detail. 4

1) Explain the various security services in detail.
2) Explain group management of linux.
3) What is compression ? Explain audio compression in detail.

1) Explain the working of digital signature in detail.
2) Explain PGP in detail.
3) Explain with diagram IP datagram format in detail.
_______________
Set P

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*SLRSO1*

B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2018

N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

8) Nachiketa decided to meet the god of __________

2. Answer any four of the following questions in brief : 16

3. Answer any two of the following : 12

4. Answer any one of the following : 14

B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) Examination, 2018

Day and Date : Tuesday, 30-10-2018 Total Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Multiple choice questions : 14

5) Reaction rate can change with

2. A) Answer any four of the following : 8

B) Write notes on any two of the following : 6

3. A) Answer any two of the following : 8

B) Answer any one of the following : 6

4. A) Answer any two of the following : 10

B) Answer any one of the following : 4

5. Answer any two of the following : 14

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1) The bond dissociation energy of NO molecule is ___________kJ/mole.

7) The limiting radius ratio for square planar geometry is

2. A) Answer any four of the following : 8

B) Write short notes on any two of the following : 6

3. A) Answer any two of the following : 8

4. A) Answer any two of the following : 10

5. Answer any two of the following : 14

B.Sc. I (Semester – I) (CBCS) Examination, 2018

2. A) Answer any four of the following. 8

3. A) Attempt any two of the following. 8

4. A) Attempt any two of the following. 10

B) Attempt any one of the following. 4

5. Attempt any two of the following. 14

Day and Date : Friday, 2-11-2018 Max. Marks : 70

instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2. A) Answer any four of the following : 8

3. A) Answer any two of the following : 8

4. A) Answer any two of the following : 10

B) Answer any one of the following : 4

5. Answer any two of the following : 14

Day and Date : Saturday, 3-11-2018 Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.

1. Choose the correct alternative : 14

C) Mesokurtic D) Platykurtic and positively skewed

2. A) Answer the following (any four) : 8

B) Write notes on (any two) : 6

3. A) Answer the following (any two) : 8

B) Answer the following (any one) : 6

4. A) Answer the following (any two) : 10

5. Answer the following (any two) : 14

Day and Date : Monday, 12-11-2018 Max. Marks : 70

1. Choose the correct alternative : 14

3. A) Answer the following (any two) : 8

4. A) Answer the following (any two) : 10

5. Answer the following (any two) : 14

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Select the correct alternative for each of the following : 14

1) A square matrix A = (aij) is called skew-symmetric if ______ for all i and j.

2) The diagonal elements of skew-symmetric matrix are

4) Separate into real and imaginary parts

5) Show that sin (iz) = i sinh z.

B) Attempt any two from the following : 6

2) Show that [sin ( α − θ ) + eαi sin θ]n = sinn α ⋅ einθ

SLRSO1

B) Write short notes on any two of the following : 6