Test #18 Pharmacology

1. Which of the following medications may predispose the client to hearing loss?
a. Aspirin--ototoxic
b. Ampicillin
c. Demerol
d. Tylenol

2. The typical acute asthmatic attack is usually due to a combination of bronchial spasm, bronchial edema,
and the presence of mucoid secretions in the bronchial lumen. The client with asthma was given
mucomyst for which of the following reasons?
a. To decrease the viscosity of secretions.
b. To encourage the movement of the secretions in the bronchi.
c. To stimulate the cough reflex.
d. To dilate the bronchi.

3. Most asthmatic attacks respond to Epinephrine (Adrenalin) and it may be used as a therapeutic agent in
the treatment of some allergic conditions because it:
a. Improves cardiac output due to its positive inotropic effect.
b. Acts as a hypertensive agent elevating BP.
c. Dilates the bronchi.
d. Antagonizes histamine.

4. Upon admission to the coronary care unit, Mr. Trevas is given an IV bolus of Lidocaine, 75 mg, followed
by IV of 250 ml of a D5W which contains 1 gram of Lidocaine. The physician orders the Lidocaine to be
administered at a rate of 1 mg/min. The drop factor of the IV set is 60 gtts/ml. The nurse should regulate
the infusion (drops/min) at:
a. 15 Formula: Desired X Quantity = I mg/min
b. 10 Available 1000 mg/250 ml X 60 gtts/ml
c. 45 = 1 mg/min/4 mg/ml X 60 gtts/ml
d. 60 = 60/4 = 15

5. The expected outcome of Lidocaine therapy is to

a. elevate BP.
b. control cardiac irritability. Lidocaine is anti-arrhythmic
c. improve cardiac output.
d. relieve chest pain.

6. A 78-year-old-client is taking a combination of 3 drugs: Lasix, Digoxin, and Isordil. Which of the following
will be a desired, accumulative effect of the drugs?
a. Constipation
b. Weight loss = lasix (diuretic), digoxin (improves cardiac output), isordil (vasodilator)
c. Postural hypotension
d. Dizziness

7. Propanolol (Inderal) is used in the treatment of clients with

a. heart block.
b. asthma.
c. hyperthyroid.—beta-blocker
d. pulmonary edema.
8. Which of the following types of insulin is administered IV and during emergency?
a. NPH
b. Regular insulin
c. PZI
d. Combination of Regular and NPH
9. A manic-depressive client was placed on MAO inhibitor therapy. Which of the following foods will not be
appropriate for the client?
a. Fatty foods.
b. Coffee and tea.
c. Salty foods.
d. Vegetables.
10. Mr. Boone develops wound infection. The physician prescribes Gentamycin Sulfate (Garamycin) 80 mg
every 8 hours IV. The Gentamycin is mixed in 50 ml of D5W and it is to be given over 30 minutes. The
drop factor of the infusion set is 15 drops equal 1 ml. The nurse should regulate the Gentamycin infusion
at:
a. 12 gtts/min
b. 23 gtts/min
c. 50 gtts/min
d. 100 gtts/min

11. A client who is suffering from Osteoarthritis is given Naprosyn (Naproxen) and asked the nurse, “How
does this drug help me”? The nurse`s appropriate response would be:
a. “It relieves your spasm.”
b. “It prevents demineralization of your bones.”
c. “It strengthens bone structures.”
d. “It relieves discomfort.”
12. A client has an infusion of 500 ml of D5W which contain 20,000 units of Heparin Sodium. The client is to
receive 600 units per hour. The nurse will administer how many ml/hr of the solution?
a. 10 20000 units = 40 units/ml 600 units/40 units/ml = 15
b. 15 500 ml
c. 25
d. 30

13. A client is receiving Kayexalate (Sodium Polystyrene). Which of the following statements indicates that
the client understands the teaching given?
a. “My stool will be hard.”
b. “It will lessen the bacteria in my stomach.”
c. “It will decrease the serum K⁺ level in my blood.”
d. “It will decrease the Ca⁺⁺ level in my blood.”
14. All of these infants attended an infant care class with their mothers. Who among these babies can be
given an oral polio vaccine?
a. Annie, 5 months old, who finished her 120 ml formula an hour ago.
b. Ronnie, 3 months old, who upon arriving to the clinic vomited two times.
c. Jocelyn, 6 months with oral thrush.
d. Larry, 6 months, teething and droolin.g
15. While the client is receiving Heparin therapy, which of these should be readily available?
a. Vitamin K.
b. Protamine Sulfate.
c. Calcium Gluconate
d. Magnesium Sulfate.
16. Mrs. Morgan is on Heparin therapy for her thrombophlebitis. The IV contains 15,000 units of Heparin in
500 ml of D5W at a rate of 20 ml/hr. How many units per hour is the client receiving?
a. 60 units
b. 25 units
c. 600 units 15000 units/500 ml = 30 X 20 ml/hr = 600 units
d. 700 units

17. Why Prednisone dosage is decreased gradually and not abruptly?

a. Triggers the adrenal cortex to release ACTH to function normally.
 b. Costicosteroid suppression.
c. Adrenal insufficiency.
d. GI irritation.
18. The nurse is to administer 750 mg of Keflin. The dose available is 1 gm. Normal Saline 2.5 ml must be
added to the drug to make a 3 ml solution in a vial. How many ml will the nurse administer to the client?
a. 3.1 ml
b. 2.25 ml 750 mg/ 1000 mg X 3 ml = 2.25 ml
c. 3.0 ml
d. 4.0 ml

19. Butch is started on Disulfiram (Antabuse) as a part of his treatment for alcoholism. He will continue this
medication at home. Which of the following is contraindicated while Butch is taking Disulfiram?
a. Elixir of Terpin Hydrate.
b. Coated Aspirin.
c. Bicarbonate of Soda.
d. Antihistamine.
20. The nurse will anticipate which of the following effects when administering Epinephrine to the client who
is experiencing anaphylactic shock?
a. Brochoconstriction and positive inotropic effect.
b. Bronchoconstriction and negative inotropic effect.
c. Bronchodilation and positive inotropic effect.
d. Bronchodilation and negative inotropic effect.
21. Which of the following is a potential side effect of Elavil?
a. Dizziness upon getting up.
b. Diuresis.
c. Potential addiction to the drug..
d. Mental confusion

22. The nurse on the day shift receives a report which says, “IV solution to be absorbed is 500 ml”. The IV is
infusing at 75 ml/hr. At the end of the shift at 3:30 PM, which of the following amount should be reported
to the incoming shift as IV to be absorbed?
a. 100 ml
b. 300 ml
c. 600 ml
d. 900 ml

23. A client with schizophrenia, paranoid type, was placed on Haldol therapy due to her agitation. Which of
the following is a manifestation of the side effect of major tranquilizer like Haldol?
a. Unstable gait
b. Extrapyrimidal side effects
c. Constipation
d. Nausea
24. The client who is taking Haldol is placed on drug therapy to counteract the side effects of Haldol, which
drug is appropriate?
a. Cogentin
b. Antacid
c. Vit. K
d. Benadryl

25. A client with CHF was placed on Lasix and Digoxin. Which of the following diet modification should be
included?
a. Extra salt diet because Lasix causes diuresis.
b. Prunes and tomatoes.—rich in potassium
c. Low protein diet.
d. Extra calories.
26. To prevent the side effect of Decadron it must be taken with
a. fluids.
b. crackers. GI irritation
c. empty stomach.
d. high fiber diet.
27. Aminophylline 500 mg in D5W 1000 ml is ordered to infuse at 13 mg/hr. If the IV tubing you are using
delivers 60 gtts/ml, how many gtts/min would you set the IV pump at?
a. 30 gtts/min
b. 19 gtts/min
c. 26 gtts/min
d. 20 gtts/min

28. Which of the following indicates that Cogentin is effective?

a. The client has improved ability to concentrate.
b. The client has decreased tremors.
c. The client’s BP is decreased.
d. The client appears more relax and less agitated.

29. Which of the following is a side effect of Lasix?

a. Increased urine output.
b. Lightheadedness.
c. K⁺ level 5.0 mEq/L.
d. Urine specific gravity, 1.030.
30. The client is placed on Lithium Carbonate for his manic psychosis. When giving discharge teaching, the
nurse should include which of the following?
a. Limit fluid intake to 1 L/day.
b. Inform MD if client develops fatigue and drowsiness.
c. Avoid foods such as aged cheese and wine.
d. Avoid foods that are salty.
31. Which of the following complaints of the client would the nurse suspect a side effect of Streptomycin?
a. The client turns up the volume of the television. Streptomycin is ototoxic
b. The client complains of burning sensation on urination.
c. The client complains of nausea.
d. The client complains of rashes on both hands.
32. A student nurse is assigned to an 8-month-old infant who is receiving Lanoxin that is being supplied by
pharmacy in suspension form. Which of the following actions by the student nurse reflects the most
accurate way of administering liquid (suspension) medication?
a. Administer the medication using a teaspoon.
b. Administer the medication using a dropper.
c. Administer the medication using a medication cup.
d. Administer the medication using a 3 ml syringe.
33. Mr. Richter is ordered continuous intravenous infusion of Heparin at the rate of 1,000 units per hour. The
concentration of Heparin is 12,500 units in 250 ml of 0.9% NS. To achieve the ordered dosage of the
drug, the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver approximately which of the following amounts per
hour?
a. 12 ml
b. 20 ml
c. 25 ml
d. 50 ml

34. Yolanda is a 26-year-old client who is scheduled for breast biopsy. Her preop. Medications are Demerol
40 mg and Atropine 0.4 mg to be given in one syringe. The Demerol vial is labeled 100 mg/ml, the
Atropine vial is labeled 1 mg/ml. The total volume of this injection should be:
a. 0.5 ml
 b. 0.8 ml
c. 1.1 ml
d. 1.4 ml

35. Josh is to receive an antibiotic in 25 ml of IV fluids during a 40-inute period. The IV apparatus delivers 60
drops per ml. Josh should receive how many drops per minute?
a. 17 to 18 25 ml X 60 gtt/ml/ 40 minutes = 37.5
b. 27 to 28
c. 37 to 38
d. 47 to 48

36. Adelle is to receive Phenergan 35 mg IM. The drug is available in ampules containing 50 mg in 1 ml of
solution. Adelle should receive which of this amount of solution?
a. 0.3 ml
b. 0.7 ml
c. 1.0 ml
d. 1.4 ml

37. The doctor ordered Gravol IM 25 mg every 4 hours PRN for vomiting. The available dose is 100mg/2 ml.
How much should the nurse give to the client?
a. 0.25 ml
b. 0.50 ml
c. 0.125 ml
d. 5.0 ml

38. Cynthia came in with a diagnosis of mild dehydration. The physician orders IV 1 liter to be infused in 8
hours. The IV set delivers 10 drops/ml. The nurse sets the IV pump at which of the following rate?
a. 21 drops/min
b. 30 drops/min
c. 17 drops/min
d. 25 drops/min

39. The nurse is to administer a preoperative medication to a client who is 5’6” tall and weighs 115 pounds.
Which of the following needles would be appropriate for administering the medication IM?
a. A 19G, 1 ½” needle
b. A 20G, 1” needle
c. A 22G, 1 ½” needle
d. A 26G, 1” needle

40. Which of the following medications will be most likely being ordered on the client with Atrial Fibrillation?
a. Morphine Sulfate
b. Digoxin
c. Inderal
d. Oxygen

41. A 67-year-old male client was admitted into a surgical unit because of syncope and cardiac arrhythmias.
On physical assessment, the nurse noted petechiae on his trunk and bruising on his limbs. His gums are
moist, spongy and bleeding easily. The nurse suspects a deficiency in:
a. Vitamin A
b. Iodine
c. Vitamin C makes iron available for formation of heme
d. Iron

42. The drug of choice to treat the client’s thyroid storm would be:
a. Propanolol (Inderal)
b. Nipedipine (Procardia)
c. Verapamil (Calan)
d. Quinidine (Quinidex)

43. A 70-year-old male is 5 feet, 9 ½” tall. He was admitted with an inferior MI. His condition is stable. He
reports that he drinks a six-pack of beer every night. This man’s history suggests that he is predisposed
to a deficiency in
a. Thiamine
 b. Vitamin B12
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C

44. Your client is receiving Decadron (Dexamethasone). Based on your knowledge of this drug, you would
question the physician if a craniotomy client is not receiving which of the following medication?
a. Sodium Bicarbonate
b. Morphine Sulfate
c. Zantac (Ranitidine) –decadron is a GI irritant
d. Inderal

45. A client has viral hepatitis. Her serum ammonia level is 120 mg/dl. Expected drug therapy includes:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Lasix
c. Neomycin
d. INH

46. Which of the following is a side effect of Vasotec?

a. Dizziness
b. Headache
c. Confusion
d. Muscle weakness
47. The physician orders Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene) as a topical antibiotic treatment for a client with burn
wounds. An advantage of this treatment is which of the following?
a. Hardens eschar, allowing a faster recovery period.
b. Is absorbed more rapidly than other topical agents.
c. Acts against both gram negative and gram positive microorganisms.
d. Increase granulocyte formation for efficient wound healing.
48. To minimize the patient’s risk for post-operative DVT, the nurse should:
a. Avoid using low-molecular Heparin in patients at moderate to high risk.
b. Maintain patients on bed rest for 24 hours following surgery.
c. Exercise, ‘flexing and extending’ feet, while in bed is discouraged.
d. Used of intermittent pneumatic compression devices on lower legs until the patient can
ambulate is highly recommended.

49. The international normalized ratio (INR) is used to measure the effectiveness of which of the following?
a. Heparin
b. Thrombolytics
c. Warfarin
d. Antiplatelets

50. Foods high in which vitamins can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin?
a. C
b. E
c. K
d. A

51. Who is at the greatest risk for complications while receiving anticoagulant therapy?
a. A 45-year-old female with Acute MI.
b. A 24-year-old patient who had prosthetic valve operation.
c. An 80-year-old female with angina.
d. A 70-year-old male with liver cirrhosis.—Liver produces clotting factors (prothrombin)

52. A client who is having chest pain due to MI is about to receive a STAT dose of Morphine Sulfate (MSO4)IV.
The usual adult dose for MSO4 is:
a. 0.5 mg to 0.75 mg.
b. 4.0 mg to 8.0 mg.
c. 8.0 mg to 12.0 mg.
d. 9.0 mg to 10.5 mg.
53. Morphine Sulfate is the medication of choice in treating a client with chest pain because the drug’s desired
effects would be
a. Morphine’s vasodilating properties will perfuse the heart muscles.
b. Morphine’s vasodilating effect will promote diuresis.
c. Morphine decreases cardiac contractility.
d. Morphine decreases cardiac output.
54. Which of the following is a legal aspect of administration of narcotics?
a. Get another nurse to witness your narcotic waste.
b. The drug must be signed out in the medication record after it was administered to the client.
c. Return the left-over narcotic to the locked cabinet.
d. Ask a trusted colleague to administer the drug for you.
55. The PCA (patient controlled analgesia) pump on Mr. Lou was discontinued today. The nurse who discards the
remaining Morphine in the PCA pump will appropriately do which of the following?
a. Discontinue the IV access and discard the remaining medication.
b. Discontinue the IV access; ask another nurse to witness as you discard the remaining
medication.
c. Keep the PCA pump running until someone is ready as you discard the remaining medication.
d. Return the remaining medication to the pharmacy.

56. Enteric Coated Aspirin is an important drug during and following MI attack. The nurse would question which
of the following order with Aspirin?
a. Coumadin.—potentiates aspirin
b. NTG SL.
c. Digoxin.
d. Lasix.

57. Twenty-four hours following burn accident, Johnny was given Morphine Sulfate to control his pain. Which
of the following parameters should the nurse utilize to accurately measure the client’s response to drug
therapy?
a. How the client feels.
b. Use the pain scale system—‘Scale of 1 of 10”.
c. Pay attention to non-verbal cues.
d. Monitor the client’s vital signs.

58. Mrs. Reno was admitted in the medical until for evaluation of her elevated blood pressure. The client has
been on Aldomet therapy for the last 6 months. With Aldomet therapy her blood pressure is noted to have gone
up from 180/100. An informed nurse is aware that the client’s response to the drug therapy is known as
a. synergistic reaction.
b. hypersusceptibility.
c. potentiating effect.
d. paradoxical reaction.
59. John is a 65-year-old male client with history of Rheumatic Heart Disease and was admitted to the
hospital with a diagnosis of Aortic Regurgitation. He has been fairly well until 2 weeks ago when he
started to experience shortness of breath on exertion, fatigue, and inability to walk ten (10) steps on
a ground level. He reports that he has to sleep with three (3) pillows to ease his breathing. Today, while
waiting for the physician to evaluate him, he complained of severe excruciating chest pain. The nurse
who is assigned to him gave him NTG SL X3. Which of the following is correct about NGT administration?
a. NTG SL must be taken in a sitting position.
b. NTG must be taken when chest pain is experienced.
c. The nurse should call the physician if the client is still in pain.
d. NTG SL must be taken with sips of water.

60. A 72-year-old is admitted with cerebral arteriosclerosis, complicated by polycythemia vera, and heparin Q6H
is prescribed. If the anticoagulant therapy is effective, the nurse would expect:
a. A PTT twice the normal value.
b. An absence of ecchymotic areas.
c. A decreased viscosity of the blood.
d. A reduction of confusion and weakness.
61. To assess the effectiveness of a vasodilator administered to lower hypertension, the nurse should take the
client’s pulse and blood pressure:
a. Prior to administering the drug.
b. Thirty minutes after giving the drug.
c. Immediately after the patient gets out of bed.
d. After the patient has been lying flat for 5 minutes.
62. Mr. Lou, 65 years old, with liver cirrhosis was ordered neomycin enema for which of the following goals?
a. To lower the client’s high BP.
b. To improve the client’s level of consciousness.
c. To promote diarrhea.
d. To correct constipation.

63. A male, Hispanic client with history of excessive ‘alcohol-drinking’, was admitted with a diagnosis of
recurrent pancreatitis. On admission, the client was complaining of unbearable pain. The nurse knows that
the appropriate narcotic analgesic for this client would be
a. Demerol.
b. Morphine.
c. Tylenol #3.
d. Ativan.

64. The client’s heart rate drops to 48 while the physician was inserting the pacemaker. The nurse who
is assisting the physician will anticipate a drug order of which of the following:
a. Digoxin
b. Lidocaine
c. Atropine—increases HR
d. Pronestyl

65. Following Lasix therapy on a client with heart failure, the nurse would assess which of the
following reflecting the desired effect of the drug:
a. Electrolyte imbalance.
b. Vital signs.
c. Diuresis.
d. Hypotension.

66. A 35-year-old female client is receiving dosed of chemotherapy. The nurse who is assigned to the client
knows that one of the following is an important nursing intervention:
a. Chemotherapy is given IV push.
b. The client is usually NPO for 12 hours post chemotherapy to prevent vomiting.
c. Use sterile gloves when administering the chemotherapy drugs.
d. Administer antiemetic 30 minutes prior to the administration of the drug.

67. Following Nitroglycerin patch application, an expected outcome experienced by the client would be one of
the following:
a. Elevated blood pressure
b. Tachycardia
c. Tingling sensation
d. Increased urine output—NTG is a vasodilator

68. A client is receiving furosimide (Lasix) to relieve edema. The nurse should monitor the client for evidence of
a. negative nitrogen balance.
b. excessive retention of sodium ions.
c. excessive loss of potassium ions.
d. elevation of the urine-specific gravity. dehydration
69. When teaching a client about antacid therapy, the nurse should include the fact that antacid tablets:
a. Are taken 1 hour before meals.
b. Are as effective as the liquid forms.
c. Should be taken only at 4-hour intervals.
d. Interfere with the absorption of other drugs.
70. A client with tuberculosis has been receiving INH as part of the chemotherapeutic therapy protocol. During a
subsequent clinic visit the nurse should recognize that prompt intervention is required when the client
develops
a. yellow sclera. –INH is hepatotoxic
b. orange stools.
c. a temperature of 98.6˚F.
d. a weight gain of 5 lb.
71. A client is receiving hydrochlorthiazide (HydroDUIRIL). The best method the nurse can use to determine the
effectiveness of this therapy is to observe the client’s
a. blood pressure.
b. absence of edema.
c. serum sodium level.
d. urine specific gravity.
72. In a med-surg floor you have a doctor’s order of Aldactone 25 mg q12h and potassium chloride 25 mg q12h.
Which of the following will the nurse perform?
a. Give Aldactone in AM and K+ @ HS.
b. Give both medications together.
c. Question the order and recheck with doctor. –aldactone is potassium-sparing
d. Give Aldactone @ HS and K+ in AM.

73. A nurse picks up an order for an asthmatic child. The order reads: Propranolol (Inderal) 80 mg. PO QD. The
nurse reads this order as
a. Appropriate dose.
b. Contraindicated.
c. Inapropriate dose.
d. Indicated.

74. Your patient has pulmonary edema, which of the following would not be included in the drug management?
a. Epinephrine
b. Lasix
c. Isosorbide dinitrate
d. Morphine Sulphate

75. A manic client is being treated with lithium carbonate. The nurse would correctly suggest which of the
following activities for this client.
a. Playing solitaire.
b. Basketball
c. Distribution towels to other patients’ rooms.
d. Monopoly

76. The nurse knows that the maximum amount of fluid that can safely be injected intramuscularly in an infant is
a. 0.5 cc.
b. 1.0 cc.
c. 1.5 cc.
d. 2.0 cc.
77. Which of the following signs should the nurse be aware of on a patient who is taking prednisone?
a. Melena
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypekalemia
d. Low platelet counts

78. Which of the following clients would the nurse question if a narcotic analgesic medication was ordered?
a. A 70-year-old client with gout.
b. A 24-year-old MVA client with head injury.
c. A 52-year-old client two days post gallbladder surgery.
d. A 16-year-old with rheumatoid arthritis.
 79. Ms. Cox is an adult ♀ patient who was prescribed depo-provera. The drug was prescribed for which of the
following?
a. It is a contraceptive drug given by IM injection every 3 months.
b. It is a type of hormonal replacement therapy given every 3 months by IM injection.
c. It is a drug that prevents osteoporosis.
d. It is the drug of choice for those who are planning to get pregnant.

80. Mary Jane is 7-year-old girl who was admitted with asthma exacerbation. Admission vital signs include a HR
of 120 bpm, RR 34, breathing was wheezy on ausculatation, Temp 99.5˚F. Based on the admission
assessment, the nurse will expect which drug will be ordered on the patient ASAP?
a. Intal
b. Ventolin
c. Mucolytics
d. Solumedrol IV

81. Mrs. Byron rushes into the ER carrying 2-year-old Amanda in her arms. She thrusts a half-empty bottle of
aspirin at the nurse and states that he saw Amanda eating them just 30 minutes earlier. After confirming
that Amanda had eaten at least six tablets of aspirin, the nurse should
a. Give her 15 milliliters of ipecac syrup and a large glass of water
b. Prepare her for gastric lavage
c. Catheterize her for a fresh urine sample
d. Start an intravenous infusion for administration of an antidote

82. James Brandon, 30 years old, was admitted with swelling of the right neck. He has difficulty swallowing and
the doctor ordered Pen G Sodium 1 million unit every 6 hours and Solucortef 50 mg IV every 6 hours and
both drugs are due at 2400 hours. A well-informed nurse administers the two medications as follows
a. Administer Pen G at 2300 hour, Solucortef at 2400 hour
b. Administer Solucortef at 2400 hour, Pen G at 0100 hour
c. Administer both medications at the same time
d. Administer Pen G at 2330 hour, Solucortef at 0100 hour

83. Danielle Knetchel, 32 years old, experiences diarrhea after eating in the restaurant. She went to the
clinic and the physician prescribed anti-diarrheal drug, a narcotic that causes dryness of the mouth.
Which of the following drugs was given to Danielle?
a. Gravol
b. Immodium
c. Chew lemon
d. Lomotil

84. The physician ordered Lomotil 5 mg p.o. QID on Mr. Spikes for his diarrhea. Expected side effect of
the drug would include:
a. Urinary retention.
b. Decreased peristalsis.
c. Tinnitus
d. More diarrhea

85. Diane is admitted with IDDM. She received 10 U of Regular Insulin at 0730 and had her breakfast at
0800. The nurse should watch for hypoglycemic reaction at
a. Between 0830 and 0930.
b. Between 1030 and 1200.
c. Between 1330 and 1630.
d. Between 1930 and 2130.

86. The nurse administers prescribed pancreatin replacement therapy to Bonnie. To effectively evaluate the
effect of this treatment, should expect that this medication will result to
a. Bulky, foul, smelly stools.
b. Close to normal stools.
c. Loose, frequent stools.
d. Constipation.