Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-3
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-3 M.M. : 200

Complete Syllabus Test

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :

1. There are 200 questions in this test. All are compulsory.

2. The question paper consists of two sections (Section-A : Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Section-B :
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT))
3. Section A (MAT) contains 50 questions and Section B (SAT) contains 150 questions in two parts.
(Part-I : Language Test : 50 questions and Part-II : Aptitude Test : divided into three sections. Section-I is
having 40 questions of Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology), Section-II is having 20 questions from
Mathematics and Section-III is having 40 questions of Social Science.
4. Use only a ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
5. The mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
6. Darken only one circle for each question.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
8. Each question carries 1 mark. There is 0.333 marks negative marking for every wrong answer.

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Choose the correct answer :

Directions (Q.1 to Q.4): Read the following data and 4. If the value of N changed from 100 to 2000, then
answer the questions that follows: what is the value of A?
A numerical machine accepts two values A and B. Then, (1) 1890 (2) 20790
it updates these values as A = AB and B = B + 2 in (3) 20580 (4) 1860
every step. The machine stops at A  N.
5. In the following alphabetical series, which letter will
1. For A = 2, B = 3 and N = 100, how many steps
be the 7th letter to the left of 9th letter from your
are performed before the machine stops?
right end?
(1) 1 (2) 2
ABC..............Z
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) L (2) J
2. In the question no. 1, what is the value of A when
machine stops? (3) K (4) Y
(1) 6 (2) 30 6. 'A + B' means 'A is the brother of B', A B means
(3) 210 (4) 1890 'A is the father of B' and A × B means 'A is the
3. In the question no. 1, what is the value of B when sister of B'. Which of the following means 'A is the
machine stops? uncle of B'?
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) A  C × B (2) C × B  A
(3) 7 (4) 9 (3) A + K  C + B (4) A + C  D  B

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

7. A large cube painted red on all of its surfaces is Directions (Q.12 to Q.16): Answer the following
cut into 216 smaller cubes of equal size. How questions based on given information :
many cubes have at most 2 faces red?
Five professors P, Q, R, S and T are residing at five
(1) 96 (2) 64 different cities and teach five different subjects.

(3) 208 (4) 216 (i) P does not stay at either Bangalore or Chennai. He
teaches English.
8. A clock is 5 minutes slow at 7:00 am on Monday
and it is 7 minutes fast at 7:00 am on Tuesday. (ii) Q does not stay at either Mumbai or Chennai. He
When will it show the correct time? teaches Mathematics.

(1) 5:00 am Tuesday (2) 5:00 pm Tuesday (iii) S stays at Jaipur and does not teach Philosophy.
(iv) T does not stay either at Bangalore or at Delhi. He
(3) 5:00 pm Monday (4) 5:00 am Monday
teaches Economics.
9.
(v) R does not teach Hindi and he stays at Delhi.
1 9 6 16 7 25
12. Which of the following subjects does R teach?
11 12 15
(1) Hindi (2) English
130 240 ?
(3) Philosophy (4) Economics
In the given figure, find the missing number
13. Who stays at Bangalore?
(1) 405 (2) 400
(1) Q (2) R
(3) 425 (4) 505
(3) S (4) T
10. Pointing towards a man in the photograph, a lady
14. At which of the following places does T stay?
said, "The father of his brother is the only son of
my mother". How is the man related to the lady? (1) Delhi (2) Mumbai
(1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Chennai (4) Jaipur
(3) Cousin (4) Grandson 15. Which of the following subject does S teach?
Direction (Q.11): Choose an answer figure which has (1) English (2) Hindi
same relation with figure (c) as figure (a) and (b) have
(3) Mathematics (4) Economics
in problem figure.
16. Which of the following combinations is wrong?
11. Problem figures:
(1) P-English
(2) Q-Bangalore
    (3) R-Philosophy

(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) T-Mumbai

17. Find a figure from options which continue the
Answer Figures: series?

?
(1) (2)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test

18. Choose a option to complete the given figure. Conclusions :

A. All guns are boats.
B. Some boats are guns.
C. Some poles are not boats.
?
(1) Only A follow (2) Only B follow
(3) Both A and C follows (4) Both B and C follows
(1) (2)
4 6 11
22. 41 3 85 4 ? 6
2 3 2
(3) (4)
(1) 112 (2) 166
(3) 185 (4) 192
Directions (Q.19 & Q.20): In the following questions a
paper is folded as shown in figure X and Y. Figure Z is 3 3 3
23.
then cut. Find a figure which resemble to unfolded
figure Z.
1 12 5 3 20 7 2 ? 7
19.
6 8 6
(1) 10 (2) 15
X Y Z (3) 28 (4) 36
24. How many triangles are there in given figure?
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) 16 (2) 19

(3) 15 (4) 17
25. 0 : 4 : : 18 : 48 : : 180 :_____
20.
(1) 230 (2) 392
(3) 294 (4) 394

X Y Z Directions (Q.26 & Q.27): Four diagrams marked (1),

(2), (3) and (4) are given below. The one that best
illustrates the relationship among three given classes :

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

21. In this question two statements and three 26. Kings, men, human beings
conclusions are given. Choose a correct option.
27. Liquids, inflammables, petrol
Statements:
28. SLEA : BFMT : : ? : DHOV
I. All poles are guns.
(1) UGNC (2) UNGC
II. Some boats are poles.
(3) WNPC (4) WGNC

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

29. The mirror image of given figure is 34. Which set of numbers is like the given set "53, 40,
27"?
(1) 77, 63, 50 (2) 93, 80, 57
(3) 58, 27, 18 (4) 39, 26,13
35. How much time will 160 m long train travelling at
a speed of 40 km/hr take to cross a man going in
the same direction with a speed of 4 km/hr?
(1) (2)
(1) 16 s (2) 48 s
(3) 20 s (4) 32 s
36. Thirst : Parch : : ?
(3) (4)
(1) Water : Sink
30. Find the number which represents RAT, if A = (2) Hunger : Strangle
R + 1 and
(3) Flush : Fever
RAM
+ MART (4) Hatred : Reprimand
9999
37. If 3 * 9 = 31, 15 * 12 = 45, 18 * 9 = 36 then
(1) 405 (2) 909 12 * 27 is
(3) 450 (4) 940 (1) 49 (2) 54
31. Who is heaviest among Anil, Shiv, Nayan and (3) 60 (4) 94
Prem?
Directions (Q.38 & Q.39): Find the odd one figure.
I. Anil and Shiv are of same weight.
II. Shiv weighs more than Nayan, but less than 38.
Prem.
(1) Anil
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(2) Prem
(3) Nayan 39.
(4) Data is not sufficient

32. (1) (2) (3) (4)

P
40. If the mirror image of water image of a figure is
given in the question, then figure would look like
R ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(1) (2)
33. How many numbers are there between 1 to 100
which are divisible by 9 and the sum of whose
digits is 9?
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) (4)
(3) 7 (4) 9

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test

41. Which two months in a leap year have the same Directions (Q.46 to Q.48): Six children A, B, C, D, E
calendars? and F are split in two groups of three each and are
made to stand in two rows in such a way that a child
(1) April, July
in one row is exactly facing a child in the other row. D
(2) January, July is not at the end of any row and is to the right of E, who
is facing C. F is to the left of B, which is facing D.
(3) March, December
46. Which of the following group of children is in the
(4) September, December same row?

42. a__bbc__aab__cca__bbcc (1) ABD

(2) CBE
(1) caba
(3) FBC
(2) acba
(4) EBC
(3) bacb
47. Who is to the immediate left of A?
(4) abca (1) C (2) B
43. A sold a watch to B at a gain of 10% and B sold (3) D (4) F
it to C at a loss of 10%. If C paid Rs. 9900 for it, 48. Who is to the immediate right of F?
then the price paid by A is
(1) A (2) B
(1) Rs. 9900
(3) C (4) E
(2) Rs. 10000 49. Which of the following cube is formed by folding
(3) Rs. 9500 given figure along edges?

(4) Rs. 9000

44. A customer asks for the production of x number of

goods. The company produces y number of goods
daily out of which z% are unfit for sale. The order
will be completed in

x 
(1)
100 (yz)

(2)
100 x 
y (100  z)
(1) (2)
100 x
(3)
y (z  1)

100 x
(4)
y (100  z)
45. 40 kg of a mixture contains salt and chilli in the
(3) (4)

ratio of 5 : 3. If 8 kg of this mixture are replaced
by 8 kg of chilli, then the ratio of salt to chilli in the
50. Complete the following pattern.
new mixture will become
8, 17, 36, 75, 154, 313, ?
(1) 1 : 2
(1) 632
(2) 2 : 5 (2) 723
(3) 1 : 1 (3) 532
(4) 3 : 1 (4) 408

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)
Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
(Part-I : Language Test)
Directions (Q.51 to Q.60) : Read the given passages
carefully and answer the following questions by choosing
the most suitable option.
A. Hunger is a word that is a bit tricky to define.
Hunger is that painful sensation, or exhausted
condition that one feels from want of food. In
relation to countries, it is also scarcity of food,
either for a short period (a year) or consistently for
many years. If a village's farms are wiped out by
a flood and result in no food for a couple of
months, the people of that village will be hungry.
We can say hunger will set in.
But in a way, it is different from a country suffering
with the effects of many years of complex political,
economic and climatic adversities. People in such
a country have extreme food shortage year after
year with no end in sight. That too, is hunger.
Also, if a group of campers get stranded on an icy
mountain for days without food, they will
experience hunger too. So, hunger is a lot more
than the absence of lunch or dinner for a day.
Hunger therefore, is the situation, surrounded by
food insecurity, and results in malnourishment. The
emphasis on food insecurity is important because,
people suffering from hunger are constantly
wondering where and when their next food will
come from. Malnourishment is also the key
because hunger makes people eat anything to fill
their tummy, with no regard to what they get from
the meal. This means they can lack essential
nutrients the body needs to function properly.
Hunger gets more complex and worse when more
and more communities are affected in close
proximity. It looks slightly hopeful when a starving
village, town or country is surrounded by others with
abundance, than if they are with other starving
settlements.
51. The primary purpose of the passage is to elaborate
(1) What is chronic hunger?
(2) How to understand necessity of food?
(3) What is food security?
(4) Why malnourishment and hunger occurs?
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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)
52. In the above passage, the author primarily looks at
________ hunger.
(1) Outlook towards
(2) Worries of hunger
(3) Setting of hunger
(4) Various manifestations of
53. All of the following can lead to hunger EXCEPT
(1) Getting deserted at a place without food
(2) Perennial scarcity of food
(3) Far off settlements
(4) Flood or draught like situation
54. According to the author hunger is the state that is
(1) Cordoned off by food insecurity
(2) Enveloped by food insecurity
(3) Alleviated by food insecurity
(4) Resulting in food insecurity
55. Which of the following forms a pair of contrast
images as per their usage in the sentence?
(1) Malnourishment, proximity
(2) Abundance, scarcity
(3) Adversities, abundance
(4) Insecurity, essential
B. Food production is possible because of the
complex network of resources including farmers,
data, information and logistics, traders, industries,
resources such as land, people, water, energy, as
well as facilities such as machinery, irrigation
systems, storage and chemicals. Every bit of
these resources is important to making it possible
for fresh food to end up on our plates. This means
losses and waste have an even bigger impact on
humans and the environment.
Waste of Land
The surface area the earth is approx 14.8Gha. Out
of this, 10Gha is capable of supporting crop
agriculture, and approximately 5Gha is already in
use. If we allow a third of global food to go waste,
then we are wasting away more than 10% of the
total land area. That is not good enough, especially
at a time that we are advocating forest, biodiversity
and vegetation preservation.
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

Waste of Water 59. In the passage, the author points out ________ to
reduce our losses and food wastage.
Water in the form of rainfall, springs, fresh-water
bodies and the likes is a key in agriculture. An (1) The cogent rationale
estimated 3.8 trillion m3 of water are now drawn for (2) The imminent plausibility
human use each year, equivalent to the contents
of 1.5 billion Olympic-sized swimming pools. The (3) The impending support
bulk of this abstracted water, about 70%, is taken (4) The dire need
by the agricultural sector. Water is used for
60. The word 'impact', as used in the 1st paragraph is
irrigation, food processing and preparation. What is
synonymous with
the point using so much precious water resources
only to see it go to waste? (1) Affect (2) Effect

Waste of Energy (3) Influential (4) Attack

Human power, fossil fuels, electricity, machinery
and fertilizers are all used up to produce food. As
an example, almost all field equipment is powered
by diesel engines. These include farm tractors,
harvesting machines and a wide range of
mechanical handling and transport equipment. In
addition, diesel-powered irrigation pumps are vitally
important but consume large quantities of energy.
All this contributes to a global consumption by
agriculture of approximately 120 million tonnes of
diesel fuel annually.
Energy is consumed in the entire food chain
process. This is why reducing food waste and
losses is important, because it will ultimately make
our energy use on agriculture worthwhile.
56. Which of the following is the main idea of the given
passage?
(1) Wastage and neglect of food
(2) Need of reducing food loss
(3) Global consumption of food
(4) Waste of resources used in food production
57. The author advocates for making
(1) Our use of energy resources on agriculture
efficacious
Directions (Q.61 to Q.65) : The following sentences
have been divided into parts and each part is labeled
as (1), (2) and (3), respectively. Identify which part is
unacceptable in Standard English Usage. If there is no
mistake in any part, mark (4).
61. The idea behind self-help groups /
(1)
is to organize rural poor into unified /
(2)
groups and collect their savings. / No Error
(3) (4)
62. The leader said that it would be unwise to not /
(1)
accept the democratic and rightful /
(2)
demands of the common people. / No Error
(3) (4)
63. Although she has been promoted to the bank's
board /
(1)
as a director, she continues to /
(2)

(2) Reducing our dependency on agricultural carry out all her current responsibilities. / No Error
produce (3) (4)
(3) Limiting our expansive measures 64. If you had listened more carefully, /
(4) Stoppage of abstract use of water, land and (1)
energy you wouldn't make so many mistakes and your
58. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to future /
the word 'advocating' as used in the passage? (2)
(1) Pushing (2) Holding would not have been jeopardized. / No Error
(3) Rejecting (4) Exacerbating (3) (4)

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)
65. Political parties are /
(1)
one of the earliest available and /
(2)
visible institution in a democracy. / No Error
(3) (4)
Directions (Q.66 to Q.68) : Five parts of a paragraph
are given. You are provided with the beginning (S1) and
the ending (S5) of this paragraph and other parts are
jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the jumbled
parts (P, Q and R) to create a meaningful and logical
paragraph.
66. S1 : Erosion of America's farmland by wind and
water has been a problem since settlers first
put the prairies and grasslands under the
plow in the nineteenth century
S2 : ______________________
S3 : ______________________
S4 : ______________________
S5 : As the nation's most critical natural resource
problem
P : In the years ahead, soil erosion and the
pollution problems it causes are likely to
replace petroleum scarcity
Q : By the 1930s, more than 282 million acres
of farmland were damaged by erosion
R : After 40 years of conservation efforts, soil
erosion has accelerated due to new
demands placed on the land by heavy crop
production
Choose the correct option.
(1) RQP (2) QRP
(3) QPR (4) RPQ
67. S1 : Anyone who has the thirst to learn
S2 : _________________________
S3 : _________________________
S4 : _________________________
S5 : Often curtail his potential and success
P : Of his intellect by never succumbing
Q : To the trivialities of circumstances that
R : Has the ability to expand the horizons
Choose the correct option.
(1) QRP (2) PQR
(3) RQP (4) RPQ
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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)
68. S1 : Sleep is often associated only with rest
S2 : _________________________
S3 : _________________________
S4 : _________________________
S5 : That was not even in place earlier
P : While sleeping people often enter into a zone
of subconscious which enhances their
thinking process
Q : However, one usually forgets that sleep
induces subconscious thought
R : Curiously, this chain of thoughts forms a
creative picture
Choose the correct option.
(1) PQR (2) QPR
(3) RQP (4) PRQ
Directions (Q.69 & Q.70) : The first sentence of each
paragraph is missing. Choose the most appropriate
option to complete the paragraph.
69. A : ___________________________________.
B : It brings destruction wherever it takes place.
C : Wars have become the worst thing for the
civilian population.
(1) Wars were more harmful in ancient times
(2) Wars lead to excessive destruction everywhere
(3) It is true that war is a dreadful thing
(4) Politicians wage war to put people at risk
70. A : ___________________________________.
B : It seems to be an accepted belief that
money brings happiness.
C : However, as per general perception, someone
living in a humble cottage is genuinely
satisfied as compared to rich men.
(1) People complain about poverty as a great evil
(2) The poor are free from perplexing jealousies
and social envies
(3) The home of a poor honest man is a humble
abode
(4) Poverty is a manifestation of humble
beginnings
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

Directions (Q.71 to Q.75) : Fill in the blanks with the 76. (1) is due to (2) was due
most appropriate option.
(3) was due to (4) is due
71. Only he ________ knows the burden knows its
weight. 77. (1) shall not (2) ought not

(1) whom (3) may not (4) could not

(2) did 78. (1) it (2) itself
(3) that
(3) beside (4) oneself
(4) who
79. (1) immoral (2) cordial
72. He was the most eloquent speaker ________ I ever
heard. (3) proportional (4) similar

(1) that (2) whom 80. (1) worthy (2) party

(3) who (4) which (3) contender (4) desirous

73. She promised not to do anything repugnant
Directions (Q.81 to Q.84) : Identify the odd one out.
________ the wishes of her parents.
81. (1) Weep (2) Lament
(1) from (2) by

(3) for (4) to (3) Mourn (4) Deride

74. The company was fortunate ___________ the 82. (1) Heinous (2) Obscure
government's support.
(3) Horrible (4) Odious
(1) for securing
83. (1) Amicable (2) Goodwill
(2) by securing
(3) Friendliness (4) Understanding
(3) in securing

(4) to secure 84. (1) Hatred (2) Ridicule

75. The shirt fits me well except ________ the collar. (3) Mock (4) Tease

(1) for (2) in Directions (Q.85 to Q.87) : Choose the most appropriate

(3) by (4) at antonym of the given capitalized word.

Directions (Q.76 to Q.80) : Fill in the blanks with the 85. REBUKED
most appropriate option to complete the passage.
(1) Subdued (2) Fastened
If a person suffers misery as a result of his virtue,
(3) Praised (4) Moved
he deserves reverence. If his misery 76
86. COGNIZANCE
some ill luck, he deserves sympathy. If it is due to
vice he 77 to be affronted because his (1) Ravage (2) Scheme

misery 78 is perhaps a punishment (3) Surety (4) Ignorance

79 to his evil conduct. The nature of the 87. NAIVE

man who censures a criminal about to be executed (1) Cunning (2) Trivial

is not 80 of praise. (3) Insignificant (4) Blunt

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

Directions (Q.88 & Q.89) : Identify the most appropriate 94. The sword of Damocles
one word substitution for the given definition.
(1) It refers to an authoritative person
88. Quality of being open to misinterpretation (2) It hints at something evil
(1) Parity (3) It implies that something very bad is likely to
(2) Equivocal happen

(3) Ambiguity (4) It refers to the fear of swords

Directions (Q.95 to Q.97) : Identify the misspelled word.
(4) Disparity
95. (1) Swamp
89. Pertaining to the study of disease
(2) Comission
(1) Pathological
(3) Remission
(2) Pathology
(4) Trespass
(3) Anthropologist
96. (1) Cordinate
(4) Philology
(2) Paraphrase
Directions (Q.90 to Q.94) : Identify the most appropriate
(3) Comprehensive
meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
(4) Ulterior
90. Add insult to injury
97. (1) Journalism
(1) Make a situation intolerable
(2) Peculiar
(2) To insult someone intentionally
(3) Icing
(3) To worsen an unfavourable situation
(4) Scheiming
(4) To add emphasis Directions (Q.98 to Q.100) : Identify the synonym of the
91. Barking up the wrong tree given capitalized word.

(1) Praising someone 98. ELOQUENT

(2) Scolding someone (1) Expressive

(2) Verbatim
(3) Finding someone crazily
(3) Laconic
(4) Looking in the wrong place
(4) Cogent
92. Lay by something for a rainy day
99. LOQUACIOUS
(1) Delay the disaster as much as possible
(1) Livid
(2) Lie to avert the danger
(2) Torpid
(3) Lay low in order to avoid tussle
(3) Talkative
(4) Save / Store for the bad times
(4) Tacit
93. Best of both worlds
100. NOISY
(1) All good things (1) Canister
(2) All new facilities (2) Clamorous
(3) All the advantages (3) Chaos
(4) All the requirements met (4) Covert

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a

g r
straight line is given below. The displacement of the (1)  (2) 
body in 10 s is r g

2 g
(3)  rg (4) 
1 r
velocity (m/s)

0 4 6 8 10 Time(s) 106. The work done in moving an alpha particle between

2
two points having potential difference 25 volt is
(1) 8.0 × 10–19 J (2) 8.0 × 10–18 J
–2
(3) 4.0 × 10–18 J (4) Zero
(1) 4 m (2) 10 m
107. N identical drops of mercury are charged
(3) 8 m (4) 6 m simultaneously to 10 volt. When combined to form
102. A body freely falling from the rest has a velocity v one large drop, the potential is found to be 40 volt,
after it falls through a height h. The distance it has the value of N is
to fall down for its velocity to become double is (1) 8 (2) 4
(1) 2h (2) 4h (3) 12 (4) 16
(3) 6h (4) 8h 108. A uniform wire of resistance 20  having
103. A man of mass 80 kg. He stands on a weighing resistance 1 /m is bent in the adjoining form of
scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a a circle as shown in the figure. If the equivalent
uniform acceleration of 5 m/s2. What would be the resistance between PQ is 1.8 , then the length
reading of the scale? (g = 10 m/s2) of the shorter section is
(1) 1200 N (2) 800 N
(3) 400 N (4) Zero
104. In generation of hydroelectric power, water falls from P Q
some height and gravitational potential energy of
water is converted into electric power with the help
of turbine. In one such event 7.2 × 104 kg of water
falls per hour from height 100 m and half the (1) 2.0 m (2) 5 m
gravitational potential energy is converted into (3) 18 m (4) 1.8 m
electric energy. How much power is generated?
[g = 10 m/s2] 109. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travel
on a circular path of radius r that is perpendicular
(1) 1 kilowatt (2) 5 kilowatt to the magnetic field B. The time taken by the
(3) 10 kilowatt (4) 7 kilowatt particle to complete one revolution is
105. A body is placed on a turn table at a distance r mq m
from the centre. The friction coefficient between the (1) (2)
2B 2Bq
body and the table is . If turn table rotates at
constant angular speed , the maximum value of 2Bq 2m
(3) (4)
 for which block does not slip over turn table is m Bq

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

110. A coil and electric bulb are connected in series with 115. A monobasic acid 'X' generally doesn't evolve
D.C. source, a soft iron core is then inserted in hydrogen gas on reacting with metals. But very
the coil. Then dilute solution of 'X' reacts with two metals Y and
Z, to produce hydrogen gas. X, Y and Z
(1) Intensity of bulb remains the same respectively are
(2) Intensity of the bulb decreases (1) Hydrochloric acid, manganese and magnesium
(3) Intensity of the bulb increases (2) Sulphuric acid, sodium and potassium
(4) The bulb ceases to glow (3) Nitric acid, manganese and magnesium
111. A fish looking up through the water sees the (4) Acetic acid, sodium and potassium
ouside world contained in a circular horizon. If the
116. Consider the given table :
4
refractive index of water is and the fish is 12 cm Dispersed Dispersion
3 S.No. Colloid
Phase Medium
below the surface of water the radius of the circle
in centimeter is 1 Aerosol A B

2 Foam B A
12 3 12 3
(1) (2) 3 Sol C A
7 5

Identify A, B, and C and choose the correct option.

(3) 123 5 (4) 123 7
(1) A- Solid, B- Gas, C- Liquid
112. 1 kg of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1 kg of steam at (2) A- Liquid, B- Gas, C- Solid
100°C. What will be amount of water present in the
(3) A- Gas, B- Liquid, C- Solid
mixture when thermal equilibrium is reached.
[Given : Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/g, (4) A- Solid, B- Liquid, C- Gas
latent heat of vaporization of water = 540 cal/g and 117. Two aqueous solutions A and B have the same
specific heat of water = 1 cal/g °C] concentration in terms of mass by mass
(1) 667 g (2) 1333 g percentage. If solution A has 15 g sugar dissolved
in 75 g of water and solution B has 25 g sugar in
(3) 66.7 g (4) 133.3 g it then the ratio of the mass of solute to the mass
113. A person cannot see objects clearly beyond 50 of solvent in the solution B is
cm. The power of the lens to correct the vision is (1) 2 : 7 (2) 1 : 3
(1) –2 D (2) +2 D (3) 2 : 5 (4) 1 : 5
(3) – 0.5 D (4) + 5 D 118. Match the following and choose the correct option.
114. Consider the following statements : Column-I Column-II

I - Calcium and magnesium float over the surface 14

and 7 N15
a Isotopes (i) 6C
of water.
b Isobars (ii) Ne and Na+
II - Calcium reacts more vigorously with water as
compared to magnesium . c Isoelectronic (iii) Protium and Tritium

Now, choose the correct option. 40 40

d Isotones (iv) 18 Ar and 20 Ca
(1) Both the statements are correct
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Only statement I is correct (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Only statement II is correct (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

119. Which of the following processes does not involve 125. Which of the following properties of a solutions is
oxidation? temperature dependent?
(1) Burning of fuel (i) Molarity
(2) Rancidity of food (ii) Molality
(3) Conversion of ethanol into ethanoic acid
(iii) Mole fraction
(4) Conversion of vegetable oil into vanaspati ghee
(iv) Mass percentage
120. Which of the following elements has the maximum
ionisation enthalpy? Choose the correct option.

(1) Carbon (2) Nitrogen (1) Only (ii)

(3) Silicon (4) Phosphorus (2) Only (i)

121. Consider the following transformation : (3) Only (i) and (iii)
(4) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Process A Process B
Ice   Water   Water
 0 C   0 C   25C  126. Pnictogens are the members of
Process C Process D

 Water 
 Steam (1) Group 15 (2) Group 16
100C  100C 
(3) Group 17 (4) Group 18
Now, choose the incorrect statement with respect
127. In lac operon, lac i gene synthesizes the
to the above processes.
(1) Process B involves rise in temperature with no (1) Inducer (2) Operator
phase transformation (3) Repressor (4) Promoter
(2) Processes A and D both are phase 128. Cyclosporin A, used as an immunosuppressant in
transformations organ-transplant patients, is produced by
(3) Energy required for both the processes A and
(1) Trichoderma polysporum
B are equal
(2) Monascus purpureus
(4) Process A occurs with the help of latent heat
of fusion (3) Clostridium butylicum
122. When the gas evolved at anode during electrolysis (4) Aspergillus niger
of brine solution reacts with dry slaked lime a
compound is formed. Which of the following is not 129. In a blood report, it was given that Harish is
a property of this compound? suffering from polycythaemia and thrombocytopenia.
This means that there is
(1) It is a white solid
(1) Abnormal rise in WBCs and low count of
(2) It is a good oxidising agent
platelets
(3) It is used as a bleaching agent
(2) Low count of platelets and low count of RBCs
(4) It contains water of crystallisation
(3) Low count of RBCs and high count of WBCs
123. Which of the following reactions is an example of
disproportionation? (4) Abnormal rise in RBCs and low count of
platelets
(1) CaO + CO2  CaCO3
(2) H2 + Cl2  2HCl 130. How many of the following are exotic breeds of
poultry?
(3) 2H2O2  2H2O + O2
White Leghorn, Aseel, Ghagus, Rhode Island Red,

(4) FeSO4   Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3 Busra, Chittagong, Sahiwal, Jersey, Azeri, Surti,
Red Sindhi
124. The major constituent of CNG is also known as
(1) Four (2) Two
(1) Ethane (2) Marsh gas
(3) Coal gas (4) Butane (3) Five (4) Three

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

S U 136. X and Y are the two types of a simple permanent

T tissue Z. ‘X’ consists of very long, narrow, thick,
Q lignified cells with pointed ends and Y are
P irregularly shaped, highly thickened dead cells with
narrow cavities. Z is made up of dead cells with
131. highly thickened walls. X, Y and Z respectively, are
R
(1) Phellem, Phelloderm and Phellogen
(2) Phelloderm, Phellem and Phellogen
 P results from the fusion of male and female
gamete. (3) Fibres, Sclereids and Sclerenchyma

 R gets implanted in the uterus. (4) Sclereids, Fibres and Sclerenchyma

 Q is a 8 - 10 cell stage. 137. In a plant the seed colour is controlled by two
Identify P, Q, R and the process responsible for genes. If both the dominant alleles of a gene are
transition of S to T. present then the seeds produced are green in
Transition colour but if a dominant and a recessive alleles of
P Q R from S to T a gene is present, then the seeds produced are
(1) Zygote Morula Blastocyst Cleavage yellow in colour. If both the conditions exist
simultaneously then brown seeds are produced.
(2) Morula Blastula Zygote Meiosis
Black seeds are produced when all alleles are
(3) Embryo Morula Blastocyst Meiosis recessive. What would be the phenotypic ratio
obtained in F 2 generation when plants with
(4) Zygote Blastula Morula Cleavage genotypes BBAA and bbaa are crossed?
132. In an area Suresh observed composite organism (1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 8 : 4 : 1
which arises from algae living among filaments of
(3) 5 : 8 : 2 : 1 (4) 7 : 3 : 4 : 1
a fungus in a symbiotic relationship on the trees.
These organisms are the indicators of 138. The farmer used Pusa Bold and Pusa Lerma
varieties of crops, in order to increase their yield.
(1) CO pollution (2) Marble cancer
They wanted to increase the yield of
(3) SO2 pollution (4) Water pollution
(1) Wheat and mustard
133. Which of the following is a group of heterocyclic
amino acids? (2) Rice and maize
(1) Histidine and proline (3) Ground nut and chick pea
(2) Cysteine and methionine (4) Wheat and rice
(3) Serine and threonine
139. Aditya dug a pit in the ground and put the following
(4) Tyrosine and alanine items into it.
Cell A Cell B
Kitchen waste, polythene bag, spoiled food, grass,
s = –12 s = –20 dead remains of plants and animals, waste leather
134. p = 4 p = 8 shoes, aluminium foil, broken glass mugs, plastic
cups, used paper.

The difference between the water potential of cell After 2 years, if he opens the pit then how many
A and B is items would still be present in the pit?
(1) 4 (2) – 5 (1) Six (2) Three
(3) – 4 (4) 5
(3) Five (4) Four
135. In a colony of beehive, three different castes are
140. The cell organelle which is responsible for the
present. The caste of the honey bees ‘X’ are sterile
production of energy currency of the cell was
females and the most active members of beehive.
discovered by
Identify ‘X’ and the ploidy of ‘X’
(1) Workers, Haploid (2) Queens, Diploid (1) Benda (2) Kolliker
(3) Drones, Haploid (4) Workers, Diploid (3) E. Haeckel (4) Camillo Golgi

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-II

141. If one of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 145. In 12 seconds, a train travelling at 48 km/h
completely crosses another train having the length
px2 + qx + r is r/p (r  0), then the value of 2
times the length of the first train, travelling in
3
( p  2q )3  (q  2r )3  (r  2 p )3 opposite direction at 42 km/h. It also passes a
is railway platform in 45 seconds. The length of the
( p  3r ) (q  3 p ) ( r  3q )
platform is
(1) 1 (2) –2
(1) 400 m (2) 450 m
(3) –3 (4) –1 (3) 420 m (4) 560 m

142. In the given figure, PS || UV and PR || TV. If QV 146. If (5959 + 3159) and (5931 + 3131) both will be
= 12 cm and the length of QR and QS (in cm) are always divisible by the largest divisor P(PN), then
1
taken to be natural numbers, then the length of QS the value of ⎡⎣(2.5  P )3 ⎤⎦ 6 is
can take n number of values, where n is equal to
(1) 15 (2) 18
P
(3) 48 (4) 16
T
147. Let N be the smallest number that will divide 1315,
U
4675 and 6915, leaving the same remainder in
each case. The sum of the digits of the remainder
Q is
R V S
(1) 4 (2) 14
(1) 15 (2) 7
(3) 15 (4) 12
(3) 12 (4) 18
dy
143. Apple juice is packed in a paper packet of 148. If x = 5at2 and y = 10at, then is equal to
dx
dimensions 12 cm × 5 cm × 4 cm and sold at ` 6 2 1
(1) (2)
while the cold drink is packed in a cylindrical can t t
with radius 2.5 cm and height 14 cm and sold at (3) t (4) 2t
` 11. The difference between the cost of 1 litre of 149. In a parallelogram ABCD, the bisectors of ADC
apple juice and 1 litre of cold drink can be and BAD intersect at point E lying on the side BC
of the given parallelogram. If the area of the
(1) ` 15 (2) ` 30 parallelogram ABCD is 192 cm2 and DE = 12 cm,
then the area of the circumcircle of ADE is
(3) ` 10 (4) ` 45
(1) 100cm2 (2) 616 cm2
2 (3) 200 cm2 (4) 300 cm2
2
1  cos 3  3
144. If 2
= n , then the value of 150. If one root of the equation x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 is half
sin 3  of one of the roots of the equation x2 – 3kx + 30
3

 
= 0, then the value of k such that the equation
4 4 2 2 2
x2 – 3kx + 30 = 0 has integral roots, is
cosec 3   cot 3   cosec 3   cot 3  is

2 3
23 11
(1) (2)
(1) n3 (2) n2 6 3
27 12
(3) n3 (4) n (3) (4)
5 5

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

151. If AM between two positive integers a and b is (1) 4.9 cm2 (2) 10 cm2
3 ab , then a : b can be equal to (3) 7.6 cm2 (4) 7.14 cm2
32 2 23 2 156. In the given figure, ABC and DEF are equilateral
(1) (2) triangles inscribed in circles with same centre O.
32 2 23 2
If the radius of the larger circle is 6 cm, then the
2 3 2 3 area of the shaded region is
(3) (4)
2 3 22 3 A
⎛ 4  3 3 ⎞ 2
152. The coordinates of the mid-point of the line joining (1) ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ cm
4
the centroid and the incentre of the triangle formed D
by the points (2, 4), (6, 4) and (2, 0) are ⎛ 4  3 3 ⎞ 2
(2) 9 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ cm
⎛ 14  3 2 4  3 2 ⎞ 4
(1) ⎜⎝ , O
⎟⎠ ⎛ E F
3 3 3 3⎞ 2
(3) ⎜⎝   ⎟⎠ cm B C
⎛ 4  3 2 4  5 2⎞ 4
,
(4) 18    3 3  cm2
(2) ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
3 3
⎛ 14  3 2 4  3 2 ⎞ 157. According to Euclid’s postulates, which of the
(3) ⎜⎝ , ⎟⎠
3 3 following conditions is not always true for spherical
geometry?
⎛ 4  3 2 14  5 2 ⎞
(4) ⎜⎝ , ⎟⎠ (1) Through any two points, there is exactly one
3 3
line
153. AB is a common tangent to the circles, one
centred at O with radius 9 cm and other centred (2) Through any three points not on same line,
at C with radius 16 cm. Both the circles touch there is exactly one plane
each other at point D. The area of the quadrilateral (3) A point always defines a unique line
ABCO is equal to
(4) Right angles are congruent
450
(1) 600 cm2 (2) cm2 158. ABC is a triangle in which B = 2C. If D is a
7
(3) 300 cm2 (4) 150 cm2 point on BC such that AD divides BAC such that
BAD = 2CAD and AB = CD, then ACB is
154. A log of wood in a swimming pool is having unit
equal to
length. Just below the log, there is a stone at
bottom which makes angle of depressions  and (1) 90° (2) 36°
from the ends of the log. The shortest distance (3) 30° (4) 72°
of the stone from the log of wood is
159. A water pond is formed in a triangular plot of sides
tan   tan  30 m, 56 m and 82 m. The pond with radius
(1) tan (2)
tan  tan  21
m and circular in shape is dug out and the
tan   tan  tan   tan  22
(3) (4)
tan   tan  tan   tan  soil dug out is spread in remaining area uniformly.
155. In the given figure, a shooting target is formed by If the present depth of the pond is 16 m, then the
concentric circular rings with probability of hitting pond was dug actually to a depth of x m from the
R 1 , R 2 , R 3 and R 4 as 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 ground level. The value of x is
respectively. If the radius of R1 is 0.7 cm, then the (1) 12 (2) 13
total area of the target is (Assume that each time
the target is hit) (3) 14 (4) 15
160. The average marks obtained by 30 students of a
class is 75. The difference between the marks
R3 obtained by the student who got the highest marks
R4 and the student who got the lowest marks is 98.
R2
R1 If both these students are removed, then the
average falls by 1 mark. The highest marks is
(1) 156 (2) 148
(3) 138 (4) 172

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-III

161. In 1834, a customs union called Zollverein reduced 167. Which of the following was a Gujarati newspaper?
the number of currencies from over thirty to (1) Samachar Chandrika
(1) Twenty (2) Ten (2) Sambad Kaumudi
(3) Two (4) One (3) Bombay Samachar
162. The French tried to suprers the movement inspired (4) Jan-i-Jahan Nama
by Huynh Phu So and called him
168. Match the items of Column I (Writer/Author) with
(1) Meking Delta (2) Anti France the items of Column II (Books) and choose the
(3) Mad Bonze (4) Mental correct alternative.
163. During non-cooperation movement, poor people Column I (Writer/Author) Column II (Books)
could not boycott with cloth for too long because a. Charles Dickens (i) Pride and Prejudice
(1) Britishers forced poor people to buy mill cloth b. Emile Zola (ii) Mayor of Casterbridge
only c. Thomas Hardy (iii) Hard Times
(2) Khadi cloth was often more expensive than d. Jane Austen (iv) Germinal
mass produced mill cloth
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) Mill cloth was available in plenty
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Khadi cloth was not available in the markets
169. Which of the following facts is not correct about
164. Assertion (A): Meat was an expensive luxury Jacobin club of France?
beyond the reach of the European poor till the
(1) Jacobins got its name from the former Convent
1870s.
of St-Jacob in Paris
Reason (R): High prices of meat kept its demand
(2) The members of Jacobin Club belonged to
and production down in Europe until the
prosperous sections of the society
development of a new technology called
refrigerated ships. (3) The leader of Jacobin club was Maximilian
Robespiere
(1) A is true and R is false
(4) A large group among the Jacobins decided to
(2) A is false but R is true
wear long striped trousers similar to those
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct worn by dock workers
explanation of A
170. In 1904, prices of essential goods rose so quickly
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct in Russia that real wages declined by ______ per
explanation of A cent.
165. Most of the large industries in India in 1911 were (1) 5 (2) 10
located in _______. (3) 20 (4) 25
(1) Bengal and Bombay (2) Madras and Bombay 171. Assertion (A): Germany was forced to pay
(3) Bengal and Kanpur (4) Kanpur and Bombay compensation amounting to £6 billion after the
166. Which of the following facts is not true about the first world war.
‘chawls’ of Bombay? Reason (R): The War Guilt Clause held Germany
(1) Chawls were multi-storeyed structures responsible for the war and damages the Allied
countries suffered.
(2) Chawls were owned by private landlords who
were looking for quick ways of earning money (1) Both A and R are false
from migrants (2) A is true but R is false
(3) Each chawl was divided into smaller two- (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
rooms tenements explanation of A
(4) The tenements in the chawl has no private (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
toilets explanation of A

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

172. By the early nineteenth century, _______ forests 180. Nearly _______ kg of manganese is required to
in England were disappearing, which created a manufacture one tonne of steel.
problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy.
(1) 10
(1) Teak (2) Sal
(2) 15
(3) Oak (4) Rosewood
173. Dhangars were an important pastoral community (3) 20
of. (4) 25
(1) Maharashtra (2) Rajasthan 181. Which of the following National Highways is the
(3) Kashmir (4) Gujarat longest?
174. Which of the following facts is not true about the (1) NH-8
enclosure movement that started in England?
(2) NH-10
(1) The early enclosures were usually created by
individual landlords (3) NH-7
(2) Till the middle of the eighteenth century, the (4) NH-15
enclosure movement proceeded very fast
182. In the pre-Independence period, most
(3) In the beginning, the enclosures were not manufacturing units were located in places from
supported by the state or the church
the point of view of
(4) Between 1750 and 1850, 6 million acres of
(1) Overseas trade
land was enclosed
175. The British insisted that Indians should not wear (2) Availability of labour
shoes in the (3) Transport facilities
(1) Church (2) Temples
(4) Raw materials
(3) Courtroom (4) British homes
183. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a
176. On the basis of origin, the resources can be
time lag of _____ hours.
classified as
(1) 1.5
(1) Variables and non-veriable
(2) Biotic and abiotic (2) 2
(3) Individual and community (3) 2.5
(4) Potential and reserves. (4) 3
177. The species which are facing extinction are termed 184. Geologically which of the following features of India
as
is one of the ancient landmasses on the earths
(1) Vulnerable species (2) Rare species surface?
(3) Endangered species (4) Endemic species (1) The Himalayas
178. Today, in India, hydroelectric power contributes
(2) The Northern Plains
approximately ______ per cent of the total
electricity produced. (3) The peninsular Plateau
(1) 2 (2) 12 (4) The coastal Plains
(3) 22 (4) 32
185. The Western part of the Northern plains is referred
179. Which of the following condition is not required for to as the
growing rice?
(1) Punjab Plains
(1) High temperature (above 25°C)
(2) The Ganga Plains
(2) High humidity
(3) Annual rainfull above 100 cm (3) Bhangar Plains

(4) Shallow black soils and sandy soils (4) Khaddar Plains

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

186. Match the items of Column I (Physical division of 189. Assertion (A): Tropical deciduous forests are also
India) with items of Column II (features) and called as the monsoon forests.
choose the correct alternative. Reason (R): Trees of Tropical Deciduous Forests
Column I (Physical Column II (features) shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in
dry summer.
division of India)
(1) A is true but R is false
a. The Indian Desert (i) Formed due to
(2) A is false but R is true
breaking of the
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Gondwana land explanation of A
b. The peninsular (ii) Brahmaputra marks (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
plateau the eastern most explanation of A

boundary of this 190. India may overtake China in ______ to become the
most populous country in the world.
division
(1) 2025 (2) 2035
c. The Northern Plains (iii) Arid climate with
(3) 2045 (4) 2053
low vegetation cover
191. In 1956, an Act was passed in Sri Lanka to
d. The Himalayan (iv) Formed by three recognise ________ as the only official language.
mountains major river systems- (1) Tamil (2) Sinhala
the Ganga, the (3) English (4) French

Indus and the 192. Which of the following is not usually a feature of
a federalism?
Brahmaputra
(1) It has two or more levels of government
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) The existence and authority of each level or
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) tier of government is constitutionally
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) guaranteed

(4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (3) The fundamental provisions of the constitution
can be unilaterally changed by one level of the
187. Assertion (A): Most of the Himalayan rivers are government
perennial.
(4) Each tier of government has its own
Reason (R): Himalayan rivers receive water from jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation,
melted snow of the lofty mountains only. taxation and administration
(1) A is true but R is false 193. The official religion of England is
(2) A is false but R is true (1) Buddhism (2) Islam
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) Christianity (4) None of these
explanation of A 194. Which of the following aims is not an aim of
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct constitution of a country?
explanation of A (1) Constitution expresses the aspirations of the
188. The peninsular region of India does not have a well people about creating a good society
defined cold season because of (2) Constitution specifies how the government will
(1) Low pressure systems originating from be constituted
Western Asia (3) Constitution generates a degree of trust and
coordination for different kinds of people to live
(2) The moderating influence of the sea
together
(3) Trade winds blowing over it
(4) Constitution does not lay any limit on the
(4) Depressions and cyclones powers of the government

(19)
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)
195. Lok Sabha in India exercises more powers in
(1) Money matters (2) Welfare matters
(3) Development matters (4) Legal matters
196. The disadvantage of using average income as a
criteria for comparing development of different
countries is that
(1) It is difficult to calculate
(2) It hides economic disparities of citizens of a
country
(3) It is not calculated in dollars
(4) It gives wrong calculations
197. A cheque is a paper instructing the bank to pay
a specified amount from the person’s account to
(1) Any person into holds the cheque
(2) The bank itself so that it can give loans
(3) The person in whose name the cheque has
been issued
(4) The account of the person who is holding the
cheque
 
(20)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)
198. Globalisation is the process of.
(1) Rapid integration on interconnection between
countries
(2) Bringing new technology to a country
(3) Exporting the products of a country to America
(4) Importing goods produced by England to India
199. Poultry farming is included in
(1) Secondary sector
(2) Tertiary sector
(3) Primary sector
(4) Both secondary and tertiary sectors
200. NSSO stands for
(1) National sample security organization
(2) National state security organization
(3) National social security organization
(4) National sample survey organization

 

 


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 Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-3
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-3 M.M. : 200

ANSWERS
1. (3) 41. (2) 81. (4) 121. (3) 161. (3)
2. (3) 42. (2) 82. (2) 122. (4) 162. (3)
3. (4) 43. (2) 83. (1) 123. (3) 163. (2)
4. (2) 44. (2) 84. (1) 124. (2) 164. (3)
5. (3) 45. (3) 85. (3) 125. (2) 165. (1)
6. (3) 46. (3) 86. (4) 126. (1) 166. (3)
7. (3) 47. (3) 87. (1) 127. (3) 167. (3)
8. (3) 48. (2) 88. (3) 128. (1) 168. (3)
9. (2) 49. (3) 89. (1) 129. (4) 169. (2)
10. (2) 50. (1) 90. (3) 130. (2) 170. (3)
11. (3) 51. (1) 91. (4) 131. (1) 171. (4)
12. (3) 52. (4) 92. (4) 132. (3) 172. (3)
13. (1) 53. (3) 93. (3) 133. (1) 173. (1)
14. (3) 54. (2) 94. (3) 134. (1) 174. (2)
15. (2) 55. (2) 95. (2) 135. (4) 175. (3)
16. (4) 56. (4) 96. (1) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (3) 57. (1) 97. (4) 137. (2) 177. (3)
18. (2) 58. (3) 98. (1) 138. (1) 178. (3)
19. (3) 59. (4) 99. (3) 139. (4) 179. (4)
20. (2) 60. (2) 100. (2) 140. (2) 180. (1)
21. (4) 61. (2) 101. (4) 141. (3) 181. (3)
22. (3) 62. (1) 102. (2) 142. (2) 182. (1)
23. (2) 63. (4) 103. (1) 143. (1) 183. (2)
24. (2) 64. (2) 104. (3) 144. (4) 184. (3)
25. (3) 65. (3) 105. (1) 145. (3) 185. (1)
26. (1) 66. (2) 106. (2) 146. (1) 186. (2)
27. (3) 67. (4) 107. (1) 147. (3) 187. (1)
28. (2) 68. (2) 108. (1) 148. (2) 188. (2)
29. (4) 69. (3) 109. (4) 149. (1) 189. (4)
30. (3) 70. (1) 110. (2) 150. (2) 190. (3)
31. (2) 71. (4) 111. (1) 151. (1) 191. (2)
32. (3) 72. (1) 112. (2) 152. (3) 192. (3)
33. (2) 73. (4) 113. (1) 153. (3) 193. (3)
34. (4) 74. (3) 114. (1) 154. (3) 194. (4)
35. (1) 75. (1) 115. (3) 155. (1) 195. (1)
36. (3) 76. (1) 116. (2) 156. (2) 196. (2)
37. (4) 77. (2) 117. (4) 157. (3) 197. (3)
38. (3) 78. (2) 118. (4) 158. (3) 198. (1)
39. (3) 79. (3) 119. (4) 159. (3) 199. (3)
40. (4) 80. (1) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (4)

(1)
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

TEST-3

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

For Q.1 to Q.4

A B
Input 2 3
I 6 5
II 30 7
III 210 9
IV 1890 11
V 20790 13

1. Answer (3)

2. Answer (3)

3. Answer (4)

4. Answer (2)

5. Answer (3)

6. Answer (3)

A + K C + B  A is brother of K, K is father of C, C is brother of B.

7. Answer (3)

Total cubes – 3 faces painted.

8. Answer (3)

9. Answer (2)

a b
a × b + c2 = d c
d

10. Answer (2)

11. Answer (3)

(2)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

12. Answer (3)

P English Mumbai
Q Math Banglore
R Philosophy Delhi
S Hindi Jaipur
T Economics Chennai
13. Answer (1)
14. Answer (3)
15. Answer (2)
16. Answer (4)
17. Answer (3)
18. Answer (2)
19. Answer (3)
20. Answer (2)
21. Answer (4)
22. Answer (3)
42 + (2 + 3)2 = 41
62 + (4 + 3)2 = 85
23. Answer (2)
(6 – 3) × ( 5 – 1) = 12
(7 – 3) × (8 – 5) = 20
(7 – 2) × (6 – 3) = 15
24. Answer (2)
25. Answer (3)
13 – 12 = 0
23 – 22 = 4
33 – 32 = 18
43 – 42 = 48
63 – 62 = 180
73 – 72 = 294
26. Answer (1)
27. Answer (3)
28. Answer (2)
29. Answer (4)
30. Answer (3)
RAM 459
+ MART + 9540
9999 9999
31. Answer (2)
32. Answer (3)

(3)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)
33. Answer (2)
9 18 27 36 45 54 63 72 81 90
34. Answer (4)
53 – 13 = 40, 40 – 13 = 27
35. Answer (1)
160 m 160 m 160
t    16 s
40  4 36 km / h 10 m / s
36. Answer (3)
37. Answer (4)

3 * 9 = 31, 15 * 12 = 45, 18 * 9 = 36
3×1 3×3 3×5 3×4 3×6 3×3

38. Answer (3)

39. Answer (3)
40. Answer (4)
41. Answer (2)
42. Answer (2)
43. Answer (2)
44. Answer (2)
45. Answer (3)
46. Answer (3)

A D E

F B C

47. Answer (3)

48. Answer (2)
49. Answer (3)
50. Answer (1)
8 × 2 + 1 = 17, 17 × 2 + 2 = 36, 36 × 2 + 3 = 75
75 × 2 + 4 = 154, 154 × 2 + 5 = 313, 313 × 2 + 6 = 632

  

(4)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)

51. Answer (1)

52. Answer (4)
53. Answer (3)
54. Answer (2)
55. Answer (2)
56. Answer (4)
57. Answer (1)
58. Answer (3)
59. Answer (4)
60. Answer (2)
61. Answer (2)
Article error - ‘the’ required before ‘rural poor’
62. Answer (1)
Verb form error - ‘not to accept’ is the correct form of writing the infinitive
63. Answer (4)
64. Answer (2)
Tense error - ‘wouldn't have made’ is the correct tense usage
65. Answer (3)
Noun error - ‘institutions’ should be used
66. Answer (2)
67. Answer (4)
68. Answer (2)
69. Answer (3)
70. Answer (1)
71. Answer (4)
72. Answer (1)
73. Answer (4)
74. Answer (3)
75. Answer (1)
76. Answer (1)
77. Answer (2)
78. Answer (2)
79. Answer (3)
80. Answer (1)
81. Answer (4)
The other three are synonymous. ‘Deride’ means to ‘ridicule’ someone.

(5)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

82. Answer (2)

The other three are synonymous. ‘Obscure’ means ‘unclear, vague’.
83. Answer (1)
An ‘Amicable’ person has all the other three qualities.
84. Answer (1)
The other three are synonymous.
85. Answer (3)
86. Answer (4)
87. Answer (1)
88. Answer (3)
89. Answer (1)
90. Answer (3)
91. Answer (4)
92. Answer (4)
93. Answer (3)
94. Answer (3)
95. Answer (2)
Commission
96. Answer (1)
Coordinate
97. Answer (4)
Scheming
98. Answer (1)
99. Answer (3)
100. Answer (2)

  

(6)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. Answer (4)

v
B
2
F G
1
H
0 A 6C 8 E 10 t
2 4

The area under velocity-time graph gives displacement.

 Displacement = area (ABC) + area (CED) + area of rectangle EFGH

1 1
=  6  2   2(–2)  21
2 2

=6–2+2=6m
102. Answer (2)
We know that
v2 = u2 + 2gs h

 v2 = 2gh x
v

 v  2gh

If velocity becomes 2 times then

(2v)2 = v2 + 2gs
 4v2 = v2 + 2gs
 3v2 = 2gs
 3 × 2gh = 2gs
 s = 3h
So, distance it has to travel will be 3h + h = 4h
103. Answer (1)
m = 80 kg
a = 5 m/s2
N – mg = ma N
 N = ma + mg = m(a + g)
a
 N = 80 × (5 + 10) = 80 × 15 = 1200 N
So, the reading will be 1200 N. mg

(7)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)
104. Answer (3)
work done
Power =
time
mgh
 Power =
t

7.2104 10100
 P=  2104 W
3600
∵ Half is converted into power
 Power generated = 104 W or 10 kW
105. Answer (1)

m2r
 mg = m2r
mg

g
or 
r
106. Answer (2)
Electric work done
Potential difference = Charge
 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 25 = workdone
or workdone = 8 × 10–18 J
107. Answer (1)
Big drop
Small drop

R
r

K .Q
V=
r
K .Q
10 =
r
10 r
Q=
K
N 10 r
 Total charge = ...(i)
K
Volume of big drop = sum of volumes of small drops.
4 4
N    r 3    R 3
3 3
1
or R  N 3 r
Let Q be charge on big drop
K .Q
 V
R
40 R
Or Q   ...(ii)
K
∵ Charge is conserved

(8)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Comparing equation (i) & (ii) we get

N 10 r 40R

K K
Nr = 4R
 Nr = 4 × N1/3. r
Or N = 8
108. Answer (1)
Let R1  y 
R2  x 
y
1 1 1
  P Q
Req R1 R2
x
1 1 1
  
1.8 y x

1 xy
 
1.8 xy

 xy = 1.8(x + y)
Also x + y = 20 (Given) ...(i)
 xy = 1.8 × 20

36
or y ...(ii)
x
Putting value of (ii) in equation (i) we get

36
x  20
x
 x2 + 36 = 20x
 x2 – 20x + 36 = 0
or x = 2 or 18
 length of shorter section is 2 m
109. Answer (4)
For circular motion

mv 2
 qvB
r
qBr
 v
m
We know that
2r 2r  m
t 
v qBr
2m
 t
Bq
(9)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

110. Answer (2)

111. Answer (1)
Using Snell's law
n × sini = 1 × sin90°
1 3
sini = 
n 4
3 r
sini  i
4
3 3
tani   12 cm
2
(4)  (3) 2 7
i
Also
r 3
tani  
12 7
12 3
r
7
112. Answer (2)
Heat required for [Phase charge of ice + raise the temperature of water at 100°C]
miceLice + m.sw .T = mv .Lv (heat loss by steam)
 103 × 80 + 103 × 1 × 100 = mv.540 [mv = mass of steam converted to water]
 mv = 333 g
Total water = 1000 g + 333 g = 1333 g
113. Answer (1)
u = –
v = – 50 cm
1 1 1
  [Lens formula]
f v u
1 1 1
  
f –50 
 f = –50 cm

100 100
 P   –2D
f (cm) –50

114. Answer (1)

115. Answer (3)
116. Answer (2)
117. Answer (4)

15  100
Concentration of solution A (w/w%) = = 16.67%
90

25
Concentration of solution B (w/w%) = 16.67 = weight of solution  100

(10)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions
 Weight of solution = 149.97
So, weight of solvent = 149.97 – 25.00
= 124.97  125
The ratio of solute to solvent in solution B
= 25 : 125 = 1 : 5
118. Answer (4)
119. Answer (4)
120. Answer (2)
121. Answer (3)
122. Answer (4)
123. Answer (3)
124. Answer (2)
125. Answer (2)
126. Answer (1)
127. Answer (3)
Lac i gene synthesizes repressor molecule which binds to the operator.
128. Answer (1)
129. Answer (4)
Polycythaemia is abnormal rise in RBCs and thrombocytopenia is a low count of platelets.
130. Answer (2)
White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red are exotic breeds of poultry.
131. Answer (1)
Zygote is formed by the fusion of male and female gametes. It undergoes cleavage to form morula (8-cell stage)
and blastocyst which implants in the uterus.
132. Answer (3)
Lichen is a symbiotic association of fungi and algae. It is the indicator of SO2 pollution.
133. Answer (1)
134. Answer (1)
w = s + p
135. Answer (4)
Workers are the most active member of the beehive and they are diploid.
136. Answer (3)
137. Answer (2)
--AA/BB-- gives green colour.
--Aa/Bb-- gives yellow colour.
BBAa/BbAA - gives brown colour.
bbaa gives black colour.
138. Answer (1)
Pusa Bold and Pusa Lerma are the HYV of mustard and wheat, respectively.
139. Answer (4)
Polythene bag, broken glass mugs, aluminium foil and plastic cups are non-biodegradable.
140. Answer (2)
Mitochondrion produces ATP, the energy currency of the cell. Mitochondrion was discovered by Kolliker and
named by Benda.

(11)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

SECTION-II
141. Answer (3)

2
⎛r⎞ ⎛r⎞
p⎜ ⎟  q⎜ ⎟  r = 0
⎝ p⎠ ⎝ p⎠

r2 r
 p  2
 q r =0
p p

r2 + qr + pr = 0
p + q + r = 0 [∵ r 0]
– (p + q + r) = 0
p – 2q + q – 2r + r – 2p = 0
(p – 2q)3 + (q – 2r)3 + (r – 2p)3 = 3(p – 2q)(q – 2r)(r – 2p)
Now, p + 3r = – q – r + 3r = –(q – 2r)
q + 3p = – p – r + 3p = 2p – r = – (r – 2p)
r + 3q = – p – q + 3q = 2q – p = – (p – 2q)

( p  2q )3  (q  2r )3  ( r  2 p )3 3( p  2q )(q  2r )(r  2p )
 = = –3
( p  3r )(q  3 p )(r  3q )  ( p  2q )(q  2r )(r  2 p)
142. Answer (2)
In QTS, UV || TS [Given]
QU QV
= ...(i) [By BPT] P
QT QS
In QTV, UR || TV T
QU QR U
= ...(ii) [By BPT]
QT QV
From (i) and (ii), we get Q
R V S
QR QV
= (QV)2 = QR.QS
QV QS

 144 = QR.QS
As QS > QR, therefore, the possible pairs of lengths of QR and QS are (1 cm, 144 cm), (2 cm, 72 cm),
(3 cm, 48 cm), (4 cm, 36 cm), (6 cm, 24 cm), (8 cm, 18 cm) and (9 cm, 16 cm).
143. Answer (1)
Volume of 1 packet of apple juice = 12 × 5 × 4 = 240 mL = 0.24 L

6 ⎞
Cost of 1 litre of juice = `⎛⎜ = ` 25
⎝ 0.24 ⎟⎠

22
Volume of 1 can of cold drink =  14  2.5  2.5 = 275 mL = 0.275 L
7
⎛ 11 ⎞
Cost of 1 litre of cold drink = `⎜⎝ ⎟ = ` 40
0.275 ⎠
Required difference = ` (40 – 25) = ` 15

(12)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

144. Answer (4)

= 1 =  cosec    cot  
2 3 2 3
cosec2 – cot2 3 3

1 =  2
cosec 
3 
2
cot 
3  4
cosec 
3 
4
cot 
3 
2
cosec 
3
2
cot 
3 
3
3
 1 2 = n
2 ⎛ 3 ⎞

3 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠  4
cosec 3  
4
cot 3  
2
cosec 3 
2
 cot 3   2

3


1
n 1
=  4
cosec 3  
4
cot 3  
2
cosec 3 
2
 cot 3   2
=n

145. Answer (3)

2
Let the length of 1st train and 2nd train be x and x respectively.
3
Relative speed = (48 + 42) km/h = 25 m/s
⎛ 2x ⎞
⎜⎝ x  3 ⎟⎠
x
 = 12  = 12 x = 180 m
25 15

2
Length of 2nd train =  180 = 120 m
3
Let the length of the platform be y.

5 40
Speed of 1st train = 48  = m/s
18 3
3
 (180  y )  = 45 540 + 3y = 1800
40
y = 420 m

146. Answer (1)

xn + an is always divisible by x + a when n is an odd positive integer.

147. Answer (3)

1315 = Nq1 + r ...(i)

4675 = Nq2 + r ...(ii)

6915 = Nq3 + r ...(iii)

3360 = N(q2 – q1) [(ii) – (i)]

2240 = N(q3 – q2) [(iii) – (ii)]

5600 = N(q3 – q1) [(iii) – (i)]

Clearly, N is the HCF of 3360, 2240 and 5600 which is equal to 1120.

Here, required remainder = 195

Sum of the digits of the remainder = 1 + 9 + 5 = 15

(13)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

148. Answer (2)

Given, x = 5at2, y = 10at

dx dy
 = 10at and = 10a
dt dt
dy
dy dt 10a 1
 = dx = =
dx 10at t
dt
149. Answer (1)

2x + 2y = 180° [Cointerior angles of a parallelogram]

D C
x + y = 90° x
x 12
z = 90° cm
DEA is a right angled triangle.

192 1 z E
Now, area of AED = =  12  AE
2 2
y
AE = 16 cm y
A B
2 2
DA = 16  12 = 20 cm

Now, the circumcentre of a right angled triangle is the mid-point of the hypotenuse. So, the radius of the
circumcircle = 10 cm

Area of the circumcircle = r2 = 100 cm2

150. Answer (2)

x2 – 5x + 6 = (x – 3)(x – 2) = 0 x = 2, 3

So, one root of the 2nd equation is either 4 or 6.

Now, for equation x2 – 3kx + 30 = 0,

+ = 3k, = 30

For = 4, 4 ×  = 30

 = 30/4 (Not possible)

Now, for  = 6, 6 ×  = 30 = 5

11
+  = 3k 6 + 5 = 3k  k =
3
151. Answer (1)

ab
= 3 ab  a + b = 6 ab
2
a2 + b2 + 2ab = 36ab

a b
a2 + b2 = 34ab   = 34
b a

(14)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

a 1
Let = t  t  = 34 t2 – 34t + 1 = 0
b t
34  1156  4
t =
2
= 17  12 2

a
 = 17  12 2
b

32 2
Now, = 17  12 2
32 2
A(2, 4)
152. Answer (3)

⎛ 2  6  2 4  4  0⎞ ⎛ 10 8 ⎞ c b
Coordinates of centroid = ⎜⎝ , ⎟⎠ = ⎜⎝ , ⎟⎠
3 3 3 3
⎛ ax1  bx2  cx3 ay1  by 2  cy 3 ⎞ a
Coordinates of incentre = ⎜⎝ , B(6, 4) C(2, 0)
abc abc ⎟⎠

⎛ 4 2  2  4  6  4  2 4 2  4  4  4  4  0⎞
= ⎜
⎝ 4 244
,
4 244 ⎠

⎟ = 6  2 2, 2 2 
⎛ 10 8⎞
62 2 2 2 ⎛ 14  3 2 4  3 2 ⎞
⎜ 3 3⎟ = ⎜ , ⎟⎠
Coordinates of the required mid-point = ⎜ , ⎟ ⎝ 3 3
⎝ 2 2 ⎠
153. Answer (3)
CE = 7 cm

EO = 252  72
C
25 cm D
= 625  49  576 = 24 cm
7 cm O
Now, ABOC is a trapezium. 16 cm E
9 cm
1
 Its area = (16  9)  24
2 A
B
= 12 × 25 = 300 cm2
154. Answer (3)
155. Answer (1)
156. Answer (2)
157. Answer (3)
158. Answer (3)
Construct BP as the bisector of ABC meeting AC at P.
Now, PBC = PCB = y BP = PC
In ABP and DCP,
ABP = DCP = y
BP = PC [Proved above]
AB = CD [Given]

(15)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A)

ABP  DCP [By SAS congruence criterion] A

BAP = PDC = 3x [CPCT]
2x x
Also, AP = PD [CPCT] P

PAD = PDA = x
y
y y
Now,ADC = ADP + PDC B C
D
= x + 3x = 4x
Also, ADC = ABD + BAD [∵ Exterior angle property of a triangle]
= 2y + 2x
4x = 2y + 2x  2x = 2y x = y
In ABC,
2y + 3x + y = 180° [By Angle sum property of a triangle]
6x = 180°
x = y = 30°
ACB = 30°
159. Answer (3)
Area of the triangle can be obtained by Heron's formula.

30  56  82 168
Here, s = = = 84 m
2 2 30 m 56 m

Area = 84(84  30)(84  82)(84  56)

= 504 m2 82 m
Area of the circular pond = 63 m2
Remaining area = 504 m2 – 63 m2 = 441 m2
According to the question,
441 × (16 – x) = 63 × x
7(16 – x) = x
112 – 7x = x
112 = 8x
x = 14
160. Answer (3)

SECTION-III
161. Answer (3)
162. Answer (3)
163. Answer (2)
164. Answer (3)
165. Answer (1)
166. Answer (3)
167. Answer (3)
168. Answer (3)

(16)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-3 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

169. Answer (2)

170. Answer (3)
171. Answer (4)
172. Answer (3)
173. Answer (1)
174. Answer (2)
175. Answer (3)
176. Answer (2)
177. Answer (3)
178. Answer (3)
179. Answer (4)
180. Answer (1)
181. Answer (3)
182. Answer (1)
183. Answer (2)
184. Answer (3)
185. Answer (1)
186. Answer (2)
187. Answer (1)
188. Answer (2)
189. Answer (4)
190. Answer (3)
191. Answer (2)
192. Answer (3)
193. Answer (3)
194. Answer (4)
195. Answer (1)
196. Answer (2)
197. Answer (3)
198. Answer (1)
199. Answer (3)
200. Answer (4)

  

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