Table of Specification in Science Quarter 3 Third Periodical Test Grade III

Table of Specification in Science
Quarter 3
Third Periodical Test
Grade III
Code Knowl Skills Applic No. of Item No.
Learning Competency edge ation Items
1. Describe the position of a S3FEIIIa- 2 1,2

person or an object in b-1 2
relation to an reference
point such as chair, door,
another person.
2. Identify things that can S3FEIII
make objects move such as c-d-2 4 4 3,4,5,6
people water, wind
magnets:
3. Describe movements of S3FEIIIc-
objects such as/fast slow; f-3 4 7
forward/backward, 4 28,29,30
stretching, compressing.
4. Describe sources of light S2FEIII 8,9,10,
and sound, heat and h-4 9 4 1 14 11,12,13,
electricity. 14,15,
18
20,21
22,23
27
5. Enumerate uses of light, 16,17,19
sound, heat and electricity.
2
24
1
S3FEIII 25
6
J-5 3
26
18 9 3 30
SCIENCE
THIRD GRADING PERIODICAL TEST
GRADE III
1. The cat is _______ the _______.
A. on – table C. under-table
B. Beside-table D. before-table
2. The door is _____ the ____.

A. at the back- boy C. in front –boy
B. under-boy D. left-boy
3. It is a push or a pull. It is needed to make objects move.

a. Force b. gravity c. magnet d. wind
4. The flag on top of the pole is moving. What makes the flag moved?
a. Because of Magnet c. because of the wind
b. Because of the children d. because of the pole
5. Which of the following objects can be moved by magnets?
a. Nails and coins c. books and pencil
b. Marbles and rings d. iron and towel
6. What makes the sailboat move in the sea?
a. Magnet b. gravity c. water d. none of the above
7. When a van is in motion/moving and the driver suddenly steps on the brake, the
passengers are thrust ________.
a. Nowhere b. backward c. forward sideward
8. The ____ is the primary source of heat and light.
a. Sun b. fire c. moon d. candle
9.
How does light travel?
a. In a crooked line c. in a broken line

b. In a straight line d. in a zigzag line
10. Which of the following is not an example of artificial light.
a. b. c. d.
11. What kind of material allows the light to pass through? Example of this is a clear glass.
a. Translucent b. transparent c. opaque d. refraction
12.
Light coming from the sun is very useful and important to

plants. What is the use of sunlight to the plants?
a. use for making food through the leaves c. Use to make it tall
b. Use for making water d. use to make it fat
13. Why is traffic light important?
a. Help us to see the road c. to make the road clear
b. Helps control the flow of traffic in the road d. help the people
14. Which of the following picture is not a good practice.
a. Looking directly to the sun c. using umbrella
b. Reading with enough light d. using sunglasses

15. What do these pictures give off?
a. it give heat b. it give light c. it give energy d. it give force
16.
How does heat used?

a.by putting salt b. by cooking c. by putting water
d. by eating
17.
What will happen to the clothes after an hour when mother hang
it under the heat of the sun?
a.it becomes hot c. it dries up
b. it fade d. it fly up
18. The girl feel warm because of the heat. Where does heat come
from?
a.jacket b. wall c. cap d. fire
19. Which of the following shows safety in using heat?
a. B. c. d.
20. How does sound produced?
a. by energy b. by vibration c. gravity d. by heat
21. What object that has a sound of broommmm!!!! Broommmm!!!! Broommm!!!!
a. guitar b. whistle c. motorcycle d. piano
22. What will you do to make this object produces sound?
a.shake it b. blow it c. hang it d. pluck it

23.
We have to ________ the drum to produce sound.

a. shake it b. beat it c. blow it d. pluck it
24. The siren of the fire truck tells us that there is ________.
a.party b. fire c. visitors d. good news

25.
The toy car move because it is __________.

a. Battery operated c. plug in an outlet
b. Pushing d. pulling it
26.
Electricity is used in an electric fan to ________
a. light b. cool c. cook d. entertain
27.
What do the pictures show?

a. Proper ways of using electricity c. not a proper ways of using
electricty
b. A good habit d. it should be followed
28.Terry is walking going to school around 12:00 noon. She noticed that there is a _______
beside her body. What it is?
a. Shadow b. soul c. light d. rainbow
29.
Tony is trying to shoot a santol fruit. What did he do to his

tirador?
a.Stretched the tirador c. push the tirador

b. Put on the tirador d. bring the tirador going to the tree
30. Our teacher give us an activity in our science class. She told us to threw a coin upward.
What is the
movement of the coin as it falls down?
a. it moves fast
b. it moves slow
c. it moves slowmotion
d. it remains up the air
KEY ANSWER;
1.C
2.A
3.A
4.C
5.A
6.C
7.C
8 .A
9.B
10.B
11.B
12.A
13.B
14.A
15.A
16.B
17.C
18.D
19.A
20.B
21.C
22.A
23.B
24.B
25.A
26.B
27.C
28.A
29.A
30.A
Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region X
Division of Lanao del Norte
TABLE OF SPECIFICATION
THIRD PERIODICAL TEST
Science Grade IV
NUMBER
KNOWLEDGE SKILLS APPLICATION TEST
OBJECTIVES OF TEST
PLACEMENT
ITEMS
1.Explain the effects
of force applied to an
object 1,2,3,5,6,7 4 7 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
S4FE -III a-1
2.Practice safety
measures in physical
activities and proper 8 9,10,11 12 5 8,9,10,11,12
handling of materials
S4FE -III b-c-2
3.Describe the force
exerted by magnets 13,15 14 3 13,14,15
S4FE-III d-e-3
4. Describe how light,
sound and heat travel 16,17,18,19,20,
16,17,18,19,21 20,22 23 8
S4FE-III f-g-4 21,22,23
5.Investigate 24,25,26,27,30,31 28,32 29,33 10 24,25,26,27,28,

properties and 29,30,31,32,33
characteristics of light
and sound
S4FE-III h-5
6. Describe ways to
protect oneself from
exposure to excessive 34,35,36,37,
34,35,36,37 38,39,40 7
light, heat and sound 38,39,40
S4FE-III i-j-6
Total 24 12 4 40 40

Region X
t THIRD PERIODICAL TEST

SCIENCE 4
Name: ____________________________ Grade/Section: ___________ Score:
_______
Direction: Choose the best answer. Write your answer on your paper.
1. If you are to push a cart, a box and a bicycle to a certain distance from the starting
line, which will require you to exert a greater force?
A. cart B. box C. bicycle D. car
2. The greater the mass of an object, the greater is the force needed to _______ the
object.
A. move B. stop C. roll D. push
3. What do we call the force that sets an object into motion?
A. balanced B. moving C. unbalanced D. pushing
4. Suppose you push a door and your friend is on the other side pushing the door. How
will you describe the force and the effect of your actions to the doors?
A. The force is balanced and the door does not move.
B. The force is unbalanced and the door may break.
C. The door will push your friend away from you.
D. The door will push you both.
5. A marble that is standing still will move when ____________.
A. bumped by another marble C. touch by a person
B. there is a strong wind D. a force is applied on the marble
6. Why do you need to use force in moving a ball in a ramp?
A. to add force to a ball
B. to move the ball away from the ramp
C. to let the ball roll on the ramp
D. to allow the ball to stay on the ramp
7. What causes objects to move?
A. weight B. gravity C. force D. magnets
8. What will you do when there is a car coming very fast while you are on the street?
A. Do not cross the street. C. Walk slowly.
B. Stay on the side. D. Stay out where you are.
9. An oil spilled on the stairs where you need to pass in going to the canteen. What will
you do?
A. Do not walk on the floor with spilled oil.
B. Jump and hop to move away from the area where there is oil spill
C. Dry the floor with your uniform and walk away.
D. Stay on the stairs.
10. During an earthquake, which of the following should you need to do?
A. Stay in a safe places without objects that might fall on you.
B. Stay outside where there is an open area.
C. Stay under your bed or any big tables.
D. Stay inside your room.
11. During physical education activities, what will you do if someone pushes you?
A. Push the person in front of you.
B. Push the person behind you.
C. Hold on to someone near you.
D. Tell them not to push anyone.
12. What will you do if you are transferring glassware from one place to another?
A. Walk slowly and carefully.
B. Handle the glassware carefully.
C. Hold the glassware tightly and run.
D. Bring the glassware to the place where you need to transfer using a box.
13. When the SAME poles of two magnets whether North or South are placed close to
each other, they _______________.
A. push each other C. attract each other
B. pull each other D. does not move at all
14. If you break a magnet into two pieces, what will happen to the force that will be
exerted by the magnets when in use?
A. Force remains the same. C. Force will be doubled.
B. Force exerted will decrease. D. Force of each magnet will not be
affected.
15. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The push and pull of magnets is called magnetism
B. Magnets do not have force,
C. Papers are attracted by magnets.
D. All metals are attracted by magnets.
16. What is the direction of heat transfer?
A. from hot to cold C. from cold to hot
B. from bottom to top D. from side to side
17. How is heat transferred in solid materials?
A. through convection C. through conduction
B. through radiation D. through vacuum
18. What happens to a liquid when heated?
A. it remains the same C. it increases in temperature
B. it increases in volume D. it increases its water level
19. What happen to a solid when it is continuously exposed to heat?
A. it may become heavier C. it may expand
B. it may decrease in volume D. it may melt
20. How do vibrations of the particles behave when sounds travel through solids?
A. occurs fast C. occurs moderately
B. occurs very slowly D. cannot be determined
21. How do sounds travel through air?
A. very fast B. very slowly C. in jumping motion D. in random manner
22. Which of the following statements about sounds is correct?
A. Sound cannot travel through solids.
B. Sounds travel faster in air than liquids.
C. Sounds travel faster in solids than air.
D. The travel of sounds is not affected by the medium through which it travels.
23. When we are in the classroom, which of the following sound may reach our ears first?
A. Sound from tapping the table.
B. Ring of the bell from the principal’s office.
C. Whisper of your classmates seated behind the room.
D. Chirps of a bird nearby acacia tree.
24. In which medium can sound wave travel faster?
A. solids B. Liquids C. gases D. all of the above
25. In which medium can light travels faster?
A. Solids B. Liquids C. Gases D. all of the above
26. Where does light always travel?
A. straight line C. visible line
B. curved line D. diagonal line
27. Which of the following produces a soft sounds?
A. jet B. drum set C. whisper D. buzzing bee
28. What happens to the loudness of the sound when as one goes away from it?
A. remains the same C. decreases gradually
B. increase gradually D. fades abruptly
29. How do the vibrations of the particles behave when sound travels through solids?
A. occurs fast C. occurs very slowly
B. occurs moderately D. cannot be determined
30. The bounding back of light that strikes a clear surface.
A. Refraction C. Radiation
B. Reflection D. Retention
31. A narrow but powerful beam of light.
A. candle B. flashlight C. laser D. magnifying glass
32. Which of the following is true about sound?
A. Loudness increases as you get farther from the point of origin.
B. Loudness can decrease as you get nearer to the point of origin.
C. Sound can neither be loud or soft.
D. All of the above.
33. Why do ambulance and fire truck have louder siren?
A. So that vehicle in front of them can give way to them.
B. So that they can travel faster that other vehicle.
C. So that they cannot experience traffic.
D. None of the above.
34. Which of the following material can be used to protect ourselves from excessive heat
and light?
A. perfume B. hat C. bracelet D. head band
35. Which of the following is good to use when we go out on a sunny day?
A. umbrella B. sun glasses C. sunblock lotion D. all of these
36. Which of the following is good to use to protect our ears from the noise in the
environment?
A. ear muffs B. cotton buds C. earrings D. all of these
37. Why is it not advisable to stay in hot and noisy places?
A. Our sense of hearing may be affected badly.
B. Many people will discover our talents.
C. Our sense of sight may be damage by the heat of the sun.
D. Both A and C
38. What must you do if you want to swim on a hot sunny day?
A. Wear jacket so that your skin will not get burned.
B. Wear protective footwear like boots and knee-high socks.
C. Use beach umbrella while swimming in the water.
D. Apply sunblock lotion to protect your skin from the sun.
39. Which of the following shows proper way of protecting oneself from the heat of the
sun?
A. Wearing protective clothing like long sleeves if you are working under the sun.
B. Drink plenty of water to keep hydrated during sunny day.
C. Use wide-brimmed hat when working in the fields.
40. Why do we need to use pot holder when handling hot casseroles or any hot cooking
wares?
A. To protect our hands from getting hurt or burned.
B. To protect our new cuticles from fading.
C. To maintain the softness of our hands.
D. None of the above.
Region X
t THIRD PERIODICAL TEST

SCIENCE 4
Key for Correction
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. D
11. B
12. A
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. A
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. B
31. C
32. C
33. A
34. B
35. D
36. A
37. D
38. D
39. D
40. A
REPUBLIC OF THE PHILIPPINES
DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION
REGION X
DIVISION OF LANAO DEL NORTE
GRADE FIVE
THIRD PERIODICAL TEST
TABLE OF SPECIFICATIONS
KNOWLEDG APPLICATIO
SKILLS
E N
(Analyze
(Understand (Create & # of Item
CONTENT / COMPETENCIES & Apply)
& Remember) Evaluate) Items Placement
1. Describe the motion of an

object by tracing and
measuring its change in 4 1 6 1-4, 31,46
position (distance travelled) 1
over a period of time)
S5FE – IIIa-1
2. Use appropriate measuring

tools and correct standards 2 1 6 5-6, 32,
units.
S5FE – IIIb-2
5 2 8 7-11, 33-34,
3. Discuss why some materials 47
are good conductors of heat
and electricity. 1
S5FE-IIIc-3
4. Infer how black and colored

objects affect the ability to 3 2 5 12-14, 35-36
absorb heat.
S5FE-IIId-4
5. Relate the ability of the

material to block, absorb or 3 2 4 15-17, 37-38
transmit light to its use.
S5FE-IIIe-5
6. Infer the conditions
necessary to make a bulb light up; 1 18-21,
4 2 7
S5FE-IIIf-6 39-40, 48
7. Determine the effects of

changing the number or type 4 2 6 22-25, 41-42
of components in a circuit;
S5FE-IIIg-7
8. Infer that electricity can be

26-28,
used to produced magnets; 3 2 1 6
43-44, 49
and
S5FE-IIIh-8
9. Design an experiment to
determine the factors that 29-30, 45,
2 1 4
affect the strength of the 1 50
electromagnet.
S5FE-IIIi-j-9
TOTAL 30 15 5 50 50
THIRD PERIODICAL TEST IN SCIENCE V
Name :___________________________________Grade and Section: ___________Score___________
Directions: Read and understand each sentence then write the letter of your answer.
1. When something has speed in a certain direction it is called __________.
a. Motion b. position c. velocity d. speed
2. Dwayne runs 8 kilometers in 1.25 hours. What is Dwayne’s average speed?

a. 10 km/h b. 16 km/h c. 6.75 km/h d. 6.4 km/h
3. A bee can fly at an average rate of 7 miles/hour. If a bee flew nonstop for 18 hours, how far will it
have traveled?
a. 126 miles b. 25 meters c. 25 miles d. 0.38 miles /
hour
4. A cricket can travel approximately 8 feet per minute. How many feet could a cricket travel in 75
minutes?
a. 83 feet b. 180 feet c. 9.375 feet d. 600 feet
5. The basic SI unit of length is the

a. Meter b. foot c. inch d. mile
6. Scientist use the SI System around the world as a standard unit of measurement. SI means:
a. International System of Measurement
b. International System of Institutes
c. System Natural
d. All of the above
7. Why are metals useful for making electrical wire?

a. Metals do not bend C. Metals are insulators
b. Metals hold much heat D. Metals are conductors
8. Which is not an insulator?
a. Wool b. Plastic c. Copper d. Glass
9. Something electricity can’t move through is called a(n) _________.

a. Conductor b. wire c. shoe d. insulator
10. What are conductors?

a. A conductor is a material that allows electric charge to move through it as an electric
current. Usually the charge is carried by electrons, and the conductor is a metal.
b. An insulator.
c. An conductor
d. A material or an object that does not easily allow heat, electricity, light, sound to pass
through it. Air, cloth and rubber are good electrical insulators; feathers and wool make
good thermal insulators. Compare conductor.
11. What is a difference between a conductor and an insulator?

a. An insulator allows electricity to flow through it easily and a conductor does not.
b. A conductor allows electricity to floe through it easily and an insulator does not.
c. An insulator is magnetic and a conductor is not.
d. A conductor is magnetic and an insulator is not.
12. Light energy can be converted into heat energy. A black object absorbs all wavelengths of light and
converts them into heat, so the object gets _______.
a. Warm b. Heat c. Cold d. all of the above
13. What color heats up the fastest?

a. Black b. White c. blue d. all of the above
14. What color attracts the most heat?

a. Black b. white c. blue d. all of the above
15. The bouncing back of light is called?

a. Scattering b. Light c. Refraction d. Reflection
16. Objects that allow light to pass through them are _____________.
a. Glass c. translucent
b. Transparent d. opaque
17. Light is directed as it passes through a medium.

a. Scattering b. Light c. Refraction d. Reflection
18. In a simple series circuit, why does the bulb light when you close the switch?
a. Because the switch produces electricity
b. Because closing the switch completes the circuit
c. Because closing the switch breaks the circuit
d. None of the above
19. In a simple series circuit, why does the bulb go out when you open the switch?
a. Because the battery goes flat
b. Because opening the switch breaks the circuit
c. Because too much electricity floes through the bulb
d. Because closing the switch completes the circuit
20. How does the light bulb work?

a. Electricity flows through it
b. A flame ignites the gases inside
c. The filament resists and creates light and heat
d. Both A and C
21. When was the light bulb invented?

a. 1859 b. 1869 c. 1879 d. 1889
22. When electric charges move through electrical conductor there is a production of
a. Electric current c. Electric Cell
b. b. Electrical charges d. Electric Circuit
23. A component which is used to close or break a circuit is

a. A bulb b. Switch c. Wire d. Electric Cell
24. When one bulb in a series circuit containing several light bulbs burn out
a. The other bulb burn brighter
b. Nothing changes in the rest of the circuit
c. None of the other bulbs will light up
d. All of the above
25. Electric current is the flow of ______.

a. Electrons b. Protons c. neutrons d. none of these
26. The buildup of charges on an object is called:

a. Positive charge c. Negative charge
b. Static charge d. static discharge
27. An electrical current produces a(n):

a. Magnetic field c. electrical resistance
b. Magnetic domains d. both b and c are correct
28. Electromagnets are often used:
a. In compasses
b. A device on the end of a crane used to lift scrap metal
c. In insulators
d. In solar heaters
29. In which direction do the field lines go around a magnet?

a. From south to north
b. It’s different for every magnet
c. Clockwise
d. Form north to south
30. Which of these devices uses a magnet or electromagnet to make it work?

a. An electric bell
b. A microchip
c. A compact disk
d. All of these devices
31. What does this graph represent?

a. Constant Speed
b. Acceleration
c. Not moving
d. None of these
32. The formula for measuring solid volume is :

a. M x V b. L + L + L + L c. L + V + M d. L x W x H
33. What element is a good electrical semiconductor?

a. Copper b. Silicon c. Gold d. Sulfur
34. What do we call a material that has a resistance of zero?

a. Superconductor
b. Major conductor
c. Minor conductor
d. Semiconductor
35. The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
a. Color b. black c. light d. reflection
36. Light travel in a __________.

a. Zigzag pattern c. Circular motion
b. Straight Line d. Curved Line
37. The bending of light due to a change in speed is called ___________.

a. Transparent b. Reflected c. absorbed d. Refraction
38. Other substances can transmit light but allow the light to scatter or diffuse, making it difficult to
distinguish objects that are behind them. We call these substance ____________.
a. Translucent b. Reflected c. absorbed d. Refraction
39. What component does this circuit symbol represent?
a. Battery
b. Cell
c. Open switch
d. Bulb
40. When measuring the potential difference across a component, you need:
a. A voltmeter connected in series
b. A voltmeter connected in parallel
c. A potentiometer connected in parallel
d. None of these
41. Which of these things does a circuit need to work properly?

a. Bulb c. Crocodile Clips
b. A power supply d. Plastic
42. Why do circuits need to be complete?

a. To make them round in shape
b. So the wires are all the same size
c. To make the bulbs go out

d. So that the electricity can travel all the way around
43. To pull towards one another.

a. Circuit b. Attract c. Pole lightning d. Detract
44. When a build-up of electrical charge empties into something.

a. Short circuit c. Fuse
b. Discharge d. Series Circuit
45. When talking about magnets, what word is the opposite of attract?
a. Repel b. Rebel c. Compass d.
46. Every morning. Tom walks along a straight road from his home to the bus stop. Beside, is a graph
representing Tom’s trip to school. What is the average speed of Tom’s Journey throughout the
second Segment, which is between 50 seconds and 70 seconds?
a. 5 m/s c. 3 m/s
b. 4 m/s d. 2 m/s
47. The ____________ of a material is a measurement of how well a material opposes the flow of
electric current.
a. Inductance b. Voltage c. Resistance d. Capacitance
48. There are three light bulbs connected to the same battery. If one of the bulbs broke:
a. All the bulbs would stop working

b. The other two bulbs would break as well
c. The other bulbs would carry on working
d. All of the above
49. Either of two opposing forces or parts, such as the poles of a magnet.
a. Pole b. Lodestone c. Patent d. Repel
50. Where are the field lines most concentrated around a bar magnet?
a. at the North Pole c. at both poles
b. at the centre d. at the South Pole
THIRD QUARTER EXAM – SCIENCE 5
KEY ANSWER
1. C 11. B 21. C 31. C 41. B
2. D 12. A 22. A 32. D 42. D
3. A 13. A 23. B 33. B 43. B
4. D 14. B 24. C 34. A 44. B
5. A 15. D 25. A 35. C 45. A
6. A 16. B 26. B 36. B 46. C
7. D 17. A 27. A 37. D 47. C
8. C 18. B 28. B 38. A 48. C
9. D 19. B 29. D 39. B 49. A
10. A 20. D 30. A 40. B 50. C

Region X- Northern Mindanao
Division of Lanao Del Norte
_____________________________________________________________________________________
_____________
TABLE OF SPECIFICATIONS
Subject: SCIENCE Quarter: THIRD QUARTER
Level: GRADE VI No. of Items: 60
ITEM PLACEMENT TOTAL

NO. OF NO. OF
KNOWLEDGE SKILL APPLICATIO
LEARNING COMPETENCIES CODE DAYS WEIGHT ITEMS
N
TAUGHT
 Infer how friction S6FEII

and gravity affect I 15 30% 1,2,3,4,5,6,7, 37,38,39,4 16
movements of a-c-1 8,9, 0,
different objects 10,11 41
 Demonstrate how S6FEII
sound, heat, light I 15 30% 12,13,14,15, 42, 16
and electricity d-f-2 16, 43,44,45,
can be 17,18,19,20, 46,47
21
transformed
 Manipulate S6FEII
simple machines I 22,23,24,25, 48,49,50,5 18
to describe their g-i-3 15 30% 26, 1,
characteristics 27,28,29,30, 52,53
31,
and uses
32,33
 Demonstrate the S6FEII
practical and safe I 5 10% 34,35,36 54 55- 60 10
uses of simple j-4
machines
TOTAL 50 100% 36 18 6 60

Region X- Northern Mindanao
Division of Lanao Del Norte
_____________________________________________________________________________________
Third Quarter Exam

GRADE VI
I. Multiple Choice: Read each item carefully. Write the letter of your answer.
___1. . It is a push or a pull that starts, stops or changes the direction of an object.
a. friction b. gravity c. energy d. force
___2. Which among the statements is FALSE?

a. Force can stop a moving object.
b. Force can destroy the energy an object possesses.
c. Force can change the speed of a moving object.
d. Force can transfer energy to an object to make it move.
___3. What force pulls the objects toward one another?

a. gravitational force c. magnetic force
b. frictional force d. nuclear force
___4. What kind of friction is produced when a ball rolls on the floor?
a. rolling friction c. fluid friction
b. sliding friction d. static friction
___5. Which among the statements best describes frictional force?

a. Friction allows fast movements on rough surfaces.
b. Friction is not present in stationary objects.
c. Friction causes an abject that moves along a surface to slow down and eventually stop.
d. Friction does not some energy into heat.
___6. Which has potential energy?

a. rolling boulder c. flying bird
b. running car d. ball inside a box
___7. What does NOT belong to the group?

a. Maglev train c. orbiting planets
b. rising and falling of ocean’s tides d. leaves falling on the ground
___8. Which has the LEAST friction?

a. rough road c. sandy surface
b. polished floor d. tiled floor
___9. All objects fall towards the ______ of the Earth.

a. side b. center c. end d. top
___10. The gravitational force is ______ likely to attract distant objects towards it.
a. most b. more c. less d. not
___11. Which is used to measure the direction and amount of force exerted on an object?
a. platform balance c. weighing scale
b. double beam balance d. spring scale
___12. It is the ability to do work.

a. force b. friction c. energy d. gravity
___13. All potential energy can be changed into kinetic energy.

a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Sometimes
___14. When one object is positively charged and the other is negatively charged, it will _______.
a. explode b. repel c. attract d. melt
___15. What form of energy is stored in the digested food?

a. light energy c. chemical energy
b. heat energy d. mechanical energy
___16. The following are uses of sound energy except ______.

a. for communication c. for electricity
b. for navigation d. for geology
___17. Which is TRUE about energy?

a. Energy can be created.
b. Energy can be destroyed.
c. Energy can be converted.
d. None of the statements are true.
___18. What energy transformation is present when lighting a matchstick?

a. light energy  chemical energy
b. chemical energy  light energy
c. light energy  heat energy
d. heat energy  light energy
___19. Which is not classified as mechanical energy?

a. sewing machine c. wheel barrow
b. gasoline d. pushcart
___20. What form of energy is best applicable in drying clothes?

a. radiant energy c. electrical energy
b. magnetic energy d. nuclear energy
___21. How is energy converted in battery- operated toy car?

a. potential energy  kinetic energy
b. chemical energy  mechanical energy
c. mechanical energy  chemical energy
d. kinetic energy  potential energy
* Identify what examples of simple machines are given. Follow the corresponding letters in answering
items 22- 33.
a. inclined plane d. screw

b. wedge e. pulley
c. lever f. wheel and axle
___22. broom stick ___28. harness (zipline)
___23. cutter ___29. cap of a bottle (Coke Mismo)
___24. head of an axe ___30. slide
___25. ramp ___31. doorknob
___26. stapler ___32. seesaw
___27. bicycle ___33. flagpole
___34. Which simple machines are included in scissors?

a. lever and wedge c. screw and pulley
b. inclined plane and wedge d. lever and pulley
___35. Which example is a compound machine?

a. spoon b. baseball bat c. magnet d. grass cutter
___36. Which among the following is not a third- class lever?

a. tweezers b. shovel c. hammer d. pliers
___37. Why do a feather and a ball fall to the ground at the same speed on the moon?
a. The Earth’s moon has no gravity.
b. The Earth’s moon has no air resistance.
c. The earth’s moon has no mass.
d. The Earth’s moon has no density.
___38. Why does a 1000 kg elephant feel the stronger gravitational pull than a 10 kg bicycle?
a. because the mass of an object/ a body affects the strength of gravitational force
b. because the distance of an object/ a body affects the strength of gravitational force
c. because the elephant is bigger than the bicycle
d. because the bicycle transports faster than the elephant
___39. A girl descends on a rocky slope. What force prevents her from sliding down?
a. mass c. friction
b. distance d. gravity
___40. How can you best reduce friction between the feet of your cabinet and your rough floor at home?
a. by varnishing the feet of the cabinet
b. by waxing the floor
c. by attaching rollers at the bottom of the cabinet’s feet
d. by making the floor wet
___41. Why do aircraft and trains have aerodynamics shapes?

a. to conserve fuel usage as it travels
b. to decrease the speed of the aircraft and trains
c. to reduce air friction and increase its speed
d. to increase air friction and reduce its speed
___42. Ana wants to roast a chicken for their family reunion. What energy transformation is needed to do
the task?
a. from electrical energy to radiant energy
b. from electrical energy to thermal energy
c. from electrical energy to chemical energy
d. from electrical energy to mechanical energy
___43. It was one hot day and Tony felt a discomfort. He decided to turn on the electric fan so that he can
relax. What energy transformation occurred in the electric fan?
a. from mechanical energy to electrical energy
b. from electrical energy to chemical energy
c. from electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. from chemical energy to electrical energy
___44. The battery- operated clock works because of the battery in it. As you turn on the clock, what
energy transformation takes place?
a. electrical energy  chemical energy
b. chemical energy  electrical energy
c. mechanical energy  chemical energy
d. chemical energy  mechanical energy
___45. Nuclear energy is released through ______.
a. nuclear fusion c. nucleus
b. nuclear fission d. both a and b
*Study the table below.
Appliance kWh Total Use kWh per Week

television .33 per hour 15 hours a day ?
Washing machine 33 per load 10 days ?
___46. If the family uses the television for 15 hours a day, how much energy will they consume for one
week?
a. 2.31 kWh b. 2. 31 kWh c. .31 kWh d. 2 kWh
___47. If the family uses the washing machine for 10 days, how much energy will they consume in a week?
a. 231 kWh b. 230 kWh c. 229 kWh d. 228 kWh
For items 48- 54: Identify what simple machine is needed in the following situations. Write the letter
only.
a. inclined plane d. screw

b. wedge e. pulley
c. lever f. wheel and axle
___48. loading a heavy material on the truck
___49. rolling a heavy furniture on a rough surface
___50. slicing an apple fruit
___51. assembling /auto parts
___52. lifting heavy equipment in building construction
___53. sweeping the ground
___54. transporting patients on wheelchairs inside the hospitals

II. Essay: Answer the given question briefly yet concisely.
1. How do simple machines help us in our daily activities?
_____________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
THIRD QUARTER EXAM – SCIENCE 6

KEY ANSWER
1. d 21. b 41. c
2. b 22. c 42. b
3. a 23. b 43. c
4. a 24. b 44. d
5. c 25. a 45. d
6. d 26. c 46. a
7. a 27. f 47. a
8. b 28. e 48. a
9. b 29. d 49. f
10. c 30. a 50. b
11. d 31. f 51. d
12. c 32. c 52. e
13. a 33. e 53. c
14. c 34. a 54. a
15. c 35. d 55.
16. c 36. d 56.
17. c 37. b 57. Sample Answer:
18. b 38. a 58. Simple machines make our daily tasks

or works easier and faster to perform.
19. b 39. c 59.
20. a 40. c 60.
GRADE 7 SCIENCE
THIRD GRADING
LC Code No of %
Learning Competencies Sessions
1. Describe the motion of an object in terms of distance or displacement, S7FE-IIIa-1 4 10

speed or velocity, and acceleration
2. Differentiate quantities in terms of magnitude and direction S7FE-IIIa-2 2 5
3. Create and interpret visual representation of the motion of objects such as S7FE-IIIb-3 2 5
tape charts and motion graphs
4. Infer that waves carry energy S7FE-IIIc-4 2 5
5. Differentiate transverse waves from longitudinal waves and mechanical S7FE-IIIc-5 4 10

waves and electromagnetic waves
6. Relate characteristics of waves S7FE-IIId-6 2 5
7. Describe the characteristics of sound using concepts of wavelength, S7FE-IIId-7 4 10

velocity and amplitude
8. Explain sound production in the human voice box, and how pitch, loudness S7FE-IIIe-8 4 10
and quality of sound vary from one person o another
9. Describe how organisms produce, transmit and receive sound of various S7FE-IIIe-9 2 5
frequencies (infrasonic, audible, and ultrasonic sound)
10. Relate characteristics of light such as color and intensity to frequency and S7FE-IIIf-10 4 10
wavelength
11. Infer that light travels in a straight line S7FE-IIIg-11 1 3
12. Infer the conditions necessary for heat transfer to occur S7FE-IIIh-i-12 4 10
13. Describe the different types of charging processes S7FE-IIIj-13 3 8
14. Explain the importance of earthing or grounding S7FE-IIIj-14 2 4

Total 40 100

Bureau of Secondary Education
Region X – Northern Mindanao
Third Periodical Test

Grade 7 Science
Name:______________________________________ Date:_______________
Score:_____________
Multiple Choice: Choose the correct answer. Write the letter of your answer on the blank
provided before each number.
__________1. Which of the terms below is defined as the change in position for a particular
time interval?
A. Acceleration B. Distance C. Motion D. Speed
__________2. The length of the entire path that the object travelled is called ________.
A. Motion B. Distance C. Displacement D. Speed
__________3. Which of the situations below is considered that an object is in motion?
I. When the position of the object changes with respect to a point of
reference.
II. When the distance of the object changes with respect to a point of
reference.
III. When the direction of the object changes with respect to a point of
reference.
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II, and
III
For items number 4-6, refer to the diagram below.
_________4. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. The displacement of the car is equal to 15 meters.
B. The displacement of the car is equal to 65 meters.
C. The distance travelled by the car is equal to 15 meters.
D. The distance travelled by the car is equal to 80 meters.
_________5. Which of the following would happen to the displacement if the object went back
to the point of reference?
A. Displacement is equal to distance. C. Displacement becomes 30
meters.
B. Displacement is shorter than distance. D. Displacement becomes
zero.
For item number 6 - 7, refer to Table 1 below showing how fast the each participant
walked in a given distance.
Table 1.
Participants Distance (m) Time (s) Speed (m/s)
Nat 8 5 1.6
Jack 8 5.5 1.45
Pat 8 12 0.67
Gab 8 15 0.53
_________6. Which statement is TRUE about the relationship between time and speed at
constant distance?
A. The greater is the time of travel, the greater is the speed.
B. The greater is the time of travel, the lesser is the speed.
C. The lesser is the time of travel, the greater is the speed.
D. The lesser is the time of travel, the lesser is the speed.
_________7. Which of these is the reason why Nat has the greatest speed?
A. Nat walked the given distance in the longest period of time.
B. Nat walked the given distance in the shortest period of time.
C. Nat walked the fastest. D. Nat walked the slowest.
_________8. Whenever there is a typhoon coming, people are notified of its impending danger
in terms of its speed and direction. Which of the following determines the strength
of the typhoon?
A. The signals given in different places C. The distance from the eye of the
typhoon
B. The speed of circulating wind of the typhoon D. The motion of the
typhoon
_________9. In the law of inertia, what would happen to the rolling ball if it is not disturbed by a
force?
A. The ball remains rolling. C. The rolling ball speeds up.
B. The ball stops rolling. D. The rolling ball changes direction.
For items number 10 – 11, refer to the graph below showing the motion of the running car
_________10. In which time interval did the car go back to the point of reference?
A. Between 0s and 2s C. Between 4s and 6s
B. Between 2s and 4s D. Between 0s and 6s
_________11. What happened to the car between 0s and 2s?
A. The car moves forward. C. The car stops moving.
B. The car moves backward. D. The car went back to the point of
reference.
_________12. Which of the following is measured by speedometer?
A. Average speed B. Constant speed C. Instantaneous speed D. Normal
speed
_________13. A basin filled with water was placed on a levelled floor and a motionless paper
boat was floating on the water inside the basin. As you tap the surface of water
with your index finger you see water waves formed and the paper boat moved.
Which of the following made the paper boat move?
A. Your index finger C. The energy carried by the water wave
B. The moving water D. The wind around the paper boat
_________14. Waves are produced through the following except one. Which should not be
included?
A. Throwing a stone into a lake C. Strumming the strings of a guitar
B. Raising the flag in the pole D. Switching on a lamp
_________15. Suppose you observed an anchored boat to rise and fall twice every 4.0 seconds
as waves pass by it whose crests are 15 meters apart. What is the speed of the
observed waves? A. 0.26 m/s B. 7.5 m/s C. 60 m/s D.
70 m/s
_________16. Which statement below would tell us that sound is a mechanical wave?
A. Sound travels inside a vacuum. C. Sound travels in solid, liquid, and
gas.
B. Sound travels only in gaseous medium. D. Sound travels only in solid and
liquid.
_________17. Energy of the sun reached the earth through ____________.
A. Transverse waves C. Mechanical waves
B. Longitudinal waves D. Electromagnetic waves
_________18. Mechanical waves can be generated by _____________.
A. Vibrating a medium C. Pushing a medium
B. Moving a medium D. Pulling a medium
_________19. Which of the following would happen as white light enters the prism?
A. White light splits into different colors. C. White light becomes visible.
B. White light combines with other colors. D. White light disappears.
_________20. Which of the statements below makes mobile phones more dangerous than
telephone?
A. Microwaves emitted by mobile phones have lower energy.
B. Microwaves emitted by mobile phones have higher energy.
C. Both microwaves and radio waves have equal energy.
D. Radio waves emitted by telephones have higher energy.
________21. What would happen to the sound in material with greater inertial property?
A. Sound is diffracted C. Sound travels fast
B. Sound is reflected. D. Sound travels slow
________22. The strings of the guitar are arranged from thickest to thinnest. If you pluck each
string, you would notice that each string produced different sound. Which of the
characteristics below describes the sound and the tone produced by a thicker
string?
A. Louder sound and lower tone C. Louder sound and higher tone
B. Softer sound and lower tone D. Softer sound higher tone
_________23. Which of these materials produced longitudinal waves?
A. Rope B. Water C. Guitar D. Bulb
_________24. If you pluck a rubber band it produces sound. What would you do to make its
pitch higher?
A. Pluck the rubber band with greater force C. Stretch the rubber band
B. Pluck the rubber band with lesser force D. Cut the rubber band
_________25. The frequency of wave is inversely proportional to the wavelength. This means
that
A. The higher is the frequency, the longer is the wavelength.
B. The lower is the frequency, the shorter the wavelength.
C. The higher is the frequency, the shorter is the wavelength.
D. The frequency is not affected by the wavelength.
_________26. The maximum displacement of vibrating particles on either side of its normal
position as
the wave passes is called ______.
A. Wavelength B. Amplitude B. Crest D. Trough
_________27. Which of the following describes high amplitude sound?

A. Soft sound B. Loud sound C. Pleasant sound D. Noise
_________28. Sound travels at different speed in different materials. It travels __ in solids and
__ in gases.
A. fastest ; fastest B. slowest ; slowest C. fastest ; slowest D. slowest ;
fastest
_________29. What would happen to the sound if it hit a solid surface?
A. It is delayed. B. It spread out. C. It changed direction. D. It bounced
back.
_________30. Meetings and conferences use microphones to ____________ the sound.
A. travel B. produce C. amplify D. hear
_________31. If the frequency is high, what would happen to the pitch of the sound produce?
A. low B. high C. the same D. Constant
_________32. Solid is the best transmitter of sound. Which of the following is the reason?
A. Solid molecules are close to each other. C. Solid molecules move very
slow.
B. Solid molecules are far from each other. D. Solid molecules move very
fast.
_________33. Which would be the pitch of a high frequency sound?
A. High B. Low C. Loud D. Soft
_________34. Which of the following is the unit of intensity level for sound?
A. Hertz (Hz) B. Decibel (dB) C. Pascal (Pa) D. Nanometer (Nm)
_________35. Which of the following carries large amount of energy?
A. High amplitude sound C. Audible sound
B. Low amplitude sound D. Non-audible sound
_________36. In transverse wave, the vibration of particles is __________ to the direction of
energy transfer.
A. Parallel B. Longitudinal C. Perpendicular D. Horizontal
_________37. What is the frequency range audible to humans?
A. about 10 Hz to 10000 Hz C. about 30 Hz to about 30000 Hz
B. about 20 Hz to about 20000 Hz D. about 50 Hz to about 50000 Hz
_________38. Extremely high frequencies are known as ______.
A. infrasonic frequencies C. ultrasonic frequencies
B. vibrational frequencies D. audible frequencies
_________39. In reflection, which of the following would happen to the sound?
A. bounced back B. changed direction C. spread out D. Delayed
_________40. Which statement is TRUE about the relationship between frequency and
wavelength of all electromagnetic waves?
A. Both frequency and wavelength are increasing.
B. Both frequency and wavelength are decreasing.
C. Frequency and wavelength are directly proportional to each other.
D. Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional to each other.
_________41. Brightness can be expressed as luminous intensity with a unit known as
_______.
A. candle B. candela C. degree Celsius D. Kelvin
_________42. Which of the following would likely happen to the wavelength if the frequency is
high?
A. The wavelength is long. C. The wavelength is equal to
frequency.
B. The wavelength is short. D. The wavelength is greater than
frequency
_________43. Which color has the highest frequency and the shortest wavelength?
A. Green B. Yellow C. Violet D. Red
_________44. A wave that is not pleasing to the senses is called _____.
A. pleasant sound B. loud sound C. noise D. soft sound
_________45. Which of these is the reason why the products of frequency and wavelengths of
different forms of electromagnetic waves the same?
A. The wavelength decreases as the frequency increases.
B. The frequency increases as the wavelength decreases.
C. The product of frequency and wavelength of all electromagnetic waves is
equal to the speed of sound.
D. The product of frequency and wavelength of all electromagnetic waves is
equal to the speed of visible light.
_______46. In which of the following common sources of light shows the transformation of
electric energy to light energy?
A. Bulb B. Lamp C. Sun D. Candle
________47. Which of these sources of light is considered as a luminous body?
A. Bulb B. Lamp C. Sun D. Candle
_______48. What is the condition necessary for heat transfer to take place?
A. Different density C. Different temperature
B. Different mass D. Different pressure
_______49. Heat is energy “in transit”. What does “energy in transit” mean?
A. Energy is in the process of being absorbed.
B. Energy is in the process of being possessed.
C. Energy is in the process of being stopped.
D. Energy is in the process of being transferred.
_______50. All objects give off heat into the surrounding by radiation. But why don't we feel it?
A. Because we are normally surrounded by other objects of different
temperature.
B. Because we are normally surrounded by other objects of the same
temperature.
C. Because heat transfers from higher temperature to lower temperature.
D. Because heat transfers due to the difference in their temperature.
_______51. Which of the following situations shows transfer of heat through convection?
A. Drying copra C. Roasting chicken inside the oven
B. Cooking food D. Cooling food inside the refrigerator
_______52. What would happen to thermal energy in the process of being transferred?
A. Thermal energy is released. C. Thermal energy is absorbed
B. Thermal energy changes to heat. D. Thermal energy stops changing.
_______53. A glass of hot milk is placed inside a bowl with tap water. Later, Heat transfer took
place from the hot milk to the water inside the as it also becomes warmer. Until
when do you think would heat transfer continue to take place between the hot milk
and the tap water?
A. When hot milk in the glass is warmer than tap water in the bowl.
B. When hot milk in the glass is cooler than tap water in the bowl.
C. When hot milk in the glass and tap water in the bowl have different
temperature.
D. When hot milk in the glass and tap water in the bowl reach the same
temperature.
_______54. Which form of energy is required to operate appliances, gadgets, and machines?
A. Thermal energy B. Electric energy C. Chemical energy D. Mechanical
energy
_______55. Which of the processes below is necessary in electrical devices and equipments to
prevent the build-up of excess charges?
A. Grounding B. Conserving C. Discharging D. Polarizing
_______56. If you rub your pen vigorously to your dress, some of the electrons from the dress
transferred to the pen. The dress has lost some electrons while the pen has gained
electrons and became ______.
A. Positively charged B. Negatively charged C. Uncharged D.
Neutral
_______57. What is called to the phenomenon in which a charged object and an uncharged
object tend to attract each other?
A. Conservation B. Dispersion C. Electrification D. Polarization
_______58. The materials below hinder the free flow charges. Which should be omitted from
the list?
A. Plastic B. Rubber C. Slippers D. Milk can
_______59.Which of the following happened in discharging process.
A. The charged and uncharged objects attract.
B. The metal rod provides a path for excess charges to pass
C. The excess charges are removed.
D. The object gained more electrons.
_______60. During the charging process, which situation below describes the amount of charge
lost by material and the amount of charge gained by the other material?
A. The amount of charge lost by material is greater than the amount of charge
gained by the other material.
B. The amount of charge lost by material is lesser than the amount of charge
C. The amount of charge lost by material is equal to the amount of charge gained
by the other material
D. The amount of charge lost by material is different from the amount of charge
Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. D
18. A
19. A
20. B
21. D
22. A
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. B
37. B
38. C
39. A
40. C
41. B
42. B
43. D
44. C
45. D
46. C
47. A
48. C
49. D
50. B
51. D
52. B
53. D
54. B
55. A
56. B
57. D
58. D
59. C
60. C
SCIENCE 8
THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION

No.
of
No. Test
of Weigh Cognitive Domains Items
Learning Competencies Code
Day t
s Knowledg Applicatio
Skills
e n
explain the properties of

solids, liquids, and gases S8MT- 12
1 based on the particle 6 0.200 12
IIIab-8
nature of matter;
explain physical changes
in terms of the S8MT- 12
2 6 0.200 12
arrangement and motion IIIcd-9
of atoms and molecules; 13 - 24
3 determine the number of S8MT-IIIe- 6 0.200 12 12
protons, neutrons, and f10
electrons in a particular
atom; 25 - 36
trace the development of
the periodic table from
S8MT-IIIgh- 12
4 observations based on 6 0.200 12
11
similarities in properties of
elements; and 37 - 48
use the periodic table to
S8MT-IIIi- 12
5 predict the chemical 6 0.200 12
behaviour of an element.
j12
49 - 60
TOTAL 30 1.000 36 12 12 60

Region X - Northern Mindanao
DIVISION OF LANAO DEL NORTE
SCIENCE 8 - QUARTER III
PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
Name _____________________________________ Section_____________ Score _________
I.MULTIPLE CHOICES. Read carefully the statements below and write the capital letter of the correct
answer on the space provided before each number.
_____ 1. All of the following are the basic aspects of the particle model of matter except;
A. Matter is made up of tiny particles.
B. Particles of matter are not moving.
C. Particles of matter have empty spaces between them.
D. Particles of matter attract each other.
_____ 2. What is the term used to measure the amount of matter the object has?
A. space B. volume C. mass D. matter
_____ 3. “ Atoms are physically but not geometrically indivisible.” Whose belief is this?
A. Leucippus and Democritus C. Meyer and Mendeleev
B. Knieram D. Dalton
_____ 4. What do you call to anything that occupies space and has mass?
A. atom B. matter C. element D. ion
_____ 5. Which of the following statements is false among the different materials?
A. Sugar is an example of matter because it has measurable mass.
B. Water is an example of matter because it occupies space.
C. Light is an example of matter because it has mass and occupies space.
D. Air inside the ball is an example of matter because it has mass.
_____ 6. How is the size of an atom measured?

A. kilometer B. kilogram C. decimeter D. angstrom
_____ 7. Which of the following is not an example of matter?

A. stone B. water vapor C. heat D. sand
_____ 8. When you mixed 50 ml of water and 20 ml of sugar, the resulting volume is less than
the sum of the volumes of the unmixed sugar and water. How would you explain this?
A. The water molecules could fit in the spaces between the sugar molecules or the other way
around.
B. The water evaporates into the atmosphere resulting to lesser water molecules left in the
solution.
C. The water molecules dissolve all sugar molecules.
D. Sugar molecules disappeared in the mixture.
_____ 9. Why were you able to push the plunger all the way to the end of the syringe with air in
it , however you cannot do it with water in the syringe?
A. Air being a gas can be compressed because there are large spaces between them.
B. Water is liquid and no spaces between molecules.
C. Some syringe can be pushed easily while others are hard to push.
D. Air is very light compared to water.
_____ 10. Which is true about the three main phases of matter?
A. Solids generally have lower density than liquids.
B. Liquids do not have definite volume and shape.
C. Gas particles have the highest energy among the three phases of matter.
D. Solid particles have the weakest attractive forces among the three phases of matter.
____ 11. Which of the following statements differentiates evaporation of liquid in a closed
container from evaporation of liquid in an open container?
A. In a closed container no particles can escape while in in an open container particles mixed with
particles of air outside.
B. In a closed container no formation of droplets while in an open container droplets are formed.
C. In a closed container condensation takes place outside while in an open container
condensation takes place inside.
D. In a closed container volume of liquid decreases while in an open container volume increases.
____ 12. When a balloon is heated, it expands. What is happening with the molecules to cause
the balloon to get bigger?
A. Molecules get closer together.
B. Molecules move faster.
C. Molecules move slower.
D. Molecules kinetic energy decreases.
____ 13. Which of the following processes is described as breaking away of molecules on the
surface and changing into gas?
A. evaporation B. freezing C. melting D. sublimation
____ 14. What process is involved in which matter in solid state is changed into liquid state?
A. sublimation B. evaporation C. freezing D. melting
____ 15. What process is involved in the making of naphthalene/moth balls?

A. freezing B. deposition C. sublimation D. melting
____ 16. Which of the following is referred to as molecules that escape from the liquid phase
and go into gaseous phase?
A. moist B. vapor C. precipitate D. smoke
____ 17. Which of the following processes heat is absorbed?

A. condensation B. solidification C. evaporation D. sublimation
____ 18. What is inside the bubbles that form when water boils?
A. hydrogen gas B. oxygen gas C. vapor D. smoke
____ 19. What is happening to the particles of water as it changes from gas to liquid?
A. Water particles rise from the surface.
B. Water particles gain more kinetic energy, overcome forces of attraction of adjacent molecules
and escape to gaseous state.
C. Water particles lose enough energy, motion of particles slows down and cause them to
associate with one another.
D. Water particles move very fast, collide with each other, and form water vapor.
____ 20. Which of the following statements best explains that water can exist in three phases
of matter?
A. Water molecule has the same chemical composition but arranged differently with respect to
one another.
B. Water molecules change their chemical composition but with the same arrangement of
molecules.
C. Water molecules change their chemical composition and the arrangement of the molecules.
D. Water molecules undergo no changes at all.
____ 21. How do gases compare with liquids and solids in terms of the distance between their
molecules?
A. Molecules in gases are close to each other like in liquids but not as close as in solids.
B. Molecules in gases are very far from each other compared to liquids and solids.
C. Molecules in solids are tightly packed together in fixed position.
D. Molecules in liquids are closer to each other unlike with gases.
_____ 22. Which of the following statements best explains that evaporation is a cooling process?
A. Water molecules are cool in nature.
B. Water molecules that did not escape to gaseous state were left in the liquid have lower
average kinetic energy, thus have decreased temperature.
C. Water molecules that did not escaped to gaseous state were left in the liquid have higher
average kinetic energy, thus have decreased temperature.
D. Water molecules that did not escape to gaseous state were left in the liquid have lower
average kinetic energy, thus have increased temperature.
____ 23. The evaporation of liquid water from the surface of the earth is an important step in
the water cycle. How do liquid water molecules escape into gas state?
A. Water particles rise from the surface.
B. Water particles gain more kinetic energy, overcome forces of attraction of adjacent molecules
and escape to gaseous state.
C. Water particles lose kinetic energy and change to gaseous state.
D. Water particles collide with each other and escape to gaseous state.
____ 24. How do changes in matter affect your life?

A. Changes in matter may have advantages and disadvantages in our daily lives.
B. Changes in matter can lead to creation of new products/ machines.
C. Change in matter is one of the major factors in addressing our present needs.
D. All of the above
____25. A sample of element X contains 90% X-35 atoms, 8.0% X-37 atoms, and 2.0% X-38 atoms.
The average atomic mass will be closest to which value?
A. 35 B. 36 C. 37 D. 38
____ 26. The nucleus of an atom consists of 8 protons and 6 neutrons. Which of the following number
of electrons makes the atom neutral?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 2 D. 14
____ 27. Which of the following differentiates Ca 2+ ion from Ca0 atom ?
A. Ca2+ more electrons than Ca0 C. Ca2+ fewer protons than Ca0
B. Ca2+ more protons than Ca0 D. Ca2+ fewer electrons than Ca0
____ 28. Which is an isotope of Q ?

Neutrons Electrons
+
R 5 4
J+ 5 3
-2
I 3 5
A-2 5 7
+2
Q 4 2
A. R B. J C. I D. A
____29. . How many electrons are needed to balance the mass of one proton?
A.1836 B. 1863 C. 1683 D. 1638
____30. Which of the following is the mass number of an element that has 19 protons, 19 electrons, and
20 neutrons?
A. 19 B. 20 C.39 D. 58
For numbers 31 - 33 refer to the choices below.

A. If both statements are true. C. If statement I is true, statement II is false
B. If both statements are false D. If statement I is false, statement II is true
____ 31. (I) The atomic mass of an element is equal to the number of protons and number of electrons
while (II) the atomic number of an element is equal to the number of protons.
____32. (I) If an element has 5 electrons and 6 protons, its atomic number is 5 while (II) an element
having 6 electrons and 5 protons, it atomic number is 6.
____33. ( I ) Atoms having the same number of protons but the different number of neutrons are
isotopes thus(II) both C-12 and C-13 have 6 protons.
5
For numbers 34 – 35 refer to the figure : B
Boron
11
____ 33. How many neutrons are there in the element Boron?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 11 D. 16
_____34. What is the atomic number of the element Boron?

A. 1 B. 5 C. 11 D. 16
_____36. If an atom has six protons, six electrons and eight neutrons, is the charge of the atom
neutral?
A. Yes because the number of protons and electrons are equal.
B. Yes because the number of protons and neutrons are not equal.
C. No because the number of protons and electrons are equal.
D. No because the number of protons and electrons has nothing to do with charges.
____ 37. Who noticed that certain groups of elements having similar properties seemed to
come in groups of three, such that the atomic mass of the middle element was
approximately equal to the average mad of the heaviest and lightest one?
properties seemed to come in groups of three.
A. Dobereiner B. Mendeleev C. Moseley D. Newlands
____ 38. Who observed that when the elements were arranged according to the increasing
atomic weights, every eighth element had properties similar to each other?
____ 39. Who organized the elements into a table in the order of their atomic masses, with the
elements that exhibit similar properties appearing next to one another?
____ 40. Is the Plum Pudding atomic model accepted today?

A. Yes, it is the basis in computing chemical reactions.
B. Yes, it is still the correct model of atom.
C. No, it has already been replaced by electron cloud model.
D. No, it has been replaced by Dalton’s Atomic Model.
____ 41. Which of the following statement is true?

A. Lord Rayleigh discovered the element Argon.
B. Both Lothar Meyer and Dmitri Mendeleev are the Father of Periodic Table.
C. John Newlands developed the Law of Triads.
D. Alexander Beguyer de Chancourtoise grouped the elements into four.
_____42. All of the following elements are noble gases except:

A. He B. Ne C. Ar D. O
____ 43. Which of the following is/are true about Dmitri Mendeleev?
I.Mendeleev’s table arranged the elements according to increasing atomic masses.
II. Mendeleev had the same conclusion with Meyer.
III. Mendeleev lived and worked in Germany.
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III
For numbers 44-46 refer to the choices below.

C. If both statements are true. C. If statement I is true, statement II is false
D. If both statements are false D. If statement I is false, statement II is true
____ 44. (I) Newlands law was applicable to elements with low atomic masses only. (I) After
calcium, every eighth element did not possess properties of the first.
____ 45. (I) Dmitri Mendeleev and Lothar Meyer worked together. (II) They proposed that when
elements were arranged in order of increasing atomic mass, recurring patterns
appeared in their properties.
____ 46. (I) Henry Moseley arranged the elements in the periodic table in increasing atomic
number rather than atomic mass.(II) His observation led to the development of the
modern periodic law.
____ 47. How did different scientists attempt to organize the elements?
A. The similarities in properties of the elements were the basis of their arrangement in the
periodic table.
B. The time of the discovery of each element is the basis of the arrangement. The first element
discovered was placed in the first box.
C. The arrangement of the elements depends on the convenience of the scientist.
D. The abundance of the element was the basis in the arrangement of the elements in the
periodic table.
____48. . The vertical columns in the periodic table are called ________.
A. group/family B. series/period C. energy level D. electron shell
____49. . Iron is transition element found in group 8 B, period 4. Which of the following iron is
commonly used ?
A. Iron is needed in the hemoglobin formation.
B. Iron is involved in the synthesis of chlorophyll.
C. Iron is used in steel construction.
____50. There are ions which are important in proper functioning in our body. Which of the
following ions found in table salt?
A. Na and Cl B. Na+ and Cl- C. Na+ and Cl D. Na and Cl-
____51. Which of the following statements is true about the activity series of metals?
A. It is an arrangement of metals according to decreasing order of reactivity.
B. It is an arrangement of metals according to increasing order of reactivity.
C. It is an arrangement of metals according to decreasing order of electron affinity.
D. It is an arrangement of metals according to increasing order of electron affinity.
____52. . Sodium is found in Group 1 in the periodic table of elements. Lithium is located above
sodium while potassium is located below sodium. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. Potassium is more reactive than Sodium.
B. Lithium has similar properties with sodium.
C. Sodium has more protons than potassium.
D. The three elements have the same mass number.
____ 53. Copper is located on the left of Zinc in Period 4 of the periodic table of elements. What
does it say?
A. Zinc is more reactive than Copper. C. Zinc is less reactive than Copper.
B. Copper is more reactive than Zinc. D. Copper is less reactive than Zinc.
____54. Which of the following elements is arranged in increasing metallic property?

K - ( P1) Na -( P3) Li - (P2) Rb - ( P5)
A. Na, Li, Rb, K C. K, Li, Na, Rb
B. Rb, K, Li, Na D. K, Rb, Na, Li
____55. Strontium is found in period 5 in the periodic table of elements. Rubidium is located left to
strontium while yttrium is located right to sodium. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. strontium is more reactive than rubidium.
B. rubidium is more reactive than strontium.
C. rubidium has more protons than yttrium.
D. The three elements have the same mass number.
____ 56. Gradual wearing away of a metal due to interaction with other substances is called corrosion.
How to prevent corrosion of metals?
A. Painting B. plastic coating C. greasing D. all of the abov
____ 57. Which of the following elements does not react with muriatic acid?
A. Fe B. Cu C. Zn D. Al
____58. Copper, Silver, Gold, Roentgenium belong to group 11 with atomic numbers 29, 47, 79, 111.
Which is the correct arrangement of the elements according to decreasing metallic property?
A. Cu, Ag, Au, Rg C. Rg, Au, Ag, Cu
B. B. Ag, Au, Rg,Cu D. Ag,Au,Cu,Rg
____ 59. . Which of the following elements react by losing one electron?
A. Halogens B. noble gases C. alkali metals D. alkaline earth
____ 60. Using the following elements: 24 Cr , 26 Fe, 28 Ni, 31 Ga, predict which is most metallic?
A. 24 Cr B. 26 Fe C. 28 Fe D. 31
Science 8
Third Quarter Examination
KEY ANSWERS
1. A 31. D
2. C 32. B
3. A 33. B
4. B 34. B
5. C 35. A
6. D 36. A
7. C 37. A
8. A 38. D
9. A 39. B
10. C 40. C
11. A 41. A
12. B 42. D
13. A 43. A
14. D 44. A
15. B 45. D
16. B 46. A
17. C 47. A
18. C 48. A
19. C 49. D
20. A 50. B
21. B 51. A
22. B 52. A
23. B 53. B
24. D 54. C
25. A 55. A
26. B 56. D
27. D 57. B
28. A 58. C
29. A 59.C
30. C 60.A
SCIENCE 9
2017-2018
Learning Competencies Cod No. Percent Level of Difficulty No.
e of age KNOWLEDGE SKILLS (30%) APPLICATION of
Day (60%) (10%) Ite
s ms
Remember/Und Apply/Analyz Evaluate/Cre
erstand e ate
1 describe the S9E 3 7.5 5(1,2,3,4,5) 5

different types of S
volcanoes; -IIIa-
25
2 differentiate S9E 4 10 6(6,7,8,9,10,1 6
between active and S 1)
inactive volcanoes; -IIIa-
27
3 explain what S9E 4 10 6(12,13,14,15,16, 6
happens when S 17)
volcanoes erupt ; -IIIb
-28
4 illustrate how S9E 5 12.5 7(18,19,20,21 7
energy from S– ,22,23,24)
volcanoes may be IIIc-
tapped for human d-29
use;
5 explain how S9E 8 20 12(25,26,27,28,2 12
different factors S- 9,30,31,32,33,34,
affect the climate of IIIe- 35,36)
an area 30
6 describe certain S9E 8 20 12(37,38,39,40,4 12

climatic phenomena S- 1,42,43,44,45,46,
that occur on a IIIf- 47,48)
global level; 31
7 infer the S9E 2 5 3(49,50,51) 3

characteristics of S-
stars based on the IIIg-
characteristics of 32
the Sun;
8 infer that the S9E 2 5 3(52,53,54) 3

arrangement of S-
stars in a group IIIh-
(constellation) does 33
not change;
9 observe that the S9E 2 5 3(55,56,57) 3
position of a S-
constellation IIIi-
changes in the 34
course of a night;
and
10 show which S9E 2 5 3(58,59,60) 3
constellations may S-
be observed at IIIj-
different times of 35
the year using
models.
TOTAL 40 36 9 7 60
Region X
Grade 9 Science
Name:___________________
_ Year & Section:_____________________ Date:_________
Multiple choice: Write the letter of the correct answer on the blank privided before each number.
_________1. It is a natural opening in the surface of the Earth where molten rocks, hot gases, smoke, and ash are
ejected.
A. volcano B. ash C. vent D. active
________2. Which of the following characteristics of a volcano depends on its magma emission?
A. age B. size C. shape D. location
________3.The following are the characteristics of a volcano except
A. It emits hot rocks. C. It is cone shaped
B. It has crater. D. It is rounded.
________4. A thick layer of volcanic ash can be heavy enough to collapse the roots of buildings because
A. Ash is solid C. Ash becomes heavier as it cools.
B. Ash cannot be blown by wind. D. Ash consists of tiny fragments of rocks.
________5.Volcanoes that have not erupted for the last 10,000 years.
A. Active volcano C. Mayon volcano
B. Inactive volcano D. Taal volcano
________6.A type of volcano that is formed by the accumulation of lava that oozes out from the volcano.
A. shield volcano C. cinder volcano
B. composite volcano D. none of these
________7. Mayon volcano is an example of
A. composite volcano C. shield volcano
B. cinder volcano D. none of these
________8. A type of volcano that has a steep slope, wide crater and the most abundant of the three major types of
volcabo.
A. composite volcano C. shield volcano
B. cinder volcano D. none of these
________9.Which of the following are active volcanoes?
I. Mayon in Albay III. Vulcan in Camiguin
II. Taal in Batangas IV. Kanlaon in Negros Oriental
A. I and II only C. I, II, and III only
B. II and III only D. I, II, IV only
________10. Describe the shape of the volcanic cone formed from high temperature magma.
A. wide base and almost flat C. wide base with steep slope
B. stratovolcano D. perfect cone shape
________11. A funnel-shaped opening at the top of a volcano is crater while ________ is formed when a part of the
wall collapses following an explosive eruptions.
A. Vulcanian A. cone B. smoke C. caldera D. lava
________12.An excessively explosive type of eruption of gas and pyroclastics, just like our Pinatubo Volcano in
Zambales.
A. Vulcanian A. cone B. smoke C. caldera D. lava
________13. It is a violent eruption due to the contact between water and magma. As a result, a large column of very
fine ash and high-speed and sideway emission of pyroclastics called base surges are observed.
A. Vulcanian B. Strombolian C. Plinian D. Phreatomagmatic
________14.It is the property of the material's resistance to flow.
A. more viscous B. less viscous C. not viscous D. viscosity
________15.Magma's with high silica content are more viscous than those with
A. low silica content C. high silica content
B. no silica content D. none of these
________16.The more viscous and thicker the material is, the ___________ is its resistance to flow.
A. lesser B. greater C. lava D. viscous
________17. As lava flows, it cools and begin to harden, its ability to flow ____________ and eventually stops.
A.decreases B. increases C. remains D. none of these
________18. The cheaper source of electricity.
A. hydrothermal power plant C. geothermal power plant
B. natural gas power plant D. coal power plant
________19. The heat from deep inside the Earth is used to produced steam to generate electricity is
A. geothermal power plant C. geothermal heat pump
B. geothermal energy D. solar energy
________20.Geothermal power plants are used to generate electricity in different places except
A. Tiwi C. Kidapawan
B. Calaca D. Lanao del Norte
________21.Power plants that are built in an area that has a lot of hot springs, geysers, or volcanic activity.
A. geothermal power plant C. hydropower plant
B. nuclear power plant D. coal plant
________22.The steam spins a turbine, which is connected to a generator that produces
A. steam B. electricity C. heat D. water
________23.Energy from geothermal power plant is transformed to generate electricity.Which of these is the energy
Transformation?
A. thermal energy→mechanical energy in a turbine→mechanical energy of a generator→electrical energy
B. mechanical energy in a turbine→thermal energy→mechanical energy of a generator→electrical energy
C. electrical energy→mechanical enrgy in a turbine→thermal energy→mechanical energy of a generator
D .mechanical energy of a generator→mechanical energy in a turbine→thermal energy→electrical energy
________24.The following steps are followed to generate electricity in a geothermal power plant. Arrange the steps
from start to the last step.
1. The steam spins a turbine, which is connected to a generator that produces electricity.
2. Cooling tower cools the steam which it condenses back to water.
3. When the water reaches the surface, the drop in pressure causes the water to turn into steam.
4. The cooled water is pumped back into the Earth to begin the process again.
5. Wells are drilled deep into the Earth to pump steam or hot water to the surface.
A. 1, 2. 3. 4. 5 B. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 C. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 D. 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
________25.What happens to the temperature of air when altitude increases?
A. remains the same C. decreases
B. increases D. varies
________26.Why are the coldest places on Earth found at the poles?
A. Great amount of gaseous particles trap heat from the surface.
B. Great amount of thermal radiation is received by these areas.
C. Less amount of thermal radiation is received by these areas.
D. Less amount of gaseous particles trap heat from the surface.
________27.Which of the following BEST describes climate?
A. The weather that occurs in the atmosphere within a day.
B. The pattern of weather that occurs in a region over a long period of time
C. The pattern of weather that occurs in a region over a short period of time
D. The disturbance in the atmosphere that happens in a long period of time
________28.City A is surrounded by bodies of water and has a moderate climate. It is located near the equator.
What will most likely affect the climate of the city?
A. latitude B. altitude C. topography D. all of these
________29.It refers to the atmospheric condition of a place over a long period of time.
A. climate B. monsoon C. weather D. topography
________30.Which side of the mountain often receives the most precipitation?
A. leeward side B. windward side C. rain shadow D. peak
________31.During summer, many people visit Baguio because of the cold weather. What do you think makes
Baguio cold?
A. the distance from the ocean C. the altitude
B. the topography D. all of the above
________32. The following are factors that affect climate EXCEPT
A. latitude B.altitude C.bodies of water D.rain
________33.What will happen when rates of evaporation and condensation are equal?
A. clouds form C. the humidity increases
B. the dew point is reached D. precipitation occurs
________34.How does the windward side differ from the leeward side of a high land?
A. The windward receives more precipitation than the leeward.
B. The leeward side has more vegetation than the windward side.
C. The windward side receives more heat than the leeward side.
D. The leeward side receives more precipitation than the windward side.
________35.Why do places at the same latitude but different altitudes have different climates?
A. The amount of heat received varies. C. The higher altitudes have lower temperature.
B. The amount of precipitation differs. D. The higher altitudes have higher temperature.
________36.Why does cloud formation disappear as the air moves slowly towards the leeward side of the mountain?
A. The air condenses as it moves to the leeward side.
B. The amount of water vapor is not enough.
C. The temperature becomes lower.
D. There is too much water vapor.
________37.Which activity does not contribute to global warming?
A. reforestation B. illegal fishing C. mining activities D. incineration of garbage
________38. What do you call the certain gases in the atmosphere - water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane and
nitrous oxide that help maintain the Earth's temperatures and climate?
A. ozone gases B. solar gases C. greenhouse gases D. stomach gase
________39.Which of the following causes changes of Earth's climate?
A. breaking up of large landmasses C. changing amounts of CO2 in the atmosphere
B. continental drift D. all of the above
________40.What is the major cause of the greenhouse effect?
A. Gases in the atmosphere absorb heat from the Earth's surface.
B. Gases in the atmosphere absorb heat from the sun.
C. Gases in the ozone layer absorb heat from the sun.
D. Gases in the ozone layer absorb heat from the Earth's surface.
________41.What will happen if there is too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
A. Greenhouse effect occurs. C. Water vapor condenses.
B. Temperature increases D. Climate changes.
________42.Which condition happens during the La Nina phenomenon?
A. Air pressure in the western pacific increases. C. Upwelling of cold water is blocked.
B. Air pressure in the Easternpacific decreases. D. Trade wind becomes stronger.
________43.What is the difference between global warming and the greenhouse effect?
A.Global warming is change in the Earth's climate causing it to heat up while
greenhouse effect happens constantly due to sunlight and the atmosphere
B. Global warming and the greenhouse effect are the same thing
C. The greenhouse effect comes within global warming
D. Global warming comes within the greenhouse effect
________44.Rising water temperatures is a result of global warming and may eventually increase sea levels due to
the dissolving of which of the following?
A. mountains B. wetlands C. river beds D. glaciers
________45.Which of the following is a greenhouse gas that is released by human activities and speed up global
warming?
A. nuclear power B. petroleum C. natural gas D. carbon dioxide
________46.We are putting too much greenhouse gas into the atmosphere. This is changing the greenhouse effect,
so that we now call it an enhanced or accelerated greenhouse effect.
A. The greenhouse effect temperature is about the same.
B. The greenhouse effect is cooling.
C. The greehouse effect is warmer than it should.
D. The greenhouse effect is damaging the ozone layer.
________47.If the Earth's climate has sometimes naturally been warmer in the past, then why is global warming
considered to be a bad thing?
A. Because it was only 1 degree warmer in the past, but global warming will make it 100 degrees warmer.
B. Because human societies are adapted for the climate that we have now.
C. No reason. Global warming is not a problem in any way.
D. Because if the climate gets warm again, dinosaurs will return and rule the earth.
________48.Why is greenhouse effect important?
A. This allows all living things to love in an environment that has a constant temperature.
B. This allows green plants to survive and to photosynthesize and produced food.
C. This allows plants that can only be grown in a greenhouse to survive temperature fluctuations.
D. This allows all living things to survive in an environment that is not too hot or too cold.
Use the table below that presents information about starsA, B, C, D.
Star Color
A red
B yellow
C white
D blue
________49.Which star is the hottest?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
________50.Which star is very similar to our sun?
A.A B. B C. C D. D
________51.Why do stars have colors?
A. It is bacause of the presence of oxygen. C. It is because of the presence of carbon dioxid
B. It is because of varied temperatures. D. It is because of different locations.
________52.Stars can be found in large groups throughout the universe. What are these groups called?
A. solar system C. constellations
B. comets D. asteroids
________53.How do stars appear to move in the night sky?
A. from East to West C. from West to east
B. from North to South D. from south to North
________54.If you are located at the North pole,where will you see the Polaris?
A. overhead C. around 45 degrees from the horizon
B. just above the horizon D. polaris will not be seen in the North Pole
________55.Which constellation helps sailors to navigate at the sea?
A. Pisces B. Polaris C. Sagittarius D. Ursa minor
________56. Polaris is commonly known as
A. North star B.Big dipper C. Little dipper D. Ursa minor
________57.Why can we see different parts of the sky at different times of the year?
A. Due to the tilt of the earth's axis C. Due to the revolution of the earth
B. Due to the rotation of the earth D. Due to the revolution of the moon
________58.What local constellation signifies the start of rainy season in the Philippines?
A. Balara B. Buwaya C. Lepu D. Balatik
________59.Which constellation is prominent in the northern hemisphere during spring?
A. andromeda B. lynx C. orion D. ursa major
________60.Which constellation indicates that the cold season is coming?
A. andromeda B. lynx C. orion D. ursa major
answer key
a 31 c
c 32 d
d 33 d
d 34 a
b 35 c
a 36 b
a 37 a
b 38 c
d 39 c
a 40 a
c 41 d
c 42 b
d 43 a
d 44 d
a 45 d
b 46 c
a 47 b
c 48 b
b 49 d
d 50 b
b 51 c
b 52 c
a 53 a
b 54 a
c 55 b
c 56 a
b 57 c
d 58 b
a 59 d
b 60 c
Table of Specification
Science Grade 10
Third Quarter
Learning Code No.of Percentag No. Cognitive Domain

Competency hours e of Knowledg Item Placement Skill Item Placement
taugh item e s
t s
Describe the parts S10LT 4 10% 6 6 1,2,3,4,5,6
of the reproductive -IIIa-
system and their 33
functions;
Explain the role of S10LT 2 5% 3 3 7,8,9
hormones involved -IIIb-
in the female and 34
male reproductive
systems
Describe the S10LT 2 5% 3 3 10,11,12
feedback -IIIb-
mechanisms 34
involved in
regulating
processes in the
female
reproductive
system (e.g.,
menstrual cycle);
Describe how the S10LT 4 10% 6 6 13,14,15,16,17,
nervous system -IIIc- 18
coordinates and 36
regulates these
feedback
mechanisms to
maintain
homeostasis;
Explain how S10LT 4 10% 6 3 19,20,21 3 22,23,24
protein is made -IIId-
using information 37
from DNA;
Explain how S10LT 4 10% 6 3 25,26,27 3 28,28,30
mutations may -IIIe-
cause changes in 38
the structure and
function of a
protein;
Explain how fossil S10LT 4 10% 6 4 31,32,33,34 2 35,36
records, -IIIf-
comparative 39
anatomy, and
genetic
information
provide evidence
for evolution;
Explain the S10LT 4 10% 6 4 37,38,39,40 2 41,42
occurrence of -IIIg-
evolution; 40
Explain how S10LT 4 10% 6 3 43,44,45 3 46,47,48
species diversity -IIIh-
increases the 41
probability of
adaptation and
survival of
organisms in
changing
environments;
Explain the S10LT 4 10% 6 4 49,50,51,52 2 53,54
relationship -IIIi-
between 42
population growth
and carrying
capacity; and
Suggest ways to S10LT 4 10% 6 6 55,56,57,58,59,
minimize human -IIIj- 60
impact on the 43
environment.
Total 40 100% 60 39 21

Region – X Northern Mindanao
Division of Lanaodel Norte
THIRD GRADING EXAMINATION SCIENCE 10
Name:________________________________ Section:___________________ Score: ______________
Direction: Encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1. What female reproductive organ serves as the site of egg implantation?

A. Ovary C. Uterus
B. Oviduct D. Vagina
2. Wherefertilization does normally occurs?
A.Fallopian Tube C. Uterus
B. Ovary D. Vagina
3. All of the following body parts are part of the MALE reproductive system EXCEPT:
A. Epididymis C. Testis
B.Penis D. Ovary
4. Which of the following is the function of uterus in the female reproductive system?
A. produces egg cell
B. receives the penis during mating
C. serves as passageway of eggs from the ovary to the uterus; site of egg fertilization
D. serves as site of egg implantation; is where the fertilized egg develops
5. What is the main function of the prostate gland?
A. Maturation of sperm cells
B. Production of glycogen
C. Secretion of alkaline mucus
D. spermatogenesis
6. Choose the correct order for the path of sperm from the testes to the outside of the body.
A. vas deferens - epididymis - ejaculatory duct - penis
B. epididymis – vas deferens - ejaculatory duct - penis
C.ejaculatory duct – vas deferens - epididymis - penis
D. penis - ejaculatory duct - epididymis - vas deferens
7. Which hormone thickens the lining of the uterus?
A. Luteinizing Hormone
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. FSH
8. Which of the following hormones triggers ovulation in females?
A. estrogen C. progesterone
B. FSH D. testosterone
9. The production of sperm cells and the release of semen can be regulated by hormones or special chemicals that
come from the following EXCEPT
A. brain C. pituitary gland
B. heart D. testis
10. Which of the following hormones is released by the corpus luteum after ovulation and causes a negative
feedback loop with the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary?
A. Estrogen
B. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
C. Luteinizing Hormone
D. Progesterone
11. Which of the following hormones is released by the anterior pituitary as a part of that positive feedback loop
between it and the ovary?
A. Estrogen C. LH
B. FSH D. Progesterone
12. Which of the following ovarian hormones is involved in a positive feedback loop with the hypothalamus and the
anterior pituitary?
A. estrogen B. LH
B. insulin D. progesterone
13. What pair of organ system plays an important role in maintaining the body’s homeostasis?
A. Excretory System and Respiratory System
B. Digestive System and Nervous System
C. Nervous System and Endocrine System
D. Reproductive System and Excretory System
14. What hormones are needed for breastfeeding in order to produce milk?
A. Estrogen and Progesterone
B. Glucagon and Insulin
C. Prolactin and Oxytocin
D. Thyroxin and Thymosin
15. In order to achieve homeostasis, the nervousand endocrine systems must maintain a normal range of the
following variables EXCEPT
A. Body temperature
B. Amount of water in the body
C. Blood toxinlevel
D. Hormones in the blood
16. Suppose a girl skipped her breakfast for a day, what hormone will be released by her pancreas to help her body
cope when her blood sugarlevel drops below normal?
A. Androgen C. Insulin
B. Glucagon D. Thyroxin
17. If you were to eat fivesugar - glazed doughnuts and a large coke, which hormone would you expect to be
secreted at higher levels?
A. Androgen C. Insulin
B. Glucagon D. Thyroxin
18. What will happen to a person whose nervous and endocrine systems fail to maintain homeostasis?
A. it will endanger the person’s health
B. it will lead to certain diseases
C. it will cause death
D. all of the above
19. What is the copying of the DNA called?
A. Replication C. Translation
B. Transcription D. Translocation
20. What do you call a set of three nitrogenous bases in mRNA which codes for a specific amino acid?
A. Codon C. Nitrogenous base
B. Sugar D. Phosphate
21. The component in the nucleus of a cell that codes and stores genetic information iscalled:
A. DNA C. Nucleoplasm
B. Nucleolus D. RNA
22. If the sequence of bases on the DNA strand were CCG TTA CAT, what would be
the sequence of bases on the RNA strand?
A. GGC AAU GAA C.GGC AAU GUA
B. GGG AAU GUA D.GGC AUU GUA
For question number 23 refer to the base sequence on one strand of a DNA molecule below
AATGCCAGTGGT
23.If this strand is replicated, which of the following is the complementarystrand that is produced?
A. T C G T C C G T C T A G
B. T TA C G G T C A C C A
C. A G C A G G C A G GG T
D. U C G U C C U C U A G A
24. Choose the correct sequence of protein synthesis from the given choices below.
1. Transcription
2. tRNA – amino acid units link to mRNA
3. Amino acid separate from tRNA
4. Polypeptide chain assembled
5. mRNA links to ribosome
6. Stop codon encountered in mRNA
A. 1-3-4-5-2-6 C.1-4-3-5-2-6
B. 1-3-4-5-6-2 D. 1-3-5-4-2-6
25. What type of mutation will occur when a piece of chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome?
A. Deletion C. Substitution
B. Inversion D. Translocation
26. Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by the loss of DNA or chromosome segment?
A. “Cri du chat” C. Edwards Syndrome
B. Down ‘s Syndrome D. Turner’s Syndrome
27. What factors induces mutation?
A. harmful radiation C. toxic radiation
B. mutagens D. all of these
28. A certain segment of the DNA has the sequence CTGGAG. Which of the following sequences is an example of
insertion?
A. CTGAG C. CTGAGGAG
B. CTGAGG D. TCGGAG
29. A certain segment of the DNA has the sequence CTGGAG.
Which of the following sequences is an example of deletion?
A. CTGAG C. CTGAGGAG
B. CTGAGG D. TCGGAG
30. A segment of a DNA sequence is A T A C A A C G.During transcription, the resulting RNA sequence is U A U G
U U G C.
However, if a mutation causes a change in the 5th nucleotide base, A becomes G, What is then the resulting RNA
sequence complementary to the DNA ?
A. U A U G C U G C C.U A U G U U G C
B. U A U G A U G C D. U A U G G U G C
31. According to superposition, the fossils found in the lower layer of rocks are _______ than those found at the
higher layer
A. older C. tougher
B. same age D. younger
32. Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions but similar structures.
These are known as ______.
A. Analogous structure
B. Fossil structure
C. Homologous structure
D. Vestigial structure
33. Based on the table above, which organism is least related to humans?
A. Chimpanzee C. Kangaroo
B. Gorilla D. Horse
34. Which is a more definite characteristic to show relatedness of twoorganisms?
A. Similarity in development
B. Similarity in courting behavior
C. Similarity in structure
D. Similarity in genomic DNA
35. What is being suggested by the similarities of early embryos of different species of vertebrates?
A. no evolutionary relationships between the groups
B. recent common ancestry
C. similar environment in the past
D. evolution from a distant common ancestor
36.Why do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger evolutionary relationships?
A. They have varied and different ancestry.
B. They have similar patterns during their early stages of development.
C. They have a common ancestor and have the same kind of proteins.
D. They possess same vestigial structure that made their evolutionaryrelationship closer.
37. It is the splitting of an ancestral population into two or more subpopulations that are geographically isolated from
one another.
A. Convergent Evolution
B. Divergent Evolution
C. Natural Evolution
D. None of the above
38. A kind of evolution where analogous structures of unrelated organisms from different ancestors develop similar
function such as butterfly wings and bird wings.
A. Convergent Evolution
B. Divergent Evolution
C. Natural Evolution
39. Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
A. A lion that is successful at capturing prey but has no cubs.
B. A lion that has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood.
C. A lion who overcomes a disease and lives to have three cubs.
D. A lion that cares for his cubs, two of who live to adulthood
40. Which of the following is an example of an ancestral homology?
A. Front limbs of man, cat, whales, and other mammals are made up of same kinds of bones.
B. The first birds and all their descendant species have feathers, a trait that is unknown in any other group.
C. Humans and many insect species have eyes.
41. How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of birds has evolved a larger beak size?
A. Large beak size occurred as a result of mutation in each member of the population.
B. The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They
needed to develop larger beaks in order to eat the larger seeds, and over time, they adapted to meet
this need.
C. Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If larger beak size was
advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and reproduce. As such, large beaked birds
increased in frequency relative to small beaked birds.
D. The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They
discovered that by stretching their beaks, the beaks would get longer, and this increase was passed on
to their offspring. Over time, the bird beaks became larger.
42. How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of species of salamander becomes blind after
colonizing a cave?
A. It is possible that in the cave there is a source of pollution that increases the mutation rate for a gene that
makes salamanders blind. Over time, due to exposure to this chemical, the members of the population
lose their sight.
B. Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their ability to see. If maintaining
the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy, blind salamanders might actually have more
offspring than those who could see.
C. There is no way to explain this in terms of natural selection.
D. The members of this salamander species no longer needed to use their eyes. Over time, due to lack of
use, they lost the ability to see.
43. Natural selection is when __________ decides who survives and who doesn’t.
A. animals C. humans
B. nature D. years
44. What do you call the acquired behavioral changes of individuals of a species that allow better survival?
A. Adaptation C. Environment
B. Behavior D. Variation
45. Differences among individual members of the same species are referred to as __________.
A. Adaptation
B. Fitness
C. Natural Selection
D. Variation
46. Which of the following is an example of Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection?
A. Giraffes that stretch their necks have necks that grow longer
B. A breeder of cats specifically chooses cats to breed that have long, white fur
C. Insects that blend into tress survive because they are not seen, thus not eaten by birds
D. Native Americans do not kill an albino animal because it is thought to bring bad luck.
47. Individuals in a population that have a variation which gives them an advantage in their environment are more
likely to ________________.
A. die and not reproduce
B. change their characters tics to fit the environment
C. move to different environment
D. survive and reproduce
48. The thick skin of a cactus helps prevent water loss in the dry desert. This is an example of ________
A. Structural adaptation
B. Behavioral Adaptation
C. Mimicry
D. Camouflage
49. The number of individuals per unit area determines the population’s ________________.
A. age distribution C. mortality
B. density D. survivorship
50. The number of individuals that a particular place can support indefinitely is called the ______________.
A. biotic potential C. cohort
B. carrying capacity D. survivorship
51. What happens when a population is experiencing an exponential growth?
A. the number of individuals in a population increases rapidly
B. the rate of increase in a population fluctuates
C. the curve on the graph levels off
D. all of the above
52. When members of the population move out of a given area, it is called ______________.
A. demography C. immigration
B. emigration D. predation
53. What type of effect has an increasing impact as the population size increases?
A. density-independent effect
B. age effect
C. cohort effect
D. density-dependent effect
54. Which of these situations is NOT a density-independent factor?
A. An increase in population of house lizards in Barangay Tambo causes the decrease in population of
mosquitos
B. The oil spill in Cavite area harmed may aquatic many aquatic organisms in the vicinity
C. Population of wild boar decreases because of deforestation
D. Tropical cyclone Vinta caused many residents to leave barangay Tugaya.
55. Environment can be kept clean and green by using
A. less energy
B. environment friendly technology
C. protecting wildlife
D. all of the above
56. What is one way that human can lessen their ecological footprint?
A. Convert forested area into techno park
B. Drive large vehicles
C. Increase agricultural area
D. Recycle
57. One way that humans could have a positive impact on local environment is to
A. Generate waste products as a result of technological advances
B. Increase the area for one crop production
C. Increase the use of pesticides
D. Use resources that are renewable
58. Which change would best aid a farmer in making the transition from conventional farming techniques to more
sustainable farming techniques?
A. irrigate crops using well water
B. plant only genetically modified crops
C. reduce the ratio of essential elements in the fertilizer
D. rotate the type of crops grown
59. How can people reduce the amount of natural resources they use?
A. Buy products with lots of packaging
B. Make more landfills and garbage dumps
C. Think about what you need right now and do not worry about the future
D. Use water, electricity, and gas conservatively and recycle metal, paper, and glass
60. How should a rainforest be used to conserve its resources?
A. Cut the trees into logs and make timber.
B. Get only minor forest products.
C. Advertise it as a camping site
Key Answer
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. C
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. A
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. D
26. A
27. D
28. C
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. C
33. C
34. D
35. D
36. C
37. B
38. A
39. B
40. A
41. C
42. B
43. B
44. A
45. D
46. C
47. D
48. A
49. B
50. B
51. A
52. B
53. A
54. A
55. D
56. D
57. D
58. D
59. D
60. B
Key Answer
61. C
62. A
63. D
64. D
65. C
66. B
67. C
68. B
69. B
70. D
71. C
72. A
73. C
74. C
75. C
76. B
77. C
78. D
79. A
80. A
81. A
82. C
83. B
84. A
85. D
86. A
87. D
88. C
89. A
90. A
91. A
92. C
93. C
94. D
95. D
96. C
97. B
98. A
99. B
100.A
101.C
102.B
103.B
104.A
105.D
106.C
107.D
108.A
109.B
110.B
111.A
112.B
113.A
114.A
115.D
116.D
117.D
118.D
119.D
120.B

Table of Specification in Science Quarter 3 Third Periodical Test Grade III

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Table of Specification in Science

1. Describe the position of a S3FEIIIa- 2 1,2

1. The cat is _______ the _______.

2. The door is _____ the ____.

3. It is a push or a pull. It is needed to make objects move.

a. In a crooked line c. in a broken line

10. Which of the following is not an example of artificial light.

Light coming from the sun is very useful and important to

a. Looking directly to the sun c. using umbrella

b. Reading with enough light d. using sunglasses

How does heat used?

19. Which of the following shows safety in using heat?

a.shake it b. blow it c. hang it d. pluck it

We have to ________ the drum to produce sound.

a.party b. fire c. visitors d. good news

The toy car move because it is __________.

Electricity is used in an electric fan to ________

a. light b. cool c. cook d. entertain

What do the pictures show?

a. Shadow b. soul c. light d. rainbow

Tony is trying to shoot a santol fruit. What did he do to his

a.Stretched the tirador c. push the tirador

Republic of the Philippines

5.Investigate 24,25,26,27,30,31 28,32 29,33 10 24,25,26,27,28,

Republic of the Philippines

t THIRD PERIODICAL TEST

t THIRD PERIODICAL TEST

1. Describe the motion of an

2. Use appropriate measuring

4. Infer how black and colored

5. Relate the ability of the

7. Determine the effects of

8. Infer that electricity can be

2. Dwayne runs 8 kilometers in 1.25 hours. What is Dwayne’s average speed?

5. The basic SI unit of length is the

7. Why are metals useful for making electrical wire?

9. Something electricity can’t move through is called a(n) _________.

10. What are conductors?

11. What is a difference between a conductor and an insulator?

13. What color heats up the fastest?

14. What color attracts the most heat?

15. The bouncing back of light is called?

17. Light is directed as it passes through a medium.

20. How does the light bulb work?

21. When was the light bulb invented?

23. A component which is used to close or break a circuit is

25. Electric current is the flow of ______.

26. The buildup of charges on an object is called:

27. An electrical current produces a(n):

29. In which direction do the field lines go around a magnet?

30. Which of these devices uses a magnet or electromagnet to make it work?

31. What does this graph represent?

32. The formula for measuring solid volume is :

33. What element is a good electrical semiconductor?

34. What do we call a material that has a resistance of zero?

36. Light travel in a __________.

37. The bending of light due to a change in speed is called ___________.

41. Which of these things does a circuit need to work properly?

42. Why do circuits need to be complete?

c. To make the bulbs go out

43. To pull towards one another.

44. When a build-up of electrical charge empties into something.

a. All the bulbs would stop working

1. The cat is _ the _.

2. The door is _ the .

_9. All objects fall towards the ____ of the Earth.

_16. The following are uses of sound energy except ____.

_22. broom stick _28. harness (zipline)

_23. cutter _29. cap of a bottle (Coke Mismo)

_24. head of an axe _30. slide

_25. ramp _31. doorknob

_26. stapler _32. seesaw

_27. bicycle _33. flagpole

Name _______________________________ Section_ Score ___