D.S.

S AIIMS PREPRATION TEST SERIES

490. Cluster testing is the term used during:
(c) Influenza-B
(a) UIP Survey for polio
(d) Influenza-C
(b) Screening for STD’s
(c) Exposing the body for hypopigmented patches 500. Animal to man transmission seen in:
(d) Testing contacts of typhoid cases (a) Rabies
(b) Japanese encephalitis
491. Incubation period less than few hours:
(c) HIV
(a) Hepatitis – A
(d) Mumps
(b) Food poisoning
(e) Tetanus
(c) Influenza
(d) Rabies 501. Vector borne diseases are:
(a) Epidemic typhus
492. Arboviral disease are:
(b) Japanese encephalitis
(a) Yellow fever
(c) Tetanus
(b) Epidemic typhus
(d) Hanta virus disease
(c) Japanese encephalitis
(e) KFD
(d) Kalaazar
(e) HIV 502. Viruses documented to cause fetal damage: Com
(a) Hepatitis B m
493. Zoonosis is/are:
(b) Varicella un
(a) Anthrax
(c) Measles ic
(b) Brucellosis
(d) Parvovirus ab
(c) Leptospirosis
(d) Caga’s disease 503. Which of the following is not transmitted by lice? le
(e) Tularaemia (a) Trench fever an
(b) Relapsing fever d
494. Post exposure prophylaxis in health care professional
(c) Q fever N
is indicated in infections with:
(d) Epidemic typhus on
(a) HBV (b) Rabies
(c) Diphtheria (d) Measles 504. False about Japanese Encephalitis is: -
(e) Tetanus (a) Pigs are amplifiers for flavirirus co
(b) Overhead tanks severe as breeding sites m
495. Epidemic caused by type A arbovirus in India is: (c) Transmitted by culex mosquitoes m
(a) Chikungunya (d) Primary doses of vaccine consists of two doses un
(b) KFD
505. Mass prophylaxis is given for all except: ic
(c) Yellow Fever
(a) Lymphatic filariasis ab
(d) Dengue
(b) Vitamin A deficiency le
496. Subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis is associated (c) Scabies Di
with: (d) Worm infestation se
(a) Mumps (b) Measles as
(c) Rubella (d) Typhoid 506. Modes of transmission of amoebiasis are all except:
(e) Diphtheria (a) Faecal-oral
(b) Oro-rectal
497. Karatomalacia is seen in which of the following (c) Vertical transmission
diseas- es: (d) Through cockroaches
(a) Measles
(b) Diarrhea 507. Arthropod borne disease not seen in India is:
(c) Mumps (a) West Nile Fever
(d) Rubella (b) Dengue infection
(e) Chickenpox (c) Kyasanur Forest Disease
(d) Yellow Fever
498. Keratomalacia is seen which of the following
infection: 508. Carrier state is not important in transmission of:
(a) Chickenpox (a) Typhoid
(b) HIV (b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Diarrhea (c) Measles
(d) Measles (d) Diphtheria
(e) Tuberculosis 509. All are true about Yaws except:
499. Pandemics are caused by: (a) Caused by Treponema pertenue
(a) Hepatitis-B (b) Transmitted non-venerally
(b) Influenza-A (c) Secondary Yaws can involve bones
(d) Later stages involve heart and nerves
 510. Tetracycline is used in the prophylaxis of: 520. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?
(a) Cholera (a) Hydatid cyst
(b) Brucellosis (b) Malaria
(c) Leptospirosis (c) Filariasis
(d) Meningitis (d) Dengue fever
511. Maternal antibodies do not occur for: 521. Subclinical infection is seen in all except:
(a) Polio (a) Mumps
(b) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Whooping cough (c) Measles
(d) Tetanus (d) Rubella
512. Brucellosis is transmitted by: 522. Zoonotic disease(s) transmitted by arthropods is/ are:
(a) Cattle (a) Plague
(b) Camel (b) Melidioses
(c) Sheep (c) Rabies
(d) Goat (d) Leishmaniasis
(e) Dogs (e) Anthrax
513. Arboviral infection(s) include: 523. Second attack rate is minimum in:
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(a) Chikungunya fever (a) TB

(b) West Nile fever (b) Diphtheria
(c) JE (c) Measles
(d) Sandfly fever (d) Whooping cough
(e) Malaria
524. Post-exposure prophylaxis exist for all except:
514. Which is not transmitted by Aedes aegypti? (a) Measles
(a) Yellow fever (b) Hepatitis C
(b) Dengue (c) Varicella Zoster
(c) Japanese encephalitis (d) HIV
(d) Filariasis
525. Scabies treatment(s) include:
515. Maternal antibodies are present in the newborn (a) Gammexene
against all of the following disease except: (b) Crotamiton
(a) Diphtheria (c) 5% Permethrin
(b) Tetanus (d) Isoniazid
(c) Pertussis (e) Sulphur ointment
(d) Measles
526. Zoonotic disease of viral etiology include:
516. Mass prophylaxis not done in: (a) Q fever
(a) Scabies (b) Rickettsiae disease
(b) Lymphatic
537. Saddleback filariasis
fever is known as (c) Rabies
(c)
Brucellosis Vitamin A deficiency (d) Rubella
Dengue(d)fever
Worm infestation
527. Prophylaxis for anthrax:
Malaria fever
(a) Erythromycin
Typhoid fever
(b) Doxycycline
Chemoprophylaxis is not required in (c) Penicillin
Conjunctivitis (d) Vancomycin
Meningitis
528. Isolation period, false is:
518. Incubation period of which disease is less than 7 days:
Measles
(a) Chicken pox – 6 days after onset of rash
(a) Cholera Plague
(b) Herpes zoster – 6 days after onset of rash
(b) Measles
Following is NOT caused by virus
(c) Measles – up to 3 days after onset of rash
(c) Leishmaniasis
Rocky mountain spotted fever
(d) German measles – 7 days after onset of rash
(d) Mumps KFD
Dengue 529. Lyme disease is transmitted by:
519. Dome shaped centrally umbilicated papules seen in:
Yellow fever (a) Rat flea
(a) Chicken pox
(b) Tick
(b) Small pox
(c) Mite
(c) Measles
(d) Mosquito
(d) Molluscum contagiosum

(d) Drug of choice is Penicillin (a) B

530. True about Leptospirosis is/ are: (e) Is a Spirochaetal disease ic
(a) It is a Zoonosis p
531. Following are examples of human “dead
(b) Incubation period is 2-3 months (b) Ja
end” disease except:
(c) Transmission occurs through direct skin contact s
 encephalitis
(c) Hydatid disease
(d) Leishmaniasis 540. Transplacental transmission is not seen in
532. Chemoprophylaxis is not required in is: (a) Hepatitis A
(a) Typhoid (b) Hepatitis B
(b) Meningococcal meningitis (c) HIV
(c) Bacterial conjunctivitis (d) Varicella
(d) Malaria 541. Regarding Non-industrial anthrax, true is/ are
533. Which disease does not occur as seasonal variation? (a) Common in veterinarians
(a) Measles (b) Seasonal pattern
(b) Rubella (c) Common in butchers
(c) Gastroenteritis (d) Cutaneous form most common
(d) Cerebra meningitis (e) More commonly inhalational than industrial form
534. The following fall under the category of enzootic ex- 542. Not true about Ebola virus is
cept: (a) Caused by ss Negative strand RNA virus
(a) Influenza (b) Bats most likely reservoir
(b) Anthrax (c) Incubation period is less than 48 hours
(c) Brucellosis (d) Sexual transmission possible
(d) Endemic typhus (e) Oseltamivir is quite effective in treatment
535. Tick borne relapsing fever is caused by? 543. Zoonoses include
(a) Borrelia recurrentis (a) Plague
(b) Borrelia burgdorferi (b) Rabies
(c) Rickettsia prowazeki (c) Anthrax
(d) Borellia hermsii (d) Tetanus
(e) Brucellosis
536. Viral hemorrhagic fever(s) seen in India is/ are:
(a) KFD 544. Incubation period less than 5 days is
(b) Dengue fever (a) Influenza
(c) Crimean Congo fever (b) Salmonella typhi
(d) Yellow fever (c) Vibrio parahemolyticus
(e) Hanta fever (d) Yersinia
(e) Swine flu
545. Metazoonoses include
(a) Plague
(b) Rabies
(c) Schistosomiasis
(d) Brucellosis
(e) Yellow fever

Review Questions

546. Cluster testing is useful in detecting cases of:

(a) STD
(b) Cancer
(c) Diabetes
(d) Measles
547. Staphycoccous food poisoning causes all except:
(a) Due to enterotoxin
(b) IP below 6 hours
(c) Sudden onset
(d) Fever common
548. Inclusion body in neuron is seen in:
(a) Rabies
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Yellow fever
(d) Japanese encephalitis
335
 549. Man is dead end for: 559. Shortest Incubation period is associated with:
(a) Tetanus, measles (a) Influenza
(b) Measles, yellow fever (b) Cholera
(c) Tetanus, yellow fever (c) Syphilis
(d) Rabies, tetanus (d) AIDS
550. Carrier state is seen in following except: 560. Disease transmitted by water is:
(a) Diphtheria (a) Hepatitis B
(b) Measles (b) Polio
(c) Typhoid (c) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Polio (d) Dengue fever
551. Agent can be used in bioterrorism: 561. Which of the following flavi virus is closely related to
(a) Plague Russian spring summer encephalitis causing virus:
(b) Typhoid (a) Dengue
(c) Streptococcus (b) Chikungunya
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(d) Staph. aureus (c) KFD

(d) Yellow fever
552. Incubation period is less than one week in:
(a) Cholera 562. Which statement is not true in arboviral disease?
(b) Enteric fever (a) Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by culex
(c) Hepatitis B (b) KFD is transmitted by Ticks
(d) Chickenpox (c) Filariasis is transmitted by Aedes mosquito
(d) Dengue is transmitted by Aedes mosquito
553. Sub acute-Sclerosing pan – encephalitis (SSP(E) is
caused by: 563. All of the following are Anthropozoonotic Diseases ex-
(a) Measles cept:
(b) Mumps (a) Plague
(c) Rubella (b) Rabies
(c) Hydatid cyst
(d) Smallpox
(d) Dracunculosis
554. Clinical features of Botulism are all Except:
564. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae infection is transmit-
(a) Diarrhea
ted by the following animals:
(b) Dysarthria
(a) Rats
(c) Ocular nerve paralysis
(b) Dogs
(d) Blurring of vision
(c) Birds
555. Pleomorphism is seen in: (d) Bats
(a) Chickenpox 565. Patients are to be isolated in all of the following dis-
(b) Rubella eases except:
(c) Smallpox (a) AIDS (b) Smallpox
(d) Toxocara (c) Anthrax (d) Plague
556. Amphixenosis is: 566. Cyclops is an intermediate host for:
(a) Ascaris lumbricoidis (a) Guinea worm
(b) Entrobius - vermicularis (b) Malaria
(c) Anthrax (c) Rabies
(d) T. cruzi (d) Salmonella
557. Following are examples of human “dead end” disease 567. Tick-borne disease is:
Except: (a) Tularemia
(a) Bubonic plague (b) Q fever
(b) Japanese encephalitis (c) Relapsing fever
(c) Hydatid disease (d) Rocky mountain spotted fever
(d) Leishmaniasis
568. Aedes transmit which of the following disease in
558. All are zoonotic disease Except: India:
(a) Brucellosis (a) Dengue
336 (b) Leptospirosis (b) Chikungunya fever
(c) Scabies (c) Malaria/Filaria
(d) Rabies (d) Japanese encephalitis
569. Cyclopropogative cycle is seen is
579. Plague is what type of zoonosis?
(a) Malaria
(a) Cyclozoonosis
(b) Filaria
(b) Direct zoonosis
(c) Yellow fever
(c) Sapro-zoonosis
(d) Plague
(d) Meta Zoonosis
570. Food poisoning is caused by all except:
580. Which is not a zoonotic disease?
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(a) Brucellosis
(b) Clostridium difficile
(b) Malaria
(c) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
(c) Rabies
(d) Bacillus cereus
(d) Trichinoses
571. Incubation period in staphy lococcal food poisoning:
(a) 1-6 hours 581. Which is not a zoonotic disease?
(b) 6-12 hours (a) Tetanus
(c) 16-18 hours (b) Rabies
(d) 24 hours (c) Brucellosis
(d) Hydatid disease
572. Isolation is not useful in:
582. Shortest incubation period is of: Com
(a) Polio
(b) Cholera (a) Diphtheria m
(c) Measles (b) Rubella un
(d) Diphtheria (c) Smallpox ic
(d) Chickenpox ab
573. Which of the following is most prevalent presently in le
India: 583. Which one of the following is an Index of communica-
bility of an Infection? an
(a) Polio
(a) Carrier rate
d
(b) Dracunculiasis
(c) Plague (b) Prevalence rate N
(d) Kala-azar (c) Secondary attack rate on
(d) Primary attack rate -
574. Man is a dead end host in all of the following co
infections except: m
(a) Teniasis CORONARY HEART DISEASE
m
(b) Rabies
un
(c) Japanese encephalitis 584. Following dietary changes are advised to reduce
(d) Tetanus
ic
prevalence of coronary heart disease except:
ab
575. Iceberg phenomena is seen in all except: le
(a) Leprosy (a) Increased complex carbohydrate intake Di
(b) Rabies (b) Saturated fat intake less than 10% of total energy in- se
(c) Hypertension take as
(d) Tuberculosis (c) Salt intake less than 20g/day
576. Antigenic shift and drift occurs in: (d) Reduce fat intake to 20-30% of total energy intake
(a) Measles 585. Which one of the following statements about influence
(b) Mumps of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is
(c) Influenza not true?
(d) Rubella (a) Risk of death from CHD decreases from cessation of
577. Yaws is a disease caused by: smoking
(a) Treponema Pertenue (b) Filters provide a protective effect for CHD
(b) Treponema Pallidum (c) Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk fac-
(c) Treponema Carateum tors for CHD
(d) Trypanosoma Cruzi (d) Influence of smoking is directly related to number
of
578. Due to epidemiological reasons chemoprophylaxis is cigarettes smoked per day
most impractical in the control of:
(a) Measles 586. Which of the following is maximally associated with
(b) Cholera Coronary heart disease?
(c) Diphtheria (a) HDL (b) VLDL
(d) Tuberculosis (c) LDL (d) Chylomicrons
337
 587. Which of the following is not a dietary modification
595. Modifiable risk factors for hypertension is?
recommended in high risk cardiovascular group?
(a) LDL cholesterol less than 100 mg/dL (a) Ethinicity
(b) Avoid alcohol
(b) Age
(c) Saturated fat intake 7% of total calories (c) Sex
(d) Salt intake less than 5 grams (d) Obesity
588. Inability to perform any work without discomfort is
(a) NYHA 1
(b) NYHA 2
(c) NYHA 3
(d) NYHA 4

Review Questions RHEUMATIC FEVER

589. All are true for coronary heart disease in India com- 597. All of the following statements about rheumatic fever/
pared to west except: heart disease epidemiology in India are true except
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(a) Increasing
(b) Decreasing (a) Its prevalence varies between 2 to 11 per 1000 chil-
(c) Common in younger age dren aged 5-16 years
(d) None (b) Mitral regurgitation is the commonest cardiac lesion
590. False about coronary heart disease: seen
(a) Indian CHD occurs 1 decade later than Western (c) It occurs equally in females and males
CHD (d) Rheumatic fever occurs in about 2% of streptococcal
(b) Heavy cigarette smoking is a risk factor sore throats
(c) Males are affected more than females 598. All are true about Rheumatic Fever in India except:
(d) None
591. All of the following are true about coronary heart dis- (a) RF is reported in 1-3 % of streptococcal infections
eases in India except: (b) More commonly seen in 5-15 years age group
(a) Smoking predisposition seen (c) Except carditis, other manifestations do not cause
(b) Mean age of patient is 10-20 years more than that of permanent damage
western (d) In Revised Jones’ Criteria, evidence of preceding
(c) Seen more in males streptococcal infection is taken for last 21 days
(d) DM predisposition to MI is seen 599. All of the following are Major criteria of Jones in
592. Best-know large sample study programme for coronary Rheu- matic fever except:
heart disease is: (a) Pancarditis
(a) Framingham study (b) Arthritis
(b) North kerelia study (c) Chorea
(c) Standford study (d) Elevated ESR
(d) Oxford study 600. Not included among major criteria in acute rheumatic
593. Modifiable risk factors in coronary artery disease are all fever is:
Except: (a) Erythema marginatum
(a) Personality (b) Smoking (b) Polyarthralgia
(c) Obesity (d) Hypertension (c) Chorea
(d) Pancarditis

HYPERTENSION
CANCERS
594. True about hypertension, the primary prevention
includes: 601. The most common cancer affecting Indian urban
(a) Weight reduction women in Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai is:
(b) Exercise promotion (a) Cervical cancer
(c) Reduction of salt intake (b) Ovarian cancer
(d) Early diagnosis of hypertension (c) Breast cancer
(e) Self care (d) Uterine cancer
338