1.

stiffness of tongue, skin indurations, difficulty in mouth opening is characteristic

of:
a. malignancy
b. scleroderma

2. hyper-mobile teeth, loss of lamina dura:

a. scleroderma
b. hyperparathyroidism

3. hypercementosis is characteristic of:

a. paget’s disease
b. hyperparathyroidism
c. hypoparathyrodisim

4. multiple giant cell is found in:

a. hyperparathyrodisim
b. hypoparathyrodism
• brown tumor --- giant cell granuloma with hyperparathyrodisim

5. osteosarcoma differ from fibrous dysplasia in that:

a. invade soft tissue
b. difficult to irradiate from normal bone
c. diffuse in x-ray

6. white lesion on buccal mucosa disappear when stretching mucosa:

a. leukodema
b. white spongy nevus

7. sickle cell anaemia:

a. genetic
b. drug …

8. hypochromic anaemia:
a. iron deficiency
b. vitamin B12
c. ferus dif.

9. red atrophic tongue associated with:

a. burning sensation
b. nutritional deficiency
c. anaemia

10. leukaemia ginigival enlargement due to:

a. fragility of vessels
b. cell infilteration—also infiltration of organs(spleen, liver, lymph nodes)
11. all of the following are associated with leukaemia, except:
a. increase white blood cell—increase infection—no functioning
granulocytes
b. reduced bleeding time
c. cycloneutropenia-- tends to occur every three weeks and lasting
three to six days at a time due to changing rates of cell production
by the bone marrow.---they dies before their cycle.
d. anaemia complicated by autoimmune hemolytic anaemia
e. bleeding from gingival—thrombocytopenia (decrease thrombin)—
petechiae and ecchymosis
f. lab finding—Leukocytosis—more then 10:000 –30:000
g. immature form (myloblast and lymphoblast and predominant in acute
h. and (granulocyt and lymphpcyte are predominating in chronic form)
12. before exo. patient with warfarin:
a. prothrombin time
b. INR (international normalized ratio) (BOTH CHOESES CAME IN THE
SAME POINT)

13. mechanism of action of salcilic acid:

a. inhibition prostaglandin

14. intra epithelial vesicle is found in:

a. pemphigus
b. erythmiamultiforme

15. butterfly rash on face:

a. lepus
b. erythmiamultiforme

16. prolonged steroid therapy:

a. candida

17. aspirin all except:

a. antiinflamatory
b. antipyretic
c. stop bleeding
d. analgesic

18. intravenous injection of valium may damage which art…

a. brachial
b. deepbrachial
c. ulnar
 d. cubital

19. fracture in mandible associated with:

a. malocclusion
b. diplopia
c. nose bleeding
d. orbit swelling

20. injection of infraorbital region cause anaesthesia in all except:

a. cojuctiva & lower eye lid
b. upper lip mucosa
c. lateral wall of maxillary sinus
d. zygomatic region
e. central zone of nose – f. upper lateral incisor
21. to block the 2nd division of trigeminal nerve, injection must be:
a. foramen ovale
b. foramin spinosum
c. infraorbital fossae
d. pterygopalatine fissure

22. which of the following bacteria anaerobic:

a. clostridia
b. diplococci
c. staph.
d. Mycobact.

23. caffeine mode of action:

a. cerebral centre
b. hypothalamus
c. carpus celusim

24. …..

25. multiple oseoma & caffe au lait:

a. gardner’s disease---supernumerary teeth and osteoma
multiple osteomas associated with colonic polyposis, hereditary
dominant condition, comprises multiple osteomas, cutaneous and
soft tissue tumors and polyposis coli.at age of 15ys.—colon

b.
c.
d. Albright syndrome---this is the answer
Café au lait spots

Neurofibromatosis
McCone –albright syndrome
Facuni’s anemia
Tuberous sclerosis
26. dense in dente*Dens invaginatus)invagintion of enamel organ before
calcification.
a. anterior teeth—lateral maxillary incisor.and supernumerary teeth.

27. endomorph
a. short and fat

28. mid-face pocket depth measurement in the oral mucosa indicate:

a. no attached gingiva

29. desquamation of gingival is:

a. normal turnover
b. inflammation
c. developmental anomalies
Desquamative gingivitis may occur during menopause. It is characterized by
deep red, painful gingival tissue that bleeds easily. Vesicles may precede
desquamation. The gingiva is soft because the keratinized cells that resist
abrasion by food particles are absent. A similar gingival lesion may be
associated with pemphigus vulgaris, bullous pemphigoid, benign mucous
membrane pemphigoid, or atrophic lichen planus.

http://www.merck.com/mmpe/print/sec08/ch095/ch095c.html

30. most reliable sign of inflammation of gingival is:

a. oedema
b. bleeding

31. in normal healthy gum, measurement of pocket depth probe should stop at:
a. coronal to the epithelial attachment

32. in angular bone loss, alveolar crest is on:

a. not parallel to adjacent CEJ
b. 2 – 3 mm apical to the CEJ
c. 4 mm or more apical to the CEJ

33. chronic gingivitis, the epithelial attachment is:

a. normal barrier for bacteria I think this (not permeable to bacteria)
b. permeable to bacterial toxin
c. degeneration & ulceration I think (and proliferation)
d. inflammation
e. all the above
34. chronic periodontitis the cells are:
a. llympho & plasma
b. lympho & histocyte

35. occlusal forces:

a. initiate gum recission
b. gum bleeding
c. affect the progression of periodontitis

36. cellulitis is
a. described stage of late infection
b. diffused inflammation-- -A spreading inflammation of subcutaneous
or connective tissue.
-diffuse and especially subcutaneous inflammation of connective
tissue
-an inflammation of body tissue (especially that below the skin)
characterized by fever and swelling and redness and pain
-A spreading inflammation of subcutaneous or connective tissue.

c. inflammation of cellulite
d. rapid proliferation of bacteria

37. in pedo, the early sign of pulp infection is detected:

a. on furcation

38. bruxism caused by:

a. A delta & C fibers

39. the plane of condylar inclination in protrusive, on articulator:

a. condylar shape
b. parallel to Franfurt plane
c. mechanical inclination of condyle
d. parallel to occlusal plane
e. benette movement
cusp of spee is meausured from lower canine cusp and molar .
40. in endodontic:
a. straight access to apex

41. difficulty in root planning due to anatomics is

a. mesial of maxillary 1st premolar

42. difficulty in placing the matrix band due to concavity in

 a. mesial of maxillary 1st premolar

43. last primary tooth to erupt is:

a. maxillary canine
b. mandibular 2nd molar

44. most reliable tooth loos due to perio:

a. maxillary molar—I think this is the answer
b. mandibular incisor
c. upper premolars
d. lower premolars

45. coronoid process superimposes which tooth in peri apical radio:

a. maxillary 3rd molar
b. mandibular 2nd molar

46. loss of sensation around mandibular nerve associated with removal of:
a. deep impacted 3rd molar
b. torus mandibularis

47. parasthesia in lower lip is seen in

a. fracture of canine area OR metastasis carcinoma in body of mandible

48. shape of the buccal flange of mandibular denture is determined by

a. masseter
b. buccinators XXX
c. external oblique ridge
(this question is found in national board exam)

49. stability of mandibular denture in distofacial flange associated with

a. masseter
b. buccinator

50. difficulty in exo of 3rd molar with pericoronitis:

a. bactermia
b. difficult anaesthesia
c. spread of infection

51. the most powerful muscle of mastication is

a. temporalis
b. masseter
 52. light film result from
a. cold developer

53. excessive dark film result from

a. overdeveloping

54. when distance is doubled, the time of exposure is multibly by 4.

a. quadriple
If you have a distance increased by 2 you have to double it like 2 by 2 =4.
1---------2 measure to 2 feet ….from 2-------3 measure to 4 feet. (x)2
5 sec (exposure time) 20 sec.(exposure time)

Distance (x)2 ,so if you have 2 feet and two distances you have 4.
And if you know the exposure time is 5 by 4=20.

if you have 3 distances,then 3 by 3 is 9…..and

If you know the time is 5 sec then 5 by 9=40 sec for the exposure time for the
3 distnaces.

55. exo for pregnant in 4th month, x-ray:

a. should be taken
b. not taken
c. only if exo is difficult
d. only “pa” should be taken
(there is answer when the patient needs that)
56. for a child protection from radiation:
a. lead aprone
b. speed film
c. low KpV & high mA
we can choose both

57. acute herpetic stomatogingivitis in immuno suppressant patient, should be given:

a. orabase
b. antiviral---this is the only correct answer here in this case.
c. cortisone 5 ml
d. antihistamine-----for primay herpetic gingivostomatitis.
58. broad spectrum antibiotic for 4 weeks cause
a. candida

59. when cementing crown with zinc phosphate

a. tooth should be dry
b. apply pressure

60. zinc phosphate cement:

a. mechanical bonding
61. zinc carboxylate cement
a. chemical bonding

62. root carries treatment

a. glass inomer

63. patient with fracture in enamel only, vitality test negative

a. necrotic of pulp
b. observation & examine later

64. abnormally intruded primary teeth, treatment is:

a. exo
b. surgical repositioning
c. allow to erupt
d. root canal treatment

65. hypomaturation in upper central due to

a. trauma of primary

66. patient with 32 has developed cingulum fissure very stained asymptomatic vital,
treatment is
a. no treatment
b. fissure sealant

67. patient with caries in 1/3 of enamel seen on bite wing, treatment is
a. composite
b. amalgam
c. fluoride

68. smooth surface caries begin on localized area in:

a. outer surface of dentin
b. outer surface of enamel

69. to get sharp image, which factor should change:

a. object film distance
b. KpV & mA
c. Increase Source film distance

70. sensitivity in root is explained by:

 a. hydrodynamic

71. first sign of dry socket

a. bleeding
b. pain
c. pus

72. deep pits & fissure if child sealant

a. sealant or amalgum

73. enamel rods in primary teeth is directed

a. horizontally
b. vertically
c. gingivaly

74. pin for amalgum should be

a. perpendicular to pulpal floor
b. parallel to external contour of restoration
c. parallel to external contour of root

75. glass inomer restorative material for anterior teeth is used:

a. more aesthetic
b. less soluble
c. anticariogenic

76. composite in lab is better than composite filling because:

a. more smooth
b. better margin adhesion
c. polymerization shrinkage is more controlled

77. silane couple bonding is used with veneer ??/??

a. ……

I don’t remember the question but I remember the answer was silane couple agent

78. the crucial thing in cementing veneer:

a. etching inner surface with … acid
b. etching inner surface with metallic acid
c. apply couple silane bonding

79. inlay, cavo-surface bevelled for

a. better margin adaptation

80. in amalgam, cavo-surface should be:

 a. 90º

81. retention means in amalgam class V:

a. axiogingival & axio occlusal

82. open proximal surface result from:

a. matrix too tight
b. insufficient wedging
c. insufficient condensation
d. filling adjacent tooth stimulation

83. cushion syndrome, all except:

a. buffalo hum
b. hirsurism
c- diabetes inspidious(mellitus)

84. to control saliva: to treat the dryness

a. pilocarpine
b. “neostigmia”

85. stimulated saliva more from:

a. parotid
b. submandibular
c. submaxillary
d. sublingual

86. infection from mandibular 3rd molar, may spread by direct extension into:
a. submassetric
b. submandibular
c. submental

87. in pulpotomy, intrapulpal anaesthesia is added in order to have “achieve” deep

anaesthesia to a severly inflamed pulp by:
a. increase concentration & vaso constriction
b. applying pressure of solution
c. to dissociate pKv

88. on cross section, smooth surface caries:

a. the apices toward the pulp

89. multifocular radiolucencies in lower molar region

a. ameloblastoma
 90. cementoblastoma
a. radiolucency in mandible anterior region
b. radioopacity in madibular anterior region

(radioopcity in mandibular posterior region)

91. confirmation diagnosis of keratocyst is by

a. aspiration
b. x-ray
c. histological

92. definite finding in radicular cyst

a. cholesterol cleft
b. epithelial linning
c. inflammatory cells

93. difference between acute periodontal abcess and acute apical abcess
a. pulp is vital

94. less radiation is from

a. 18 peri apical
b. Cephalometric
c. Panaromic
d. CT

95. beck of forceps should be placed:

a. on cervical line of tooth
b. should fit the crown
c. pushed lingually

96. exo of permanent molar is started buccally because

a. less bone dense buccally than palataly
b. to avoid sinus perforation
c. palatal root more long

97. for surgical exo of mandibular molar, nerve anaesthesia of inferior alveolar should
be accompanied by
a. lingual & long buccal

98. glutar – aldehyde is used to:

a. increase cross link … of dentin
b. to kill spors
c. to kill oral bacteria

99. to disinfect dentin in healthy tooth

a. none
 100. the efficiency of sterilization is measured by
a. bacteria
b. viruses
c. spores
d. fungal

101. disinfection of alginate

a. “sodium” hypochloride

102. washing hands before and after

a. reduce number of bacteria

103. manifestation of allergy is treated by:

a. phenohydramine

104. patient have allergy to latex is

a. excessive exposure to latex
b. allergy to banana, chestnut & avocado
c. bifid spina
d. exzema
e-all of above
105. most common benign neoplasm of salivary gland
a. pleomorphic adenoma
b. mucosile

106. inhalation anaesthesia is dependant on all except:

a. haemoglobin

107. patient with anaphylactic reaction to pencillin, other drug contracindicated

a. keflex (cephalosporin)

108. which of the following drugs has adverse affect if given with ingested antiacid
a. erythromycin
b. streptomycin
c. tetracycline
d. …

109. melanoma differ from racial pigmentation

a. it is macule
b. may show clinical changes
c. melanin pigment
 110. best prognosis is obtained with
a. melanoma
b. squamous cell carcinoma
c. basal cell carcinoma

111. carcinoma in situ is:

a. …

112. red smooth elevated nodule on tip of tongue is

a. haemangioma

113. thin vascular spaces:

a. haemangioma

114. most common site for squamous cell carcinoma is

a. gingival
b. mucosa
c. floor of the mouth
d. dorsal of the tongue

115. premalignant lesion:

a. hyperkeratosis
b. hyperparakeratosis
c. akanthosis - accanthosis
d. keratosis
e. dysplagia
116. hyperchromatosis with loss of increased nuclear ration abnormal mitosis
a. dysplasia

117. insulin dependent diabetic come to clinic sweating

a. hypoglycaemia

118. hypoglycaemic
a. tachycardia
b. mental confusing
c. nausea
d. sweating
all of the above
119. loss of space after loss of primary tooth most occur after
a. maxillary incisor
b. mandibular incisor
c. mandibular 1st premolar
d. maxillary 2nd premolar
120. diabetic patient with chest pain management:
a. nitroglycerine
b. 100% oxygen
c. monitor

121. patient with anaphylactic shock should be given epinephrine

a. reduce heart rate
b. relax breathing muscles
c. vaso constriction of vessel bed.

122. primary normal occlusion

a. …

123. maxillary unilateral incisor crossbite should be treated with

a. removable appliance

124. primary growth in mandible

a. genetic
b. epigenetic
c. functional
d. environmental

125. which of the following is diagnosed by smear

a. candida
b. lichen planus

126. epistein bar virus found in

a. infectious mono nucleosous
b. hairy leukoplakia

127. enlarged furred tongue found in:

a. downs disease

128. inclusion bodies

a. viral infection

129. periodontal cyst

a. displace adjacent teeth laterally
130. irreversible hydrocolloid should be removed with
a. quick snap

131. dimensional stability

a. decondensing silicon
b. siloxane

132. poly ether is dimensional stable if it is not in contact with

a. moist

133. Class III fillings adjacent teeth:

a. Prepare larger, fill up smaller

134. over denture:

a. preservation of ridge

135. over denture

a. pre-existing endo
b. crown root 1:1
c. extensive caries

136. in pits & fissures outline preparation of class II should be ruled by all except:
a. preparation include cusp & marginal ridge

137. endodontic treatment tooth with MOD best treated:

a. inlay
b. cast covering cusps

138. old patient pulp

a. increase fibrosis
b. increase pulp stone
c. obliterated pulp chamber
d. increased vascularity

139. primary stress bearing area in maxillary “complete” denture

a. residual ridge
b. palate
 140. distal extension of upper complete denture determined by
a. maxillary tuberosity
b. pova palatine
c. vibrating line
d. post palatal seal

141. dead tooth has:

a. internal resorption
b. external resorption

142. vital signs

a. pulse and respiration

143. tipping movement the centre of rotation

a. root apex
b. in apical third

144. dead tooth will show blunt root apex & bone
a. surface resrption
b. inflammatory response

145. extraction of teeth, elevator action

a. leavering action
b. wheel & …. Action
c. traction
d. …
I chose all of the above
146. in festonning chrom-steal crown which tooth
a. mandibular primary 1st molar

147. bond & etch

a. better retention
b. microleakage
c. reduce shrinkage

148. 2% lidocaine contain how much in mg drug

a. 2 mg
b. 20 mg
c. 200 mg
d. 2000 mg

149. in infection we should have

a. complete blood test
b. RBC
c. WBC
 d. haemoglobin

150. gold with lower temp liquid become solid:

a. expand
b. contract
c. cold hardens
d. …

151. occlusal rest site movement in

a. rotational
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. …

152. occlusal rest

a. traumatic forces parallel to long axis of tooth
b. fit in centric
c. rotational

153. reciprocal arm

a. counteract the forces of retentive
b. indirect retainer
c. …
d. …

154. microscopically in healthy gingivae

a. zone of cellular infiltrate
b. food decomposition

155. heavy cigarette smoking:

a. pigmentation of gingivae

156. metal – ceramic crown fracture in ceramic exposing metal due to

a. contamination of metal
b. excessive thickness of ceramic

157. vacuum used for ceramic:

a. less porosity

158. pontic to replace lower 6 should be

a. gingival embrasure open
b. convex in all directions
c. concave with gum
d. …

159. least irritant to gum:

a. polished gold
b. polished porcelain
c. polished acrylic
 d. overglazed porcelain

160. full crown gold not seating should check first:

a. proximal contact
b. occlusion
c. impression

161. infection in lower 3rd molar most likely spread to

a. submandibular
b. pterygomandibular
c. infratemporal

162. crown that satisfy the retention in posterior molar margin should be placed
a. supra gingivally
b. on enamel
c. on gingival margin
d. subgingivally

163. butt joint of metal – ceramic should be

a. 120 degree
b. 90 degree

164. crowns with no need for aesthetic or retention, margin should be placed
a. subgingivally
b. supragingivally
c. on enamel

165. mandibular 2nd(deciduous) molar is lost within normal shedding time mandibular 1st
molar will(permenant)
a. stay in its place
b. migrate mesially
c. migrate distally
d. migrate the same distance of maxillary 1st molar
166. in Class II cavity preparation for amalgam in primary teeth
a. axio-gingival line angle should be round

167. conjestive heart failure

a. epistaxis
b. short breath
c. rhino …
d. ankle pitting oedema

168. union of lip occur between

a. maxilla and lateral nasal
b. medial and lateral
c. …

169. teeth in calcification at birth:

a. all primary & permanent first molar
170. the early development of tooth
a. dental lamina
b. dental papilla
c. ..
d. …

171. in condensing spherical alloy

a. …
b. …
c. …
d. …
e. All of the above
172. herpes zoster
a. pain around the distribution of … nerve
b. bell’s pulsy
c. trigeminal neuralgia

173. manipulation of amalgam for safety

a. all of the above

174. when using rubber dam, the papillae merge from the hole
a. two holes too close together

175. renal stone & …

a. Addison disease
b. Hyperparathyrodism

176. reduced Calcium serum level stimulate the secretion of

a. parathyroid hormone

177. analysis of arch length during mixed dentition is important to estimate space for
a. canines
b. canines & premolars

178. mouth breathing cause

a. increased anterior height
b. increased anterior height and constriction of maxilla
c. increased anterior height and constriction of maxilla and anterior
crowding

179. ectodermal dysplasia

a. lack of sweat gland and fine hair
180. blue sclera
a. osteogenesis imperfecta

181. tirturation of amalgam is to

a. coat alloy particles with mercury

182. preparation of cavity for lower 1st premolar, floor of cavity should be inclined
a. buccally to lingually

183. ANUG & acute herpetic gingivostomatitis are differentiated from

a. Their location
b. Lymphoadenopathy
c. …

184. acute localized periodontal abcess treatment

a. root planning & scaling
b. occlusal regularised
c. antibiotics
d. analgesic

185. broad spectrum antibiotic

a. penicillin
b. amoxicillin
c. methecilin

186. penicillin active against

a. gram positive
b. gram negative
c. …
d. …

187. design of frame work for partial denture with speech problem:
a. narrow thick …
b. thin horse shoe
c. …

188. attraction between different molecules

a. adhesion
b. cohesion

189. mucous membrane of oral cavity

a. attach firmly on …
 190. design of periodontal flap
a. to heal
b. to remove epithelial lining of sulcus
c. to remove keratinized gingivae
d. …

191. ultrasonic scaler is used to remove

a. supragingival calculus

192. in chronic periodontitis the destruction of connective tissue occur directly

a. bacterial toxin
b. cytotoxin

193. lipid soluble vitamin

a. vitamin E antioxidant
b. vitamin C healing collagen formation
c. vitamin K for prothrombin
d. vitamin A for mucous membrane integrity
All of the above
194. the main fibers for perio is
a. collagen
b. …

195. intraosseous bone destruction happens in

a. bundle bone
b. cansellous bone
c. …
d. …

196. Vitamin C
a. For healing

197. the most common cause for ankylosis of TMJ

a. trauma
b. corticosteroid injection

198. when lateral pterygoid contract pull the disk

a. anteriorly and medially

199. most common cause of reccurence after orthodontic treatment

a. supracrestal fibers
200. sugar added to chewing gum
a. xylitol

201. penicillin & cephalosporin

a. same mechanism of action
b. cross allergosensitivity

202. after completion of crown “formation” trauma may cause

a. germination
b. fusion
c. dilacerations
d. hypoplasia

203. “mesodense” between centrals

a. Diastima
b. High frenum attachment

204. mobility of teeth, periodontal pockets

a. periodontitis

205. fainting is due to

a. cerebral hyperemia
b. cerebral hypoxia

206. centre of mandible growth

a. condyle
b. posterior border of ramus
c. …
d. …

207. interoccusal rest position is important for

a. measurement of “OVD”

208. primary muscle of the cheek

a. buccinators
b. masseter

209. most effective method of sterilization to kill all micro organisms

a. dry heat 120 degree
 b. autoclave for 20 minutes

210. condensing ostitis differ from cementoma:

a. …

211. hyper cementosis “most common in”

a. mandibular anterior
b. mandibular molar roots

212. in cutting bone with high spped without water

a. generate heat

213. best way to polish composite

a. aluminium disc
b. whit stone with pomice
c. carbide burr
d. diamond burr

214. cutting dentin with minimum effect on pulp, with slow speed with “air” water
a. air
b. water

215. difference of acute osteomylitis from osteosarcoma

a. high fever

216. survaing
a. all of the above

217. guiding plane is

a. parallel to the path of insertion

218. ankylosed primary tooth is

a. infra-occlusal

219. retained primary tooth & absence of successor

a. may remain for many years
220. drainage should be done for
a. cellulitis
b. fluctuant swelling

221. need for pulp protection depend on

a. thickness of dentin remaining

222. cementation of crown permanently the best cement:

a. glass inomer
b. composite resin

223. composite “temporary bridge” methylmetacrylate

a. wear resistance

224. benign tumor is

a. slowly growing

225. the main area of growth in mandible after 6 years is

a. posterior to 1st molar

226. we need a maximum coverage of upper complete denture to have

a. have … force per unit surface
b. place maximum number of artificial teeth
c. have strong base

227. badly carious lower 6 in child 8 years old

a. pulpotomy

228. complete obliteration of pulp is due to

a. trauma
b. chronic thermal irritation
c. large restoration

229. pulp polyp

a. badly carious
 b. open exposure
c. inflamed

230. face bow

a. maxillary hinge

231. rubber dam application

a. …

232. primary x-ray for endo

a. working length
b. shape of chamber and canals

233. anaesthesia doesn’t work with abscess

a. acidic

234. aspirin on mucosa

a. necrosis

235. profile of class III

a. concave

236. main cause of class III

a. hereditary

237. recessive chin

a. retrognatia

238. vitamin B12 deficiency

a. glossitis
b. pain
c. angular chilitis

239. angular chilitis treated with

a. nystatin
240. gingivitis is caused by
a. subgingival crown
b. over contour crown

241. exo of primary molars anaesthesia

a. infiltration

242. oral hygiene started in infant

a. with first tooth erupted

243. bite wing x-ray of mixed dentition is

a. from distal C to distal 6

244. cementoma
a. vitality test

245. difference of periodontal cyst and abscess

a. vitality test

246. protruded vesicles filled with RBC

a. haemangioma

247. haemangioma
a. not occur on bone
b. appears as cyst radiograph

248. to reduce radiation use

a. collimation

249. rudimentary tooth like structure in x-ray

a. compound odontoma
250. ameloblastoma most common
a. …

251. cross section from multiple radiolucency from posterior part of mandible contain
enamel structures
a. ameloblastoma

252. early loss of primary tooth result in closure of space in

a. upper lateral
b. lower first incisor
c. upper first premolar
d. lower second molar(deciduous)
253. increase perio disease in
a. open proximal contact

254. osteoporosis is common in

a. reduced oestrogen

255. sjorgen syndrome accompanied by

a. rheumatoid arthritis

256. stronger amalgam with

a. reduced mercury

257. SNA used to

a. Calculate maxilla protrusion

258. metallic salts is added to

a. …. To radioopacity

259. stone
 a. …

260. angular chilitis is due to

a. increased vertical dimension
b. reduced vertical dimension

261. “dermatological reaction of allergic reaction”

a. …

262. base luting for all ceramic crowns

a. glass inomer
b. reinforced glass inomer

263. café au lait with multiple neurofibromatosis

a. von reckling

264. reimplantation depend on

a. time

265. child 7 years old with deep fissures on molars

a. sealant

266. 45 years old with stained grooves

a. No treatment

267. space maintainer in high cariogenic kid, cementation

a. glass inomer

268. fracture during eating is due to

a. osteoporosis
b. big lesion in mandible
c. 3rd molar impacted