Pharmacist Prometric Exam Model 2010

This of the following drugs has anti- -1

:inflammatory effect used in arthritis
* Sulindac
Morphine
Pethidine
Ibuprofen

Has Antipyretic but without anti- -2

:inflammatory effect
Paracetamol

One of the following has -3

antihyperthyrodism & cause
:agranulocytosis
Thyroxin
Sodium Iodin
Triiodothyronin
Propylthiouracil

:Hypotonic solution cause -4

Haemolysis
Hypoglycemia
Shrinking
Hyperglycemia
Both a & b

benzoylchloride 250ml is 1:500, how -5

much water we have to add to make it
?1:2000
L, 0.25 L , 0.4 L , 2 L , 4 L 0.125
Pentoxifylline is pharmacologically -6
: classified as
Haemorrhologic agent

Linopril is : Lisinopril -7

Tea spoonful contain 7.5mg , if the -8

bottle contain 90 mg , How many dose
?can hav

pathway of the first pass effect is -9

:through
Hepatic vein to mesenteric vein
Mesenteric vein to hepatic artery
Gastric vein to portal vein

:cyclizine is used for -10

Nausea and vomiting

Norepinephrine side effect is : -11

Nausea and vomiting

alpha 1 blocker cause hypotension -12

side effect: prazocin

Advantage of dobutamine over -13

other drugs used cardiogenic shock
Don’t cause peripheral vasoconstriction

digoxine effect on ECG at the -14

:therapeutic dose
Prolong PR
dose of Vitamine C in Male: 400mg -15
(RNI) is 40 mg

dose of Vitamin C in femal: 400mg -16

(RNI) is 40 mg

a female take chronic warfarin, -17

:which is not true
.If pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT

most common ophthalmic dosages -18

:are
* Solution, Ointment, Suspension
Ointment, solution, suspension
Suspension, solution. Ointment

:Digoxine effect on the heart is -19

.decreased AV nodal activity

: Histamine action is -20

Gastric acid secretion

abbreviation of before meal: ac -21

abbreviation of after meal : pc -22
abbreviation of every night: on -23

Hydralazine action: vascular muscle -24

dilatation

two drugs that are with same -25

activity or are precursors but have
: different salt or ester or dosage form
Pharmaceutical equivalent
Pharmaceutical alternative
Bioequivalent
Bioavailable

for monitoring of warfarin: INR -26

: verapamil increase the effect of -27

..... ,Digoxin

:Class II antiarrhthmics are -28

Beta-Blocker

: action of Quinidine is same as -29

Lidocaine

Most common used solid dosage -30

: form
Tablets, soft gelatine capsule, hard
gelatine capsule

.Enoxaprin is administrated : SC -31

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These are the most important Questions

that I remembered from my Exam

As you study Hard, as your Exam will be

.easier
.Best wishes for all
What are the most common causes of a Trauma to the nose or a congenital
deviated septum? disproportion
________ fractures account for 40% of of
Nasal
bone injuries in facial traumas.
What is the most common type of nasal
Bilateral
fracture?
_______ nasal fractures typically produce
Unilateral
little or no disfigurement.
________ nasal fractures give the nose a
Bilateral
flattened look.
Powerful frontal blows to the face cause
________ fractures which may also
Complex
involved subsequent damage to adjacent
facial structures like the eyes or teeth.
What is the most common presenting sign
Epistaxis
of a nasal fracture?
A man comes to the ER after a rigorous
fight with his brother. His nose is bleeding
and he suspects it is broken. Once he's
cleaned up, you notice a clear fluid leaking
from his nose. You are concerned that it is Glucose
Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF), so you do a test
bedside. The test looks for the presence of
__________. If it is present, the fluid is
CSF.
How long could a patient have to wait to 5-10 days to allow time for significant
have a broken nose repaired? edema to resolve
Maintain the airway, reduce edema,
What are the goals of nursing management
prevent complications and provide
related to a nose fracture?
emotional support.
What is the best way to maintain the airway
Keep them upright.
in someone with a broken nose?
What is the best way to reduce swelling for Apply ice to the face and nose (which
a patient with a broken nose? also reduced bleeding).
________ is a surgical reconstruction of the
nose that is performed on an outpatient
basis to reshape the nose for cosmetic
Rhinoplasty
reasons or to improve airway function when
trauma or developmental deformities result
in nasal obstruction.
Assessment of a patient's __________ prior Expectations. Expected results should
to rhinoplasty is a critical component of be explained truthfully to avoid
preparation for the surgery. disappointment
The presence of a septal hematoma, Infection
whether from trauma or surgery, increases
the risk of _________.
Prior to nasal surgeries, clients should be
instructed not to take NSAIDS or aspirin
Two weeks
for _______ before the procedure to reduce
the risk of bleeding.
T/F A patient has undergone a rhinoplasty
and has developed ecchymosis and edema. False, these are common after a nasal
These findings need to be reported to the surgery
physician.
Which are groups are most likely to
Children under 10 and adults over 50
experience nosebleeds (epistaxis)?
T/F Hypertension increases the risk of False, but it does make bleeding (if it
epistaxis. occurs) more difficult to control
Endocardium (innermost layer),
What are the three layers of the heart? Myocardium (middle, muscular layer),
and the Epicardium (outermost layer)
Which part of the pericardium is in direct
contact with the epicaridum, the visceral Visceral layer
layer or the parietal layer?
Which part of the pericardium is in direct
contact with the mediastinum, the visceral The parietal layer
layer or the parietal layer?
What is the normal amount of fluid in
between the visceral and parietal layers of 10-30 ml
the pericardium?
Which ventricular wall is the thickest, the The left ventricular wall is 2-3 times
right or the left? thicker than the right.
The thickness of the ______ ventricle is
necessary to generate the force needed to
Left
pump the body's blood into systemic
circulation.
The _____ atrium of the heart receives
blood from the inferior and superior venae Right atrium
cavae and the coronary sinus.
Blood enters the right atrium. As the
atrium pressure increases the tricuspid
valves open allowing blood to flow into
Describe the flow of blood through the
the right ventricle. When the heart
right side of the heart, starting from the
contracts, the pulmonic valves open and
right atrium:
blood flows from the right ventricle
into the pulmonary circulation via the
pulmonary artery.
Describe the flow of blood from the left Pulmonary veins bring blood from the
side of the heart, starting with the left lungs and fills the left atrium. As the
 pressure builds, the mitral valve opens
allowing blood to enter the ventricle.
atrium: When the heart contracts, the aortic
valve opens and blood is pushed out to
the aorta
At what point is blood flow due to high When it enters the aorta and flows into
pressure? systemic circulation
What are the thin, fibrous tissues called that
attach the mitral and tricuspid valves to the The chordae tendineae (heart strings)
papillary muscles of the ventricles?
Which of the heart's valves are called the
The Pulmonic and Aortic
semilunar valves?
When does the heart receive most of its During diastole, when the heart is
blood, during systole or diastole? relaxed
The left coronary artery (which arises
What arteries supply blood to the left
from the aorta) and its two main
atrium, left ventricle, interventricular
branches: the left anterior descending
septum and part of the right ventricle?
artery and the left circumflex artery.
Which artery(ies) supplies blood to the
The right coronary artery (arising from
right atrium, right ventricle, and a portion
the aorta)
of the posterior wall of the left ventricle?
In 90% of the population, the ______ artery
Right coronary artery (arising from the
supplies blood to the Bundle of His and and
aorta)
the atrioventricular node (AV node).
Why does obstruction of the right coronary It supplies blood to the bundle of His
artery often lead to serious defects in the and the AV nodes (both part of the
coronary conduction system? conduction system)
The electrical impulse conducted through
Action Potential
the heart is called the...
The electrical impulse of the heart is
initiated in the ______, also called the SA Node
pacemaker of the heart.
SA Node-beginning Travels through
the atria to the AV node Bundle of His
Describe the general pathway of the
Left and Right Bundle Branches (splits
electrical current in the heart, starting with
along the septum into each of the
the SA Node...
ventricles) Purkinje Fibers (along the
ventricle walls) Ventricles contract
1
What is the most common cause of death
Lower respiratory diseases
in the world?
___________ is one of the most common
conditions seen in primary care and is
Acute bronchitis
usually a sequelae to an upper respiratory
infection.
A type of bronchitis that develops in
patients with COPD is called
___________, and it represents an acute Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Bronchitis
infection superimposed on chronic (AECB)
bronchitis. It can lead to respiratory
failure.
What are the organisms involved in most
It is usually viral: rhinovirus or influenza
cases of bronchitis?
What organisms are typically responsible Streptococcus pneumoniae or
for bacterial bronchitis in a smoker? Haemophilus influenzae
What organisms are typically responsible Mycoplasm pneumoniae or chlamydia
for bacterial bronchitis in a non-smoker? pneumoniae
How does an Xray of someone with Patients with bronchitis don't have
bronchitis look different than an Xray of inflitrates or consolidation like those with
someone with pneumonia? pneumonia
With broad spectrum antibiotics for 5-7
How is AECB in COPD patients days, the earlier they start the antibiotics,
typically treated? the lower the chances of relapse &
hospital admissions
_________ is an acute inflammation of
the lung parenchyma caused by a Pneumonia
microbial organism.
_______ is the leading cause of death
from an infectious disease in the United Pneumonia
States.
How does decreased levels of It depresses the cough and epiglottal
consciousness increase the risk of a reflexes, which may allow aspiration of
lower respiratory disease? oropharygeal contents into the lungs
How does tracheal intubation interfere It bypasses the filtration and
with the normal defense mechanisms that humidification provided by the upper
 airways and intereferes with the normal
protect the lower respiratory system?
mucoculiary mechanism and cough reflex.
What factors can impair the mucociliary -air pollution -cigarette smoking -viral
protective mechanism? (4) URIs -changes related to aging
_________ impairs the functions of
leukocytes and polymorphnuclear
Malnutrition
leukocytes in combating lower
respiratory infections.
Diseases like leukemia, diabetes mellitus
and alcoholism allow for the normal flora
of the oropharynx to be disrupted. The
presence of ________, which is not Gram negative bacilli
normally present, increases the risk of a
lower respiratory infection like
pneumonia.
-Altered consciousness from anesthesia
There are several medical interventions -Altered oropharyngeal flora from
that are considered a predisposing factor antibiotics -bed rest -Immunosuppressive
for pneumonia. They are: (6) drugs -NG or nasointestinal feeding tubes
-tracheal intubation
What are some environmental factors
that can predispose someone to -air pollution -smoking
pneumonia?
-Anything that causes altered
consciousness including strokes, seizures,
What are some diseases/medical head injuries, etc. -Prolonged immobility
conditions that predispose a patient to -Chronic diseases like lung disease,
pneumonia? diabetes, heart disease, cancer, etc. -Any
debilitating illness -HIV -URI
-Malnutrition
What is NOT a preventable predisposing
Aging
factor to pneumonia?
What are preventable predisposing
-Smoking -Alcholism -Malnutrition
factors for pneumonia?