Sunteți pe pagina 1din 16

Chapter 4

Of Tests and Testing

1. Measurement can be defined as


*a. the assignment of numbers or symbols to characteristics of objects/people.
b. the administering and scoring of psychological tests.
c. the process of determining the reliability and validity of tests.
d. the observation of behavior in a controlled environment.
Topic: Assumption 2

2. A trait can best be described as


a. an observable behavior.
b. a biological phenomenon.
*c. a construct.
d. what a test measures.
Topic: Assumption 1

3. Which of the following is a psychological trait?


a. eye color
b. hair color
c. skin color
*d. none of the above
Topic: Assumption 1

4. Which of the following is an example of a psychological trait?


a. eye color
*b. aggressiveness
c. skin color
d. none of the above
Topic: Assumption 1

5. How are states different from traits?


a. A trait is biologically determined whereas a state in environmentally determined.
b. A trait is measurable whereas a state is not.
*c. A trait is relatively enduring whereas a state is relatively short-lived.
d. A trait is unchangeable whereas a state is easily influenced.
Topic: Assumption 1

6. How is a characteristic of an individual that is a trait different from a characteristic on an


individual that is not a trait?
a. A trait is inborn and heritable whereas a nontrait is learned.
*b. A trait varies from one person to another whereas a nontrait does not.
c. A trait is measured objectively whereas a nontrait is assessed subjectively.
d. A trait can be measured accurately whereas a nontrait is difficult to measure with
consistency.
Topic: Assumption 1

7. Which of the following is based on the assumption that the more correct answers an
examinee scores on an intelligence test, the more intelligent is the examinee?
a. a Galtonian model of scoring
*b. the cumulative model of scoring
c. an objective method of scoring
d. the Mensa method of scoring
Topic: Assumption 2

8. A basic assumption of all scaling is that


*a. traits and states can be quantified and measured.
b. traits and states never truly be understood except by the person who experiences
them.
c. traits and states are only measurable in human beings.
d. measures developed in one culture have no meaning in other cultures.
Topic: Assumption 2

9. Assigning numbers in accordance with empirical properties of objects or traits is referred


to as
a. measuring.
b. quantifying.
*c. scaling.
d. sampling.
Topic: Assumption 2

10. Referring to a psychological trait as a construct means that it


a. is not a valid idea.
b. has few practical applications.
c. was developed by naturalistic observation rather than rational, systematic theorizing.
*d. is an informed, scientific concept developed to describe or explain behavior.
Topic: Assumption 2

11. Which of the following is FALSE?


a. Overt behavior is observable.
b. Constructs are ideas rather than observable actions.
*c. Constructs are only used when behavior is not observable.
d. The existence of a construct can be inferred from overt behavior.
Topic: Assumption 2

12. The manifestation of a trait is NOT dependent on


a. the strength of the trait.
b. the situation.
*c. lunar cycles.
d. genetics.
Topic: Twelve assumptions in psychological testing and assessment: Assumptions 1 and 2

13. In which specialty of psychology would psychological tests be MOST likely be used to
postdict rather than predict behavior?
a. consumer psychology
b. educational psychology
c. engineering psychology
*d. forensic psychology
Topic: Assumption 3

14. Typically, which of the following is the primary objective of psychological testing and
assessment?
a. to measure a trait
*b. to predict future behavior
c. to obtain a score on a test
d. to observe a sample of behavior
Topic: Assumption 3
15. Assessment professionals who use tests without understanding the limitations of the tests
they use probably are
a. evil.
*b. violating ethical codes made clear in the codes of ethics of associations of assessment
professionals.
c. well-meaning but bumbling idiots.
d. psychiatrists rather than psychologists.
Topic: Assumption 4

16. Which of the following is true about the concept of error in psychological measurement?
a. It represents a mistake.
b. It refers to deliberate misrepresentation of results rather than carelessness in
measurement.
*c. It is an expected component of measurement.
d. It can be eliminated only by careful, vigilant professionalism on the part of the
evaluator.
Topic: Assumption 5

17. Any influence on psychological test scores from factors other than what the test is intended
to measure are referred to as
a. spuriousness.
*b. error.
c. bias.
d. construct-irrelevant variance.
Topic: Assumption 5

18 Classical Test Theory assumes that


*a. each testtaker has a true score that would have been obtained if not for measurement
error.
b. people can be ranked according to the level of a trait they exhibit but psychological
measurement cannot truly measure traits in the same way as we can measure
physical properties of objects such as height and weight.
c. measurement can be perfectly accurate if the measure is well-constructed.
d. Mozart is better than Stravinski.
Topic: Assumption 5

19. Which of the following is FALSE?


a. Some problems related to test fairness are more political than psychometric in nature.
b. Using psychological tests with people of some cultural backgrounds is controversial.
c. It is possible to use a test in an unfair manner for people of some cultural
backgrounds.
*d. Despite decades of complaints from activists and concerned citizens, most major test
developers have been relatively insensitive to issues of test fairness.
Topic: Assumption 6

20. Of the following, which best characterizes what “validity” refers to?
*a. how a test is used
b. how a test is scored
c. how a scale is scaled
d. how a test is normed
Topic: What’s a good test? Validity

21. A norm group is a group


a. for whom the test is appropriate.
b. with whose scores the test results are being compared.
c. that is typically described in the test manual.
*d. all of the above
Topic: What’s a good test? Other considerations

22. “Norms” refers to


a. average scores of the norm group.
b. the typical performance of the norm group.
*c. scores with which the results of measurement can be compared.
d. the standards of the test developer.
Topic: What’s a good test? Other considerations

23. A test designed to yield information about whether or not a student has mastered the
ability to multiply two-digit numbers would be referred to as
a. norm-referenced.
*b. criterion-referenced.
c. standardized.
d. all of the above
Topic: What’s a good test? Other considerations

24. An applicant for a job with the postal service scores in the top 5% of applicants on a test of
ability to sort mail quickly and accurately. This is an example of
*a. norm-referenced assessment.
b. criterion-referenced assessment.
c. behavioral assessment.
d. an individual who may one day “go postal.”
Topic: What’s a good test? Other considerations

25. If a controversy exists over the definition of the trait being measured by a psychological
test, questions are most likely being raised relative to the __________ of the test.
a. reliability
*b. validity
c. standardization
d. all of the above
Topic: What’s a good test?

26. A test that yields information about a testtaker’s relative standing in a group is referred to
as
a. criterion-referenced.
*b. norm-referenced.
c. standardized.
d. all of the above
Topic: What’s a good test?

27. Which of the following represents the most important issue when using a norm-referenced
as compared with a criterion-referenced test?
a. the definition of the criterion being used by the test developer
b. the theory that the test is based on
*c. the question of whom the testtaker is being compared
d. the issue of the reliability and validity of the test
Topic: What’s a good test?

28. __________ is a tool used to estimate or infer how far an observed score deviates from a
true score.
a. The standard deviation
b. A measure of central tendency
c. The variance
*d. A standard error of measurement
Topic: Close-Up: Error of measurement and the true score model

29. Standard error of measurement is best associated with which of the following?
a. validity
*b. reliability
c. test standardization
d. test administration
Topic: Close-Up: Error of measurement and the true score model

30. A test is considered “standardized” if it includes


a. clearly specified procedures for administration.
b. clearly specified procedures for scoring.
c. normative data.
*d. all of the above
Topic: Standardization and norming

31. Which of the following is true of a “population” in the statistical sense?


a. It is the least frequent observable characteristic within a sample.
*b. It may include as few as two homebound students.
c. It has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 0.
d. all of the above
Topic: Standardization and norming

32. Which of the following is always true of a sample in the statistical sense?
*a. It can never be greater in number than the population from which it is drawn.
b. It will have a standard deviation that approximates the average deviation of the
population.
c. They are frequently distributed normally.
d. They are frequently distributed gratuitously at Sam’s Club and other chain stores.
Topic: Standardization and norming

33. The type of sample that is convenient or available for use is referred to as
*a. an incidental sample.
b. a stratified sample.
c. a coincidental sample.
d. a random sample.
Topic: Standardization and norming

34. Using college students enrolled in Introductory Psychology as research subjects is


frequently an example of
*a. an incidental sample.
b. a stratified sample.
c. a coincidental sample.
d. a random sample.
Topic: Standardization and norming

35. Sampling all different subgroups within a population is an example of


a. random sampling.
*b. stratified sampling.
c. incidental sampling.
d. purposive sampling.
Topic: Standardization and norming

36. Which of the following is true related to norms?


a. The norms must represent future testtakers.
b. The Code of Fair Testing Practices states what test developers should include in the
description of the norms they collect.
c. Test developers should describe the population represented by the norms.
*d. All of the above are true.
Topic: Standardization and norming

37. Deciles divide a distribution into ________ equal parts.


a. five
*b. ten
c. one hundred
d. none of the above
Topic: Types of norms: Percentiles

38. Percentiles divide a distribution into ________ equal parts.


a. five
b. ten
c. one thousand
*d. one hundred
Topic: Types of norms: Percentiles

39. The twentieth percentile represents


a. the score at or below which 80% of the scores in the distribution fall.
b. that the examinee correctly answered 80% of the questions on the test.
*c. the score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall.
d. that the examinee correctly answered 20% of the questions on the test.
Topic: Types of norms: Percentiles

40. The actual raw score difference between the 50th and 55th percentiles compared with the
90th and 95th percentiles is likely to be
a. the same.
b. larger.
*c. smaller.
d. cannot determine
Topic: Types of norms: Percentiles

41. Age norms are synonymous with


*a. age-equivalent scores.
b. age-derived scores.
c. standard scores.
d. none of the above
Topic: Types of norms: Age norms

42. Which of the following is true of age norms?


a. They enjoy wide acceptance for both physical and psychological characteristics.
*b. They enjoy wide acceptance for physical but not psychological characteristics.
c. They enjoy wide acceptance for psychological but not physical characteristics.
d. They enjoy wide acceptance in the teen years but decline in popularity with age.
Topic: Types of norms: Age norms
43. Which of the following would be true for a third-grade student who earned a grade-
equivalent score of 5.0 on a standardized test of mathematics?
a. She has the same mathematics ability as the average fifth-grade student in her school.
b. It would be advisable to enroll her in a fifth-grade math class.
*c. She performed similarly to a hypothetical fifth-grade student.
d. none of the above
Topic: Types of norms: Grade norms

44. Psychometricians have expressed reservations about the use of


a. age norms.
b. percentiles.
c. grade norms.
*d. a and c
Topic: Types of norms

45. A typical variable of interest in developing national norms is


a. geographical location.
b. race.
*c. a and b.
d. none of the above
Topic: Types of norms: National norms

46. You are the personnel director of a small theological seminary in Bayonne, New Jersey.
You have just administered a nationally standardized measure of values to new applicants
and are most likely to be interested in checking the applicants’ performance against
a. national norms.
b. national anchor norms.
*c. local norms.
d. anchor norms.
Topic: Types of norms

47. Which of the following is true of fixed reference group scoring systems?
a. They are composed solely of people sharing a common characteristic, such as
personality type.
b. They are norm groups used by all major publishers of intelligence and educational
tests.
*c. Such systems involve the comparison of one group of testtakers with all future
groups of testtakers.
d. Such systems involve the comparison of one group of testtakers with a matched
group who took the test in the same year.
Topic: Types of norms: Fixed reference group scoring systems

48. Which of the following standardized tests employs a fixed reference group?
*a. SAT
b. ACT
c. MAT
d. COD
Topic: Types of norms: Fixed reference group scoring systems

49. In the Everyday Psychometrics entry relating to the Graduate Record Examination (GRE),
Dexter’s performance on the GRE was compared to which of the following?
a. those who took the GRE on the same day as Dexter
b. those who took the GRE in the same year as Dexter
*c. those who took the GRE in 1952
d. those who took the GRE in the last decade
Topic: Everyday Psychometrics: Good ol’ norms and the GRE

50. Which of the following is TRUE of norms and the Graduate Record Examination (GRE)?
a. Norms are only available for a fixed reference group.
b. Norms are available only for the current group who took the GRE.
c. Norms are available only for those who took the GRE within the last decade.
*d. Norms are available for the group that took the GRE in 1952 and the current group of
students taking the GRE.
Topic: Everyday Psychometrics: Good ol’ norms and the GRE

51. The fixed reference norm group of the Graduate Record Examination (GRE) is based upon
which of the following?
*a. Those who took the GRE in 1952.
b. Those who took the GRE within the past decade.
c. Those who took the GRE with in the past year.
d. None of the above describe the fixed reference norm group of the GRE.
Topic: Everyday Psychometrics: Good ol’ norms and the GRE

52. Which type of information does a norm-referenced type of test yield?


a. information indicating that the examinee has the eye-hand coordination skills
necessary to operate a particular piece of dangerous machinery
*b. information indicating that the examinee scored above 90% of individuals who took
the test
c. a and b
d. none of the above
Topic: Types of norms: Norm-referenced versus criterion-referenced interpretation

53 Which is probably most appropriate for the use of criterion-referenced tests?


a. testing achievement in advanced mathematical logic for a graduate-level course
*b. testing knowledge of basic traffic signs and signals for a driver’s license
c. a testing program to award college athletic scholarships
d. a testing program to reward a company’s top salespeople
Topic: Types of norms: Norm-referenced versus criterion-referenced interpretation

54. Which of the following is true of criterion-referenced testing?


*a. It is useful for communicating information regarding the mastery of basic skills such
as reading and writing.
b. It has been found to be extremely valuable in conveying information about a
student’s level of creativity relative to other students.
c. It is not a well-accepted method of testing in areas such as mastery of word
processing programs.
d. Identifying valid criteria has been found to be extremely difficult.
Topic: Types of norms: Norm-referenced versus criterion-referenced evaluation

55. Correlation coefficients range from ___________ to ___________.


*a. +1; –1
b. .01; .05
c. 0; infinity
d. –10; +10
Topic: The concept of correlation

56. Which statement is true concerning a coefficient of correlation?


a. A correlation coefficient is an index of the causal relationship between two variables.
*b. A correlation coefficient may be useful in prediction.
c. A correlation coefficient provides information about the mean score in the
distribution.
d. all of the above
Topic: The concept of correlation

57. Generally, what type of correlation exists between amount of study time a student studies
for an achievement test and that student’s performance on the achievement test?
a. a strong inverse relationship
b. a negative correlation
*c. a positive correlation
d. little or no correlation
Topic: The concept of correlation

58. Generally, which correlation coefficient probably best reflects the relationship between
number of calories consumed and body weight?
a. +1.00
b. –1.00
*c. +.8
d. –.8
Topic: The concept of correlation

59. A perfect correlation would be indicated by


a. +1.00.
b. –1.00.
c. 0.
*d. a and b.
Topic: The concept of correlation

60. A correlation coefficient equal to –.98 would indicate


a. a weak inverse relationship between the two variables.
b. a weak direct relationship between the two variables.
*c. a strong inverse relationship between the two variables.
d. a strong direct relationship between the two variables.
Topic: The concept of correlation

61. Charles Spearman is credited with which of the following?


a. developing a type of correlation coefficient
b. developing a way to predict the accuracy of a test
c. developing factor analysis
*d. all of the above
Topic: Charles Spearman

62. Which of the following is true of the Pearson r?


a. It has a distribution that approximates the tetrachoric r if the data are not linear.
*b. It is legitimately used only when the two variables are linear.
c. Pearson actually had very little to do with its development.
d. It can never be larger than the Spearman rho if the data represent two true
dichotomies.
Topic: The Pearson r

63 Which of the following is used in the computation of the Pearson correlation coefficient?
*a. standard scores for both variables
b. standard scores for one variable and percentiles for the other
c. percentiles for both variables
d. raw scores for each variable
Topic: The Pearson r

64. A correlation coefficient that is significant at the .01 level tells you which of the following?
a. It has a 99% chance of being accurate.
*b. It could have been expected to occur by chance alone one time or less in a hundred.
c. It could have been expected to occur by chance alone ninety-nine times or more in a
hundred.
d. It probably accounts for about 1% of the variance.
Topic: The concept of correlation

65. If the correlation coefficient is equal to .30, the coefficient of determination is equal to
a. the sum of the deviations about the mean squared.
b. .30.
c. the square root of 3 percent.
*d. none of the above
Topic: The Pearson r

66. The coefficient of determination is calculated by


a. multiplying the correlation coefficient by 100.
*b. squaring the correlation coefficient and multiplying by 100.
c. multiplying the correlation coefficient by the sample size.
d. squaring the mean of each of the two variables and adding them together.
Topic: The Pearson r

67. What is the relationship between the coefficient of determination and the correlation
coefficient?
*a. The larger the correlation coefficient, the larger the coefficient of determination.
b. The larger the correlation coefficient, the smaller the coefficient of determination.
c. The coefficient of determination is used to determine the coefficient of correlation.
d. The larger the correlation coefficient, the more variance can be attributed to error or
chance.
Topic: The Pearson r

68. The correlation coefficient that is frequently used when both sets of measurements are in
rank-order form and when fewer than 30 pairs of measurements are involved is called
a. the Pearson r.
b. the tetrachoric r.
*c. the Spearman rho.
d. the ROTC.
Topic: The Spearman rho

69. What is the typical correlation coefficient used when two variables are ordinal?
*a. the Spearman rho
b. the Mooney-O
c. the Pearson r
d. none of the above
Topic: The Spearman rho

70. Which of the following is most directly associated with the process of predicting scores
using regression techniques?
*a. a standard error of the estimate
b. a standard error of the mean
c. a standard error of measurement
d. a standard error of the difference
Topic: Regression

71. The statistical combination of information across studies is referred to as


a. simple regression.
*b. meta-analysis.
c. regression.
d. incremental validity.
Topic: Meta-analysis

72. What is the difference between simple and multiple regression?


a. Simple regression involves one group of subjects; multiple regression involves more
than one group of subjects.
b. Simple regression involves one variable that is being predicted; multiple regression
involves more than one variable that is being predicted.
c. Simple regression is based on correlational techniques; multiple regression is not.
*d. Simple regression involves one predictor variable; multiple regression involves more
than one predictor variable.
Topic: Regression

73. A psychologist working in a mental hospital is interested in predicting suicide risk from
three variables: severity of current depression, duration of current depression, and number
of previous suicide attempts. The psychologist gathers information on these variables for
100 subjects and wants to combine the information in such a way that suicide risk is most
accurately predicted. An appropriate statistical technique would be
a. meta-analysis.
b. simple regression.
*c. multiple regression.
d. incremental validity.
Topic: Multiple regression

74. If the computed value of the correlation coefficient for two variables, X and Y, is zero,
what would the resulting scatterplot look like?
a. upward, sloping to the left
b. downward, sloping to the right
c. upward, sloping to the right
*d. none of the above
Topic: Graphic representations of correlation

75. A scatterplot pointing upward and sloping to the right would indicate which degree of
relationship between two variables?
*a. a strong positive relationship
b. a strong negative relationship
c. a strong inverse relationship
d. a weak or no relationship
Topic: Graphic representations of correlation

76. For a graphic representation of correlations, which of the following could be used to
compute the degree of curvilinearity?
a. coefficient beta
b. coefficient alpha
*c. eta squared
d. gamma cubed
Topic: Graphic representations of correlation
77. Which of the following is a term for an extremely atypical score that can sometimes
provide a hint regarding some deficiency in the testing or scoring procedures?
a. a nonlinear plot point
b. a standard error
*c. an outlier
d. an error
Topic: Graphic representations of correlation

78. Which statement is true regarding a regression equation?


a. A regression equation is used to predict the value of the correlation coefficient.
b. A regression equation is used to predict the value of the coefficient of determination.
c. A regression equation is used to predict the value of the independent variable.
*d. A regression equation is used to predict the value of a dependent variable.
Topic: Regression

79. What is the relationship between the correlation coefficient and the standard error of
estimate?
a. It is a positive relationship.
*b. It is a negative or inverse relationship.
c. No relationship exists.
d. A relationship exists only when the correlation is positive.
Topic: Regression

80. Which of the following is true of multiple regression?


a. It always involves one independent variable and two or more dependent variables.
*b. It always involves one dependent variable and two or more independent variables.
c. It is a technique that will consistently contain more errors than simple regression.
d. It is a technique that will consistently yield two or more regression lines.
Topic: Regression

81. Regression refers to which of the following?


a. the mean and the standard deviation of a distribution
*b. an analysis of relationships among different variables
c. the relationship between an independent variable known as a predictor and a
dependent variable referred to an outcome variable
d. a category of norms
Topic: Regression

82. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended sampling techniques used to
obtain a standardization sample?
*a. volunteer sampling
b. stratified sampling
c. purposive sampling
d. all of the above are recommended
Topic: The normative or standardization sample

83. Which of the following is true of norms?


a. Norms should be expressed as normalized raw scores.
*b. Norms may be expressed as percentiles, age norms, or grade norms.
c. Under most conditions, norms should not be expressed as percentiles.
d. It is recommended that norms be expressed as age norms.
Topic: Types of norms

84. Raw scores may be converted to norms


*a. so that the scores are more easily interpreted and communicated to others.
b. so that scores from members of different groups may be evaluated fairly.
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
Topic: Types of norms: Raw score

85. The number of items answered correctly on an achievement test would be an example of
what type of score?
*a. raw score
b. standard score
c. percentile rank
d. cut-off score
Topic: Types of norms: Raw score

86. A raw score of zero on a test could suggest to the examiner which of the following?
a. The individual did not possess any of the construct/ability being assessed by the test.
b. The individual did not understand the instructions or was not physically capable of
responding.
c. The individual did not hear the instructions.
*d. all of the above
Topic: Types of norms: Raw score

87. The number of questions suggesting anxiety endorsed by the testtaker would be an
example of what type of score?
*a. raw score
b. standard score
c. percentile rank
d. cut-off score
Topic: Types of norms: Raw score

88. The number corresponding to a grade of A on your next psychological measurement exam
would be an example of what type of score?
a. raw score
b. standard score
c. percentile rank
*d. cut-off score
Topic: Types of norms: Cut-off score

89. The number corresponding to a Pass on a state teacher certification examination would be
an example of what type of score?
a. raw score
b. standard score
c. percentile rank
*d. cut-off score
Topic: Types of norms: Cut-off score

90. When two tests are normed on the same sample, it is referred to as which of the following?
a. bi-norming
b. representative norming
*c. co-norming
d. You cannot norm two tests on one sample.
Topic: Types of norms
91. You administer a psychological test to a child and convert the testtaker’s raw scores to
percentiles even though age and grade norms are provided in the manual. What rationale
can you provide for your decision to report the scores as percentiles rather than age or
grade norms?
a. Percentiles accurately communicate the percentage of items the testtaker answered
correctly.
*b. Age and grade norms tend to be misinterpreted by the general public.
c. There is no distortion of the distribution of raw scores when they are converted to
percentiles.
d. Percentiles are easily converted into percentage correct, which is more familiar to the
general public.
Topic: Types of norms

92. With a norm-referenced approach to testing, the testtaker’s scores are compared with
*a. the scores of other individuals who were administered the test.
b. a standard of excellence determined by experts in the area.
c. a criterion decided upon by the test developer.
d. the scores of other individuals who were administered the test in 1953.
Topic: Norm-referenced versus criterion-referenced interpretation

93. Unlike norm-referenced interpretation, criterion-referenced interpretation


a. requires that the testtaker’s score be compared with a matched sample.
b. describes test performance in terms of a testtaker’s relative standing in a group.
c. relies on percentile as opposed to grade or age norms.
*d. describes a testtaker’s performance in terms of predetermined standards.
Topic: Norm-referenced versus criterion-referenced interpretation

94. Regarding norm-referenced and criterion-referenced testing,


a. norm-referenced testing is superior.
b. criterion-referenced testing is superior.
*c. each can be appropriate, depending on what type of information is desired.
d. based on the latest research, neither approach is recommended.
Topic: Norm-referenced versus criterion-referenced interpretation

95. Which of the following statements is true concerning a correlation coefficient?


*a. A restricted range in either correlated variable makes the computed correlation
lower.
b. A correlation coefficient provides information regarding causation.
c. No meaning is attached to the sign of a correlation coefficient, since the coefficient is
ultimately squared.
d. Restriction of range is now illegal in the 48 contiguous states.
Topic: Correlation

96. When the results of a test for a specific person are presented in terms of percentiles, we
have direct information about
a. that person’s ability or skill in the area assessed.
*b. that person’s performance relative to a group.
c. the proportion of test items answered correctly by that person.
d. whether that person has fulfilled specific study objectives.
Topic: Types of norms: Percentiles

97. National anchor norms allow for comparisons between


a. several students taking the same test.
*b. one student and a national sample of others taking the same test.
c. a student’s scores on a battery of tests as compared to a national sample who took the
same battery.
d. a high school senior and graduates of the U.S. Naval Academy at Annapolis.
Topic: Types of norms: National anchor norms r

98. Among school-age children, as age increases, so do reading skills. This is an example of
*a. a positive correlation.
b. a negative correlation.
c. a zero correlation.
d. cannot determine based on information presented
Topic: Correlation

99. A correlation coefficient is equal to .30. Using the concept of coefficient of determination,
the variance accounted for by chance, error, and other unexplained factors would be
*a. approximately 91%.
b. approximately 60%.
c. approximately 10%.
d. approximately the square root of 0.30.
Topic: The Pearson r

S-ar putea să vă placă și